Telangana MHSRB Nursing Officer (Staff Nurse) Practice

Bits - English
Q1. Which of the following blood components is responsible for transporting oxygen?

(a) Red blood cells

(b) White blood cells

(c) Platelets

(d) Plasma

Ans: (a)

Sol: Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain hemoglobin, a protein that binds oxygen, allowing
the transport of oxygen from the lungs to tissues throughout the body.

Q2. The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in:

(a) Digestion

(b) Blood clotting

(c) Immunity

(d) Muscle contraction

Ans: (c)

Sol: The lymphatic system helps in the removal of toxins, waste, and other unwanted
materials. It also transports lymph, which contains white blood cells that are vital for immune
response.

Q3. What is the main function of antibodies?

(a) Destroy bacteria directly

(b) Neutralize toxins and pathogens

(c) Produce white blood cells

(d) Help in blood clotting

Ans: (b)
Sol: Antibodies are proteins produced by B cells in response to specific antigens. They help
neutralize toxins, viruses, and bacteria by marking them for destruction.

Q4. Which of the following methods is used for sterilizing medical instruments?

(a) Boiling

(b) Filtration

(c) Autoclaving

(d) Ultraviolet radiation

Ans: (c)

Sol: Autoclaving uses high-pressure steam to sterilize medical instruments, effectively killing
all microorganisms, including spores

Q5. Which part of the mind is associated with reasoning and judgment according to Freud’s
theory?

(a) Id

(b) Ego

(c) Superego

(d) Conscious mind

Ans: (b)

Sol: According to Freud, the ego mediates between the id's primitive desires and the
superego's moral and ethical constraints, allowing for judgment and reasoning.

Q6. What is the term for the ability to perceive and interpret the environment through the
senses?

(a) Intelligence

(b) Learning

(c) Perception

(d) Reasoning

Ans: (c)
Sol: Perception refers to the process by which individuals organize and interpret sensory
input to give meaning to their environment.

Q7. The primary socialization of a child occurs within:

(a) School

(b) Society

(c) Family

(d) Peer group

Ans: (c)

Sol: Family is the first agent of socialization, playing a key role in shaping the values, norms,
and behavior of a child.

Q8. Which of the following is considered a basic need of a patient?

(a) Self-actualization

(b) Safety and security

(c) Recognition

(d) Freedom

Ans: (b)

Sol: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, safety and security are essential for
well-being and are considered a basic need.

Q9. The most important step in infection control is:

(a) Wearing gloves

(b) Hand washing

(c) Using antiseptic solutions

(d) Using masks

Ans: (b)

Sol: Hand washing is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infections and maintain
hygiene.
Q10. Which of the following should be the first action when providing first aid for a burn?

(a) Applying ointment

(b) Covering the area with a cloth

(c) Cooling the burn with water

(d) Removing clothing from the area

Ans: (c)

Sol: Cooling the burn with running water for at least 10 minutes helps reduce tissue damage
and provides relief from pain.

Q11. Which type of bleeding requires the immediate application of direct pressure?

(a) Arterial bleeding

(b) Capillary bleeding

(c) Venous bleeding

(d) Internal bleeding

Ans: (a)

Sol: Arterial bleeding is the most dangerous due to the high pressure and rapid blood loss.
Direct pressure should be applied to control it.

Q12. Which of the following is a primary goal of community health nursing?

(a) Treating acute illnesses

(b) Enhancing individual well-being

(c) Promoting health and preventing disease

(d) Educating about chronic diseases

Ans: (c)

Sol: Community health nursing focuses on health promotion and disease prevention, aiming
to improve the health status of the entire community.

Q13. Which of the following is an environmental factor that contributes to health?

(a) Family support

(b) Clean air and water

(c) Access to education

(d) Social inclusion

Ans: (b)

Sol: Environmental hygiene includes maintaining clean air, water, and sanitation, which are
crucial for preventing diseases and promoting health

Q14. Which of the following is a barrier to effective communication?

(a) Active listening

(b) Clear articulation

(c) Noise and distractions

(d) Empathy

Ans: (c)

Sol: Noise and distractions can interfere with the sender and receiver’s ability to
communicate effectively, leading to misunderstandings.

Q15. In health education, which method is considered most effective for adult learners?

(a) Lectures

(b) Group discussions

(c) Written assignments

(d) Multimedia presentations

Ans: (b)

Sol: Group discussions encourage participation and are effective in helping adult learners
apply and retain health education concepts.

Q16. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

(a) Vitamin B12

(b) Vitamin C

(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin B6

Ans: (c)

Sol: Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin, along with vitamins A, E, and K. These vitamins are
stored in the body's fat tissues and liver.

Q17. Which of the following is NOT a function of carbohydrates in the body?

(a) Providing energy

(b) Aiding in digestion

(c) Acting as a structural component of cells

(d) Helping with fat metabolism

Ans: (c)

Sol: Carbohydrates primarily provide energy, aid digestion, and help in fat metabolism, but
they do not serve as structural components of cells, which is a role of proteins and fats.

Q18. A patient with renal failure is most likely to experience:

(a) Hypertension

(b) Hypoglycemia

(c) Hypercalcemia

(d) Hypokalemia

Ans: (a)

Sol: Renal failure often leads to hypertension due to fluid retention and altered
renin-angiotensin system function. Other complications may include electrolyte imbalances,
but hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, is more common.

Q19. What is the primary concern for a patient undergoing surgery who has a history of
diabetes?

(a) Blood loss

(b) Infection

(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Dehydration

Ans: (b)

Sol: Diabetic patients have an increased risk of infections due to compromised immunity and
poor wound healing, making infection control a primary concern post-surgery.

Q20. Which of the following is the most common form of cancer in women?

(a) Ovarian cancer

(b) Lung cancer

(c) Breast cancer

(d) Colorectal cancer

Ans: (c)

Sol: Breast cancer is the most common form of cancer diagnosed in women worldwide.
Early detection through screening is key for better prognosis.

Q21. Which of the following is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

(a) Decreased heart rate

(b) Increased respiratory rate

(c) Nausea and vomiting

(d) Dilated pupils

Ans: (c)

Sol: Nausea and vomiting are common early signs of increased ICP, often followed by
changes in consciousness, pupil size, and response.

Q22. Which therapy involves focusing on the present rather than exploring the past?

(a) Psychoanalysis

(b) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

(c) Hypnotherapy

(d) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

Ans: (b)
Sol: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) focuses on changing negative patterns of thinking
and behavior by addressing current problems, rather than delving into past experiences like
psychoanalysis.

Q23. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of schizophrenia?

(a) Hallucinations

(b) Delusions

(c) Apathy

(d) Phobias

Ans: (d)

Sol: Phobias are not typical symptoms of schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is characterized by

hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, and apathy.

Q24. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration in an infant?

(a) Crying with tears

(b) Increased urine output

(c) Sunken fontanelle

(d) Flushed skin

Ans: (c)

Sol: A sunken fontanelle is a clear indicator of dehydration in infants, along with reduced
urine output, dry mucous membranes, and lethargy.

Q25. What is the recommended exclusive breastfeeding duration for an infant?

(a) 3 months

(b) 6 months

(c) 9 months

(d) 12 months

Ans: (b)
Sol: The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first
6 months of life, with continued breastfeeding along with complementary foods for up to two
years or beyond.

Q26. Which of the following is a common complication of pregnancy?

(a) Appendicitis

(b) Hypertension

(c) Stroke

(d) Fractures

Ans: (b)

Sol: Hypertension, particularly preeclampsia, is a common complication during pregnancy

that can pose serious risks to both mother and baby.

Q27. Which of the following conditions involves the premature separation of the placenta
from the uterus?

(a) Placenta previa

(b) Abruptio placentae

(c) Ectopic pregnancy

(d) Molar pregnancy

Ans: (b)

Sol: Abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta separates from the uterus prematurely,
which can cause heavy bleeding and threaten both the mother and fetus.

Q28. What is the primary goal of family welfare programs in India?

(a) Reducing malnutrition

(b) Controlling population growth

(c) Providing primary education

(d) Preventing infectious diseases

Ans: (b)
Sol: The primary goal of family welfare programs in India is to control population growth
through education, family planning, and reproductive health services.

Q29. Which of the following is the main focus of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

(a) Immunization of infants

(b) Enhancing health system performance

(c) Providing insurance coverage

(d) Promoting medical research

Ans: (b)

Sol: The National Health Mission (NHM) focuses on improving the health system's
performance, particularly in rural areas, through initiatives such as maternal and child health,
infectious disease control, and strengthening healthcare infrastructure.

Q30. Which of the following is an effective method for teaching psychomotor skills in
nursing?

(a) Lecture method

(b) Role-playing

(c) Demonstration

(d) Case study

Ans: (c)

Sol: Demonstration is the most effective method for teaching psychomotor skills as it allows
students to observe and then practice the skill under supervision.

Q31. Which of the following is NOT part of the teaching-learning process?

(a) Assessment

(b) Planning

(c) Repetition

(d) Evaluation

Ans: (c)
Sol: While repetition can enhance learning, it is not considered a formal step in the
teaching-learning process, which involves assessment, planning, implementation, and
evaluation.

Q32. What is the first step in the research process?

(a) Data collection

(b) Hypothesis formation

(c) Literature review

(d) Identifying the problem

Ans: (d)

Sol: The first step in the research process is identifying the problem or research question
that will guide the entire study.

Professional Trends and Adjustment

Q33. What is the primary function of a professional nursing organization?

(a) To increase the nurse-patient ratio

(b) To enhance the professional development of nurses

(c) To provide financial aid to nurses

(d) To manage hospital equipment

Ans: (b)

Sol: Professional nursing organizations promote the professional development of nurses by

providing education, setting standards, and advocating for the profession.

Q34. Which of the following is the key responsibility of a ward manager?

(a) Administering medications

(b) Coordinating patient care

(c) Preparing surgical instruments

(d) Performing diagnostic tests

Ans: (b)

Sol: A ward manager's primary role is to coordinate patient care, manage staff, and ensure
that the ward operates efficiently and effectively.

Q35. What is the main objective of hospital administration?

(a) Profit generation

(b) Ensuring patient safety and care

(c) Providing research opportunities

(d) Implementing strict discipline

Ans: (b)

Sol: The primary objective of hospital administration is to ensure the safe, efficient, and
effective delivery of patient care and to maintain high standards of healthcare service.

Q36. In a healthcare setting, the management of equipment supplies is the responsibility of:

(a) Patients

(b) Nurses

(c) Ward clerks

(d) Administration

Ans: (b)

Sol: Nurses play a key role in managing equipment and ensuring that medical supplies are
used appropriately, safely, and in a cost-effective manner.

Professional Trends and Adjustment (continued)

Q37. What is the purpose of nursing legislation?

(a) To increase nurses' salaries

(b) To set professional standards and regulate nursing practice

(c) To assign more administrative duties to nurses

(d) To enhance communication within the hospital

Ans: (b)

Sol: Nursing legislation establishes laws and regulations that govern the practice of nursing,
ensuring high standards of care and patient safety.

Q38. Which organization is responsible for accrediting nursing programs in India?

(a) Indian Nursing Council (INC)

(b) World Health Organization (WHO)

(c) National Medical Council (NMC)

(d) National Institute of Health (NIH)

Ans: (a)

Sol: The Indian Nursing Council (INC) is responsible for accrediting nursing programs and
institutions in India, setting educational standards for nursing.

Q39. In research, a hypothesis is best defined as:

(a) A theory

(b) A question being studied

(c) A tentative explanation or prediction

(d) The final result of the study

Ans: (c)

Sol: A hypothesis is a tentative explanation or prediction that can be tested through research
and experimentation to either be accepted or rejected.

Q40. Data collection in nursing research often involves:

(a) Surveys and observations

(b) Only lab tests

(c) Financial records

(d) Case studies and journal articles

Ans: (a)
Sol: In nursing research, data collection frequently involves surveys, interviews, and
observations to gather information on healthcare practices, patient outcomes, and treatment
efficacy.

Q41. Which of the following is the most important factor in preventing waterborne diseases?

(a) Proper handwashing

(b) Waste disposal management

(c) Safe drinking water

(d) Personal hygiene

Ans: (c)

Sol: Safe drinking water is the most crucial factor in preventing waterborne diseases, which
can be spread through contaminated water sources.

Q42. In India, which national health program focuses on maternal and child health?

(a) National AIDS Control Programme

(b) Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)

(c) National Tuberculosis Control Programme

(d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

Ans: (b)

Sol: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a national program that focuses on reducing maternal
and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional deliveries and providing financial support to
mothers.

Q43. What is the first priority in nursing management for a patient experiencing shock?

(a) Administering oxygen

(b) Monitoring fluid intake

(c) Providing emotional support

(d) Assessing respiratory rate

Ans: (a)
Sol: Administering oxygen is the first priority in the management of shock to ensure proper
tissue oxygenation, followed by monitoring fluid balance and other vital signs.

Q44. The electrolyte imbalance most commonly associated with dehydration is:

(a) Hypokalemia

(b) Hypernatremia

(c) Hypocalcemia

(d) Hypermagnesemia

Ans: (b)

Sol: Hypernatremia (high sodium levels) is commonly seen in dehydration, where the body
loses more water than sodium.

Q45. What is the most common treatment for severe depression that is resistant to
medications?

(a) Psychotherapy

(b) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

(c) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

(d) Group therapy

Ans: (c)

Sol: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is often used as a last resort for severe depression
that does not respond to medications or other forms of therapy.

Q46. Which of the following is considered a psychiatric emergency?

(a) Phobia

(b) Depression

(c) Suicidal ideation

(d) Schizophrenia

Ans: (c)

Sol: Suicidal ideation is considered a psychiatric emergency and requires immediate

intervention to prevent harm to the individual.
Q47. Which of the following vaccines is administered to prevent polio in children?

(a) BCG

(b) MMR

(c) OPV

(d) Hepatitis B

Ans: (c)

Sol: The oral polio vaccine (OPV) is administered to children to prevent poliomyelitis, a
disease that can cause paralysis.

Q48. The Apgar score is used to assess:

(a) Growth and development

(b) Nutritional status

(c) Newborn’s health immediately after birth

(d) Congenital disorders

Ans: (c)

Sol: The Apgar score evaluates a newborn’s health immediately after birth, focusing on
heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and skin color.

Q49. What is the main focus of antenatal care?

(a) Monitoring the newborn’s health

(b) Screening for maternal and fetal complications

(c) Providing nutritional counseling for the mother

(d) Assisting in labor

Ans: (b)

Sol: Antenatal care focuses on screening and preventing maternal and fetal complications,
ensuring both the mother's and the baby’s health during pregnancy.

Q50. Which of the following is a key sign of labor?

(a) Hypertension

(b) Bleeding

(c) Rupture of membranes

(d) Headache

Ans: (c)

Sol: Rupture of membranes, commonly referred to as "water breaking," is one of the key
signs of the onset of labor.

Q51. Which mineral is important for maintaining healthy bones and teeth?

(a) Iron

(b) Potassium

(c) Calcium

(d) Zinc

Ans: (c)

Sol: Calcium is essential for the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth,
as well as other body functions such as muscle contraction.

Q52. The primary objective of first aid for fractures is:

(a) Reducing pain

(b) Preventing movement of the injured part

(c) Repositioning the bone

(d) Treating shock

Ans: (b)

Sol: Immobilizing the injured area is the most important first aid measure for fractures to
prevent further damage and reduce the risk of complications.

Q53. Which of the following is a viral infection?

(a) Tuberculosis

(b) Cholera
(c) Influenza

(d) Malaria

Ans: (c)

Sol: Influenza is caused by a virus, while the others are caused by bacteria or parasites.

Q54. Which method is used to monitor a patient’s intake and output of fluids?

(a) Vital signs monitoring

(b) Catheterization

(c) Fluid balance chart

(d) Hematocrit test

Ans: (c)

Sol: A fluid balance chart is used to record and monitor a patient's intake and output of
fluids, ensuring proper hydration and kidney function.

Q55. What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate?

(a) 8-12 breaths per minute

(b) 12-20 breaths per minute

(c) 20-30 breaths per minute

(d) 30-40 breaths per minute

Ans: (b)

Sol: The normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult is between 12 to 20 breaths per minute.

Q56. Which of the following is a common complication after surgery?

(a) Pneumonia

(b) Hypertension

(c) Diabetes

(d) Hyperthyroidism

Ans: (a)
Sol: Pneumonia is a common post-operative complication, especially in patients who have
difficulty coughing or deep breathing after surgery due to pain or immobility.

Q57. What is the purpose of fluid and electrolyte therapy in surgical patients?

(a) To provide pain relief

(b) To maintain fluid balance and prevent dehydration

(c) To boost immune function

(d) To promote wound healing

Ans: (b)

Sol: Fluid and electrolyte therapy is used to maintain fluid balance, prevent dehydration, and
correct any imbalances that may occur due to surgery or illness.

Q58. Which of the following is a sign of anxiety disorder?

(a) Hallucinations

(b) Repetitive handwashing

(c) Euphoria

(d) Aggression

Ans: (b)

Sol: Repetitive handwashing and other compulsive behaviors are common signs of anxiety
disorders, particularly in patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD

Q59. Which therapy focuses on changing negative thought patterns in mental health
patients?

(a) Psychoanalysis

(b) Group therapy

(c) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

(d) Psychodrama

Ans: (c)

Sol: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a form of psychotherapy that focuses on

identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors.
Q60. At what age should a child receive the first dose of the DPT vaccine?

(a) At birth

(b) 6 weeks

(c) 1 year

(d) 3 years

Ans: (b)

Sol: The first dose of the DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus) vaccine is typically given
at 6 weeks of age, followed by additional doses according to the immunization schedule.

Q61. Which of the following is a primary focus of pediatric nursing?

(a) Geriatric care

(b) Pain management

(c) Promoting normal growth and development

(d) Rehabilitative care

Ans: (c)

Sol: Pediatric nursing focuses on promoting and monitoring the normal growth and
development of children, as well as providing care for various childhood illnesses.

Q62. Which of the following is considered a high-risk factor during pregnancy?

(a) Age between 25-30 years

(b) Previous cesarean section

(c) Normal blood pressure

(d) Regular prenatal visits

Ans: (b)

Sol: A previous cesarean section can pose risks for future pregnancies, including uterine
rupture and complications during labor.

Q63. In fetal monitoring, which of the following indicates fetal distress?

(a) Heart rate of 120 bpm

(b) Consistent fetal movements

(c) Late decelerations in heart rate

(d) Active labor

Ans: (c)

Sol: Late decelerations in fetal heart rate can indicate fetal distress and may require
immediate medical intervention during labor.

Q64. The purpose of immunization programs in community health is to:

(a) Treat infections

(b) Prevent the spread of communicable diseases

(c) Diagnose diseases

(d) Provide emergency care

Ans: (b)

Sol: Immunization programs aim to prevent the spread of communicable diseases by

providing immunity to individuals and reducing the overall disease burden in the community.

Q65. The role of a community health nurse in maternal and child health includes:

(a) Performing surgeries

(b) Providing family planning education

(c) Administering anesthesia

(d) Prescribing medications

Ans: (b)

Sol: Community health nurses provide family planning education, conduct health
assessments, and offer maternal and child healthcare services.

Q66. A deficiency in which of the following nutrients can lead to scurvy?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin C

(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E

Ans: (b)

Sol: Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, which is necessary for collagen

formation, wound healing, and the maintenance of healthy tissues.

Q67. The main function of dietary fiber is to:

(a) Provide energy

(b) Build muscles

(c) Aid in digestion

(d) Store fat

Ans: (c)

Sol: Dietary fiber helps regulate the digestive system, promoting healthy bowel movements
and preventing constipation.

Q68. When treating a snake bite, the first step should be to:

(a) Suck the venom out

(b) Apply a tourniquet

(c) Immobilize the affected limb

(d) Administer painkillers

Ans: (c)

Sol: Immobilizing the affected limb is important to slow the spread of venom through the
bloodstream. Other treatments such as antivenom should be administered in a medical
facility.

Q69. The best method to control bleeding from a deep wound is:

(a) Applying ice packs

(b) Raising the injured limb

(c) Applying direct pressure

(d) Washing the wound with water

Ans: (c)

Sol: Applying direct pressure to the wound helps stop bleeding by allowing blood to clot and
preventing further blood loss.

Q70. Which of the following methods is the most accurate for measuring a patient's body
temperature?

(a) Oral thermometer

(b) Axillary thermometer

(c) Tympanic thermometer

(d) Rectal thermometer

Ans: (d)

Sol: The rectal thermometer provides the most accurate measurement of core body
temperature, as it is less affected by external factors.

Q71. Which of the following vital signs is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient?

(a) Pulse rate

(b) Blood pressure

(c) Respiratory rate

(d) Body temperature

Ans: (b)

Sol: Blood pressure is the most useful indicator of fluid balance, as changes in fluid volume
can affect the blood volume and pressure.

Q72. The best method for teaching psychomotor skills in nursing is:

(a) Case study

(b) Group discussion

(c) Lecture

(d) Simulation and demonstration

Ans: (d)
Sol: Simulation and demonstration allow nursing students to practice psychomotor skills in a
controlled environment, improving their proficiency.

Q73. What is the primary role of a nurse educator in clinical settings?

(a) Administering medications

(b) Conducting patient assessments

(c) Facilitating the learning of nursing students

(d) Managing hospital wards

Ans: (c)

Sol: A nurse educator’s primary role is to facilitate the learning and development of nursing
students in clinical settings, ensuring they gain practical skills and knowledge.

Q74. In quantitative research, which of the following methods is commonly used to collect
data?

(a) Case study

(b) Survey

(c) Focus group

(d) Ethnography

Ans: (b)

Sol: Surveys are commonly used in quantitative research to collect data from a large group
of participants and analyze statistical information.

Q75. Nursing is considered a profession because it involves:

(a) Administrative tasks

(b) A body of knowledge and ethics

(c) A focus on profit generation

(d) Manual labor

Ans: (b)
Sol: Nursing is considered a profession because it is based on a body of specialized
knowledge, ethics, and commitment to serving society.

Q76. What is the main responsibility of a nurse manager in a hospital setting?

(a) Administering patient medication

(b) Supervising nursing staff

(c) Performing surgeries

(d) Conducting research studies

Ans: (b)

Sol: A nurse manager’s primary responsibility is to supervise and manage the nursing staff,
ensuring high-quality patient care and operational efficiency.

Q77. Which of the following is a major focus of primary healthcare?

(a) Specialized surgeries

(b) Health promotion and disease prevention

(c) Advanced diagnostics

(d) Long-term care

Ans: (b)

Sol: Primary healthcare focuses on promoting health, preventing diseases, and providing
basic care to individuals and communities.

Q78. A major environmental factor that affects public health is:

(a) Family support

(b) Education level

(c) Sanitation

(d) Personal income

Ans: (c)

Sol: Sanitation, including clean water and waste management, is a critical environmental
factor that affects public health, particularly in preventing infectious diseases.
Q79. Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with hospital-acquired
infections?

(a) Streptococcus

(b) Staphylococcus aureus

(c) Escherichia coli

(d) Klebsiella

Ans: (b)

Sol: Staphylococcus aureus, especially its methicillin-resistant strain (MRSA), is a common

cause of hospital-acquired infections.

Q80. In case of a chemical burn, the immediate first aid is to:

(a) Apply ice to the burn

(b) Cover with a sterile bandage

(c) Flush the area with large amounts of water

(d) Apply an ointment

Ans: (c)

Sol: The immediate first aid for a chemical burn is to flush the affected area with large
amounts of water to remove the chemical and reduce tissue damage.