Unit - 9 People, Development & Environment

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Unit – 9 [ People, Development & Environment ]
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Human and Environment
Human Beings are a beautiful creation by God. Science says that human beings have appeared through
biological evolution. Whatever the reason for Human appearance on the Earth, humans have been
interacting with their environment since people first walked the Earth. And obviously, they interacted
with the environment for the first and foremost need of food.
For example, humans have been cutting down forests to clear land to grow crops for centuries, and by
doing so, we have altered the environment. Conversely, the environment affects us in many different
ways as well. A simple example is a way we change our clothes in response to cold or hot weather. We
will discuss some of how humans interact with their environment and how the environment influences
us, both positively and negatively.
Before going for further details on Human and Environment Integration, we must know about the term
“environment.”
Environment
Environment means our physical surroundings and the characteristics of the place in which we live. It
also refers to the wider natural world of land, sea, and atmosphere.
The environment is the sum total of living and non-living components surrounding an organism.
Different organisms live in different types of surroundings, such as air, water, and soil. Different kinds
of living organisms share these surroundings. The surroundings are the “environment” of an organism.
The environment has two components
(i) Physical or abiotic (non-living) components and

(ii) living or biotic components.
Abiotic components of the environment are air, water, soil, energy radiation, etc.
Biotic components of the environment are microbes (such as bacteria, algae, and fungi), plants,
animals, etc.
The environment consists of four segments, such as:
(i) Biosphere (ii) Atmosphere (iii) Hydrosphere, and (iv) Lithosphere

Biosphere: All the parts of the Earth are not suitable for the survival of organisms. Some parts are too
hot or very cold to support life. The part of Earth on which organisms can survive and reproduce is
called the biosphere.
The survival of organisms depends upon a delicate balance between themselves and with the various
components of the environment. Any disturbance, damage or adverse change in the quality of the
environment poses a threat to the survival and well-being of organisms. Therefore, any threat of
degradation or damage to environment should be a cause of concern to all of us.
Atmosphere: Atmosphere is the only place where free oxygen and water vapour exist.
The atmosphere is a thin layer of air (a mixture of gases) around the Earth, which is a great source for all
living organisms.
Hydrosphere: Water plays a vital role in the biosphere; without it, life is impossible. The hydrosphere
is the part of Earth on which all types of water resources exists, viz., oceans, seas, rivers, lakes,
glaciers, ice caps, groundwater, etc.
Lithosphere: Soil is a part of the lithosphere which supports life. The lithosphere is the part of the Earth
where all types of minerals, metals, organic matters, rocks, soils, etc. exist.
An ecosystem includes all the living organisms (humans, plants, animals, micro-
organisms) and their physical environment (soil, water, air, land) and the interactions
between them.
Ecology is the study of the relationships between living organisms, including humans, and
their physical environment; it seeks to understand the vital connections between plants and
animals and the world around them. Ecology also provides information about the benefits
of ecosystems and how we can use Earth’s resources in ways that leave the environment
healthy for future generations.
The environment can be summarised collectively as:

1. Biosphere Plants, Animals, and Bio organism
2. Atmosphere Air (oxygen, CO2, Nitrogen, Hydrogen etc.)
Water including oceans, seas, rivers, lakes,
3. Hydrosphere
glaciers, ice caps, ground water, etc.
4. Lithosphere Soil, Minerals, Rocks

Human and Environmental Interaction
Human and Environmental Interaction can be described as the connections between human beings and
the entire ecological system.
Human and environment interaction is the way people depend, adapt and modify the environment. The
interaction between human and environment can be categorised in three ways:
1. Dependency on the environment for food, water, timber, natural gas, etc.
2. Adaptability for the environment to fulfill their own needs.
3. Modification of the environment positively or negatively like drilling holes, building dams etc.
Anthropogenic activities and their impact on environment
of or relating to the study of the origins and development of human beings. Most of the disctionaries
defined the term “Anthropogenic” as “created or caused by human activity or “resulting from the
influence of human beings on nature”
The population of India has crossed the figure of 1.3 billion and the world population
is estimated to have crossed the 7.5 billion mark. To meet the demand of food,
housing and energy, environmental resources are being exploited at a fast pace.
Anthropogenic Activities (Human Activities)
Anthropogenic activities do not only mean that human activity to meet the demand for food, housing,
clothing, and energy. It also includes all those development activities which directly or indirectly affect
nature.
The anthropogenic activities are the followings:
• Agriculture
• Energy production
• Industrialisation
• Transportation
• Personal and Domestic Activities
• Wars

Impact of Anthropogenic Activities on Environment
Overpopulation is a stage in which the demand for natural resources does not meet for the population. In
other words, overpopulation is the condition in which the available natural resources are limited or not
sufficient for the human population.
The effects of overpopulation are quite severe, with one of the most severe being the degradation of the
environment.
The environment has the potential to restore most of its resources in a certain period
of time. However, over-exploitation of resources and anthropogenic activities have altered
it, leading to many environmental problems, such as:
1. Deforestation
2. Pollutions
3. Global Warming
4. Depletion of Ozone Layer
5. Diminishing of Fossil Fuels
6. Acid Rain
7. Climate Change
Deforestation
Cutting of the natural forest cover is called deforestation. we are aware of the importance of forests as a
major natural resource. They provide wood for multiple use, shelter to wild life, soil conservation and
rainfall. Plants take up carbon dioxide for photosynthesis. Less forests mean more carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere.
Cutting down of forests may lead to the following:

• Destruction of habitat or living place for wild plants and animals leading to disappearance and
extinction of many species,
• Reduced rainfall in that area,
• Lowering of water table or depth of ground water,
• Soil erosion, loss of fertility of soil and lack of vegetation leading to desertification, and
• Increased CO2 levels in the atmosphere and global warming.
Pollution
Human life includes a number of daily activities. Bathing and washing of clothes with soaps and
detergents add some chemical residue to water and change its quality. Cooking of food by using

firewood may give out smoke in the air. Agricultural activities may dump fertilizers and pesticides in the
environment.
Each activity, human or industrial, discharges some unwanted substances in the environment. The
addition of unwanted substances in wrong concentration that has an adverse effect on organisms and
environment, is called pollution.
Technological growth has given new devices for human comfort but has also added substances that may
have an adverse effect on life and environment.
An undesirable change in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of the environment
especially air, water and land that may adversely affect human population and the wildlife, industrial
processes, cultural assets (buildings and monuments), is called pollution.
The agents that pollute the resources or cause of pollution are called pollutants.
Global Warming (Greenhouse Effect)
Greenhouse is referred to as a glass chamber where plants are grown in a closed warm environment as
compared to the outside temperature. This is normally practiced in cold regions on the hills. The solar
radiations bringing heat (in the form of infra-red rays from the sun) are trapped inside the chamber.
Causes of Global Warming

Industrialization and urbanization has lead to deforestation and release of gases, such as Carbon dioxide
(CO2), Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), Methane (CH4) and Nitrous oxides (N2O) into atmosphere These
gases are the main greenhouse gases that cause global warming. An increase in the concentration of these
greenhouse gases leads to an increased trapping of long wave radiations resulting in an increase in
Earth’s temperature causing global warming.
Greenhouse Gases: Their sources and Causes
Gas Sources and Causes
Carbon dioxide (CO2) Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation
Chlorofluorocarbons(CFCs) Refrigeration, solvents, insulation foams, aero

propellants, industrial and commercial uses

Nitrogen oxides (N2O) Burning of fossil fuels, fertilizers; burning of wood and
crop residue.
Methane (CH4) Growing paddy, excreta of cattle and other livestock,

termites,
Effects of global warming

Although the increase in global temperature in the last hundred years has been
estimated to rise by only 1 degree, it has resulted in serious consequences, such as:
• melting of snow caps/ glaciers and rising of sea level,
• unpredictable weather patterns,
• submerging of coastal areas of the Maldives islands in the Indian Ocean,
• early maturation of crops leading to reduced grain size and low yields, and
• interference with the hatching of eggs in certain fish.
Depletion of Ozone Layer
The ozone hole: depletion of the ozone layer

The ozone layer present in the Earth’s atmosphere prevents the entry of sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV)
radiations reaching the Earth’s surface. Industrial use of chemicals called chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in
refrigeration, air conditioning, cleaning solvents, fire extinguishers and aerosols (spray cans of
perfumes, insecticides, medicines, etc.) damage the ozone layer.
Chlorine contained in the CFCs on reaching the ozone (O3) layer splits the ozone molecule to form
oxygen (O2). Amount of ozone, thus, gets reduced and cannot prevent the entry of UV radiations. There
has been a reduction by 30-40% in the thickness of the ozone umbrella or shield over the Arctic and
Antarctic regions.
Depletion of ozone layer may lead to the following hazards:

• Sunburn, fast ageing of skin, cancer of skin, cataract (opaqueness of eye lens
leading to loss of vision), cancer of the retina (sensitive layer of the eye on
which image is formed)?
• Genetic disorders
• Reduced productivity at sea and forests
Important Ozone Depleting Chemicals and their uses

Name of the compound Used in

Refrigeration, aerosol, foam, food freezing,
warming devices, cosmetics, heat detectors
CFCs
solvents, cosmetics, refrigerants, firefighting
Halon Firefighting
HCFC-22 Refrigeration, aerosol, foam, fire fighting
Methyl chloroform Solvent
Carbon tetrachloride Solvent
Acid Rain
Acid rain occurs when Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) are emitted into the
atmosphere, undergo chemical transformations and are absorbed by water droplets in clouds. This causes
the formation of sulphuric and nitric acids in rain clouds. The droplets then fall to Earth as rain, snow
or mist. If rain falls through polluted air it picks up more of these gases and increases its acidity. This is
called acid rain. This can increase the acidity of the soil and affect the chemical balance of lakes and
streams. Thus, acid rain is defined as any type of precipitation with a pH that is unusually low. A pH of
less than about 5 is used as a definition of acid rain. Acid rain is a serious environmental problem that
affects large parts of the world.
Sources of Acid Rain

Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is generally a byproduct of industrial processes and burning of fossil fuels. Ore
smelting, coal-fired power generators and natural gas processing are the main contributors to Sulphur
dioxide in the atmosphere.
The main source of oxides of nitrogen (NOx) emissions is the combustion of fuels in motor vehicles,
residential and commercial furnaces, industrial and electrical- utility boilers and engines, and other
equipment’s.
Effects of Acid Rain

It causes acidification of lakes and streams and contributes to the damage of trees and many sensitive
forest soils. Also, acid rain accelerates the decay of building materials and paints, including heritage
buildings, statues, and sculptures that are part of our nation’s cultural heritage. Before falling to the
Earth, Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxide (NOx) gases and their particulate matter
derivatives; sulphates and nitrates, contribute to visibility degradation and harm public health.

Depletion of Fossil Fuels
Fossil fuel is a term used to describe a group of energy sources that were formed from ancient plants
and organisms during the Carboniferous Period, approximately 360 to 286 million years ago, before the
age of dinosaurs. Fossil fuels are also called non-renewable energy.
There are three types of fossil Fuels, namely; Coal, Oil and Natural Gases.
The reserves of fossil fuels are limited.
Fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas) have, and continue to, play a dominant role in global energy systems. Fossil
energy was a fundamental driver of the Industrial Revolution, and the technological, social, economic
and development progress which has followed. Energy has played a strongly positive role in global
change.
However, fossil fuels also have negative impacts, being the dominant source of local air pollution and
emitter of carbon dioxide (CO2) and other greenhouse gases.
Fossil Fuel Consumption

We are oblivious of the fact that there will be a time, measured in decades, when these fuels will run
out. Because of global population rise, there is a growing demand for energy. This growth is
endangering our future.
All deposits of fossil fuels are limited either physically or economically, thus making them finite and
non-renewable natural resources. Because of the global population rise, there is a growing demand for
energy. Countries, which have fossil fuel reserves, are extracting at a high rate either for the use or to
sell to the other countries. As we know that fossil fuels can not replenish through human efforts and
technology. Hence, the extraction of finite non-renewable resources is at a faster rate, then it will
eventually be depleted within 100-150 years (approximately).
Climate Change
Rising fossil fuel burning are increasing quantities of greenhouse gases into the Earth’s atmosphere.
These greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4) and nitrogen dioxide (N2O), and
a rise in these gases has caused a rise in the amount of heat from the sun withheld in the Earth’s
atmosphere, the heat that would normally be radiated back into space. This increase in heat has led to the
greenhouse effect, resulting in climate change.
The main characteristics of climate change are:
• increases in average global temperature (global warming);

• changes in cloud cover and precipitation particularly over land;
• melting of ice caps and glaciers and reduced snow cover; and
• increases in ocean temperatures and ocean acidity (due to seawater absorbing heat and carbon
dioxide from the atmosphere).
Literally ‘Climate Change’ denotes the long-term change in the statistical distribution of weather
patterns (e.g. temperature, precipitation etc.) over decades to millions years of time. The climate on
Earth has changed on all time scales even since long before human activity could have played a role in
its transformation.
UNFCCC defined Climate Change as "a change of climate which is attributed directly or indirectly
to human activity that alters the composition of the global atmosphere and which is in addition to
natural climate variability observed over comparable time periods”.
And the adverse human activities for example burning fossil fuel, deforestation etc. are considered likely
to bring change in some climatic aspects which are briefly presented in the following table Table:
Aspects of Climate Change and perceived implications

Climatic Features Implications of Change
GHG Emission of Green House Gases thorough industrialization,
Concentration travelling etc. is increasing the GHG concentration in the
atmosphere. At this moment CO2 concentration is at its highest
concentration in 650 000 years – 393 ppm
Global Warming
Change in GHG concentration along with some other issues leads to warming
world the world. Earth has warmed since 1880. Most of this warming has
temperature occurred since the 1970s, with the 20 warmest years having occurred
since 1981.
Being central to the issue predominantly, Global warming brings
about change in following different features of the human
environment
Ozone layer depletion A slow, steady decline of about 4 % per decade in the total volume
of ozone in Earth's stratosphere (the ozone layer) since the late 1970s
is estimated which is likely to bring health implications (different
cancerous diseases), augmenting extreme weather events
(desertification, drought) through opening the curtain that was
protecting Earth from hazardous sun rays.
Shrinking ice sheets Greenland lost 150 km3 to 250 km3 (36 mi3 to 60 mi3) of ice per year
between 2002 and 2006 and Antarctica lost about 152 km3 (36 mi3)
of ice between 2002 and 2005. This on the other
hand contributing to the next problem sea level rise.
Rise in Sea Level Global sea level rose about 17 cm in the last century. Continual
increase is very likely to inundate many island states, low-lying delta
regions leaving their population having no land to inhabit.
Ocean Acidification Since 1750 the CO2 content of the Earth’s oceans has been
increasing and it is currently increasing about 2 billion tons per year
which has increased ocean acidity by about 30 %.
Warming Oceans With the top 700 m (about 2300 ft) of ocean showing warming of
0.16 degree Celcius since 1969 due to absorbed increased heat of the
Earth.
Ocean Acidification and Warming Oceans, these two changes are likely to bring massive
change/destruction in ocean habitations.

Natural and Energy Resources

A resource can be defined as ‘any natural or artificial substance, energy or organism, which is used by
human being for its welfare.
Natural Resources: All things that nature has provided such as soil, air, water, minerals, coal, sunshine
(sunlight), animals and plants, etc., are known as natural resources.
Artificial Resources: The resources, which have been developed by human beings during the growth of
civilization, are called artificial resources. For example, biogas, thermal electricity, plastics. These man-
made resources are generally derived from some other natural resources. For example, plastics from the
natural resource, petroleum.
Types of Natural Resources
The natural resources can be classified in the following ways:
Inexhaustible Resources
The resources which cannot be exhausted by human consumption are called inexhaustible resources.
These include energy sources like solar radiation, wind power, waterpower (flowing streams) and tidal
power, and substances like sand, clay, air, water in oceans, etc.
Exhaustible Resources
On the other hand, there are some resources, which are available in limited quantities and are going to be
exhausted as a result of continuous use. These are called exhaustible resources. For example, the stock
of coal, petroleum, and natural gases in the earth is limited and one day there will be no more coal

available for our use.
Renewable Resources
Some of the exhaustible resources are naturally regenerated after consumption and are known as
renewable resources. e.g. Forest trees and plants that make a forest may be destroyed but new ones
grow in their place. But if forest is totally cut down to get land for construction of buildings, it is lost
forever. Some other examples are fresh water, fertile soil, forest (yielding wood and other products),
vegetation, wildlife, etc.
Non-renewable Resources
The resources, which cannot be replaced after the use, are known as non-renewable Resources. These
include minerals (copper, iron etc.) fossil fuels (coal, oil etc.). Even wildlife species (rare plants and
animals) belong to this category.
We have always been using different forms of energy obtained from various sources for our daily activities
like cooking, heating, ploughing, transportation, lighting, etc.
For example, heat energy required for cooking purpose is obtained from firewood, kerosene oil, coal,
electricity or cooking gas. LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) We use animal power (horse, bullock, etc.) for
transportation and for running minor mechanical devices like the Persian wheel for irrigation or for
running a “kolhu” for extracting oil from oilseeds. Different forms of these energies are obtained from
various sources. We will discuss about them in detail.
Types of Energy Sources
There are two main categories of energy sources:

1. Conventional Sources of Energy, which are easily available and have been in usage for a long time.
2. Non-Conventional Sources of Energy, that are other than the usual, or that are different from those
in common practice.
The table below summarises the list of both the above categories of energy resources.

Types of Energy Sources
Conventional Energy Non-Conventional Energy

Conventional Non- Conventional Solar Energy
renewable Energy Renewable Energy Hydel Energy
(Mostly fossil fuels found (Mostly non-fossil fuels Wind Energy
under the Ground) seen above the Ground) Nuclear Energy
Examples: Coal, Oil, Examples: Firewood,
Cattle Dung, Farm, Hydrogen Energy
Natural gas etc.
Vegetable Wastes, Geothermal Energy
Wood charcoal, etc. Biogas
Tidal Energy
Biofuel
1. Biosphere Plants, Animals, and Bio organism
2. Atmosphere Air (oxygen, CO2, Nitrogen, Hydrogen etc.)
Water including oceans, seas, rivers, lakes,
3. Hydrosphere
glaciers, ice caps, ground water, etc.
4. Lithosphere Soil, Minerals, Rocks
Conventional Sources of Energy

Conventional sources of energy have been in used since ancient times. Most important among them
are the fossil fuels.
Fossil Fuels
Fossil fuels are the fossilised remains of plants and animals, which over millions of years have been
transformed into coal, petroleum products and natural gas.
Coal is the most abundant fossil fuel. It is widely used for combustion in cooking and industrial
activities. There are different types of coal products such as coal gas, coal tar, benzene, toluene, etc.,
which are used for various purposes.
Oil and Natural gases are formed from plants and animals which once lived in the tropical seas. Oil (or
petroleum) is a source of countless products. Apart from petrol, diesel and other fuels, petroleum products
include lubricants, waxes, solvents, dyes, etc. Petroleum reserves are supposed to last for another 100
years or so.
Natural gas is often found with petroleum. The gas mainly contains methane. Apart from serving as fuel

in several industries, it is being increasingly used as domestic fuel in many countries including India.
United States of America is the largest producer as well as consumer of natural gas.
Now-a-days in big cities and towns it is being supplied through pipelines which is called Piped Natural
Gas (PNG). The natural gas is also used as a fuel to run vehicles. It is known as Compressed Natural
Gas (CNG). It is accepted as an economical and less polluting fuel for transport.
The Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) is the common cooking gas used in Indian homes. It is a mixture
of propane and butane gases kept under pressure in liquid form, but they burn in gaseous form. This gas
is made available in a specific container for domestic as well as industrial uses. It is a byproduct of
petroleum refineries
Non-Conventional Sources of Energy

We have already learnt known about conventional sources of energy, whether renewable or non-
renewable (coal, oil, etc.), which are fast depleting and will not last long. Therefore, greater utilisation of
non-conventional sources of energy (solar, wind, hydro, geothermal, etc) will have to be used.
1. Solar Energy
Solar energy is the ultimate source of all energy on earth. Firewood, coal, oil or natural gas are the
products of plants and other organisms, which had used solar energy for the synthesis of organic
molecules during photosynthesis. Even today it will turn out to be the most important answer to problems
of energy except nuclear energy.
The solar energy has the following advantages:
(i) It is abundant
(ii) It is everlasting
(iii) It is available almost everywhere.
(iv) It is free from political barriers.
2. Hydel /Hydro Energy

The generation of electricity by using the force of falling water is called hydro- electricity or hydel
power. It is cheaper than thermal or nuclear power. For its generation dams are built to store water,
which is made to fall to rotate turbines that generate electricity.
3. Wind Energy
Wind as an energy can be utilised in our daily life by converting it into mechanical energy. This
mechanical energy is used to generate electricity, raise water from wells and rivers for irrigation and other
purposes. Windmills have been in use since early times to provide power for grinding grains. It is also
used for grain cutting and shelling. In India a large number of windmills are being constructed on the sea
beach and hilly areas.

Minimum wind speed required for operating the windmill is 7 km/hour. A windmill can draw water upto
a maximum depth of 55 feet and the output is 4000-9000 litres (of water) per hour.
4. Tidal Energy
Tidal energy is one that is produced by making the use of water movement from a high tide to a low
tide. Ocean waves and tides can be made to turn a turbine and generate electricity. Areas where rivers
flow into the sea experience waves and tides and electricity can be generated there. It has much potential.
As you know we have a large coastline and major river systems in our country, electricity can be
generated on a large scale from waves and tides.
5. Nuclear Energy
Radioactive elements like uranium and thorium disintegrate spontaneously releasing large quantities of
energy. This energy can be trapped to produce electricity. 25% of world’s thorium reserve is found in our
country, which can be utilised to generate electricity. Most advanced countries have nuclear power
stations. We too have some in India, for example, Tarapur (Maharashtra), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu),
Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kota (Rajasthan). Approximately 3% of India’s electricity comes from
nuclear power and about 25% is expected to come by 2050.
Installation costs of nuclear power stations are very high, but maintenance costs are relatively low. If not
carefully maintained, these also have an inherent risk of causing radioactive pollution.
6. Hydrogen Energy
Hydrogen is the primary fuel for the hydrogen-based fuel cells and power plants. Power can be generated
for industrial, residential and transport purposes by using hydrogen.
7. Geothermal Energy
This is the energy derived from the heat in the interior of the earth. In volcanic regions, springs and
fountains of hot water called “geysers” are commonly found. These eruptions of hot steaming water can
be used to turn turbines and produce electricity in geothermal power plants. In this method cold water is
allowed to seep through the fissures in the rocks till it reaches the hot rocks in the lower layers. Water
gets heated and gets converted into steam which forces out to the surface to be used in power generation.
Besides the superheated steam of hot springs can also generate electricity. There are 46 hydrothermal
areas in India where the water temperature normally exceeds 150 degree centigrade. Electricity can be
generated from these hot springs.
8. Biogas (Biomass)
Another form of non-conventional energy is biogas. It is produced by the microbial activity on cattle
dung in a specially designed tank called digester. A mixture of water and cattle dung is poured in this
digester where anaerobic decomposition takes place and biogas is generated. This gas contains 55 –
70 percent methane, which is inflammable, and it is generally used as cooking gas and for generation
of electricity. The “waste” left in the tank after the generation of biogas is used as manures. Thus, biogas

plant provides us both the fuel and the manure. Biogas plants are becoming very popular in rural India.
9. Biofuel
The hydrocarbons present in such plants can be converted into petroleum hydrocarbons. This liquid
hydrocarbon is the biofuel and the plants producing it are called petro-plants. The plant species, Jatropha
curcus is the most suitable one, which yields biodiesel. The Indian Oil Corporation is carrying out
experiments for preparation of biodiesel from various vegetable oils extracted from rice bran, palm,
karanjia, sunflower etc.
Environmental Issues: Local, Regional and Global
Environment have been supplying us the different types of resources to live a life since our appearance
on the earth. In return, we have damaged the environment severely. The human activities have polluted
the ecology and have modified the environmental structure.
Due to changes in the originality of the nature, we are facing different types of environmental issues at
local, regional and global levels.
Environmental Issues at Local level:
• Drinking water
• Poor Air Quality
• Infertility of soil
• Health issues due to Hazardous waste
Environmental Issues at Regional Level:
• Deforestation
• Desertification
• Pollutions
• Diminishing of Fossil Fuels
Environmental Issues at Global Level:
• Global warming
• Depletion of Ozone layer
• Acid Rain
• Climate Change

POLLUTION
The addition of unwanted substances in a concentration that has an adverse effect on organisms and
environment is called pollution.
Types of Pollution
 Air pollution
 Water pollution
 Soil pollution
 Noise pollution
 Waste (Solid, Liquid, Biomedical, Hazardous, Electronic)
Air Pollution
According to NASA, the composition of air (gases) in Earth's atmosphere include:
Nitrogen — 78 percent
Oxygen — 21 percent
Argon — 0.93 percent
Carbon dioxide — 0.04 percent
Trace amounts of neon, helium, methane, krypton and hydrogen, as well as water vapor.
If there is some disturbance in proportion of gases or addition of some unwanted substances (like,
smoke, dust particles etc.) in atmospheric air, then it is called Air Pollution.
Sources of Air Pollution
The sources of air pollution can he divided into two categories (i) Natural, and (ii) Human-made
(i) Natural sources
(i) Ash from burning volcanoes, dust from storm, forest fires
(ii) Pollen grains from flowers in air are natural sources of pollution
(ii) Anthropogenic (human-made) sources

(i) Power stations using coal or crude oil release CO2 in air
(ii) Also, furnaces using coal, cattle dung cakes, firewood, kerosene, etc.
(iii) Steam engines used in railways, steamers, motor vehicles, etc. give
out CO2.
(iv) So do Motor and internal combustion engines which run on petrol, diesel, kerosene. etc.
Vegetable oils, kerosene, and coal as household fuels
(v) Sewers and domestic drains emanating foul gases
(vi) Pesticide residues in air
Major Air Pollutants
 Carbon Dioxide
Carbon dioxide is one of the major gases which contributes towards air pollution. It is mainly produced
during the combustion of fuel in factories, power stations, household etc. The increasing CO2 in the
atmosphere is likely to have the following effects:
(i) A rise in atmospheric temperature or global warming due to greenhouse effect. Also causes
climate change.
(ii) Reduced productivity of the marine ecosystem. This is due to the fact that water in the oceans
would be more acidic due to increased concentration of CO 2 in the air, which dissolves in the
water.
(iii) Due to Global warming, the increased surface temperature would cause melting of continental
and mountain glaciers and thus would cause flooding of coastal areas of some countries.
 Sulphur Dioxide
It is produced by the burning of coal in powerhouses and automobiles (car, trucks etc.). It causes
chlorosis and necrosis of plants, irritation in eyes and injury to the respiratory tract (asthma, bronchitis)
in humans responsible fordiscoloration and deterioration of buildings. High concentration of sulphur
dioxide in the atmosphere dissolves in rain drops to form sulphuric acid which causes acid rain.
 Carbon Monoxide
Carbon monoxide is produced as a result of incomplete combustion of fossil fuels like coal, petroleum
and wood charcoal. Automobiles using diesel and petroleum are the major sources of carbon monoxide
which gets added to the atmosphere. Carbon monoxide is more dangerous than carbon dioxide. It is a
poisonous gas which causes respiratory problems. When it reaches the blood stream, it replaces oxygen
due to its high affinity for haemoglobin. It also causes giddiness, headache and interferes with normal
function of the heart.

 Fluorides
Upon heating, rocks, soils and minerals that contain fluorides, give out hydrogen fluoride gas. This is
an extremely toxic gas, which causes serious injury to livestock and cattle.
 Oxides of Nitrogen
A few oxides of nitrogen, such as nitric oxide (NO), nitrous oxide (N 2O) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
are produced by natural processes as well as from thermal power stations, factories, automobiles and
aircrafts (due to burning of coal and petroleum). They reduce the oxygen carrying capacity of blood, may
cause eye irritation and skin cancer in human beings.
 Smog
Smog is a mixture of smoke, dust particles and small drops of fog. Smog may cause necrosis and
develop a white coating on the leaves (silvering) of plants. In human beings and animals, it may
cause asthma and allergies.
 Aerosol Spray Propellants

Suspended fine particles in the air are known as aerosols. Aerosols contain chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs) and fluorocarbons used in refrigerants and aerosol cans. They cause depletion of the ozone layer.
 Domestic Air Pollutants

Smoke from cigarettes, biri, cigar and other such objects using burning tobacco, burning of coal,
firewood, cow dung cakes, kerosene oil and liquefied gases are major domestic pollutants. The common
pollutant gases emitted during the domestic burning of coal, kerosene oil, firewood, cow dung cakes, etc.
are carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), Sulphur dioxide (SO2), etc.The pollution due to these
pollutants causes suffocation, eye and lung diseases and low visibility.
Impact of Air Pollutants

Major effects of air pollutants on human health, plants and other animals is given below:

Some major air pollutants, their sources and effects
Pollutant Source Harmful effect

Carbon compounds Automobile exhausts, - Respiratory problems
(CO and CO2) burning of Wood and - Greenhouse effect global
coal warning and climate change
Sulphur Power plants and • Respiratory problems in humans
Compounds (SO2 and refineries, Volcanic • loss of chlorophyll in plants
eruptions (chlorosis)
H2S)
• Acid rain
Nitrogen Compound Motor vehicle • Irritation in eyes and lungs
(NO and N2O) exhaust, atmospheric • Low productivity in plants
reaction • Acid rain damages material
(metals and
Hydrocarbons Automobiles and • Respiratory problem
(benzene, ethylene) petroleum industries
• Cancer causing properties
SPM (Suspended Thermal power - Poor visibility, breathing problems
Particulate matter) plants, construction - Lead interferes with the
(Any Solid or liquid activities, development of red blood cells and
particles suspended metallurgical causes lung diseases and cancer
in the air, (fly ash, processes and - Smog (smoke+fog) formation leads
dust, lead) automobiles to poor visibility and aggravates
asthma in patients
Fibres (Cotton, Textile and carpet - Lung disorders
wool) weaving industries
Water Pollution
Any physical, biological or chemical change in water quality that adversely affects living organisms or
makes water unsuitable for desired use is called water pollution.
Sources of Water Pollution

There are two sources of water pollution on the basis of origin of pollutants:
(i) Point sources and (ii) Non-point sources
(i) Point sources: Those sources which discharge water pollutants directly into the water are known as
point sources of water pollution. Oil wells situated near water bodies, factories. power plants,
underground coal mines, etc. are point sources of water pollution.

(ii) Non-point sources: Those sources which do not have any specific location for discharging
pollutants in the water, are known as non-point sources of water pollution. Run-offs from agricultural
fields, lawns, gardens, construction sites, roads and streets are some non-point sources of water
pollution.
Water Pollutants
River, lake and sea water may be polluted in many ways.
 Domestic sewage discharged into rivers from areas located on its banks
 Industrial wastes effluents from urban areas containing high concentration of oil, heavy metals and
detergents
 Minerals, organic wastes and crop dusting from agricultural fields with phosphate and nitrogen
fertilizers that reach lakes, rivers and sea (water becomes deoxygenated and poisonous, thus, cannot
support aquatic life)
 Chemical fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides, herbicides and plant remains
 Industrial wastewater containing several chemical pollutants, such as calcium, magnesium,
chlorides, sulphide, carbonates, nitrates, nitrites, heavy metals and radioactive waste from nuclear
reactor.
 Excretory wastes of humans and animals in water bodies
 Disposal of urban and industrial waste matter into water bodies
Fertilizers and pesticides are widely used in agriculture. Their excessive use for
increasing agricultural yield has led to the phenomenon of eutrophication and
biomagnification.
Some major disturbances in the ecosystem due to water pollution
Pollutant Sources Cause Effect

Nitrates, Agricultural Plant Eutrophication
phosphates, fertilizers, sewage, nutrients
ammonium salts manure
Animal manure Sewage, paper Oxygen Death of aquatic
and plant mills, deficiency animals
residues food processing
wastes
Heat Power plants and Thermal Death of fish
industrial cooling discharge

Oil slick Leakage from oil Petroleum Death of marine life

ships due to non-availability
of oxygen dissolved in
water
Some water pollutants, their sources and effect on human health
Pollutant Source Diseases in humans

Lead Industrial waste Nervous disorders, Kidney failure, blood poisoning
Tin Industrial dust Affects central nervous system (CNS) Affects, vision
Affects central nervous system and peripheral nervous
Industrial
Mercury system, kidney failure, Numbness of lips, muscles and
discharge
limbs, Blurred vision
Industrial
Arsenic Respiratory and skin cancer, Nervous disorder
discharge
Aerosols,
Nickel, Industrial dust, Pulmonary disorders, Dermatitis, Kidney disorders,
Cadmium Industrial Pulmonary and skeletal diseases
discharge
Uranium,
Thorium, Radioactive waste Leucoderma, Skin cancer
Cesium
Soil Pollution
Addition of substances that change the quality of soil by making it less fertile and unable to support life
is called soil pollution.
Sources of soil pollution
Soil pollution is caused due to:

 Domestic sources: plastic bags, kitchen waste, glass bottles, and paper
 Industrial sources: chemical residue, fly ash, metallic waste, and
 Agricultural residues: fertilizers and pesticides.
Harmful effects of soil pollution
 Decrease in irrigated land thereby reduction in agricultural production.

 Decrease in soil productivity.

 Carry over of pollutants into the food chain.

 Damage to landscape
Control of Soil Pollution
Judicious use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

Proper and appropriate irrigation practices
 Conversion of farm wastes into compost and much use of bio fertilizers and manure in farming.
 Ensure use of pollution free or treated wastewater only for irrigation.
 Recycling of waste material for example plastic, metal and glass are recyclable and incineration
of non-recyclable, wastes.
Soil Erosion
The process of detaching and removal of loosened soil particles by water (running water, ground
water, rain, sea waves) and wind is known as soil erosion.
Soil may be eroded by water and wind, each contributing towards a significant amount of soil loss every
year in our country.
Types of soil erosion
Wind erosion
Erosion of large quantity of fine soil particles and sand from deserts by wind is known as wind erosion.
It is spread over the cultivated land and thus, destroys fertility of that land.
Sheet erosion
When water moves over the land surface as a sheet, it takes away the topmost thin layer of soil. This
phenomenon occurs uniformly on the slopes of hilly areas, riverbeds and areas affected by floods. This
type of erosion is known as sheet erosion.
Gully erosion
When water moves down the slope as a channel, it scoops out the soil and forms gullies which gradually
multiply and spread over a large area. This type of soil erosion is known as gully erosion.
NOISE POLLUTION
Any unwanted sound is defined as noise. You know that the noises come from traffic, vehicles, especially
at peak hour every day, loudspeakers and building construction work. Industries expose their workers to a

high level of noises for long period of work every day.

Prolonged exposure to high level of noise is harmful. Noise is measured in terms of ‘decibel’ (db) - a scale
expressing intensity of the sound.
Noise has harmful effects on human body. Noise of 70-80 dB causes annoyance and irritation. Above
this level, breathing rate may be affected, blood vessels may constrict, movement of digestive canal is
disturbed, glandular secretions may be affected. Long exposure to high noise levels can impair hearing.
Pollution control Legislations in India
Acts Year
Indian Forest Act 1927
Wildlife Protection Act 1972
The water (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 1974
The air (Prevention and control of Pollution) 1981
Act
The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986
The National Environmental Tribunal Act 1995
The pollution related laws like the Water Act (1974), Air Act (1981), and the Environmental Protection Act
(1995) do not give the right to an individual to move the court under the environment laws for damages
caused to them by pollution. The right has been vested only in the agencies of the State Government.
Radiation: An Environmental Pollutant
Radiation is one of the chief forms of energy consisting of high energy particles. Radiation could be
natural (solar and cosmic) or and human (nuclear). Radiation has also become a major factor causing
environmental pollution.
Radiation may have both short term and long-term effects. They can further be divided functionally into:
 Ionising and
 Non Ionising radiations
Ionizing and Non-Ionising Radiations
Type Ionising Non-ionising
Examples Alpha, Beta, Gamma and X- Ultraviolet radiation

Ray
Properties Short wave lengths, high Higher wave lengths, low

energy. energy
Effects Causes ionisation in Damage through toxic

cells photo products
Harmful Effects - Deep penetrating - Only superficial tissues are

power effects both damaged
external & internal
- Kills micro-organism and
organs
egg of fish & amphibians
- Breakage of
- Prevents synthesis of DNA
chromosomes
and RNA, Cell division Skin
- Gene mutation and cancer in humans
genetic variations
- Cancer of bone
marrow (Leukaemia)
- Loss hair,
- Male sterility
Inhabitants of Hiroshima (Japan) exposed to nuclear fallout had no

children for a long time or had deformed infertile offspring.
Nuclear Radiation and its harmful effect

Radiations emitted by nuclear substances or wastes (fallout) or from atomic power plant or an atomic
explosion cause nuclear radiation. Nuclear wastes continue to emit radiation for a very long period.
Radioactive Iodine (131I) and Strontium (90Sr) are two nuclear wastes from an atomic explosion and
may cause cancer of thyroid and cancer of bone narrow/ respectively. By entering food chain they also get
accumulated in high concentration in the body of the top consumer causing harmful effect on the health of
both humans and animals.

Waste
As per the oxford dictionary, wastes are the materials that are no longer needed and are thrown away.
Waste is the unwanted and unusable materials and is regarded as a substance which is of no use.
Basel Convention by UNEP define wastes “as substances or objects, which are disposed of or are
intended to be disposed of or are required to be disposed of by the provisions of national law”.
Types of Waste
1. Solid Waste
2. Liquid Waste
3. Biomedical Waste
4. Hazardous Waste
5. Electronic Waste
Classification based on the Sources:
Solid Waste
Solid waste is the unwanted or useless solid materials generated from human activities in residential,
industrial or commercial areas.
It may be categorised in three ways. According to its:

• origin (domestic, industrial, commercial, construction or institutional)

• contents (organic material, glass, metal, plastic paper etc)
• hazard potential (toxic, non-toxin, flammable, radioactive, infectious etc).
It can be classified into different types depending on their source:
• Municipal Solid Waste (MSW): It consists of household waste, construction and demolition
debris (CnD), sanitation residue, and waste from streets, generated mainly from residential and
commercial complexes. As per the MoEF it includes commercial and residential waste generated
in municipal or notified areas in either solid or semi-solid form excluding industrial hazardous
wastes but including treated bio-medical wastes;
• Industrial Solid Waste (ISW): In a majority of cases it is termed as hazardous waste as they
may contain toxic substances, are corrosive, highly inflammable, or react when exposed to
certain things e.g. gases.
• Biomedical waste or hospital waste: It is usually infectious waste that may include waste like
sharps, soiled waste, disposables, anatomical waste, cultures, discarded medicines, chemical
wastes, etc., usually in the form of disposable syringes, swabs, bandages, body fluids, human
excreta, etc. These can be a serious threat to human health if not managed in a scientific and
discriminate manner.
Rules and regulations associated with SWM

Under the 74th Constitutional Amendment, Disposal and management of Municipal Solid Waste is one
of the 18 functional domains of the Municipal Corporations and Nagar Panchayats. The various rules
and regulations for solid waste management are:
1. The Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998

2. Municipal Solid Waste (Management and Handling) Rules 2000
3. The Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
4. E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
Liquid Waste
When water is used once and is no longer fit for human consumption or any other use, it is considered to
be liquid waste. Liquid waste is not only wastewater but also include fats, oils or grease (FOG), used
oil, solids, gases, or sludges and hazardous household liquids. Liquid waste is commonly found
both in households as well as in industries.
Wastewater can be sub categorised as industrial and domestic.
• Industrial wastewater is generated by manufacturing processes and is difficult to treat.

• Domestic wastewater includes water discharged from homes, commercial complexes, hotels, and

educational institutions.
Biomedical Waste
Biomedical waste (BMW) comprises waste generated from hospitals, healthcare facilities and health
research laboratories.
Biomedical waste is defined as any waste, which is generated during the diagnosis, treatment or
immunisation of human beings or animals, or in research activities pertaining thereto, or in the
production or testing of biologicals.
Examples: syringes, needles, disposable scalpels and blades, etc.
BMW is estimated to be only a small fraction of the MSW generation. About 80 per cent of this waste –
called “general waste” – is non-infectious and if segregated can be managed as Muncipal Solid Waste.
However, the remaining 20 per cent is infectious and hazardous and hence is required to be treated in
dedicated facilities.
Categories of Biomedical Waste
There are ten defined categories as follows:

1. Human Anatomical Waste: (tissues, organs, body parts)
2. Animal waste: (including animals used in research and waste originating from veterinary hospitals
and animal houses).
3. Microbiological and biotechnology waste: (including waste from lab cultures, stocks or specimens of
microorganisms, live or attenuated vaccines, wastes from production of biologicals, etc.)
4. Waste sharps: (used/unused needles, syringes, lancets, scalpels, blades, glass etc.)
5. Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs.
6. Soiled wastes: (items contaminated with blood and body fluids, including cotton dressings, linen,
plaster casts, bedding etc.)
7. Solid wastes: (wastes generated from disposable items other than waste sharps such as tubing,
catheters, i.v. sets, etc.)
8. Liquid waste: (waste generated from washing, cleaning, housekeeping and disinfection activities
including these activities in labs).
9. Incineration ash: (from incineration of any biomedical waste)
10. Chemical waste: (chemicals used in production of biologicals and disinfection).
The major sources of biomedical waste are:
• Human anatomical waste like tissues, organs and body parts

• Animal wastes generated during research from veterinary hospitals

• Microbiology and biotechnology wastes
• Waste sharps like hypodermic needles, syringes, scalpels and broken glass
• Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs
• Soiled waste such as dressing, bandages, plaster casts, material contaminated with blood, tubes
and catheters
• Liquid waste from any of the infected areas
• Incineration ash and other chemical wastes
Hazardous Waste
Hazardous wastes can be defined as “wastes or combinations of wastes that pose a substantial
present or potential hazard to humans or other living organisms or natural resources because they
are nondegradable or persistent in nature, can be biologically magnified, can be toxic, or may
otherwise cause detrimental cumulative effects.”
Hazardous wastes contain organic or inorganic elements that, due to their toxicological, physical,
chemical, carcinogenic or persistency properties, may cause:
• Explosion or fire;
• Infection, including infection by parasites or their vectors;
• Chemical instability, reactions or corrosion;
• Acute or chronic toxic effects;
• Cancer, mutations or birth defects; or
• Damage to ecosystems or natural resources
Sources of Hazardous Waste
The term hazardous waste often includes by-products of industrial, domestic, commercial, and health
care activities. Rapid development and improvement of various industrial technologies, products and
practices may increase hazardous waste generation.
Hazardous waste sources include industry, institutional establishments, research laboratories, mining
sites, mineral processing sites, agricultural facilities and the natural environment.
Major hazardous waste sources and their pollution routes in the environment are listed below.
Agricultural land and Agro-industry: Hazardous wastes from agricultural land and agro-industry can
expose people to pesticides, fertilizers and hazardous veterinary product wastes.

Domestic: Households stock various hazardous substances such as batteries and dry cells, furniture
polishes, wood preservatives, stain removers, paint thinners, rat poisons, herbicides and pesticides,
mosquito repellents, paints, disinfectants, and fuels (i.e. kerosene) and other automotive products. These
can present a variety of dangers during storage, use and disposal.
Mines and mineral processing sites: Mining and mineral processing sites handle hazardous products
that are present in the additives, the products and the wastes.
Health care facilities: Health care facilities are sources of pathological waste, human blood and
contaminated needles. Specific sources of these wastes include dentists, morticians, veterinary clinics,
home health care, blood banks, hospitals, clinics and medical laboratories.
Commercial wastes: Commercial waste sources include gasoline stations, dry cleaners and automobile
repair shops (workshops). The types of hazardous wastes generated by these sources depend on the
services provided.
Institutional hazardous waste sources: Institutional hazardous waste sources are mainly research
laboratories, research centres and military installations.
Industrial hazardous waste sources: Hazardous wastes are created by many industrial activities. For
example, the hazardous wastes from the petroleum fuel industry include the refinery products (fuels and
tar), impurities like phenol and cyanides in the waste stream, and sludge flushed from the storage tanks.
Solid waste disposal sites: These are mainly disposal sites for municipal solid waste, but hazardous
wastes that have not been properly separated from other wastes are also at these sites. In developing
countries, solid waste disposal sites are a major source of pollutant-laden leachate to surrounding areas,
as well as recyclable materials for scavengers, who can collect and resell waste materials that have been
exposed to or that contain hazardous substances.
Contaminated sites: These are sites that are contaminated with hazardous wastes due to activities that
use or produce hazardous substances or due to accidental spills. Former sites of industries that used or
produced hazardous materials belong to this group.
Building materials: Roofs and pipes made of materials incorporating asbestos, copper, or other
materials may present a source of hazardous waste.

e-Waste
Rapid growth of technology, upgradation of technical innovations, and a high rate of obsolescence in the
electronics industry have led to one of the fastest growing waste streams in the world which consist of
end of life electrical and electronic equipment product such as : Refrigerator, Washing machines,
Computers and Printers, Televisions, Mobiles, Ipods etc. Many of which contain toxic materials.
E-waste or electronic waste broadly describes loosely discarded, surplus, obsolete, broken,
electrical or electronic devices.
Pollutant Occurrence Liquid crystal, Lithium, Mercury Nickel Alloys, PCBs (poly chlorinated
biphenyls) Selenium, Silver Zinc, etc.
The laws concerning Waste Management in India
Year Law
1974 The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
1975 The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Rules
1977 The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act
1978 Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Rules
1981 The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
1986 The Environment (Protection) Act
1989 The Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rules
1991 The Public Liability Insurance Act
1995 The National Environment Tribunal Act
1997 The National Environment Appellate Authority Act
1998 The Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules
2001 Batteries (Management and Handling) Rules
Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling & Transboundary Movement)
2008 Notified 2008
2010 National Green Tribunal Act
2011 The Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules
2011 E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules
Natural Hazards and Disasters
Natural hazards are severe and extreme weather and climate events that occur naturally in all parts of the
world, although some regions are more vulnerable to certain hazards than others. Natural hazards
become natural disasters when people’s lives and livelihoods are destroyed.

Natural hazard events can be grouped into two broad categories:

Geophysical hazards encompass geological and meteorological phenomena suchas
earthquakes, coastal erosion, volcanic eruption, cyclonic storms, and drought.
Biological hazards can refer to a diverse array of disease and infestation. Other natural hazards such
as floods and wildfires can result from a combination of geological, hydrological, and climatic factors.
Geological Hazards
Avalanche
An avalanche occurs when a large snow (or rock) mass slides down a mountainside. An avalanche is an
example of a gravity current consisting of granular material. In an avalanche, lots of material or mixtures
of different types of material fall or slide rapidly under the force of gravity. Avalanches are often
classified by the size or severity of consequences resulting from the event.
Earthquake
An earthquake is a phenomenon that results from a sudden release of stored energy that radiates seismic
waves. At the Earth's surface, earthquakes may manifest with a shaking or displacement of the ground;
when the earthquake occurs on the seafloor, the resulting displacement of water can sometimes result in
a tsunami. Most of the world's earthquakes (90%, and 81% of the largest) take place in the 40,000-km-
long, horseshoe-shaped zone called the circum-Pacific seismic belt, also known as the Pacific Ring of
Fire, which for the most part bounds the Pacific Plate. Many earthquakes happen each day, few of which
are large enough to cause significant damage.
Tsunami
A tsunami also known as a seismic sea wave or as a tidal wave, is a series of waves in a water body
caused by the displacement of a large volume of water, generally in an ocean or a large lake. Tsunamis
can be caused by undersea earthquakes such as the 2004 Boxing Day tsunami, or by landslides such as
the one in 1958 at Lituya Bay, Alaska, or by volcanic eruptions such as the ancient eruption of Santorini.
On March 11, 2011, a tsunami occurred near Fukushima, Japan and spread through the Pacific.
Coastal erosion
Coastal erosion is a physical process by which shorelines in coastal areas around the world shift and
change, primarily in response to waves and currents that can be influenced by tides and storm surge.
Coastal erosion can result from long-term processes as well as from episodic events such as tropical
cyclones or other severe storm events.
Lahar
A lahar is a type of natural event closely related to a volcanic eruption, and involves a large amount of
material originating from an eruption of a glaciated volcano, including mud from the melted ice, rock,

and ash sliding down the side of the volcano at a rapid pace. These flows can destroy entire towns in
seconds and kill thousands of people, and form flood basalt. This is based on natural events.
Landslide
A landslide is a mass displacement of sediment, usually down a slope.
Sinkholes
A sinkhole is a localized depression in the surface topography, usually caused by the collapse of a
subterranean structure such as a cave. Although rare, large sinkholes that develop suddenly in populated
areas can lead to the collapse of buildings and other structures.
Volcanic Eruption
A volcanic eruption is the point in which a volcano is active and releases its power, and the eruptions
come in many forms. They range from daily small eruptions which occur in places like
Kilauea in Hawaii, to mega colossal eruptions (where the volcano expels at least 1,000 cubic kilometers
of material) from super volcanoes like Lake Taupo (26,500 years ago) and Yellowstone Caldera.
According to the Toba catastrophe theory, 70 to 75 thousand years ago, a super volcanic eventat Lake
Toba reduced the human population to 10,000 or even 1,000 breeding pairs, creating a bottleneckin human
evolution. Some eruptions form pyroclastic flows, which are high-temperature clouds of ash and steam
that can travel down mountainsides at speed exceeding an airliner.
Metrological Hazards
Blizzard
A blizzard is a severe winter storm icy and windy conditions characterized by low temperature, strong
wind and heavy snow.
Drought
Scientists warn that global warming and climate change may result in more extensive droughts in coming
years. These extensive droughts are likely to occur within the African continent due to its very low
precipitation levels and high climate.
Hailstorm
A hailstorm is a natural hazard where a thunderstorm produces numerous hailstones which damage the
location in which they fall. Hailstorms can be especially devastating to farm fields, ruining crops and
damaging equipment.
Heat wave
A heat wave is a hazard characterized by heat which is considered extreme and unusual in the area in
which it occurs. Heat waves are rare and require specific combinations of weather events to take place,

and may include temperature inversions, katabatic winds, or other phenomena. There is potential for
longer-term events causing global warming, including stadial events (the opposite to glacial "ice age"
events), or through human-induced climatic warming.
Maelstrom
A maelstrom is a very powerful whirlpool. It is a large, swirling body of water with considerable
downdraft. There are virtually no documented accounts of large ships being sucked into a maelstrom,
although smaller craft and swimmers are in danger. Tsunami-generated maelstroms may even threaten
larger crafts.
Cyclonic storm
Hurricane, tropical cyclone, and typhoon are different names for the same phenomenon: a cyclonic
storm system that forms over the oceans. It is caused by evaporated water that comes off the ocean
and becomes a storm. The Coriolis effect causes the storms to spin, and a hurricane is declaredwhen this
spinning mass of storms attains a wind speed greater than 74 mph (119 km/h). Hurricane is used for
these phenomena in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific Oceans, tropical cyclone in the Indian,and typhoon
in the western Pacific.
Ice storm
An ice storm is a particular weather event in which precipitation falls as ice, due
to atmosphere conditions. It causes damage.
Tornado
A tornado is a natural disaster resulting from a thunderstorm. Tornadoes are violent, rotating columns of
air which can blow at speeds between 50 mph (80 km/h) and 300 mph (480 km/h), and possibly higher.
Tornadoes can occur one at a time or can occur in large tornado outbreaks associated with super cells or
in other large areas of thunderstorm development. Waterspouts are tornadoes occurring over tropical
waters in light rain conditions.
Climate change
Climate change is a long-term hazard which can increase or decrease the risk of other weather hazards,
and also directly endangers property due to sea level rise and biological organisms dueto
habitat destruction.
Geomagnetic storm
Geomagnetic storms can disrupt or damage technological infrastructure and disorient specieswith
magnetoception.
Waterspout
A waterspout is an intense columnar vortex (usually appearing as a funnel-shaped cloud) that occurs

over a body of water. They are connected to a towering cumuliform cloud or a cumulonimbus cloud. In
the common form, it is a non-supercell tornado over water
Flood
A flood results from an overflow of water beyond its normal confines of a body of water such as a lake,
or the accumulation of water over land areas.
Wildfire
Wildfire is a fire that burnt in an uncontrolled and unplanned manner. Wildfires can result from natural
occurrences such as lightning strikes or from human activity.
Classification of Disasters by High Powered Committee (HPC) in India
High Powered Committee (HPC) was constituted in August 1999 under the chairmanship of J.C. Pant.
The mandate of the HPC was to prepare comprehensive model plans for disaster management at the
national, state and district levels. This was the first attempt in India towards a systematic comprehensive
and holistic look at all disasters. Thirty odd disasters have been identified by the HPC, which were grouped
into the following five categories, based on generic considerations:
1. Water and Climate 3. Biological
• Floods • Epidemics
• Cyclones • Pest attacks
• Tornadoes and hurricanes (cyclones) • Cattle epidemics
• Hailstorms • Food poisoning
• Cloudburst 4. Chemical, industrial and nuclear
• Heat wave and cold wave
• Snow avalanches • Chemical and Industrial disasters
• Droughts • Nuclear
• Sea erosion 5. Accidental
• Thunder/ lightning
• Forest fires
• Urban fires
2. Geological
• Mine flooding

• Landslides and mudflows • Oil spill

• Earthquakes • Major building collapse
• Large fires • Serial bomb blasts
• Dam failures and dam bursts • Festival related disasters
• Mine fires • Electrical disasters and fires
• Air, road, and rail accidents
• Boat capsizing
• Village fire
1) Water and Climate

• Floods
• Cyclones
• Tornadoes and hurricanes (cyclones)
• Hailstorms
• Cloudburst
• Heat wave and cold wave
• Snow avalanches
• Droughts
• Sea erosion
• Thunder/ lightning
2) Geological
• Landslides and mudflows
• Earthquakes
• Large fires
• Dam failures and dam bursts
• Mine fires
3) Biological
• Epidemics
• Pest attacks
• Cattle epidemics
• Food poisoning
4) Chemical, industrial and nuclear
• Chemical and Industrial disasters
• Nuclear
5) Accidental
• Forest fires

• Urban fires
• Mine flooding
• Oil spill
• Major building collapse
• Serial bomb blasts
• Festival related disasters
• Electrical disasters and fires
• Air, road, and rail accidents
• Boat capsizing
• Village fire
Mitigation Strategies
Mitigation refers to long-term risk reduction measures, which are intended to minimise the effects of a
hazard; for example, dam construction is considered an activity that mitigates the effects of droughts.
Hence, “Mitigation involves not only saving lives and injury and reducing property losses, but also
reducing the adverse consequences of natural hazards to economic activities and social institutions.”
According to Coburn Sspence, Pomonis (1994 in the DMTP, UNDP), Mitigation is defined as “a
collective term used to encompass all activities undertaken in anticipation of the occurrence of a
potentially disastrous event, including long term preparedness and risk reduction measures…. It
has occasionally been defined to include post-disaster response, which makes it equivalent to
disaster management.”
The mitigation strategy is made up of three main required components: mitigation goals, mitigation
actions, and an action plan for implementation. These provide the framework to identify, prioritize and
implement actions to reduce risk to hazards.
Mitigation mainly focuses on minimising the destruction and disruption by a hazard and offers long term
cost-effective methods of dealing with or managing natural disasters.
According to Carter (1991), there are two approaches to mitigation:
1. Structural Approach
2. On-structural Approach
In fact, non-structural measures complemented by structural measures are the effective means towards
disaster mitigation.
Structural Approach Structural approach for mitigation may refer to both:

a) Engineered Structures:
Engineered structures involve architects and engineers during the planning, designing and construction of
structures, including buildings, dams, roads, bridges etc.
b) Non-engineered Structures:

Non-engineered structures are generally constructed by people with the help of local artisans like masons,
carpenters etc., using locally available raw material. These structures can be made safer, if people are
trained and given improved designs. These structures are normally of low-cost but have less
strength/resistance for a disaster.
Non-structural Approach
Non-structural approach encompasses those measures that attempt to bring about coordination of efforts
between all organisations and persons during all phases of disaster management, training and public
awareness, legislation, policy making, preparing of action plans etc., Such approach to mitigation consists
of positive actions through legislation, incentives, educating people, creating community awareness etc.
Some of the non-structural mitigation measures are:
Legal Framework
In some of the disasters like flood, cyclone, earthquake etc., more casualties occur because people either
live in low flood plains or not follow building codes made for the highly seismic zones or vulnerable
cyclone areas. In case people are made to follow safe principles, byelaws and construction on unsafe areas
is restricted, the disasters can be mitigated. The Disaster Management Act 2005 includes provisions for
institutional and coordination mechanisms for undertaking the preparedness and mitigation measures and
strategies for ensuring preparedness and capacity building.
Incentives: By suitable incentives people could be encouraged to adopt safe measures.

Insurance: Insurance of crops, buildings and other infrastructure in disaster-prone area is another
measure.
Training, Education and Public Awareness: Training of the public officials at different levels is an
essential part of disaster management. The general public should be made aware and kept informed about
the nature of hazards to which they are exposed, their vulnerability and available protection measures.
Training and education need to target various categories of personnel including school children, crafts
persons, technical personnel etc.
Institution Building: To increase the disaster mitigation capacity of a country, institution building is of
great importance. Government bodies, departments, NGOs and people should be careful to avoid actions
that will further increase a society's vulnerability. By increasing self -sufficiency, agencies may improve
the ability of individuals, families and communities to cope with disaster.
Warning System: A reliable and timely warning of disasters can save a lot of human lives.
Mitigation Strategies: Government of India Initiatives
The Government of India has also issued guidelines indicating that priority will be given to projects
addressing mitigation. We shall now discuss in brief the initiatives of Government of India in the area of
disaster mitigation. These shall be categorised into structural and non-structural strategies.
Structural Strategies

a) Flood Mitigation: Flood mitigation measures have been in place since 1950s, in the form of
embankments, dams and barrages etc. In order to respond effectively to floods, the Ministry of Home
Affairs has initiated measures such as drawing up mitigation plans at the state, district, block, village
levels, training of elected representatives and officials in flood management. etc. I
b) Earthquake Risk Mitigation: A comprehensive programme for earthquake risk mitigation is being
taken up. This includes incorporation of Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) Codes in building regulations, -
town and country planning Acts etc. Especially states in earthquake- prone zones have been requested to
incorporate BIS Seismic Codes for construction in the concerned zones. An Expert Committee appointed
by the National Core Group for Earthquake Risk Mitigation, has submitted its report covering appropriate
amendments to the existing Town and Country Planning Acts, Land-use Zoning Regulation, Development
Control Regulations and Building Byelaws. The Model Building Byelaws also cover the aspect of
ensuring technical implementation of the safety aspects in all new constructions and upgrading the strength
of existing structurally vulnerable constructions.
C. Constitution of Hazard Safety Cells in States: The states have been advised to constitute Hazard
Safety Cells (HSC) headed by Chief Engineer, State Public Works Department with necessary engineering
staff so as to establish mechanism for proper implementation of the building codes in all future government
constructions and to ensure safety of buildings and structures from various hazards.
d) Retrofitting of Lifeline Buildings: The Ministries of Civil Aviation, Railways, Telecommunications,
Power, Health and Family
Welfare have been advised to take appropriate action for detailed evaluation of retrofitting
of lifeline buildings located in seismically vulnerable zones to comply with BIS norms.
e) Mainstreaming Mitigation in Rural Development Schemes: Rural housing and community assets
for vulnerable sections of the population are created on a fairly large scale by the Ministry of Rural
Development under the lndira Awaas Yojna (IAY) (Now, Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojna), Sampooran
Grameen Rojgar Yojna (SGRY). This includes construction of compact housing units, community assets
such as community centres, recreation centres, anganwadi centres etc. Efforts are being made to ensure
that buildings constructed under this scheme are disaster resistant.
f) National Cyclone Mitigation Project: This project drawn up in consultation with the cyclone-prone
states envisages construction of cyclone shelters, coastal shelter belt plantation, strengthening of warning
systems etc.
g) Landslide Hazard Mitigation: A National Group has been constituted under the Chairmanship of
Secretary, Border Management, with the collaboration of Department of Science and Technology, Road
Transport and Highways, Geological Survey of India, National Remote Sensing Agency, to examine
several aspects of landslide mitigation, including landslide hazard zonation, early warning system etc.
Non-structural Strategies

a) Human Resource Development: Human resource development at all levels is critical for
institutionalising disaster mitigation strategy. The National Centre for Disaster Management (NCDM)
at the national level has been upgraded and designated as the National Institute of Disaster Management
(NIDM).
This is entrusted with the task of developing training modules at different levels, undertaking training of
trainers, organising training programmes, developing national level information base on disaster
management policies, prevention mechanism, mitigation measures etc. Disaster management has been
incorporated in the training curricula of All India Services with effect from 2004-2005. There is a separate
faculty in the area of Disaster management in 29 State level training institutes.
b) Capacity Building of Engineers and Architects in Earthquake Risk Mitigation: This activity is
being initiated under two national programmes for Capacity Building for Earthquake Risk Mitigation.
Around 10,000 engineers and 10,000 architects in the states will be imparted training in seismically safe
building designs and related techno-legal requirements. Seven National Resource Institutions have been
designated as National Resource Institutions for imparting training to faculty of select State Engineering
and Architecture colleges, and also put in place a framework for mandatory registration and compulsory
competency assessment of the practicing architects.
Development and Environment (New Topic)
There is close link between environment and sustainable development which is used in the broad
perspective and the overall development of human beings without any distinction. The World
Conservative Strategy initiated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the worldwide
Fund for Nature (WWF) and international Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), provided the
platform for international debate on sustainability. The most noteworthy step towards sustainable
development is the publication of an international report titled “Our Common Future” by World
Commission on Environment (WCED) in 1987. This is commonly known as “The Brundtland Report”.
The report defined sustainable development as “Development that meets the needs of the present, without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs”.
According to this report, the major objective of development should be to ensure the satisfaction of human
needs and aspirations of a material kind. It emphasized the fact that over exploitation of resources may
compel human societies to compromise their ability to meet the essential needs of their people in future.
Settled agriculture, the diversion of watercourses, the extraction of minerals, the emission of heat and
noxious gases into the atmosphere, commercial forests, and genetic manipulation, were all mentioned in
the report as examples of human intervention in natural system during the course of development. It called
upon all countries to adopt the objective of sustainable development as the overriding goal and test of
national policy and international cooperation.

Three Earth Summits were held under the auspicious of United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED) in 1992, 1997 and 200. Over 170 countries participated in these
Summits renewed their commitment to sustainable development aiming at “ giving special attention to the
worldwide conditions that pose severe threats to the sustainable development of the people, which include:
chronic hunger; malnutrition; foreign occupation; armed conflict; illicit drug problems; corruption; natural
disasters, communicable diseases, in particular HIV/AIDs, malaria and tuberculosis”.
After these Summits, the sustainable development has become a universal theme to describe the
amalgamation of environmental opportunities and human wisdom.
Different Dimensions of Sustainable Development

Sustainable development has many dimensions. Some of them are briefly described in the
followings:
Social Dimension
• Workers‟ health and safety.
• Impact on local communities, quality of life.
• Benefits to disadvantaged groups, for example, the disabled.
Economic Dimension
• Creation of new markets and opportunities for sales growth.
• Cost reduction through efficiency improvements and reduced energy and raw material inputs.
• Creation of additional value.
Environmental Dimension
• Reduced waste, effluent generation, emissions into environment.
• Reduced impact on human health.
• Use of renewable raw materials.
• Elimination of toxic substances.
Millennium Development Goals

In September 2000, at the UN Millennium Summit, the UN General Assembly adopted the United Nations
Millennium Declaration. The Declaration, which called for a global partnership to reduce extreme poverty,
was the first ever global strategy with quantifiable targets to be agreed upon by all UN member states and
the world’s leading development institutions. To support the Declaration, former UN Secretary General
Kofi Annan established eight accompanying objectives to combat poverty, hunger, disease, illiteracy,
environmental degradation, and discrimination against women. These objectives (listed below) were set
with a deadline of 2015 and became known as the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs).
The Eight Millennium Development Goals are:
1. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

2. Achieve universal primary education
3. Promote gender equality and empower women
4. Reduce child mortality

5. Improve maternal health

6. Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases
7. Ensure environmental sustainability
8. Develop a global partnership for development
Key MDGs achievements
• More than 1 billion people have been lifted out of extreme poverty (since 1990)
• Child mortality dropped by more than half (since 1990)
• The number of out of school children has dropped by more than half (since 1990)
• HIV/AIDS infections fell by almost 40 percent (since 2000)
From MDGs to Sustainable Development Goals

The MDGs were concrete, specific and measurable, and therefore helped establish some priority areas of
focus in international development. But that was also one of their biggest criticisms: by being so targeted,
they had left out other, equally important, areas.
Despite the criticism, significant progress has been made over the past 15 years, especially when it comes
to the goals of eradicating poverty and improving access to education. That progress, however, has been
very uneven, with improvements often concentrated in specific regions and among certain social groups.
A 2015 UN assessment of the MDGs found they fell short for many people: “The assessment of progress
towards the MDGs has repeatedly shown that the poorest and those disadvantaged because of gender, age,
disability or ethnicity are often bypassed.”

The Sustainable Development Goals
At the historic UN General Assembly Summit in September 2015, the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development was adopted by the UN’s 193 member states. The 17 Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) and their 169 targets are part of this agenda. The Sustainable Development
Goals are a bold, universal agreement to end poverty and all its dimensions and craft an equal, just and
secure world – for people, planet and prosperity. The SDGs have been developed through an unprecented
consultative process that brought national governments and millions of citizens from the globe together to
negotiate and adopt this ambitious agenda.
The Goals and targets will stimulate action for the next 15 years up to 2030 in areas of critical importance
for humanity and the planet.
5 Ps of Sustainable Development
Planet: Protect our Planets natural resources and climate for future generations.
People: End poverty and hunger in all forms and ensure dignity and equality.
Prosperity: Ensure prosperous and fulfilling lives in harmony with nature.
Peace: Foster peaceful, just and inclusive societies.
Partnership: Implement the agenda through a solid global partnership.
The 17 Sustainable Development Goals:

There are 17 sustainable Development Goals to achieve by 2030 to all its member countries.

1. No Poverty: End poverty in all its forms everywhere.

2. Zero Hunger: End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable
agriculture.
3. Good Health and Well-being: Ensure healthy lives and promote wellbeing for all at all ages.
4. Quality Education: Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning
opportunities for all.
5. Gender Equality: Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls.
6. Clean Water and Sanitation: Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation
for all.
7. Affordable and Clean Energy: Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy
for all.
8. Decent Work and Economic Growth: Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable economic growth,
full and productive employment, and decent work for all.
9. Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure: Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and
sustainable industrialization, and foster innovation.
10. Reducing Inequality: Reduce inequality within and among countries.
11. Sustainable Cities and Communities: Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient
and sustainable.
12. Responsible Consumption and Production: Ensure sustainable consumption and production
patterns.
13. Climate Action: Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts (noting agreements
made by the UNFCCC forum).
14. Life Below Water: Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources for sustainable
development.
15. Life on Land: Protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably
manage forests, combat desertification and halt and reverse land degradation, and halt biodiversity loss.
16. Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions: Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable
development, provide access to justice for all and build effective, accountable and inclusive institutions at
all levels.
17. Partnerships for the Goals: Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the global
partnership for sustainable development.
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and India

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted in September 2015 as a part of the resolution,
‘Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development’. India is committed to achieve
the 17 SDGs and the 169 associated targets, which comprehensively cover social, economic and
environmental dimensions of development and focus on ending poverty in all its forms and dimensions.
At the Central Government level, NITI Aayog has been assigned the role of overseeing the implementation
of SDGs in the country.

To spread awareness about the Goals, bring together stakeholders and build capacities for the realization
of SDGs, NITI Aayog has organized several national and regional level consultations
Achievements in The Year 2018-19
National level consultations

In February 2018, a National Workshop on capacity development for localising the SDGs was held. Union
Territories (UTs) and 23 states, as well as other relevant stakeholders participated in the workshop.
Another National Consultation on SDG 1 and associated targets was held in March 2018, which saw
Central Ministries, States/UTs and other stakeholders discuss policies, implementation strategies and best
practices.
The private sector is an important stakeholder in the implementation of SDGs. Recognising this, a
government and business partnership conclave was held in August 2018 to sensitise businesses and
industries in the private sector and analyse their programme strategies on various SDGs.
The Task Force on Implementation of SDGs held two meetings to take stock of SDGs at the national level.
Progress on implementation of SDGs at the state level was reviewed through a series of meetings with
States and UTs.
Regional level forums on SDG

The central platform for international follow-up and review of the 2030 Agenda is the High-Level Political
Forum (HLPF), which meets annually under the auspices of the UN Economic and Social Council
(ECOSOC).
As a regional preparatory for the HLPF, the Asia-Pacific Forum on Sustainable Development (APFSD)
was held for the fifth time at Bangkok in Mar 2018, under the chairmanship of Dr. Rajiv Kumar, Vice
Chairman, NITI Aayog. Around 600 participants joined the event, where States, United Nations bodies,
international organizations and other stakeholders engaged in deliberations on the theme, “Transformation
towards sustainable and resilient societies”.
The Forum reviewed progress on the identified SDGs to be discussed at the next HLPF as well as the
interlinkages across all Goals. The Forum facilitated experience sharing between countries who have
already presented their Voluntary National Reviews at the HLPF and those who were to present theirs at
the HLPF 2018 to be held in the month of July at New York.
The Forum also took stock of the regional progress made in respect implementing the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development in Asia and the Pacific.

South Asia Forum on Sustainable Development

The South Asia Forum on the Sustainable Development Goals, 2018 was co-organized by NITI Aayog,
United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and RIS in
October 2018, to enhance awareness on challenges and opportunities for the implementation of the 2030
Agenda; generate reflections on sub-regional perspectives and good practices on the Goals under review
at the HLPF in 2019; and identify ways to strengthen partnerships and implementation efforts.
Representatives from South Asian countries, prominent think tanks and academia as well as regional and
sub-regional organizations supporting implementation of SDGs participated in the Forum. Key focal areas
of the deliberations were the scope and options for improving the regional/sub-regional policy
environment for implementation of SDGs and capacity development of key stakeholders.
Revised Mapping of Ministries, Centrally Sponsored and Central Sector Schemes

A mapping exercise was of Central Ministries and Centrally Sponsored /Central Sector Schemes was
revised to include more schemes and reflect more comprehensively the interconnectedness of SDGs.
Monitoring Progress on SDGs

NITI Aayog finalised and released the SDG India Index – Baseline Report 2018 in December 2018, to
track the progress of all the States and Union Territories (UTs) on the priority indicators, measuring their
achievements and failures on the outcomes of the interventions and schemes of the central Government.
The SDG India Index has been developed to provide a holistic view on the social, economic and
environmental status of the country and its States and UTs. It will also go a long way in helping analyse
and identify best practices and priority areas, giving direction to developmental policies.
Environment Protection Act, 1986 (New Topic)
It was the Bhopal Gas Tragedy which necessitated the Government of India to enact a comprehensive
environmental legislation, including rules relating to storing, handling and use of hazardous waste. On the
basis of these rules, the Indian Parliament enacted the Environment Protection Act, 1986. This is an
umbrella legislation that consolidated the provisions of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act of 1974 and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981. Within this framework of the
legislations, the government established Pollution Control Boards (PCBs) in order to prevent, control, and
abate environmental pollution.
The Act is special for many reasons.

• It has the sole aim of ensuring the protection of the environment, the prevention and reduction of
environmental pollution and provides the authority to take strict action against perpetrators.
• It is an Act that takes precedence over other Acts. This means that if an offence is committed that
is liable to be booked under multiple legislation including this Act, the EPA 1986 will be given
the highest priority.
• This Act forced the country to take note of environmental pollution in a serious way.
Some of the special features of this Act include:
• EP Act covers all forms of pollution; air, water, soil and noise.
• Provides the safe standards for the presence of various pollutants in the environment.
• Prohibits the use of hazardous material unless prior permission is taken from the Central
Government.
• Allows the central government to assign authorities in various jurisdictions to carry out the laws
of this Act.
Provisions of Penalties:
• The penalty for the contravention under this Act is imprisonment of 5 years, or fine of Rs. 1 lakh
or both.
• Failure to comply with this punishment will result in a further penalty of 5000/- per day, followed
by an extended imprisonment of 7 years.
• If the offence is committed by a company, the company as well as the director, officer in charge
and any other relevant personnel is liable to be held guilty under this Act.
• If the offence is conducted by a government department, the HOD and any other relevant officer
shall be held guilty. The HOD can be exempted if he/she can prove that the offence took place
without their knowledge, or if they can prove that they did their utmost to prevent the offence.
• The section also states that a case/prosecution cannot be filed if the government entity or an officer
of the government did actions under good faith.
Some of the important legislations for environment protection are as follows:
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
The Hazardous Waste Management Regulations, etc.
Other Laws Relating to Environment

In addition, there are many other laws relating to environment, namely –
Indian Forest Act, 1927
The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002)

The Forest Conservation Act, 1980

Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act of 2001
The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006
National Action Plan on Climate Change

The National Action Plan on Climate change was formally launched on June 30th, 2008. The NAPCC
identifies measures that promote development objectives while also yielding co-benefits for addressing
climate change effectively. There are eight “National Missions” which form the core of the National action
plan. They focus on promoting understanding of climate change, adaptation and mitigation, energy
efficiency and natural resource conservation.”
The guiding principles of the plan are:
• Inclusive and sustainable development strategy to protect the poor

• Qualitative change in the method through which the national growth objectives will be achieved
i.e. by enhancing ecological sustainability leading to further mitigation
• Cost effective strategies for end use demand side management
• Deployment of appropriate technologies for extensive and accelerated adaptation, and mitigation
of greenhouse gases
• Innovative market, regulatory and voluntary mechanisms to promote Sustainable Development
• Implementation through linkages with civil society, local governments and public-private
partnerships
• International cooperation, transfer of technology and funding
The eight missions are:

1. National Solar Mission
2. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
3. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
4. National Water Mission
5. National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
6. National Mission for a Green India
7. National Mission fro Sustainable Agriculture
8. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change
National Solar Mission: The NAPCC aims to promote the development and use of solar energy for power
generation and other uses with the ultimate objective of making solar competitive with fossil-based energy
options. The plan includes: Specific goals for increasing use of solar thermal technologies in urban areas,

industry, and commercial establishments; a goal of increasing production of photo-voltaic to 1000

MW/year; and a goal of deploying at least 1000 MW of solar thermal power generation. Other objectives
include the establishment of a solar research centre, increased international collaboration on technology
development, strengthening of domestic manufacturing capacity, and increased government funding and
international support.
National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency: Current initiatives are expected to yield savings of
10,000 MW by 2012. Building on the Energy Conservation Act 2001, the plan recommends: Mandating
specific energy consumption decreases in large energy-consuming industries, with a system for companies
to trade energy-savings certificates; Energy incentives, including reduced taxes on energy-efficient
appliances; and Financing for public-private partnerships to reduce energy consumption through demand-
side management programs in the municipal, buildings and agricultural sectors.
National Mission on Sustainable Habitat: To promote energy efficiency as a core component of urban
planning, the plan calls for: Extending the existing Energy Conservation Building Code; A greater
emphasis on urban waste management and recycling, including power production from waste;
Strengthening the enforcement of automotive fuel economy standards and using pricing measures to
encourage the purchase of efficient vehicles; and Incentives for the use of public transportation.
National Water Mission: With water scarcity projected to worsen as a result of climate change, the plan
sets a goal of a 20% improvement in water use efficiency through pricing and other measures.
National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem: The plan aims to conserve biodiversity,
forest cover, and other ecological values in the Himalayan region, where glaciers that are a major source
of India’s water supply are projected to recede as a result of global warming.
National Mission for a “Green India”: Goals include the afforestation of 6 million hectares of degraded
forest lands and expanding forest cover from 23% to 33% of India’s territory.
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture: The plan aims to support climate adaptation in
agriculture through the development of climate-resilient crops, expansion of weather insurance
mechanisms, and agricultural practices.
National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change: To gain a better understanding of
climate science, impacts and challenges, the plan envisions a new Climate Science Research Fund,
improved climate modelling, and increased international collaboration. It also encourages private sector
initiatives to develop adaptation and mitigation technologies through venture capital funds.
The NAPCC also describes other ongoing initiatives, including:

Power Generation: The government is mandating the retirement of inefficient coal-fired power plants
and supporting the research and development of IGCC and supercritical technologies.
Renewable Energy: Under the Electricity Act 2003 and the National Tariff Policy 2006, the central and
the state electricity regulatory commissions must purchase a certain percentage of grid-based power from
renewable sources.
Energy Efficiency: Under the Energy Conservation Act 2001, large energy consuming industries are
required to undertake energy audits and an energy labeling program for appliances has been introduced.
International Agreements/ efforts - Climate Change accords

Various climate change accords that were and are in existence are covered here.
1. Montreal Protocol, 1987
The Montreal Protocol is widely considered as the most successful environment protection agreement.
The Protocol sets out a mandatory timetable for the phase out of ozone depleting substances. This
timetable has been reviewed regularly, with phase out dates accelerated in accordance with scientific
understanding and technological advances.
The Montreal Protocol sets binding progressive phase out obligations for developed and developing
countries for all the major ozone depleting substances, including Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons and
less damaging transitional chemicals such as and Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs).
Kigali Amendment
The agreement refers to the Hydroflurocarbon (HFC) Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, agreed to at
the 28th Meeting of Parties at Kigali, Rwanda on 15 October 2016. Nearly 200 countries struck this
landmark deal to reduce the emissions of powerful greenhouse gases, hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), in a
move that could prevent up to 0.5 degrees Celsius of global warming by the end of this century. The Kigali
Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is legally binding and will come into force from January 1, 2019
2. Kyoto Protocol
The Kyoto Protocol is an international and legally binding agreement to reduce greenhouse gas emissions
worldwide. It came into force on 16th February 2005. The major feature of the Kyoto Protocol is that it
sets binding targets for industrialized countries for reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. The
greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (NO), sulphur
hexafluoride (SF6), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) and perfluorocarbons (PFCs).
Convention on Biological Diversity

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), known informally as the Biodiversity Convention, is a
multilateral treaty. The Convention has three main goals including: the conservation of biological diversity
(or biodiversity); the sustainable use of its components; and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits
arising from genetic resources.
In other words, its objective is to develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of
biological diversity. It is often seen as the key document regarding sustainable development. The
Convention was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro on 5 June 1992 and entered
into force on 29 December 1993. CBD has two supplementary agreements - Cartagena Protocol and
Nagoya Protocol.
Cartagena Protocol
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international treaty
governing the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology
from one country to another. It was adopted on 29 January 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the
Convention on Biological Diversity and entered into force on 11 September 2003.[1]
Nagoya Protocol
The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits
Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity is a supplementary
agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Nagoya Protocol on ABS was adopted on 29
October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. Its objective is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the
utilization of genetic resources, thereby contributing to the conservation and sustainable use of
biodiversity. By helping to ensure benefit-sharing, the Nagoya Protocol creates incentives to conserve and
sustainably use genetic resources, and therefore enhances the contribution of biodiversity to development
and human well-being. India signed this protocol in 2010.
3. Cancun Agreements - 2010
The Cancun Agreements are a set of significant decisions by the international community to address the
long-term challenge of climate change collectively and comprehensively over time and to take concrete
action now to speed up the global response. The agreements, reached on December 11 in Cancun, Mexico,
at the 2010 United Nations Climate Change Conference represent key steps forward in capturing plans to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to help developing nations protect themselves from climate impacts
and build their own sustainable futures. (UNFCC).
4. Durban Climate Change Conference - November/December 2011
The United Nations Climate Change Conference, Durban 2011, delivered a breakthrough on the
international community's response to climate change. In the second largest meeting of its kind, the
negotiations advanced, in a balanced fashion, the implementation of the Convention and the Kyoto
Protocol, the Bali Action Plan, and the Cancun Agreements. (United Nations framework for Climate
Change)
5. Rio Submit (Earth Summit)
The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio de
Janeiro Earth Summit, the Rio Summit, the Rio Conference, and the Earth Summit, was a major United
Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June in 1992.
Earth Summit was created as a response for Member States to cooperate together internationally on
development issues after the Cold War. Due to issues relating to sustainability being too big for individual
member states to handle, Earth Summit was held as a platform for other Member States to collaborate.
Since the creation, many others in the field of sustainability show a similar development to the issues
discussed in these conferences, including non-governmental organizations (NGOs).[1]
In 2012, the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development was also held in Rio and is also
commonly called Rio+20 or Rio Earth Summit 2012. It was held from 13 to 22 June.
6. Paris Agreement
At the Paris climate conference (COP21) in December 2015, 195 countries adopted the first-ever
universal, legally binding global climate deal. The agreement sets out a global action plan to put the world
on track to avoid dangerous climate change by limiting global warming to well below 2°C. The agreement
is due to enter into force in 2020.
The Paris Agreement’s central aim is to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change by
keeping a global temperature rise this century well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels
and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius. Additionally,
the agreement aims to strengthen the ability of countries to deal with the impacts of climate change. To
reach these ambitious goals, appropriate financial flows, a new technology framework and an enhanced
capacity building framework will be put in place, thus supporting action by developing countries and the
most vulnerable countries, in line with their own national objectives. The Agreement also provides for
enhanced transparency of action and support through a more robust transparency framework.
7. International Solar Alliance (ISA)
International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a coalition of solar resource rich countries lying fully or partially
between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn to specifically address energy needs by
harnessing solar energy. The Alliance aims to provide a platform for prospective member countries to
collaborate and address the identified gaps through a common agreed approach. ISA has been envisioned
as a dedicated platform that aims to contribute towards the common goal of increasing utilization and
promote solar energy and solar applications in the prospective member countries to help the world
transform to a low-carbon and greener society.
ISA was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in Paris on 30th November 2015 by
Mr. Narendra Modi, Hon’ble Prime Minister of India and Mr. François Hollande former President of
France, in the presence of H.E. Mr. Ban Ki Moon, the then Secretary General of the United Nations.
For details: International Solar Alliance (ISA)
India’s contribution to ISA
The Government of India will contribute US $ 27 million to the ISA for creating corpus, building
infrastructure and towards recurring expenditure over a 5 year duration from 2016-17 to 2020-21. An
initial donation of US $ 16 million has already been made. In addition, public sector undertakings of the
Government of India namely Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) and Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency (IREDA) have made contributions of US $ 1 million each for creating the ISA
corpus fund. In addition, the Government of India has offered training support for prospective ISA
member countries at the National Institute of Solar Energy. They have also offered to support the
prospective ISA member countries by organising demonstration on projects like solar home lighting, solar
pumps for farmers and for other solar applications. The Government of India has dedicated 5 acres (over
20,000 Sq. meters) of land in the National Institute of Solar Energy campus for the construction ISA
Headquarters. Proposal for allocating additional 5 acres of land is also under consideration.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)

(Repeated Questions have been deleted but the serial number of MCQs have not arranged
accordingly. Ignore the deleted MCQs in Answer keys)
Millennium and Sustainable development goals a) Improve maternal health

1) How many MDGs are there? b) Achieve universal access to safe drinking water,
a) 8 sanitation and hygiene
b) 10 c) Ensure environmental sustainability
c) 12 d) Achieve universal primary education
d) 15
4) Which of the MDGs does this UN graphic
2) MDG1 is to eradicate extreme poverty and hunger. represent?
What does the UN currently define as the global
poverty rate?
a) $1 a day
b) $0.5 a day
c) $1.25 a day a) Meet requirements for a growing population
b) Develop a global partnership for development
d) $2 a day
c) Support traditional families
d) Increase public safety in communities and cities
3) Which of the following is not an MDG?

d) All of the Above

5) According to the UN, which MDG has been
achieved? 13) Social sustainability refers to what?
a) Reduce the maternal mortality rate by three-quarters a) Sharing benefits fairly and equitably and respecting the
b) Halt and begin to reverse the spread of HIV-Aids quality of life of communities and of human rights
c) Reduce the under-five mortality rate by two-thirds b) The concept of the enterprise supporting jobs and
d) Halve the number of people living in extreme poverty delivering income to communities in the long term
c) Stewardship of resources and managing and conserving
6) MDG3 is to promote gender equality. Which of the the environment
following is not a target or indicator? d) The concept of the enterprise supporting jobs and
a) Increase the number of female political representatives delivering income to communities in the short term
b) End gender-based violence
c) Eliminate gender disparity in primary and secondary 14) What is the most commonly cited definition for,
education and accepted thinking about, sustainable
d) Increase the share of women in waged employment development?
a) Brundtland World Commission on Environment and
7) Fill in the gap. MDG6 is to combat HIV-Aids, Development
and other diseases b) Brundtland World Commission on Environment and
a) Tuberculosis Sustainable Development
b) Malaria c) Brundtland World on Committee Environment and
c) Diarrhoea Sustainable Development
d) Cholera d) Brutland World Committee on Environment and
Development
8) According to the UN, what percentage of children in
developing countries now have access to primary 15) The Brundtland definition comprises what three
education? parts?
a) 90 a) Development, Needs and Future Responsibility
b) 70 b) Development, Issues and Future Generations
c) 60 c) Development, Needs and Future Generations
d) 50 d) Growth, Needs and Future Generations
9) Which country was first to achieve the goal of 16) What words is missing from this shortened
halving extreme poverty? UNWTO (2005) definition: 'Tourism that takes full
a) Zimbabwe account of its current and future economic, social and
b) Bangladesh environmental impacts, addressing the needs of
c) Bolivia visitors, the industry, the environment and
d) Ghana '
a) Host Populations
10) The sustainable development goals (SDGs) will b) Host Communities
replace the MDGs next year. How many proposed c) Host Committees
SDGs are there? d) Host Groups
a) 37
b) 27 17) Which town in Canada put in place a 'green plan'
c) 17 for the community?
d) 7 a) Labrador
b) St John
11) The UN MDGs stands for what? c) Ottowa
a) United Nations 'Multiple Development Goals' d) Bouctouche
b) United Nations 'Millennium Development Goals'
c) United Nations 'Multiple Development Grants' 18) How does Hunter (1997) define Weak
d) United Nations 'Millennium Development Grants' sustainability/product led tourism?
a) Environmental management lies at the heart of
12) The UN MDGs include, what? destination management
a) Reducing Child Mortality b) Emphasis is on satisfying the demands of the tourism
b) Empowering Women sector and tourists, sometimes at the expense of
c) Targets for Poverty Reduction destination resources

c) Tourism remains dominant and sustainability 24) Goal 1 is about poverty. What is the aim of this
secondary to the development of new products, although Goal?
the need for resource conservation and the management of a) Cut poverty in half by 2030
growth is recognised b) Reduce poverty by 75% by 2030
d) Tourism activity is small in scale, and in places c) End poverty in all its forms everywhere
discouraged if it could cause environmental damage. d) Help each nation make progress on reducing poverty
19) How does Hunter (1997) define very strong 25) Goal 17 is about strengthening the “means of
sustainability/limited tourism? implementation” and revitalizing the “Global
a) Emphasis is on satisfying the demands of the tourism Partnership” for realizing all the other Goals. Which
sector and tourists, sometimes at the expense of of the following is not part of Goal 17?
destination resources a) Mobilizing the financial resources necessary to achieve
b) Tourism remains dominant and sustainability the Goals
secondary to the development of new products, although b) Creating international sports tournaments and festivals
the need for resource conservation and the management of to promote the Goals
growth is recognised c) Helping developing countries build the capacities they
c) Environmental management lies at the heart of need in areas such as technology, public policy, and data
destination management for reporting on progress
d) Tourism activity is small in scale, and in places d) Enhancing trade, especially to help developing
discouraged if it could cause environmental damage. countries increase their exports and grow their economies
20) Why does the government play an important role 26) In the 2030 Agenda, Sustainable Development
in tourism? Goal #13, on climate change, has an “ * ” (asterisk)
a) The sector is fragmented after it. Why?
b) Funding a) Because addressing climate change is more important
c) Leadership than all the other Goals.
d) All of the Above b) Because the negotiators were unable to come to an
agreement on a climate change Goal.
21) At the Capacity and Activity Zones stage of the c) Because the UN Framework Convention on Climate
visitor management process what are the two Change (which is meeting in Paris in late 2015) is the
important principles involved? forum where more detailed decisions on climate will be
a) Determination of capacity and monitoring made.
b) Visitor control and marketing d) Because the Goal on climate change is constantly
c) Determination of capacity and avoidance of conflicting shifting.
uses in the same area
d) Visitor control and avoidance of conflicting uses in the 27) Which of the following is not part of the
same area Sustainable Development Goals?
a) Access to sustainable energy for all
22) How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) b) Availability of water and sanitation for all
have been agreed to, by all the world’s nations, as part c) Provision of internet services for all
of the 2030 Agenda? d) Promotion of decent jobs for all
a) 17
b) 8 28) Equality issues are specifically mentioned in how
c) 10 many of the Sustainable Development Goals
d) 16, plus a few statements about implementation that are (not including the targets)?
not actually a Goal a) In two of them: Goal 6 on water, and Goal 12 on
sustainable production and consumption
23) Each SDG is supported by a set of Targets — b) In four of them: Goal 2 on hunger, Goal 7 on energy,
specific objectives that are associated with that Goal. Goal 8 on economic growth and jobs, and Goal 14 on
How many Targets are there in total? preserving the oceans and seas
a) 99 c) In three of them: Goal 4 on education, Goal 5 on
b) 1016 gender, and Goal 10 on reducing inequality within and
c) 169 among countries
d) 51 d) In one of them: Goal 16 on promoting peaceful and just
societies for all

29) Which of the following is not part of Goal 15, on b) 2003-12

ecosystems? c) 2004-13
a) Halt and reverse land degradation d) 2005-14
b) Halt biodiversity loss
c) Halt the use of biotechnology and genetic engineering 36) Numbers of Sustainable Development Goals
d) Use ecosystems sustainably while protecting and (SDGs) by United Nations are
restoring them a) 15
b) 16
30) Which of the following is not true about the SDGs? c) 17
a) They encourage the promotion of health, well-being, d) 18
and education for all, at all ages
b) They explicitly promote innovation 37) The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
c) They include the development of sustainable cities, recognize that all countries must stimulate action in
infrastructure, and industry the following key areas.
d) They are a legally binding international treaty that all a) people, planet, prosperity, peace and partnership
nations are required to follow b) people, planet, prosperity, plants and planning
c) people, planet, prosperity, plants and partnership
31) What can individuals do to help realize the d) people, planet, prosperity, peace and planning
achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals?
a) Hold their governments and the private sector 38) Sustainable development can be thought of in
accountable and support reputable civil society terms of three spheres i.e.
organizations a) environment, economy and society
b) Create projects and partnerships of their own and b) environment, economy and equity
participate in existing initiatives to help achieve one or c) environment, ecology and society
more of the goals d) environment, economy and ecology
c) Use their positions in society — as teachers, decision-
makers, consumers, role-models, and ordinary citizens — 39) When the consumption of natural resources is
to voice support for the Goals, to make decisions that equal to nature’s ability to replenish then
advance the Goals, and to take actions help to implement sustainability is
the Goals a) not sustainable
d) All of the above ... and more. b) steady state economy
c) environmentally sustainable
32) Modern concept of sustainable development d) none of the above
focuses more on
a) economic development 40) A promising direction towards sustainable
b) social development development is to design systems that are
c) environmental protection a) flexible and irreversible
d) all of the above b) flexible and reversible
c) inflexible and reversible
33) Sustainability Science is the study of the concepts d) inflexible and irreversible
of sustainable development and .
a) environmental science 41) Following is (are) the element(s) of sustainable
b) general science agriculture
c) social science a) permaculture
d) geo science b) agroforestry
c) mixed farming
34) As per United Nations, following is (are) the d) all of the above
broader issue(s) of human development
a) education 42) Sustainable energy
b) public health a) is clean
c) standard of living b) can be used over a long period of time
d) all of the above c) both (A) and (B)
d) none of the above
35) United Nations (UN) decade of education for
sustainable development is from 43) The technology which meets the sustainable
a) 2002-11 development needs is often referred to as

a) advanced technology Code:

b) appropriate technology a) Only I
c) sustainable technology b) Only II
d) adaptive technology c) Only II & III
d) I, II & III
44) The criterion for corporate sustainability
a) eco-efficiency 50) Which of the following is/are not an objective (s) of
b) socio-efficiency sustainable development?
c) both (A) and (B) a) Continue to implement the family planning program.
d) none of the above b) Maintain a dynamic balance of arable land (not less
than 123 million hectares) and implement an agricultural
45) Four domains of circles of sustainability, used by development strategy
the United Nations. c) Maintain a dynamic balance of water resources by
a) economic, ecological, political and cultural reducing water consumption for every unit of gross
b) economic, social, political and cultural development product growth and agricultural value added
c) economic, ecological, social and cultural d) To bring about a gradual and sometime catastrophic
d) economic, ecological, political and social transformation of environment
46) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable 51) What are the Primary Goals of Sustainability?
Development (UNCSD) is also known as I. The end of poverty and hunger
a) Rio 2010 II. Better standards of education and healthcare -
b) Rio 2011 particularly as it pertains to water quality and better
c) Rio 2012 sanitation
d) Rio 2013 III. To achieve gender equality
IV. Sustainable economic growth while promoting jobs
47) What is sustainable development? and stronger economies
a) The development that meets the needs of the present Code:
without compromising the ability of future generations to a) I, II & III
meet their own needs. b) I, III & IV
b) To conserve natural resources and to develop alternate c) I & III
sources of power while reducing pollution and harm to d) I, II, III & IV
the environment.
c) It is the practice of developing land and construction 52) When was the term ‘Sustainable Development’
projects in a manner that reduces their impact on the came into existence?
environment by allowing them to create energy efficient a) 1987
models of self-sufficiency. b) 1980
d) All of the above c) 1978
d) 1992
48) Which of the following is correct, if we only
achieve two out of three pillars of Sustainable 53) The United Nations Commission on Sustainable
Development? Development (CSD) was established by the UN
a) Social + Economic Sustainability = Equitable General Assembly in December ---- --.
b) Social + Environmental Sustainability = Bearable a) 1992
c) Economic + Environmental Sustainability = Viable b) 1993
d) All of the above c) 1994
d) 1995
49) Consider the following statement (s) related to the
Sustainability. 54) Which of the following UN commission is
I. It refers to a process or state that can be maintained responsible for reviewing progress in the
indefinitely. implementation of Agenda 21 and the Rio Declaration
II. Natural resources must use in ways that do not create on Environment and Development?
ecological debts by over exploiting the carrying and a) United Nation Disarmament Commission
productive capacity of the earth. b) United Nations Statistical Commission
III. A minimum necessary condition for sustainability is c) United Nations Commission on Sustainable
the maintenance of the total natural capital stock at or Development (CSD)
above the current level. d) United Nations Commission on Human Rights

a) less than $ 1 a day

55) Consider the following statement (s) related to the b) $ 1 a day
parameters of sustainable development refer to the c) less than $ 1.50
guiding principles. d) less than $ 1.25
I. Help in understanding the concept of sustainable
development 61) What is the deadline to achieve MDG?
II. Point the problems associated with it a) 2020
III. Help to take active policy measures b) 2040
Code: c) 2025
a) Both I & II d) 2015
b) Bot II & III
c) Both I & IV 62) Which was the venue for millennium summit?
d) I, II & III a) Paris
b) New York
56) Which of the following is not included in the c) London
parameters of sustainable development? d) Rio De Janeiro
a) Carrying capacity
b) Inter and Intra-generation equity 63) Who was UN secretary- general during declaration
c) Gender disparity and diversity of MDG?
d) None of the above a) Kurt Waldheim
b) Ban Ki Moon
57) Habitat Agenda’s influence can be seen on which c) Boutros Boutros-Ghali
of the following? d) Kofi Annan
1) Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) of 2000 64) Which Report provided the basis of the goals in
2) Rio+20 the area of peace and security?
3) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) a) Samir Nasibi report
b) Nabil Elaraby report
a) 1, 3 c) Kofi Annan report
b) 2, 3 d) Brahimi Report
c) 1, 2
d) All of the above 65) Which of the following areas are emphasized by
MDG?
58) Which of the following are goals to be achieved a) human capital
under Millennium Development Goals? b) infrastructure
c) human rights
1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger d) all
2. To achieve universal primary education
3. To promote gender equality 66) Infrastructure related objectives of MDG does not
4. To eradicate civil war include
5. To reduce child mortality a) access to safe drinking water
b) energy
a) 1,3,5 c) modern information/communication technology
b) 1,2,4,5 d) development of road infrastructure
c) 1,2,3,5
d) All of the above 67) Which of the following diseases are covered under
MDG?
59) According to MDG report, what is the percentage a) HIV/AIDS
of extreme poverty in India in 2011? b) malaria
a) 49.4% c) tuberculosis
b) 24.7% d) all
c) 30.85%
d) 25.6%
Answers:
60) According to MDG report, what is the criteria for 1-a, 2-c, 3-c, 4-b, 5-d, 6-b, 7-b, 8-a, 9-d, 10-c, 11-b, 12-d,
extreme poverty? 13-a, 14-a, 15-c, 16-b, 17-d, 18-c, 19-d, 20-d, 21-c, 22-a,

23-c, 24-c, 25-b, 26-c, 27-c, 28-c, 29-c, 30-d, 31-d, 32-d,
33-a, 34-d, 35-d, 36-c, 37-a, 38-a, 39-b, 40-b, 41-d, 42-c, 8) Soap and detergents are the source of organic
43-b, 44-c, 45-a, 46-c, 47-d, 48-d, 49-d, 50-d, 51-d, 52-b, pollutants like:
53-a, 54-c, 55-d, 56-d, 57-d, 58-c, 59-b, 60-d, 61-d, 62-b, a) glycerol
63-d, 64-d, 65-d, 66-d, 67-d, b) polyphosphates
c) sulphurated hydrocarbons
d) all of these
9) Growing agricultural crops between rows of

Environmental issues planted trees is known as
a) Social forestry
1) The major pollutant from automobile exhaust is b) Jhum
a) NO c) Taungya system
b) CO d) Agroforestry
c) SO2
d) Soot 10) The main atmospheric layer near the surface of
earth is
2) The greenhouse gases, otherwise called a) troposphere
radioactively active gases includes b) mesosphere
a) Carbon dioxide c) ionosphere
b) CH4 d) stratosphere
c) N2O
d) All of these 11) Which of the following facts are incorrect?
a) Global warming is the rise in the average temperature
3) Algal bloom results in of the earth’s climate system
a) Global warming b) Eutrophication is observed in water bodies
b) Salination c) The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
c) Eutrophication d) Ozone is harmless to breathe
d) Biomagnification
12) Areas that are under the influence of DDT may
4) A high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates observe a decline in the population of birds. This is
that: due to the fact that
a) water is pure a) Birds stopped laying eggs altogether
b) absence of microbial action b) The eggs did not hatch
c) Low level of microbial pollution c) Predation of the eggs increased
d) High level of microbial pollution d) None of the above.
5) The effects of radioactive pollutants depend upon 13) Measuring BOD (biological oxygen demand) is
a) Rate of diffusion primarily used for
b) energy releasing capacity a) Estimating the types of microbes
c) rate of deposition of the contaminant b) Determine the level of dissolved oxygen
d) all of these c) Estimating the quantity of organic matter in sewage
water
6) The range of normal human hearing is in the range d) None of the above
of
a) 10 Hz to 80 Hz 14) Cosmic rays, such as gamma rays are a source of
b) 50 Hz to 80 Hz a) Soil Pollution
c) 50Hz to 15000 Hz b) Noise Pollution
d) 15000 Hz and above c) Thermal Pollution
d) Radiation pollution
7) The pollution which does not persistent harm to life
supporting system is 15) The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is
a) Noise pollution a) Regulation of hazardous wastes
b) Radiation pollution b) Regulate the production of nuclear energy
c) Organochlorine pollution c) Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases
d) All of these d) None of the above

16) The presence of in a water body is an 24) is an organism used to gauge the
indicator of water pollution. quality of an ecosystem.
a) Zygosporangium a) Decomposers
b) E.Coli b) Predator
c) Deinococcus radiodurans c) Bio-remediator
d) None of the above d) Bioindicator
17) Eggshells of birds become unusually thin when 25) is a waste disposal method where solid
exposed to the pesticides in their environment. The organic wastes are converted o residue and gaseous
protein that gets affected is products through combustion.
a) Calmodulin a) Incarnation
b) Cysteine b) Incineration
c) Serine c) Incarceration
d) None of the above d) Incubation
Answer Key
18) Lichens are good bioindicators for 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-d, 5-d, 6-c, 7-a, 8-d, 9-c, 10-a,11-d, 12-b,
a) Environmental radiation 13-c, 14-d, 15-c, 16-b, 17-a, 18-c, 19-a, 20-a, 21-b, 22-b,
b) Soil pollution 23-a, 24-d, 25-b,
c) Water and air pollution
d) None of the above 26) Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
a) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
19) A moth having a speckled wing, able to blend into b) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater
its background due to its dark colouration is called bodies
a) Industrial melanism c) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas
b) Adaptation d) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to
c) Predation animals
d) Evolution
27) In an area where DDT had been used extensively,
20) Carbon dioxide is primarily called a greenhouse the population of birds declined significantly because
gas because a) Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
a) Traps heat b) Many of the bird’s eggs laid, did not hatch
b) Traps light c) Birds stopped laying eggs
c) Traps warm currents d) Earthworms in the area got eradicated
d) None of the above
28) Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is
21) Trichoderma harzianum is a that is a method used for
predominantly used as a fungicide a) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in
a) Virus producing curd on a commercial scale
b) Fungus b) Working out the efficiency of R.B.Cs. about their
c) Bacteria capacity to carry oxygen
d) Protozoa c) Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage
water
22) Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit d) Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile
infrared radiation. Examples include engines
a) Nitrogen
b) Ozone 29) dB is a standard abbreviation used for the
c) Argon quantitative expression of
d) None of the above a) The dominant Bacillus in a culture
b) The density of bacteria in a medium
23) Depletion of the ozone layer is damaging to human c) A certain pesticide
health. Negative effects include d) A particular pollutant
a) Skin cancers
b) Osteoporosis 30) Identify the correctly matched pair
c) Dyspepsia a) Basal Convention – Biodiversity Conservation
d) None of the above b) Montreal Protocol - Global warming

c) Kyoto protocol – Climatic change

d) Ramsar Convention – Ground water pollution 39) Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of
water pollution?
31) Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Bloodworms
a) Entamoeba histolytica b) Sludge-worms
b) Escherichia coli c) Sewage fungus
c) Eichhornia crassipes d) Stone flies
d) Lemna paucicostata 40) Which one of the following is the correct
percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) greenhouse
32) Shell of egg in bird becomes thin (not properly gases that contribute to the total global warming?
formed) due to the pollution of pesticides. This is due a) CO2 40%, CFCs 30%
to interference in the activity of: b) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
a) Calmodulin c) Methane 20%, N2O 18%
b) Mg ATPase d) N2O 6%, CO2 86%
c) Ca ATPase
d) None of these 41) Most hazardous metal pollutant of the automobile
exhaust is
33) Lichens can be used as: a) Lead
a) Source of wood b) Mercury
b) Initial vegetation for waste lands c) Cadmium
c) Bio-indicator for water and air pollution d) Copper
d) To check the air pollution
42) Noise pollution is measured in
34) Industrial melanism is an example of a) Decibels
a) Protective resemblance with the surrounding b) Amperes
b) Drug resistance c) Fathoms
c) Defensive adaptation of skin against UV radiations d) Ohm
d) Darkening of skin due to industries
43) Non-Ionizing radiations with specific biological
35) Carbon dioxide is called green-house gas because it effects are
is a) Gamma rays
a) Transparent to sunlight but traps heat b) Beta-rays
b) Transparent to heat but traps sunlight c) UV radiations
c) Used in green house to increase plant growth d) X-rays
d) Transparent to both sunlight and heat
44) Ozone day is observed on
36) Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful a) September 16
microorganism for: b) April 25
a) Reclamation of wastelands c) January 15
b) Bioremediation of contaminated soils d) December 16
c) Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
d) Gene transfer in higher plants 45) Ozone depletion in the stratosphere will cause
a) Increased incidence of skin cancer
37) The two gases making highest relative contribution b) Forest tires
to the greenhouse gases are c) Global warming
a) CO2 and N2O d) none of these
b) CO2 and CH4
c) CH4 and N2O 46) Sulphur dioxide affects
d) CFC5 and N2O a) All membrane systems
b) Plasmodesmata
38) The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in c) Cell wall
nature is due to their: d) Nucleus
a) Poor nitrogen content
b) Low moisture content 47) Ozone hole is largest over
c) Low cellulose content a) Antarctica
d) Anaerobic environment around them b) Europe

c) Africa c) SO2
d) China d) CO
48) Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being 56) Lead is one of the most serious environmental
destroyed by pollutants which affects
a) Chlorofluorocarbon a) Air
b) Photochemical oxidants b) Soil
c) Sulphur dioxide c) Water
d) Smog d) Noise
49) Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us from 57) lf there was no CO2 in the atmosphere, the earth’s
UV rays, is caused by temperature would be
a) CFCs a) Less than the present
b) CO2 b) Same as present
c) PAN c) Higher than the present
d) Coal burning d) Dependent on O2 content of air
50) Phosphate pollution is brought about by 58) Which of the following pollutants is discharged by
a) Phosphate rocks jet planes?
b) Fertilizers a) Photo-chemical oxidants
c) Phosphate rocks and sewage b) Fog
d) Fertilizers and sewage c) Smog
Answer Key d) Aerosols
26-d, 27-b, 28-c, 29-d, 30-c, 31-b, 32-a, 33-c, 34-a, 35-a,
36-b, 37-b, 38-a, 39-d, 40-b, 41-a, 42-a, 43-c, 44-a, 45-a, 59) Lichens indicate pollution by
46-a, 47-a, 48-a, 49-a, 50-d, a) Ozone
b) SO2
51) Sound becomes a hazardous noise pollution if its c) NO3
level is above d) CO
a) 30 dB
b) 80 dB 60) Which of the environmental pollutions can cause
c) 120 dB birth defects?
d) 150 dB a) Smog
b) CO
52) Which of the following shows biological c) SO2
amplification? d) Radioactivity
a) Hg
b) Cd 61) Major aerosol pollutant present in the jet plane
c) Both (A) and (B) emission is
d) Neither (A) nor (B) a) Carbon monoxide
b) Carbon tetrachloride
53) SO2 pollution is indicated by c) Chlorofluorocarbon
a) Deschampsia (grasses) d) Sulphur dioxide
b) Sphagnum (Mosses)
c) Usnea (Lichens) 62) Ultra-violet light causes
d) Cucurbita (climbers) a) Photodynamic action
b) Sticky metaphases
54) SO2 and NO2 produce pollution by increasing c) Formation of pyrimidines
a) Neutrality d) Destruction of hydrogen bonds between
b) Acidity complementary DNA strands
c) Alkalinity
d) Buffer action 63) Maximum deposition of DDT will occur in
a) Phytoplankton
55) Pollutants having most lasting effect are b) Crab
a) Pesticides c) Eel
b) Smoke from chimneys d) Sea gull

64) The ultraviolet radiations in the stratosphere are d) Leishmania

absorbed by
a) SO2 73) Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight causes the
b) Oxygen reaction that produces
c) Ozone a) Fluorides
d) Argon b) Ozone
c) Carbon monoxide
65) Maximum threat to the world is from d) Sulphur dioxide
a) Global warming
b) Ozone hole 74) DDT is a
c) Water pollution a) Greenhouse gas
d) Soil erosion b) Non-degradable pollutant
c) Degradable pollutant
66) Minamata disease is due to pollution of d) None of these
a) Industrial waste mercury into fishing water
b) Oil spill in water 75) Decomposition of domestic wastes under natural
c) Organic waste into drinking water processes is called
d) Arsenic into the atmosphere a) Industrial pollution
b) Thermal pollution
67) Montreal Protocol aims at c) Biodegradable pollution
a) Control of CO2 emission d) Nonbiodegradable pollution
b) Reduction of ozone depleting substances Answer Key
c) Biodiversity conservation 51-b, 52-c, 53-c, 54-b, 55-a, 56-b, 57-a, 58-d, 59-b, 60-d,
d) Control of water pollution 61-c, 62-d, 63-d, 64-c, 65-b, 66-a, 67-b, 68-a, 69-c, 70-a,
71-b, 72-b, 73-b, 74-b, 75-c,
68) Most abundant water pollutant is
a) Industrial wastes 76) Eutrophication causes decrease in
b) Pesticides a) Dissolved hydrogen
c) Detergents b) Dissolved salts
d) Ammonia c) Dissolved oxygen
d) All of these
69) Most harmful environmental pollutants are
a) Natural nutrients in excess 77) Escherichia coli used as an indicator organism to
b) Human organic wastes determine pollution of water with
c) Nonbiodegradable chemicals a) Industrial effluents
d) Waste animal feed b) Heavy metals
c) Pollen of aquatic plants
70) The atmosphere of big metropolitan cities is d) Faecal matter
polluted most by
a) Automobile exhausts 78) Eutrophication is often seen in
b) Radio-active fall out a) Mountains
c) Household waste b) Deserts
d) Pesticides residue c) Fresh water lakes
d) Ocean
71) Which one of the following is not normally a
pollutant? 79) Fish die in water polluted by sewage due to
a) Carbon monoxide a) Pathogens
b) Carbon dioxide b) Reduction in O2
c) Hydrocarbons c) Clogging of gills by silt
d) Sulphur dioxide d) Foul smell
72) Contamination of water with sewage is indicated 80) Fluoride pollution mainly affects
by cysts of a) Brain
a) Escherichia b) Teeth
b) Escherichia coli c) Heart
c) Pseudomonas d) Kidney

81) Gas leaked during Bhopal tragedy was 89) Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric
a) Ethyl isothiocyanate concentration of
b) Sodium isothiocyanate a) Ozone and dust
c) Potassium isothiocyanate b) SO2 and NO2
d) Methyl isocyanate c) SO3 and CO
d) CO2 and CO
82) Global agreement in specific control strategies to
reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, was 90) Addition of phosphates and nitrates/fertilizers into
adopted by water leads to
a) The Vienna Convention a) Increased algal growth
b) Rio de Janeiro Conference b) Nutrient enrichment (eutrophication)
c) The Montreal Protocol c) Reduced algal growth
d) The Koyoto Protocol d) Increased growth of decomposers
83) Greenhouse effect is caused by 91) Among the following, a secondary pollutant is
a) Green plants a) PAN
b) Infrared rays b) SO2
c) UV rays c) CO
d) X-rays d) Aerosol
84) Which of the following pollutions forms Heat 92) Attack of asthma in certain persons may be due to
island? a) Exposure to cold temperature
a) Water b) Inhalation of some air borne pollen
b) Air c) Eating of some seasonal vegetables
c) Land d) Low concentration of CO2 due to increased rate of
d) None of these photosynthesis
85) Increase in the concentration of pollutants in 93) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river
higher trophic levels is known as water
a) Biomagnification a) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water
b) Biodegradation b) Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs
c) Eutrophication c) Has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the
d) Recycling water
d) Gives a measure of salmonella in the water
86) Which one of the following pairs of gases are the
major causes of "Greenhouse Effect"? 94) BOD is connected with
a) CO2 and N2O a) Microbes
b) CO2 and O3 b) Organic matter
c) CO2 and CO c) Microbes and organic matter
d) CFCs and SO2 d) None of these
87) A disease affecting industrial workers is 95) BOD of a pond is related to in per unit
a) Silicosis volume of water
b) Fluorosis a) All the plants
c) Asthma b) All the nektons
d) None of these c) All the microbes
d) All the animals
88) According to Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in 96) Which one of the following statements is wrong in
micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for case of Bhopal, (India) tragedy?
greatest harm to human health? a) It took place in the night of December 2/3/1984
a) 5.2 - 2.5 b) Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
b) 2.5 or less c) Thousands of human beings died
c) 1.5 or less d) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
d) 1.0 or less

97) Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because it 105) Study of trends in human population growth and
a) Reacts with O2 prediction of future growth is called
b) Reacts with hemoglobin a) Demograph
c) Inhibits glycolysis b) Biography
d) Inactivates nervous system c) Kalography
d) Psychology
98) As it travels along the food chain, the
concentration of DDT 106) Which of the following is a problem not
a) Increases associated with population growth?
b) Remains constant a) Increased resource consumption
c) Decreases b) Environmental pollution
d) Fluctuates randomly c) Food and energy storages
d) None of the above
99) A chemical harmful released by
Chlorofluorocarbon to ozone is 107) One of the critical mechanisms by which the
a) Nitrogen Peroxide environment controls population of species is:
b) Fluorine a) Spread of disease
c) Chlorine b) Removal of excreta
d) Sulphur dioxide c) Check on death rate
d) Supply of food
100) CO emitted by automobiles prevents O-transport
to body tissues by 108) If the rate of addition of new member’s increases
a) Changing O2 to CO2 with respect to the individual lost of the same
b) Destroying hemoglobin population, then the graph obtained has:
c) Forming a stable compound with hemoglobin a) Declined growth
d) Obstructing the reaction of O2 with hemoglobin b) Exponential growth
Answer Key c) Zero growth
76-c, 77-d, 78-c, 79-b, 80-b, 81-d, 82-c, 83-b, 84-b, 85-a, d) None of the above
86-a, 87-a, 88-b, 89-b, 90-b, 91-a, 92-b, 93-a, 94-c, 95-c,
96-d, 97-b, 98-a, 99-c, 100-c, 109) Doubling time (Td) can be calculated by:
a) Td = 70 / r
101) Today, the world’s number one problem is: b) Td = r / 70
a) Pollution c) Td = 70 × r
b) Population explosion d) Td = 70 + r
c) Nuclear proliferation
d) Natural calamities 110) The number of babies produced per thousand
individuals is called:
102) The major cause of global population growth in a) Natality
the 18 and 19 centuries was: b) Mortality
a) Decrease in death rates c) Immigration
b) Decrease in birth rates d) Emigration
c) Industrial revolution
d) None of the above 111) Population pyramids are useful to:
a) Express the population growth rates
103) Population explosion has occurred in the last: b) Express the age-sex distribution
a) 500 years c) Indicate the birth rates
b) 300 years d) Indicate the death rates
c) 700 years
d) 150 years 112) The zero-population growth due to equal birth
and death rates is called:
104) The world has a population of: a) Natural increase
a) 4 billion b) Demographic transition
b) 5 billion c) Fertility rate
c) 6 billion d) Replacement level
d) 7 billion

113) The average life expectancy around the world is 121) Which important greenhouse gas other than
currently: methane is being provided from the agricultural
a) Decreasing fields?
b) Increasing a) SO
c) Not changing b) Nitrous oxide
d) Stabilizing c) Ammonia
d) SO
114) The force which acts against the achievement of
the highest possible level of population growth is 122) Which of the following gases contributes
known as: maximum to the ‘Greenhouse effect on earth?
a) Saturation level a) Carbon dioxide
b) Population pressure b) Methane
c) Carrying capacity c) Chlorofluorocarbons
d) Environmental resistance d) Freon
115) Short-term properties of the atmosphere at a 123) The greenhouse effect is due to:
given place and time is referred as: a) Penetrability of low wavelength radiations through
a) Climate O3 layer
b) Microclimate b) Impermeability of long wavelength radiations through
c) Season CO of the atmosphere
d) Weather c) Penetrability of low wavelength radiations through CO
d) Impermeability of long wavelength radiations through
116) Global atmospheric temperatures are likely to be O3 layer
increased due to:
a) Burning of fossil fuel 124) The primary cause of acid rain around the world
b) Water pollution is:
c) Soil erosion a) Carbon dioxide
d) None of the above b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Carbon monoxide
117) Global Warming could affect: d) Ozone
a) Climate
b) Food production 125) Acid rain is caused by increase in the
c) Melting of glaciers atmospheric concentration of?
d) All of the above a) Ozone and dust
b) SO and NO
118) Which of the following is not a solution of global c) SO and CO
warming? d) CO and CO
a) Reducing fossil fuel consumption Answer Key
b) Planting more trees 101-b, 102-c, 103-d, 104-c, 105-a, 106-d, 107-d, 108-b,
c) Deforestation 109-a, 110-a, 111-b, 112-b, 113-b, 114-d, 115-d, 116-a,
d) None of the above 117-d, 118-c, 119-b, 120-a, 121-b, 122-a, 123-b, 124-b,
125-b,
119) Greenhouse effect is related to:
a) Green trees on house 126) The primary air pollutant responsible for acid
b) Global warming rains is:
c) Grasslands a) Carbon dioxide
d) Greenery in country b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Carbon monoxide
120) Which of the following is not a ‘greenhouse gas’? d) Ozone
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide 127) How many times more acidic a rain having pH =
c) Chlorofluorocarbons 5.6 will be in comparison to a neutral rain having pH
d) Methane 7?
a) 72 / 5.62 = 1.56
b) 7 / 5.6 = 1.25
c) 107 / 105.6 = 20

d) 5.6 / 7 = 0.8 c) Sulphur dioxide

d) Argon
128) Which of the following statements is incorrect in
relation to checking and controlling acid rains? 136) Formation of hole in Ozone is maximum over
a) Catalytic converters are installed in cars a) India
b) Expensive scrubbers are installed in industries and b) Antarctica
thermal power stations c) Europe
c) Use of petrol cars is promoted by discouraging the use d) Africa
of diesel cars
d) None of the above 137) The ozone hole appears in Antarctica during
a) Late winter
129) Ozone day is observed on: b) Peak summer
a) January 03 c) Early winter
b) March 26 d) Autumn
c) September 16
d) November 10 138) Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate
are the result of:
130) Ozone layer is present in: a) Ozone depletion
a) Troposphere b) Acid rain
b) Mesosphere c) CO pollution
c) Stratosphere d) None of the above
d) Thermosphere
139) Which of the following statements about ozone is
131) Harmful U.V. radiations emanating from the sun true?
are prevented from reaching the Earth by the a) Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
presence of ozone in the: b) Ozone is highly reactive
a) Mesosphere c) Ozone protects us from the harmful UV radiation of
b) Thermosphere sun
c) Stratosphere d) All of the above
d) Troposphere
140) Ozone layer thickness is measured in:
132) Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being a) Millimeter
destroyed by: b) Centimeter
a) Ozone c) Decibels
b) PAN d) Dobson units
c) Aldehydes 141) Ozone depletion in the stratosphere will cause:
d) All of the above a) Forest fires
b) Increased incidence of skin cancer
133) Which one of the following gases can deplete the c) Global warming
ozone layer in the upper atmosphere? d) None of these
a) Methane
b) Ammonia 142) Nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons released by
c) Sulphur dioxide automobiles interact to form:
d) Carbon dioxide a) Sulphur dioxide
b) Carbon monoxide
134) Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us c) PAN
from UV rays, is caused by: d) Aerosols
a) CO
b) PAN 143) The first CFC was synthesised in:
c) CFCs a) 1892
d) Coal burning b) 1920
c) 1980
135) The ultraviolet radiations in the stratosphere are d) 1800
absorbed by:
a) Oxygen 144) This may be use as refrigerator:
b) Ozone a) CFC

b) Carbon
c) Acids 151) What does capacity building involve?
d) Ozone a) Arrangements for the transfer of funds, technology, and
expertise.
145) Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful b) Environmental projects in developed countries.
to ozone is: c) a and b.
a) Chlorine d) None of the options given is correct.
b) Fluorine
c) Sulphur dioxide 152) What is the influence of scientific knowledge?
d) Nitrogen peroxide a) It is disseminated through epistemic communities.
b) It has played a key role in the creation of framework
146) Traditional environmental issues include which of conventions and control protocols.
the following? Please select all that apply. c) It has particularly influenced the discourse of climate
a) Natural resource conservation. change.
b) Climate change. d) All of the options given are correct.
c) Pollution.
d) Exploitation of maritime resources. 153) 'Estimating the area of productive land or aqua
system required to sustain a population at its specified
147) What is the tragedy of the commons? standard of living' creates what?
a) It results from an inherent tension between collective a) Epistemic community.
and individual responsibility. b) Global environmental common.
b) It can always be resolved through privatization and c) Ecological footprint.
nationalization of the commons. d) Convention.
c) It is independent of the carrying capacity of the
common. 154) The regime under which the production and
d) All of the options given are correct. trading of CFCs and other ozone depleting substances
would be progressively phased out is what?
148) What are realist approaches to environmental a) The Montreal Protocol.
politics? b) The ChloroFluoroCarbon Treaty.
a) Realist theories emphasize the role of institutions in c) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
regulating the environment. d) None of the options given are correct.
b) Realist theories focus on questions of state power and
interest. 155) Which of the following statements about the
c) Realist theories emphasize the role played by epistemic Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change are true?
communities of scientists. a) Was set up in 1988 under the auspices of WMO and
d) Realist theories focus on the dissemination of UNEP.
environmental norms. b) Focuses on climate science, impacts, and economic and
social dimensions of climate change.
149) What is the 'precautionary principle'? c) Has concluded that warming of the climate system is
a) It is German in origin. unequivocal.
b) It advocates for a higher standard for environmental d) All of the options given are correct.
action.
c) It has become increasingly popular. 156) The UN Conference of Parties on climate change
d) All of the options given are correct. in the year 2011 was held in
a) Poland
150) Norms of environmental protection include which b) South Africa
of the following options? c) Peru
a) The precautionary principle. d) Qatar
b) The polluter pays.
c) Prior informed consent. 157) Which one of the following statements is not valid
d) All of the options given are correct. for aerosols?
Answer Key a) They are harmful to human health
126-b, 127-c, 128-d, 129-c, 130-c, 131-c, 132-c, 133-a, b) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
134-c, 135-b, 136-b, 137-b, 138-a, 139-d, 140-d, 141-b, c) They cause increased agricultural productivity
142-c, 143-a, 144-a, 145-a, 146-a,c,d, 147-a, 148-b, 149- d) They have negative impact on agricultural land
d, 150-d,

158) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be d) O3 and dust

a good index for pollution in water bodies receiving
effluents from 166) Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing
a) domestic service of fishes is mainly due to non-availability of
b) dairy industry a) food
c) petroleum industry b) light
d) sugar industry c) essential minerals
d) water
159) A lake which is rich in organic waste may result
in 167) Which of the following is not one of prime health
a) increased population of aquatic organisms due to risks associated with greater UV radiation through the
minerals atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
b) drying of the lake due to algal bloom a) Increased skin cancer
c) increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients b) Reduced immune system
d) mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen c) Damage to eyes
d) Increased liver cancer
160) The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food
chain shall occur in 168) A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the
a) phytoplankton trees indicates that the:
b) seagull a) trees are very healthy
c) crab b) trees are heavily infested
d) eel c) location is highly polluted
d) location is not polluted
161) Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can
lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers 169) The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer
a) ozone is present is called
b) ammonia a) ionosphere
c) methane b) mesosphere
d) nitrous oxide c) stratosphere
d) troposphere
162) Joint Forest Management Concept was
introduced in India during 170) A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial
a) 1970s plant removes
b) 1980s a) Gases like sulphur dioxide
c) 1990s b) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
d) 1960s c) Gases like ozone and methane
d) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
163) The UN conference of Parties on climate change
in the year 2012 was held at 171) Kyoto Protocol was endorsed (supported) at
a) Durban a) CoP-3
b) Doha b) CoP-5
c) Lima c) CoP-6
d) Warsaw d) CoP-4
164) Increase in concentration of the toxicant at 172) Global warming can be controlled by
successive tropic levels is known as a) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel
a) biomagnification b) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel
b) biodeterioration c) Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of
c) biotransformation human population
d) biogeochemical cycling d) Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy
usage
165) Acid rain is caused by increase in the
atmospheric concentration of 173) The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act
a) SO2 and NO2 came into force in?
b) SO3 and CO a) 1975
c) CO2 and CO b) 1981

c) 1985 180) Eutrophication is often seen in

d) 1990 a) freshwater lakes
b) ocean
174) In an area where DDT had been used extensively, c) mountains
the population of birds declined significantly because d) deserts
a) birds stopped laying eggs
b) earthworms in the area got eradicated 181) A renewable exhaustible natural resource is
c) cobras were feeding exclusively on birds a) coal
d) many of the bird’s eggs laid, early hatched b) petroleum
c) minerals
175) Which one of the following is a wrong statement? d) forest
a) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas
b) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to 182) dB is a standard abbreviation used for the
animals quantitative expression of
c) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon a) the density of bacteria in a medium
d) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater b) a particular pollutant
bodies c) the dominant Bacillus in a culture
Answer Key d) a certain pesticide
151-c, 152-d, 153-c, 154-a, 155-d, 156-b, 157-c, 158-c,
159-d, 160-b, 161-a, 162-b, 163-b, 164-a, 165-a, 166-c, 183) The two gases making highest relative
167-d, 168-d, 169-c, 170-a, 171-a, 172-a, 173-b, 174-d, contribution to the greenhouse gases are
175-b, a) CO2 and CH4
b) CH4 and NO2
176) Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) c) CFCs and N20
is a method used for d) CO2 and N20
a) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage
water 184) Chipko movement was launched for the
b) working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile protection of
engines a) grasslands
c) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in b) forests
producing curd on a commercial scale c) livestock
d) working out the efficiency of RBCs about their d) wetlands
capacity to carry oxygen
185) DDT residues are rapidly passed through food
177) Which one of the following pairs of gases are the chain causing biomagnification because DDT is:
major cause of Greenhouse effect? a) lipid soluble
a) CO2 and CO b) moderately toxic
b) CFCs and SO2 c) non-toxic to aquatic animals
c) CO2 and N20 d) water soluble
d) CO2 and O3
186) Steps taken by the Government of India to
178) Which one of the following expanded forms of the control air pollution include
following acronyms is correct? a) compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol
a) UNEP - United Nations Environmental Policy and 20% biodiesel with diesel
b) EPA - Environmental Pollution Agency b) compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control)
c) IUCN - International Union for Conservation of Nature certification of petrol driven vehicles, which tests for
and Natural Resources carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons
d) IPCC - International Panel for Climate change c) permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of
500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles
179) Which one of the following statements is wrong in d) use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
case Bhopal gas tragedy? only as fuel by all buses and trucks
a) Thousands of human beings died
b) Radioactive fallout engulfed Bhopal 187) Montreal protocol aims at
c) It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984 a) reduction of ozone depleting substances
d) Methyl isocynate gas leakage took place b) biodiversity conservation
c) control of water pollution

d) control of CO2 emission c) N2O 6%, CO2 86%

d) CH4 20%, N2O 18%
188) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river
water 194) World Summit on Sustainable Development
a) remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs (2002) was held in
b) has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the a) Brazil
water b) Sweden
c) gives a measure of Salmonella in the water c) Argentina
d) increases when sewage gets mixed with river water d) South Africa
189) Global agreement in specific control strategies to 195) Which one of the following statements is correct?
reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, was a) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to
adopted by eutrophication of nearby water bodies
a) Rio de Janeiro Conference b) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric
b) The Montreal Protocol nitrogen in root nodules of plants
c) The Koyoto Protocol c) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are
d) The Vienna Convention important mobilizer of phosphates and potassium for
plant nutrition in soil
190) A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of d) At present it is not possible to grow maize without
fishes within a few days. Consider the following chemical fertilizers
reasons for this
(1) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the 196) Which one of the following is being utilized as a
crops in the vicinity. source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
(2) The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft. a) Euphorbia
(3) The lake water turned green and stinky. b) Beetroot
(4) Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined c) Sugarcane
initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis. d) Pongamia
Which two of above were the main causes of fish
mortality in the lake? 197) In which one of the following the BOD
a) 2, 3 (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), distillery
b) 3, 4 effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill
c) 1, 3 effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order?
d) 1, 2 a) SE < S < PE < DE
b) SE < PE < S < DE
191) According to Central Pollution Control Board c) PE < S < SE < DE
(CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in d) S< DE < PE < SE
micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for
greatest harm to human health? 198) In a coal fired power plant electrostatic
a) 2.5 or less precipitators are installed to control emission of:
b) 1.5 or less a) SO2
c) 1.0 or less b) NOx
d) 5.2 or 2.5 c) SPM
d) CO
192) Which one of the following is being tried in India
as a biofuel substitute for fossil fuels? 199) Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of
a) Jatropha water pollution?
b) Azadirachta a) Sludge-worms
c) Musa b) Bloodworms
d) Aegilops c) Stone flies
d) Sewage fungus
193) Which one of the following is the correct
percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) green- 200) The "blue baby' syndrome results from
house gases that contribute to the total global a) excess of chloride
warming? b) Methaemoglobin
a) CFCs 14%, CH4 20% c) excess of tasseled oxygen
b) CO2 40%, CFCs 30% d) excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids)

201) Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate 208) Nitrogen oxides produced from the emission of
action to protect the ozone layer from human activities automobiles and power plants, are the source of fine
was passed in the year: air borne particles which lead to
a) 1986 a) photochemical smog
b) 1987 b) dry acid deposition
c) 1988 c) industrial smog
d) 1985 d) wet acid deposition
Answer Key
176-a, 177-c, 178-c, 179-b, 180-a, 181-d, 182-b, 183-a, 209) A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in
184-b, 185-a, 186-b, 187-a, 188-d, 189-b, 190-d, 191-a, organic waste may result in
192-a, 193-a, 194-d, 195-a, 196-a, 197-d, 198-c, 199-c, a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
200-b, b) an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
c) death of fish due to lack of oxygen
202) Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution d) increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
Control Board for the discharge of industrial and
municipal wastewater into natural surface water, is 210) Minamata disease was caused due to the
a) < 3.0 ppm consumption of
b) < 10 ppm a) sea food containing lot of cadmium
c) < 100 ppm b) fish contaminated with mercury
d) < 30 ppm c) oysters with lot of pesticide
d) sea food contaminated with selenium.
203) Green muffler is used against which type of
pollution? 211) Formation of non-functional methaemoglobin
a) Air causes blue-baby syndrome. This is due to
b) Soil a) excess of arsenic concentration in drinking water
c) Water b) excess of nitrates in drinking water
d) Noise c) deficiency of iron in food
d) increased methane content in the atmosphere
204) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of
a) industrial wastes poured into water bodies 212) Which one of the following statements pertaining
b) extent to which water is polluted with organic to pollutants is correct?
compounds a) DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant.
c) amount of carbon monoxide inseparably b) Excess fluoride in drinking water causes osteoporosis.
d) amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night. c) Excess cadmium in drinking water causes black foot
disease.
205) Drinking of mineral water with very low level of d) Methylmercury in water may cause "Itai Itai" disease.
pesticides (about 0.02 ppm) for long periods may:
a) produce immunity against mosquito 213) Pollution from animal excreta and organic waste
b) cause leukemia (blood cancer) in most people from kitchen can be most profitably minimized
c) cause cancer of the intestine a) storing them in underground storage tanks
d) lead to accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat b) using them for producing biogas
c) vermiculture
206) Photochemical smog formed in congested d) using them directly as biofertilizers
metropolitan cities mainly consists of
a) ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NOx 214) Which one of the following is an environment
b) smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO2 related disorder with the correct main cause?
c) hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2 a) Black lung disease (pneumoconiosis) found mainly in
d) hydrocarbons, ozone and SOx . workers in stone quarries and crushers.
b) Blue baby disease (methaemoglobinaemia) due to
207) In almost all Indian metropolitan citiies like heavy use of nitrogenous fertilizers in the area.
Delhi, the major atmospheric pollutant(s) is/are: c) Skin cancer mainly in people exposed to benzene and
a) suspended particular matter (SPM) methane.
b) oxides of Sulphur d) Both a and b
c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
d) oxides of nitrogen. 215) The Montreal Protocol refers to
a) persistent organic pollutants

b) global warming and climate change (iv) It will lead to nutrient enrichment of receiving water
c) substances that deplete the ozone layer body.
d) biosafety of genetically modified organisms. a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
216) Ozone in stratosphere extends c) (ii) and (iii)
a) 10-20 km d) (iii) and (iv)
b) 20-25 km
c) 15-30 km 223) Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
d) 25-40 km. a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen oxides
217) Rain is called acid-rain when its pH is below c) Peroxyacyl nitrates
a) 7 d) All of these
b) 6.5
c) 6 224) Match the following and select the correct option
d) 5.6. Column- I
Column- II
218) In vehicles, catalytic converters are used A. Emphysema (i)
a) to increase mileage of vehicles Increase in the concentration of nonbiodegrable
b) to convert CO2 into carbonates substances in food chains
c) to increase the efficiency of lead mixed petrol B. ADA deficiency
d) to convert CO to CO2 (ii) -1 antitrypsin
C. Eutrophication (iii)
219) Which of the following statements is correct? Bone marrow transplantation
a) Catalytic converter can separate particulate matter of D. Biomagnification (iv)
diameter less than 2.5 micrometers. Nutrient enrichment of water body
b) Histones are acidic in nature that forms core for DNA a) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (i)
packaging b) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
c) Lactobacillus is not present in dough used in idli c) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (iv)
formation. d) A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (i)
d) Template with polarity 5' 3' has continuous DNA
replication. 225) One greenhouse gas contributes 14% to total
global warming and another contributes 6%. These
220) Cattle ranches are known to causes acute green are respectively identified as
house effect. This is due to a) N2O and CO2
a) mechanized milking practices b) CFCs and N2O
b) methanogenic bacteria in rumen c) methane and CO2
c) decomposition of left-over fodder d) methane and CFCs
d) decomposition of organic remains in faeces.
221) Select the correct statement. 226) Which one option is incorrectly matched
a) Particulate matter of size 10 μm can create severe regarding biological magnification of DDT in aquatic
damage to the lungs. ecosystem.
b) Particulate matter of size greater than 2.5 m can get a) Small fish 0.5 ppm
trapped in lungs and cause problems. b) Large fish 2 ppm
c) Particulate matter of size less than 2.5 μm penetrate c) Fish eating birds 25ppm
deep into lungs. d) Zoopkankton 0.003 ppm
d) None of the above.
227) Which one is matched correctly?
222) A large quantity of urban sewage is drained to a) Arsenic-Black foot disease
nearby village river. Which among the given b) Fluoride--Itai-itai
conditions would happen after mixing of sewage into c) Mercury-Skeletal fluorosis
the river? d) Cadmium-Minamata disease
(i) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of receiving
water body increases. 228) Green muffler plays an important role against
(ii) Dissolved oxygen of receiving water body decreases. a) noise pollution
(iii) It will not cause mortality among fishes and other b) radioactive pollution
aquatic creatures c) soil pollution

d) air pollution a) Hunting

b) Habitat loss
229) The government of India in 1980s has introduced
a concept to work closely with the local communities c) Disease
for protecting and managing forests. The concept is
d) Capture for the pet trade
a) Forest Research Institutes
b) Panel of focal communities for forest management
c) Joint forest Management
237) Which of the following is not listed as an
d) Jhum Cultivation
endangered species under the U.S. Endangered
230) The thickness of the ozone is measured in terms
Species Act?
of:
a) P a) Cheetah
b) DU
b) Bald eagle
c) µ
d) RA c) Blue whale
d) Hawaiian monk seal
231) Which of the following have an impact on brain
development in human beings especially among
children?
238) The Bronx Zoo once had a picture frame covered
a) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
b) methane by cloth. It was labelled 'The most dangerous species
c) carbon monoxide
in the world'. If you removed the cover, you saw...
d) lead compounds
a) A great white shark
232) Group of chemically unreactive compounds that
b) A mirror
are commonly used as solvents are called
a) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) c) A virus
b) functional groups
d) A mountain lion
c) alkyl groups
d) lead compounds
239) Which of the following substances is not
233) Which of the following is produced when dead
plant material decays in the absence of air? biodegradable?
a) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
a) Paper
b) methane
c) carbon monoxide b) Food refuse
d) lead compounds
c) Styrofoam
234) Which of the following is true about nitrogen d) Sawdust
dioxide?
a) it is colorless
b) it is odourless 240) What environmental problem is the result of
c) it is soluble in water
chemical reactions in the atmosphere that involve
d) it is soluble in oxygen
sulfur?
235) Which of the following comes mainly due to the
a) Deforestation
combustion of fuel used in motor vehicles?
a) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) b) Acid rain
b) methane
c) Holes in the ozone layer
c) carbon monoxide
d) lead compounds d) Smog
236) The greatest danger facing most endangered

species is...

241) What chemicals have been banned in most of the 201-b, 202-b, 203-d, 204-b, 205-d, 206-a, 207-a, 208-b,
209-c, 210-b, 211-b, 212-a, 213-b, 214-b, 215-c, 216-b,
world because of their role in destroying the ozone
217-d, 218-d, 219-a, 220-b, 221-c, 222-b, 223-c, 224-b,
layer? 225-b, 226-d, 227-a, 228-a, 229-c, 230-b, 231-d, 232-a,
233-b, 234-c, 235-d, 236-b, 237-b, 238-b, 239-c, 240-b,
a) DDT
241-d, 242-c, 243-d, 244-a, 245-c,
b) Metal oxides
c) Peroxides
d) Chlorofluorocarbons PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT PART A:
Q1) Which of the following gases is not a Green House
Gas?
242) Who wrote 'Silent Spring', the first book A) CO B) O3 C) CH4 D) H2O vapour
Q2) The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
documenting many of the problems caused by
A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan B) Coastal regions of India
pesticides? C) Malabar Coast D) Delta regions
Q3) The Sagarmanthan National Park has been
a) Aldo Leopold
established to preserve the ecosystem of which mountain
b) Henry David Thoreau peak?
A) Kanchenjunga B) Mount Everest C) Annapurna D)
c) Rachel Carson
Dholavira
d) Jaques Cousteau Q4) Maximum soot is released from
A) Petrol vehicles B) CNG vehicles C) Diesel vehicles D)
Thermal Power Plants
243) Which of the following is not a renewable Q5) Surface Ozone is produced from
A) Transport sector B) Cement plants C) Textile industry
resource?
D) Chemical industry
a) Timber Q6) Which one of the following non-conventional energy
sources can be exploited most economically?
b) Wild mushrooms
A) Solar B) Wind C) Geo-thermal D) Ocean Thermal
c) Fish Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Q7) The most recurring natural hazard in India is
d) Gold
A) Earthquakes B) Floods C) Landslides D) Volcanoes
Q8) Which one of the following is the oldest Archival
source of data in India?
244) Which of the following practices produces the
A) National Sample Surveys B) Agricultural Statistics C)
most organic water pollution? Census D) Vital Statistics
Q9) Which is the smallest North-east State in India?
a) Intensive livestock farming
A) Tripura B) Meghalaya C) Mizoram D) Manipur
b) Paper mills Q10) Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage
due to:
c) Recreational boating
A) high evaporation B) sea water flooding due to tsunami
d) Humans bathing in the water C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells D)
seepage of sea water
Q11) While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the
245) 'Ecology' comes from two Greek words Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the Arabian
Sea because these two rivers:
meaning...
A) follow the slope of these rift valleys B) The general
a) Natural life slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west C) The
Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted
b) Study of the world
towards the west D) The Indian peninsula south of the
c) Study of the house Satpura ranges is tilted towards east
Q12) Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than
d) Nature study
those in the Godavari delta because of:
A) erosion of top soils by annual floods B) inundation of
Answers: land by sea water C) inundation of land by sea water D)

the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland population:

Q13) Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the
State list: A) Quartiles B) Quintiles C) Mean and SD D) Break -
point
A) With the prior permission of the President. B) Only Q23) Which of the following methods is best suited to
after the constitution is amended suitably. C) In case of show on a map the types of crops being grown in a region
inconsistency among State legislatures. D) At the request
of two or more States. A) Choropleth B) Chorochromatic C) Choroschematic D)
Q14) The most significant impact of volcanic eruption Isopleths
has been felt in the form of: Q24) A ratio represents the relation between:
A) change in weather B) sinking of islands C) loss of A) Part and Part B) Part and Whole C) Whole and Whole
vegetation D) extinction of animals D) All of the above
Q15) Consider the following about the Himalayan Q25) Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for
orogeny modifying the climate.
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short wave and
A) The orogeny resulted from the southward movement infra -red radiations.
B) The orogeny began about 25 million years ago C) The
orogeny closed about 1 million years ago D) The A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Himalayas have a root of relatively light crustal rocks explanation of (A) . B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
projecting into the denser mantle. is not the correct explanation of (A) . C) (A) is true and
Q16) Which of the following combinations is correct? (R) is false D) (A) is false but (R) is true
A) A and B B) C and D C) A and C D) B and D Answer Key

Q17) A seismogram records the following types of Q1) A, Q2) A, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) A, Q6) A, Q7) B, Q8)
earthquake waves. I L-waves II P -waves III S -waves A, Q9) A, Q10) D, Q11) A, Q12) A, Q13) D, Q14) A,
The correct chronological sequence of the arrival of these Q15) B, Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) B, Q19) C, Q20) A,
waves is Q21) A, Q22) A, Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25) B,
A) B, C and D B) B, A and C C) C, A and B D) A, B and Q26) Which of the following grows rapidly resulting in
C arrive at the same time the shrinkage of water bodies?
Q18) Which one of the following statements is true of
braided streams? A) Phytoplankton B) Zooplankton C) Algae D)
Macrophytes
A) Width and depth of the channel are equal B) Width of Q27) Which species of chromium is toxic in water?
the channel is greater than its depth C) Width of the
channel is unrelated to its depth D) Width of the channel A) Cr+2 B) Cr+3 C) Cr+6 D) Cr0
is less than its depth Q28) Chemical compounds having same crystal structure
Q19) With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in are called
ocean water beyond desired level, there will be:
A) Polymorphic B) Pseudomorphic C) Isomorphic D)
A) decrease in temperature B) increase in salinity C) None of the above
growth of phytoplankton D) rise in sea level Q29) Micas having an atomic structure defined as
Q20) The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel continuous sheets of tetra hedrons, sharing 3-oxygen
sources in India is caused by: atoms, are called:
A) Coal B) Firewood C) Refuse burning D) Vegetable A) Inosilicate B) Phyllosilicate C) Tectosilicate D)

waste product Sorosilicate
Q21) The urbanization process accounts for the wind in Q30) If the population growth follows a logistic curve,
the urban centres during nights to remain: the maximum sustainable yield:
A) faster than that in rural areas B) slower than that in A) is equal to half the carrying capacity B) is equal to the
rural areas C) the same as that in rural areas D) cooler carrying capacity C) depends on growth rate D) depends
than that in rural areas on the initial population
Q22) Which of the following methods will you choose to Q31) Fluidized -bed combustion of coal is an efficient
prepare choropleth map of India showing urban density of method of controlling which of the following air

pollutants: atmosphere is churned by convection

Q40) For a comprehensive EIA study, it is to be
A) CO B) SPM and Nox C) NOx and Sox D) CO, SPM conducted for:
and Sox
Q32) Given below are two statements, one labelled as A) The whole year B) Any three seasons including
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R): monsoon C) Three seasons excluding monsoon D) The
Assertion (A): One of the movements of the surface water worst season
of ocean is known as ocean current. Q41) In initial environmental examination, the following
Reason (R): Ocean currents are caused mainly due to are considered:
planetary winds and the difference in temperature and
density of water. A) No quantitative data B) Primary data C) Secondary
In the context of the above two statements, which one the data D) On site data for at least a season
following is correct? Q42) Which of the following forest types is most
widespread in India?
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A. B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct A) Tropical evergreen forest B) Tropical deciduous forest
explanation of A C) A is true but R is false D) A is false C) Temperate forest D) Scrub forest
but R is true Q43) The presence of pneumatophores is seen in:
Q33) Tsunami occurs due to:
A) Desert plants B) Climbers and lianas C) Trees of
A) Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans B) tropical moist forests D) Mangroves
Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans C) Strong Q44) Ramsar convention is related to conservation of:
earthquakes and landslides in mountains D) Strong
earthquakes and landslides in deserts A) Tiger B) Elephants C) Crop genetic diversity D)
Q34) Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Wetlands
Indian people each year? Q45) A significant effect of climate change on account of
global warming of terrestrial plants will be on:
A) Cyclones B) Floods C) Earthquakes D) Landslides
Q35) Comparative Environment Impact Assessment A) Stomatal mechanism B) Amino acid composition of
study is to be conducted for: cereal grains C) Phenology D) Bark formation in trees
Q46) A tree, which is popular in social forestry
A) the whole year B) three seasons excluding monsoon C) programme in India, is:
any three seasons D) the worst season
Q36) Sea level rise results primarily due to: A) Shorea Robusta B) Ailanthus excelsa C) Cedrus
deodara D) Callistemon lanceolatus
A) Heavy rainfall B) Melting of glaciers C) Submarine Q47) The great Indian Rhino has its natural home in
volcanism D) Seafloor spreading
Q37) The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends A) Kaziranga National Park B) Corbett National Park C)
on: Sunderbans D) kanha National Park
i) Buoyancy. Q48) According to the Botanical Survey of India, the total
ii) Atmospheric stability. number of plant species in India is about:
iii) Momentum of exhaust gases. Identify the correct
code: A) 45000 B) 75000 C) 17000 D) 30000
Q49) Assertion (A): Bt cotton is a transgenic crop which
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (ii) and (iii) only C) (i) and (iii) has been introduced in India, but is being opposed on
only D) (i), (ii) and (iii) environmental grounds. Reason (R): CrylAc protein in Bt
Q38) Winds blowing down an incline often due to cold cotton has been found to be toxic and allergenic to human
air drainage are called: beings.
A) Anabatic winds B) Mountain winds C) Cyclonic winds A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
D) katabatic winds explanation of (A). B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
Q39) Mixing height is: not correct explanation of (A). C) (A) is true but (R) is
false D) (A) is false but (R) is true
A) the height of ground based inversion B) the height at Q50) Oxygen toxicity (in humans) is caused by:
which geostrophic balance occurs C) the height of
constant solar flux layer D) the height upto which A) Inhalation of molecular oxygen B) Generation of free

radicals C) Interactions of singlet oxygen with membrane Q60) In an idealized Magneto hydrodynamic power plant,
D) None of the above the maximum power output varies with fuel velocity (u)
as:
Answer Key
Q26) A, Q27) B, Q28) C, Q29) D, Q30) A, Q31) D, A) U B) U2 C) U3 D) U1/2
Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) B, Q35) A, Q36) B, Q37) B, Q38) Q61) In humid climate, weathering of various types ”of
C, Q39) A, Q40) B, Q41) B, Q42) C, Q43) D, Q44) A, rocks occurs. Identify the correct sequence in order of
Q45) A, Q46) A, Q47) A, Q48) A, Q49) A, Q50) B, decreasing weathering:
Q51) C2F3C 3 gas: A) Basalt: Dunite: Granite B) Basalt: Granite: Dunite C)

Dunite: Granite: Basalt D) Dunite: Basalt: Granite
A) absorbs ultraviolet radiations B) affects troposphere Q62) The lion -tailed macaque is endemic to:
ozone C) forms aerosols in stratosphere D) absorbs
infrared radiations A) Andaman and Nicobar islands B) Lakshadweep C)
Q52) Which of the following shows bioaccumulation and Nilgiri D) Arunachal Pradesh
contaminate food chains? Q63) Which of the following concepts can be used to
study the rate of
A) Pesticides B) Polychlorinated biphenyls C) PAN D) acceleration of the Universe? I) Supernovae Explosions.
All of the above II) Dark Matter.
Q53) Removal of which of the following impurities from III) Dark Energy.
contaminated water requires the of coagulants: IV) Black Holes.
A) Colloidal impurities B) dissolved solids C) micro A) I& III only. B) I& II only. C) II, III & IV only. D) I,
organisms D) all of the above III & IV only.
Q54) The most efficient method of biodegradable urban Q64) Which of the following can be a trigger for Coral
solid waste management is: Bleaching? I) crease in ocean temperature.
II) Decrease in ocean temperature.
A) Landfills B) Pelletization C) Gasification D) III) Decline in Zooplankton levels.
Composting IV) Changes in salinity.
Q55) Pollutants in soil can be broken down by micro V) Elevated sea levels due to global warming.
organisms. The process is called:
A) All except II B) All except II & IV C) All except V D)
A) Probiotics B) Bioremediation C) Bioaugmentation D) None of the above.
None of the above Q65) Deforestation during the recent decades has led to:
Q56) A thermodynamic function of state which is
constant during a reversible isobaric isothermal process A) Soil erosion B) Landslides C) Loss of bio-diversity D)
is: All the above
Q66) Which one of the following natural hazards is
A) Geothermal potential B) Thermodynamic efficiency C) responsible for causing highest human disaster?
Enthalpy D) Gi’s free energy
Q57) t -statistic is useful for testing: A) Earthquakes B) Snow-storms?? C) Volcanic eruptions
D) Tsunami
A) Variances B) Overall goodness of fit of a regression Q67) Which one of the following is appropriate for
model C) null hypothesis for a regression coefficient D) natural hazard mitigation?
constancy of the mean
Q58) 1 metric ton of average coal in energy terms is A) International AID B) Timely Warning System C)
equivalent to: Rehabilitation D) Community Participation
Q68) Slums in metro-city are the result of:
A) 2000 cubic feet of natural gas B) 24000 cubic feet of
natural gas C) 1.5 barrels of oil D) 2.0 barrels of oil A) Rural to urban migration B) Poverty of the city-scape
Q59) In marine environment Carbonate Compensation C) Lack of urban infrastructure D) Urban-governance
Depth (CCD) is de-fined as depth at which: Q69) Ganga Action plan was launched in.
A) Carbonate begins to dissolve B) Carbonate begins to A) 1985 B) 1986 C) 1987 D) 1988

precipitate C) Carbonate begins to precipitate D) Q70) NRCP was launched in...
Bicarbonate begins to dissolve

A) 1994 B) 1995 C) 1996 D) 1997

Q71) The Suez Canal connects: A) Kuwait B) Thailand C) South Africa D) India
Q81) Where is the famous shore temple located?
A) Baltic Sea and the Caspian Sea B) Mediterranean Sea
and the Red Sea C) Red Sea and the Caspian Sea D) A) Puri B) Visakhapatnam C) Mamallapuram D) Chennai
Mediterranean Sea and North Sea Q82) If the Arctic Ice was somehow replaced with dense
Q72) Nagli is a forest, which of the following situation may arise:
A) Animal B) Cotton C) Crop D) None of these A) It will accelerate Global Warming. B) It will
Q73) Solar, Wind are the examples of decelerate Global Warming. C) It may or may not affect
Global warming. D) It will have no affect on Global
A) Renewable B) Non-renewable C) Both D) None of Warming.
these Q83) Radcliff Line’ is a boundary line between
Q74) Jog waterfall, the highest waterfall in India, is
located in A) India and Bangladesh B) India and Bhutan C) India
and China D) India and Pakistan
A) Kerala B) Karnataka Q84) Which of the following statements are correct with
C) Maharashtra D) Madhya Pradesh regard to Red tide-a term used to describe Harmful Algal
Q75) Which one of the following mountain peaks of the Blooms (HABs) in marine coastal areas.
Himalayas is not in India I) These blooms are not associated with tides.
II) ABs tint the seawater to a reddish colour.
A) Annapurna B) Nanda Devi C) Mt. Kamet D) III) Not all algal blooms are harmful, even those
Kanchenjunga involving red discoloration.
Answer Key A) I& III only. B) I& II only. C) II& III only. D) I, II& III
Q51) B, Q52) D, Q53) B, Q54) D, Q55) B, Q56) D, Q85) Which of the following statements is/are correct:
Q57) B, Q58) D, Q59) A, Q60) C, Q61) A, Q62) A, I) Ozone Depletion causes reduction in stratospheric and
Q63) D, Q64) D, Q65) D, Q66) D, Q67) B, Q68) A, upper tropospheric temperatures.
Q69) A, Q70) B, Q71) B, Q72) C, Q73) A, Q74) B, Q75) II) crease in Green House Gases causes reduction in
A, stratospheric and upper tropospheric temperatures.
Q76) Freely suspended magnetic needle stands in which A) I only. B) II only. C) Both I and II D) None on these
direction? Q86) Which of the following statements is/are correct
with regard to Ozone
A) North-West direction B) North-South direction C) Depletion:
North-East direction D) South-West direction I) Ozone hole is measured in terms of ozone
Q77) In what regions can the sun be seen at midnight? concentrations, which is expressed in Dobson units.
II) The major cause for Ozone Depletion is the presence
A) The tropical zone B) Warm temperate regions C) The of CFCs i stratosphere- CFCs are entirely man made and
Arctic and Antarctic regions D) Anywhere at the time of not found naturally.
lunar eclipse
Q78) The Basel Convention on the Control of Trans A) I only. B) II only. C) Both I and II D) None of these
boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Q87) Which of the following pairs is not correctly
Disposal, usually known as the Basel Convention: matched?
I) t is an international treaty that was designed to reduce
the movements of hazardous wastes from developed to A) Panna: Diamond B) Neyveli: Lignite C) Mysore:
less developed countries. Marble D) Sambhar: Salt
II)It does not address the movement of radioactive waste. Q88) Where does the primitive community. of Bushman
live?
A) I only. B) II only. C) Both I and II D) None of these
Q79) Which among the following planets intersects the A) Sahara desert B) Thar desert C) Kalahari desert D)
orbit of Neptune? Atacama desert
Q89) Difference of longitudinal of two places on the earth
A) Mercury B) Pluto C) Earth D) Uranus is 15^0 What will Difference of longitudinal of two places
Q80) Which of the following countries is called the on the earth is
”Country of white elephants”?

A) No difference B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 15 hours B, Q96) A, Q97) A, Q98) C, Q99) A, Q100) C,

Q90) The first man to reach the South Pole on I
December 14, 1911 was Q101) Which one of the following is not associated with
earthquakes?
A) Commander Robert, E. Peary of U.S. B) Roald
Amundsen from Norway C) The Navigator Ferdinand A) Focus B) Epicenter C) Seismograph D) Swells
Magellan D) Sir Francis Drake of England Q102) The tallest trees in the world are found in the
Q91) Which one among the following languages has region:
largest number of speakers in the world?
A) Equatorial region B) Temperate region C) Monsoon
A) Bengali B) French C) Japanese D) Portuguese region D) Mediterranean region
Q92) Where was electricity introduced in India? Q103) Environmental impact assessment is an objective
analysis of the probable changes in:
A) Kolkata B) Darjeeling C) Mumbai D) Chennai
Q93) The great Indian Bustard bird is found in: A) physical characteristics of the environment B)
biophysical characteristics of the environment C) socio-
A) Thar Desert of India B) Coastal regions of India C) economic characteristics of the environment D) all the
Temperate Forests in the Himalaya D) Tarai zones of the above
Himalayan Foot Q104) Bog is a wetland that receives water from:
Q94) Which one of the following is the most
comprehensive source of population data? A) nearby water bodies B) melting C) rain fall only D)
sea only
A) National Family Health Surveys B) National Sample Q105) Which of the following region is in the very high
Surveys C) Census D) Demographic Health Surveys risk zone of earthquakes?
Q95) Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the
following ranges: A) Central Indian Highland B) Coastal region C)
Himalayan region D) Indian desert
A) 1-2 KHz B) 100-500 Hz C) 10-22 KHz D) 13-16 KHz Q106) Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster
Q96) Which one of the following units is used to measure in the year: (JUNE- 009)
intensity of noise?
A) 2005 B) 2004 C) 2006 D) 2007
A) decibel B) Hz C) Phone D) Watts/m^2 Q107) Which of the following sources of data is not
Q97) If the population growth follows a logistic curve, based on primary data collection?
the maximum sustainable yield:
A) Census of India B) National Sample Survey C)
A) is equal to half the carrying capacity. B) is equal to the Statistical Abstracts of India D) National Family Health
carrying capacity. C) depends on growth rates. D) Survey
depends on the initial population. Q108) Which of the following statements is/are correct
Q98) Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent with regard to Vitamin D:
upon: I) Vitamin D is produced in the skin by ultraviolet light.
II) Higher levels of Vitamin D are associated with higher
A) high temperature B) strong wind action C) heavy morbidity.
rainfall D) glaciation III) Body has no mechanism to prevent sunlight from
Q99) Which of the following pairs regarding typical producing too much Vitamin D
composition of hospital wastes is incorrect?
A) I& III only. B) I& II only. C) II& III only. D) I, II &III
A) Plastic—9-12% B) Metals—1-2% C) Ceramic—8- Q109) An increase of 10 ppm in the concentration of CO,
10% D) Biodegradable—35-40% in atmosphere represents approximately an addition of
Q100) Fresh water achieves its greatest density at: carbon of amount:
A) −4◦ C B) 0◦ C C) 4◦ C D) −2.5◦ C A) 1.2 Kilotons B) 2.12 Megatons C) 21.2 Giga tons D)

2120 tons
Answer Key Q110) The capital of Laos is
Q76) B, Q77) C, Q78) C, Q79) B, Q80) B, Q81) C, Q82)
A, Q83) D, Q84) D, Q85) C, Q86) B, Q87) C, Q88) C, A) Vientiane B) Ankara C) Abu Dhabi D) Hanoi
Q89) B, Q90) B, Q91) A, Q92) B, Q93) A, Q94) C, Q95) Q111) Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?

A) Ethopia B) Egypt C) Sudan D) Somalia

A) Mandeb B) Magellan C) Malacca D) Palk Q122) The longest highway in India runs from
Q112) Which of the following is the largest island?
A) Kolkata to Jammu B) Jammu to Kanya Kumari C)
A) Sumatra B) Madagascar C) Honshu D) Cuba Ambala to Nagercoil D) Varanasi to Kanya Kumari
Q113) Which of the following district is on the Q123) Which of the following statements are correct
international border of India about C & Ku Band that are used for satellite
communications transmissions:
A) Gorakhpur B) West Khasi Hills C) Kinnaur D) Kullu I) The frequency of Ku Band is greater than C band.
Q114) Which one of the following is not the vegetation in II) C band performs better under adverse weather
Selva forests? conditions in comparison to Ku band.
III) C band has a higher likelihood of terrestrial
A) Epiphytes B) Xerophytes C) Liana D) Hydrophytes interference in comparison to Ku Band.
Q115) How far the axis of earth is inclined of its orbital
surface? A) I, II &, III B) I& II only C) II &III only D) II & III
only.
A) 23 B) 66 C) 180 D) It is not inclined Q124) Which of the following statements are true
Q116) Recently Chinese scientists have developed regarding Soda Lake:
Carbon Aerogel. Which I) Soda lakes are highly acidic lakes.
of the following is/are correct about it: II) Soda lakes are highly productive ecosystems.
I) It is the second lightest material after Graphite aerogel. III) A critical geological condition for the formation of
II) It has excellent elasticity. Soda Lake is the absence of soluble calcium or
III) t is expected to play an important role in pollution magnesium.
control. IV) Lonar and Sambhar lakes are examples of Soda lakes
IV) t is expected to become ideal material for sound in India.
absorption.
A) I, II& III only B) I& IV only. C) II, III & IV only. D)
A) II, III & IV only. B) II, & IV only. C) I& III only. D) I, III& IV only.
II, III & IV Q125) Which of the following is/are the Industrial uses of
Q117) Lantana – know as Phool Lakhri in local parlance, Hydraulic Fracturing: I)Arousing production from oil and
is a shrub found in abundance in Himachal Pradesh. gas wells.
1. It is a toxic weed and has affected the mountain II) To dispose of waste by injection into deep rock
diversity of the state. formations.
2. Lantana species are widely cultivated for their flowers. III) As a method to measure the stress in the Earth.
3. It is endemic to India.
4. It is considered as potential fire hazard and it is A) I, II & III B) I only. C) I& III only. D) II & III only.
combustible even when green.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct about Answer Key
it? Q101) D, Q102) B, Q103) D, Q104) C, Q105) C, Q106)
B, Q107) C, Q108) B, Q109) B, Q110) A, Q111) D,
A) I, II & IV only. B) II& IV only. C) I& III only. D) I, II, Q112) B, Q113) C, Q114) B, Q115) A, Q116) A, Q117)
III & IV A, Q118) D, Q119) A, Q120) C, Q121) C, Q122) D,
Q118) Which of the following is only star? Q123) A, Q124) C, Q125) A,
A) Moon B) Venus C) Earth D) Sun Q126) The new alluvial deposits found the Gangetic plain
Q119) Israel has common borders with are known as
A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt B) Lebanon, Syria, A) Bhabar B) Bhangar C) Khadar D) Terai
Turkey and Jordan C) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt Q127) Which water body separates Australia from New
D) Turkey, , Syria, Iraq and Yemen Zealand?
Q120) Which one of the following is the longest glacier
of India? A) Cook Straits B) Tasman Sea C) Munro Sound D)
Great Barrier Reef
A) Pindari B) Gangotri C) Siachen D) Zemu Q128) Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India
Q121) Nubian desert is in is situated on:

A) Palni Hills B) Annamalai Mountain C) Nilgiri A) Earth B) Jupiter C) Mars D) Venus

Mountain D) Cardamom Hills Q138) Which of the following is the highest waterfall in
Q129) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct the world?
answer using the codes given below:
A) Angel B) Riin C) Hungela D) Quecanag
A) A − (iv), B − (iii), C − (ii), D − (i) B) A − (iii), B − (iv), Q139) What is the harm from the depletion of Earth’s
C − (ii), D − (i) C) A − (i), B − (iii), C − (iv), D − (ii) D) A ozone layer
− (iv), B − (ii), C − (iii), D − (i)
Q130) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A) The average temperature of earth’s surface will
answer using the codes given below: increase gradually B) The oxygen content of the
atmosphere will decrease C) Increased amount of Ultra
A) A − (ii), B − (i), C − (iv), D − (iii) B) A − (iii), B − (iv), violet radiation will reach earth’s surface D) Sea levels
C − (ii), D − (i) C) A − (i), B − (iii), C − (iv), D − (ii) D) A will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt
− (iv), B − (ii), C − (iii), D − (i) Q140) Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the
Q131) The smallest continent of the world is following pair of gases
A) Europe B) Antarctica C) South America D) Australia A) Methane and ozone B) Oxygen and nitrous oxide C)
Q132) The earthquake waves which have transverse methane and Sulfur dioxide D) Carbon dioxide and Sulfur
movements are known as dioxide
Q141) Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a
A) Primary waves B) Secondary waves C) Surface waves measure of organic material present in water. BOD value
D) None of the above less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be
Q133) Plasma arc technology is used for the disposal of .

waste, which of the
following statements is/are correct with regard to this A) rich in dissolved oxygen B) poor in dissolved
technology: oxygen.
I) It can be used for the disposal of hazardous and C) highly polluted D) not suitable for aquatic life.
radioactive waste. Q142) Environmental impact assessment is an objective
II) Oxides of Sulfur and Nitrogen are the polluting gases analysis of the probable changes in:
produced
in this process. A) physical characteristics of the environment B)
III) This technology has not been tried anywhere in India.
biophysical characteristics of the environment C) socio-
economic characteristics of the environment D) all the
A) I& II B) I& II only. C) I& III only. D) III only.
above
Q134) What do you understand by the term ‘Dark Q143) Who among the following can be asked to make a
Fermentation’ statement in India Parliament?
A) It is a method to reduce CO2 in the atmosphere. B) It A) Any MLA B) Chief of Army Staff C) Solicitor
is a method to produce Hydrogen as fuel from General of India D) Mayor of Delhi
wastewater. C) It is a method to dispose nuclear wastes. Q144) Water is always involved with landslides. This is
D) It is a method to produce methane from organic waste.
because it:
Q135) Which region of India receives rainfall due to
western disturbance I winter? A) reduces the shear strength of rocks B) increases the
weight of the overburden C) enhances chemical
A) Western region B) Central region C) Eastern region D) weathering D) is a universal solvent
North-Western region Q145) Which of the following is a prime health risks
Q136) What is the correct sequence of the rivers associated with greater UV radiation through the
Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
descending order of their lengths?
A) Damage to digestive system B) Increased liver cancer
A) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi B) Godavari-
C) Neurological disorder D) Increased skin cancer
Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi C) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi- Q146) The most serious environmental effect posed by
Mahanadi D) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
hazardous wastes is
Q137) Among the following which planet takes
maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?

A) air pollution. B) contamination of groundwater. C)

increased use of land for landfills. . D) none of the above.

Q147) Which of the following can generate Tsunami? A) Thar Desert of India B) Coastal regions of India C)
Temperate Forests in the Himalaya D) Tarai zones of the
A) Earthquake B) Nuclear bomb testing C) Meteorite Himalaya Foot
impact D) All of these Q157) What is bio chore?
Q148) In the study of man environment interaction, the
statement of Miss Semple that “the humans are solely the A) A unit of vegetation having uniformity of life form B)
product of their environment” is: A unit of vegetation having same type of climate C) A
unit of vegetation having large tree D) A unit of
A) An opinion B) A prejudice C) A fact D) A widely vegetation having grass land
accepted phenomenon Q158) Pitchblende is the ore of
Q149) If the population growth follows a logistic curve
the maximum sustainable yield: A) rubidium B) francium C) radium D) uranium
Q159) Who developed the first paper for the human
A) is equal to half the carrying capacity B) is equal to the beings?
carrying capacity C) depends on growth rates. D) depends
on the initial population A) The Babylonians B) The Chinese C) The Sumerians
Q150) What is true about Lonar Lake? D) The Aryans
Q160) Kavaratti is the capital city of
A) It is a Salt Lake B) It is a Crater Lake C) It is a Lagoon
Lake D) It is situated in Rift Valley A) Pondicherry B) Andaman-Nicobar Islands C)
Lakshadweep D) None of these
Answer Key Q161) Atmosphere exists because of
Q126) C, Q127) B, Q128) A, Q129) A, Q130) A, Q131)
D, Q132) B, Q133) C, Q134) B, Q135) D, Q136) B, A) gravitational force of earth B) revolution of earth C)
Q137) B, Q138) A, Q139) C, Q140) B, Q141) A, Q142) Rotation of earth D) None of these
D, Q143) C, Q144) B, Q145) D, Q146) B, Q147) D, Q162) Sea level rise results primarily due to:
Q148) A, Q149) A, Q150) B,
A) Heavy rainfall B) Melting of glaciers C) Submarine
Q151) Winter rains in north -west India are generally volcanism D) Seafloor spreading
associated with the phenomenon of Q163) Tsunami occurs due to:
A) retreating monsoon B) temperate cyclones C) local A) Mild earthquakes and land-slides in the oceans B)
thunderstorms D) shift in Jet stream movement Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the oceans C)
Q152) The colour of yellow sea is such on a account of Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the mountains D)
Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the deserts
A) industrial pollution B) peculiar types of phytoplankton Q164) Which of the following is not cy-clone prone area
growing there. C) loess brought by Hwang-ho river. D) in India?
high sulphur content in the bottom rocks
Q153) Sharavati Hydro-electric Project is located in A) Orissa B) Gujarat C) Andhra Pradesh D)
Assam(Asom)
A) Odisha B) Tamil Naidu C) Andhra Pradesh D) Q165) The most significant impact of volcanic eruption
Karnataka has been felt in the form of:
Q154) What is the full form of IUCN?
A) change in weather B) sinking of islands C) loss of
A) Indian Universal Centre of Nature B) International vegetation D) extinction of animals
Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources Q166) The coldest place on the earth among the
C) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature D) following is
Interaction Union for Consumption of Natural Resources
Q155) Which one of the following is appropriate for A) Halifax B) Chicago C) Siachin D) Verkhoyansk
natural hazard mitigation? Q168) Sericulture is:
A) International AID B) Timely Warning System C) A) science of the various kinds of serum B) artificial
Rehabilitation D) Community Participation rearing of fish C) art of silkworm breeding D) study of
Q156) The great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) bird various cultures of a community
is found in Q169) Which of the following dams is not on Narmada

river?
A) Arctic deserts B) Tundra C) alpine meadows D)
A) Indira-Sagar Project B) Maheshwar Hydel Power Antarctica
Project C) Jobat Project D) Koyna Power Project Q180) Laterite soil develops as a result of:
Q170) Photosphere is described as the:
A) deposits of alluvial B) deposition of loess C) leaching
A) Lower layer of atmosphere B) Visible surface of the D) continued vegetation cover
sun from which radiation emanates C) Wavelength of Q181) Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of
solar spectrum D) None of the above the Indus?
Q171) Location of sugar industry in India is shifting from
north to south because of: A) Sutlej B) Jhelum C) Bhagirathi D) Chenab
Q182) Tides in the oceans are caused by:
A) cheap labour B) expanding regional market C) cheap
and abundant supply of power D) high yield and high A) Gravitational pull of the moon on the earth's surface
sugar content in sugarcane including sea water B) Gravitational pull of the sun on the
Q172) Among the following cities, which one is nearest earth's surface only and not on the sea water C)
to the Tropic of Cancer? Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun on the earth's
surface including the sea water D) None of these
A) Delhi B) Kolkata C) Jodhpur D) Nagpur Q183) Which of the following statements is not true
Q173) India's Oil bearing areas are mostly associated with about the availability of water on the earth, the crisis for
the: which is going to increase in the years to come?
A) Plutonic rocks B) Volcanic rocks C) Sedimentary A) About 97.5 per cent of the total volume of water
rocks D) Metamorphic rocks available on the earth is salty B) 80 per cent of the water
Q174) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly available to us for use comes in bursts as monsoons C)
matched? About 2.5 per cent of the total water available on the earth
is polluted water and cannot be used for human activities
A) Kota —Chambal B) Bhubaneswar --Mahanadi C) D) Possibility is that some big glaciers will melt in the
Jabalpur — Narmada D) Surat ---Tapti coming ten-fifteen years and sea level will rise by 3-4
Q175) Nagarjuna agar Project is situated on the river: meters all over the earth
Q184) Different seasons are formed because
A) Tungabhadra B) Cauvery C) Krishna D) Godavari
A) Sun is moving around the earth B) of revolution of the
Answer Key earth around the Sun on its orbit C) of rotation of the earth
Q151) A, Q152) C, Q153) D, Q154) B, Q155) B, Q156) around its axis D) because earth is tilted when it revolves
A, Q157) A, Q158) D, Q159) B, Q160) C, Q161) A, around sun.
Q162) B, Q163) B, Q164) B, Q165) A, Q166) D, Q168) Q185) Consider the following statements:
C, Q169) D, Q170) B, Q171) D, Q172) B, Q173) C, 1. Ozone is found mostly in the Stratosphere.
Q174) B, Q175) C, 2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the surface of the
earth.
Q176) Through which States does Cauvery River flow? 3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the earth.
A) Gujarat, M.P. Tamil Nadu B) Karnataka, Kerala, Which of the above statements are correct?
Tamil Nadu C) Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh D)
M.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 2 and 3 D) 1 and 4
Q177) The world is divided into: Q186) The natural vegetation of Savana consists of:
A) 12 time zones B) 20 time zones C) 24 time zones D) 36 A) Tall grass B) Scrub jungle C) Short grass D) Trees
time zones Q187) The much discussed Tehri Dam Project is located
Q178) Atmosphere exists because: in which of the following states?
A) The Gravitational force of the Earth B) Revolution of A) Madhya Pradesh B) Rajasthan C) Haryana D)
the Earth C) Rotation of the Earth D) Weight of the gases Uttaranchal
of atmosphere Q188) What is major source harmful radiation in the
Q179) The zone of excessively dry climate with very cold house?
temperature throughout the year correspond to:

A) Tube light B) Oven C) Color TV D) Heater Q176) B, Q177) C, Q178) A, Q179) A, Q180) C, Q181)
Q189) The biggest reserves of thorium are in: C, Q182) C, Q183) D, Q184) D, Q185) A, Q186) A,
Q187) D, Q188) A, Q189) A, Q190) B, Q191) B, Q192)
A) India B) China C) The Soviet Union D) U.S.A C, Q193) D, Q194) B, Q195) B, Q196) B, Q197) B,
Q190) The term 'Regur' refers to: Q198) A, Q199) D, Q200) B,
A) Laterite soils B) Black Cotton soils C) Red soils D) Q201) Which of the following soil is very hard to
Deltaic Alluvial soils cultivate?
Q191) Where are most of the earth's active volcanoes
concentrated? A) Alluvial B) Red C) Black D) Sandy
Q202) Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to:
A) Europe B) Pacific Ocean C) Africa D) South America
Q192) The fertility of the soil can be increased by A) rotation of earth B) revolution of earth C) gravitational
growing: pull D) uneven heating of earth
Q203) The southern tip of India is:
A) Cereals B) Fibre Crops C) Legumes D) Root Crops
Q193) The coldest place on the earth is: A) Cape Comorin B) Point Calimere C) Indira Point in
Nicobar Islands D) Kovalam in Trivandrum
A) Halifax B) Chicago C) Siachen D) Verkhoyansk Q204) In determining the Indian climate, major role
(Antarctica) played by Himalayas is/are:
Q194) Which of the following pairs of the river dam
project and the State in which it is located, is not correct? A) The east-west extension of the Great-Himalayas does
not permit the summer monsoon to cross it and thus keeps
A) Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh B) Tungabhadra — its sojourn restricted to India B) The direct the summer
Tamilnadu C) Bhakra Nangal --Punjab D) Hirakud --- monsoon towards the north-west C) During the winter
Orissa they stop the southward penetration of the cold and dry
Q195) When does the moon come between the sun and polar air D) All of the above
the earth? Q205) The rock material carried by a glacier is called
A) Lunar eclipse B) solar eclipse C) side real day D) full A) alluvium B) meanders C) nodules D) moraines
moon day Q206) Krishna Raja Sagar Dam is built across the river:
Q196) Turpentine oil used in medicine' is obtained from:
A) Kaveri B) Tungabhadra C) Krishna D) Godavari
A) Acacia B) Chir pin C) Myrobalans D) Kusum Q207) The greatest diversity of animal and plants species
Q197) Which of the following is cold stream? occurs in:
A) Curasia B) Labrador C) Gulf of stream D) Hakuna A) temperate deciduous forests B) tropical moist forests
Matata C) heavily polluted rivers D) desert lands
Q198) Solar eclipse takes place when: Q208) What is meant by the term "cirrus"?
A) The moon comes between the sun and the earth B) The A) A low cloud B) A rain-bearing cloud C) A high-cloud
earth comes between the sun and the moon C) The sun D) A hail-bearing cloud
comes between the moon and the earth D) None of the Q209) The latitude of a place is expressed by its angular
above distance in relation to:
Q199) Which of the following is the smallest ocean of the
world? A) Equator B) South Pole C) Axis of the Earth D) North
Pole
A) Pacific B) Indian C) Atlantic D) Arctic Q210) Which country is known for the most frequent
Q200) The planets are kept is motion in their respective earthquakes?
orbits by the:
A) Italy B) Japan C) China D) Iran
A) Rotation of the sun on its axis B) Gravitation and Q211) High velds are the temperate grasslands of:
centrifugal forces C) Great size and spherical shape D)
Rotation and the density of the planets A) Africa B) South Australia C) Europe and Asia D)
South America
Answer Key Q212) For which of the following reasons, clouds do not

rain in desert? A) prevailing wind B) jet stream C) katabatic wind D)

geostrophic wind
A) Maximum air velocity B) Minimum temperature C) Q225) The 23South latitude is known as
Minimum air velocity D) Minimum humidity
Q213) Light Year is a unit of A) The Tropic of Cancer B) The Tropic of Capricorn C)
The Equator D) The Prime Meridian
A) Intensity of light B) Distance C) Time D) Planetary
motion Answer Key
Q214) All vital atmospheric processes leading to various Q201) B, Q202) C, Q203) C, Q204) D, Q205) D, Q206)
climatic and weather conditions take place in the: A, Q207) B, Q208) C, Q209) A, Q210) B, Q211) A,
Q212) A, Q213) B, Q214) A, Q215) B, Q216) C, Q217)
A) Troposphere B) Ionosphere C) Exosphere D) C, Q218) C, Q219) B, Q220) C, Q221) C, Q222) B,
Stratosphere Q223) B, Q224) D, Q225) B,
Q215) The Hirakud Project is on which of the following
rivers? Q226) The sky appears blue because
A) Godavari B) Mahanadi C) Damodar D) Kosi A) It is actually blue B) The atmosphere scatters blue
Q216) The circulation of ocean water occurs light more than the others C) All colours interfere to
produce blue D) In white light, blue colour dominates
A) only laterally B) only vertically C) both laterally and Q227) It represent the permanent loss of hearing and no
vertically D) neither laterally nor vertically recovery?
Q217) During winter, the northern half of India is warmer
than areas of similar latitudinal location by 3° to 8° A) NISTS B) NIPTS C) NICCS D) NIDTS
because: Q228) Siachen is
A) India is essentially a tropical country. B) The surface A) Limiting glacier zone between India and Pakistan B)
wind blows in a particular direction in one season C) The Limiting desert zone between India and Pakistan C)
Great Himalayas check the penetration of cold polar air Limiting zone between China and Pakistan D) Limiting
into India effectively. D) Of winter rains zone between India and Myanmar
Q218) Which river is flowing near Ayodhya? Q229) The smallest Continent is
A) Ganga B) Yamuna C) Saryu D) Krishna A) Europe B) Australia C) Antarctica D) South America

Q219) Which of the following States has rich forests of Q230) Where is the Siachin Glacier situated in India?
sandalwood?
A) Uttar Pradesh B) Himachal Pradesh C) Jammu &
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Karnataka C) Kerala D) Madhya Kashmir D) Sikkim
Pradesh Q231) At the Equator, the duration of a day is
Q220) The Nagarjunsagar project is on the river:
A) 10 hrs B) 12 hrs C) 14 hrs D) 16 hrs
A) Sutlej B) Narmada C) Krishna D) Kaveri Q232) Savanna grasslands are found in
Q221) The cold oceanic current passing through the coast
of North America is known as: A) Australia B) Africa C) East Asia D) South America
Q233) Through which of the following countries does the
A) Kuroshio Current B) Gulf Stream C) Labrador Current river Tigris flow?
D) Falkland Current
Q222) Most of the weather phenomena take place in the: A) Egypt B) Iran C) Italy D) Iraq
Q234) Summer solstice occurs on
A) stratosphere B) troposphere C) tropopause D)
ionosphere A) 44256 B) 44287 C) 44317 D) 44348
Q223) Which is called the "Tiger State"? Q235) Port Blair is situated in
A) Rajasthan B) Madhya Pradesh C) Uttar Pradesh D) A) North Andaman B) South Andaman C) Middle
Jammu & Kashmir Andaman D) Little Andaman
Q224) A wind which is not affected by the effect of Q236) Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests
ground friction is called a known as

A) Tropical moist evergreen B) Dry deciduous C)

Tropical moist deciduous D) Dry evergreen A) Kandla B) Cochin C) Madras D) Tuticorin
Q237) In the interior of earth Q249) When the moon is near the horizon, then it appears
bigger because of
A) the temperature falls with increasing depth B) the
pressure falls with increasing depth C) the temperature A) Atmospheric refraction B) Scattering of light C)
rises with increasing depth D) pressure remains constant Diffraction D) Total internal reflection
with varying depth Q250) Tsunamis are huge sea waves caused by:
Q238) Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India, is located in
the state of A) Earthquakes B) Volcanoes C) Winds D) Icebergs
A) Himachal Pradesh B) Rajasthan C) West Bengal D) J Answer Key

&K Q226) B, Q227) B, Q228) A, Q229) B, Q230) C, Q231)
Q239) In which South American country does one find B, Q232) B, Q233) D, Q234) D, Q235) B, Q236) C,
the Atacama desert? Q237) C, Q238) D, Q239) A, Q240) A, Q241) C, Q242)
C, Q243) B, Q244) B, Q245) A, Q246) A, Q247) D,
A) Chile B) Peru C) Brazil D) Columbia Q248) A, Q249) A, Q250) A,
Q240) Winter rains in north and north-west India are
generally associated with the phenomenon of Q251) Equinox' means
A) Retreating monsoon B) Temperate cyclones C) Local A) Days are longer than nights B) Days and nights are
thunderstorms D) Shift in Jet stream movement equal C) Days are shorter than nights D) None of these
Q241) Which one of the following rivers is known as Q252) International Date Line passes through
"Sorrow of Bihar"?
A) 0° Greenwich B) 180° Greenwich C) 900 Greenwich
A) Damodar B) Gandaki C) Kosi D) Sone D) 2700 Greenwich
Q242) Imaginary lines drawn on a global map from pole Q253) Suez navigation canal links up Mediterranean Sea
to pole and from the perpendicular to the equator are with the
called
A) Atlantic Ocean B) Pacific Ocean C) North Sea D) Red
A) Contours B) Isobars C) Meridians D) Steppes Sea
Q243) A lunar eclipse occurs when Q254) Which. of the following people are related to T.E.
Lawrence?
A) Sun, Moon and Earth are not in the same line B) Earth
comes between the Sun and the Moon C) Moon comes A) The people of China B) Inhabitants of Mangole C) The
between the Sun and the Earth D) Sun comes between the people of Afghanistan D) The people of Arab
Earth and the Moon Q255) The longest dam in India is
Q244) Which of the following passes through India?
A) Bhakra Dam B) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam C) Hirakud
A) Tropic of Capricorn B) Tropic of Cancer C) Equator Dam D) Kosi Dam
D) 0° Longitude Q256) The standard time of India is the local time of
Q245) When a ship crosses the International Date Line
from west to East A) 81° East longitude B) 82.5° East longitude C) 84° East
longitude D) 86° East longitude
A) It loses one day B) It gains one day C) It loses half-a- Q257) Match List I (Types of Natural Regions) with List
day D) It gains half-a-day II ( Areas Associated with the Regions) and select the
Q246) It gains half-a-day correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
A) India & Sri Lanka B) North & South Korea C) A) I --5, II --4, III --2, IV --3 B) I --2, III --3, II --1, IV --5
Pakistan & China D) Britain & France C) I --2, II --4, III --1, IV --3 D) I --5, II --3, III --2, IV --4
Q247) Vajrai Waterfall the highest waterfall in India is Q258) Life expectancy is highest in the world in
located in the state of
A) Canada B) Germany C) Japan D) Norway
A) Uttar Pradesh B) West Bengal C) Karnataka D) Q259) Among the following which planet takes
Maharashtra maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
Q248) Which of the following ports has a free trade zone?

A) Earth B) Jupiter C) Mars D) Venus Great Barrier Reef

Q260) Which of the following is the highest waterfall in Q273) Which of the following district is on the
the world? international border of India
A) Angel B) Riin C) Hungela D) Quecanag A) Gorakhpur B) West Khasi Hills C) Kinnaur D) Kullu
Q261) Peso is the currency of Q274) Which one of the following is not the vegetation in
Selva forests?
A) Cuba B) Bermuda C) Grenada D) Jamaica
Q262) Which city was known as the 'Manchester of A) Epiphytes B) Xerophytes C) Liana D) Hydrophytes
India'? Q275) How far the axis of earth is inclined of its orbital
surface?
A) Mumbai B) Surat C) Ahmedabad D) Ludhiana
Q263) Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India A) 23 B) 66 C) 180 D) It is not inclined
is situated on:
Answer Key
A) Palni Hills B) Annamalai Mountain C) Nilgiri Q251) B, Q252) B, Q253) D, Q254) D, Q255) C, Q256)
Mountain D) Cardamom Hills B, Q257) A, Q258) C, Q259) B, Q260) A, Q261) A,
Q264) The smallest continent of the world is Q262) C, Q263) A, Q264) D, Q265) B, Q266) D, Q267)
B, Q268) C, Q269) C, Q270) D, Q271) C, Q272) B,
A) Europe B) Antarctica C) South America D) Australia Q273) C, Q274) B, Q275) A,
Q265) The earthquake waves which have transverse
movements are known as Q276) Which of the following is only star?
A) Primary waves B) Secondary waves C) Surface waves A) Moon B) Venus C) Earth D) Sun
D) None of the above Q277) Israel has common borders with
Q266) Which region of India receives rainfall due to
western disturbance in winter? A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt B) Lebanon, Syria,
Turkey and Jordan C) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
A) Western region B) Central region C) Eastern region D) D) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen
North-Western region Q278) Which one among the following languages has
Q267) What is the correct sequence of the rivers largest number of speakers in the world?
Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the
descending order of their lengths? A) Bengali B) French C) Japanese D) Portuguese
Q279) Where was electricity introduced in India?
A) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi B) Godavari-
Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi C) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi- A) Kolkata B) Darjeeling C) Mumbai D) Chennai
Mahanadi D) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi Q280) The capital of Laos is
Q268) Which one of the following is the longest glacier
of India? A) Vientiane B) Ankara C) Abu Dhabi D) Hanoi
Q281) Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?
A) Pindari B) Gangotri C) Siachen D) Zemu
Q269) Nubian desert is in A) Mandeb B) Magellan C) Malacca D) Palk
Q282) Which of the following is the largest island?
A) Ethiopia B) Egypt C) Sudan D) Somalia
Q270) The longest highway in India runs from A) Sumatra B) Madagascar C) Honshu D) Cuba
Q283) Radcliff Line' is a boundary line between
A) Kolkata to Jammu B) Jammu to Kanya Kumari C)
Ambala to Nagercoil D) Varanasi to Kanya Kumari A) India and Bangladesh B) India and Bhutan C) India
Q271) The new alluvial deposits found the Gangetic plain and China D) India and Pakistan
are known as Q284) Which of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
A) Bhabar B) Bhangar C) Khadar D) Terai
Q272) Which water body separates Australia from New A) Panna: Diamond B) Neyveli: Lignite C) Mysore:
Zealand? Marble D) Sambhar: Salt
Q285) Where does the primitive community. of Bushman
A) Cook Straits B) Tasman Sea C) Mc. munro Sound D) live?

A) Sahara desert B) Thar desert C) Kalahari desert D) A) 0.46 B) 0.33 C) 0.23 D) 0.21
Atacama desert Q299) Ozone layer depletion is mainly due to
Q286) Difference of longitudinal of two places on the
earth is 15°. What will be the difference in its local time? A) CFC B) carbon monoxide C) carbon dioxide D)
methane
A) No difference B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 15 hours Q300) which of the following is long term effect (tertiary
Q287) Among the following cities, which one is nearest effect) of flooding?
to the Tropic of Cancer?
A) Increase in corruption B) Destruction of wild life
A) Delhi B) Kolkata C) Jodhpur D) Nagpur habitat C) Sediment deposition D) All of the above
Q288) In what regions can the sun be seen at midnight?
Answer Key
A) The tropical zone B) Warm temperate regions C) The Q276) D, Q277) A, Q278) D, Q279) B, Q280) A, Q281)
Arctic and Antarctic regions D) Anywhere at the time of D, Q282) B, Q283) D, Q284) C, Q285) C, Q286) B,
lunar eclipse Q287) B, Q288) C, Q289) B, Q290) A, Q291) C, Q292)
Q289) Which among the following planets intersects the C, Q293) B, Q294) B, Q295) B, Q296) B, Q297) B,
orbit of Neptune? Q298) D, Q299) A, Q300) D,
A) Mercury B) Pluto C) Earth D) Uranus Q301) Fire balls are

Q290) Which of the following countries is called the
"Country of white elephants"? A) very bright meteors B) volcanic eruption C) forest fire
D) None of these
A) Thailand B) Kuwait C) South Africa D) India Q302) Nagarjuna Sagar dam is situated on river
Q291) Where is the famous shore temple located?
A) Tungabhadra B) Cauvery C) Krishna D) Godavari
A) Puri B) Visakhapatnam C) Mamallapuram D) Chennai Q303) Who said that members of the same species are not
Q292) The area covered by forest in India is about: alike?
A) 0.46 B) 0.33 C) 0.23 D) 0.19 A) Darwin B) Herber C) Best D) Good

Q293) Jog waterfall, the highest waterfall in India, is Q304) Which of the following can be the effect of
located in meteorite impact?
A) Kerala B) Karnataka C) Maharashtra D) Madhya A) Massive earthquake B) Dust in atmosphere C)

Pradesh Widespread wildfire D) All of these
Q294) The first man to reach the South Pole on I Q305) An atom bomb is based on the principle of
December 14, 1911 was
A) nuclear fusion B) nuclear spallation C) nuclear fission
A) Commander Robert, E. Peary of U.S. B) Roald D) None of these
Amundsen from Norway C) The Navigator Ferdinand Q306) Malaria is caused by
Magellan D) Sir Francis Drake of England
Q295) Freely suspended magnetic needle stands in which A) bacterial infection B) viral infection
direction? C) parasitic infection D) fungal infection
Q307) Which of the following can cause explosive
A) North-West direction B) North-South direction C) volcanic eruption?
North-East direction D) South-West direction
Q296) The biochemical processes taking place in the A) Low viscosity of magma B) High viscosity of magma
body is known as C) High water content in ground D) None of these
Q308) Which of the following is/ are true about shooting
A) Catabolism B) Metabolism C) Anabolism D) None of stars?
above
Q297) World's first man in space was A) Certain objects which appear to fall from sky leaving a
streak of light are called shooting stars. B) they are also
A) Neil Armstrong B) Yuri Gagarin C) Kalpna Chawla called meteors. C) As there stars travels through
D) Edwin Eugene Aldrin atmosphere, these pieces become hot, burn and emit light
Q298) The area covered by forest in India is about thus acquiring brightness. D) All of these

Q309) Which of the following is not a National Park? International Panel on Carbon Consumption C)
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate D) None of these
A) Kanheri B) Gir C) Corbett D) Kaziranga Q323) Complete loss of memory is termed
Q310) Water is always involved with landslides. This is
because it: A) Amnesia B) Coma C) Trauma D) Paranesia
Q324) Which of the following dams is not on Narmada
A) reduces the shear strength of rocks. B) increases the river?
weight of the overburden C) enhances chemical
weathering D) is a universal solvent A) Indira Sagar Project B) Jobat Project C) Maheshwar
Q311) Water for civil supplies are commonly purified by Hydel Power Project D) Koyna Power Project
Q325) Which of the following is a secondary or tertiary
A) Chlorination B) Distillation effect of volcanic eruption?
C) Filtration D) Decantation
Q312) Which of the following is not cyclone prone area A) Hot ash flow (pyro-elastic flow) B) Mudflow (Lahars)
in India? C) Volcanic land slide (debris flow and debris
avalanches) D) Famine and Disease
A) Orissa B) Gujarat C) Andhra Pradesh D)
Assam(Asom) Answer Key
Q313) The most significant impact of volcanic eruption Q301) A, Q302) C, Q303) A, Q304) D, Q305) C, Q306)
has been felt in the form of: C, Q307) B, Q308) D, Q309) A, Q310) B, Q311) A,
Q312) B, Q313) A, Q314) C, Q315) A, Q316) B, Q317)
A) change in weather B) sinking of islands C) loss of D, Q318) A, Q319) A, Q320) B, Q321) C, Q322) C,
vegetation D) extinction of animals Q323) A, Q324) D, Q325) D,
Q314) Which of the following Hydel power projects is
situated in Jammu and Kashmir? Q326) Which of the elements is essential for animals but
not in plants?
A) Lok Tak B) Riwand C) Salal D) Upper Sileru
Q315) Atmosphere exists because of A) Potassium B) Iodine C) Calcium D) Phosphorus
Q327) The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel
A) gravitational force of earth B) revolution of earth C) sources in India is caused by:
rotation of earth D) None of these
Q316) Sea level rise results primarily due to: A) Coal B) Firewood C) Refuse burning D) Vegetable
waste product
A) Heavy rainfall B) Melting of glaciers C) Submarine Q328) Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary?
volcanism D) Seafloor spreading
Q317) Pitchblende is the ore of A) Bharatpur Sanctuary B) Periyar Sanctuary C) Manjira
Sanctuary D) Nelapathu Sanctuary
A) rubidium B) francium C) radium D) uranium Q329) The tallest trees in the world are found in the
Q318) Which one of the following is different from the region.
other three?
A) Equatorial region B) Temperate region C) Monsoon
A) Venus B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Neptune region D) Mediterranean region
Q319) Which tree species is used for making railway Q330) The main constituents of biogas are
sleepers?
A) Methane and Carbon dioxide B) Methane and Nitric
A) Sal B) Teak C) Redwood D) Sardines oxide C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide D)
Q320) What is true about Lonar Lake? Methane and Sulphur dioxide
Q331) Famous Silent valley is situated in:
A) It is a Salt Lake B) It is a Crater Lake C) It is a Lagoon
Lake D) It is situated in Rift Valley A) Kerala B) Sikkim C) Himachal Pradesh D) None of
Q321) The largest continent in the world is: these
Q332) The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS)
A) North America B) Africa C) Asia D) Europe in drinking water should not exceed
Q322) What is the full form of IPCC?
A) 500 mg/L B) 400 mg/ L C) 300 mg/L D) 200 mg/ L
A) International Panel on Climate Change B) Q333) Which of the following is/are sources of soil

pollution? Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

Q2) Zone of atmosphere near the ground is
A) Mining and Quarrying B) Sewage sludge C)
Demolition and Construction D) All of the above A) Stratosphere B) Mesosphere C) Troposphere D)
Q334) Chipko movement' was first started by: Hemisphere
Q3) Approximately how many people are alive today?
A) Arundhati Roy B) Medha Patkar C) Ila Bhatt D)
Sunderlal Bahuguna A) 1 billion B) 2 billion C) 4 billion D) More than 7
Q335) Which State is regarded as the land of five-rivers? billion
Q4) Which of the following is the transition layer
A) Uttar Pradesh B) Punjab C) Chhattisgarh D) Assam between stratosphere and the mesosphere?
(Asom)
Q336) Liquid Petroleum Gas contains mainly A) Stratopause B) Tropopause C) Mesopause D)
Thermopause
A) methane B) butane C) ethane D) hydrogen Q5) Emphysema disease is caused by
Q337) The mangrove vegetation in India is found in:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulphur dioxide C) Mercury D)
A) Gangetic delta region B) East Himalayn states C) Photochemical smog
Western ghat region D) Eastern ghat region Q6) Submerged hydrophytes have commonly dissected
Q338) Which one of the following is an antidote for lead leaves for
poisoning?
A) Increasing number of stomata B) Decreasing surface
A) Nickel B) Cis-platina C) White of egg D) EDTA area C) Reducing effect of water currents D) Increasing
Q339) The largest continent in the world is: surface area
Q7) Ozone layer depletion or hole in ozone layer is being
A) North America B) Africa C) Asia D) Europe chiefly found in
Q340) Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the
following states? A) Russia B) South pole C) North pole D) None of these
Q8) Biosphere Reserves are also notified as
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Rajasthan C) Haryana D)
Uttarakhand A) Ecosystems B) Woodlands C) National Parks D)
Q341) The disease caused by swelling of the membrane Conservation
over spinal cord and brain is Q9) Who developed the 'hot spots concept' in 1988?
A) Paralysis B) Meningitis C) Sclerosis D) Leukaemia A) M.S.Swaminathan B) P.K.Iyengar C) Norman Myers

Q342) Who said that members of the same species are not D) George Bush
alike? Q10) On the basis of the type of environment being
polluted, we may recognize
A) Darwin B) Herber C) Best D) Good
Q343) Which of the following is not a geological hazard? A) Air pollution B) Soil pollution C) Water pollution D)
All of these
A) Earthquake B) Avalanche C) Landslide D) Drought Q11) Biodiversity is an areviation of
Answer Key: A) Biological rhythm B) Abiotic factor C) Biotic factor

Q326) C, Q327) C, Q328) B, Q329) B, Q330) A, Q331) D) Biological diversity
A, Q332) A, Q333) D, Q334) D, Q335) B, Q336) B, Q12) An ecological community is an assemblage of
Q337) A, Q338) D, Q339) C, Q340) D, Q341) B, Q342)
A, Q343) D, A) Food webs B) Closely related species C) Family units
D) Interacting populations
Q13) Humans interfere with the natural phosphorus cycle
PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT PART B: by
Q1) IUCN' stands for
A) Causing erosion of land B) Adding phosphate
A) International Unity on Community and Nationality B) fertilizers to agricultural soils C) Dumping sewage into
Inter-state Unity of Culture Nature C) Indian Union rivers and lakes D) All of the above
Congress Nation D) International Union for the Q14) The carrying capacity of a population is determined

by its Q21) B, Q22) B, Q23) C, Q24) C, Q25) D,
A) Birth rate B) Death rate C) Limiting resource D) Q26) Aerosols are particles in air less than
Population growth rate
Q15) Exponential growth occurs when there is A) 1 u B) 6 u C) 100 u D) 150 u
Q27) Agenda-21' is the product of
A) Sexual reproduction only B) No inhibition from
crowding C) Asexual reproduction only D) A fixed A) Evolution B) Earth Summit C) Speciation D) Both B
carrying capacity and C
Q16) Pollutants like PAN and O3 (Photochemical smog) Q28) Biodiversity is of use to modern agriculture as a
cause
A) Source of new biodegradable pesticides B) Source of
A) Irritation of eye B) Irritation nose and eye C) new crops C) Source of material for breeding improved
Respiratory distress D) All of the above varieties D) All of the above are correct
Q17) Greenpeace is Q29) The Earth Summit of 1992 at Rio de Janiero
resulted into a Convention on Biodiversity, which came
A) NGO B) An inhibitory process C) Government policy into force on
for speciation D) All of the above
Q18) The wet forests of Amazon basin are known as A) 5 June, 1992 B) 19 December, 1993 C) 29 December,
which one of the following? 1993 D) 1 April, 2000
Q30) The earth planet along with the atmosphere (i.e., air,
A) Pampas B) Selvas C) Campos D) Lianos water and land) that sustains life is called
Q19) Fluorides enter plant leaves through
A) Troposphere B) Biosphere C) Stratosphere D)
A) Leaf base B) Root C) Stomata D) Stem Ecosystem
Q20) The geographic limits within which a population Q31) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
exists is its
A) Black cotton soil-Rich in calcium B) Laterite-Contains
A) Range B) Habitat C) Niche D) Territory aluminium C) Chernozen-Richest soil D) Terra rosa-Most
Q21) "Ecosystem is the system resulting from the suitable for roses
integration of all the living and non-living factors of the Q32) Which of the following is the most widely used
environment". This state was of form of renewable energy?
A) Haeckel B) Tansley C) Mishra D) Odum A) Coal B) Fossil fuel C) Hydro power D) Wood
Q22) The special characteristics of plants and animals Q33) Population dispersion is the
that enable them to be successful under prevailing set of
environmental conditions are called A) Mixing of two populations B) Spatial distribution of
individuals C) Movement from one fixed point to another
A) Speciation B) Adaptation C) Evolution D) Ecotype and back again D) Movement away from a natal site
Q23) Eutrophication means Q34) Which of the following is the most harmful
pollutant?
A) Nutrient dissipated B) Forest containing acid rain C)
Nutrient enrichment D) None of the above A) CH4 B) NO2 C) CO2 D) SO2
Q24) What percentage of land area of India provides to Q35) Man-engineered ecosystem is
the global diversity?
A) Marine B) Grassland C) Cropland D) Forest
A) 2.4% B) 5% C) 8% D) 19% Q36) The main function of Biosphere Reserves are
Q25) Cultural eutrophication is caused by the addition of
too many A) Conservation B) Scientific research and education C)
Development of ecological aspects D) All of the above
A) Ammonium B) Nitrate C) Phosphate D) All of these Q37) The habitat of a population is the
Answer Key A) Geographic area it covers B) Set of conditions and

Q1) D, Q2) C, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) D, Q6) C, Q7) B, Q8) resources it uses C) Set of interactions it has with other
C, Q9) C, Q10) D, Q11) D, Q12) D, Q13) D, Q14) C, populations D) Places where it lives
Q15) B, Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) B, Q19) C, Q20) D, Q38) The population growth rate 'r' is inversely related to

Q26) A, Q27) B, Q28) D, Q29) C, Q30) B, Q31) D,

A) Generation time B) Age structure C) Clutch size D) Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) D, Q35) C, Q36) D, Q37) D,
Number of clutches per life time Q38) A, Q39) A, Q40) A, Q41) A, Q42) C, Q43) B,
Q39) Noise pollution is created if noise is in excess to Q44) D, Q45) C, Q46) D, Q47) A, Q48) D, Q49) D,
Q50) D,
A) 80-100 Db B) 70-75 db C) 50-60 db D) 40-65 db
Q40) The example of endothermic animal is Q51) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) Man B) Frogs C) Snakes D) Both B and C A) Since gases not derived from fossil fuel combustion
Q41) The 'IUCN' Red List System' was initiated in the are involved, reduction in fossil fuel burning will not help
year the greenhouse effect B) Global warming is so imminent
that nothing can be done C) Global warming is of no
A) 1963 B) 1969 C) 1992 D) 2000 immediate concern D) Reduction in fossil fuel burning
Q42) Population size may decrease as a result of will lessen the greenhouse effect
Q52) Who first of all coined the term ‘ecology'?
A) Emigration B) Mortality C) Both A and B D) Zonation
Q43) On the 2000 Red List how many species are listed A) Reiter B) Haeckel C) Odum D) Clement
as threatened? Q53) Loss of minerals on the hills is due to
A) 5484 B) 11046 C) 1939 D) 143 A) Strip mining B) Terracing C) Soil erosion by water D)
Q44) Which of the following is the basic unit of study in Contour-strip cropping
ecology? Q54) The basic strategies of biodiversity conservation
is/are
A) Population B) Environment C) Biosphere D)
Organisms A) In situ (on site) B) Ex situ (off site) C) Both A and B
Q45) Minamata' disease in Japan was chiefly due to D) None of these
Q55) Most interacting populations are
A) Lead pollution B) Fluoride pollution C) Mercury
pollution D) Radioactive pollution A) Coevolved B) Mutualistic C) Parasitic D) Symbiotic
Q46) A Biosphere Reserve consists of Q56) "The unwanted sound dumped into the atmosphere
leading to health hazards" is meant for
A) Core zone B) Buffer zone C) Transition zone D) All of
these A) Noise pollution B) Water pollution C) Air pollution D)
Q47) Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight cause the Radioactive pollution
reaction that produces Q57) The stratospheric ozone depletion leads to
A) Fluorides B) SO2 C) Ozone D) CO A) Forest fires B) Global warming C) Increase in the

Q48) Who among the following is known as "father of incidence of skin cancer D) All of the above
ecology in India"? Q58) To achieve conservation of biological diversity it is
usually necessary to
A) P.Maheshwari B) S.K.Kashyap C) B.P. pal D)
Ramdeo Mishra A) Introduce certain species B) Establish protected areas
Q49) Consider the components of a food chain: C) Restore ecosystems D) All of the above
Producers->herbivores- >carnivores->top carnivores. Q59) Extinction of species includes
Which level contains the most energy?
A) Natural extinction B) Mass extinction C)
A) Herbivores B) Carnivores C) Top carnivores D) Anthropogenic extinction D) All of the above
Producers Q60) Which of the following atoms typically cycles
Q50) Wetland conservation programmes are generally within the most localized area?
based on
A) Sulphur B) Phosphorus C) Carbon D) Nitrogen
A) Checking waste disposal in wetlands B) Preparation of Q61) Most agriculture makes use of plants from
wetland enveloping C) Reduction of excessive inflow of
nutrients D) All of the above A) Early secondary succession B) Late secondary
succession C) Early primary succession D) Late primary
Answer Key succession

Q62) Salinity of the soil is often caused due to Q75) The country which hosted the first world Earth
Summit on conservation of environment is
A) Excessive addition of rainwater B) Excessive leaching
C) Rapid evaporation of surface water D) Accumulation A) USA B) Brazil C) India D) UK
of soluble minerals near or in the surface in arid region
Q63) B.O.D. test is made for measuring Answer Key
Q51) D, Q52) A, Q53) A, Q54) C, Q55) A, Q56) A,
A) Noise pollution B) Soil pollution C) Water pollution Q57) D, Q58) D, Q59) D, Q60) B, Q61) A, Q62) D,
D) Air pollution Q63) C, Q64) C, Q65) D, Q66) C, Q67) D, Q68) D,
Q64) Cyanosis is caused by Q69) A, Q70) D, Q71) D, Q72) C, Q73) B, Q74) B,
Q75) B,
A) Copper B) Chromium C) Nitrate concentration D)
Carbon dioxide Q76) Tropical rain forest destruction is extremely serious
Q65) Which of the following is/are the chief source(s) of because
soil and water pollution?
A) Large tracts of forest absorb CO2, reducing the
A) Thermal power station's waste product B) Agro- treatment of global warming B) It will lead to a server
industry C) Mining D) All of the above reduction in biological diversity C) Tropical soils cannot
Q66) Which of the following organisms is iteroparous? support agriculture for long D) All of the above are
correct
A) Bacterium B) Pacific salmon C) Human D) Annual Q77) The dominant species in mangrove forests is/are
plant
Q67) Smog is a common pollutant in places having A) Rhizophora B) Avicennia C) Both A and B D) None
of these
A) Excessive ammonium in the air B) High temperature Q78) The human population first began to grow
C) Excessive SO2 in the air D) Low temperature exponentially at the time of the
Q68) The study of interrelations between organisms and
their environment is known as A) Agricultural revolution B) First World War C) Tool-
using revolution D) Industrial revolution
A) Biosphere B) Autecology C) Synecology D) Ecology Q79) Lead (Pb) causes
Q69) Soil conservation can be best achieved by
A) Radioactive pollution B) Soil and water pollution C)
A) Good plant covers B) Wind Screens C) Low rainfall Air pollution D) All of the above
D) Restricted human activity Q80) Cryopreservation involves storage of cells from
Q70) Which of the following is/are abiotic factor(s)? embryos and shoot tips in liquid nitrogen at
A) Light B) Temperature C) Moisture D) All of these A) 0^0C B) 5^0c C) -196^0 C D) 100^0C

Q71) A population is a group of Q81) Acid deposition causes
A) Communities in an ecosystem B) Individual in a A) The greenhouse effect to lessen B) Lakes and forests
family C) Species in a community D) Individuals in a to die C) Acid indigestion in humans D) All of the above
species are correct
Q72) About how much of the solar energy that falls on Q82) Peak concentration of ozone occurs in the
the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical energy by atmosphere above a height of
photosynthesis?
A) 25 km B) 100 km C) 10 km D) 150 km
A) 30% B) 90% C) 1% D) 75% Q83) In India, sacred forests are located in
Q73) An ecological pyramid of energy flow is often an
inverted pyramid in which of the following ecosystems? A) Karnataka B) Kerala and Meghalaya C) Maharashtra
D) All of the above
A) Tundra B) Ocean C) Desert D) Rain forest Q84) Water pollution can be stopped best by
Q74) A dental disease characterized by mottling of teeth is
due to the presence of certain chemical element in drinking A) Spraying DDT B) Treating effluents to remove
water. The element responsible for this is injurious chemicals C) Cultivating useful water plants D)
Rearing more fishes
A) Mercury B) Fluorine C) Molybdenum D) Lead Q85) The growth of human population is most rapid in

the Q98) Cryopreservation is the storage of material at ultra-

low temperature
A) Temperate regions B) Asia C) North America D)
Tropical and subtropical regions A) By very rapid cooling B) By gradual cooling C) By
Q86) Which of the following is the most stable gradual cooling and simultaneous dehydration at low
ecosystem? temperature D) By all of the above
Q99) Water is a renewable resource, and
A) Ocean B) Desert C) Forest D) Mountain
Q87) Benzene is A) It is still subject to pollution B) There will always be a
plentiful supply C) Primary sewage treatment plants
A) Gaseous pollutant B) Liquid pollutant C) Solid assure clean drinking water D) The oceans can never
pollutant D) All of the above become polluted
Q88) Grazing is an example is Q100) What percent of ultraviolet radiation increase with
subsequent reduction of 1% ozone?
A) Positive pollution B) Negative pollution C) Gully
erosion D) Sheet erosion A) 2% B) 8% C) 18% D) 28%
Q89) Which of the following is mismatched? Q101) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(i) The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
A) Biomass burning-CO2 given off B) Fossil fuel 1975 (ii) The Motor Vehicle Act came into force from 1st
burning-CO2 given off C) Solar energy-greenhouse effect July, 1989 (iii) The Air (Prevention and Control)
D) Nuclear power-radioactive wastes Pollution Act, 1981 (iv) The Environment Protection Act,
Q90) In which of the following plants are Rhizobium 1983
bacteria involved in fixing atmospheric nitrogen?
A) I and IV B) Only III C) Only II D) All of the above are
A) Tomato B) Rice C) Bean D) Potato incorrectly matched
Q91) PAN' stands for
Q102) Which of the following is/are the source(s) of air
A) Principle of Advanced Nations B) Presume Additional pollution?
Noise C) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate D) Prime Added Nature
Q92) The burning of fossil fuels includes A) Thermal power stations B) Industrial chimney wastes
C) Automobiles D) All of the above
A) Coal B) Oil C) Gas D) All of these Q103) Continuous sewage flow into a stream would lead
Q93) Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of to
A) Hydrogen B) Chlorine C) Sulphur dioxide D) Oxygen A) Algal bloom B) Eutrophication C) Increase in

Q94) The process of laterization results into temperature D) Depletion of O2
Q104) About how much of the chemical energy within
A) Mineralization of humus B) Degradation of soil C) producer tissues becomes chemical energy within
Formation of soil D) Formation of humus herbivore tissues?
Q95) Water pollution is caused by
A) 10% B) 1% C) 30% D) 50%
A) Hydrocarbon gases and growth of phytoplanktons B) Q105) When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a
Industrial effluents C) Rain D) Decay of aquatic animals river, the biological oxygen demand will
bodies
Q96) Thermal pollution of water body is due to A) Decrease B) Increase C) Remain unchanged D)
Slightly decrease
A) Discharge of agricultural runoff B) Discharge of
chemical from industries C) Discharge of chemicals from Answer Key:
mining D) Discharge of heat(hot water) from power Q76) D, Q77) C, Q78) A, Q79) C, Q80) C, Q81) B, Q82)
plants A, Q83) D, Q84) B, Q85) D, Q86) A, Q87) B, Q88) B,
Q97) Any substance which causes pollution is called Q89) C, Q90) C, Q91) C, Q92) D, Q93) C, Q94) B, Q95)
B, Q96) D, Q97) B, Q98) D, Q99) A, Q100) A, Q101) A,
A) Infection B) Pollutant C) Co-factor D) Inhibitor Q102) D, Q103) D, Q104) C, Q105) B


Unit - 9 People, Development & Environment

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Unit - 9 People, Development & Environment

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PDF Notes Academy People, Development & Environment

As Per Updated Syllabus

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Net & CSIR

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Human and Environment

The environment has two components

(i) Physical or abiotic (non-living) components and

The environment consists of four segments, such as:

(i) Biosphere (ii) Atmosphere (iii) Hydrosphere, and (iv) Lithosphere

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The environment can be summarised collectively as:

Call/Whatsapp PDF Notes Academy Page 3

Human and Environmental Interaction

Anthropogenic activities and their impact on environment

Anthropogenic Activities (Human Activities)

The anthropogenic activities are the followings:

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Impact of Anthropogenic Activities on Environment

Cutting down of forests may lead to the following:

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Global Warming (Greenhouse Effect)

Causes of Global Warming

Greenhouse Gases: Their sources and Causes

Gas Sources and Causes

Carbon dioxide (CO2) Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation

Chlorofluorocarbons(CFCs) Refrigeration, solvents, insulation foams, aero

Call/Whatsapp PDF Notes Academy Page 6

Methane (CH4) Growing paddy, excreta of cattle and other livestock,

Effects of global warming

Depletion of Ozone Layer

The ozone hole: depletion of the ozone layer

Depletion of ozone layer may lead to the following hazards:

Important Ozone Depleting Chemicals and their uses

Call/Whatsapp PDF Notes Academy Page 7

Name of the compound Used in

Sources of Acid Rain

Effects of Acid Rain

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Depletion of Fossil Fuels

The reserves of fossil fuels are limited.

Fossil Fuel Consumption

Call/Whatsapp PDF Notes Academy Page 9

The main characteristics of climate change are:

• increases in average global temperature (global warming);

Aspects of Climate Change and perceived implications

Call/Whatsapp PDF Notes Academy Page 11

Natural and Energy Resources

Types of Natural Resources

The natural resources can be classified in the following ways:

Call/Whatsapp PDF Notes Academy Page 12

available for our use.

Types of Energy Sources

There are two main categories of energy sources:

Call/Whatsapp PDF Notes Academy Page 13

Types of Energy Sources

Conventional Energy Non-Conventional Energy

Conventional Sources of Energy

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Non-Conventional Sources of Energy