B1002B+Practice+Final+Exam April+2024
B1002B+Practice+Final+Exam April+2024
B1002B+Practice+Final+Exam April+2024
1. One of the major learning outcomes of this course is understanding the differences between prokaryotic
cells and eukaryotic cells.
Which of the following is found in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?
A. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Genes on both strands of a DNA molecule
C. Proteins with signal peptides
D. Stop codons
3. You may have left high school thinking that the definition of a gene is: "a sequence of DNA that codes
for a protein.”
If that was in fact the only sequence of DNA that was transcribed, which of the following would not
exist?
1. snRNA
2. ribosomes
3. tRNA
4. mRNA
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 2 of 13
4. The image here shows the growth rate for Chlamydomonas as a function of temperature.
Which of the following reasons could explain why
Chlamydomonas can’t grow at 40°C?
A. The rate of molecular motion is too high at 40°C to
sustain life.
B. The desaturase enzyme DesA, is not expressed.
C. The glycolysis enzyme hexokinase loses its
tertiary structure.
D. The turnover time of rubisco is too fast.
5. Imagine that there is a mutation to the signal recognition particle (SRP) that makes it unable to pull
ribosomes to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
The mutation would affect the final location of which of the following proteins?
A. Iron (Fe) importer
B. PsbA of photosystem I
C. RNA polymerase
D. Enzyme of citric acid cycle
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 3 of 13
7. Chlamydomonas cells exposed to high light grow faster than cells grown under lower light.
Why is that?
A. Under high light, high levels of cytosolic G3P support higher levels of cellular respiration and biosynthesis.
B. Under high light, extra ATP can be exported from the mitochondria to support higher rates of glycolysis.
C. Under high light, increased photosystem II activity leads to increased O2 levels which support higher rates
of respiration.
D. Under high light, increased levels of acetate import increase ATP formation.
8. In class we discussed two similar molecules: NADPH and NADH. While NADPH is generated by the light
reactions of photosynthesis, NADH is produced by glycolysis and the citric acid cycle of cellular respiration.
Based on these examples, which of the following comparisons between these two molecules is correct?
A. The phosphate group in NADPH allows it to serve the role of ATP during photosynthesis.
B. NADPH is used for anabolic processes while NADH is produced during catabolic processes.
C. NADPH contains more energy than NADH.
D. NADH is used to reduce other molecules while NADPH is not.
9. Evidence indicates that phototaxis is linked to the energy state of the cell. When energy is low
Chlamydomonas moves towards light, when it is high, it moves away from the light.
Which of the following would cause Chlamydomonas to move towards light?
1. Incubation with an uncoupler.
2. Addition of acetate to the growth media.
3. Blocking pyruvate transport into mitochondria.
4. Increasing rubisco expression.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 4 of 13
10. Endosymbiosis is now a strongly established theory to explain at least part of the evolution of complex
cells on Earth.
Which of the following observations supports the theory of endosymbiosis?
1. Many proteins are required to be imported into the mitochondria to maintain its function.
2. Chloroplasts have their own tRNA genes.
3. Golgi vesicles are membrane bound.
4. Chloroplasts divide using the same mechanism as photosynthetic bacteria.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
11. Use the image above for the next two questions.
Which of the following statements DOES NOT correctly match a function or component with its labelled
feature?
A. Nuclear-encoded proteins can be found in C.
B. Channelrhodopsin can be found on H.
C. mRNA can be found in D.
D. Ribosomes can be found at L.
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 5 of 13
12. Looking at the image shown, which of the following statements DOES NOT correctly identifies the
location of metabolites related to photosynthesis and/or respiration in the diagram of
Chlamydomonas?
A. Pyruvate is generated in G.
B. Fermentation occurs in D.
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) is generated in C.
D. ATP can be found in D.
13. Looking at the above image again, which of the following statements correctly matches a component with
its labelled feature? [Keep in mind where molecules function and also where they are synthesized].
14.
What are the first 4 bases of the RNA, written from 5’ to 3’?
A. AGCU
B. UCGA
C. TCGA
D. AGCT
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 6 of 13
15. Which of the following regions of the DNA is not transcribed by RNA polymerase?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
16. Operons are common feature of bacterial genomes. Which of the following statements about the
lac operon is correct?
1. The lac operon contains 3 stop codon sequences.
2. A lacOC mutant that keeps the operator constitutively ON, will inhibit the transcription of lacZ, lacY and
lacA.
3. A lacIs super-repressor that cannot bind to allolactose will inhibit the transcription of lacZ, lacY and lacA.
4. The lacZ gene codes for lactose which is used as a source of energy.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 7 of 13
17.
Above is an electron micrograph illustrating the process of simultaneous transcription and translation in a
prokaryotic cell. Use this illustration to answer the question.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 8 of 13
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 9 of 13
19.
Mutations in splice sites can lead to the formation of abnormal proteins. The diagram illustrates a mutation
in the 3’ splice site between exons 1 and 2 which prevents binding of snRNPs to that site. Which of the
following consequences could be a result of this mutation?
1. Deletion of exon 2 in the mature mRNA.
2. The mutant mRNA will contain intronic sequences.
3. The mutant mRNA will be shorter compared to wild-type (original) mRNA.
4. Deletion of exon 3 in the mature mRNA.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
21. Which of the following processes is required to produce human insulin in bacterial cells?
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 10 of 13
23. Which of the following statements about genetics of Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) is correct?
A. Mutations in presenilin 1 or 2 can lead to AD.
B. Production of ApoE3 can lead to AD.
C. Trisomy 21 decreases the probability of early onset.
D. Decrease in β-secretase can lead to AD.
24. Theoretically, which of the following could be used as a biomarker (something you test for to see if the
disease could be present) for Alzheimer’s Disease?
1. Hyperphosphorylated Tau.
2. 42aa β-amyloid peptide.
3. Acetylcholine production.
4. Glutamate production.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
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April 2024 Biology 1002B Practice Final Exam Page 11 of 13
25. β-thalassemia is a hereditary blood disorder that leads to the formation of an abnormal hemoglobin which
destroys red blood cells and causes anemia.
Which of the following statements about β-thalassemia patients is correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
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April 2023 Biology 1002B Final Exam Practice Questions Page 12 of 13
28. Based on recent data arising from various animal models, which of the following CRISPR-Cas9
systems would be the most promising to treat anxiety in humans?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
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April 2023 Biology 1002B Final Exam Practice Questions Page 13 of 13
31. Which of the following statements did Yamanaka rely on for the production of induced pluripotent
stem cells (iPSC)? [Note: This is higher level thinking. All statements on their own are correct but you
have to choose the statement that played an essential role in the production of iPSC]?
32. Which of the following factors are required for a one-cell zygote to develop into an entire organism?
1. Genes need to be spatially and temporally expressed.
2. Telomerase needs to be active during embryogenesis.
3. The zygote needs to be totipotent.
4. Transcription factors need to bind to promoters.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
33. Below is a DNA profile of an individual. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. D5S818, D13S317, D7S820, D16S539 and CSF1P0 represent different regions of the genome.
B. This individual has 11 repeats in one copy of their D16S539 locus and no repeats in the other copy of their
D16S539 locus.
C. This individual is homozygous for the D5S818 STR.
D. If this individual was a female, the AMEL locus would have 2 peaks
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