VELAMMAL VIDHYASHRAM –SURAPET

GRADE 12
DAY 1 REVISION-18.9.2024
UNIT -2 ELECTROCHEMISTRY

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Cell reaction is spontaneous in
a. ∆G0 is negative b.∆H0 is positive c.∆E0 is positive d.∆E0 is
negative
Which of the following is correct?
a. 1,3 b.2,4 c.1,4 d.1,2,3
2. How much charge in F is required for the reduction of 1 equivalent of
Zn+2 to Zn?
a. 1F b.2F c.3F d.4F
3. How much time would be needed to deposit 0.25g of metallic Ni(Atomic
mass =58.5) on a metal object using a current of 1A during
electroplating.
a. 1.374min b.137.4min c.0.1374min d.13.74min
4. Electrolysis of Dil. H2SO4 liberates gases at anode and cathode
respectively
b. O2,SO2 b.SO2,O2 c.O2,H2 d.H2,SO2
5. Select the cell that is not rechargeable
a. Hydrogen-Oxygen fuel cell b.Lead storgae battery
c.Leclanche cell d.Lithium battery

6. Select the incorrect statement

a. On increasing dilution specific conductance increases.
b. On increasing dilution equivalent conductance increases.
c. A standard hydrogen electrodes has zero potential.
d. None of the above.

7. Ionic conductance in aqueous solution at infinite dilution at 298K is

maximum for
a. H b. Na+ c. OH- d. Li+
+

8. The Nernst equation E =E0 – RT/nF log Q indicates that Q will be equal
to equilibrium constant Kc, when
a. E =E0 b. RT/nF = 1 c. E=0 d. E0=1

9. Which of the following solution will have highest specific conductance?

a. 0.01 M CH3COOH b.0.01 M NH4OH c.0.01 M NaCl d.0.01 M K2SO4

10. In the galvanic cell, true statement is

a. Current flows from anode to cathode
b. Anode is positive terminal.
c. Cathode is positive terminal.
d. None of the above.
 11. The saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt bridge because
a. Velocity of K+ is greater than NO3-
b. Velocity of NO3- is greater than K+.
c. Velocity of K+ and NO3- are nearly same.
d. KNO3 is highly soluble in water.

12. Corrosion is basically

a. Altered reaction in presence of water.
b. Electrochemical phenomenon.
c. Union between two light metals and a heavy metal.
d. Self oxidation and reduction.

13. In a mercury cell, product at anode is

a. HgO b.Hg c.ZnO d.Zn(Hg)

14. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is
not possible. It is because
a. Zinc is lighter than iron.
b. Zinc has lower melting point than iron.
c. Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron.
d. Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron.

15. The electrical work done is

a. nFG b.nFE c.nFS d.all
b. Ans:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a a d c c a a c d c
11 12 13 14 15
c b c d b

I ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS: 5X1=5

1. Assertion : The resistivity for a substance is its resistance when it is one meter long
and its area of cross section is one square meter.
Reason : The SI units of resistivity is ohm metre ( m).
2. Assertion : On increasing dilution, the specific conductance keep on increasing.
Reason : On increasing dilution, degree of ionisation of weak electrolyte increases
and molality of ions also increases.
3. Assertion : Galvanised iron does not rust.
Reason : Zinc has a more negative electrode potential than iron.
4. Assertion: In an electrochemical cell anode and cathode are respectively negative and
positive electrodes.
Reason: At anode oxidation takes place and at cathode reduction takes place.
5. Assertion: Salts like KCl, KNO3 i.e., inert electrolytes are used in salt bridge.
Reason: An inert electrolyte can easily be filled in the U tube.

II SHORT ANSWERS: (EACH QUESTION CARRIES 2M) 5X2=10

6.Calculate the time to deposit 1.17 g of Ni at cathode when a current of 5 A was passed
through the solution of Ni(NO3)2. (Molar mass of Ni = 58.5 g mol-1, 1 F = 96500 C mol-1).
7. Calculate emf of the following cell at 25 °C:
Fe | Fe2+(0.001 M) 11 H+(0.01 M) | H2(g) (1 bar) | Pt(s)
E°(Fe2+|Fe) = -0.44V, E°(H+|H2) = 0.00 V

8. Define the following terms:

(i) Molar conductivity (Λm) (ii) Secondary batteries

9. State Kohlrausch law of independent t migration of ions. Why does the conductivity of a solution
decrease with dilution?

10. (a) Predict the products of electrolysis in each of the following:

(i) An aqueous solution of AgNO3 with platinum electrode.
(it) An aqueous solution of H2S04 using platinum electrode.

UNIT – 3 CHEMICAL KINETICS

Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Decomposition of NH3 on Pt surface is an example of
(a) zero order (b) 1st order (c) 2nd order (d) none
2. Select incorrect statement
(a) Half life period of all reactions decreases with increase in temperature
(b) Half life Pd of 1st order reaction is always constant
(c) Higher is rate constant, lesser will be energy of activation
(d) Rate of reaction whether exothermic or endothermic usually increases with
temperature
3. The rate constants of three reactions involving reactant A only obeying I,II,III order
respectively is same which of the following is true
(a) r3 > r2 > r1 if [A] > 1 (b) r1 > r2 > r3 if [A] < 1
(c) r1 = r2 = r3 if [A] = 1 (d) all
4. Temperature coefficient of two reactions are 2 &3 which would be correct for these
reactions
(a) E a1  E a2 (b) E a1  Ea2 (c) E a1 = Ea2 (d) none
5. if half life of a 1st order reaction is t/2 what is time period required for completion upto
75% reaction
(a) t = 2 t/2 (b) t = 3 t/2 (c) t = 4 t/2 (d) t = 10 t/2
6. Which is an example of pseudounimolecular reaction
(a) Hydrolysis of an ester (b) inversion of cane sugar
(c) Soaponification of an ester (d) a & b both
7. The moderate reaction is
(a) Neutralisation of acid and base (b) Precipitation of AgCl by action of AgNO 3&
NaCl
(c) Synthesis of HCl by action of H2& Cl2 in presence of sun light (d) None
8. For the reaction
N2O4 → 2NO2 calculate rate of appearance of NO2 (in atm minute-1) when initial
pressure of N2O4 is reduced from 0.5 atm to 0.25 atm in 5 minutes
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.3
9. If in a chemical reaction A + B + C → product when A is 1st order B in IInd order and
C in zero order if concern of each reactant is doubled then rate of reaction becomes
(a) r2 = 4r1 (b) r2 = 8r1 (c) r2 = 16r1 (d) r2 = 2r1
10. Molecularity of reaction is applicable for only
(a) elementary reactions (b) complex reaction (c) Parallel reactions (d) Consecutive
reaction
11. The reaction which an example of 2nd order
(a) 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 (b) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
 (c) KClO3 + 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4 → KCl +3 Fe2(SO4)3 + 3H2O (d) all

12. The reaction which is zero order

(a) H2+Cl2 ⎯⎯→ 2HCl b) 2HI ⎯⎯→ H2+I2 (c) 2NH3 ⎯⎯→ N2+3H2(d) All
hv Au Pt

13. For which part of completion of 1st of order of reaction is ten times of half life Pd
(a) 90% (b) 99% (c) 99.9% (d) 99.99%
−3
14. A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15  10 sec-1 if 5gm of reactant reduced to
3gm. The time period required is
(a) 250 sec (b) 300 sec c) 400 sec (d) 275 sec
15. In a reaction A + B → product
[A] [B] rate – (mol litre-1sec-1)
1. 0.20 0.30 5.07  10-5
2. 0.20 0.10 5.07  10-5
3. 0.40 0.05 1.43  10-3
On the basis of above data find order of reaction
(a) 3/2 (b) 2/3 (c) 5/2 (c) ½
Answer Key
1 a 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 a
6 d 7 d 8 a 9 b 10 a
11 c 12 d 13 c 14 c 15 a

ASSERTION -REASON
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
1.Assertion: The order of a reaction can be zero or fractional.
Reason: The order of a reaction cannot be determined from a balanced chemical reaction.
2Assertion: The slowest elementary step in a complex reaction decides the rate of the reaction.
Reason: The slowest elementary step always has the smallest molecularity.
3Assertion: For a certain reaction, a large fraction of molecules have energy more than the threshold
energy, still the rate of reaction is very slow.
Reason: The colliding molecules must not be properly oriented for effective collisions.
4.Assertion: The rate of a reaction sometimes does not depend on concentration.
Reason: Lower the activation energy faster is the reaction.
5.Assertion (A) : Unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is
mol−1Ls −1 .
Reason (R ) : Trimolecular reactions involve simultaneous collision between three reacting species.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. The thermal decomposition of HCOOH is a first order reaction with a rate constant of 2.4 × 10 -3 s
-1 at a certain temperature. Calculate how long will it take for three-fourths of initial quantity of
HCOOH to decompose. (log 0.25 = -0.6021) .
2. For a reaction, the energy of activation is zero. What is the value of rate constant at 300 K if k =
1.6 10 6 s –1 at 280 K? (R = 8.31 J K –1 mol–1 )
3. The time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its initial amount is 60 minutes. If the
decomposition is a first order reaction, calculate the rate constant of the reaction.
4. 2A→4B+D,in this reaction, concentration of B increases to 2×10 −3mol.L −1 after 10s from the
start of the reaction . Calculate the rate of disappearance of A.
5. 25% of a first order reaction is completed in 30 min . Find the time required for completion of 50%
of the reaction.
ANSWER KEY 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5.D
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1.Half-life for a first order reaction is 0.693k. t1/2=0.693/k
0.693/2.4×10 −3S −1=288.75 sec t3/4=2×t1/2=577.50s=578 sec
3.We know that for a 1st order reaction,t1/2=0.693/k It is already given that t1/2 = 60mins
k=0.693/t1/2 = 0.693/60 = 0.01155 min -1 = 1.155 min -1
UNIT – 5 COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
Multiple Choice Questions:
 1. Which of the following will not give test for Cl– with AgNO3(aq) at 25°C?
(a) COCl3.5NH3 (b) COCl3.6NH3 (c) COCl3.3NH3 (d) COCl3.4NH3

2. The stabilization of coordination compounds due to chelation is called the chelate effect.
Which of the following is the most stable complex species?
(a) [Fe(CO)5] (b) [Fe(CN)6] 3- (c) [Fe(C2O4)3] 3- (d) [Fe(H2O)6] 3+
3. Correct formulae of Tetraamminechloridoonitrito-N-platinum (IV) sulphate can be written as
(a) [Pt(NH3)4 (ONO) Cl]SO4 (b) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2NO2]2 (c) [Pt(NH3)4 Cl (NO2)]SO4 (d)
[PtCl(ONO)NH3(SO4)]
4. EDTA is used for the estimation of
(a) Na+ and K+ ions (b) Cl– and Br– ions (c) Cu2+ and Cs+ ions (d) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ion
5. Which of the following is an ambidentate ligand?
(a) C2O4 2- and CN- (b) SCNand NO2 - (c) C2O4 2- and NO3 - (d) en and SCN
6. Colourless complex ion in the following is-
(a) [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ (b) [Zn(NH3)4] 2+ (c) [Fe(H2O)6] 2+ (c) [Fe(CN)6] 3-
7. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element ‘E’ in the complex, [E(en)2
(C2O4)]NO2 (where (en) is ethylene diamine) are, respectively,
(a) 6 and 2 (b) 4 and 2 (c) 4 and 3 (d) 6 and 3
8. As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl 3nis :
(a) Tetraaquadiamminecobalt (III) chloride (b) Tetraaquadiamminecobalt (III) chloride (c)
Diaminetetraaquacoblat (II) chloride (d) Diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
9. Which one of the following will show paramagnetism corresponding to 2 unpaired electrons?
(a) [FeF6] 3– (b) [NiCl4] 2– (c) [Fe(CN)6] 3– (d) [Ni(CN)4] 2–
10. Which of the following has magnesium? (a) Chlorophyll (b) Hemocyanin (c) Carbonic
anhydrate (d) Vitamin B12
11. Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6] 3- is true?
(a) It has 4 unpaired electron, high spin (b) No unpaired electron, high spin (c) No unpaired
electron, low spin (d) 4 unpaired electron, low spin 12
12. In which one of the following species does the transition metal ion have d 3 electronic
configuration?
(a) [Cr(NH3 )6 ] 3+ (b) [Co(H2O)6 ] 2+ (c) [CoF6 ] 3- (d) [Fe(CN)6 ] 3-
13. The hybridisation involved in [Co(C2O4)3] 3- is
(a) sp3 d 2 (b) sp3 d 3 (c) dsp2 (d) d2 sp3
14. Fac-mer isomerism is associated with which one of the following complexes?
(a) [M(AA)2] (b) [MA3B3] (c) [M(AA)3] (d) [MA4B2]
15. ∆o < P, then the correct electronic configuration for d4 system
will be—
(a)(t2g) 4 (eg)0 (b)(t2g) 3 (eg)1 (c)(t2g) 0 (eg)4 (d)(t2g) 2 (eg)2

ANSWER KEY : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C c c d b b d d b a c a d b b

I.ASSERTION AND REASON

1. Assertion (A) :The metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls possesses both
σ and π character.
Reason (R) :The ligand to metal bond is a π bond and metal to ligand bond is
a σ bond.
2. Assertion: Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands.
Reason: Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.
3. Assertion: Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds
containing ambidentate ligand.
Reason: Ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms.
4. Complexes of MX6, MX5L type (X and L are unidentate) do not show
geometrical isomerism.
Reason: Geometrical isomerism is not shown by complexes of
coordination number 6.
 5. Assertion: [Fe(CN)6]3- ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to two
unpaired electrons.
Reason: Because it has d2sp3 type hybridization.
II.SHORT ANSWERS(2M)
1. Give two examples of ligands which form coordination compounds
useful in analytical chemistry.

2. Which of the following is more stable complex and why?

[Co(NH3)6]3+ and [Co(en)3]3+
3. Write the IUPAC name of the following complex : [CO(NH3)6]3+ &
[NiCl4]2-
4. Describe the shape and magnetic behaviour of following complexes :
(i) [CO(NH3)6]3+ (ii) [Ni(CN)4]2-
5. When a coordination compound CoCl3.6NH3 is mixed with AgNO3, 3
moles of AgCl are precipitated per mole of the compound. Write
(i) Structural formula of the complex
(ii) IUPAC name of the complex
I.ANSWERS
1. A is correct but R is incorrect.
2. Assertion and reason both are correct and the reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion and reason both are correct and the reason is the correct
explanation of assertion
4. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
5. Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
II.
1. I)EDTA (Ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid)
(ii) Dimethyl glyoxime (DMG)
2. [Co(en)3]3+ is more stable complex than [CO(NH3)6]3+ because of
chelate effect.
3. Hexaamminecobalt (III) ion.
Tetrachloridonickelate (II) ion.
4.
[CO(NH3)6]3+ :
Orbitals of CO3+ ion :

Hybridization : d2sp3 Shape : Octahedral Magnetic behaviour :

Diamagnetic (absence of unpaired electrons)
 (ii) [Ni(CN)4]2-

5.
(i) Complex so formed is:
CoCl3.6NH3 + AgNO3 → [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(ii) IUPAC name of complex is: Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
UNIT -8 ALDEHYDE, KETONE AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
1. 4 – Hydroxy, 4 – Methylpentan, 2 – one on heating gives.
a) 4 – methylpent, 3 – ane, 2 – one b) 3 – methylpent, 4 – ane, 1 – one
c) 4 – methylpent , 3 – en, 2 – one d) 4 – methylpent , 3 – en, 2 – al
2. Phenyl magnesium choloride react with carbondioxide in presence of dry ether followed by
hydrolosis to give.
a) benzoic acid b) phenyl ethanoic acid c) ethanoic acid d) methanoic acid
3. Which reagent will you use to convert Ethane – nitrite to ethanol.
a) PCC b) O3/H2O – zn dust c) DIBAL – H d) CrO2Cl2 and H3O+
4. Select the acid(s) which cannot be prepared by grignard reagent.
a) Acetic acid b) Formic acid c) Succinec acid d) All of the above
5. Which one gives positive iodoform test?
a) (CH3)2CHCH2OH b) C3H5 – OH c) CH3-CH2-CH-CH2-CH3 d) CH3 CH2 OH
6. The product obtained by the reaction of an aldehyde and hydroxylamine is
a) hydrazine b) primary amine c) aldoxime d) alcohol
7. Which of the following compounds gives an oxime with hydroxylamine.
a) CH3COCH3 b) CH3COOH c) (CH3CO)2O d) CH3COCl
8. Which of the following products is formed when benzaldehyde is treated with CH 3MgBr and the
addition product so obtained is subjected to hydrolysis?
a) A secondary alcohol b) Phenol c) a primary alcohol d) eert – Betyl alcohol
9. Clemmensen reduction of ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?
a) Glycol with KOH b) zn – Hg with HCl c) Liaih4 d) H2 and Pt as catalyst
10. A carboxylic acid which is used as food preservative?
a) Sodium benzoate b) Acetic acid c) Esters of benzoic acid d) Citric acid
11. C6H2CH = CHCHO X C 6H5CH = CHCH2OH.
a) H2INI b) K2Cr2O7 IH+ c) NaBH4 d) Both (a) and (c)
12. Imine derivatives of aldehydes and ketone is called as
a) Schiff’s reagent b) Scniff’s base c) Fehling’s reagent d) Schiff’s acid
13. Benzaldehyde treated with Conc HNO3 and Conc H2SO4.
a) Ortho nitro benzaldehyde b) para nitro benzaldehyde
c) meta nitro benzaldehyde d) both (a) and (b)
14. Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociations constant?
a) CH3CHF COOH b) FCH2CH2COOH C) BrCH2CH2COOH d) CH3CHBrCOOH
15. Benzoic acid may be converted into ethyl benzoate by reaction with
a) CH3CH2ONa b) CH3CH2Cl c) dry HCl – C2H5OH d) Ethanol
Assertion reasoning based questions
1. Assertion- Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones towards nucleophilic addition
Reason - The polarity of >C=O bond in ketones is higher than aldehydes

2. Assertion- Benzaldehyde and ethanal can be distinguished using fehling’s test

Reason - Benzaldehydes do not form brick red precipitate with fehling's reagent as it
lacks alpha hydrogen while ethanal gives positive fehling's test
3. Assertion- The pKa value of p-nitrobenzoic acid is lower than benzoic acid itself
Reason - p-nitrobenzoic acid is a weak acid compared to benzoic acid
4. Assertion- Aldehydes can be oxidised easily compared to ketones
Reason - The oxidation of ketones involve the cleavage of “C-C” bond which is difficult compared
to “ C-H” bond in aldehydes
5. Assertion- Benzaldehyde and Ethanal undergoes aldol condensation
Reason - Benzaldehyde undergoes cannizzaro reaction
Key
1. C- Assertion is true reason is false
2. A- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation for assertion
3. D- Assertion is false and reason is true
4. A- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation for assertion
5. B- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
Answer in short- 2 mark questions
1. What happens when
a. Butanone is treated with hydrazine
b. Cyclohexanone is treated with Methylmagnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis

2. An organic compound A of molecular formula C4H8 undergoes ozonolysis to give compounds B

and C. Two moles of compound B undergoes aldol condensation while compound C does not undergo
self aldol condensation. Give the IUPAC names of A, C and C.
3. Convert : a. Propanone to propene b. Benzoic acid to benzaldehyde
4. Give a simple chemical test to differentiate between
a. Pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one b. Acetophenone and 2 phenyl ethanal
5. Complete the following reactions

Key

1. a. CH3 – CH2 CO – CH3 + NH2 – NH2 ------🡪 CH3 – CH2 - C(CH3) = N – NH2
b. Forms 1-methyl cyclohexanol
2. A- But1-ene B-Propanal C- Methanal
3. a. reduce propanone to propanol followed by treatment with conc sulphuric acid gives Propene
b. benzoic acid on decarboxylation with sodalime gives benzene followed by gatterman Koch
reaction gives benzaldehyde
4. a. Pentan-2-one undergoes iodoform test and forms yellow solid while pentan-3-one does not
undergo iodoform test
b. Acetophenone undergoes iodoform test and forms yellow solid while 2-phenylethanal does not
undergo iodoform test
5.

UNIT – 9 AMINES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Oxidation of aniline with K2Cr2O7?H2SO4 gives
a) Phenylhydroxyl amine b) p-benzoquinone c) nitrosobenzene
d) nitrobenzene
2. Which of the following when heated with a mixture of ethanamine and
alcoholic potash gives ethylisocyanide?
a) 2-chloropropane b) 2,2-dichloropropane c) trichloromethane
d)tetrachloromethane
3. The best method of converting C6H5CONH2 to C6H5CH2NH2 by using
a) NaBH4 b) H2-Pd c) LiAlH4 d) Zn-Hg/HCl
 4. Which one of the following does not undergo acylation?
a) C2H5NH2 b) (CH3)2NH c) (CH3)3N d) CH3NH2
5. Among the following the most basic compound is a) benzylamine b)aniline
c)acetanilide d) p-nitroaniline.
6. Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for
separation of amines? a)Hinsberg method b)Hofmann method c)Wurtz reaction
d)Gabriel phthalimide reaction
7. CH3NH2 + NaNO2 + HNO2 + conc.HCl -------🡪 ? the missing product is
a) CH3CN b)CH3NHCl c) CH3NC d) CH3N2Cl
8. Which of the following on reduction with LiAlH4 yields a secondary amine?
a)methyl isocyanide b)acetanilide c)methylcyanide d)nitromethane
9. which of the following statement is true ?
a)Trimethylamine forms a soluble compound with Hinsberg’s reagent and KOH

b) Dimethylamine reacts with KOH and phenol to form an azo dye

c) methylamine reacts with nitrous acid and liberates N2 from aqueous solution.
d) None.
10. Nitration of aniline produces
a)Mixture of o-and p-nitro aniline b) Mixture of o-,p-and m-nitroaniline
c)Mixtrue of o-and m-nitroaniline d) only p – nitroaniline
11. The conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to bromobenzene can be accomplished by
a) Gattermann reaction b) Friedel-Crafts reaction c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
d) Azo-Coupling reaction
12. The correct IUPAC name for CH2=CHCH2NHCH3 is a) Allylmethylamine
b) 2-amino-4-pentene c) 4-aminopent-1-ene d) N-methylprop-2-en-1-amine
13. Which of the following does not react with Hinsberg reagent?
a) C2H5NH2 b) (CH3)2NH c) (CH3)3N d) CH3CH(NH2)CH3
14. What is the most suitable temperature for the diazotisation reaction to take place?
a) 0°C b) 10°C c) 22°C d) 30°C
15. When excess of ethyl iodide reacts with ammonia, the product formed is,
a)ethylamine b)diethylamine c) triethylamine d) tetraethyl ammonium iodide
Answer the following questions: (2 marks)
1. How will you convert the following:
i) Benzoic acid to aniline
ii) Benzene to phenol
2. Arrange the amines on decreasing order of basicity in aqueous medium with respect to it's
pKb value
i) C2H5NH2,(C2H5)2NH,(C2H5)3N,NH3
ii) C6H5NH2,CH3NH2,(CH3)3N,C6H5CH2NH2
3. How will you isolate all products formed during Ammonolysis process?
4. Reason for the following:
i) Solubility of sulphanilic acid in water
ii) Nitration of aniline yields m-nitroaniline
5. Compare and discuss the boiling point of amines with alcohols
OR
Discuss the method used to calculate the number of aliphatic 1°amino group in
proteins
Assertion and Reason type questions (1 marks)
6. Assertion: Gabriel phthalimide synthesis used to prepare aliphatic primary amines
Reason: In aromatic primary amines, Nitrogen atom is SP2 hybridised.
7. Assertion: Carbylamine test is also called as isocyanide test
Reason: primary amines reacts with chloroform and alcoholic potash forms foul smelling
alkyl cyanide
8. Assertion: Diazonium salt of primary aliphatic
9. amines will decompose even at low temperature and forms alcohol
Reason: During diazotization water molecule also will form as one of the side product
10. Assertion: In aqueous medium, +I effect only will decides the basicity of amines
Reason: Increase in pKb value decrease the basicity
11. Assertion: Retention of diazo group in aromatic amines produces colour
Reason: Diazo extent the conjugation and absorbs wavelength from visible region shows
colour
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