B1002B+Practice+Final+Exam April+2024

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 1 of 13

1. One of the major learning outcomes of this course is understanding the differences between prokaryotic
cells and eukaryotic cells.
Which of the following is found in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?
A. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Genes on both strands of a DNA molecule
C. Proteins with signal peptides
D. Stop codons

2. The Heat shock gene HSP1 is strongly induced by


high temperatures in bacteria. This results in an
increase in HSP protein abundance.
A mutated form of this HSP gene has been isolated
(Hsp1a). As shown here, unlike the wild-type
gene, Hsp1a does not display high temperature
inducibility. Its transcript abundance displays
constitutive expression.
Given this data, what is the likely nature of the
Hsp1a mutation?
A. The mutation is likely in the 3’ UTR resulting in decreased mRNA stability.
B. The mutation is in the promoter of the gene.
C. Mutation is in the 5’UTR altering mRNA interaction with the ribosome.
D. The mutation is likely in the protein-coding region of the gene.

3. You may have left high school thinking that the definition of a gene is: "a sequence of DNA that codes
for a protein.”
If that was in fact the only sequence of DNA that was transcribed, which of the following would not
exist?
1. snRNA
2. ribosomes
3. tRNA
4. mRNA

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 2 of 13

4. The image here shows the growth rate for Chlamydomonas as a function of temperature.
Which of the following reasons could explain why
Chlamydomonas can’t grow at 40°C?
A. The rate of molecular motion is too high at 40°C to
sustain life.
B. The desaturase enzyme DesA, is not expressed.
C. The glycolysis enzyme hexokinase loses its
tertiary structure.
D. The turnover time of rubisco is too fast.

5. Imagine that there is a mutation to the signal recognition particle (SRP) that makes it unable to pull
ribosomes to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
The mutation would affect the final location of which of the following proteins?
A. Iron (Fe) importer
B. PsbA of photosystem I
C. RNA polymerase
D. Enzyme of citric acid cycle

6. As biological catalysts, enzymes play a fundamental role in many cellular processes.


Which of the following statements about enzymes is correct?
1. Enzymes are essential for anabolic pathways; they are not required for catabolic pathways.
2. While an increase in temperature can increase the rate of an uncatalyzed reaction, it can’t increase the
rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
3. Enzymes force substrates into unique conformations that do not occur in the absence of an enzyme.
4. Enzymes decrease the free energy of a reaction’s transition state.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 3 of 13

7. Chlamydomonas cells exposed to high light grow faster than cells grown under lower light.
Why is that?
A. Under high light, high levels of cytosolic G3P support higher levels of cellular respiration and biosynthesis.
B. Under high light, extra ATP can be exported from the mitochondria to support higher rates of glycolysis.
C. Under high light, increased photosystem II activity leads to increased O2 levels which support higher rates
of respiration.
D. Under high light, increased levels of acetate import increase ATP formation.

8. In class we discussed two similar molecules: NADPH and NADH. While NADPH is generated by the light
reactions of photosynthesis, NADH is produced by glycolysis and the citric acid cycle of cellular respiration.
Based on these examples, which of the following comparisons between these two molecules is correct?
A. The phosphate group in NADPH allows it to serve the role of ATP during photosynthesis.
B. NADPH is used for anabolic processes while NADH is produced during catabolic processes.
C. NADPH contains more energy than NADH.
D. NADH is used to reduce other molecules while NADPH is not.

9. Evidence indicates that phototaxis is linked to the energy state of the cell. When energy is low
Chlamydomonas moves towards light, when it is high, it moves away from the light.
Which of the following would cause Chlamydomonas to move towards light?
1. Incubation with an uncoupler.
2. Addition of acetate to the growth media.
3. Blocking pyruvate transport into mitochondria.
4. Increasing rubisco expression.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 4 of 13

10. Endosymbiosis is now a strongly established theory to explain at least part of the evolution of complex
cells on Earth.
Which of the following observations supports the theory of endosymbiosis?
1. Many proteins are required to be imported into the mitochondria to maintain its function.
2. Chloroplasts have their own tRNA genes.
3. Golgi vesicles are membrane bound.
4. Chloroplasts divide using the same mechanism as photosynthetic bacteria.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

11. Use the image above for the next two questions.
Which of the following statements DOES NOT correctly match a function or component with its labelled
feature?
A. Nuclear-encoded proteins can be found in C.
B. Channelrhodopsin can be found on H.
C. mRNA can be found in D.
D. Ribosomes can be found at L.

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 5 of 13

12. Looking at the image shown, which of the following statements DOES NOT correctly identifies the
location of metabolites related to photosynthesis and/or respiration in the diagram of
Chlamydomonas?
A. Pyruvate is generated in G.
B. Fermentation occurs in D.
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) is generated in C.
D. ATP can be found in D.

13. Looking at the above image again, which of the following statements correctly matches a component with
its labelled feature? [Keep in mind where molecules function and also where they are synthesized].

1. DNA Methyl Transferases (DNMT) can be found in G and J.


2. Histones can be found in G and J.
3 Histone deacetylases can be found in G and J.
4. Ten-eleven translocation enzyme (TET) can be found in G and J.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

14.

What are the first 4 bases of the RNA, written from 5’ to 3’?
A. AGCU
B. UCGA
C. TCGA
D. AGCT

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 6 of 13

15. Which of the following regions of the DNA is not transcribed by RNA polymerase?

1. -10/-35 promoter sites


2. Terminator
3. Poly A tail
4. 5’ and 3’splice site sequences

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

16. Operons are common feature of bacterial genomes. Which of the following statements about the
lac operon is correct?
1. The lac operon contains 3 stop codon sequences.
2. A lacOC mutant that keeps the operator constitutively ON, will inhibit the transcription of lacZ, lacY and
lacA.
3. A lacIs super-repressor that cannot bind to allolactose will inhibit the transcription of lacZ, lacY and lacA.
4. The lacZ gene codes for lactose which is used as a source of energy.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 7 of 13

17.

Above is an electron micrograph illustrating the process of simultaneous transcription and translation in a
prokaryotic cell. Use this illustration to answer the question.
Which of the following statements is correct?

1. The direction indicated by A, is the correct direction of RNA polymerase movement.


2. If C and D are both pointing to the first ribosome in the chain, then ribosome C is carrying a longer
polypeptide chain.
3. If E is pointing to mRNA, then it is pointing to the 5’end of the mRNA.
4. If B is pointing to the DNA, then it is pointing to the 5’ end of the DNA.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 8 of 13

18. Apolipoprotein B (ApoB) plays an


important role in the transport of
cholesterol by forming an amphipathic
spherical shell around the cholesterol
which is carried by lipoprotein particles.
Apo B 100 is produced in the liver
whereas Apo B-48 is produced in the
small intestine.
Use the diagram and your knowledge
from lecture to answer determine which of
the following statements is correct.
1. This is an example of post-translational
regulation.
2. Unlike the mRNA of ApoB-100, the
mRNA of ApoB-48 is not fully
transcribed.
3. The edited mRNA gives rise to a longer
protein.
4. Transcription factors for APOBEC-1
bind to the APOBEC-1 promoter in the
small intestine but not the liver.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 9 of 13

19.

Mutations in splice sites can lead to the formation of abnormal proteins. The diagram illustrates a mutation
in the 3’ splice site between exons 1 and 2 which prevents binding of snRNPs to that site. Which of the
following consequences could be a result of this mutation?
1. Deletion of exon 2 in the mature mRNA.
2. The mutant mRNA will contain intronic sequences.
3. The mutant mRNA will be shorter compared to wild-type (original) mRNA.
4. Deletion of exon 3 in the mature mRNA.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

20.Which of the following statements about PCR or RT-qPCR is correct?


1. Fluorescence is detected when the TaqMan probe is cleaved by Taq polymerase (AMPLITAQ).
2. PCR uses the natural process of transcription in order to amplify DNA.
3. Primers cannot bind to the DNA template at 95oC.
4. Fluorescence is detected when the reporter dye is in close proximity to the quencher dye.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

21. Which of the following processes is required to produce human insulin in bacterial cells?

A. The human insulin mRNA is reverse transcribed.


B. The human insulin protein is converted to the bacterial form.
C. The human insulin gene is transcribed, translated and then placed in the bacterial cytoplasm.
D. The human insulin gene is amplified along with its introns.

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 10 of 13

22. Which of the following statements about cancer cells is correct?


1. Passenger mutations can occur without the onset of a tumor.
2. Cancer cells are derived from a clone.
3. Accumulation of driver mutations can lead to cancer.
4. Intratumoral heterogeneity provides a good rationale for advancing precision medicine.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

23. Which of the following statements about genetics of Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) is correct?
A. Mutations in presenilin 1 or 2 can lead to AD.
B. Production of ApoE3 can lead to AD.
C. Trisomy 21 decreases the probability of early onset.
D. Decrease in β-secretase can lead to AD.

24. Theoretically, which of the following could be used as a biomarker (something you test for to see if the
disease could be present) for Alzheimer’s Disease?
1. Hyperphosphorylated Tau.
2. 42aa β-amyloid peptide.
3. Acetylcholine production.
4. Glutamate production.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 11 of 13

25. β-thalassemia is a hereditary blood disorder that leads to the formation of an abnormal hemoglobin which
destroys red blood cells and causes anemia.
Which of the following statements about β-thalassemia patients is correct?

1. β-thalassemia patients express a longer version of the β-globin mRNA.


2. β-thalassemia patients have intronic sequences in their β-globin mRNA.
3. β-thalassemia patients express a premature stop codon in their β-globin mRNA.
4. β-thalassemia patients express a longer version of the β-globin protein.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

26. Which of the following will lead to a decrease in transcription of a gene?

A. Increase in histone deacetylases.


B. Increase in histone acetyltransferases.
C. Decrease in DNA methyltransferases.
D. Decrease in CpG methylation of promoter.

27. Which of the following statements about epigenetics is correct?


1. Twins have identical epigenetic patterns because their DNA sequences are identical.
2. Maternal care can have a significant impact on the epigenome.
3. Your epigenome is not heritable.
4. Schizophrenic patients may benefit from epigenetic drugs.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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April 2023 Biology 1002B Final Exam Practice Questions Page 12 of 13

28. Based on recent data arising from various animal models, which of the following CRISPR-Cas9
systems would be the most promising to treat anxiety in humans?

A. CRISPR-Cas9 without donor DNA.


B. CRISPR-nCas9 coupled with deaminase and UGI.
C. CRISPR-dCas9 alone.
D. CRISPR-dCas9 coupled with histone acetyltransferase.

29. Which of the following about CRISPR-Cas9 technique is correct?


1. Catalytically inactive Cas-9 (dCas9) cuts only one strand of DNA as opposed to both.
2. The guide RNA used in the lab is analogous to the tracrRNA/crRNA hybrid in the adaptive immune
system of bacteria.
3. Homology directed repair can only allow for editing a single base pair.
4. NHEJ can lead to mutations.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

30. Which of the following statements is about base editing is correct?


1. It relies on the natural mismatch repair process.
2. The end result of the complete process is the conversion of GC to CU.
3. The “chemistry on the genome” is performed by deaminase
4. The same result can be achieved with or without the presence of UGI.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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April 2023 Biology 1002B Final Exam Practice Questions Page 13 of 13

31. Which of the following statements did Yamanaka rely on for the production of induced pluripotent
stem cells (iPSC)? [Note: This is higher level thinking. All statements on their own are correct but you
have to choose the statement that played an essential role in the production of iPSC]?

A. All genes retain the potential to be expressed.


B. Telomerase is active in stem cells.
C. Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent.
D. Only a small proportion of genes are expressed in each cell
______________________________________________________________________________________

32. Which of the following factors are required for a one-cell zygote to develop into an entire organism?
1. Genes need to be spatially and temporally expressed.
2. Telomerase needs to be active during embryogenesis.
3. The zygote needs to be totipotent.
4. Transcription factors need to bind to promoters.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

33. Below is a DNA profile of an individual. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. D5S818, D13S317, D7S820, D16S539 and CSF1P0 represent different regions of the genome.
B. This individual has 11 repeats in one copy of their D16S539 locus and no repeats in the other copy of their
D16S539 locus.
C. This individual is homozygous for the D5S818 STR.
D. If this individual was a female, the AMEL locus would have 2 peaks

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