FINAL COACHING QUESTIONNAIRES : MULTIPLE- CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR SOCIAL WORK BOARD EXAM

Preface
The experience of being social work students and eventually becoming professors gave us the chance to
share our notes in social work practice. After more than a decade of being social workers, it made us be
inspired to complete and update the manuscript reviewer.
When we were social work students at Sacred Heart College studying social work subjects such as Human
Behavior and Social Environment; Social Welfare Policies, Programs and Services; Social Work Methods; and
Field Practice, the principal challenge we faced was finding study materials that have all the concise
knowledge of concepts related to social work practice.
As social work students who unequivocally overwhelmed studying in a desk, conference room, and at the
library with tons of paper scattered in front of us, we knew that we have to compile everything into one study
material.
What you are holding right now is a new version on how you will go about with your preparation for the
upcoming social work board exam which we, the writers of this book, made use of as students, as board
examinees, as social work practitioners, and as professors.
This Compendium of Multiple Choice Questions for Social Work Board Exams is a combined work of
diligent students, anxious social work board examinees, social work practitioners, and professors, and it seeks
to:
1. Improve the social work students' and graduates' analytical and critical thinking skills in answering
multiple-choice questions to thresh out farfetched concepts.
2. Provide comprehensive reviewer to the social work board examinees to beat the licensure examination as
well as those social work graduates who are practicing the profession but had not yet taken the board
exam.
3. Serve as a guide/ reference of the professors in preparing examination for social work subjects.
The questions in this book are arranged according to the four (4) major areas of the social work board
exam. There are at least one hundred fifty (150) questions or more per subject that are designed to test the
examinees' grasp on the concepts and principles of social work practice. Answer keys are provided to allow
immediate selfcheck.
We hope that this book will help you in your preparation for the Social Work Licensure Examination, while
we affirm our commitment to be your partners in your pursuit of a successful career in the social work
profession. God bless you all!
Joseph J.M. Malelang, RSW, MSSW, LLB Sunshine Kristia B. Cupo, RSW, MSSW

Acknowledgment
We would like to express our deepest gratitude and appreciation to everyone who contributed to the
completion of this Compendium especially to the following:
Our respective families, for their love, support and understanding;
Sr. Enriqueta Legaste, D.C., for giving us the opportunity to share our talents, knowledge, capabilities and
skills to our students;
Mr. Cesar N. Jose, for sharing his expertise in community organizing;
Ms. Liza N. Escultura, for sharing her expertise in social work administration and supervision as well as in
community organizing;
Our students, who became our inspirations to come up with this endeavor;
Above all, to God Almighty, who had been our source of all love, wisdom and strength, and for making all
things possible.
 TABLE OF CONTENTS
Page
Title Page 1
Preface 3
Foreword 5
Acknowledgment 6
Introduction 8
Human Behavior and Social Environment
HBSE - Part 1 14
HBSE - Part 2 75
Social Welfare Policies, Programs, Services
Historical Evolution, Theoretical
Framework and Objectives, and Functions 138
of Social Welfare
Social Work Research 183
Policies, Programs, and Services 233
Administration and Supervision 297
Social Work Methods
Working with Individuals and Families 346
(Casework)
Social Work with Groups (Groupwork) 391
Working with Communities (Community 452
Organization)
Field Practice 504
References

Introduction
The Social Work Board Exam, also known as the Social Workers Licensure Examination, is a board exam
facilitated by the Board for Social Workers under the Professional Regulatory Commission to assess the
competency of BS Social Work Graduates.
The decision to become licensed is significant, and passing the licensure examination demonstrates that
you have the basic knowledge necessary to safely practice social work.
Passing the licensure examination is only one step in becoming certified or licensed, but it is usually the
most difficult challenge faced after earning your degree.
This compendium of multiple-choice questions will assist you in your preparation for the Social Work
Licensure Examination. The overall aim of this reviewer is to assist you in your preparation for the licensure
examination especially when you do not have time to enroll on the different review centers and when you are
already employed.
Practice is an essential part of preparing for a test and in improving the examinees' chance of success. The
best way to do it is by going through a lot of practice questions.
If someone has never taken a mock test or a practice test, then they are unprepared for the types of
questions and answer choices they might encounter in the licensure exam.
One of the advantages in taking a practice test is that you can assess your performance and see if you need
to study and practice more, or if you're already prepared enough to achieve success on the examination day. If
you struggle on the practice test, you still have more time to do the work and get prepared.
This compendium of practice questions gives you the opportunity to test your knowledge on a set of
question. Moreover, it will give you an idea on what is going to be covered on the test. Repetition is a key to
success and using this compendium of MCQs will allow you to reinforce your strengths and improve your
weaknesses.
 However, finishing or passing these MCQs is not a guarantee or the key to pass the Social Work Licensure
Exam. We still suggest that you read other books and review notes, particularly your own notes to get you
prepared for the licensure exam. Good luck and enjoy answering the questions.

Human Behavior and Social Environment PART 1

1. The expression of the interaction between human and their social environment.
a. Social functioning b. Role c. Behavior d. Communication
2. Older adultshave reached Erikson's
developmental stage of ego integrity, when they:
a. acknowledge that one cannot get everything one wants in life. b. assess their lives and identify actions
that had value and purpose. c. express a wish that life could be relived differently. d. feel that they
are being punished for things they did not do.
3. According to Freud, during what stage does the superego emerge?
a. Genital b. Oral c. Phallic d. Anal
4. What is the part of the personality that compels people to act in perfect accordance with moral ideals?
a. Id b. Superego c. Pleasure principle d. Reality principle
5. Which theorist focused on the importance of the self-concept in personality?
a. Carl Rogers b. Alfred Adler c.Walter Mischel d.Hans Eysenck
6. Which one of the following statements about humanistic theories is false?
a. They do not provide insight into the evil side of human nature b. They are biased because they are
based on individualistic values c. They are based on studies of people with psychological disorders
d. They are difficult to test empirically
7. Which of Jung's beliefs differed from Freud's theories?
a. Everyone has a collective unconscious b. The unconscious is important in shaping personality
c. The main motivation for behavior is a striving for superiority d.Behavior depends on the consequences
that follow it
8. Although Johnny loves his cat, he is often too rough with it. To stop the behavior, the parents tell him they
will take away his favorite toy. Based on operant conditioning this is considered?
a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Positive punishment d. Negative punishment
9. You had a car crash; now all cars scare you. What is occurring to you?
a. extinction b. discrimination c. secondary reinforcement d. generalization
10. What is the formal definition of "operant"?
a. a contingent or non-contingent stimulus-induced response b. a discriminative stimulus
c. a behavior under the control of a stimulus d. a class of behaviors with an equivalent effect on the
environment
11. What does the term "positive” refer, in the term "positive reinforcement"?
a. pleasant emotions b. logical positivism c. the scientist's assumption that the procedure will increase
frequency of behavior d. the application or addition of a stimulus to a situation
12. Negative reinforcement...
a. increases the rate of behavior b. involves following a behavior with a noxious or aversive stimulus
c. is a form of punishment d. requires an extinction period
13. What is the consequence of warmth and affection from parents early in life, according to Horney?
a. a "spoiled child" syndrome b. a feeling that nothing is difficult, and effort is unneeded
c. "basic confidence" d. a preoccupation with receiving, not giving, affection
14. Our need for belonging, love, and affection best fall under which category according to Maslow's Hierarchy
of Needs? Please choose from one of the following options.
a. Security Needs b. Physiological Needs c.Esteem Needs d. Social Needs
15. The process of saying freely whatever comes to mind in connection with dreams, memories, fantasies, or
conflicts, in the course of a psychodynamic therapy session, is referred to as
a. systematic desensitization b. flooding c. free association d. exposure treatment
16. Which of the following pairs of personality theorists and perspectives is INCORRECT?
a. Abraham Maslow; existentialist b. Carl Rogers; humanist c. Carl Jung; genetic d. Sigmund Freud;
psychodynamic
17. We can attribute to the ecological systems theory of development.
a. Adler b. Bronfenbrenner c. Chomsky d. Piaget
18. Which of the following statements most closely reflects the ecological systems theory of development?
a. It takes an entire nation to raise a child. b. It takes a closely knit family to raise a child.
c. It takes an interconnected network of families to raise just one child. d. It takes a strongly devoted
neighborhood to raise a child.
19. Situation: A 42-year old male client, is admitted in the ward because of bizarre behaviors. He is given a
diagnosis of schizophrenia paranoid type. The client should have achieved the developmental task of:
a. Trust vs. mistrust b.Industry vs. inferiority c.Generativity vs. stagnation d. Ego integrity vs. despair
20. Clients who are suspicious primarily use projection for which purpose:
a. deny reality b. to deal with feelings and thoughts that are not acceptable c.to show resentment
towards others d. manipulate others
21. The client is very hostile toward one of the staff for no apparent reason. The client is manifesting:
a. Splitting b. Transference c. Counter-transference d. Resistance
22. The client joins a support group and frequently preaches against abuse, is demonstrating the use of:
a. denial b. reaction formation c. rationalization d. projection
23. Which theory believes that people in society battle over scarce resources like money, power, and prestige?
a. Structural functionalism b. Conflict c. Symbolic Interaction d. Feminist
24. Conflict theory is primarily based in the work of
a. Emile Durkheim b. Herbert Spencer c. August Comte d. Karl Marx
25. Why is the act of drinking coffee symptomatic of globalization?
a. The act unites us with the millions of others who start their day with a cup of coffee.
b. The act increases an individual's sense of connectedness with people of other races, ethnicities, and
national backgrounds from all over the planet.
c. The act shows how we are caught up in a complicated set of social and economic relationships stretching
across the world
d. Drinking coffee is simply drinking coffee and does not involve globalization.
26. Functionalism and Marxism are similar in that they are structural theories. This means that?
a. They believe that social structures are irrelevant in society
b. They believe that society is made up of interrelated parts
c. They believe that social institutions have power over people
d. They believe that people shape the social structures of society
27. The processes of (1) the working class becoming more like the middle class, and (2) the middle class
becoming more like the working class are known, respectively, as:
a. embourgeoisement and proletarianization b. homogenization and pasteurization
c. proletarianization and embourgeoisement d. professionalization and pauperization
28. Mutual Interdependence among nations particularly their economic systems:
a. World Systems Theory b. Structural-Functionalist Theory c.Modernization Theory d.Dualism Theory

29. Freeing up the economy by removing barriers and restrictions to create laissez-faire atmosphere is called?
a. Socialism structural Adjustment neoliberalism deregulation
30. The following are demographic characteristics of cities, EXCEPT one.
A. Homogeneity of people B.Population density C. Number D. Heterogeneity of people
31. "Who am I?" is the thing expresses and repeated in countless variations by late adolescents, is reflective of
their alleged
a. Ideological crisis b. Identity crisis c. Interruption crisis d. Institutional crisis
32. Maslow's hierarchy of human needs identifies this need as the highest:
a. Esteem b. Physiological c. Belongingness and love d. Self-actualization
33. According to the psychoanalytic theory, the system of the personality concerned with right and wrong is
called the
a. Ego b. Superego c. Instinct d. Id
34. The person who continues to focus inappropriately on the needs of a certain stage of development is said
to be:
a. Gratified b. Frustrated c. Immobilized d. Fixated
35. The child experiences the conflict between trusts versus mistrust during this phase
a. Puberty b. Anal c.Latency d. oral
36. An array of physiological devices that function as foil against danger to the self.
a. Discrimination defense mechanism differential diagnosis d.Drug abuse
37. The stage at which the individual experience identity versus role confusion is:
a. Old age b. Adolescence c. Latency d. None of the above
38. A process, emphasized Ivan Pavlov, in which a previously neutral stimulus becomes capable of eliciting a
response because of its association with a stimulus that automatically produces the same or a similar
response.
a. Classical conditioning b.Behavior modification c.Operant conditioning d.Stimulus-response theory
39. The basic conflict faced by people in their middle age or adulthood (35-60) is:
a. Trust vs. mistrust b. Integrity vs. despair c.Generativity vs. stagnation d.Intimacy vs. isolation
40. The principle of object permanence is the main feature of this stage
a. Sensorimotor b. Formal operations c. Pre-operational d. Concrete
41. The state of strain that may be physical or psychological is called?
a. Stress b. Worry c. Fatigue d. Discomfort
42. The release and freeing of emotion through talking about one's problems is called?
a. Upliftment b. Elation c. Catharsis d. Praxis
43. A psychological injury.
a. Stigma b. Conflict c. Trauma d. Disability
44. It refers to the individual or the collective manifestation of the person's sensuality, capacity for intimacy,
his/her sexual identity, reproduction capability and interpersonal influence.
a. Sexuality properties that distinguishes organisms on the basis of their reproductive role
b. Genital sexuality c. Abnormal sexuality d. Human sexuality
45. It refers to the unconscious, intensified feelings of being insignificant, insecure or unable to cope with life.
a. Superiority complex b. Insecurity c. Inferiority complex d. Martyr complex
46. In Freudian thought, this refers to psychological functioning based on the pursuit of pleasure and
avoidance of pain.
a. Ethical principle b. Moral principle c. Reality principle d. Pleasure principle
47. The psychoanalytic term for the energy associated first with the life instincts and later with the sexual
instincts.
a. Stamina b. Vigor c. Viagra d. Libido
48. That part of the psyche whose principle role is to mediate between instinctual demands and the conditions
imposed by the objective world.
a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Mind
49. Hostile behavior intended to inflict harm upon others.
a. Aggression b. Repressio c. Regression d. Oppression
50. According to Piaget, egocentrism is a characteristic of this stage
a. Formal operation b. Concrete operation c. Pre-operational d. Sensorimotor
51. A key concept in Carl Roger's theory of personality, it refers to the self-concept the individual would most
like to possess.
a. Ego freud b. Proprium c. Ideal self d. Individuality
52. Which of the following is NOT included in the deficiency needs of Maslow?
a. Esteem needs b. Belongingness and love c. Safety needs d. Self-actualization
53. While Freud's theory of personality development is characterized a psychosexual, Erikson's model is
regarded as
a. Humanistic b. Psychosocial c. Behaviorist d. Bio-social
54. Competition of a son with father for mother's love is called?
a. Identification b. Electra complex c. Oedipal complex d. Rivalry
55. A process in which behavior are shaped through the use of secondary reinforces.
a. Behavior modification b. Shaping c. Token economy d. Extinction
56. Any situation, development or event that possess an obstacle to the person's important life goal that is
extremely difficult.
a. Composition b. Claustrophobia c. Conscientizatio d. Crisis
57. The process of making the most of one's capabilities leading to excellence.
a. Self-determination b. Self-concept c. Self-actualization d. Self-awareness
58. Erikson has considered the development of a sense of industry as a crucial theme of late childhood,
without this child develops
a. Feeble-mindedness b. Feelings of inferiority and superiority c. Fixation d.Family disorganization
59. Roger's concept expressing the need for warmth, liking respect and acceptance from others.
a. Need for belongingness b. The proprium c.Need for cognitive understanding d. Need for positive regard
60. It is also known as the third force psychology, its emphasis is on the experiencing person, creativity and the
dignity and enhancement of the people
a. Behaviorism b. Psycho-social theory c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Humanistic theory
61. Rogers identified this as the conditions under which a person will experience positive regard
a. Condition for self-regard b.Conditions for self-esteem c. Facilitating conditions d. Conditions of worth
62. It is the highest level of hierarchy of needs which can be reached only if the proceeding need levels have
been adequately satisfied
a. Actualizing tendency b. Aesthetic need c. Self-actualization d. All of the above
63. "You have to encode or mentally represent what it is you intended to learn" pertains to what process of
observational learning?
a. Attentional process b. Retention process c. Motivational process d. Reproduction process
64. "You have to look or hear a model to learn something new." The preceding statement corresponds to what
process of observational learning?
a. Attentional process b. Retention process c. Motivational process d. Reproduction process it should be
production not reproduction
65. Child when scolded for or accused of some misdeed says it was not him who did it but some other child
often an imaginary one. This is possibly an example of:
a. projection b. displacement c. identification d. regression
66. A woman is forced to undertake a restrictive diet; she becomes interested in painting and does a number
of still life pictures, most of which include fruit.
a. projection b. sublimation c. reaction formation d. splitting
67. A man, unable to accept that he has competitive or hostile feelings about an acquaintance, says, "He
doesn't like me."
a. Projection b. sublimation c. reaction formation d. splitting
68. A married woman who is disturbed by feeling attracted to one of her husband's friends treats him rudely.
a. displacement b. projection c. splitting d. reaction formation
69. When asked to recommend a friend for a job, a man makes derogatory comments which prevent the
friend's getting the position; a few days later, the man drops in to see his friend and brings him a small gift.
a. resistance b. splitting c. suppression d. undoing
70. Avoiding emotions by focusing on thoughts and abstractions
a. rationalization b. intellectualization c. somatization d. a&b
71. A task of this stage has to do with the acceptance of an impending death
a. middle age b. maturity c. adolescence d. infancy
72. Central focus of concern is around the mouth.
a. oral sensory b.maturity c. locomotor-genital d. latency
73. The beginnings of sexual identification
a. puberty b. locomotor-genital c. adolescence d. young adulthood
74. A stage of personality development where there is strong identification of the peer group and detachment
from home and family.
a. infancy b. adolescence c.adulthood d. senility
75. The need for symmetry order, system and structure.
a. Cognitive needs b. Esthetic needs c. esteem needs d. need for self-actualization
76. The need to know and understand, curiosity, the need to understand the mysterious, the need to tackle
the unknown.
a. Cognitive needs b. Esthetic needs c. esteem needs d. need for self-actualization
77. Social, emotional and intellectual assets of the use of the body; playing becomes an important instrument
for intellectual development and socialization.
a. Muscular-anal b. Latency c. Locomotor-genital d. Oral sensory
78. The necessity of a continuing person to provide mothering
a. Muscular-anal b. Latency c. Locomotor-genital d. Oral sensory
79. Important to provide for self-doing independence; child should not be shamed for his smallness; be given
reassurance.
a. Latency b. Locomotor-genital c. Oral sensory d. Muscular-anal
80. An individual starts moving into heterosexual relationships to finally end up in marriage.
a. Puberty and adolescence b. Adulthood c. Young Adulthood d. none of the above
81. Commensurate with child rearing and launching; focus on the upbringing of the family and holding them in
their later stages of development.
a. adulthood b. maturity c. middle adulthood d. none of the above
82. Child plays with his/her own peer group important means by which emotional social development takes
place
a. Locomotor-genital b. Muscular-anal c. Latency d. Phallic
83. Awareness of sexual strength -body culture
a. Young Adulthood b. Puberty and adolescence c. middle adulthood d. adulthood
84. The following are the characteristics of maturity or senescence:
I. accept a new social position according to the particular culture of death.
II. not just in helping his family towards development but also contributing on the community at large.
III. Has a sense of worth in terms of his family and the community of which he is a part.
IV. concept of timelessness
Choices:
a. I, III & IV c. I, II, III & IV b. I, II & III d. II, III & IV
85. Which of the following are the characteristics of Young adulthood?
I. Most adults already have a vocation, occupation or some kind of work.
II. start regulating needs and time with the arrival of children
III. Learning to relate oneself emotionally to parents, siblings and other people - infancy/early childhood
IV. Forming simple concepts of social and physical reality - same
Choices:
a. I & II c. II, III & IV b. I & III d. I, III & IV
86. During this period,Freud defends that
erogenous zone of the child becomes the urether and therefore the pleasure is obtained at first from expelling
feces.
a. oral stage b. phallic stage c. anal stage d. genital stage
87. This is called the stage of "family romance" when the child unconsciously wishes to possess the opposite-
sexed parent and at the same time to eliminate the same sexed parent.
a. anal stage b. oral stage c. genital stage d. phallic stage
88. Any part of human being's body where the inner and outer skin meet; an area which may have potential
when manipulated or arousing pleasant and sensual feelings.
a. foreskin b. drives c. instinct d. erogenous zones
89. The Oedipus Complex which is said to consist of sexual craving for the parent of the opposite sex and the
hostile attitude for the parent of the same sex, is the chief event of this stage of development.
a. genital stage b. phallic stage c. anal stage d. oral stage
90. A plateau in development where problems of the first stage become dormant and school becomes
important.
a. locomotor-genital b. oral sensory c. muscular-anal d. latency
91. The psychosocial stage of development during young adulthood is referred to as:
a.intimacy vs. isolation b.industry vs. inferiority c. generativity vs. stagnation d. identity vs. role diffusion
92. Which of the following are the characteristics of Later life?
I. Meeting social and civic obligation II. Establishing satisfactory living arrangements III. Establishing an
explicit affiliation with one's age group. IV. Learning to accept and adjust to the physiological changes -
middle age
Choices:
a. I & II c. II, III & IV b. I, II, III & IV d. I, II & III
93. It is a key process in human behavior; it pervades everything we do and think.
a. socialization b. training c. holistic development d. all of the above
94. Need for affiliation, belongingness and acceptance
a. aesthetic needs b. survival needs c. cognitive needs d. social needs
95. A severe mental disorder characterized by disorganization of the thought process, disturbances in
emotionally, disorientation as to time, space and person and in some cases, hallucinations and delusions.
a. psychosis b. schizophrenia c. neurosis d. retardation
96. Taking on a civic responsibility
a. Early Adulthood b. Middle Age c. Adolescence d. Adulthood
97. Establishing and maintaining an economic standard of living
a. Middle Age b. Adolescence c. Early Adulthood d. none of the above
98. Developing intellectual skills and concepts necessary for civic acceptance.
a. Early childhood b. Early Adulthood c. Pre-Adolescence and Adolescence d. middle age
99. What crisis is developed in the Locomotor- genital stage?
a. industry vs. Isolation b. intimacy vs. Isolation c. identity vs. role diffusion d. initiative vs. guilt
100. What crisis is developed in the muscular- anal stage?
a. industry vs. isolation b. trust vs. mistrust c. initiative vs. guilt d. autonomy vs. shame or
doubt
101. It affects a person's total social functioning and it is important to understand that people incorporate
their social and cultural environment, cultural patterns influence the manner and degree of self-expression
and life satisfaction of people.
a. social reality b. social environment c. social role d. all of the above
102. The stage of development according to Freud at which the prototype is set for all kinds of expulsive
traits in the adult, e.g. cruelty, destructiveness, temper, tantrums, messy disorderliness- or which maybe
the basis for creativity and productivity, depending on the way the person has been handled in childhood,
a. phallic stage b. oral stage c. genital stage d. anal stage
103. If an adult person does not care about his/her total environment and does not really care for the well-
being of future generations, we could conclude that the person has not truly been able to develop up to
Erikson's seventh psychosocial development stage which works out the values of.
a. basic trust versus basic mistrust b. identify versus role confusion c. generativity versus
stagnation d. industry versus inferiority
104. A set of cluster of behaviors expected from a specific social position is technically referred to as.
a. social behavior b. social role c. position role d. model behavior
105. This defense mechanism allows one to excuse his threatening and unacceptable behaviors and thoughts.
A. Repression B. Rationalization C. Introjection D. Projection
106. Arrange these first four-ego strength or virtue of Erickson in order:
I. Hope II. Will III. Competence IV. Purpose
Choices:
a. I, II, III, IV c. II, III, IV, I b. I, II, IV, III d. IV, III, II, I
107. During this psychosocial stage cooperation with others, team play, same sex peer identification and
introspection develops.
A. Generativity vs. stagnation B. Initiative vs. guilt C.Industry vs. inferiority D. Identity vs. role confusion
108. Albert Bandura's theory views people as driven neither exclusively by the forces of cognition nor
automatically by events within the environment. This theory allowed for cognitive processes and thereby
established that learning takes place regardless of rewarding or punishing consequences.
A. Motivation Theory B. Humanistic Psychology C. Social Learning Theory D. Psychosocial Theory
109. The common developmental tasks in this stage are: marriage, child bearing, work and developing life
style apart from parents. What developmental crisis of Erikson is concerned?
a. Intimacy vs. Isolation b.Integrity vs. Despair c.Identity vs. role confusion d.Generativity vs. stagnation
110. What ego strength or virtue develops during the stage of industry vs. inferiority?
a. Purpose b. Competence c. Love d. Fidelity
111. A defense mechanism by the mother who cannot recall the quarrel with her son before the tidal wave
that killed her son.
a. Regression b. Repression c. Sublimation d. Displacement
112. Arguing that "everybody else does it, so I don't have to feel guilty".
a. Projection b. Rationalization c. Reaction formation d. Identification
113. Oral stage of Freud is also known as:
a. "Narcissistic (self-centered) stage b. Compulsive stage c. Eruptive stage d. Erogenous stage
114. Boys at this stage have feelings of possessive love for their mothers and see their fathers as rivals
(Oedipus Complex).
a. Phallic stage b. Latency stage c. Genital stage d. Anal stage
115. Those thoughts, feelings and experiences of which we are momentarily unaware but can readily bring
into awareness
a. Preconscious b. Subconscious c. Unconscious d. Conscious
116. What ego strength or virtue develops during the stage of trust vs. mistrust?
a. Will b. Purpose c. Hope d. Fidelity
117. Luke spends 16 hours a day practicing for a big game and as a result he neglects his wife and children
quite often. According to Freud's System of Personality, what part of the personality system (process) is
responsible for

38
the guilty feelings that result from the violation of the standards and morals set?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Libido
d. Superego
118. In case of CLASSICAL CONDITIONING Stimulus response sequence, the stimulus precedes the response.
What happens in case of OPERANT CONDITIONING in this sequence?
a. The response is emitted.
b. A substitution in stimuli does not take place.
c. Goal-seeking activity is primarily involved
d. The response occurs prior to the effect
119. There are 3 stages of adulthood defined by Erikson based on the Psycho-Social Crises that individuals
encounter. What characterizes the late adulthood stage?
a. Person formulates plans to leave a legacy
b. Person learns to be intimate with others
c. Person becomes aware of its boundaries and limits
d. Person evaluates whether life has been worthwhile
120. There are 3 stages of adulthood defined by Erikson based on the Psycho-Social Crises that individuals
encounter. What characterizes the early adulthood stage?
a. Person learns to be intimate with others
b. Person formulates plans to leave a legacy
c. Person evaluates whether life has been worthwhile
d. Person becomes aware of its boundaries and limits
39
121. In case of OPERANT CONDITIONING role of stimulus response sequence, the response is emitted. What
happens in case of Classical Conditioning in this sequence?
a. The response occurs prior to the effect (reward)
b. A substitution in stimuli does not take place.
c. Goal-seeking activity is primarily involved
d. The response is elicited.
122. Which among the following are the characteristics of Psychoanalytic Theory?
I. Theory is based on understanding that one's mental life is made up of both the conscious and unconscious
II. Emphasis on engaging the whole person and focusing on the future rather than the past
III. Concept of psychological adaptation whereby the mental apparatus attempts to produce a "steady state"
and reduce conflict as much as possible
IV. Important tasks of therapy include self- actualization, personal growth and self- understanding
Choices:
a. I and II c. I, II and III
b. I and III d. II, III and IV
123. The concept that any person during various period of his growth many culture or environment forces
more or less constantly acquire certain lessons that he must learn or master.
a. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
b. Training
c. Culture
d. Developmental task
40
124. Bandura stated that the concept of behavior, person, and environment all work interactively to
promote learning. He called this interaction as
?
a. Deterministic reciprocity
b. Triadic reciprocal determinism
c. Triadic determination
d. Reciprocal triadic determinant.
125. In infancy, the virtue of is attained,
when the child developed trust.
a. Autonomy
b. love
c. hope
d. fidelity
126. In a residential center for street children, the new houseparent told the kids that if they would help
him clean the mess brought about by typhoon Ondoy, they will receive special presents on Christmas. This
is called?
a. Punishment orientation
b. Good boy-good girl orientation
c. Reward orientation/individualism and exchange
d. Authority orientation
127. Rogers claimed that this develops when the organismic self and the perceived self (self- concept) do
not match.
a. Disorganization
b. Distortion
c. Inconsistency
d. Incongruence
128. The personality theorist who focused his attention on the importance of birth order as a factor
governing personality
a. Maslow
b. Bandura
c. Adler
d. Jung
41
129. All of these theorists proposed certain aspects of personality development in terms of stages except
one.
a. Skinner
b. Kohlberg
c. Erikson
d. Piaget
130. Reinforcement is provided after a fixed number of responses.
a. Fixed ratio
b. Variable ratio
c. Fixed interval
d. Variable interval
131. If leaving your apartment removes you from
an unpleasant environment, then the time you
spend away from your apartment will increase referring to.
a. Positive reinforcement
b. Negative reinforcement
c. Positive punishment
d. Negative punishment
132. When the dog is trained to catch a ball, you can give the animal a food reinforcer. Each time it
approaches the ball until finally the dog mouths and grabs the ball refers to?
a. Sensitization
b. Omission training
c. Shaping
d. Extinction
133. A topographical concept states that the personality has a conscious mind, a preconscious mind, and an
unconscious mind. By what stage is the human personality determined?
a. In the adolescence
b. When a person is 21
c. In the first five years of life
d. When a person is 18
42
134. If a person cannot pass emotionally from oral to anal stage, because of what factor is the emotional
development "stuck"?
a. The person didn't receive the needed affection
b. The cathexis was not strong enough
c. The person has experienced too much pain
d. The fixation was not intense enough
135. If maturity is the living out of the results of the pre-genital (oral, anal, and phallic) and genital stages,
what is specific for the oral stage?
a. The first experience of "imposed control"
b. Pleasure is derived from nursing and sucking
c. Pleasure is derived from fondling genitals
d. Children observe the differences between males and females
136. One of the eight developmental tasks that adolescent development encompasses is occupational
selection and preparation. What can be defined as a task of the Early Adulthood stage?
a. Manage career
b. Accept life
c. Coping with physical changes
d. Explore intimate relationships and start a family
137. According to Erikson's developmental theory, there are eight psycho-social stages which unfold with
continuity over the life span as the individual endeavors to attain a mature sense of identity. At what
developmental stage does the Intimacy vs. Isolation Psycho-social Crisis occur?
a. Old age
43
b. Middle adulthood
c. Early adulthood
d. None of the above
138. Jen quits school to ensure she doesn't have to speak in public. What defense mechanism is she using?
a. Denial
b. Avoidance
c. Sublimation
d. Passive-aggression
139. While she wanted to be a doctor, Gwen didn't get accepted to medical school and became a
pharmacist instead. This is called?
a. Acting out
b. Compensation
c. Avoidance
d. Aim inhibition
140. Jeanette was abused as a child. She doesn't remember the abuse but now struggles to trust others and
form relationships. This is called?
a. Displacement
b. Repression
c. Affiliation
d. Avoidance
141. Which defense mechanism did Freud believe to be a sign of maturity?
a. Repression
b. Displacement
c. Sublimation
d. Regression
142. Bill's friends confront him about his excess drinking, but he thinks he doesn't have a problem. Bill is
experiencing:
a. Compensation
b. Denial
c. Rationalization
d. Displacement
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143. During her morning jog, Linda encounters a growling dog and fears the animal will bite her. Freud
identified this as:
a. Reality anxiety
b. Moral anxiety
c. Neurotic anxiety
d. Libidinal anxiety
144. A man who cheats on his wife accuses her of being unfaithful. This is an example of:
a. Sublimation
b. Repression
c. Rationalization
d. Projection
145. Mary has an argument with her boss and yells at her kids when she gets home. Which defense
mechanism is Mary displaying?
a. Denial
b. Rationalization
c. Displacement
d. Reaction formation
146. After being diagnosed with cancer, Greg learns everything he can about his illness. His response is an
example of:
a. Intellectualization
b. Regression
c. Sublimation
d. Rationalization
147. Clare gets fired and blames her job loss on her co-workers. This is an example of which defense
mechanism?
a. Displacement
b. Denial
c. Rationalization
d. Sublimation
Case No. 1
Julius Davao and Curly Shell have been dating for
two years. Curly breaks up with Julius because he
45
cheated on her with Dina P. Pigil. Curly tells her friend Kelly Ling about Julius, but she tells her without
showing any emotion. Julius continues to call Curly and treat her as he did when they were going out. Dina P.
Pigil, who did not know about Curly, tells Julius that she is glad that he feels guilty for hurting Curly. She also
tells him that it will take a long time to get over the guilt.
148. What kind of defense mechanism is used by Curly?
a. repression
b. denial
c. projection
d. isolation
149. What kind of defense mechanism is used by Julius?
a. repression
b. denial
c. projection
d. isolation
150. Dina is using as a defense
mechanism.
a. repression
b. denial
c. projection
d. isolation
151. The ability to think abstractly and systematically solve problems emerges during the:
a. Concrete Operational Stage
b. Sensorimotor Stage
c. Formal Operational Stage
d. Preoperational Stage
152. Which is an example of a child in the sensorimotor intelligence stage as proposed by Piaget?
46
a. Pim Paul is 12 years old. He is really good at testing hypotheses.
b. Tin D. Humalo is eight years old. She loves to play with PlayDoh and understands no matter how she
manipulates it, it is still the same PlayDoh.
c. Terra Nova is a one-year old infant. She interacts with the world by putting things in her mouth, pushing
and pulling things, or grabbing them with her hands.
d. Prito Pimintel is three years old. He loves his tall, skinny Sippy cup more than his short, wide sippy cup
because he thinks the taller cup has more juice.
153. What is the correct order of Piaget's four stages of cognitive development?
a. Sensorimotor, concrete operational, pre- operational, formal operational
b. Pre-operational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational
c. Sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete operational, formal operational
d. Pre-operational, concrete operational, sensorimotor, formal operational
154. Becca is in the 5th grade. She has never been a great student in school. However, Becca now realizes
that if she spends more time practicing her spelling, she tends to do better on her spelling tests.
Becca is at what stage of cognitive development?
a. Pre-operational stage
b. Formal operational stage
c. Sensorimotor stage
d. Concrete operational stage
47
155. Erikson's stage of industry versus inferiority can be compared to which of Freud's psychosexual stages?
a. Phallic stage
b. Oral stage
c. Latency
d. Anal stage
156. According to Piagetian theory, cognitive development is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. perception.
b. reasoning.
c. verbal facilities.
d. language.
157. Which of the following advancements would be new to a child reaching the preoperational stage?
a. The ability to consider multiple aspects of a problem.
b. The ability to consider past and present activities.
c. The ability to experiment with circular reactions.
d. The ability to calculate probabilities.
158. According to Piaget, the middle childhood years bring a new set of skills, concrete operations, that:
a. build on and expand development in fine and gross motor capabilities.
b. facilitate emotional development as the child resolves common cultural demands and tasks.
c. reduce anxiety in children at this stage by distorting reality to assist them in understanding.
d. provide general, abstract rules and strategies for examining and interacting with the world.
48
159. Sam Milky wants to pour the milk on his cereal all by himself. When Mommy starts to pour the milk he
puts his hands over the bowl and shouts, "No, ME do it!" Sam is MOST LIKELY
in Erikson's stage, and is approximately
years old.
a. trust vs. mistrust; 3
b. initiative vs. guilt; 3
c. autonomy vs. shame and doubt; 2
d. industry vs. inferiority; 1
160. According to Erikson, successful resolution of the "identity vs. role confusion" conflict faced in
adolescence leads to which of the following virtues?
a. a sense of purpose
b. feelings of competence
c. the ability to commit oneself
d. investment in future generations
161. Susan's children are all married and living a good distance from home. Susan works as a legal secretary,
and most of what she earns goes into college funds for her 2 grandchildren. Her own children lead busy
lives, with friends and work activities occupying most of their time, so Susan volunteers one evening each
week at the Children's Hospital, reading bedtime stories to the young children there. Susan is BEST
classified as fitting into Erikson's
stage.
a. intimacy vs. isolation
b. generativity vs. stagnation
c. integrity vs. despair
d. identity vs. role confusion
162. Rachel joined the Olympic gymnastics team when she was 13. She has been a gymnast all of her life and
has not considered other options. Now, at the age of 26, Rachel has severely injured her knee and can no
longer compete. She finds that she doesn't have an identity
49
beyond that associated with gymnastics. Which of the following statements would Erikson most likely make?
a. Rachel can now resolve the crisis of identity achievement; it doesn't matter when it happens.
b. Rachel missed her opportunity to reach identity achievement and there is little hope for her to lead a
normal life.
c. Rachel can skip the stage of identify achievement and lead a normal life.
d. Rachel developed a maladaptive identity in her teens and needs to take time with a counselor to resolve
the identify crisis.
163. A child has a good day at school and goes home and shares that excitement with his or her parents.
This represents the influence of which system?
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem
164. A child who says it is wrong to steal because she might get caught would be in Kohlberg's stage.
a. punishment and obedience orientation
b. instrumental hedonism
c. "good boy" or "good girl" morality
d. authority and social order maintaining morality
165. A teenager who begins using alcohol because
all his friends are doing it is probably in Kohlberg's stage.
a. punishment and obedience orientation
b. instrumental hedonism
c. "good boy" or "good girl" morality
d. authority and social order maintaining morality
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166. At what level of moral development are the rules and standards of society internalized and held as
one's own?
a. pre-conventional
b. conventional
c. post-conventional
d. autonomous
167. Which is an example of the autonomy versus shame and doubt stage?
a. An infant chewing on a teething ring
b. A preschooler insisting on picking out her own clothes, no matter how mismatched they are
c. A middle-schooler completing a challenging math assignment
d. A teenager trying out new fashions and hairstyles
168. The central theme of Erikson's theory of psychosocial stages is the development of:
a. Personality
b. Psychosocial conflict
c. Social status
d. Ego identity
169. What do people face during each psychosocial stage that can serve as a turning point in development?
a. Epiphany
b. Conflict
c. Paradigm shift
d. Turmoil
170. If a child struggles to do well in school, what problem might emerge?
a. Struggle with feelings of inferiority
b. Experience a sense of guilt
c. Develop a poor self-identity
d. Begin to mistrust the people around him
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171. Successfully completing the eighth stage of psychosocial development leads to the emergence of what
quality?
a. Hope
b. Fidelity
c. Purpose
d. Wisdom
172. Benjamin is an imaginative young boy. He plays many make-believe games with his toys. One day
Benjamin is playing with his toys in the living room when his dad walks in and steps on one of the toys.
Benjamin's dad yells out "Ouch! Benjamin what are all these stupid toys doing lying around the room. You
are too old for playing with toys. Clean these up right now!" Benjamin picks up his toys quietly and leaves
the room.
a. Early Childhood
b. Toddler
c. Elementary and Middle School Years
d. Infancy
173. Teacher Sakura noticed that one of her students is fund of biting the tip of the ballpen. Which theory
will best explain her student's behavior?
a. Piaget's Cognitive Theory
b. Pavlov's Classical Conditioning
c. Freud's Psychosexual Theory
d. Skinner's Operant Conditioning
174. Naruto, who is 5-years old, is fund of playing with his penis when he urinates. In which stage of Freud's
theory can Naruto be considered?
a. Phallic
b. Genital
c. Anal
d. Latency
175. Which will probably happen if a child failed to resolve the crisis of the anal stage?
52
a. The child may become sexually promiscuous
b. The child may have problems with trust
c. The child may become obsessed with cleanliness
d. The child may become a smoker
176. Punishment is the of reinforcement.
a. Opposite
b. Principle
c. Basis
d. Equivalent
177. People make sense of their world through an understanding of everyday rules. This is view is expressed
by
a. Marxists
b. Interactionists
c. Functionalists
d. Feminists
178. Id is to "Just do it" as superego is to
a. "Wait till later."
b. "Do your own thing."
c. "Don't do it."
d. "Oh, sit on it."
179. The unconscious contains
a. material that can easily be brought to awareness.
b. everything we are aware of at a given moment.
c. repressed memories and emotions.
d. thoughts, perceptions, and memories.
180. Freud believed that personality was typified by
a. a delicate balance of power among the three personality structures.
53
b. a lack of struggle among the three personality structures in the healthy individual.
c. a lack of struggle among the three personality structures in the unhealthy individual.
d. a state of struggle among the three personality structures in which the id gets caught in the middle.
181. Psychologists who believe that people grow and develop throughout their lives and that people are
inherently good are
a. psychoanalysts.
b. radical behaviorists.
c. social learning theorists.
d. humanists.
182. A psychiatrist who explains pathological behavior as a conflict between underlying
psychological forces is using the
model.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. medical
d. humanistic
183. According to behaviorists,
a. hostile, generous, or destructive impulses arise in the unconscious.
b. personality is acquired through conditioning and observational learning.
c. personality is strongly influenced by one's self-image.
d. personality develops from initial feelings of inferiority.
184. We each have a perception of our own personality traits. This perception strongly influences our
behavior. Psychologists call this perception
a. self-evaluation.
54
b. inner concept.
c. self-concept.
d. self-esteem.
185. In Adler's view, the main striving of personality is for
a. dominance.
b. sophistication.
c. instincts.
d. superiority.
186. I am in my late forties. If I do not reach out to others, especially to young people, Erikson says I will
experience
a. shame.
b. isolation.
c. stagnation.
d. guilt.
187. Which of the following best describes the unusual events that occurred in Pavlov's laboratory leading
him to the discovery of classical conditioning?
a. Dogs salivated after meat powder was placed in their mouths.
b. Dogs sometimes salivated before meat powder was placed in their mouths.
c. Salivation existed in dogs as an unlearned reflex.
d. Dogs salivated if and only if they were given a reward.
188. In operant conditioning, the reinforcer
occurs the response, and in
classical conditioning, it occurs .
a. after; before
b. before; after
c. before; before
d. after; after
189. When you are first learning golf, you may hit one or two great shots in an entire round. You are being
reinforced on what kind of partial
reinforcement schedule?
55
a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable ratio
d. variable interval
190. Your niece has a temper tantrum in the store when she is shopping. If you buy her a toy you are
a. being practical.
b. being kind.
c. encouraging more tantrums.
d. discouraging more destructive
behaviors.
191. Negative reinforcement
responding; punishment
responding.
a. increases; increases
b. decreases; decreases
c. increases; decreases
d. decreases; increases
192. Alder believed that organ inferiorities
a. cause superiority personalities.
b. cause inferiority personalities.
c. bestow meaning and purpose on all behavior.
d. stimulate feelings of inferiority
193. Adler held that people are continually
pushed by the need to overcome inferiority feelings and pulled by the desire for
a. love.
b. social interest
c. unity with all humanity
d. completion
194. According to Jung, art, religion, myths, and drama are important to individual functioning because they
a. facilitate conscious development.
b. are symbols that appeal to basic archetypes.
56
c. provide the means for achieving control over a hostile environment.
d. transmit specific information for solving developmental tasks.
195. Rogers is most properly associated with
a. nondirective counseling
b. client-centered therapy
c. rational-emotive therapy
d. behavior modification
196. Healthy people evaluate their experiences as good or bad according to which criterion?
a. the self-actualizing tendency
b. perceived self
c. reflected appraisal of others
d. the actualizing tendency
197. A discrepancy between the self-concept and the ideal self, results in
a. ego defense mechanisms.
b. subception.
c. the person of tomorrow.
d. incongruence.
198. An unawareness of a discrepancy between self and experience leads to
a. psychological health.
b. anxiety.
c. threat.
d. vulnerability.
199. Which statement is most consistent with Rogers's concept of humanity?
a. People have a natural tendency to move toward actualization.
b. People move inevitably toward actualization.
c. People move inevitably toward self- actualization.
d. People are free to become what they will.
57
200. Determinants of human behavior EXCEPT one:
a. Heredity
b. Environment
c. Social functioning
d. Culture
201. In Jungian psychology, this is considered the most original and controversial concept, which includes
primordial past of the entire species and contains the archetypes.
a. Personal unconscious
b. Complexes
c. collective unconscious
d. archetypes
202. One of the statements below does not correspond to Kohlberg's view on morality
a. Moral wrongness is linked to the violation of rights and justice
b. Logic tends to be based on justice, rights and autonomy
c. Emphasizes interdependence and responsibility to self and others
d. Components of morality is the sanctity of the individual, rights of self and fairness
203. Rogerian theory mentioned that one of the necessary processes of becoming a person is to develop
need to be loved, liked or accepted by another person. This need is referred to as
a. Conditional valuing
b. Positive regard
c. condition of worth
d. self-esteem
204. You encountered a client in a child welfare agency, you conducted an intake interview with the mother
and as a social worker you were observing the way she behaves, talk, and laugh. This approach in studying
behavior is what we call?
58
a. Psychoanalytical
b. Behavioral
c. Humanistic
d. All of the above
205. Jenny's room is always a mess and her mother often nags here for this behavior. Irritated with her,
constant nagging. Jenny decided to clean her room so she would not hear her mother's grating voice
anymore. Jenny modifies here undesirable behavior due to what type of reinforcement.
a. Shaping
b. Time out
c. Positive reinforcement
d. Negative reinforcement
206. The core of observational learning as
espoused by Bandura is .
a. Attention
b. Retention
c. Modelling
d. Persuasion
207. Justice, beauty, goodness are examples of
a. Basic needs
b. Meta-needs or growth needs
c. Hierarchy of needs
d. Deficiency needs
208. I was thinking of a friend in New Zealand and have a strong desire to call her. When I picked up the
phone, she was at the other end of the line. She said she was thinking of me and was also trying to reach
me. Jung called this occurrence of two events not linked causally but meaningfully related as the principle
of .
a. Entropy
b. Equivalence
c. opposites
d. synchronicity
59
209. Concerning pure extroversion and pure introversion, it is most accurate to say
a. a person is either one or the other.
b. most people fall somewhere between these extremes.
c. these terms were coined by the famous Swiss psychologist, Gordon Allport.
d. they represent basic physical traits.
210. Which personality theorist strongly rejected Sigmund Freud's claim that males are dominant or
superior to females?
a. Alfred Adler
b. Karen Horney
c. Carl Jung
d. Erich Fromm
211. You have been working with a client who has been describing a behavior which causes them to feel
uncomfortable, distressed, and burdened. According the tenets of Ego psychology, this type of behavior
would be BEST described as...
a. Ego Synthesis
b. Ego Dystonic
c. Ego Syntonic
d. Ego Harmonic
212. Which of the following does NOT describe stagnation in stage 7?
a. People who cannot form real friendships with others
b. People who are self-centered
c. Young parents who cannot take care of their children
d. People who are afraid of death
213. You have accepted a position working in a sheltered workshop. You will be trained by the last social
worker before she leaves her post for a new job. The workshop is specifically designed to help individuals
suffering from a
60
developmental delay. You would expect the social worker training you to us a primarily focused on a
behavioral approach. Of the following interventions, which would she be LEAST LIKELY to use to train you?
a. Provide positive reinforcement to strengthen enhance work performance
b. Assess current familial relationships
c. Create a performance contract with the client
d. Review a new client's past workplace behavior
214. The developmental tasks of self-evaluation and skill learning are associated with what life stage?
a. toddlerhood 2-4 yrs
b. early childhood 4-6 yrs
c. middle school 6-12 yrs
d. early adolescence 12-18 yrs
215. Parents of a 4-year old are referred to a social worker after a physical exam reveals no physical
problem preventing the child from being toilet trained. The parents reveal that the child has not been able
to separate from them to attend nursery school and he sleeps with them most nights. The most important
area to focus on in the assessment phase is the:
a. parents use of rewards and punishments with the child
b. early developmental and family history of each parent
c. parents understanding of the child's developmental processes
d. ways in which the child interferes with the parents own relationship
Sara goes to bed extremely late every night and this has an effect on her school Performance, which level
does this reflect?
a. Self-actualization
61
b. Self-esteem
c. Physiological
d. Safety
217. The major goal of behavioral treatment of depression reflects the view that depression is the result of
a. role confusion
b. negative cognition
c. poor interpersonal skills
d. absence of positive reinforcement
218. The view that learning takes place through observation and that new responses are acquired through
the process of imitating models is associated with
a. cognitive behaviorism
b. operant conditioning
c. social learning
d. classic conditioning
219. Mrs. Bride Chicken asks for help with her 6- year old daughters frequent temper tantrums. The
tantrums often occur when shopping. When the child sees something she wants she screams and kicks
until her mother gives her the item. When asked how she responds, Mrs. Bride Chicken says she usually
gives in to avoid being embarrassed. Which behavior principle is demonstrated?
a. The child is negatively reinforcing mother's compliance with the child's demands
b. The child is positively reinforcing mother's giving in
c. Mother is negatively reinforcing the child's behavior
d. Mother is positively reinforcing the child's behavior
220. Maslow believed that basic needs should be met in order to move to a higher level.
62
a. True
b. False
c. More true than false
d. More false than true
221. People who achieve a sense of integrity...
a. Consolidate a sense of self
b. Want to make personal changes
c. Treat themselves as the most important person in the world
d. Sink into despair
222. Psychoanalytic psychology focuses mainly on
a. rewards and punishments
b. Self-esteem and self-actualization
c. Internal conflict and unconscious desires
d. Sensation and Perception
223. "Give me a dozen healthy infants and my own special world to bring me up in, and I'll guarantee to
take any one at random and train him to become any type of specialist, lawyer, doctor..." what
psychological approach would support this statement?
a. Cognitive
b. Structural
c. Behavioral
d. Psychoanalytic
224. The idea that psychology is not based on scientific fact or human shortcomings but instead should
focus on human experience is the basis for which psychological approach.
a. Cognitive psychology
b. Structuralism
c. Behaviorism
d. Humanism
225. Clients who work for their therapists to explore their past to discover the source of their illness would be
seeking what type of therapy?
a. Psychoanalytic
b. Humanist
63
c. Cognitive
d. Eclectic
226. Psychodynamic psychology focuses mainly on which of the following?
a. Free will and self-actualization
b. Experiments in controlled settings
c. The collective unconscious
d. Thoughts, impulses and desires beyond the conscious being
227. Of the following approaches to
understanding behavior, which is most likely going to focus on the way that adults process information?
a. Biological
b. Cognitive
c. Psychodynamic
d. Humanistic
228. What is the difference between cognitive psychology and behavioral psychology?
a. Behavioral psychology deals with reinforcement and punishment, while cognitive psychology deals with
information processing
b. Cognitive psychology focuses only on observable behavior, while behavioral psychology focuses on internal
processes
c. Both focus on observable behavior; there is no difference
d. Cognitive psychology focuses only on the ego, while behavioral focuses on the id
229. Of the following approaches to psychology,
which area would be most concerned with the idea that people strive toward self-actualization?
a. Biological
b. Cognitive
c. Psychodynamic
d. Humanistic
64
230. Those who believe that the key to understanding behavior is to understand the role of the
environment in shaping organisms are called?
a. Cognitive psychologists
b. Humanistic psychologists
c. Developmental psychologists
d. Behavioral psychologists
231. According to operant conditioning, the
of behavior are the best predictor of
whether or not that behavior is performed again.
a. Derivatives
b. Consequences
c. Antecedents
d. Causes
232. Social Change is:
a. The process of planned alterations in social phenomena
b. The process of unplanned alterations in social phenomena
c. The process of planned and unplanned alterations in social phenomena
d. None of the above
233. The study of various social change theories helps social workers:
a. Accept existing social realities
b. Analyze existing social realities
c. Analyze existing realities and identify possibilities for transformative actions
d. None of the above
234. Toennies described the evolution of society from
a. Gemeinschaft to Gesselschaft
b. Gesselschaft to Gemeinschaft
c. Gemeinschaft to universal Gemeinschaft
d. None of the above
65
235. Which Theory believes the capitalist society rules all?
a. Marxist
b. Feminist
c. Functionalist
d. Post Modern
236. We inherit a social position because of the family background and reputation of our parents and
siblings.
a. Conflict view
b. Feminist view
c. Functionalist view
d. Interactionist view
237. The abolition of restrictions that impede market entry or competition or capital flows and investments
is associated with.
a. Privatization
b. Deregulation
c. Social protection
d. Individual responsibility
238. Sociological perspective that focuses on the power relationships within the family, the family's role in
perpetuating social inequality, and the dominance of men over women:
a. Functionalist
b. Conflict
c. Symbolic interaction
d. None of the above
239. Philippine government moves to attract
foreign investments are related to the
adaptation of:
a. Social democracy
b. Postmodernism
c. Neoliberalism
d. All of the above
240. Marginalization of women is manifestation of
a. Gender inequality
b. Gender oppression
c. Structural oppression
d. All of the above
66
241. Which is the most appropriate statement?
a. Economic growth is the goal of social development
b. Modernization of society is the goal of social development
c. Promoting free trade is the goal of social development
d. Improving/enhancing the quality of life of
all people is the goal of social
development
242. What are the three stages of social movements?
a. Emergence, convergence and
institutionalization
b. Conception, expansion and routinization
c. Emergence, coalescence and
bureaucratization
d. Conception, adaptation and coalescence
243. According to , collective action happens
when people with similar ideas and tendencies gather in the same place.
a. Resource-mobilization theory
b. Convergence theory
c. Emergent norm theory
d. Contagion theory
244. Postmodernity is characterized by .
a. the notion that history is driven by
clashes between opposing forces
b. a questioning of the power and relevance of social movement organizations
c. great cultural conflict that leads to social isolation and stagnation
d. a questioning of the notion that society is always progressing forward, building on its knowledge and
inventions of the past to create a better future
245. Residents of a small city learn that a big-box retailer is considering opening a new store near their
community. Some people are in favor of the development because they think it will bring
67
more jobs and lower prices; others are against it because they think it will hurt local businesses and create
traffic headaches. Advocates on each side of the issue organize to promote their point of view—they hang
banners and signs around town, they write letters to local officials and the local newspaper, they make
presentations at community meetings, and they conduct research about how such stores have impacted
similar communities. All of this is an example of which type of social movement organization?
a. A professional movement organization
b. A reformative organization
c. A mass protest organization
d. A grassroots organization
246. Which of the following is an example of a reformative social movement?
a. a movement that encourages individuals
to return to a simpler way of life, including renouncing the use of
technology such as cars and phones and growing food and other items to provide the necessities of life
b. a movement by an oppressed majority in a country to overthrow the government and create a more
equitable society
c. a movement that promotes a switch from standard incandescent light bulbs to energy-saving compact
fluorescent bulbs in all American households
d. a movement to get people who wear clothing items made with animal fur to switch to products made with
synthetic fur
247. After several years of rising crime and hooliganism among teenagers in a particular city, citizens of the
city band together to create more opportunities for recreational activities, jobs, and leadership training for
young people. This is an example of what type of social movement?
68
a. reformative social movement
b. alternative social movement
c. revolutionary social movement
d. redemptive social movement
248. What is the Social- conflict approach (Marx)?
a. Refers to the particular experience of African Americans where in which they are forced to see themselves
their status as citizens who are never able to escape identification based on the color of their skin
b. Is the ability to "think ourselves away" from the familiar routine in order to see things from a different,
more sociological perspective
c. Says the organization of society (stratifications based on class, ethnicity, gender, age, etc.) and the changes
in society can be explained by the conflicts inherent to social relations.
d. Is a theory that focuses on the social structures that shape society as a whole. It sees society as a complex
system whose parts work together to maintain stability and to promote solidarity.
249. Evolutionary theories:
a. Focus on how societies adapt to changes in the environment over time
b. Focus on how societies resist changes over time
c. Focus on identifying successive stages in the progress of the societies
d. All of the above
250. For Parsons, indicative of modernity are
a. Affectivity and collective orientation
b. Particularism and ascription
c. Diffuseness and affectivity
d. Universalism and achievement

69
Answer Key

1. A 41. 81. A 121.

A D
2. B 42. 82. C 122.
C B
3. C 43. 83. B 123.
C D
4. B 44. 84. A 124.
D B
5. A 45. 85. A 125.
C C
6. C 46. 86. C 126.
D C
7. A 47. 87. D 127.
D D
8. D 48. 88. D 128.
B C
9. D 49. 89. B 129.
A A
10. 50. 90. D 130.
D C A
11. 51. 91. A 131.
D C B
12. 52. 92. D 132.
A D C
13. 53. 93. B 133.
C B C
14. 54. 94. D 134.
D C C
15. 55. 95. B 135.
C C B
16. 56. 96. A 136.
A D D
17. 57. 97. A 137.
B C C
18. 58. 98. C 138.
A B B
19. 59. 99. D 139.
D D D
20. 60. 100. 140.
B D D B
21. 61. 101. 141.
B D A C
22. 62. 102. 142.
B C D B
23. 63. 103. 143.
B B C C
24. 64. 104. 144.
D A B D
25. 65. 105. 145.
C A B C
26. 66. 106. 146.
B B B A
27. 67. 107. 147.
A A C C
28. 68. 108. 148.
A D C D
29. 69. 109. 149.
C D A B
30. 70. 110. 150.
A B B C
31. 71. 111. 151.
B B B C
32. 72. 112. 152.
D A B C
33. 73. 113. 153.
B B A C
34. 74. 114. 154.
D B A D
35. 75. 115. 155.
D B A A
36. 76. 116. 156.
B A C D
37. 77. 117. 157.
B C D B
38. 78. 118. 158.
A D D D
39. 79. 119. 159.
C D D B
40. 80. 120. 160.
A C A C

70

161. 185. 209. 233.

B D A C
162. 186. 210. 234.
D C B A
163. 187. 211. 235.
B B B A
164. 188. 212. 236.
A A D C
165. 189. 213. 237.
C C B B
166. 190. 214. 238.
C C C B
167. 191. 215. 239.
B C C C
168. 192. 216. 240.
D D C D
169. 193. 217. 241.
B D D D
170. 194. 218. 242.
A B C C
171. 195. 219. 243.
D B D B
172. 196. 220. 244.
A D A D
173. 197. 221. 245.
C D A D
174. 198. 222. 246.
A D C C
175. 199. 223. 247.
C A C B
176. 200. 224. 248.
A C D C
177. 201. 225. 249.
B C A C
178. 202. 226. 250.
C C D D
179. 203. 227.
C B B
180. 204. 228.
A B A
181. 205. 229.
D D D
182. 206. 230.
A C D
183. 207. 231.
B B A
184. 208. 232.
C D C

71
ANSWER SHEET

72
ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
75

HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND SOCIAL ENVIRONMENT PART 2

1. The terrorist who hi-jacked that airplane that purposely crashed towards the twin towers in New York in
the 9/11 incident is considered as what forms of suicide?
a. Anomic
b. Altruistic
c. Egoistic
d. Mechanistic
2. This theory of deviance argued that criminal behavior is learned in the same way that all the other
behaviors are learned is called?
a. Social integration
b. Social deregulation
c. Social regulation
d. Differential association
3. The techniques and strategies for regulating behavior in society is called?
a. Group processes
b. Social control
c. Structure
d. Acculturation
4. A single-mother who resorts to prostitution to be able to provide for their needs such as sending them to
school is considered as what type of adaptation according to Merton?
a. Ritualism
b. Retreatism
c. Innovation
d. Rebellion
5. According to Merton, mental illness, drug addiction and alcoholism may be forms of social
a. Ritualism
b. Retreatism
c. Innovation
d. Rebellion
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6. A rank-and-file employee in one of the line agencies of the government who was suspended due to
malversation of public funds reasoned out that he should not be penalized for his act because their
Division Head is also doing the same crime and even on a larger scale. What type of rationalization is he
utilizing?
a. Denial of the victim
b. Appear to the higher loyalties
c. Condemnation of the condemners
d. Denial of injury
7. The state or situation which some sectors of the population are unable to participate and contribute to the
development process.
a. Manipulation
b. Marginality
c. Maturation
d. Motivation
8. A behavioral pattern of compulsive substance use, securing of its supply and a high tendency to relapse
after withdrawal.
a. Adaptation
b. Adjustment
c. Addiction
d. Ageism
9. Failure to conform to customary norms of society.
a. Decentralization (devolution)
b. Deviation
c. Displacement
d. Devolution
10. The utilization of other persons for selfish ends.
a. Emotional disturbance
b. Empathy
c. Empowerment
d. Exploitation
11. This perspective of deviance focus on the consciousness and the mind of the individual as
78
opposed to the institutions from where the norms come from?
a. Structural functional
b. Symbolic interactionism
c. Power-conflict
d. Chicago
12. According to Merton's Strain theory, this is the type of adaptation utilized by individuals who rejects both
the cultural goals and institutionalized but at the same time seeks to redefine new values for the society.
a. Ritualism
b. Retreatism
c. Rebellion
d. Innovation
13. This perspective of deviance posits that deviation are not deviant by nature but are caused when
institutions arbitrarily institute particular prescriptions or proscriptions
a. Symbolic-interactionism
b. Structural-functionalism
c. Chicago
d. Conflict
14. An unemployed husband who resorted to
snatching bags was caught by the police. The man explained that he was already desperate because his wife is
in the hospital and was declared by the doctors to be in critical condition hence need to undergo operation.
What type of rationalization is this?
a. Denial of victim
b. Denial of injury
c. Denial of responsibility
d. Appeal to higher loyalties
15. A person who shows personality
disorganizations when confronted with trying
situations and difficulties of life.
a. psychotic
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b. psychoneurotic
c. neurotic
d. all of the above
16. Homosexuals, rapists, swindlers, drug addicts manifest psychiatric disorders classified as:
a. psychotic
b. psychoneurotic
c. sociopathic or antisocial
d. pathologically sexual
17. These are severe mental diseases resulting from disintegration of the personality.
a. psychoses
b. neuroses
c. anti-social behaviors
d. none of the above
18. These are the temperaments of
SOMATOTONIA.
a. Assertive and vigorous
b. Energetic
c. Love privacy
d. All of these except c
19. What is the physique of a person with
CEREBRATONIA temperament?
a. Endomorphy
b. Ectomorphy
c. Mesomorphy
d. None of these
20. According to Merton, this is an adaptation wherein the goals or/and means are replaced by other goals
and/or means. If he acts within the means to fulfilling a goal, he does so for reasons that have nothing to
do with the goals of the society as a whole. He is playing his own game.
a. Ritualism
b. Rebellion
c. Innovation
d. Retreatism
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21. An adaptation according to Merton that is the typical successful hardworking person who both accepts the
goals of the society and has the means for obtaining those goals. This is an example of NON - anomie.
a. Rebellion
b. Innovation
c. Ritualism
d. Conformity
22. This adaptation according to Merton pertains to a person who has accepted the goals of the society but
does not have the ability to attain those goals. This person, then, creates a new way of obtaining the same
goals by different means. This is the most typical anomie.
a. Rebellion
b. Retreatism
c. Innovation
d. Ritualism
23. This theory explains the occurrence of deviance but is largely applicable to delinquency, youth crime and
suicide. The theory asserts that deviance is learned in the same way as conformity is learned in the process
of socialization, whereby one acquire norms, social roles and self-concept.
a. Conflict Theory
b. Control Theory
c. Conform Theory
d. Socialization Theory
24. This focuses on the heterogeneous nature of society and differential distribution of political and social
power. Groups, which have vested interest and possesses power work for rules and laws, particularly
those that serve their own interests, to be passed to the exclusion of others.
A. Conflict Theory
B. Control Theory
C. Structural Control theory
D. None of the choices
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25. These are important to the welfare of the people and their cherished values. They are based on ethical and
moral values, which are strongly held and emphasized
A. Laws
B. Mores
C. Folkways
D. Norms
26. A person who exhibits a behavior pattern of anxiety, inner tensions, restlessness, inadequacy, lack of
concentration and abnormal fears when confronted with trying situations and difficulties in life.
a. psychotic
b. psychoneurotic
c. sociopath
d. alcoholics
27. Conflict is always characterized by physical violence. This statement is...?
A. True
B. False
C. Sometimes true, sometimes false
D. None of the choices
28. These are closely related to emotional tensions, insecurity and feelings of inadequacy, self- centeredness
and display of exaggerated symptoms.
a. Gastro-intestinal and other metabolic diseases
b. Cardio-vascular diseases
c. Skin conditions and bone deformities
d. None of the above
29. It produces self-consciousness, loneliness, feelings of shame and rejection by others because of their
contagious nature.
a. Gastro-intestinal and other metabolic diseases
b. Cardio-vascular diseases
82
c. Venereal disease
d. Skin conditions and bone deformities
30. These diseases produce characteristic behavior patterns because of their threat to life, inability to continue
working, unfulfilled ambitions, and their accompanying pain and suffering.
a. Venereal disease
b. Gastro-intestinal and other metabolic diseases
c. Cardio-vascular diseases
d. Cancer and other diseases like tuberculosis and other injuries
31. A theory that sees society as built upon order, interrelation, and balance among parts as a means of
maintaining the smooth functioning of the whole.
a. Conflict theory
b. Symbolic Interactionism Theory
c. Structural-Functionalist Theory
d. Interactionist Theory
32. It sees social change as rapid, continuous, and inevitable as groups seek to replace each other in the social
hierarchy.
a. Conflict theory
b. Structural-Functionalist Theory
c. Symbolic Interactionism Theory
d. Interactionist Theory
33. This theory is based primarily on the works and ideas of George Mead and Charles Cooley. The basic idea
of this theory is that personality is a result of the interaction between individuals mediated by symbols or
in particular language.
A. Interactionist Approach
B. Symbolic Interactionism
C. Personality Interaction Theory
D. Symbolic Personality
83
34. This focuses on the heterogeneous nature of society and differential distribution of political and social
power. Groups, which have vested interest and possess power work for rules and laws, particularly those
that serve their own interests, to be passed to the exclusion of others.
a. Conflict Theory
b. Control Theory
c. Structural Control theory
d. None of the above
35. This theory sees the highly industrialized core nations as transferring only those narrow capabilities it
serves them to deliver.
a. Dependency
b. World Systems
c. Modernization
d. Conflict
36. In the critique of Marxist theory, crime
continues to exist in so-called
societies.
a. Capitalist
b. Socialist
c. Proletariat
d. None of the above
37. It is a voluntary, often spontaneous that is engaged in by a large number of people and typically violates
dominant group norms and values.
a. Social movement
b. Collectivity
c. Collective behavior
d. All of the above
38. It consists of the attitudes and beliefs communicated by ordinary citizens to decision makers.
a. Public opinion
b. public policy
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c. Polls & surveys
d. all of the above
39. This refers to the waged by those who seek total change society?
a. Resistance movement
b. revolutionary movement
c. Reform movement
d. revitalization movement
40. It is the first social system that the child knows and into which he/she grows and from it he/she must gain
familiarity with the basic roles as they are carried out in the society in which he/she lives.
a. Community
b. Church
c. Family
d. School
41. The process in which one internalizes the patterns of the group so that a distinct self- emerges unique to
the individual.
a. Social control
b. Institutions
c. Instinct
d. Socialization
42. According to Enriquez, this one is not included in the colonial accommodative surface value?
a. Hiya
b. Utang na loob
c. Pakikisama
d. Kagandahang loob
43. According to Enriquez, this is the value which is at the core of Filipino Psychology.
a. Karangalan
b. Katarungan
c. Kapwa
d. Kalayaan
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44. Rules of descent imply cultural norms which affiliate a person with a particular group of kinsfolk for certain
social purposes and services such as mutual assistance and regulation of marriage. This kind of descent
affiliates a person with a group of relatives related through both his / her parents.
a. Bilateral Descent
b. Bilocal Descent
c. Neolocal Descent
d. Avunculocal Descent
45. This kind of residence permits the newly married couple to reside independently of the parents either
groom or bride.
a. Avunculocal Residence
b. Neolocal Residence
c. Bilocal Residence
d. Bilateral Residence
46. LGBT, feminist, faith and the like are voluntary association which interaction may take place outside a
geographic context, they are classified as:
a. Political community
b. Functional community
c. Geographical community
d. Relational community
47. A type of small group which is short-term and are formed to accomplish specific goals and objectives, often
lead by professional who are appointed or elected to chair the group:
a. Mutual aid group
b. Task group
c. Therapy group
d. Self-help group
48. The following characterize a triad except for:
a. A social group with three members
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b. One member can act as mediator should the relationship between the two other become strained
c. Social interaction is more intense than in larger group because neither members shares the other's
attention with anyone else
d. At time, two of the three can pair up to press their views on the third, or two may intensify their
relationship, leaving the other left out.
49. A type of formal organization where people join not for income but to pursue some goals they think is
morally worthwhile. This is sometimes called voluntary associations which include community service
groups, as well as political parties and religious organizations:
a. Utilitarian organization
b. Coercive organization
c. Normative organization
d. Volunteer organization
50. Time-limited, closed to initial membership and created with the intent to empower a distressed population
through support, education about their condition and skill building exercises:
a. Self-help groups
b. Psychoeducational group
c. Therapy group
d. Mutual aid group
51. This type of feminism emphasizes women's oppression as part of structured inequality within a class-based
social system.
a. Liberal feminism
b. Marxist feminism
c. Radical Feminism
d. None of the above
52. Uses this approach to study the broad framework of social problem such as poverty,
87
homelessness, urban crime, to help comprehend the whole society, how it is organized and how it changes:
a. Sociology
b. Micro-analysis
c. Social work
d. Macro-analysis
53. Defined as an organized model rationally designed to perform task efficiently:
a. Organization
b. Democracy
c. Standards
d. Bureaucracy
54. Characterized by a larger in membership, less intimate and less long-lasting, tends to be less significant in
emotional life of people and members pursue specific goal or activity, involve weak emotional ties and
little personal knowledge of one another, this group is known as:
a. Primary group
b. Reference group
c. Secondary group
d. Therapy group
55. A principle of organization that is characterized by the number of people the manager controls, the
authority flows which is a clear unbroken line from top to bottom (hierarchical) and breaks down activities
into specialized group (departmentalization):
a. Span of control
b. Division of labor
c. Authority and responsibility
d. Unity of command
56. This refers to the links among members - who talks to whom, how information's is transmitted, whether
communication between members is direct or uses a go-between and assumes that
88
groups function more effectively when the members are able to use this easily and with competence:
a. Socialization
b. Communication networks
c. Social network
d. Communication style
57. Impersonal evaluation, according to set standards and monitors the performance, contrast with the
ancient custom of favoring relatives, whatever the talents, over strangers is an element of ideal
bureaucratic organization and this refers to:
a. Specialization
b. Rules and regulations
c. Hierarchy of positions
d. Technical competence
58. A function of community which facilitate the transmission of values, culture, beliefs and norms to new
community members:
a. Socialization
b. Mutual support
c. Social control
d. Providing for the participation of its residents
59. A type of group consisting of intimate, face to face interaction and relatively long-lasting relationships that
has a powerful influence on individual's personality and self-identity and gives people intimacy,
companionship and emotional support:
a. Primary group
b. Reference group
c. Secondary group
d. Therapy group
A type of group leadership that focuses on the group's well-being and take less interest in achieving goals than
in raising group morale and
89
minimizing tension and conflict among members.
a. Expressive leadership
b. Authoritarian leadership
c. Instrumental leadership
d. Laissez-faire leadership
61. The faceless bureaucrat where rules are put ahead of personal whim so that both clients and workers are
treated in the same way:
a. Impersonality
b. Hierarchy of positions
c. Formal
d. Rules and regulations
62. Classify community as a group of people living together in one place or a political jurisdiction:
a. Political community
b. Functional community
c. Geographical community
d. Relational community
63. This group develops in spontaneous manner on the basis of friendship, location or some natural
occurrence without external initiative, the members simply come together:
a. Formed group
b. Open group
c. Natural group
d. Closed group
64. Theory of group process which believes that members who have contributed successful suggestions for
task accomplishment in the past tend to carry more power and prestige within the group:
a. Power theory
b. Expectation states theory
c. Exchange theory
d. Status characteristics theory
90
65. Referred to as a collection of people working together in a coordinated and structured fashion to achieve
one or more goals or are social entitles that are designed as deliberately structures and coordinated
activity systems and are linked to the external environment:
a. Group
b. Community
c. Organization
d. Society
66. Patterns of relationship in this community are described to be more direct and personal, more total and
more significant and meaningful:
a. Gemeinshaft
b. Gesellshaft
c. Urban
d. Rural
67. Principle of organization which believes that no member of the organization should report to more than
one superior to ensure that conflicting demands are not received by the employee:
a. Span of control
b. Authority and responsibility
c. Division of labor
d. Unity of command
68. A feeling that members have sense of belonging, a feeling that members matter to one another and to the
group, and a shared faith that members' need will be met through their commitment to be together:
a. Sense of acceptance
b. Sense of camaraderie
c. Sense of loyalty
d. Sense of community
People bound either by geography or by network links, sharing common ties and interacting with one another
is called:
91
a. group
b. community
c. organization
d. society
70. A type of small group that is not professionally led, an informal leader may emerge in the group or
leadership may be rotated among membership, are often used as a supplement to professional treatment:
a. therapy group
b. self-help group
c. task group
d. psychoeducational group
71. A bureaucratic element that arrange workers in vertical ranking, each is supervised by someone "higher
up" in the organization while others in lower positions:
a. Specialization
b. Rules and regulations
c. Hierarchy of positions
d. Technical competence
72. Type of a group where those to which you may or may not belong, but you use as a standard for evaluating
your values, attitudes and behaviors:
a. Primary group
b. Reference group
c. Secondary group
d. Therapy group
73. This bureaucratic element counts cultural tradition for little, instead rationally enacted rules and
regulations guide a bureaucracy operation, in completely predictable way:
a. Specialization
b. Rules and regulations
c. Hierarchy of positions
d. Technical competence
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74. A collection of individuals who interact with one another, share common goals and norms, and have
subjective awareness as "we" is known as:
a. Crowd
b. Organization
c. Group
d. Community
75. A community perspective that focuses on social interaction rather than on the physical aspects of the
community:
a. Social action perspective
b. Systems perspective
c. Social network perspective
d. Social relation perspective
76. Patterns of relationship in this society are described to more formal or impersonal, more abstract and
more instrumental or utilitarian:
a. Gemeinshaft
b. Urban
c. Gesellshaft
d. Rural
77. Refers to social group with two members, viewed as unstable as both members of a must work to keep the
relationship working; if either withdraws, the group collapses
a. Peer
b. Dyads
c. Team
d. Triads
78. This theory or group reflect cultural beliefs that may be or may not be objectively true, merely assumed
that if people believe something is true, they will act as if it were true, thus it will tend to be true in its
consequences:
a. Power theory
b. Expectation states theory
c. Exchange theory
d. Status characteristics theory
93
79. The following are aspects of community structure, except for:
a. Pattern of interaction
b. Economic factors
c. Pattern of meanings
d. Political factors
80. A type of small group defined by an alliance of individuals who need each other, in varying degrees, to
work on certain problems:
a. Psychoeducational group
b. Self-help group
c. Therapy group
d. Mutual aid group
81. The objectivist conception of deviance defines deviance as:
a. Norm violating behavior
b. Labeling
c. Something identified as "device" by social audience
d. Associated with social disorganization
82. This view focuses on how sex differences between men and women are translated by cultural
assumptions into gender differences, which then affect social relations.
a. Liberal feminism
b. Marxist feminism
c. Radical Feminism
d. None of the above
83. This theory regulates behavior and thus lead to conformity and compliance of the rules of the society
a. Social Learning theory
b. System Theory
c. Social Control Theory
d. None of the above
94
84. In understanding human behavior, this theory states that crime is a learned behavior
a. Conflict theory
b. Social Learning theory
c. Chaos theory
d. None of the above
85. Based on who wields authority, the family of this type is one in which the husband and the wife exercise
more or less equal amount of authority
A. Egalitarian Family
B. Bilocal Family
C. Bilateral Family
D. Matricentric family
86. Factors that affect individual differences
a. Family
b. Social Environment
c. Culture
d. All of the above
87. This refers to relaxation of government restrictions in an industry
a. Liberalization
b. Deregulation
c. Privatization
d. None of the above
88. This is the hallmark of neuroses which is characterized by vague feelings of dread, fearfulness and
apprehension of anticipated future events.
a. Hostility
b. Aggression
c. Anxiety
 d. Depression
89.
A psychotic disorder or mood disorder characterized by a period of excited elation, agitation and
alternates with episodes of extreme sadness and hopelessness.
95
a. Affective disorder
b. Schizo-manic disorder
c. Manic-depressive disorder
d. Schizo-depressive disorder
90. This definition of deviance assumes that no act is inherently deviant, thus, it is not the act itself that is
deviant, but society's reaction to it that determines whether or not the act is deviant.
a. Natural law
b. Critical
c. Normative
d. Labeling
91. Edwin Lemert, a labeling theorist identified 2 types of deviance. A person who is involved in isolated case
of cheating for example, which is not regarded by the public as deviant, belongs to this category
a. Primary deviance
b. Secondary deviance
c. Positive deviance
d. Negative deviance
92. Ne-Yo Zep generally obeys his parents, is a good student in school and a good member of his community.
He believes in doing what is right and is concerned of the reaction of his parents, friends, teachers and
people in the community, thus, he refrains from doing negative activities that would ruin his good
reputation. What theory in deviant behavior could explain Ne-Yo Zep's behavior?
a. Social control
b. Social learning
c. Labeling
d. Cultural transmission
93. They tend to be rigid, with well-defined roles.
a. Open families
b. Enmeshed families
c. Closed families
d. Random families
96
94. The boundaries between some or all of the members are undifferentiated, permeable and fluid
a. Enmeshed families
b. Healthy family
c. Open families
d. None of the above
95. The boundary among family members is neither too rigid nor too diffuse
a. Closed families
b. Enmeshed families
c. Open families
d. Healthy family
96. It has to do with human interaction having to do with mutual aid or alliance of persons seeking for
common goal or reward.
a. competition
b. cooperation
c. accommodation
d. socialization
97. It is a form of emotionalized and violent opposition in which major concern is to overcome the opponent a
means of securing a given goal or reward.
a. cooperation
b. conflict
c. competition
d. none of the above
98. Refers to a process of conscious efforts of men or women to develop a working arrangements among
themselves so as to suspend conflict and make their relationships more tolerable
a. cooperation
b. accommodation
c. assimilation
d. amalgamation
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99. Known as a cultural fusion-a blending of values, attitudes and beliefs.
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. amalgamation
d. acculturation
100. Which of these statements does not describe accurate criteria for PTSD, as described by the DSM-5?
a. Persistent avoidance of memories, thoughts, feelings, or external reminders associated with the traumatic
event(s) lasting for more than one month.
b. Exposure to serious injury, sexual violence, or threatened or actual death lasting more than one month.
c. The presence of memories, dreams, or dissociated reactions that are involuntary, intrusive, distressing,
and recurrent lasting for more than one month.
d. Negative, distorted, or exaggerated, beliefs, cognitions, or moods associated with the traumatic event that
lasts for more than one month.
101. Jamie, while meeting with the psychologist, states that she has been experiencing frequent panic
attacks brought on by feelings of anxiety in social situations. The feelings of fear and anxiety are strongest
whenever she is alone in a large crowd or in public spaces where there is no easily identifiable exits in case
of an emergency. Jamie could be exhibiting symptoms of which of these disorders?
a. Agoraphobia
b. Panic disorder
c. Social anxiety disorder
d. Generalized anxiety disorder
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102. Which of the following information must be included for the family of a client diagnosed with
dependent personality disorder?
a. Address coping skills
b. Explore panic attacks
c. Promote exercise programs
d. Decrease aggressive outbursts
103. In planning care for a client with borderline personality disorder, a worker must be aware that this
client is prone to develop which of the following conditions?
a. Binge eating
b. Memory loss
c. Cult membership
d. Delusional thinking
104. A client with a diagnosis of narcissistic personality disorder has been given a day pass from the
psychiatric hospital. The client is due to return at 6pm. At 5pm the client telephones the worker in charge
of the unit and says "6 o'clock is too early. I feel like coming back at 7:30." The worker would be most
therapeutic by telling the client to:
a. Return immediately, to demonstrate control
b. Return on time or restrictions will be imposed
c. Come back at 6:45, as a compromise to set limits
d. Come back as soon as possible or the police will be sent
105. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the unit after slashing his wrist. Which of the
following goals is most important after promoting safety?
a. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
b. Identify whether splitting is present in the client's thoughts
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c. Talk about the client's acting out and self-destructive tendencies.
d. Encourage the client to understand why he blames others
106. A worker notices other clients on the unit avoiding a client diagnosed with antisocial personality
disorder. When discussing appropriate behavior in group therapy, which of the following comments is
expected about this client by his peers?
a. Lack of honesty
b. Belief in superstitions
c. Show of temper tantrums
d. Constant need for attention
107. A client with a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder has negative feelings toward the other
clients on the unit and considers them all to be "bad." The worker understands this defense is known as:
a. Splitting
b. Ambivalence
c. Passive aggression
d. Reaction formation
108. The client with antisocial personality disorder:
a. Suffers from a great deal of anxiety
b. Is generally unable to postpone gratification
c. Rapidly learns by experience and punishment
d. Has a great sense of responsibility toward others
109. A worker discusses job possibilities with a client with schizoid personality disorder. Which suggestion
by the worker would be helpful?
a. "You can work in a family restaurant part-time on the weekend and holidays."
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b. "Maybe your friend could get you that customer service job where you work only on the weekends."
c. "Your idea of applying for the position of filing and organizing records is worth pursuing."
d. "Being an introvert limits the employment opportunities you can pursue."
110. Which of the following statements is typical for a client diagnosed with a personality disorder?
a. "I understand you're the one to blame."
b. "I must be seen first; it's not negotiable."
c. "I see nothing humorous in this
situation."
d. "I wish someone would select the outfit for me."
111. Which of the following statements is
expected from a client with borderline
personality disorder with a history of dysfunctional relationships?
a. "I won't get involved in another
relationship."
b. "I'm determined to look for the perfect partner."
c. "I've decided to use better communication skills."
d. "I'm going to be an equal partner in a relationship."
112. Which of the following characteristics or
client histories substantiates a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder?
a. Delusional thinking
b. Feelings of inferiority
c. Disorganized thinking
d. Multiple criminal charges
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113. Which of the following types of behavior is expected from a client diagnosed with a paranoid
personality disorder?
a. Eccentric
b. Exploitative
c. Hypersensitive
d. Seductive
114. A worker is orienting a new client to the unit when another client rushes down the hallway and asks
the worker to sit down and talk. The client requesting the worker's attention is extremely manipulative and
uses socially acting- out behaviors when demands are unmet. The worker should:
a. Suggest that the client requesting attention speak with another staff member
b. Leave the new client and talk with the other client to avoid precipitating acting out behavior
c. Tell the interrupting client to sit down and be client, stating, "I'll be back as soon as possible."
d. Introduce the two clients and suggest that the client join the new client and the worker on the tour
115. Which of the following conditions is likely to coexist in clients with a diagnosis of borderline personality
disorder?
a. Avoidance
b. Delirium
c. Depression
d. Disorientation
116. Which of the following behaviors by a client with dependent personality disorder shows the client has
made progress toward the goal of increasing problem solving skills?
a. The client is courteous
b. The client asks questions
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c. The client stops acting out
d. The client controls emotions
117. A person with antisocial personality disorder has difficulty relating to others because of never having
learned to:
a. Count on others
b. Empathize with others
c. Be dependent on others
d. Communicate with others socially
118. A worker notices that a client is mistrustful and shows hostile behavior. Which of the following types of
personality disorder is associated with these characteristics?
a. Antisocial
b. Avoidant
c. Borderline
d. Paranoid
119. A young, handsome man with a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder is being discharged from
the hospital next week. He asks the worker for her phone number so that he can call her for a date. The
worker's best response would be:
a. "We are not permitted to date clients."
b. "No, you are a client and I am a worker."
c. "I like you, but our relationship is professional."
d. "It's against my professional ethics to date clients."
120. Which of the following characteristics is expected for a client with paranoid personality disorder who
receives bad news?
a. The client is overly dramatic after hearing the facts
b. The client focuses on self to not become over-anxious
c. The client responds from a rational, objective point of view
d. The client doesn't spend time thinking about the information.
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121. A worker is assessing a client diagnosed with dependent personality disorder. Which of the following
characteristics is a major component to this disorder?
a. Abrasive to others
b. Indifferent to others
c. Manipulative of others
d. Over reliance on others
122. A 20-year old college student has been brought to the psychiatric hospital by her parents. Her
admitting diagnosis is borderline personality disorder. When talking with the parents, which information
would the worker expect to be included in the client's history? Select all that apply.
I. Impulsiveness
II. Lability of mood
III. psychomotor retardation
IV. Self-destructive behavior
Choices:
a. I and II c. I, II and IV
b. I, II and III d. II, III and IV
123. Which of the following assessment findings is seen in a client diagnosed with borderline personality
disorder?
a. Abrasions in various healing stages
b. Intermittent episodes of hypertension
c. Alternating tachycardia and bradycardia
d. Mild state of euphoria with disorientation
124. A hospitalized client, diagnosed with a borderline personality disorder, consistently breaks the unit's
rules. This behavior should be confronted because it will help the client:
a. Control anger
b. Reduce anxiety
c. Set realistic goals
d. Become more self-aware
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125. Which of the following characteristics or situations is indicated when a client with borderline
personality disorder has a crisis?
a. Antisocial behavior
b. Suspicious behavior
c. Relationship problems
d. Auditory hallucinations
126. A client with antisocial personality is trying to convince a worker that he deserves special privileges and
that an exception to the rules should be made for him. Which of the following responses is the most
appropriate?
a. "I believe we need to sit down and talk about this."
b. "Don't you know better than to try to bend the rules?"
c. "What you're asking me to do is unacceptable."
d. "Why don't you bring this request to the community meeting?"
127. A client with schizotypal personality disorder is sitting in a puddle of urine. She's playing in it, smiling,
and softly singing a child's song. Which action would be best?
a. Admonish the client for not using the bathroom
b. Firmly tell the client that her behavior is unacceptable
c. Ask the client if she's ready to get cleaned up now
d. Help the client to the shower, and change the bedclothes.

128. When working with the worker during the orientation phase of the relationship, a client with a
borderline personality disorder would probably have the most difficulty in:
a. Controlling anxiety
b. Terminating the session on time
c. Accepting the psychiatric diagnosis
d. Setting mutual goals for the relationship
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129. When caring for a client with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder, the worker should:
a. Set limits on manipulative behavior
b. Encourage participation in group therapy
c. Respect the client's needs for social isolation
d. Understand that seductive behavior is expected.
130. Which of the following nursing interventions has priority for a client with borderline personality
disorder?
a. Maintain consistent and realistic limits
b. Give instructions for meeting basic self- care needs
c. Engage in daytime activities to stimulate wakefulness
d. Have the client attend group therapy on a daily basis
131. A worker at Workerslabs Medical Center is developing a care plan for a female client with post-
traumatic stress disorder. Which of the following would she do initially?
a. Instruct the client to use distraction techniques to cope with flashbacks.
b. Encourage the client to put the past in proper perspective.
c. Encourage the client to verbalize thoughts and feelings about the trauma.
d. Avoid discussing the traumatic event with client.
132. A group of community workers sees and plans care for various clients with different types of problems.
Which of the following clients would they consider the most vulnerable to post- traumatic stress disorder?
a. An 8-year-old boy with asthma who has recently failed a grade in school
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b. A 20-year-old college student with DM who experienced date rape
c. A 40-year-old widower who has recently lost his wife to cancer
d. A wife of an individual with a severe substance abuse problem
133. Which outcome is most appropriate for Francis who has a dissociative disorder?
a. Francis will deal with uncomfortable emotions on a conscious level.
b. Francis will modify stress with the use of relaxation techniques.
c. Francis will identify his anxiety responses.
d. Francis will use problem-solving strategies when feeling stressed.
134. The psychiatric worker uses cognitive- behavioral techniques when working with a client who
experiences panic attacks. Which of the following techniques are common to this theoretical framework?
Select all that apply.
a. Helping the client to use controlled relaxation breathing
b. Helping the client examine evidence of stressors
c. Questioning the client about early childhood relationships
d. Teaching the client about anxiety and panic
135. Anne Bajo only attends social events when a family member is also present. She exhibits behavior typical
of which anxiety disorder?
a. Agoraphobia
b. Generalized anxiety disorder
c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. Post-traumatic stress disorder
136. Mr. Dingdong Dentist is newly admitted to a Psychiatric unit because of severe obsessive
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compulsive behavior. Which initial response by the worker would be most therapeutic for him?
a. Accepting the client's ritualistic behaviors
b. Challenging the client's need for rituals
c. Expressing concern about the harmfulness of the client's rituals
d. Limiting the client's rituals that are excessive
137. Victoria Malihim is a client with a fear of air travel. She is being treated in a mental institution for
phobic disorder. The treatment method involves systematic desensitization. The worker would consider
the treatment successful if:
a. Victoria Malihim plans a trip requiring air travel.
b. Victoria Malihim takes a short trip in an airplane.
c. Victoria Malihim recognizes the
unrealistic nature of the fear of riding on airplanes.
d. Victoria Malihim verbalizes a decreased fear about air travel.
138. The psychoanalytic theory explains the
etiology of anorexia nervosa as:
a. the achievement of secondary gain
through control of eating.
b. a conflict between mother and child over separation and individualization.
c. family dynamics that lead to
enmeshment of members.
d. the incorporation of thinness as an ideal body image.
139. Oliver Orongsolong has observed a co-
worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Oliver would best
ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
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a. Ignore the co-worker's behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
b. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
c. Report the coworker's behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
d. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
140. Ursula Tinamisan is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the worker that she only
uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense
mechanism is the client using?
a. Compensation
b. Denial
c. Suppression
d. Undoing
141. Lolita Magtanan recommends that the family
of a client with substance-related disorder
attend a support group, such as Al Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members
understand the problem and to:
a. change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
b. learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
c. maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
d. prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
142. Malou Ang, the sister of a client with a
substance-related disorder, tells the worker that she calls out her sick sister Lulu Ang occasionally when the
latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
a. caretaking.
b. codependent.
c. helpful.
d. supportive.
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143. A client tends to be insensitive to others, engages in abusive behaviors and does not have a sense of
remorse. Which personality disorder is he likely to have?
a. Narcissistic
b. Paranoid
c. Histrionic
d. Antisocial
144. A teenage girl is diagnosed to have borderline personality disorder. Which manifestations support the
diagnosis?
a. Lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs and impulsive behavior
b. Social withdrawal, inadequacy, sensitivity to rejection and criticism
c. Suspicious, hypervigilance and coldness
d. Preoccupation with perfectionism, orderliness and need for control
145. Five months after the incident the client complains of difficulty to concentrate, poor appetite, inability
to sleep and guilt. She is likely suffering from:
a. Adjustment disorder
b. Somatoform Disorder
c. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d. Post traumatic disorder
146. Anxiety is caused by:
a. an objective threat
b. a subjectively perceived threat
c. hostility turned to the self
d. masked depression
147. Which factors are associated with the development of post-traumatic stress disorder?
a. Anxiety and low self-esteem.
b. Distorted and negative cognitive
functioning.
c. Excess serotonin and norepinephrine levels.
d. Severity of the stressor and availability of support systems.
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148. Deviance refers to
a. A trait
b. A behavior or action
c. Something that is always a crime
d. Both A and B
149. In regard to the function of deviance and society, what does Durkheim argue will happen if we
eliminate all serious crime?
a. We will eliminate the need for a criminal justice system
b. People will continue to disagree about what is deviant
c. We will live in a utopia that is completely free from all deviance
d. Society will criminalize less serious action
150. Mitch, who is very muscular and active, engages in criminal activity. What somatotype would he fit,
according to William Sheldon?
a. Endomorph
b. Ectomorph
c. Mesomorph
d. Sonomorph
151. A person who chooses to commit crime after strategically assessing the risks and rewards is best
described by
a. Rational Choice Theory
b. Psychodynamic Theory
c. Life Course Theory
d. Social Disorganization Theory
152. Twelve-year-old Claudine Burrito is allowed to drink alcohol at home with her parents. Learning from
these experiences, Claudine then drinks when at her friends' houses. Which theory best explains her
drinking behaviors?
a. Differential Association Theory
b. Neutralization Theory
c. Social Control Theory
d. Strain Theory
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153. Katy Payrin admitted committing a crime. She said that she did it to help out a close friend. According
to Sykes and Matza, what technique of neutralization is represented?
a. Denial of responsibility
b. Denial of injury
c. Condemnation of the condemners
d. Appeal to higher loyalties
154. Boston has recently had a high turnover of residents who lack bonds to the community. Which theory
assumes this will lead to crime in the area?
a. Social disorganization theory
b. Strain theory
c. Delinquent subculture theory
d. Integrated theory
155. Beastly Spears has a poor relationship with her parents, has no goals for the future, and participates in
few extracurricular activities. Which theory assumes this can lead to deviance?
a. Labeling theory
b. Self-control theory
c. Social control theory
d. Conflict theory
156. When a person is labeled deviant and then commits a second crime because of this label, the series of
behaviors is termed
a. the dramatization of evil
b. primary deviance
c. secondary deviance
d. evilization
157. Which conflict theory would endorse a campaign for equal rights and equal pay for women for the sake
of reducing criminality?
a. Marxist criminology
b. Peacemaking criminology
c. Paternal criminology
d. Feminist criminology
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158. A crime reduction program that assists young people in acquiring an education so they can better
accomplish their goals without turning to illegal means would likely be based on
a. Subculture theory
b. Strain theory
c. Psychodynamic theory
d. Peacemaking theory
159. In a first interview, a worker observes that the client moves slowly, with stooped posture, talks slowly
and in a lifeless way, lacks spontaneity, and shows little change in facial expression as they discuss the
client's problem. The worker would most likely suspect
a. depression
b. a manic stage
c. anxiety
d. delusional thinking
160. These are the traditional customs, beliefs, dances, songs, tales or sayings preserved orally and
unreflectively among a group or people.
a. Customs
b. Folklore
c. Folkways
d. Values
161. Groups that are tasked to formulate rules and regulations
a. work groups
b. ad-hoc group
c. legislative group
d. sectoral group
162. Task force is an example of
a. work group
b. legislative group
c. mediating group
d. problem-solving group
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163. Group formed to influence the course of event in society
a. legislative group
b. problem-solving group
c. work group
d. social action group
164. Disaster management group is a kind of
a. social action group
b. work group
c. client group
d. problem solving group
165. Group to which individual identifies himself and gives a sense of belonging
a. work group
b. in-group
c. social group
d. informal group
166. This is the intermarriage of persons coming from different ethnic group.
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. amalgamation
d. acculturation
167. A two-way process where society borrows from the culture of the other without losing its identity
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. amalgamation
d. acculturation
168. Resistance, negativistic, diagnosis and opposing beyond reason.
a. blocking
b. nitpicking
c. aggressing
d. monopolizing
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169. Magnifies and dwells on insignificant details at the expense of significant aspects of the problem.
a. withdrawing
b. blocking
c. nitpicking
d. aggressing
170. Expedites the accomplishment of the group goal by doing things for the group, keeping a record of the
meeting.
a. initiating
b. acting as procedural technician
c. compromising
d. consensus giving
171. Attempts to keep communication channels by ensuring that everyone is heard.
a. clarifying
b. gate keeping
c. opinion giving
d. tension reducing
172. Suggest or proposes new ideas or alternative ways of solving he group problem.
a. observing
b. following
c. opinion giving
d. initiating
173. Elaborates suggestions through examples.
a. following
b. supporting
c. clarifying
d. standard setting
174. Offers facts or generalization, states his beliefs, feeling or attitudes relative to the group task.
a. gate keeping
b. compromising
c. opinion seeking
d. opinion giving
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175. Deo Durant, calls for coffee breaks, plays at the appropriate time. This is called?
a. tension reducing
b. blocking
c. following
d. nitpicking
176. Attempts to reduce the status of others, belittles, disapproves, ridicules.
a. withdrawing
b. aggressing
c. tension reducing
d. sympathy seeking
177. Uses the audience opportunity provided by the group.
a. recognition
b. aggressing
c. observing
d. monopolizing
178. Makes a display of his lack of ability or interest and involvement in the group.
a. withdrawing
b. dominating
c. tolerating
d. nitpicking
179. The result of all forces acting on members to remain in a group:
a. group attraction
b. group cohesion
c. group solidarity
d. group unity
180. The process of influencing others for the purpose of performing a shared task. It requires that one
person direct, motivate and coordinate others in the group in order to accomplish assigned task
a. leadership
b. teamwork
c. coordination
d. authority
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181. An example exercise of this skill is when the worker prohibits the group from engaging in an activity that
will be harmful to them
a. guiding
b. enabling
c. limiting
d. controlling
182. Groups that enhance personal and interpersonal awareness and develop more effective interaction
patterns are called:
a. working groups
b. sensitivity groups
c. task groups
d. self-help groups
183. Social conditions that are permissive of a given sort of collective behavior.
a. precipitating factor
b. social control
c. Structural conduciveness
d. structural strain
184. The increasing appearance in rural and small-town areas of behavior patterns and cultural values
characteristically associated with big city life.
a. Urbanization
b. Industrialization
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
185. It refers to the norm of selecting a partner that indicates that one should marry with one's clan or
ethnic group.
a. Endogamy
b. Polyandry
c. Exogamy
d. Polygyny
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186. A newly divorced client discloses that she meets weekly with three other divorced women to "give
each other a little support and just have a little fun." This type of group would be called a:
a. Reference group
b. Primary group
c. Natural group
d. Task group
187. These are crimes committed by relatively affluent persons, often in the course of business activities.
a. Organized Crime
b. Violent Crime
c. White-Collar Crime
d. Victimless Crime
188. It refers to large-scale bureaucratic organizations that provide illegal goods and services in public
demand.
a. Organized Crime
b. Violent Crime
c. White-Collar Crime
d. Victimless Crime
189. Restricting the freedom of offenders so that they will be less able to commit further crimes.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Social Protection
c. Deterrence
d. Retribution
190. Attempting to reduce criminal activity by instilling a fear of punishment
a. Rehabilitation
b. Social Protection
c. Deterrence
d. Retribution
191. Taking into consideration that Social Theories specify how features of the social
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structure that is external to an individual produce observable patterns of drug-using behavior, how can the
Psychological Theories be defined?
A. drug use is an aberrant phenomenon afflicting otherwise healthy people
B. Emphasizes the orderly progression from one drug to another as young people get more involved in drug
use.
C. Believes that each individual has the right to use drugs as he/she sees fit and that society should have a
hands-off policy.
D. Examine the individual's personality and psychopathology to explain drug abuse as a maladaptive
behavior.
192. Acculturation can best be described as the process by which:
a. members of a culture group adopt the traits of a host society.
b. cultures become more alike as they share technology and organizational structures.
c. individuals or groups come to accept cultural innovation.
d. cultural practices and perspectives spread from one culture to other areas.
193. A primary group can best be defined as a group:
A. that is characterized by shared interests and interchangeability of roles.
B. in which two or more people interact in predictable ways.
C. that is characterized by face-to-face interaction and close emotional ties.
D. in which two or more people work together to achieve a goal.
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194. Functionalists would most likely argue that social stratification is universal because of the need to:
A. prevent low-status groups from disrupting the social status quo.
B. motivate qualified people to fill important positions in society.
C. preserve distinctions between low-status and high-status social groups.
D. regulate the pace and scope of social mobility in a society.
195. Sociologists influenced by conflict theory
would most likely endorse which of the following explanations of social control?
a. Establishment of a clearly understood
system of penalties and rewards is
necessary to maintain social order.
b. Social norms must be carefully
monitored if society is to function
smoothly.
c. Institutional maintenance of social order provides people the assurance they need to establish meaning in
their lives.
d. Sanctions benefit those in power by
contributing to the maintenance of
existing forms of social stratification.
196. Which of the following statements best
describes how deviance helps strengthen conformity in society?
a. Without deviance, there would be no need for agents of social control.
b. Deviant behavior obstructs movements promoting social change.
c. Responding to deviance clarifies boundaries between right and wrong.
d. Punishment of deviance affirms the legitimacy of political authority.
197. Beginning in the mid-eighteenth century, social changes took place that are associated
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today with the concept of modernity. Which of the following responses best describes a major consequence of
those changes?
a. the expansion of personal choice
b. the creation of cohesive communities
c. the enrichment of spiritual life
d. the decline of social stratification
198. How would functionalists explain deviance? Please choose from one of the following options.
a. Everyone is propelled toward deviance but most of us conform because of an effective system of social
control.
b. Societies socialize their members to desiring cultural goals, however, some are not able to achieve these
goals in socially acceptable ways. Deviants are people who give up on these goals or use unaccepted
means to attain them.
c. The group in power imposes its definitions of deviance on other groups, so "bad behavior" is really defined
by a set group of power elites in the justice system.
d. People learn to deviate by associating with others.
199. Individuals with clinically significant issues with hoarding often experience recurring disturbing thoughts
and fear that harm will come to them if they throw things away, even while recognizing that their fear may
be irrational. Which of the following terms best describes this phenomenon? Please choose from one of
the following options.
a. Compulsion
b. Delusion
c. Rumination
d. Obsession
Individuals diagnosed with OCD perform repetitive behaviors or actions to relieve the
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anxiety caused by their thoughts. Which of the following terms best describes this
phenomenon? Please choose from one of the following options.
a. Delusion
b. Addiction
c. Obsession
d. Compulsion
201. Winnie Kaldero has suffered from
schizophrenia since her early teens. She adopts the idea that she will never be able to hold a steady job or
have a family, so she finds life and mental illness more bearable when she gets high on high-strength pain
killers every day. This mode of adaptation is an example of?
a. Rebellion
b. Conformity
c. Ritualism
d. Retreatism
202. Which of the following statements regarding Conflict Theory is not true?
a. Karl Marx developed Conflict Theory
b. The class conflict was between the proletariat and the bourgeoisie
c. Conflict Theory focused on macrostructures
d. The proletariat own the means of production
203. Which theoretical tradition in sociology emphasizes that social life is only possible because people
attach meaning to things?
a. Symbolic Interactionism
b. Conflict Theory
c. Functionalism
d. Sociological Imagination
204. An example of someone who is deviant but not criminal is:
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a. Someone who steals a pack of gum at Walmart
b. Someone who has committed murder
c. Someone who regularly speeds (around 10 km over the speed limit)
d. None of the above
205. Raising eyebrows and gossip are examples of
a. informal punishment
b. formal punishment
c. stigma
d. none of the above
206. Lisa is negatively evaluated by her peers because she is 16 and pregnant. According to symbolic
interactionist contributions, Lisa is being
a. punished
b. shamed
c. ostracized
d. stigmatized
207. The chief distinguishing feature of psychotic disorders is
a. confusion of fantasy and reality.
b. antisocial conduct.
c. overwhelming anxiety.
d. obsessive behavior.
208. A common form of mental disorder afflicting 10-20% of the population is
a. schizophrenia.
b. senile dementia.
c. depression.
d. delusional disorder.
209. if you met an individual who appeared to be very charming at first, but later you discovered that he or
she manipulated people, caused others hurt without a second thought, and could
123
not be depended upon, you might suspect him of being
a. dependent
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. antisocial
210. A person who has an extreme lack of self- confidence and who allows others to run his or
her life is said to have a(n)
personality.
a. dependent
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. antisocial
211. Persons who suffer from paraphilias are categorized as having
a. somatoform disorders.
b. generalized anxiety.
c. sexual disorders.
d. personality disorders.
212. Irrational and very specific fears that persist even when there is no real danger to a person are called
a. anxieties.
b. dissociation's.
c. phobias.
d. obsessions.
213. In some countries, it is normal to defecate or urinate in public. This makes it clear that judgments of
the normality of behavior are
a. culturally relative.
b. statistical.
c. a matter of subjective discomfort.
d. related to conformity.
214. Three-year old Harry Porter ate lead paint
which was chipping off the walls in an old home.
Consequently, he developed a psychosis based on
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brain damage due to lead poisoning. Shawn's
psychosis would be called a(n)
a. functional psychosis.
b. organic psychosis.
c. neural psychosis.
d. neo-cortical psychosis.
215. False beliefs that are held even when the facts contradict them are called
a. fantasies.
b. hallucinations.
c. illusions.
d. delusions.
216. Gym Paredes is in a constant state of anxiety and also has brief, sudden periods of panic. He also
believes these periods of panic will occur when he's in a public location; therefore, Gym is afraid to leave
his house. Gym's diagnosis is
a. agoraphobia.
b. panic disorder.
c. panic disorder with agoraphobia.
d. panic disorder without agoraphobia.
217. When Nemo Saragero returned from combat in the Gulf War, she began experiencing high anxiety that
has persisted without any improvement. This example illustrates which anxiety related disorder?
a. panic
b. post-traumatic stress
c. phobia
d. obsessive-compulsive
218. Guess Abelgas has been homeless for the past 3 years. The stress of being homeless seems to have
contributed to the onset of psychosis. This example illustrates what risk factor for mental disorders?
a. social
b. family
c. psychological
d. biological
125
219. You have begun working with a family in which there is a verified history of incestuous relationships. Of
the following characteristics, which one is MOST often found in families in which incestuous relationships
have occurred?
a. Enmeshment of family members
b. Relaxed attitude toward sexuality
c. Symbiotic mother-child relationships
d. Distorted communication patterns
220. The distinction between obsessions and compulsions is the distinction between
a. engaging in behaviors that are merely inconvenient and those that are severely disruptive.
b. having positive and negative feelings toward an object or event.
c. thoughts that are evidence of neurosis or those that are evidence of psychosis.
d. having repetitious thoughts or engaging in repetitious actions.
221. Hearing voices that are not really there would be called a(n)
a. hallucination.
b. delusion.
c. auditory regression.
d. depressive psychosis.
222. Obsessive-compulsive behavior, panic, and
phobias are formally classified as
disorders.
a. psychotic
b. manic
c. anxiety
d. mood
223. "I believe Amanda's anxiety and defensiveness are the result of an unrealistic self-image and an
inability to take responsibility for her feelings." This statement would most likely have been made by a
126
a. psychodynamic theorist.
b. Freudian therapist.
c. humanistic psychologist.
d. behavioristic theorist.
224. Irrational acts a person feels driven to repeat
are called . They help control
anxiety caused by .
a. obsessions; compulsions
b. compulsions; obsessions
c. compulsions; defense mechanisms
d. defense mechanisms; obsessions
225. John has a lack of interest in friends or lovers and experiences very little emotion. He can be described
as having which of the following personality disorders?
a. avoidant
b. schizoid
c. borderline
d. paranoid
226. Behavioral problems caused by senility, drug damage, brain injury or disease, and the toxic
effects of poisons are classified as
disorders.
a. organic
b. psychotic
c. somatic
d. substance use
227. Which of the following personality disorders describes a person who has an extremely unstable self-
image, is moody, and does not develop stable relationships?
a. borderline
b. histrionic
c. narcissistic
d. schizoid
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228. Julie can't stop thinking about germs and dirt. She spends all day cleaning her house. She is suffering
from
a. phobic disorder.
b. paranoia.
c. delusional disorder.
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
229. Which of the following personality disorders describes a person who has an exaggerated sense of self-
importance and who needs constant admiration?
a. dependent
b. histrionic
c. narcissistic
d. schizoid
230. A core feature of all abnormal behavior is that it is
a. culturally absolute.
b. learned.
c. maladaptive.
d. dependent on age.
231. Johnny Deep, a high school sophomore, occasionally drinks one beer. His friends don't care. His
parents, however, are very upset and punish him severely. Johnny responds by sneaking alcoholic
beverages whenever he can. Johnny's drinking illustrates
a. Primary deviance
b. Secondary deviance
c. Positive sanction
d. Formal control
232. According to Robert Merton's strain theory, an educated person who stays in the same job without
advancement for years is a
a. Retreatist
b. Ritualist
c. Innovator
d. Conformist
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233. Which contribution has conflict theory made to the understanding of deviance?
a. Deviance is behavior labeled deviant by society.
b. If a society doesn't provide approved means to achieve specific goals, people will act out in a defiant
manner.
c. Deviance is defined by the people in control of society.
d. People rely on their inner and outer controls to keep them from committing crime.
234. Those who view social control as an
indispensable requirement for social life are using the perspective.
a. functionalist
b. conflict
c. symbolic interactionist
d. relativist
235. Bruno Nars is a very intelligent student. Last year he was on the honor roll. Recently he began hanging
out with friends who spend more time playing video games than studying; they routinely earn C's and D's.
Over time, Fred slowly stops doing his homework and turning in work for extra credit. He drops out of his
honors classes, and his grades drop from mostly A's to
C's. The of deviance best explains
what has happened.
a. structural strain theory
b. social control theory
c. differential association theory
d. anomie theory
236. According to conflict theorists
a. criminal prosecution of deviance serves all members of society.
b. the capitalist ruling class protects the masses.
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c. criminal acts are acts that the ruling class brands as criminal.
d. adolescents learn crime from subcultures.
237. Labeling theorists contend that
a. those in power choose to label as deviant anything that is against their interests.
b. some acts, such as rape, are always labeled criminal.
c. labeling people as deviant has no effect on their behavior.
d. after being labeled deviant, people think of themselves as deviant and act accordingly.
238. Travis Hirschi argues that young people's strong four-part bond to society favorably influences their
social conformity. Which of the following is NOT one of the four parts of this bond?
a. affection
b. involvement
c. attachment
d. commitment
239. In the study of deviance, control theory advocates would ask
a. "Why are people deviant?"
b. "Why are people not deviant?"
c. "How does labeling contribute to deviance?"
d. "How does social control cause deviance?"
240. In order for a deviant act to be considered a crime
a. the state must undertake the political process of criminalizing it.
b. it must be committed by someone labeled a criminal.
130
c. it must involve the violation of a person or property.
d. the majority of the population must consider the act criminal.
241. A child struggles to learn how to read and is frequently teased about it by his siblings and is referred to
as "slow" by his parents and teachers. He underperforms in school and never thinks about going to college.
Ultimately he drops out before graduating from high school, telling the school counselor that he's just not
a smart guy who can learn from books. This is an example of which theory of deviance?
a. Labeling theory
b. Strain theory
c. Cultural transmission theory
d. Role theory
242. Bulgari Valenciano goes to a training session for election volunteers in his precinct. There are 15
participants and two trainers. This would be an example of which kind of group?
a. A party
b. A large group
c. A primary group
d. A small group
243. A secondary group is characterized by
a. Members who are not interchangeable
b. Intimate relationships
c. A limited number of members
d. Voluntary membership in the group
244. Ely Pante's parents divorced when she was five years old. By the time she was eight, both her parents
had remarried and she had two step-siblings on her father's side and a half- brother on her mother's side.
Josephine's two new families are examples of what type of family?
131
a. A blended family
b. A nuclear family
c. An extended family
d. A kinship network
245. When a number of nuclear families are linked together by virtue of the kinship between parents and
children and/or siblings.
a. Group family
b. Extended family
c. Clannish family
d. Polygamous family
246. Families whose parents are unavailable to take care and/or supervise their children before and after
school and/or vacation days
a. Forgetful family
b. Latchkey family
c. Indifferent family
d. Carefree family
247. What is a folkway?
a. Are formally defined and are enforced by designated people
b. Norms for routine or casual interaction. "Everyday behaviors."
c. Specific statements that people hold to be true or false
d. Have great moral significance, "taboos"
248. This value means being taken by one's fellow for what he is and being treated in accordance with his
status known as:
a. Saving race
b. Social acceptance
c. Pakikisama
d. Personalism
249. A politician's refusal to cooperate and support community project because he was not consulted by
those in-charge could be attributed to the cultural value of:
132
a. Pakikisama
b. Pakikipagkapwa-tao
c. Amor propio
d. None of the above
250. The family is both
a. A formal social group and an institution
b. A primary and a secondary social group
c. A primary social group and an institution
d. A secondary social group and a formal social group
133
Answer Key
1. B 41. D 81. A 121. D
2. D 42. D 82. A 122. C
3. B 43. C 83. C 123. A
4. C 44. A 84. B 124. D
5. B 45. B 85. A 125. C
6. C 46. D 86. D 126. C
7. B 47. B 87. A 127. D
8. C 48. C 88. C 128. D
9. B 49. C 89. C 129. C
10. D 50. B 90. D 130. A
11. B 51. B 91. A 131. C
12. C 52. D 92. A 132. B
13. B 53. D 93. C 133. A
14. C 54. C 94. A 134. D
15. B 55. A 95. D 135. A
16. C 56. B 96. B 136. A
17. A 57. D 97. B 137. B
18. D 58. A 98. B 138. B
19. B 59. A 99. A 139. C
20. B 60. A 100. B 140. B
21. D 61. A 101. A 141. C
22. C 62. C 102. A 142. B
23. B 63. C 103. A 143. D
24. A 64. B 104. B 144. A
25. B 65. C 105. A 145. D
26. A 66. A 106. A 146. B
27. B 67. D 107. A 147. D
28. A 68. D 108. B 148. B
29. D 69. B 109. C 149. D
30. D 70. B 110. C 150. C
31. C 71. C 111. B 151. A
32. A 72. B 112. D 152. A
33. B 73. B 113. C 153. D
34. A 74. C 114. C 154. A
35. B 75. B 115. C 155. C
36. A 76. C 116. B 156. C
37. C 77. B 117. B 157. D
38. A 78. D 118. D 158. B
39. B 79. C 119. C 159. A
40. C 80. D 120. C 160. B

134
161. C 185. A 209. D 233. C
162. D 186. C 210. A 234. A
163. D 187. C 211. C 235. C
164. B 188. A 212. C 236. C
165. B 189. B 213. A 237. D
166. C 190. C 214. B 238. A
167. D 191. D 215. D 239. B
168. A 192. A 216. C 240. A
169. A 193. C 217. B 241. A
170. B 194. B 218. A 242. B
171. B 195. D 219. A 243. D
172. D 196. C 220. D 244. A
173. C 197. A 221. A 245. B
174. D 198. B 222. C 246. B
175. A 199. D 223. C 247. B
176. B 200. D 224. B 248. B
177. A 201. D 225. B 249. C
178. A 202. D 226. A 250. C
179. B 203. A 227. A
180. A 204. C 228. D
181. C 205. A 229. C
182. B 206. D 230. C
183. C 207. A 231. B
184. A 208. C 232. B

135
ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
138

Social Welfare Policies, Programs, Services

HISTORICAL EVOLUTION, FRAMEWORK AND OBJECTIVES, AND FUNCTIONS OF SOCIAL

WELFARE

1. During the ancient times, the guest houses for the custody and care of the various classes in Greece and
Rome is called?
a. Refuge
b. Hull House
c. Xenodochia
d. Toyn Bee Hall
2. It became the most powerful incentive for benevolence and charity, particularly in the Jewish and Christian
religious teachings.
a. Religious Motivation
b. Charity
c. Common Chest
d. Hamburg Experiment
3. It is the prototype of the modern day community chest.
a. Missionaries
b. Hamburg Experiment
c. Common Chest
d. Military Workhouse
4. In was established in Munich to prevent begging by able-bodied paupers.
a. Military Workhouse
b. Hamburg Experiment
c. Common Chest
d. Elberfeld System
5. He conceived that there should be a common chest for the receipt of food, money, and clothing to assist
the needy.
a. Juan Luis de Vives
b. Martin Luther
c. Professor Busch
d. Benjamin Thompson
6. He is the Commissioner for Public Relief in 1788 who introduced a district system of investigation and
distribution of relief to individual paupers through volunteer committees.
140
a. Juan Luis de Vives
b. Martin Luther
c. Professor Busch
d. Benjamin Thompson
7. The forerunners of social work
a. Charity Organization Society
b. City of Elberfeld
c. Daughters of Charity
d. London Charity Organization Society
8. He recruited the young women of the peasant class for charitable work.
a. St. Vincent de Paul
b. Thomas Chalmers
c. Edwin Chadwick
d. Charles Booth
9. He was the first pioneer in public hygiene, supervised investigations into the causes of poverty and the
means of an effective social reform.
a. St. Vincent de Paul
b. Thomas Chalmers
c. Edwin Chadwick
d. Charles Booth
10. He recommended a system of government providing under central direction decent aid to the poor, a
sound public health protection, adequate housing, recreation, and public schools for the entire population.
a. St. Vincent de Paul
b. Thomas Chalmers
c. Edwin Chadwick
d. Charles Booth
11. In 1866, social research is the third most important factor that influenced social philosophy and the
practice of poor relief in England. The most important among the surveys was that made by:
a. St. Vincent de Paul
141
b. Thomas Chalmers
c. Edwin Chadwick
d. Charles Booth
12. The following are the salient points during the English Poor Law, which one is not?
a. The care of the poor was an activity of the church. The main motive for alms giving was the salvation of the
soul of the donor.
b. Primary responsibility for the care of the poor belonged to the individual's family and relatives.
c. Those who would not be supported by relatives had to be cared for by the parish or the local community.
d. The parish must maintain the impotent poor from voluntary contributions of the parishioners through
collections.
13. It was founded on the concepts of the English Poor law which remained the basis for public welfare in the
United States up to the end of the 19th century.
a. American Social Welfare
b. English Social Welfare
c. Philippine Social Welfare
d. Ancient Times
14. It was a place for working people where their higher moral and intellectual capacities were developed to
insure full participation in a democracy as exemplified by the U.S.
a. Refuge House
b. Settlement House
c. Toyn Bee Hall
d. Hull House
15. It was the first settlement house in the U.S.
a. Settlement House
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b. Refuge House
c. Hull house
d. Refuge House
16. The Training School for Applied philanthropy was set up in New York in
a. 1889
b. 1898
c. 1923
d. 1863
17. The following are some of the basic ideas that influenced social welfare during the American period, which
one is NOT?
a. Protestant Ethic
b. Social Reform
c. Laissez-faire
d. Social Darwinism
18. It became the first family welfare agency and the first to use casework in the Philippines
a. War Relief Office
b. Philippine Civilian Affairs Unit
c. Associated Charities
d. Rice Wage Formula
19. It was created by President Elpidio Quirino on Jan. 3, 1951 as the government agency for social welfare.
a. Social Welfare Commission (SWC)
b. Social Welfare Administration (SWA)
c. Bureau of Public Welfare (BPW)
d. War Relief Office (WRO)
20. Who among the following are the charter members of the Philippine Association of Social Workers in 1948
whose objective is to upgrade and maintain the standards of social work profession?
a. Josefa Jara Martinez
b. Carmen Montinola Luz
c. Agapita Murillo
143
d. Minerva G. Laudico
e. Olympia Pia Lozano
f. Flora Ruis Palomar
g. Felicidad A. Silva
Choices: A.) abdefg B.) bcdfg
C.) abcdefg D.) acdefg
21. When was Republic Act No. 5416 or the Social Welfare Act enacted and signed by President Marcos
a. September 8, 1976
b. June 15, 1968
c. January 3, 1951
d. June 19, 1965
22. In 1970s, the service delivery was
facilitated through which makes
use of the existing political structure as the worker's point of entry and basis for problem-identification and
prioritizing.
a. Individual approach
b. Baranganic approach
c. Community-based approach
d. Program approach
23. It is the MSSD's banner program which was upgraded to make it more responsive to its clients' needs.
a. Crisis Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD)
b. Kalahi-CIDSS
c. Self-employment Assistance
d. Skills Training Program
24. The Local Government Code of 1991 or Republic Act 7160 was passed on?
a. October 10, 1991
b. December 13, 1991
c. July 12, 1991
d. June 19, 1991
144
25. In 1971, this scheme evolved to operationalize the concept of "social responsibility" arising from the roll-
on funding scheme or the transfer of capital from one client to another.
a. Sagip Mamamayan
b. Tulong Dunong
c. Tulong Kapwa
d. Sagip Kapwa
26. The articulation of preferred behavior by individuals or groups, the worth, very often with strong
emotions, that a person attaches to certain things, systems, means, conditions of life based on how the
persons judges these as useful, true good or beautiful.
a. norms
b. values
c. doctrine
d. principles
27. This social work principle is derivative of the inherent worth and dignity of the person, of the belief that he
is endowed with reason and will.
a. individualization
b. acceptance
c. self-determination
d. value
28. The implication of this principle is that help is differentiated to meet the needs of each individual case and
situation.
a. Client-worker relationship
b. Individualization
c. Self-determination
d. Universalization
29. Which of the following is not in accord with the right of client to self-determination?
145
a. The minority of the client limits his/her decision making
b. The principle is limited by unlawful action of the client
c. The client's decision-making capacity may be impaired by mental incapacity
d. The principle is absolute and therefore is not limited in its application
30. The need for expression and for sharing of experiences is a pertinent dynamic component in the client-
worker relationship. This is the worker's reaction to the client's purposeful expression of feelings.
a. Transference
b. Individualization
c. Controlled emotional involvement
d. Acceptance
31. This principle requires utmost discretion on the part of the worker as to information entrusted to him/her
by the client.
a. Acceptance
b. Confidentiality
c. Non-judgmental attitude
d. Anonymity
32. This principle makes reference to the worker's ability to enable the client to pour out all his feelings, both
positive and negative, toward his situation.
a. Catharsis
b. Purposeful expression of feelings
c. Individualization
d. Non-judgmental attitude
33. A close friend sees you at a birthday party and tells you she knows one of your clients. She begins to talk
about problems she
146
knows your client and her family are experiencing and then asks you whether it is true that your client has
attempted to commit suicide. Response to your friend requires utmost care that involves what principle in
casework?
a. Confidentiality
b. Acceptance
c. Non-judgmental attitude
d. Controlled Emotional Involvement
34. As a worker, the appropriate response you can give to the following statement of your client involves one
of the following social work principles. (Client: "I am dying to know what you are thinking while I am telling
you about my problems. I guess you are wondering if I am a nut.")
a. Acceptance
b. Confidentiality
c. Purposeful expression of feelings
d. Controlled emotional Involvement
35. The medium through which help is extended by the worker to the client.
a. Support
b. Referral
c. Client-worker relationship
d. Reach out
36. If you were to work with a family undergoing some problems because of the father's philandering ways,
you will be guided in your first encounter with either the father or the mother. By this principle that is
premised on the belief that every person has a reason and a will to make positive changes in life.
a. Self-determination
b. Confidentiality
c. Acceptance
147
d. Non-judgmental attitude
37. The following are the essential elements of Social Work practice:
a. Person, Place, Problem, Process
b. Client, Situation, Social Agency, Helping process
c. Client, Resources, Social Agency, Treatment
d. Study, Diagnosis, Treatment, Termination
Choices: A. abcd B. abc
C. ab D. cd
38. A progressive interaction between the Social Work practitioner and the client
a. Intake
b. Diagnosis
c. Process
d. Data-gathering
39. Indiscriminate distribution of alms by the rich and religious often fails to recognize the following social
work principle:
a. Acceptance
b. Purposeful expression of feelings
c. Confidentiality
d. Individualization
40. Going back to the history of Social Work, this person/entity introduced SCW as an art that consists of three
steps: gathering of social evidence, social diagnosis and treatment.
a. Mary Richmond
b. Juan Luis de Vives
c. Thomas Chalmers
d. Charity Organization Society
41. Establishing rapport with the client requires that the Social Worker should at all times observe the
following principles.
a. Acceptance
148
b. Non-judgmental attitude
c. Controlled Emotional Involvement
d. Self-awareness
Choices: A. abcd B. abc
C. abd D. ab
42. Republic Act No. 4373 is?
a. The law that gave formal recognition to Social Work as profession
b. The Social Work Law of 1965
c. The law that provided for the passing of a licensure examination as a Social Work practice requirement
Choices: A. abc B. ab
C. bc D. b only
43. The following are the attributes of the SW profession. Which one is not?
a. Regulative Code of Ethics
b. A body of knowledge
c. Professional Culture
d. Community Service
44. A social work value which states that clients have the capacity to grow and change, to discover and
develop solutions to their difficulties and the right capacity to choose responsibly:
a. Developing and utilizing resources
b. Affirming problem solving capacities and self-determination
c. Affirming the client's uniqueness and individuality
d. Affirming the worth and dignity of the client
45. Activities that social workers engage in establishing and sustaining relationship with the client:
149
a. Responsiveness to the sentiments of the client
b. Starting where the client is
c. Frequent personal visit and material assistance
d. Limiting interaction to show professionalism
Choices: A. abcd B. ab
C. bcd D. ad
46. Establishing rapport with the client requires that social workers/practitioners manifest some of the
following values and attitudes.
a. Acceptance and respect for clients worth and dignity
b. Clients right of self determination
c. Evaluation
d. Non-judgmental attitude
Choices: A. abcd B. abc
C. bcd D. abd
47. The following conditions should always be considered by the worker when s/he applies the client's right to
self-determination. Which one is an exception?
a. Mental capacity
b. Minority of the person
c. Legal constraints
d. Status of the person in society
48. The following are the exceptions to the strict requirements of confidentiality as a principle.
a. During case conferences
b. Court hearing
c. Conversation between friends
d. Supervision
Choices: A. abcd B. abc
C. bcd D. acd
150
49. A cardinal social work value that embodies unconditional positive regard, warmth, acceptance, non-
judgmental attitude, and respect:
a. Affirming problem solving capacities and self-determinations
b. Developing and utilizing resources
c. Affirming uniqueness and
individuality and safeguarding
confidentiality
d. Affirming the worth and dignity the client
50. The need for expression and for sharing of
experiences is a pertinent dynamic
component in the client-worker relationship. This is the worker's reaction to the client's purposeful expression
of feelings.
a. Transference
b. Controlled emotional involvement
c. Individualization
d. Confidentiality
51. This principle requires utmost discretion on the part of the worker as to information entrusted to him/her
by the client.
a. Acceptance
b. Non-judgmental attitude
c. Confidentiality
d. Individualization
52. This principle makes reference to the worker's ability to enable a client to pour out all his feelings, both
positive and negative, toward his situation.
a. Catharsis
b. Individualization
c. Purposeful expression of feelings
d. Controlled emotional involvement
151
53. This is the worker's primary task in the helping process particularly at the first meeting between worker
and client.
a. Relate to the client in such a way as to lower his anxiety
b. Show professionalism
c. Gather collateral information
d. Allow the client to ventilate
54. There is always a possibility that a worker may find her values clashing with those of the client. In
situations like this, the following principles:
a. Self-determination
b. Individualization
c. Self-awareness
d. Client-worker relationship
55. The following situations demonstrate clear application of the principle of self- determination.
a. Allowing the client to discover his potentials for growth
b. Believing in the client's capacity to change his situation for the better
c. Providing options from which the client can choose responsibility
d. Giving the client absolute right to decide what is best for him.
Choices: A. abc B. bcd
C. bc D. abcd
56. In working with various clientele groups, the unique situation of the client system must be thoroughly
assessed. This would the application of the following skill.
a. Individualization
b. Planning
c. Assessment
d. Data-gathering
57. The principle of confidentiality requires?
152
a. The absolute rule of non-disclosure of information given by the client
b. Taking the witness stand when asked by the judge for information about the client
c. Bringing the case to the attention of the supervisor for the welfare of the client
d. Taking information from the client and disclosing it to a neighbor who can be of help to the client
Choices: A. abcd B. bcd
C. ad D. bc
58. The extreme poverty being experienced by the Bicolanos caused by the past natural disasters particularly
typhoon Reming needs extensive rehabilitation work from government and non-government agencies. It is
best to distribute resources to the victims indiscriminately since the victims suffered the same fate. As
social workers, do you think this services delivery arrangement is right? Which statement is best
applicable?
a. Yes, since they are all experiencing the same situation, poverty.
b. Yes, because resources and services are there and should be given to all.
c. No, there is a need to look into the individual situation of the victims for a more responsive delivery of
services
d. No, the scarcity of resources should discriminate who should be given and who should not be given.
59. Social Work as a profession share common values like the right of persons to self- fulfillment, the
obligation of members of
153
society to seek ways of self-fulfillment that contribute to the common good, and others. These values require
commitment of social workers to the following except one.
a. Belief in human potentials and capacities
b. Social responsibility
c. Right of people to maximum assistance that should compel provision by an agency despite lack of
resources.
d. Accessibility of resources and opportunities to any individual or group
60. As an essential attribute of the SW profession, it lays down the standard rules of conduct that bind
members of a group or association.
a. Values
b. Philosophy
c. Code of Ethics
d. Norms
61. A regulative Code of Ethics serves the following purposes:
a. Sets a standard of conduct to which members are committed to adhere.
b. Serves to ensure that the social worker acts and behaves with propriety and self-discipline
c. Supports the formal and professional exercise of worker's authority that comes with her work.
d. Ensures that workers act and behave with utmost probity in dealing with clients.
Choices: A. abcd B. abc
C. abd D. acd
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62. The Professional Code of Ethics for social workers in the Philippines reflects the SW profession's
philosophy, cardinal value and guiding principles in relation to:
a. The client
b. The colleagues
c. The profession
d. The society
Choices: A. abcd B. abc
C. acd D. ad
63. Dignity is the SW philosophy's first element. The term connotes:
a. What he is, not what he has
b. What he has and has not achieved
c. The person as a human being with a life the right to live
d. The right a person for his total fulfillment and development
Choices: A. abcd B. abc
C. acd D. cd
64. He characterizes social welfare as an organized concern of all people for all people.
a. Gertrude Wilson
b. Walter Friedlander
c. Elizabeth Wickenden
d. Werner Boehm
65. She said that social welfare includes those laws, programs, benefits and services which assure or
strengthen provisions for meeting social needs recognized as basic to the wellbeing of the population and
the better functioning of the social order.
a. Gertrude Wilson
b. Walter Friedlander
c. Elizabeth Wickenden
d. Ellen Gate Starr
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66. Defined social welfare as the organized
system of all social services and institutions, designed to aid individuals and groups to attain satisfying
standards of life and
health.
a. Gertrude Wilson
b. Walter Friedlander
c. Elizabeth Wickenden
d. Werner Boehm
67. Defined social welfare as the organized
system of all social services and institutions, designed to aid individuals and groups to attain satisfying
standards of life and
health.
a. Gertrude Wilson
b. Walter Friedlander
c. Elizabeth Wickenden
d. Werner Boehm
68. It encompasses the well-being of all the members of human society, including their physical, mental,
emotional, social, economic and spiritual well-being.
a. Social Work
b. Social Welfare
c. Social Agency
d. Social Services
69. Society responds to unmet needs or problems through the following ways, EXCEPT ONE.
a. Individual and group efforts
b. Major societal institutions which have their designated roles and responsibilities for meeting human needs
c. Social Agency
d. Social Services
70. Social welfare programs usually fall under the following categories EXCEPT ONE
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a. Social security
b. Personal social services
c. Public assistance
d. Social agency
71. This refers to the whole set of compulsory measures instituted to protect the individual and his family
against the consequences of an avoidable interruption or serious diminution of the earned income
disposable for the maintenance of a reasonable standard of living.
a. Social security
b. Personal social services
c. Public assistance
d. Social agency
72. This refers to material/concrete aids/ supports provided, usually by government agencies, to people who
have no income or means of support for themselves and their families for reasons such as loss of
employment, natural disasters, etc.
a. Social security Social services
b. Personal social services
c. Public assistance
d. Social services
73. These refer to service functions which have major bearing upon personal problems, individual situations of
stress, interpersonal helping or helping people in need, and the provision of direct services in collaboration
with workers from government and voluntary agencies.
a. Social security
b. Personal social services
c. Public assistance
d. Social services
74. This refers to the programs, services and other activities provided under various
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auspices, to concretely answer the needs and problems of the members of society
a. Social security
b. Personal social services
c. Public assistance
d. Social services
75. Compulsory employer liability (with or without insurance), provident funds, and social insurance are
examples of:
a. Social security
b. Personal social services
c. Public assistance
d. Social agency
76. Programs for counseling, therapy and rehabilitation; programs for providing access, information and
advice; institutional services; child protective services; and programs for the treatment of deviants are
examples of;
a. Social security
b. Personal social services
c. Public assistance
d. Social agency
77. He sees social problems as structural or basically located in the economy:
a. Richard M. Timus
b. Walter Friedlander
c. Erik Erikson
d. Gertrude Wilson
78. It conceives of the social welfare structure as temporary, offered during emergency situations and
withdrawn when the regular social system- the family and the economic system- is gain working properly:
a. Institutional
b. Remedial
c. Developmental
d. Residual
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79. It sees social welfare as a proper, legitimate function of modern society that some individuals are not able
to meet all their needs is considered a "normal" condition, and helping agencies are accepted as "regular"
social institutions:
a. Institutional
b. Remedial
c. Developmental
d. Residual
80. The following are the legitimate and vitally important goals of social welfare which often compete for
scarce resources are the following EXCEPT ONE:
a. Humanitarian and social justice goals
b. Social control goal
c. Economic development goal
d. Social service goal
81. This goal is based on the recognition that needy, deprived or disadvantaged groups may strike out,
individually and/ or collectively, against what they consider to be an alienating or offending society.
a. Humanitarian and social justice goals
b. Social control goal
c. Economic development goal
d. Social service goal
82. This goal involves the identification of the most afflicted, the most dependent, the most neglected, and
those least able to help themselves, and making them the priority target for the investment of scarce
resources.
a. Humanitarian and social justice goals
b. Social control goal
c. Economic development goal
d. Social service goal
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83. This goal places priority on those programs designed to support increases in the production of goods and
services, and other resources that will contribute to its development.
a. Humanitarian and social justice goals
b. Social control goal
c. Economic development goal
d. Social service goal
84. Is the profession which is concerned with man's adjustment to his environment; a person (or groups) in
relation to a person's (or their) social situation.
a. Social work
b. Social welfare
c. Social worker
d. Social services
85. Social functioning problems are caused by the following:
a. Personal inadequacies
b. Situational inadequacies
c. Both personal and situational inadequacies
d. None of the above
86. This refers to physiological factors like poor physical constitution, wrong attitudes and values, poor or
unrealistic perception of reality, ignorance and lack of skills.
a. Personal inadequacies
b. Situational inadequacies
c. Both personal and situational inadequacies
d. None of the above
87. This refers to the lack of resources and opportunities in society, the existence of resources or opportunities
which, however, are beyond the reach or coping capacities of people and the existence of an unjust or
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exploitative situation such as in the workplace, or in the community
a. Personal inadequacies
b. Situational inadequacies
c. Both personal and situational inadequacies
d. None of the above
88. It is not a hit-or-miss or trial-and-error
method of helping people, but a professional service which makes use of scientific knowledge and skills are
bases for engaging people in problem-solving, whether individually, in groups, or as communities.
a. Social work
b. Social welfare
c. Social agency
d. Social functioning
89. It seeks to enhance the social functioning
of individuals, singly and in groups, by
activities focused upon their social relationships which constitute the
interaction between man and his
environment.
a. Social work
b. Social welfare
c. Social agency
d. Social functioning
90. It promotes social change, problem-solving
in human relationships and the
empowerment and liberation of people to enhance well-being, utilizing theories of human behavior and social
systems, social work intervenes at the points where people interact with their environments.
a. Social work
b. Social welfare
c. Social agency
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d. Social functioning
91. In its various form, it addresses the multiple, complex transactions between people and their
environments, its mission is to enable all people to develop their full potential, enrich their lives, and
prevent dysfunction.
a. Social work
b. Social welfare
c. Social agency
d. Social functioning
92. It is an interrelated system of values, theory and practice.
a. Social work
b. Social welfare
c. Social agency
d. Social functioning
93. It is a systematic method of helping people in the field of public welfare in the Philippines.
a. Social work
b. Social welfare
c. Social agency
d. Social functioning
94. When was the International Association of Schools of Social Work and the International Federation of
Social Workers jointly announced the new international definition of social work?
a. June 7, 2001
b. June 17, 2001
c. June 27, 2001
d. June 2, 2001
95. During the pre-historic period, Filipinos lived in small scattered communities usually located along mouths
of rivers and coastal plains, these locations were preferred because rivers and bays provided water and
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food, and means of transportation. These communities were independent social units called:
a. Municipal
b. Barangays
c. Lungsod
d. Sitio
96. What are the changes that took place in Philippine social and economic life with the coming of the
Spaniards?
a. Communities were grouped together to form pueblos
b. Creating large concentrations of people in an area which resulted in health and sanitation problems
c. Personal maladjustments
d. Economic dislocation.
Choices: A.) a,b,d B.) a,b,c,d
C.) b,c,d D.) a,c,d
97. The first hospital in the Philippines was the
one founded by in the year .
a. Martin Luther, 1520
b. Juan Luis De Vives, 1788
c. Don Miguel Lopez de Legazpi, 1565
d. Professor Busch, 1788
98. Who initiated medical services for the poor in Manila?
a. Fr. Juan Clemente
b. Dr. Jose Pabella
c. Hilaria Aguinaldo
d. Asunscion A. Perez
99. Asilo de San Vicente de Paul, an Asylum for girls, offering religious instruction, primary education and
training in housework to its inmates was established in:
a. 1858
b. 1588
c. 1585
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d. 1885
100. Hospicio de San Jose was founded in
, originally to house the aged and
orphans, the mentally defective and young boys requiring reform, but later limiting admission to children who
were discharged, later to be adopted or employed.
a. 1892
b. 1882
c. 1982
d. 1889
101. The Philippine General Hospital was
established in .
a. 1909
b. 1908
c. 1907
d. 1910
102. The American government created the Public Welfare Board with the passage of Legislative Act No.
2510, essentially to coordinate the welfare activities of various existing charitable organizations on:
a. February 5, 1915
b. January 5, 1915
c. February 5, 1951
d. January 5, 1951
103. A government orphanage was set up in Makati, Rizal, and the first government entity to operate as a
welfare agency, and an initial step in child welfare services. The orphanage had admission and discharge
policies and employed systematic investigations to establish the merit of applications in:
a. January, 1914
b. January, 1915
c. January, 1916
d. January, 1917
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104. He states that, "Every profession has a particular function to perform in society: it receives a certain
job assignment for which it is held accountable.
a. Werner Boehm
b. William Schwartz
c. William Gordon
d. Harriet Bartlett
105. He said that the general assignment for the social work profession is to mediate the process through
which the individual and society reach out to each other through a mutual need for self- fulfillment:
a. Werner Boehm
b. William Schwartz
c. William Gordon
d. Harriet Bartlett
106. He said that the social functioning is the relation between the coping activity of people and the
demand from the environment:
a. Louise C. Johnson
b. William Schwartz
c. William Gordon
d. Harriet Bartlett
107. He states that, Social work seeks to enhance the social functioning of individuals, singularly and in
groups, by activities focused upon their social relationships which constitute interaction between
individuals and their environments.
a. Werner Boehm
b. William Schwartz
c. William Gordon
d. Harriet Bartlett
108. According to him, the central focus of social work traditionally seems to have been
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on the person-in-his-life-situation complex- a simultaneous dual focus on man and his environment.
a. Louise C. Johnson
b. William Schwartz
c. William Gordon
d. Harriet Bartlett
109. He said that social workers become involved when individuals are having difficulty in relationship with
other people; in growing so as to maximize their potential; and in meeting the demands of the
environment.
a. William Schwartz
b. Louise C. Johnson
c. Harriet Bartlett
d. William Gordon
110. It is a network of overlapping social systems and social situations, including ecological systems, cultures
and institutions.
a. Social situation
b. Social environment
c. Social functioning
d. Social services
111. It is the impinging segment of the social environment. It is smaller, more immediate environment that
"has meaning for the individual and that is uniquely perceived and interpreted by him, in which he has one
or more status - roles and identities, is a group member or performer.
a. Social situation
b. Social environment
c. Social functioning
d. Social services
112. A "family" where one functions as a wife, mother and breadwinner. An aggregate or
166
complex of social situations (in each of which the individual functions as a group member and has a role,
identity and role set) constitutes the individual's total situation, or milieu is an example of:
a. Social situation
b. Social environment
c. Social functioning
d. Social services
113. It is defined as the socially recognized pattern of behaviors and activities expected from an individual
occupying a certain position in society.
a. Norms
b. Social norms
c. Social role
d. Roles
114. It is the functions of social work that seeks to remove factors which have caused the breakdown in the
person's social functioning.
a. Restorative Aspect
b. Curative Aspect
c. Remedial Aspect
d. Rehabilitative Aspect
115. It is the functions of social work which tries to put back the person to a normal or healthy state of
social functioning.
a. Restorative Aspect
b. Curative Aspect
c. Remedial Aspect
d. Rehabilitative Aspect
116. The function of social work which is to assist individuals and groups to identify and resolve or minimize
problems arising out of disequilibrium between themselves and the environment. This is referred to as:
a. Restorative
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b. Curative
c. Remedial
d. Rehabilitative
Choices: A.) a,b,c,d B.) a,b,c
C.) a,c,d D.) b,c,d
117. The focus of social work:
a. How people cope with their life tasks
b. Cope with the demands made by situations or environment on people.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the Above
118. Social work intervention is always directed toward enhancing or improving the individual's social
functioning through the following ways:
a. Change strategies directed toward
the individual if personal
inadequacies or sometimes pathologies make it difficult for the individual to cope with the demands of his
situation or environment.
b. Change strategies directed toward
the environment if it is the latter that is best with inadequacies, or if the situation is such as to be beyond the
coping capacities of the individual
c. Change strategies directed toward
both the individual and the
environment.
Choices: A.) a,c B.) a,b
C.) b,c D.) a,b,c
119. The function of social work which is to identify potential areas of disequilibrium between individuals or
groups and the environment in order to prevent the
occurrence of disequilibrium.
168
a. Restorative Function
b. Curative Function
c. Preventive Function
d. Developmental Function
120. The function of social work which involves the early discovery, control, and elimination of those
conditions or situations which may have a harmful effect on social functioning.
a. Restorative Function
b. Curative Function
c. Preventive Function
d. Developmental Function
121. To seek out, identify, and strengthen the maximum potential in individuals, groups and communities.
This is referred to as:
a. Restorative Function
b. Curative Function
c. Preventive Function
d. Developmental Function
122. The function of social work which the aim is both to help the individual make maximum use of his own
potentials and capacities as well as to further the effectiveness of available social or community resources.
a. Restorative Function
b. Curative Function
c. Preventive Function
d. Developmental Function
123. Counseling on pre-marital and other family problems, sex education of the youth to prevent early
marriage, sexual abuse, etc.; and working for the enactment of laws and policies that would help prevent
abuse of women and children are examples of:
a. Restorative Function
b. Curative Function
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c. Preventive Function
d. Developmental Function
124. Helping unemployed or underemployed breadwinners to avail themselves of opportunities for skills
training while at the same time providing necessary supportive services are examples of:
a. Restorative Function
b. Curative Function
c. Preventive Function
d. Developmental Function
125. Day care and/or supplemental feeding for children; full or partial financial assistance; and helping the
entire community confronted by a serious malnutrition problem by linking the community to available
resources; or, in the absence of such resources, mobilizing the residents to take action on the problem are
examples of:
a. Restorative Function
b. Curative Function
c. Preventive Function
d. Developmental Function
126. The following are the three types of knowledge which social work uses, EXCEPT ONE:
a. Tested knowledge
b. Acquired knowledge
c. Hypothetical knowledge
d. Assumptive knowledge
127. It is a knowledge that has been established through scientific study (research). In social work, it comes
in the form of borrowed knowledge from different professions and disciplines, as well as in the form that
which has been developed through social work research.
170
a. Tested knowledge
b. Acquired knowledge
c. Hypothetical knowledge
d. Assumptive knowledge
128. This knowledge still has to undergo transformation, even if tentatively such knowledge may be
accepted to explain certain facts.
a. Tested knowledge
b. Acquired knowledge
c. Hypothetical knowledge
d. Assumptive knowledge
129. This knowledge is also known as "practice wisdom". We can say perhaps that the more experience one
has had in practice, the more suppositions he tends to make related to his work.
a. Tested knowledge
b. Acquired knowledge
c. Hypothetical knowledge
d. Assumptive knowledge
130. The following are the five elements as
the constituting the distinguishing
attributes of a profession:
a. Systematic body of theory,
professional authority, community
sanction, regulative code of ethics and professional culture
b. Systematic body of approaches,
professional power, community-
based sanction, regulative code of ethics and professional culture
c. Theoretical foundations, professional
authority, community sanction,
regulative code of professional conduct and professional culture
d. Systematic body of theory,
professional authority, community
171
sanction, regulative code of professional conduct and professional symbolism
131. This element that distinguishes the attributes of a profession refers to the extensive education in the
systematic theory of her discipline which provides the professional with a type of knowledge which the
layman does not have. It is ascribed to the professional by reason of his/her educational background which
gives the client a sense of security that the professional has the capacity to help him/her with the problem.
a. Professional culture
b. Systematic Body of Theory
c. Professional Authority
d. Regulative Code of Ethics
132. This refers to the formal and informal groupings characterize all occupations, including professions. For
social work, the network of formal and informal groups within which it operates includes the organizations
that benefit from a profession's services (schools, courts, social agency, hospitals, etc.); the educational
institutions which produce and replenish professional manpower; and the professional association which
promotes professional interests and aims.
a. Professional culture
b. Systematic Body of Theory
c. Professional Authority
d. Regulative Code of Ethics
133. This refers to the basic and fundamental beliefs of a professional group, practically the reason for its
existence. In social work, we believe that the individual is the primary
172
concern of society, and that society has a responsibility to help the individual realize his potentials by
removing the obstacles which prevent his self-fulfillment, among other things. This is called
a. Professional culture
b. Professional Norms
c. Professional Authority
d. Social Values
134. These are the accepted standards of behavior of doing things, which guide the professional in various
situations such as how to gain entry into formal and informal groups, how to handle consultations, how to
relate to superiors, colleagues, and subordinates, how to treat clients, how to challenge an outmoded
theory, how to present a new idea and so on. This is called
a. Professional culture
b. Professional Norms
c. Professional Authority
d. Social Values
135. The three essential components of the foundation of social work are the following, EXCEPT
a. Values
b. Skills
c. Intervention
d. Knowledge
136. This refers to what is thought to be, as confirmed by reality. It denotes the picture man has built up of
the world and himself as it is, not as he might wish or fantasize or prefer it to be.
a. Values
b. Skills
c. Intervention
d. Knowledge
173
137. It is crucial to any profession. It is the ability, expertness, or proficiency gained from practice and
knowledge. It is the fusion of values and knowledge of the profession. Therefore, it refers also to one's
ability to apply the knowledge and values of one's profession in her work with people.
a. Values
b. Skills
c. Intervention
d. Knowledge
138. It is defined as that worth which man attaches to certain things, systems, or persons within the realm
of usefulness, truth, goodness or beauty.
a. Values
b. Skills
c. Intervention
d. Knowledge
139. Social work adheres to this kind of view of man.
a. Democracy's view of man
b. Natural view
c. Transcendental view
d. Man as social, asocial or anti-social
140. It is defined as being taken by one's fellows for what one is, or believes he is, and being treated in
accordance with his status, this value is called
a. Smooth interpersonal relationship
b. Amor propio
c. Go-between
d. Social Acceptance
141. It is term used to refer to the sensitivity to personal affront and functions to protect the individual
against loss of social acceptance.
a. Smooth interpersonal relationship
174
b. Amor propio
c. Go-between
d. Social Acceptance
142. This value attaches major importance to the personal factor which guarantees intimacy, warmth, and
security of kinship and friends in getting things done. Some specific values related to this are "tiwala"
(trust), "kilala" (personal reference), and "walang pakialaman" (non-interference).
a. Social Acceptance
b. Personalism
c. Utang na Loob
d. The Authority Value
143. This value literally means debt of gratitude. It is granted when a transfer of goods or services takes
place between individuals belonging to two different groups. It compels the recipient to show his gratitude
properly by returning a favor "which interest" to be sure that he does not remain in other's debt.
a. Social Acceptance
b. Personalism
c. Utang na Loob
d. The Authority Value
144. This is a cultural belief that a person must suffer before he can gain happiness, and related to it is that
which many still believe, that women, particularly, must suffer in silence.
a. Patience, suffering, and endurance
b. Emotional closeness and security in the family
c. The Authority value
d. Social Acceptance
145. When social welfare engages a group of mothers in training for capacity building and
175
organizes farmers so that they can respond to their problem these activities fall under what social welfare
functions?
a. Remedial
b. people empowerment
c. development
d. supplemental
146. A social agency that obtains finding solely from its members and donations from private individuals or
groups is considered a:
a. Private service agency
b. Secondary setting
c. Government service organization
d. Public service agency
147. Institutions like Elsie Gaches Village and Marillac Hills respond to the needs of the following sector/s.
a. Abused children
b. Handicapped children and young offenders
c. Children with disability and young unwed mothers
d. Unwed mothers
148. These programs and services intended
to provide control measures after social institutions failed to prevent social breakdown which accompanies
industrialization, urbanization, and the like:
a. Preventive social welfare
b. Remedial social welfare
c. Development social welfare
d. Restorative social welfare
149. Ensuring a more equitable distribution of goods and services and the sufficient opportunities for raising
the living standard of the population are strategies to achieve:
a. Social justice
176
b. social equality
c. people empowerment
d. social development
150. One of the purposes of this professional association is the upgrading and maintenance of standard of
social work profession and social work practice in the Philippines.
a. Philippine Association of Social Workers (PASWI)
b. National Association of Social Work Education, Inc.(NASWEI)
c. National council of Social Development (NASCD)
d. Association of Medical Social Workers in the Philippines
151. Social welfare which is synonymous to general social well-being has the following features. Which one
is not?
a. Organized system of social services that addresses the needs of various clientele groups.
b. Help is focused on the attainment of a satisfying standard of life
c. Manages social problems and creates opportunities for advancement
d. Aims toward social control and reform
152. Social problems may be predicted, meaning they can discover early and therefore readily controlled or
eliminated. This is through what function of social welfare?
a. Restorative
b. Preventive
c. Development
d. Institutional
177
153. The term refers to coordinate groups of activities, maintained over a period of time and at producing
specific types of services.
a. Social provision
b. Programs
c. Policies
d. Social services
154. Networking has the following purposes except one:
a. Maximize scarce resource of partner agencies
b. For mass action and collaboration
c. For monitoring of other organization's activities
d. To avoid duplication of programs and services among organization
155. It is the class that benefits the most from neoliberal Globalization.
a. Transnational capitalist class
b. Bourgeoisie
c. Working class
d. Middle Class
156. It is an economic forum for a group of Pacific Rim countries to discuss matters in regional economy,
cooperation, trade and investment.
a. ASEAN
b. APEC
c. ASEM
d. ASEC
157. From a broader perspective, the systematic arrangement of social services includes social legislations,
policies and programs that ensure or strengthen provisions for meeting social needs recognized as basic to
the well-being of the population.
a. Social work
178
b. Social welfare
c. Social policy
d. Social networking
158. An organization, public or private or quasi-public, which provides programs and services to promote
the well-being of individuals, groups and communities experiencing some difficulty in the management of
their affairs.
a. DSWD
b. Non-government organization
c. Social agency
d. Red cross
159. The means by which needed resources are made available for the purpose of maximum health and
social functioning and development of target groups
a. Public welfare
b. Social provisions
c. Social security
d. Social
160. The following conditions are characterized by inability to sustain life without assistance from the
government and the community and the unequal distribution in income that promotes social and
economic classes among the population.
a. Absolute poverty
b. Relative poverty
c. Transient poor
d. Discrimination
Choices: A.) abcd B.) bcd
C.) ab D.) cd
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Answer Key
1. c 41. A 81. B 121. D
2. A 42. A 82. A 122. D
3. C 43. D 83. C 123. C
4. A 44. B 84. A 124. D
5. B 45. B 85. C 125. D
6. C 46. D 86. A 126. B
7. C 47. D 87. B 127. A
8. A 48. D 88. A 128. C
9. C 49. D 89. A 129. D
10. C 50. B 90. A 130. A
11. D 51. C 91. A 131. C
12. A 52. C 92. A 132. A
13. A 53. A 93. A 133. D
14. B 54. C 94. C 134. B
15. C 55. A 95. B 135. C
16. B 56. C 96. B 136. D
17. B 57. D 97. C 137. B
18. C 58. C 98. A 138. A
19. B 59. C 99. D 139. A
20. C 60. C 100. B 140. D
21. B 61. C 101. B 141. B
22. B 62. A 102. A 142. B
23. C 63. C 103. D 143. C
24. A 64. A 104. B 144. A
25. C 65. C 105. B 145. C
26. B 66. B 106. D 146. A
27. B 67. B 107. A 147. C
28. B 68. B 108. C 148. B
29. D 69. D 109. B 149. B
30. C 70. D 110. B 150. A
31. B 71. A 111. A 151. D
32. B 72. C 112. A 152. B
33. A 73. B 113. C 153. B
34. A 74. D 114. B 154. C
35. C 75. A 115. D 155. A
36. C 76. B 116. A 156. A
37. C 77. A 117. C 157. B
38. C 78. D 118. D 158. C
39. D 79. A 119. C 159. B
40. A 80. D 120. C 160. C

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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
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SOCIAL WORK RESEARCH

1. Jack became homeless when he ran away from home because of his alcoholic father and psychotic
mother; Myla Lao, a teacher with a bachelor's degree living with her two daughters in a shelter after losing
her job; and Angelica Sinaniban, who walked out of her rented home with her two daughters to escape an
alcoholic and physically abusive husband ended up in a shelter after her husband stopped paying child
support. If the researcher acknowledged only the instances that confirm their predispositions in the
aforesaid circumstances, they are victims of their own:
a. Selective observation
b. Illogical reasoning
c. Overgeneralization
d. Resistance to change
2. "Our own egos can get in the way of observable reality. We know how tempting it is to make statements
about the social world that conform to our needs, rather than to the observable facts, and it is often
difficult to admit that we were wrong once we have staked out a position on an issue". The quotation can
be best described as:
a. Selective observation
b. Overgeneralization
c. Illogical reasoning
d. Resistance to change
3. Another component of evidenced-based is that social workers should provide clients with information
necessary to make decisions about services, including the effectiveness of the intervention, the client's role
in the intervention, expectation of the clients, and length of intervention. Which among the following
themes are consistent with the following ethical obligations expected of social work practitioner as
described in the National Association of Social Workers Code of Ethics (1999)?
a. Include evaluation and research as part of professional practice
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b. Enabling client to make informed decisions
c. Social workers should keep up-to- date with relevant knowledge
d. Utilize interventions with empirical basis
e. Implementing evidence-based
practice
Choices: A. abcde B. abcd C. abcd D. cbde
4. Darren Espalto wanted to learn about the events that led women with children to seek emergency shelter
and what it was like for them to live in an emergency shelter. The kind or classification of research he will
conduct is?
a. Descriptive research
b. Explanatory research
c. Exploratory research
d. Evaluation research
5. Bulgari Valenciano worked on homelessness and conducted research to understand why people become
homeless. This kind of research is?
a. Descriptive research
b. Explanatory research
c. Exploratory research
d. Evaluation research
6. Chokoleit, Cherry Gil, Mark Gil and Nikki Gil (group name: Chokoleit Gils) conducted a 4- year longitudinal
study comparing housing first and treatment-first programs. The kind of research they conducted is?
a. Descriptive research
b. Explanatory research
c. Exploratory research
d. Evaluation research
7. When the study used methods such as surveys and experiments that record variation in social life in terms
of categories that vary in amount. It is called?
a. Quantitative method
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b. Qualitative method
c. Applied research
d. Pure research
8. Lucky Tinio and Ray Parker used an interview guide with directors of six women and children shelters to
understand the kinds of services needed by women and children victims of abuse and then sent a mail
 survey to the directors of 600 shelters in order to augment their quantitative data. The method used by
the researchers is?
a. Qualitative method
b. Mixed method
c. Quantitative method
d. Descriptive method
9. A community organizer may study a sample of residents living in a particular neighborhood in order to
assess their attitudes toward opening a shelter for women and children in their neighborhood and then
generalize the findings to all the residents of the neighborhood. This is called?
a. Generalizability
b. Sample generalizability
c. Cross-population generalizability
d. All of the above
10. When the study used methods such as participant observation, intensive interviewing and focus groups
that are designed to capture social life as participants experience it, rather than in categories
predetermined by researchers. It is called?
a. Quantitative method
b. Participatory action research
c. Action research
d. Qualitative method
11. This exists when a conclusion based on a sample, or subset, of a larger population holds true for that
population.
a. Generalizability
b. Cross-population generalizability
c. External validity
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d. Sample Generalizability
12. This exists when finding about one group or population or setting hold true for other groups or populations
or settings. It is also called external validity
a. Generalizability
b. Cross-population generalizability
c. Sample generalizability
d. Validity
13. In social work research, it is a question that you seek to answer through collection and analysis of
firsthand, verifiable, empirical data.
a. Statement of the Problem
b. Research Question
c. Social Work Research Question
d. Problem
14. This may emerge from your own experiences, such as volunteering in a women's shelter or the depression
of a friend, work or field practicum experiences, or you might wonder about the effective of the
interventions employed at your agency, the causes of your clients' problems, or how a state policy affects
your clients.
a. Social Work Research Questions
b. Research questions
c. Statement of the Problem
d. Problem
15. Once you have identified one or two questions, you should evaluate the questions in terms of the
following, except?
a. Literature review
b. Feasibility
c. Social Importance
d. Scientific Relevance
16. This research starts with a theory and then some of its implications are tested with data.
a. Inductive research
b. Deductive research
c. Pure research
d. Applied research
17. Theories cannot make useful predictions for every social situation or research problem.
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Researchers may find unexpected patterns in the data they collected which is called?
a. Error of findings
b. Summary of findings
c. Research circle
d. Anomalous findings
18. The higher the poverty rate in a community, the higher the percentage of community residents who are
homeless. This is an example of?
a. Hypothesis
b. Variable
c. Independent variable
d. Dependent variable
19. "Poverty rate, percentage of children in conflict with the law in the community". This is an example of?
a. Hypothesis
b. Dependent variable
c. Variable
d. Independent variable
20. A variable that is hypothesized to vary depending on or under the influence of another variable is called?
a. Variable
b. Independent variable
c. Dependent variable
d. Hypothesis
21. A tentative statement about empirical reality involving a relationship between two or more variables is
called?
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Hypothesis
d. Variable
22. The process of conducting research, moving from theory to data and aback again, or from data to theory
and back again, is commonly called?
a. Error of Findings
b. Summary of findings
c. Research circle
d. Anomalous findings
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23. This research starts with the researcher first collecting the data and then developing a theory that explains
patterns in the data.
a. Pure research
b. Applied research
c. Deductive research
d. Inductive research
24. A variable that is hypothesized to cause, or lead to, variation in another variable is called
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Variable
d. Hypothesis
25. Percentage of community residents who are homeless is an example of?
a. Independent variable
b. Variable
c. Hypothesis
d. Dependent variable
26. Poverty rate is an example of?
a. Hypothesis
b. Dependent variable
c. Independent variable
d. Variable
27. "Using human capital theory, a researcher might deduce that persons who graduate from college should
have a higher income than persons who do not graduate from college". This is an example of?
a. Variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Independent variable
d. Hypothesis
28. In this research design, data are collected at one point in time.
a. Cross-sectional
b. Longitudinal
c. Trend studies
d. Panel studies
29. In this research design, data are collected over time.
a. Cross-sectional
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b. Longitudinal
c. Trend studies
d. Panel studies
30. This is also known as repeated cross-sectional studies, involve gathering data at two or more points in time
from different samples (or group of respondents) of the same population.
a. Panel Studies
b. Trend Studies
c. Cohort Studies
d. Longitudinal Studies
31. This study allows you to determine both how individuals change and how the population changes.
a. Longitudinal Studies
b. Panel Studies
c. Trend Studies
d. Cohort Studies
32. Every month the Department of Labor and Employment reports the unemployment rate and labor force
participation as well as annual poverty rates. This is an example of?
a. Cohort Studies
b. Panel Studies
c. Longitudinal Studies
d. Trend Studies
33. This is a follow-up sample (at one or more times) which are selected from the same unit - people who have
all experienced a similar event or a common starting point.
a. Longitudinal Studies
b. Panel Studies
c. Trend Studies
d. Cohort Studies
34. Which among the following are the evaluation and research standards which are included in the National
Association of Social Workers (1999) Code of Ethics:
a. Research should cause no harm to participants
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b. The benefits of a research project should outweigh any foreseeable risks.
c. Findings should be reported accurately; errors later found should be corrected
d. Participation in research should be voluntary and participants should be informed their right to withdraw
at any time without penalty
Choices: A.) abcd B.) bcd C.) acd D.) abd
35. The process of specifying what we mean by a term. It helps to translate portions of an abstract theory into
testable hypothesis involving specific variables. This is called?
a. Concept
b. Theoretical framework
c. Conceptual framework
d. Conceptualization
36. A mental image that summarizes a set of similar observations, feelings, or ideas.
a. Concept
b. Theoretical framework
c. Conceptual framework
d. Conceptualization
37. The mathematical precision with which the values of a variable can be expressed.
a. Variable
b. Statistical Treatment
c. Validity
d. Level of Measurement
38. It means that a measurement procedure yields consistent or equivalent scores when the phenomenon
being measured is not changing.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Consistency
d. Content validity
39. A scale score used to define the presence or absence of a particular condition.
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a. Cut-off score
b. Scale
c. Sensitivity of results
d. Qualitative scores
40. It is an essential ingredient in social work practice whether it be your assessment of a client or your
monitoring and evaluation of your practice
a. Research
b. Results
c. Data
d. Measurement
41. Which among the following components must be evaluated to determine whether a concept differs across
cultures?
a. Concept equivalence
b. Operational equivalence
c. Item equivalence
d. Scaler equivalence
Choices: A. abc B. bcd C. abcd D. acd
42. The likelihood that an element will be selected from the population for inclusion in sample. This is called?
a. Probability of selection
b. Probability
c. Sample
d. Sampling
43. "If the research randomly picked five people to represent the entire population of a certain city, the
sample is unlikely to be very representative of the entire population in terms of age, gender, race,
attitudes, and so on. But if he/she pick 100 people, the odds of having a representative sample are much
better; with a random sample of 1,000, the odds become very good indeed". Which best explains the
afore-quoted paragraph?
a. The more homogenous the population, the more confidence we can have in the
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representatives of a sample in a particular size.
b. The larger the sample, the more confidence we can have in the sample's representativeness.
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above
44. "Let's say that the researcher plans to draw samples of 50 from each of two communities to estimate
mean family income. One community is diverse, with family income varying from Php10,000.00 -
50,000.00. In the other, community, family income is concentrated in a narrow range, from Php20,000.00 -
40,000.00". Which best explains the afore-quoted paragraph?
a. The more homogenous the population, the more confidence we can have in the representatives of a
sample in a particular size.
b. The larger the sample, the more confidence we can have in the sample's representativeness.
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above
45. If a sample of 40 agency case files is selected from population of 600 (that is, a sampling frame of 600),
then the probability of selection for each element is 40/600 or .0667. Every element has an equal chance
of being selected, just like the odds in a toss of a coin or a roll of a die. It is called?
a. Systematic random sampling
b. Probability sampling
c. Simple random sampling
d. Non-probability sampling
46. This is a convenient method for drawing a random sample when the population elements are arranged
sequentially.
a. Systematic random sampling
b. Non-probability sampling
c. Simple random sampling
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d. Probability sampling
47. A researcher wanted to compare the effectiveness of social work trained and nonsocial work trained child
welfare workers, the researcher divided the population of child protective service workers by position
(child protective investigator and child protective service worker) and college major. The method of
sampling used by the researcher is?
a. Snowball sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Systematic random sampling
d. Stratified random sampling
48. This kind of sampling method is useful when a sampling frame (list of elements) is not available, as often is
the case for large population spread out across a wide geographic area or among many different
organizations.
a. Availability sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
49. This sampling is appropriate when a researcher is exploring a new setting and trying to get some sense of
prevailing attitudes or when a survey researcher conducts a preliminary test of a new set of questions. It is
also called convenience sampling.
a. Availability sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
50. The finding that change in one variable leads to change in another variable is called?
a. Causal effect
b. Association
c. Explanation
d. Causal mechanism
51. This is the first criterion for identifying the causal effect. This means that when the independent variable
changes, the dependent
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variable also changes; without this between two variables, there cannot be a causal relationship.
a. Time order
b. Non-spuriousness
c. Association
d. Causal mechanism
52. It is the process that creates the connection between variation in an independent variable and variation in
the dependent variable. In social work research, this might involve understanding the theoretical
components of intervention model, or it might be to understand the underlying process, the essential
actions, that will lead to the desired changes.
a. Time order
b. Non-spuriousness
c. Association
d. Causal mechanism
53. Families receiving intensive, in-home, family- based services have higher rates of reunification with their
children than families receiving traditional casework services. This is an example of?
a. Causal mechanism
b. Explanation
c. Association
d. Causal effect
54. Monay Lisa and Lilette Chonin found in their research that family reunification using in- home, family-
based services is more effective when caseworkers have the time to focus on communication skills,
parenting skills and anger management, while less effective when caseworkers devote their time to
providing transportation, defusing crises and managing conflicts. This result is an example of?
a. Time order
b. Non-spuriousness
c. Association
d. Causal mechanism
55. These are used when a social work researcher wants to show that an intervention (independent
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variable) caused a change in an outcome (dependent variable).
a. Quasi-experimental design
b. Non-equivalent group design
c. Pretest-Posttest design
d. True Experimental design
56. It means that the variation in an independent variable will be followed by variation in dependent variable,
when all other things are equal.
a. Causal mechanism
b. Explanation
c. Causal effect
d. Association
57. In social work research, control group in experimental research is often called?
a. Experimental group
b. Treatment group
c. Groupwork
d. Comparison group
58. It is sometime used to better equate the experimental and control groups. It starts by identifying
important characteristics that might affect the study, and then you equalize pairs of individuals with similar
or identical characteristics.
a. Block matching
b. Matching
c. Aggregate matching
d. Pairing
59. It is one which the researcher may be able to rule out at least some threats to internal validity.
a. Quasi-experimental design
b. Non-equivalent group design
c. Pretest-Posttest design
d. True Experimental design
60. Questions can be designed with or without explicit response choices. When explicit response categories
are offered, the type of question is called?
a. Short
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b. Lengthy
c. Open-ended
d. Close-ended
61. These are questions without explicit response choices so that the respondents provide their own answers
in their own words.
a. Short
b. Lengthy
c. Open-ended
d. Close-ended
62. Which among the following are the features that help provide the strongest evidence about an
intervention's effectiveness?
A. It provides the most powerful design for
testing causal hypotheses, because it allows the researcher to confidently establish the first three
criteria for
causality.
B. Two comparison groups (in the simplest case, an experimental group and a control group) to establish
association
C. Variation in the independent variable
before assessment of change in the
dependent variable to establish time order.
D. Random assignment to the two (or more) comparison groups to control for alternative explanations.
Choices: a. ACD b. BCD c. ABCD d. ABD
63. To establish an association between an
independent variable and a dependent variable, true experimental designs have at least two groups. One
group receives some treatment or manipulation of the independent variable. This is called:
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Respondents
d. Groupwork
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64. To establish an association between an independent variable and a dependent variable, true experimental
designs have at least two groups. The other group does not receive the treatment. This is called:
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Respondents
d. Groupwork
65. It is matching by group. An example of this is when older residents living in a high-rise relocation facility
where they might be group by floor.
a. Pairing
b. Matching
c. Block matching
d. Aggregate matching
66. It is used when participants are group by their characteristics. An example of this is when respondents are
grouped by age, gender or by educational attainment.
a. Pairing
b. Matching
c. Block matching
d. Aggregate matching
67. This kind of responses choices should be mutually exclusive and exhaustive so that every respondent can
find one and only one choice that applies to him or/her
a. Open-ended
b. Close-ended
c. Essay
d. Brief
68. This is conducted by mailing a questionnaire to respondents, who then administer the survey.
a. Electronic/web survey
b. Telephone survey
c. Group-administered survey
d. Mail survey
69. This survey may be announced with an e-mail message to potential respondents that contains a direct
"hotlink" to the survey site.
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a. Electronic/web survey
b. Telephone survey
c. Group - administered survey
d. Mail survey
70. It is a survey completed by individual respondents assembled together.
a. Electronic/web survey
b. Telephone survey
c. Group-administered survey
d. Mail survey
71. In this survey,interviewers question
respondents over the phone and then record their answers.
a. Electronic/web survey
b. Telephone survey
c. Group-administered survey
d. Mail survey
72. These are data that the researcher did not collect to answer the research question that is now of interest;
rather, such data were collected by someone else.
a. Raw data
b. Primary data
c. Secondary data
d. Data
73. A qualitative method for gathering data that involves developing a sustained relationship with people
while they go about their normal activities
a. Intensive interviewing
b. Focus group
c. Participant observation
d. Complete observation
74. A qualitative method that involves open-ended relatively unstructured questioning in which the
interviewer seeks in depth information on the interviewee's feelings, experiences and perceptions
a. Intensive interviewing
b. Focus group
c. Participant observation
d. Complete observation
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75. A qualitative method that involves unstructured group interviews in which the focus group leader actively
encourages discussion among participants on the topics of interest.
a. Intensive interviewing
b. Focus group
c. Participant observation
d. Complete observation
76. It is a method in which natural social processes are studies as they happen in their natural setting and are
left relatively undisturbed. It is also a means for seeing the social world as the research subjects see it, in
its totality, and for understanding subjects' interpretations of that world.
a. Intensive interviewing
b. Focus group
c. Participant observation
d. Complete observation
77. The researchers try to see things as they happen without actively participating in the events.
a. Intensive interviewing
b. Focus group
c. Participant observation
d. Complete observation
78. It is the "systematic, objective, quantitative analysis of message characteristics". Its goal is to develop
inferences from text.
a. Force field analysis
b. Visual analysis
c. Content analysis
d. Narrative analysis
79. It focuses on the "story itself" and seeks to preserve the integrity of personal biographies or a series of
events that cannot adequately be understood in terms of their discrete elements.
a. Force field analysis
b. Visual analysis
c. Content analysis
d. Narrative analysis
80. Resource, raw materials, clients and staff that go into a program is called?
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a. Inputs
b. Outputs
c. Program process
d. Outcomes
81. The complete treatment or service delivered by the program is called?
a. Inputs
b. Outputs
c. Program process
d. Outcomes
82. The service delivered or new products produced by the process are called?
a. Inputs
b. Outputs
c. Program process
d. Outcomes
83. The impact of the program process on the case processed is called?
a. Inputs
b. Outputs
c. Program process
d. Outcomes
84. Information about service delivery system outputs, outcomes, or operations that is available to any
program inputs is called?
a. Population
b. Plan
c. Feedback
d. Stakeholders
85. Individuals and groups who have some basis of concern with the program is called?
a. Population
b. Plan
c. Feedback
d. Stakeholders
86. This method is often a key component of process evaluation studies because they can be used to elucidate
and understand internal program dynamics - even those which are not anticipated.
a. Quantitative method
b. Qualitative method
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c. Descriptive method
d. Experimental method
87. The purpose of this evaluation is to investigate how the program is operating. These are completed to
answer a variety of different questions related to the operation of a particular program.
a. Formative evaluation
b. Process evaluation
c. Outcome evaluation
d. Evaluation
88. This may be used when the evaluation findings are used to help shape and refine the program.
a. Formative evaluation
b. Process evaluation
c. Outcome evaluation
d. Evaluation
89. This kind of evaluation research compares what happened after a program with what would have
happened had there been no program.
a. Formative evaluation
b. Process evaluation
c. Outcome evaluation
d. Evaluation
90. In this analysis, the analyst must identify the particular costs and benefits to be evaluated; which, in turn,
requires the analyst to identify whose perspective will be used in order to determine what can be
considered a benefit and a cost.
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Cost-effectiveness analysis
c. Efficiency analysis
d. Force field analysis
91. This compares the costs of different programs (or interventions) with the actual program outcomes in lieu
of assigning a peso value to the outcomes.
a. Efficiency analysis
b. Cost-benefit analysis
c. Force field analysis
d. Cost-effectiveness analysis
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92. This kind of presentation of data can be easy to read and they highlight a distribution's shape. They are
useful for exploring data because they show the full range of variation and identify data anomalies that
might require further study.
a. Textual
b. Graph
c. Tabular
d. Picture
93. This contains solid bars separated by spaces. It is a good toll for displaying the distribution of variables
measured at the nominal level and other discrete categorical variable because there is, in effect, a gap
between each of the categories.
a. Histogram
b. Frequency polygons
c. Bar chart
d. Frequency distributions
94. It displays the number or percentage (the relative frequencies), or both, of cases corresponding to each of
a variable's values or group of values.
a. Histogram
b. Frequency polygons
c. Bar chart
d. Frequency distributions
95. These are used to display the distribution of quantitative variables that vary along a continuum that has no
necessary gaps. This is called?
a. Histograms
b. Frequency polygons
c. Bar chart
d. Frequency distributions
96. This is a continuous line connects the points representing the number or percentage of cases with each
value. It is called?
a. Histograms
b. Frequency polygons
c. Bar chart
d. Frequency distributions
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97. It is an alternative to the histogram when the distribution of a quantitative continuous variable must be
displayed; this alternative is particularly useful when the variable has a wide range of values. This is called?
a. Histograms
b. Frequency polygons
c. Bar chart
d. Frequency distributions
98. It is a concise summary of the research report that describes the research problem, the sample, the
method and the findings.
a. Abstract
b. Introduction
c. Literature review
d. Method
99. The body of a paper should open with an introduction that represents the specific problem under study,
highlights why such study is important, and describes the research strategy. It answers what, why and how
in a few paragraphs.
a. Abstract
b. Introduction
c. Literature review
d. Method
100. This part discusses the relevant topic, including what is known about the particular topic and what has
been left unanswered. At the end of this section, you are ready to conceptually define your variables and
formally state your hypothesis.
a. Abstract
b. Introduction
c. Literature review
d. Method
101. Describe in detail how the study was carried out. This description enables the reader to evaluate the
appropriateness of your methods and the reliability and validity of your results.
a. Method
b. Literature review
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c. Results
d. Discussion
102. In this section, you typically include subsections that describe the research design, the sample, the
independent and dependent variables (measures), data collection procedures, and statistical or other
analytic procedures.
a. Discussion
b. Results
c. Literature review
d. Method
103. This section summarizes the results of the statistical or qualitative analyses performed on the data.
a. Discussion
b. Results
c. Literature review
d. References
104. This part evaluates and interprets the findings, taking into account the purpose of the study. This
addresses the limitations of the study, the generalizability of the findings and directions of future research.
a. Discussion
b. Results
c. Literature review
d. References
105. It is a quantitative method for identifying patterns of findings across multiple studies of the same
research question.
a. Regression analysis
b. Meta-analysis
c. Participatory action research
d. Descriptive method
106. This shows how evidence about interventions varies across research studies.
a. Regression analysis
b. Meta-analysis
c. Efficiency analysis
d. Participatory action research
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107. This can be used when a number of studies have attempted to answer the same research questions
with similar quantitative methods.
a. Regression analysis
b. Meta-analysis
c. Efficiency analysis
d. Participatory action research
108. It is a technique to combine and statistically analyze the statistical findings in published research
reports.
a. Regression analysis
b. Meta-analysis
c. Efficiency analysis
d. Participatory action research
109. "Formulate your research question before you begin to search, even though the question may change
later. Your question should be neither so broad that hundreds of articles are judged relevant nor so narrow
that you miss important literature". Which best explains the paragraph?
a. Start to identify a list of search items
b. Identify appropriate databases to search
c. Specify your research question
d. Narrow your research
110. "Specify the most important journals that deal with your topic. For example, if your research question
involves the effect of informal support on depression in the elderly, you might consider searching the
literature electronically for studies that mention informal support or just support as well as depression or
elderly depression". Which best explains the paragraph?
a. Start to identify a list of search items
b. Identify appropriate database to search
c. Specify your research question
d. Narrow your research
111. Which among the following are the general features of social research?
a. Work with stakeholders in different aspects of the research process and
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managing the complex power relationships involved.
b. Underpinned by the quest for both usefulness and theoretical contributions so that research is not
categorized as only 'pure' or 'applied'.
c. The use of broad range of research methods and an acceptance of different linkages between research
method and research questions in the context, practices and domains of social work.
d. A pervasive concern with social inclusion, justice and change.
e. Policy-making processes, practice, governance and management, service design, delivery and use, and
interprofessional relationships
Choices: A. abcde B. abcd C. cde D. ac
112. It is understood as original investigation undertaken in order to gain knowledge and understanding.
a. Social Research
b. Research
c. Social Work research
d. Scholarly research
113. Which among the following are the coverage of research in social work?
a. Theory, methodology, ethics and values, and pedagogy as they apply to social work and social care and to
substantive issues in these areas of study
b. Relevant links with other disciplines - most importantly anthropology, criminology, demography,
development studies, economics, education, gerontology, health studies, history, law, penology,
philosophy, politics, psychology, social policy and sociology
c. Relevant links with other stakeholders, professionals, service users and carers
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d. Comparative research and research into international institutions, policy and practice.
Choices: A. abd B. ac C. abcd D. ab
114. It refers to whether the distinctions among disorders and non-disorders make conceptual sense and
can be used appropriately by clinicians.
a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity
115. It is a scientific inquiry conducted in communities and in partnership with researchers. The process of
scientific inquiry is such that community members, persons affected by the health condition, disability or
issue under study, or other key stakeholders in the community's health have the opportunity to be full
participants in each phase of the work (from conception - design - conduct - analysis - interpretation -
conclusions - communication results).
a. Policy aspirations and government research
b. Translational research
c. Interdisciplinary research
d. Community-based participatory research
116. Is the term used to indicate the extent to which a measure captures only true cases, even though it
may classify many people as not having disorder when they truly do?
a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity
117. Is the term used to indicate the extent to which a measure captures all true cases (true positives), even
though in doing so it may also capture many false positives (people who truly
209
don't have the disorder but are identified as having it).
a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity
118. It refers to the extent to which actual clinicians can agree on diagnoses of a series of cases.
a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity
119. It is an approach in which the focus is on training and equipping practitioners with the skills to locate
and utilize applied social research in their practice.
a. Top down
b. Bottom up
c. Middle management
d. Rank-and-file management
120. In this model, practitioners seek continually to update their knowledge base. The strength of such
approach is that it can promote the professional authority and self-esteem of the social worker.
a. Research-based model
b. Embedded research model
c. Organizational excellence model
d. Enlightenment and Engineering model
121. It is more often focused on the effects of policy, or on the interventions into the social contexts and
problems that are, or should be, the subject of policy.
a. Research
b. Social Research
c. Social Work Research
d. Experimental Research
122. It is a research design that is also used studies on environmental, housing and community
development issues in a number of countries.
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a. Policy aspirations and government research
b. Translational research
c. Interdisciplinary research
d. Community-based participatory research
123. Which among the following are the few of the domains of social work research?
a. Nation
b. Community
c. Children, young people and families
d. Health and Well-being
Choices: A. abcd B. bcd C. bc D. bd
124. In this approach, research is to be rooted within systems of social work and social care. Responsibility
for seeing that research informs practice in such settings is the task managers, policy makers and research
specialist.
a. Research-based model
b. Embedded research model
c. Organizational excellence model
d. Enlightenment and Engineering model
125. This approach suggests that research use requires the development of a research-oriented culture
within the social care organization.
a. Research-based model
b. Embedded research model
c. Organizational excellence model
d. Community-based research
126. This model is non-linear in that it views research development, use and roles in a more circular or
dialectic fashion.
a. Research-based model
b. Embedded research model
c. Organizational excellence model
d. Community-based research
127. Which among the following suggest that research is an instrumental activity and that the major task for
social work researchers is to apply the data that comes from research to practice?
a. Research-based model
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b. Embedded research model
c. Organizational excellence model
d. Community-based research
Choices: A. abcd B. acd C. ac D. ab
128. It is a scientific inquiry involving human subjects that takes place in the community - that is outside of
the laboratory, hospital or clinic setting.
a. Research-based model
b. Embedded research model
c. Organizational excellence model
d. Community-based research
129. Which among the following are the importance of social work research?
a. Through research we can challenge perceptions and popular sentiment of those who are in need.
b. Provides methods to address different questions.
c. Social policies and programs and
interventions provided by human service agencies are based on assumptions about the cause of a social
condition.
d. We begin to uncover the various
dimensions of the social condition, the accuracy of our assumptions about what causes the social condition,
the characteristics of people with a particular social status or social problem, and the effectiveness of our
policies and programs to ameliorate the social problem.
Choices: A. acd B. abcd C. bc D. cd
130. Which among the following are the natures
of social work research?
a. Explanatory
b. Participatory
c. Naturalistic
d. Scientific
Choices: A. abcd B. cd C. bcd D. bd
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131. Which among the following are the elements of evidence-based practice in social research which
defines the process of using research findings in decision-making?
a. Best available evidence
b. Service user values and expectations
c. Practitioner knowledge, judgment and expertise
d. Theories, models and approaches Choices: A. abcd B. ab C. abc D. acd
132. Is designed to include comparison groups whose members are randomly assigned to ensure
equivalence, with at least an independent variable manipulated overtime?
a. Experimental method
b. Quasi-experimental method
c. Non-experimental method
d. All of the above
133. Single-subject design for monitoring practice effectiveness is an example of?
a. Experimental method
b. Quasi-experimental method
c. Non-experimental method
d. All of the above
134. Census, survey, sample, case study and ethnography are examples of?
a. Experimental method
b. Quasi-experimental method
c. Non-experimental method
d. All of the above
135. Which among the following are the sources of research topics or problems?
a. Problems can be derived from theories.
b. Problems can be derived from observations, intuitions or a combination of both.
c. Problems existing or prevailing in your agency which you want to solve are good source of research
problems particularly in your line of work.
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d. Problems may also be a repetition or extension of investigations already conducted or else be an offshoot
of studies underway
e. Problems can also be derived from advice of authorities on funding agencies.
Choices: A. acd B. cd C. abde D. abcde
136. Which among the following you should consider as a researcher?
a. Consider your training and personal qualifications
b. Consider the availability of the data involved in the study and the methods and techniques you employ in
gathering the data.
c. Be aware of the availability of the instruments and be ready to prepare them if no standard instrument
exists.
d. Consider the time factor involved in the undertaking.
Choices: A. abcd B. acd C. bc D. b
137. This part of your thesis includes information which would focus attention on the importance and
validity of the problem. It is the general orientation to the problem area. A brief rationale to justify the
problem must be provided. This is the present state of knowledge regarding the problem.
a. Theoretical framework
b. Statement of the Problem
c. Introduction and background
d. Scope and Limitations
138. This is the part of your research which cites authorities or experts who discussed extensively their ideas
concerning the problem area under investigation. These theorists gave thorough explanation or a set of
explanations concerning your research topic. The theoretical framework is a scientific paradigm.
214
a. Theoretical framework
b. Statement of the Problem
c. Introduction and background
d. Scope and Limitations
139. This is the basic difficulty, the issue, the area of concern, the circumstances which exists. Briefly
describe the condition or a situation that exists which is perceived as something less than the ideal; or
what it should be and how you see it to be.
a. Theoretical framework
b. Statement of the Problem
c. Introduction and background
d. Scope and Limitations
140. This part delimits your research by citing who are not included in the study and why? Delineate your
study by specifying what aspects of the problem you are not going to deal with in your study. What are the
limitations of your study? Your study is limited to only what sample, what concept, what content and what
period of time. This part is called?
a. Theoretical framework
b. Statement of the Problem
c. Introduction and background
d. Scope and Limitations
141. Child sensitive techniques and methodologies such as play, visual art and socio-drama (role-playing)
and other expressive techniques in collecting information is usually used in
a. Qualitative research
b. Exploratory research
c. Quantitative research
d. Experimental research
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abc C.) ac D.) ad
142. Which best describe this statement: "What is the extent of role reversal in selected families in Brgy.
Babuyan"
a. Problem statement
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b. Objective
c. Item in the questionnaire
d. Prepared question for the interview guide
143. To determine the extent of role reversal in selected families in Brgy. Mahinhin is an?
a. Problem
b. Objective
c. Goal
d. Achievement
144. The results of this research have no direct impact on action or policy decisions
a. Applied research
b. Classic research
c. Pure research
d. Experimental research
145. What is the norm in the conduct of social research in which the people involved base their voluntary
participation in the research project on a full understanding of the risks involved?
a. Voluntary participation
b. Anonymity
c. Confidentiality
d. Informed consent
146. In the concept of research, social research is categorized as one of these methods in social work
because through these, learning is facilitated in providing knowledge and skills to students.
a. Primary method
b. Secondary method
c. Auxiliary method
d. Integrated method
147. A sampling process that often employed in field research whereby each person interviewed may be
asked to suggest additional people for interviewing (e.g. homeless, foreign housewives).
a. Cluster sampling
b. Snowball sampling
c. Probability sampling
d. Quota sampling
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148. If an increase of one variable is accompanied by decrease in the other variable the relationship is said
to be:
a. Positive
b. Negative or inverse
c. Direct
d. Neither a, b or c
149. The importance of knowing why and how research is done.
a. To learn new facts of social life, to verify old facts and theories build on them, to analyze the sequence and
interrelationships of the social facts and to discover any regularities or at least hypotheses of such
regularities in society.
b. To gather preliminary information, to discover ideas and insights, to get extensive information about a
phenomenon and to provide a basis for the selection of priorities for further investigation.
c. To test causal relationship, to explain a phenomenon in terms of cause and effect relationships and to
compare the effects of two or more procedures called treatments
d. Testing the application of social work
integrated method in the rehabilitation of released prisoners with the use of
experiment and controlled groups as well as the development of the child in foster homes and in institutions.
150. Exploratory or formulative research is a study for the purpose of formulating a problem or developing a
hypothesis:
a. To learn new facts of social life, to verify
old facts and theories build on them, to
analyze the sequence and inter
relationships of the social facts and to discover any regularities or at least
hypotheses of such regularities in society.
b. To gather preliminary information, to discover ideas and insights, to get
217
extensive information about a phenomenon and to provide a basis for the selection of priorities for further
investigation.
c. To test causal relationship, to explain a phenomenon in terms of cause and effect relationships and to
compare the effects of two or more procedures called treatments
d. Testing the application of social work integrated method in the rehabilitation of released prisoners with
the use of experiment and controlled groups as well as the development of the child in foster homes and
in institutions.
151. The special purpose of explanatory or experimental research is
a. To learn new facts of social life, to verify old facts and theories build on them, to analyze the sequence and
interrelationships of the social facts and to discover any regularities or at least hypotheses of such
regularities in society.
b. To gather preliminary information, to discover ideas and insights, to get extensive information about a
phenomenon and to provide a basis for the selection of priorities for further investigation.
c. To test causal relationship, to explain a phenomenon in terms of cause and effect relationships and to
compare the effects of two or more procedures called treatments
d. Testing the application of social work integrated method in the rehabilitation of released prisoners with
the use of experiment and controlled groups as well as the development of the child in foster homes and
in institutions.
152. An example of explanatory or experimental research is
a. To learn new facts of social life, to verify old facts and theories build on them, to
218
analyze the sequence and interrelationships of the social facts and to discover any regularities or at least
hypotheses of such regularities in society.
b. To gather preliminary information, to discover ideas and insights, to get extensive information about a
phenomenon and to provide a basis for the selection of priorities for further investigation.
c. To test causal relationship, to explain a phenomenon in terms of cause and effect relationships and to
compare the effects of two or more procedures called treatments
d. Testing the application of social work integrated method in the rehabilitation of released prisoners with
the use of experiment and controlled groups as well as the development of the child in foster homes and
in institutions.
153. Poverty and delinquency tend to come together, but this does not necessarily mean that the poor is
delinquent is an example of:
a. Inverse Relationship
b. Direct relationship
c. Zero or lack of Association
d. Association
154. An increase in age brings about a decrease in attendance. This might support the hypothesis that
attendance tends to decrease with age. The younger, the more attendance; the older, the less attendance.
This is an example of:
a. Inverse or Negative Relationship
b. Positive or Direct relationship
c. Zero or lack of Association
d. Association
155. Salary and experience plus qualification (i.e. salary gets higher with more experience and higher
educational qualification) is an example of
a. Inverse or Negative Relationship
219
b. Positive or Direct relationship
c. Zero or lack of Association
d. Association
156. Poverty can only be explained by several factors taken together, e.g. employment, education, health,
income, housing, etc. is an example of
a. Inverse or Negative Relationship
b. Positive or Direct relationship
c. Zero or lack of Association
d. Multiple relationship
157. Which does NOT belong to the category of non-experimental method of research?
a. Case Study of Overseas Filipino Migrant Worker
b. Labor Migration Census
c. Pilot Study of Services for Overseas Filipina Workers
d. Sample Survey of Overseas Filipina Workers
158. What principles does the researcher show when s/he cannot identify a given respondent from among
her accomplished interview protocols?
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
c. Relativity
d. Objectivity
159. What if the researcher explains to potential subjects fully their role and the consequences of their
research participation - It means that the researcher wants to obtain the subject voluntary participation as
evidence by the latter's
a. Acceptance
b. Confidentiality
c. Anonymity
d. Informed consent
160. Is a process in which the practitioner combines well-researched interventions with clinical experienced
and ethics, and client preferences and culture to guide and inform the delivery of treatments and services?
220
a. Remedial Approach
b. Community-based Practice
c. Evidence-based Practice
d. Action-research
161. To solve a problem, what do people resort to for its own sake, as intrinsic human needs?
a. Curiosity
b. Dexterity (skillful)
c. Humility
d. Observation
162. When the researcher proposed that homeless individuals do not want to work because evidence
indicates that many are unemployed due the difficulty in finding jobs for those who have mental or
physical disabilities. The researcher used?
a. Selective observation
b. Overgeneralization
c. Illogical reasoning
d. Inaccurate observation
163. The social work practitioner is (a/an)
a. Knowledge consumer
b. Literature reader
c. Knowledge producer
Choice: a. ABC b. AC c. AB d. BC
164. In social work practice, every case is an experiment because the social worker
a. Applies tested knowledge
b. Deliver services
c. Intervenes guided by an assessment of client conditions, a hypothetical program theory of change, and
outcome measures.
d. Manipulates the client and his/her situation
165. Social work research is an applied research when it seeks to
a. Build theories
b. Find the solutions to identified day to day problems
c. Develop designs for testing concepts
d. Test and develop models
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166. A social work practitioner documents the
details of an intervention in a kind of research called .
a. Process documentation
b. Statistical reports
c. Case study report
d. Journal
167. Choose the appropriate research objective for client's assessment in a given locality
a. To find facts
b. To describe the population characteristics
c. To evaluate program
d. To test the feasibility of a micro-enterprise
168. The utilization of policy research may be maximized by dissemination of findings by the:
a. Pilot program implementers
b. Policy makers
c. Program developers
d. None of the above
169. A study that seeks to determine the reasonableness of a proposal such as income generation project
e.g. with variables like participant's readiness, capability and acceptance to handle the project, spells out
the goal(s) of
a. Feasibility study
b. Evaluation study
c. Needs assessment
d. Project monitoring
170. Should a practitioner want to establish a basis for action program, he/she would likely conduct
a. Impact study
b. Explanatory study
c. Process monitoring
d. Exploratory study
171. The researcher's analytical framework and interpretive approach of the problem being investigated
reflects the researcher's
a. Conceptual framework
b. Theoretical framework
c. Rationale for conducting the study
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d. Time frame of the study
172. A chart of time and related activities
presents a list of expected tasks to be accomplished within a specified time frame.
a. Fishbone
b. Gantt
c. Flow
d. Time
173. Photography is an excellent data collection tool for gathering:
a. Physical observations
b. Observations on prepared questions
c. Observations revealed by tests
d. None of the above
174. Whether explicit or implicit, an action research project generally
a. Tests several transformative change hypotheses
b. Monitors presumed desired change/s during and after implementation of program
c. Assures that program will be effective in whatever political leadership
d. Assumes that project will be good for the people
175. In research documentation and reporting,
there is an element in the communication process that informs how the target audience receives the research
findings. This element is called .
a. Sources
b. Message
c. Receiver
d. Feedback
176. In an agency for the mentally-challenged, social workers are guided by a diagnostic tool referred to
as...
a. Intelligence Quotient
b. Motor development test
c. Personality test
d. Literacy test
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177. A researcher who analyzes documents, interviews key informants and conducts participant observation
is most likely engaged in
a. A census
b. A laboratory study
c. A field research
d. A survey
178. Which item below does not describe the advantages of the case study research method:
a. Retains the holistic and meaningful characteristics of real life events
b. Multiple sources of evidence
c. Allows manipulation of subjects
d. Describes an intervention and real life context in which it was served
179. A way of finding out the present strength and weaknesses of an instrument
a. Trial and error
b. Practice wisdom
c. Pre-test
d. Post-test
180. The social work researcher decides to work
on a particular researcher question. A research question is appropriate for social work research, if the
answer/s to the question is/are ?
a. Applicable to social work practice
b. Contributory to the assistance that clients deserve
c. Useful to correct or improve social work image to the public
d. All of the above
181. If researchers acknowledge only instances that confirm their predisposition, this is called?
a. Selective observation
b. Overgeneralization
c. Illogical reasoning
d. Inaccurate observation
182. One way to develop the research question is by way of literature review. Researcher/s, who does not
give credit to someone else's ideas, particularly if they are not written ideas, may be guilty of...
224
a. Deception
b. Imitation
c. Piracy
d. Plagiarism
183. When collecting data, researchers need to be
connected about at least four (4) ethical issues, namely, potential harm to subjects, anonymity and
confidentiality and ?
a. Accountability
b. Manageable
c. Informed consent
d. Permission
184. To do an evaluation or any other research for that matter, social workers carefully consider possible
consequences and follow guidelines for the protection of evaluation and research participants. They want
to:
a. Assess the merits of the study
b. Ensures anonymity
c. Safeguard confidentiality
d. Save the subjects from potential harm
185. What principles does the researcher show when s/he cannot identify a given respondent from among
her accomplished interview protocols?
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
c. Relativity
d. Objectivity
186. It occurs when we conclude that we have observed or what we know to be true for some cases is true
for all cases.
a. Selective observation
b. Overgeneralization
c. Illogical reasoning
d. Inaccurate observation
187. Because the researcher knows the identity of the research respondents and their associated responses,
s/he has to ensure not to disclose this information, based on the principle of
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
225
c. Relativity
d. Objectivity
188. Using data that are not collected directly from participants (such as client records and other secondary
data sources), does not exempt the researcher from another ethical responsibility such as:
a. Process documentation
b. Justifying the needs for the study
c. Keeping the records
d. Updating the records
189. When does a researcher run the risk of manipulating the participants by establishing a comparison or
control group in the name of science:
a. When this involves denying services to the client services, e.g. support services while the study is on-going.
b. When this involves denying them the knowledge that they are made participants of the study
c. When this ignores their capability to decide whether or not to participate
d. All of the above
190. To avoid and manage complexities and ill- effects of establishing a comparison or control group as
mentioned in the previous question, researchers may -
a. Assign the group members to other types of intervention that may help ameliorate the ill effects of being
assigned to a comparison or control group
b. Assign baseline comparison groups
c. Use waiting list and cohort groups
d. All of the above
191. If the researcher explains to potential subjects fully their role and the consequences of their research
participation - It means that the researcher wants to obtain the subject voluntary participation as evidence
by the latter's
a. Acceptance
b. Confidentiality
226
c. Anonymity
d. Informed consent
192. There are those who argue that a practice evaluation study interferes with practice. However, if a
client participates in data collection, e.g. as data provided, what ADVANTAGES does the study gain?
a. A more refined data collection method may be developed to explore and gain further insights into the
client's target problem.
b. Client's involvement in the changes process goes beyond the research process; and vice-versa
c. Direct client feedback
d. All of the above
193. When researcher uses, for instance, descriptive statistics to portray data, they have to ensure that the
statistic being used is correct and appropriate. Without accurate reporting of the methods uses and the
results obtained, the researcher may...
a. Distort that data to fit any preconceived ideas
b. Leave out the data that do not support the hypothesis
c. Not make possible the study replication
d. Fabricate and falsify results
Choices: A. abcd B. abc C. bcd D. acd
194. It requires that the choice of an intervention should be based on the best evidence to achieve a
particular outcome, client values, client circumstances, and clinical expertise.
a. Evidence-based practice
b. Social work practice
c. Community-based practice
d. Center-based practice
195. As researchers, if we are convinced in advanced that all homeless persons are substance abuser, this is
called?
a. Selective observation
227
b. Overgeneralization
c. Illogical reasoning
d. Inaccurate observation
196. In consulting case records written by others, and by referring to agency statistics when writing up
reports, generalist social work practitioner's use:
a. Archival data
b. Judgment
c. Primary data
d. Secondary data
197. "Other categories" of responses. The proper treatments of various categories of responses are often
anticipated in quantitative studies. Responses that do not easily fit the prearranged categories will be
better handled if:
a. The integrity of the data is preserved
b. The responses stay where they are supposed to be, in "others" category
c. New categories are created
d. They are distributed in the existing categories
198. Because subjectivity rather than objectivity overrides in qualitative studies, it is ethical for the
qualitative researcher to make data by:
a. Establishing a reliability check
b. Getting some feedback from outsider about the notes and coding done
c. Recognizing that the nature of data is a product of the relationship between the researcher and the
researched
d. All of the above
199. Your supervisor asks you to conduct a needs assessment for an after school program in your
community. You are excited to show off some of your newly acquired research skills. But the next day an
ex-classmate calls you from the city: After you tell her about your assignment, she told you that she has
just finished conducting the same study in her community. What would be ethical for you to do?
228
a. Acknowledge your friend's information as useful aid in the development of your needs assessment study
b. Continue with your plan to do the needs assessment and collect the credit
c. Abandon the idea of conducting a needs assessment in your own community now
d. All of the above
200. In participatory research, the social work researcher is not simply concerned with people's
participation. He or she aims to convert new knowledge into new products and process through:
a. Applied research
b. Basic research
c. Mission-oriented research
d. Concretizing research
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Answer Key
1. A 41. C 81. C 121. C 161. A
2. D 42. A 82. B 122. D 162. C
3. B 43. B 83. D 123. A 163. B
4. C 44. A 84. C 124. B 164. C
5. B 45. C 85. D 125. C 165. B
6. D 46. A 86. B 126. C 166. A
7. A 47. D 87. B 127. D 167. B
8. B 48. B 88. A 128. D 168. C
9. B 49. A 89. C 129. B 169. A
10. D 50. A 90. A 130. C 170. D
11. D 51. C 91. D 131. C 171. B
12. B 52. D 92. B 132. A 172. B
13. C 53. D 93. C 133. B 173. A
14. B 54. D 94. D 134. C 174. B
15. A 55. D 95. A 135. D 175. D
16. B 56. C 96. B 136. A 176. A
17. D 57. D 97. B 137. C 177. C
18. A 58. B 98. A 138. A 178. C
19. C 59. A 99. B 139. B 179. C
20. C 60. D 100. C 140. D 180. D
21. C 61. C 101. A 141. B 181. A
22. C 62. B 102. D 142. A 182. D
23. D 63. A 103. B 143. B 183. C
24. A 64. B 104. A 144. C 184. D
25. D 65. D 105. B 145. D 185. A
26. C 66. C 106. B 146. C 186. B
27. D 67. B 107. B 147. B 187. B
28. A 68. D 108. B 148. B 188. B
29. B 69. A 109. C 149. A 189. D
30. B 70. C 110. A 150. B 190. D
31. B 71. B 111. B 151. C 191. D
32. D 72. C 112. B 152. D 192. D
33. D 73. C 113. C 153. D 193. A
34. A 74. A 114. A 154. A 194. A
35. D 75. B 115. D 155. B 195. A
36. A 76. C 116. D 156. D 196. D
37. D 77. D 117. C 157. C 197. A
38. A 78. C 118. B 158. A 198. A
39. A 79. D 119. B 159. D 199. A
40. D 80. A 120. A 160. C 200. A

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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
233

SOCIAL WELFARE POLICIES, PROGRAMS, AND SERVICES

1. This principle refers to the authority of the State to place children in better circumstances when their
parents cannot provide care and protection.
a. Institutional care
b. In Loco Parentis
c. Parens Patriae
d. Substitute Parental Authority
2. This law confided the articulation of the rights of children in the Philippines and responsibilities of parents,
the community, the school, the church, and the State for their welfare.
a. PD 603
b. Republic Act 7610
c. Convention on the Rights of the Child
d. Republic Act 9231
3. The provision of a substitute home to a dependent or abandoned child or in cases where there is an
absence of a wholesome family falls under the category of what right of children?
a. Right to Survival
b. Right to Protection
c. Right to Development
d. Right to Participation
4. The child's right to contribute his share in building a better world is referred to as:
a. Right to Development
b. Right to Protection
c. Right to Participate
d. Right to Survival
5. The ultimate aim of this kind of program in child welfare is to reunite the child with the biological family or
to prepare the child for adoption or, in the case of older children, to prepare them for independent living.
a. Adoption
b. Foster Care
c. Legal Guardianship
d. Residential/Institutional Care
6. A child who voluntarily engages in sexual act with another person, whether for money or any
235
other consideration, can still accuse the perpetrator for rape because of the following reason:
a. Child prostitution is unlawful
b. As a minor, the child cannot give his consent to the act
c. The act damages her physio- psychological well-being
d. The act makes the child promiscuous
7. Republic Act 6972 or the Barangay Total Development and Child Protection Act provides one basic
measure to serve children in their formative years and this is called?
a. Establishment of breast-feeding centers
b. Establishment of day care centers
c. Supplemental feeding
d. Establishment of health centers
8. This set of law has been conceived to preserve the ideals of liberty, equality and security as enshrined in
the 1987 Constitution.
a. Socio Economic Rights
b. Political Rights
c. Bill of Rights
d. Equal protection
9. This is a major consideration in the formulation of a policy.
a. Intention or purposes
b. Action the follows policy formulation
c. Service delivery
d. Demand for service by the community
10. Republic Act 8425 is otherwise known as:
a. Poverty Alleviation Act
b. Anti-dangerous Drugs Act of 2000
c. Creation of Anti-Poverty Commission
d. Minimum Wage Act
11. As defined in PD 603, a child is a person who is:
a. 18 years old
b. 15 years old
c. Below 15 years old
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d. None of the Above
12. This is an Act providing comprehensive package of psycho-social services to solo parents and their
children:
a. Republic Act 8505
b. Republic Act 7160 C. Republic Act 7877 d. Republic Act 8972
13. Which among the following laws may be the legal basis for the protection of children especially those who
are abused?
a. United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child
b. Republic Act 7610 C. Republic Act 9344 d. Republic Act 9262
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abd C.) acd D.) bcd
14. The Indigenous People's biggest fight for their rights is in the area of:
a. Cultural heritage
b. Community development
c. Ancestral domain
d. Economic upliftment
15. Republic Act 8371 created
the .
a. National Anti-Poverty Commission
b. National Economic Development Authority
c. National Commission on Indigenous People
d. National Commission on the Role of Filipino Women
16. A solo parent with responsibility of parenthood as defined in the law does not include
a. Widower
b. OFW spouse with contact of spouse abroad
c. Unwed mother
d. Physical incapacity of spouse
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other consideration, can still accuse the perpetrator for rape because of the following reason:
a. Child prostitution is unlawful
b. As a minor, the child cannot give his consent to the act
c. The act damages her physio- psychological well-being
d. The act makes the child promiscuous
7. Republic Act 6972 or the Barangay Total Development and Child Protection Act provides one basic
measure to serve children in their formative years and this is called?
a. Establishment of breast-feeding centers
b. Establishment of day care centers
c. Supplemental feeding
d. Establishment of health centers
8. This set of law has been conceived to preserve the ideals of liberty, equality and security as enshrined in
the 1987 Constitution.
a. Socio Economic Rights
b. Political Rights
c. Bill of Rights
d. Equal protection
9. This is a major consideration in the formulation of a policy.
a. Intention or purposes
b. Action the follows policy formulation
C. Service delivery
d. Demand for service by the community
10. Republic Act 8425 is otherwise known as:
a. Poverty Alleviation Act
b. Anti-dangerous Drugs Act of 2000
c. Creation of Anti-Poverty Commission
d. Minimum Wage Act
11. As defined in PD 603, a child is a person who is:
a. 18 years old
b. 15 years old
c. Below 15 years old
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d. None of the Above
12. This is an Act providing comprehensive package of psycho-social services to solo parents and their
children:
a. Republic Act 8505
b. Republic Act 7160
c. Republic Act 7877
d. Republic Act 8972
13. Which among the following laws may be the legal basis for the protection of children especially those who
are abused?
a. United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child
b. Republic Act 7610
c. Republic Act 9344
d. Republic Act 9262
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abd C.) acd D.) bcd
14. The Indigenous People's biggest fight for their rights is in the area of:
a. Cultural heritage
b. Community development
c. Ancestral domain
d. Economic upliftment
15. Republic Act 8371 created
the .
a. National Anti-Poverty Commission
b. National Economic Development Authority
c. National Commission on Indigenous People
d. National Commission on the Role of Filipino Women
16. A solo parent with responsibility of parenthood as defined in the law does not include
a. Widower
b. OFW spouse with contact of spouse abroad
c. Unwed mother
d. Physical incapacity of spouse
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17. Children in entertainment industry need to get a working permit from:
a. MTRCB
b. DOLE
C. DSWD
d. DOJ
18. An articulation of a policy is:
a. Policy demand
b. Policy outcome
c. Policy output
d. Policy statement
19. Conscious act made by officers of organizations that authorize or give direction to policy actions.
a. Policy decision
b. Policy statement
c. Policy demand
d. Policy output
20. Claims made upon people of authority by stakeholders in order for them to do something in response to
some human need/problem or violations of human rights.
a. Policy decision
b. Policy statement
c. Policy demand
d. Policy output
21. A flash flood brought havoc to the province where you are assigned as a Provincial Social Welfare Officer.
The first thing that you should do is:
a. Conduct an assessment on the extent of disaster
b. Rescue the victims
c. Conduct critical incidence stress debriefing
d. Call for a meeting of the different stakeholders
22. The socio-legal process of providing permanent family to a child whose parents have voluntarily or
involuntarily relinquished parental authority over the child is called
a. Foster care
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b. Adoption
c. Legal Guardianship
d. Protective Custody
23. This signifies the State's first official acknowledgment of the child's existence.
a. Birth
b. Delivery
c. Baptism
d. Registration
24. The act providing for the elimination of the worst form of child labor and affording stronger protection for
the working children is also known as:
a. Republic Act 8972
b. Republic Act 8187
C. Republic Act 9208
d. Republic Act 9231
25. The Free Public Secondary Education Act of 1988 is otherwise known as:
a. Republic Act No. 8353
b. Republic Act no. 6655
c. Republic Act No. 7877
d. None of the above
26. The following are the components of adoption, which one is not?
a. Preparation of the child and family prior to placement to insure acceptance and readiness for the new
relationship
b. Supervision of trial custody for at least six months to facilitate the child's adjustment in the family prior
to the completion of adoption
c. The right of the adopter and the adoptee to be legal and compulsory heirs of each other
d. Post-legal adoption counseling when adoptive family and adoptee need further counseling related to
information about adoptee's background and search for his/her biological parents.
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27. Which among the following is not an effect of adoption?
a. Finalization of adoption and termination of service with issuance of the final decree of adoption and
amended birth certificate
b. Several legal ties between the biological parent/s and the adoptee, except when the biological parent is
the spouse of the adopter
c. Give adopter and the adoptee reciprocal rights and obligations arising from the relationship of parent and
child.
d. Deem the adoptee as a legitimate child of the adopter.
28. Which among the following are the
requirements to become a foster parent/s?
a. Foster parent should be physically and emotionally healthy
b. Legally married between 25 to 60 years old
c. Should have a genuine interest in parenting a non-related child, provide normal family life, care and love.
d. Has the capacity to keep the means of the family
Choices: A.) abcd B.) bcd C.) ac D.) abd
29. Which among the following concept is incorrect?
a. In foster care, the choice will only be limited as to sex, age and physical appearance of the child.
b. In foster care, a child is selected and matched on the basis of the capacity of the child to benefit from the
resources of the family.
c. In foster care, a family should be provided with information on the child, a picture and medical report.
d. In adoption, the adoptive families go through the process of application to finalization of the child's
adoption under the auspices of the DSWD or a licensed child-placing agency.
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30. In this type of adoption, the biological parents make a direct placement of the child to a member of their
extended family with whom they relinquish their authority
a. Agency adoption
b. Intermediary placement
c. Relative adoption
d. Open and close adoption
31. In this type of adoption, the legal rights of the child, the parents who gave birth and the parents who will
adopt the child, are all equally protected.
a. Agency adoption
b. Intermediary placement
c. Relative adoption
d. Open and close adoption
32. In this type of adoption, a licensed adoption agency finds and develops adoptive families for children who
are voluntarily or involuntarily committed.
a. Agency adoption
b. Intermediary placement
c. Relative adoption
d. Open and close adoption
33. Under this right, the State must meet the basic needs of children such as adequate and nutritious foods,
potable water, shelter, and access to health care.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right
34. Under this right, children have the right to a safe and positive environment where they can avoid
discrimination and all forms of abuse, neglect and exploitation
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right

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35. Under this right, it includes reducing infant and child mortality, combating diseases, and rehabilitation.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right
36. Under this right, the State is obliged to prevent any measure that will end a child's life such as death
penalty and arbitrary or summary executions.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right
37. In this right, the State is required to provide special protection, monitoring mechanisms, and to ensure
recovery, rehabilitation and reintegration of abused and exploited children.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right
38. In this right, children have to develop into productive adults of society and the world.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right
39. Under this right, the right to education, play and opportunities to develop their capacities and fulfill their
potentials must be met.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right
40. Under this right, all children have the right to actively be with their families, communities and nations.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right

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c. Development right
d. Protection right
41. Under this right, it provides children the right to freedom of thought, conscience and religion, access
appropriate information, express their opinions and be seriously considered.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right
42. In this kind of right, States are required to create an environment conducive to ensuring the maximum
extent possible the survival and development of the child, including physical, mental, spiritual, moral,
psychological and social development.
a. Survival right
b. Participation right
c. Development right
d. Protection right
43. The Declaration of Human Rights and the UN CRC are anchored on the principle of nondiscrimination. They
are applicable to every child in any socio-economic, political and cultural context. Thus, children and adult
should be treated equally. In this context, what is the guiding principle in children's participation
presented?
a. All children have inherent worth and dignity
b. Children and adults are partners
c. A holistic perspective
d. openness
44. It is the national agency responsible for affairs concerning children.
a. Child Fund
b. Christian Children's Fund
c. National Anti-Poverty Commission
d. Council for the Welfare of Children
45. It is the agency that implements the antipoverty programs of the President which is also
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mandated the representation of the Children's Basic Sector in this agency.
a. Child Fund
b. Christian Children's Fund
c. National Anti-Poverty Commission
d. Council for the Welfare of Children
46. In the Philippine context, which among the following factors are critical to understanding the continuing
cycle of child abuse, violence and exploitation.
1. Inadequate services and resources for children are the level of national government agencies and local
government units.
2. Values, attitudes and practices that lead or contribute to abuse, violence and exploitation.
3. Children's inadequate knowledge and life skills and lack of effective participation in decisions that affect
them.
4. Weak and inconsistent enforcement of child protection laws and ordinances at national and local levels.
5. Child protection requires a critical analysis and understanding of the factors that lead to abuse, violence
and exploitation.
Choices: a.) 235 b.) 1234 c.) 1235 d.) 145
47. Under the UNCRC, the Convention recognizes that the level of child's participation in decisions must be
appropriate to the child's development maturity. In this right, children's ability to form and express their
opinions develops with age and most adults will naturally give the views of teenager greater weight than
those of preschoolers, whether in family, legal or administrative decisions. The right referred to by the
paragraph is the right to?
a. Freedom of expression
b. Freedom of thought, conscience and religion
c. Respect for the views of the child
d. Access to information; mass media
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48. Under the UNCRC, children have the right to get and share information, as long as the information is not
damaging to them or others. In exercising this right, children have the responsibility to also respect the
rights and reputation of others. This also include the right to share information in any way they choose,
including by talking, drawing or writing. This right is called?
a. Freedom of expression
b. Freedom of thought, conscience and religion
c. Respect for the views of the child
d. Access to information; mass media
49. Under the UNCRC, children have the right to get information that is important to their health and well-
being. In this right, children should also have access to children's books.
a. Freedom of expression
b. Freedom of thought, conscience and religion
c. Respect for the views of the child
d. Access to information; mass media
50. The following are the undertaking of the State parties in condemning discrimination against women in all
its form, which one is not?
a. To adopt appropriate legislative and other measures, including sanctions where appropriate, prohibiting all
discrimination against women.
b. To participate in the formulation of government policy and the implementation thereof and to hold public
office and perform all public functions at all level of government.
c. To embody the principle of the equality of men and women in their national constitutions or other
appropriate legislation of not yet incorporated therein to ensure, through law and other
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appropriate means, practical realization of this principle.
d. To take all appropriate measures to eliminate discrimination against women by any person, organization
or enterprise.
51. The following are the measures to eliminate discrimination against women in order to ensure to them
equal rights with men in the field of education, which one is not?
a. The same conditions for career and vocational guidance, for access to studies and for the achievement of
diplomas in educational establishments of all categories.
b. The same opportunities to benefit from scholarships and other study grants
c. The reduction of female drop-out rates and the organization of programs for girls and women who have
left school prematurely
d. The right to free choice of profession and all benefits and conditions of service and the right to receive
vocational training and retraining, including apprenticeship, advance vocational training and recurrent
training
52. Which agency is mandated by law, with the assistance of the National Commission on the Role of Filipino
Women, which shall ensure that the different government departments, including its agencies and
instrumentalities which, directly or indirectly, affect the participation of women in national development
and their integration therein.
a. National Commission on the Role of Filipino Women
b. Philippine Commission on Women
c. National Organization for Women
d. National Economic and Development Authority
53. It was created by virtue of Republic Act No. 9262 to ensure its effective implementation.
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a. Inter-agency Council on Violence Against Women and their Children
b. Department of Interior and Local Government
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. Philippine Commission on Women
54. The following are the components that have been identified as elements of an effective child protection
system, which one is not?
a. Legal and Policy Framework
b. National Plan of Action for Children
c. Effective regulation and oversight
d. A skilled child protection workforce
55. This agency is tasked to provide protection and assistance to person who are traded and marketed.
a. Inter-agency on Violence Against Women and their Children
b. Philippine Commission on Women
c. National Bureau of Investigation
d. Inter-agency Council Against Trafficking in Person
56. This agency provides skills and entrepreneurial training to trafficked persons and formulate a special
program to ensure the provision of appropriate skills training for trafficked victims
a. DILG
b. DepEd
C. TESDA
d. DILG
57. This agency conducts operations in coordination with law enforcement agencies. It also serves as the focal
point in international law enforcement coordination in trafficking in persons particularly with the
INTERPOL
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Philippine Center on Transnational Crime
c. Commission on Human Rights
d. Overseas Workers Welfare
Administration
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58. This agency coordinates poverty reduction
programs by national and local governments and ensures that marginalized sectors
participate in government decision-making
processes.
a. Housing and Urban Development
Coordinating Council
b. Presidential Commission on the Urban Poor
c. National Anti-Poverty Commission
d. National Housing Authority
59. This agency acts as the coordinating and
advisory body that exercises oversight functions in the implementation of the Social Reform Agenda (SRA) and
ensures that is incorporated into the formulation of the national, regional, sub-regional and local development
plans.
a. Presidential Commission on the Urban Poor
b. National housing Authority
c. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
d. National Anti-Poverty Commission
60. Throughout the life cycle of the child, s/he needs parental care/support, caring/nurturing family
environment. This principle is equivalent to the following child's right which one is not?
a. To have adequate nourishment
b. To be provided with parental care and support
c. To have access to safe water and sanitation
d. To be born healthy, well, and wanted.
61. During infancy or from birth up to 24 months, the child is dependent on parents especially the mother for
love, nutrition and stimulation. A loving, nurturing, and supportive parent is needed for survival and
development of the child. This principle is equivalent to which among the following rights?
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a. To be carried to term with proper nutrition and have normal fetal development in the womb of a healthy
and properly nourished mother
b. To be safe from any form of violence, abuse and exploitation
c. To receive complete and timely immunization
d. To have a clean and safe home and community
62. During the early childhood, child explores the environment of the home and develops interpersonal and
socialization skills; psychomotor development occurs. In this context, which among the following are the
rights afforded in this stage?
i. To be breastfed immediately after birth
ii. To experience early childhood care and stimulation of development
iii. To avail of the free micro-nutrient supplement
iv. To receivefree and compulsory
elementary education
Choices: a.) iii, iv c.) i, ii, iii
b.) ii, iii d.) ii, iii, iv
63. The following laws strengthen families and safeguard children's rights, which one is not?
a. Republic Act No. 8369
b. The Family Code of the Philippines
c. Child and Youth Welfare Code
d. Republic Act No. 7160
64. The following laws provide the rights of children to health and nutrition, which one is not?
a. Republic Act No. 6972
b. Republic Act No. 7600
c. Republic Act No. 8172
d. Republic Act 10028
65. The following laws recognize the right of children to participation, which one is not?
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a. Republic Act 8296
b. Republic Act No. 8370
C. Republic Act No. 6655
d. Republic Act No. 8425
66. This is an Act Allowing the Illegitimate Children to use the Surname of their Father.
a. Republic Act No. 9344
b. Republic Act No. 8972
c. Republic Act No. 9346
d. Republic Act No. 9255
67. This act provides the full legal armor against producers, transmitters, sellers and users of child
pornography in whatever form, as well as the means of production, dissemination and consumption, in
public and private spaces.
a. Republic Act No. 9710
b. Republic Act No. 9745
c. Republic Act No. 9775
d. Republic Act No. 9262
68. Which is the correct statement among the following:
a. A child fifteen years of age or under at the time of the commission of the offense shall be exempt from
criminal liability but shall be subjected to intervention program
b. A child fifteen years of age or under at the time of the commission of the offense shall be exempt from
criminal liability but shall be subjected to diversion program
c. A child above fifteen years but below eighteen years of age shall likewise be exempt from criminal
liability and be subjected to diversion program, unless he/she has acted with discernment
d. A child above fifteen years but below eighteen years of age is not exempt from criminal liability but
subject to an intervention program
69. Which among the following context is incorrect?
a. If it has been determined that the child taken into custody is fifteen years old and
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below, the authority which will have an initial contract with the child, in consultation with the local social
welfare and development officer, has the duty to immediately release the child to the custody of his/her
parents or guardian, or in the absence thereof, the child's nearest relatives.
b. If it has been determined that the child taken into custody is fifteen years old and above but below
eighteen, the authority which will have an initial contact with the child, in consultation with the local social
welfare and development officer, has the duty to immediately release the child to the custody of his/her
parents or guardian, or in the absence thereof, the child's nearest relatives.
c. If it has been determined that the child taken into custody is fifteen years old and below, the child shall be
subjected to a community-based intervention program supervised by the local social welfare and
development officer, unless the best interest of the child requires the referral of the child to a youth care
facility or Bahay pag-asa.
d. If it has been determined that the child taken into custody is fifteen years old and above but below
eighteen, who acted with discernment, proceed to diversion.
70. The following are the children eligible for foster care placement, which one is not?
a. Children from infancy to below 18 years of age who are abandoned by parents in hospitals or other places
or with relatives who are not qualified or incapable to care for them
b. Children from infancy to below eighteen years of age who are waiting for adoptive placement
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c. Children from infancy to below eighteen years of age who are legally available for adoption
d. Children from infancy to below eighteen years of age who need special care and protection due to sexual
or physical abuse
71. Which among the following context is incorrect?
a. Foster families must demonstrate financial and emotional stability, should at least be 25 years of age, may
either be married, widowed, separated or single.
b. Foster families cannot choose the age and sex and other information of the child they wish to foster
because the paramount consideration is the best interest of the child.
c. The prospective foster parents' family should be in good health, emotionally stable and physically fit.
d. Foster parent can adopt they foster child/ren.
72. Which among the following are the functions of National Anti-Poverty Commission?
a. Ensure meaningful representation and active participation of the basic sectors
b. Provide financial and non-financial incentives to LGUs with counterpart resources for the implementation
of programs
c. Coordinate with local government units in the formulation of programs for their respective areas in
conformity with the national poverty action agenda
d. Use community organization method by organizing the people in the village
Choices: A.) abcd B.) acd C.) abc D.) ad
73. This law seeks to mainstream climate change in the formulation of government policy by setting
252
up a National Framework Strategy and Program on Climate Change
a. Republic Act No. 9729
b. Republic Act No. 8749
c. Republic Act No. 9003
d. Republic Act No. 8049
74. This law was enacted to arrive at an effective air quality management program that will mitigate the
worsening problem of air pollution in the country.
a. Republic Act No. 9729
b. Republic Act No. 8749
c. Republic Act No. 9003
d. Republic Act No. 8049
75. This law aims to provide a comprehensive solution to the country's garbage problem.
a. Republic Act No. 9729
b. Republic Act No. 8749
c. Republic Act No. 9003
d. Republic Act No. 8049
76. This law guarantees free legal services to the poor to be provided by competent and independent private
counsel of his/her own choice.
a. Republic Act No. 10157
b. Republic Act No. 6972
c. Republic Act No. 9433
d. Republic Act No. 9999
77. This law repealed the Early Childhood Care and Development Act (R.A. 8980)
a. Republic Act No. 10410
b. Republic Act No. 10165
c. Republic Act No. 10533
d. Republic Act No. 10361
78. Which among the following circumstances where an individual is qualified for probation?
a. Offenders 18 years old and above and who are not disqualified by law who are those sentenced to
serve a maximum term of imprisonment of more than six (6) years
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b. Convicted of subversion or any offense against the security of the State
c. Offenders who are 18 years old above who are those sentenced to serve a maximum term of
imprisonment of not more than six (6) years.
d. Who have been once on probation
79. In cases of worst form of child labor, who among the following may file a complaint?
a. Offended party
b. Social workers or representatives of a licensed child caring institutions
c. Barangay chairperson of the place where the violation occurred or where the child is residing or employed
d. At least 2 concerned responsible citizen where the child is residing or employed
Choices: A.) abcd B.) bcd C.) abc D.) ab
80. In Republic Act No. 9523, an abandoned child may be declared as such when s/he is abandoned by his/her
parents for a continuous period of:
a. Three (3) months
b. Six (6) months
c. One (1) year
d. One (1) month
81. This law was signed on May 16, 2013 and was known as K to 12 which requires a mandatory kindergarten
plus six (6) years of elementary; four (4) years junior high school and two (2) years of senior high school.
a. Republic Act No. 10410
b. Republic Act No. 10165
c. Republic Act No. 10533
d. Republic Act No. 10360
82. This law was signed on January 20, 2012 which institutionalized kindergarten starting from 2011-2012 for
children 5 years old preparatory to grade 1 is mandatory and compulsory. It also
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provides that the medium of instruction is child's mother tongue.
a. Republic Act No. 10157
b. Republic Act No. 10022
C. Republic Act No. 10364
d. Republic Act No. 10361
83. This is a socio-legal process of adopting a Filipino child by a foreigner or a Filipino citizen permanently
residing abroad where the petitioner is filed, supervised trial custody is undertaken and the decree of
adoption is issued outside the Philippines
a. Relative Adoption
b. Agency Adoption
c. Inter-country Adoption
d. Non-relative Adoption
84. At the age of 16, Guess Abelgas was charged of robbery. He did not receive any document from the
prosecutor's office giving him an opportunity to explain or counter the case charged against him. The case
was filed before the court and the latter issued a warrant of arrest. The initial contact was when he was
arrested by the law enforcement officers at the age of 19. He was turned over to your office. Will the
Revised Rules on Children in Conflict Law provided by the Supreme Court applies?
a. Yes, because at the time of the commission of the offense guess Abelgas is a minor.
b. Yes, because he was not given an opportunity to explain which violates due process.
c. No, because the initial contact was when he was arrested after he reached eighteen.
d. No, because he is no longer a minor.
85. This refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions which are most congenial to the survival,
protection and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child's
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physical, psychological and emotional
development. It also means the least detrimental available alternative for safeguarding the growth and
development of the child.
a. Child at Risk
b. Best Interest of the Child
c. Child in Conflict with the Law
d. Initial Contact with the Child
86. Refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or to the placement of a child of a child in conflict with
the law in a public or private custodial setting, from which the child in conflict with the law is not permitted
to leave at will by order of any judicial or administrative authority.
a. Deprivation of Liberty
b. Initial Contact with the Child
c. Offense
d. Status Offenses
87. This refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment of a
child in conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, economic, psychological or educational
background without resorting to formal court proceedings.
a. Recognizance
b. Intervention
c. Diversion program
d. Diversion
88. Refers to the platform of activities or set of activities that the child in conflict with the law is required to
undergo after s/he is found responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings.
a. Recognizance
b. Intervention
C. Diversion program
d. Diversion
89. This refers to the series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused the child
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to commit an offense. It may take in the form of an individualized treatment program which may include
counseling, skills training, education, and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional
and psychological wellbeing.
a. Recognizance
b. Intervention
c. Diversion program
d. Diversion
90. It refers to an undertaking in lieu of bond assumed by a parent or custodian who shall be responsible for
the appearance in court of the child in conflict with the law, when required.
a. Recognizance
b. Intervention
c. Diversion program
d. Diversion
91. It refers to a 24-hour child-caring institution managed by accredited local government units (LGUs) and
licensed and/or accredited nongovernment organizations (NGOs) providing short-term residential care for
children in conflict with the law who are awaiting court disposition of their cases or transfer to other
agencies or jurisdiction.
a. Treatment and Rehabilitation Center
b. Youth Detention Home
c. Residential Care
d. Youth Rehabilitation Center
92. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed by the Department of Social Welfare and
Development (DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs monitored by the DSWD, which provides
care, treatment and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the law.
a. Treatment and Rehabilitation Center
b. Youth Detention Home
c. Residential Care
d. Youth Rehabilitation Center
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93. Mamon Tulfo robbed the store of Tiya Ning Tatum. When he (Mamon) was arrested by the police officers,
the latter cannot identify the age of Mamon. The police officers referred the child to your office. As part of
the procedural due process, the social worker will determine the age of the child. Under Republic Act
9344, the age of the child may be determined by the following except?
a. Child's birth certificate
b. Child's baptismal certificate
c. Dental Age Assessment
d. Physical appearance of the child
94. Darren Espalto raped his best friend. He was determined to be 15-year old at the time of the commission
of the offense. The law enforcement officers referred the child to you. As the local social welfare and
development officer you would:
a. Refer the child to a youth care facility
b. Release the child on recognizance under Sec. 20 of R.A. 9344 as amended by Sec. 6 of R.A. 10364
c. Refer him to the child protection unit in the place of his residence
d. Release the child to the custody of his parents, or guardian, or in the absence thereof, his nearest relative
under R.A. 9344 as amended by R.A. 10364
95. If a child who is 15 years old at the time of the commission of the offense commits murder, he shall be
mandatorily placed within a youth care facility or bahay pag-asa. The involuntary commitment and
placement shall be filed in the court by:
a. DSWD social worker
b. Court social worker
c. Local social welfare and development officer of the LGU where the child resides
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d. Local social welfare and development officer of the LGU where the offense was committed
96. Under Sec. 6 of R.A. 10360, 20-D thereof provides that the parents shall mean the following except?
a. Biological parents of the child
b. Grandparents of the child who is living with them
c. Adoptive parents of the child
d. Individuals who have custody of the child
97. Taking the statement of the child shall be conducted in the presence of the following except?
a. Member of the BCPC
b. Child's counsel of choice or the Public Attorney's Office
C. Child's parents, nearest relative or guardian as the case may be
d. Local social welfare and development officer
98. Which among the following are the factors in determining diversion program?
a. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged; the best interest of the child; the weight of the
evidence against the child
b. The influence of the family and
environment on the growth of the child;
the safety of the community
c. The frequency and severity of the act;
the circumstances of the child; the
reparation of injury to the victim
d. The child's feelings of remorse for the offense s/he committed; parents or legal guardians' ability to guide
and supervise the child
e. The victim's view about the propriety of
the measure imposed and the availability of community-based programs for
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rehabilitation and reintegration of the child.
Choices: A.) abcde B.) abc
C.) de D.) ace
99. Which among the following diversion programs may be resorted to at the level of the Punong Barangay?
a. Restitution of property
b. Counseling of the child in conflict with the law and child's family
c. Care, guidance and supervision orders
d. Confiscation and forfeiture of the proceeds or instruments of the crime
e. Written or oral reprimand or citation
f. Institutional care and custody
g. Payment of the cost of the proceedings and fine
Choices: A.) abcdefg B.) acde
C.) abc D.) def
100. Which among the following diversion programs may be resorted to at the level of the Law Enforcement
Officer?
a. Restitution of property
b. Counseling of the child in conflict with the law and child's family
c. Care, guidance and supervision orders
d. Confiscation and forfeiture of the proceeds or instruments of the crime
e. Written or oral reprimand or citation
f. Institutional care and custody
g. Payment of the cost of the proceedings and fine
Choices: A.) abcde B.) abcd
C.) abcef D.) def
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101. Which among the following diversion programs may be resorted to at the level of the Court?
a. Restitution of property
b. Counseling of the child in conflict with the law and child's family
c. Care, guidance and supervision orders
d. Confiscation and forfeiture of the proceeds or instruments of the crime
e. Written or oral reprimand or citation
f. Institutional care and custody
g. Payment of the cost of the proceedings and fine
Choices: A.) abcdefg B.) acde
C.) abcd D.) def
102. Dingdong Dentist was charged of destructive arson. At the time of the commission of the offense, he
was 16 years old 3 months and 8 days and acted with discernment. The court finds him guilty of the
offense charged. When he was convicted, he is already 19 years old. Which among the following statement
is applicable in this case?
a. The child will apply through the local social welfare officer for a suspended sentence
b. The right to suspension of sentence cannot be applied because he is already at the age of emancipation at
the time he was convicted of the offense charged.
c. The child is entitled to suspension of
sentence without need for an application
even if the child is already 18 at the time of the pronouncement of his/her guilt.
d. The child is entitled to suspension of
sentence because at the time ofthe
commission of the offense he was a minor because it is the consideration under the law
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103. Which among the following statements is incorrect?
a. A child below 15 years old who is allowed to work with approval of DOLE will not work between 8pm to
6am while a child 15 years old but below 18 will not work between 10pm to 6am
b. A child below 15 years old who is allowed to work with approval of DOLE shall have 20 hours work a week
but not more than 4 hours a day while a child 15 years but below 18 is allowed to work 8 hours a day but
not more than 40 hours a week
c. Where a child's employment or participation in public entertainment or information through cinema,
radio, theatre, TV or other form of media, employment contract concluded by parents with expressed
agreement of the child and with approval of DOLE
d. Children below 15 years old shall not be employed even if a child works directly under the sole
responsibility of parents unless there is an approval of DOLE
104. Which among the following are the changes brought about by Republic Act 9523?
a. Declaration of a child abandoned and available for adoption from judicial to an administrative process
b. Petition to be filed by heads of the NGOs, LGUs to the DSWD Field Office to be endorsed to DSWD
Secretary for the certification of availability for adoption
c. Period of abandonment of a child from six (6) months to three (3) continuous months from last contact
with the parents
d. Period for petition for restoration of parental authority from DSWD from six (6) months to three (3)
months
e. Social case study report to be signed only by registered social workers with an
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updated license number with attached pieces of evidence to prove that the child is abandoned
f. DSWD certification of child's availability of adoption is the sole basis for the issuance of foundling certificate
by the Local Civil Registrar who shall transmit the same to PSA
Choices: A.) abcdef B.) bcde
C.) def D.) abde
105. In Republic Act No. 9523, registered social worker/s are required to conduct, sign and submit a social case
study report with attached pieces of evidence to prove that the child is abandoned. Which among the
following are the pertinent documents attached to the social case study report?
a. Tri-media certification for 3 consecutive times.
b. Publication in a newspaper of general circulation
c. Birth certificate
d. Returned registered mail to last address of the parent/s
e. Police report
f. Barangay certification
Choices: A.) abcdef B.) bcde
C.) def D.) abde
Case Study No. 1 - A Love Affair
Angelica Sinaniban has an enormous relationship with Loydie Cruz and eventually became pregnant
without the benefit of marriage. Angelica mislead Loydie into believing that she had an abortion but in fact
completed her pregnancy and gave birth to baby Julian. She intended the child to have the child adopted
through Sun and Moon Home for Children in Manila. On August 13, 2009, Angelica voluntarily surrendered
baby Julian by way
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of Deed of Voluntary Commitment to DSWD. On November 13, 2009, certificate declaring the child legally
available for adoption attained finality. On November 27, 2009, the DSWD issued Certificate Declaring the
Child Legally Available for Adoption (CDCLAA). Thereafter, a local matching conference was held and baby
Julian was matched to spouses Medina from the Kaisahang Bahay Foundation. On May 5, 2010, Angelica
changed her mind about the adoption and wrote a letter to DSWD asking for suspension of baby Julian's
adoption proceedings. She also said that she wanted her family back together.
106. Based on the issue of the case, what law is the most applicable?
a. Republic Act No. 7610
b. Republic Act No. 8552
c. Republic Act No. 8043
d. Republic Act No. 9523
107. Can Angelica Sinaniban reacquire her parental authority over baby Julian?
a. Yes, because she has the right to under the law to exercise parental authority over her child
b. Yes, because the law allows that a mother may reacquire her parental authority over the person of her
child even if she already relinquished it
c. No, she cannot reacquire parental
authority over the person of her child
because the law only allows it within
three months
d. No, she cannot reacquire it because baby Julian is already adopted
108. Supposing there is no problem in the
adoption case of baby Julian, however, spouses Medina discovered that Julian has a different behavior while
growing up and he was
diagnosed to have a personality disorder. Can spouses Medina rescind the adoption decree of Baby Julian?
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a. Yes, because they only discovered the behavior of Julian lately while he was growing up
b. Yes, because the behavior of Julian already affects adoptive parents and they can file it with the court
where the adoption decree was granted
c. No, because the adoption decree was already granted by the court of competent jurisdiction
d. No, because the adoption proceeding is for the best interest of the child
109. Supposing baby Julian was not subjected to adoption and Angelica told Loydie that she gave birth to
baby Julian. In this current situation, what is now the most applicable law?
a. Republic Act No. 7610
b. Republic Act No. 9858
C. Republic Act No. 9255
d. Republic Act No. 9523
110. Based on the case, Angelica and Loydie begot a child without the benefit of marriage. Can baby Julian
automatically use the surname of his father?
a. Yes, because under the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, the child has the right to
his/her identity
b. Yes, because the law allows illegitimate children to use the surname of their father
c. No, because the civil registry law requires that the birth certificate of the illegitimate child shall be signed
and sworn to jointly by his/her parents or only by the mother
d. No, because the child may only use the surname of his/her father when an admission in a public document
or private handwritten instrument is made.
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111. Supposing Angelica and Loydie got married after one year when baby Julian was born. What is the legal
status of baby Julian?
a. Illegitimate
b. Legitimated
c. Legitimate
d. Marital Child
112. Which among the following cases where the Family Court has jurisdiction?
a. Petitions for guardianship of minors
b. Petitions for custody of children
c. Petitions for habeas corpus
d. Petitions for adoptions of children and revocation thereof
e. Criminal case where one or more of the accused is below 18-year old
f. Violation of Republic Act No. 7610
Choices: A.) abcdef B.) abdef
C.) abcde D.) abef
113. Under the Solo Parent Act, who among the following is considered a solo parent?
a. A woman who gives birth as a result of rape or crimes against chastity, even without final conviction of the
offender
b. Parents left solo or alone with the
responsibility of parenthood
c. Parent left solo or alone with the
responsibility of parenthood due to
physical and/or mental incapacity of spouse as certified by a public medical practitioner
d. Parent left solo or alone with
responsibility of parenthood due to
abandonment of spouse for at least one (1) year
e. Unmarried mother/father who has preferred to keep and rear his/her child/ren instead of having others
care
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for them or give them up to a welfare institution
f. Any person who solely provides parental care and support to a child/ren provided he is a licensed foster
parent
g. Any family member within the 4th civil degree by consanguinity who assumes responsibility of head of
family as a result of prolonged absence of the parents
Choices: A.) abcdefg B.) abcde
C.) cdefg D.) abdf
114. The following is the definition of social policy, which one is not?
a. It is a guide for a settled course of action composed of collective decisions directly concerned with
promoting the well-being of all or part of the population.
b. Rules that govern people's lives and dictate expectations for behavior.
c. Societal responses to specific needs and problems such as poverty.
d. Principles that govern action directed toward given ends-changing situations, systems, practices, behavior;
is problem and action-oriented
115. It refers to an order issued under Republic Act No. 9262 for the purpose of preventing further acts
against violence of women and children and granting necessary relief?
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary Protection Order
c. Protection Order
d. Permanent Protection Order
116. Who among the following may file a protection order?
a. parents
b. collateral relatives within the 4th degree of consanguinity or affinity
c. social workers from LGUs
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111. Supposing Angelica and Loydie got married after one year when baby Julian was born. What is the legal
status of baby Julian?
a. Illegitimate
b. Legitimated
c. Legitimate
d. Marital Child
112. Which among the following cases where the Family Court has jurisdiction?
a. Petitions for guardianship of minors
b. Petitions for custody of children
c. Petitions for habeas corpus
d. Petitions for adoptions of children and revocation thereof
e. Criminal case where one or more of the accused is below 18-year old
f. Violation of Republic Act No. 7610
Choices: A.) abcdef B.) abdef
C.) abcde D.) abef
113. Under the Solo Parent Act, who among the following is considered a solo parent?
a. A woman who gives birth as a result of rape or crimes against chastity, even without final conviction of the
offender
b. Parents left solo or alone with the
responsibility of parenthood
c. Parent left solo or alone with the
responsibility of parenthood due to
physical and/or mental incapacity of spouse as certified by a public medical practitioner
d. Parent left solo or alone with
responsibility of parenthood due to
abandonment of spouse for at least one (1) year
e. Unmarried mother/father who has preferred to keep and rear his/her child/ren instead of having others
care
266
for them or give them up to a welfare institution
f. Any person who solely provides parental care and support to a child/ren provided he is a licensed foster
parent
g. Any family member within the 4th civil degree by consanguinity who assumes responsibility of head of
family as a result of prolonged absence of the parents
Choices: A.) abcdefg B.) abcde
C.) cdefg D.) abdf
114. The following is the definition of social policy, which one is not?
a. It is a guide for a settled course of action composed of collective decisions directly concerned with
promoting the well-being of all or part of the population.
b. Rules that govern people's lives and dictate expectations for behavior.
c. Societal responses to specific needs and problems such as poverty.
d. Principles that govern action directed toward given ends-changing situations, systems, practices, behavior;
is problem and action-oriented
115. It refers to an order issued under Republic Act No. 9262 for the purpose of preventing further acts
against violence of women and children and granting necessary relief?
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary Protection Order
c. Protection Order
d. Permanent Protection Order
116. Who among the following may file a protection order?
a. parents
b. collateral relatives within the 4th degree of consanguinity or affinity
c. social workers from LGUs
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d. social workers from DSWD
e. barangay kagawad
f. at least two (3) concerned
Choices: A. abcdef C. abde
B. bcdef D. cdef
117. Which among the following statement is incorrect?
a. An application for protection order filed with the court shall be considered for both TPO and PPO
b. All protection orders issued under Republic Act No. 9262 shall be enforceable anywhere in the Philippines
c. If the Punong Barangay is unavailable to act on the application for a BPO, the application shall be acted
upon by any available Barangay Kagawad.
d. Where the court is unable to conduct hearing within one (1) day and the TPO issued is due to expire, the
TPO shall be continuously renewed.
118. It refers to the protection order issued by the court on the date of filing of the application after ex-
parte determination that such order should be issued and its effectivity is thirty (30) days.
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary Protection Order
c. Protection Order
d. Permanent Protection Order
119. It refers to the protection order issued by the court after due notice and hearing.
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary Protection Order
c. Protection Order
d. Permanent Protection Order
Case No 2. - Goblin
Both Kim Shin (Kim) and Ji Eun-Tak (Ji) met
in 2010 but started to date seriously in 2013. Ji was
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then a medical student and was raising her first child born from a previous relationship, a boy named Wang
Yeo, with the help of her parents. During the relationship with Kim, Ji bore two more children namely, Yoo
Deok-Hwa (born on December
11, 2013) and Kim Sun (born on October 19, 2014).
To legalize the relationship, Kim and Ji married in civil rights on October 10, 2015, and thereafter, the birth
certificates of children, including Wang Yeo's, was amended to change their civil status to legitimated by virtue
of the said marriage.
The relationship, both admit, was far from ideal and has had its share of happy moments and heated
arguments. Ji, alleges that their heated arguments were often due to Kim's incessant womanizing. When
confronted about it, Kim, instead of denying the same, would even curse Ji. The breaking point for Ji came
when, Kim's alleged mistress, a woman by the name of Min Jae, insulted and humiliated Ji in public, in the
presence of Kim himself, who, according to Ji, did nothing to stop the same. Extremely hurt, Ji decided to leave
the conjugal home with the children and lived temporarily at a friend's house. She however went back to the
conjugal home with their two children after some time, leaving her eldest son at her friend's house.
What made matters worse, according to Ji, was the apparent biases of Kim in favor of their two children.
That despite his promise to treat her first child as his own, Kim would still treat the latter differently from the
two kids, putting Ji's first child at a disadvantage. Ji, cites as example the instances when, Kim would buy food
and toys for their two children only, buying nothing for her first child.
While living separately from Kim, Ji discovered that Kim was not paying the rentals due on the
condominium unit they were occupying, forcing Ji to move out. Ji was likewise compelled to
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find work to support the family, after Kim has started to be remiss in his financial obligations to the family.
According to Ji, the amounts given by Kim were not sufficient to cover the family expenses, forcing her to
request for loans from friends. Ji likewise feels threatened after
discovering that Kim was stalking her and/or their children. Ji alleges that she found out that Kim has sought
the help of one Gu Jun Pyo, a friend of Kim who lives within the same compound where Ji lives, to go through
the guard's logbook to monitor their every move, i.e., who visits them, what time Ji leaves and returns back
home, etc.
120. What is the law that can be applied in this case?
a. Republic Act No. 7610
b. Republic Act No. 9262
c. Convention on the Elimination of All
forms of Discrimination Against Women
d. United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child
121. Based on the case, what kind/s of violence against women was committed?
a. Physical violence
b. Psychological violence
c. Economic abuse
d. Sexual violence
Choices: A. abcd B. be
C. cd D. acd
122. Who is entitled to the custody of their children?
a. Kim Shin
b. Ji Eun-Tak
c. Both of them
d. None of them
123. Which among the following agencies are included in the Inter-Agency Council on Violence Against
Women and their Children (IAC-VAWC)?
a. Civil Service Commission
b. Department of Justice

270

c. Department of Social Welfare and Development

d. Department of Education
e. Philippine National Police
f. Department of Health
Choices: A.) abcdef B.) bcef
C.) bce D.) bcf
124. Ji Eun-Tak is also entitled to the following except?
a. Temporary shelters, counseling and psycho-social services
b. Recovery, rehabilitation programs and livelihood assistance
C. Counseling like coping with anger and emotional outbursts
d. Paid leave of absence up to ten (10) days in addition to other paid leaves
125. It refers to a private, non-profit or charitable institutions or government agency duly licensed and/or
accredited by the DSWD that provides 24-hour residential care services for abandoned, orphaned
neglected or voluntarily committed children
a. Child Caring Agency
b. Child Placing Agency
c. Child Study Report
d. Home Study Report
126. It refers to a private, non-profit or charitable institution or government agency duly licensed and/or
accredited by the DSWD to provide comprehensive child welfare services including but not limited to
receiving applications for adoption/ foster care, evaluating the prospective adoptive/foster parents,
preparing the home study and all other processes required for adoption
a. Child Caring Agency
b. Child Placing Agency
c. Child Study Report
d. Home Study Report
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127. Refers to a child whose parents or legal guardian knowingly and willingly relinquished parental
authority to the DSWD or any duly accredited child-placement or child-caring agency or facility. This also
refers to the child who has been surrendered in writing by his/her parent/s or guardian through a
notarized Deed of Voluntary Commitment (DVC).
a. Involuntary Committed Child
b. Voluntary Committed Child
c. Abandoned Child
d. Neglected Child
128. Refers to a child whose basic needs have been deliberately not attended to or inadequately attended
to, physically or emotionally, by his/her parents or guardian.
a. Involuntary Committed Child
b. Voluntary Committed Child
c. Abandoned Child
d. Neglected Child
129. Refers to a child who has no proper parental care or guardianship or whose parents have died or who
have deserted him/her for a period of at least three (3) continuous months which includes foundling.
a. Involuntary Committed Child
b. Voluntary Committed Child
c. Abandoned Child
d. Neglected Child
130. Refers to a child whose parent/s, known or unknown, have been permanently and administratively
deprived of parental authority over him/her due to abandonment, substantial, continuous or repeated
neglect and abuse or incompetence to discharge parental responsibilities
a. Involuntary Committed Child
b. Voluntary Committed Child
c. Abandoned Child
d. Neglected Child
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131. The following are the rights and privileges of domestic workers or kasambahay, except?
a. Board, lodging and medical attendance
b. Daily and weekly rest period
c. Access to outside communication
d. Right to education and training
132. The barangay is often the nearest place where a child victim or witness of child abuse may run to and
seek assistance. In such cases, when receiving a report, the barangay must observe the following, except?
a. If the report is made by a child victim, interview the child and determine the necessity of referring the
child for immediate medical attention.
b. Within 24 hours, contact the LSWDO and refer the case to the social worker for validation of complaint
and assessment.
c. Refer the child to the nearest women and child protection unit (WCPU), or, if none exists, to the medico-
legal officer or the city or municipal health officer.
d. Enter the report in the barangay blotter exclusively for child abuse and domestic violence cases.
133. The following are some of the general policies on the guidelines on the issuance of certification
declaring the child legally available for adoption, which one is not?
a. Secure a certified true copy of Birth Certificate from the Local Civil Registrar, if available.
b. The child's best interest and welfare shall be the paramount consideration in all questions relating to
his/her care and custody.
c. A certification to declare a child legally available for adoption shall be secured thru a Petition to be filed in
the DSWD-Field Office where the child was found or is presently residing.
273
d. All Deed of Voluntary Commitments (DVCs) must be duly signed by the biological parent/s and/or legal
guardian of the child, and notarized
134. This refers to the provision, availability, and accessibility of opportunities, services, and observance of
human rights which enable women to actively participate and contribute to the political, economic, social,
and cultural development of the nation as well as those which shall provide them equal access to
ownership, management, and control of production, and of material and informational resources and
benefits in the family, community and society.
a. Women empowerment
b. Marginalization
c. Marginalized
d. Discrimination against women
135. This refers to any gender-based distinction, exclusion, or restriction which has the effect or purpose of
impairing or nullifying the recognition, enjoyment, or exercise by women, irrespective of their marital
status, on basis of equality of men and women, of human rights and fundamental freedoms in the political,
economic, social, cultural, civil, or any other fields.
a. Women empowerment
b. Marginalization
c. Marginalized
d. Discrimination against women
136. It refers to a condition where a whole category of people is excluded from useful and meaningful
participation in political, economic, social, and cultural life.
a. Women empowerment
b. Marginalization
c. Marginalized
d. Discrimination against women
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137. This refers to the basic, disadvantaged, or vulnerable persons or groups who are mostly living in
poverty and have little or no access to land and other resources, basic social and economic services such as
health care, education, water and sanitation, employment and livelihood opportunities, housing, social
security, physical infrastructure, and the justice system.
a. Women empowerment
b. Marginalization
c. Marginalized
d. Discrimination against women
138. Under the Magna Carta for Women, this agency is the primary policy-making and coordinating body of
the women and gender equality concerns under the Office of the President. This is also the agency who
shall be the overall monitoring body and oversight to ensure the effective implementation of the said
Magna Carta:
a. National Commission on the Role of Filipino Women
b. Philippine Commission on Women
c. Commission on Human Rights
d. Gender and Development Office
139. Under R.A. 9710, this agency is acting as the Gender and Development Ombud shall undertake
measures such as to assist in the filing of cases of individuals, agencies, institutions, or establishments that
violate the provisions of Magna Carta for Women:
a. National Commission on the Role of Filipino Women
b. Philippine Commission on Women
c. Commission on Human Rights
d. Gender and Development Office
140. Under Republic Act No. 9775, the crime of child pornography is deemed committed by a syndicate if
carried out by a group of:
275
a. 5 or more persons conspiring and
confederating with one another
b. 4 or more persons conspiring and
confederating with one another
c. 3 or more persons conspiring and
confederating with one another
d. 2 or more persons conspiring and
confederating with one another
141. Under Republic Act 9775, complaints on cases of any form of child pornography and other offenses
punishable under this Act may be filed by the following
a. Offended party
b. Ascendant or collateral relative within the third degree of consanguinity or affinity
c. Officer, social worker of representative of a licensed child-caring agency
d. Officer or social worker of the DSWD
e. Local social welfare and development officer
f. Barangay chairman
Choices:
A.) abcdef B.) acdef
C.) acde D.) abcde
142. Which among the following are the mandatory services to victims of child pornography?
a. Emergency shelter and appropriate housing
b. Counseling
c. Free legal services
d. Technical and material support
e. Medical or psychological services
f. Livelihood and skills training
g. Educational assistance
Choices: A.) abcdefg B.) abcefg
C.) abcdef D.) abcfg

276
143. Under the Foster Care Act, termination of foster placement shall be done by?
a. Foster Parent
b. Foster child
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. Agency
144. Which among the following are the grounds for termination of foster placement under Foster Care
Act?
a. Return of the Child to biological parents
b. Placement for adoption of the child
c. Death of the child
d. Death of both foster parents
e. Death of either the foster parents
f. Expiration of the Foster Placement Authority
g. Cases where the placement becomes prejudicial to the welfare of the child such as abandonment,
maltreatment, sexual assault, violence or other forms abuse
Choices: A.) abcdefg B.) abcdfg
C.) abcefg D.) cdefg
145. It refers to the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of
disease or infirmity, in all matters relating to the reproductive system and to its functions and processes.
a. Reproductive Health
b. Reproductive Health Care
c. Reproductive Health Care Program
d. Reproductive Health Rights
146. It refers to the systematic and integrated provision of reproductive health care to all citizens
prioritizing women, the poor, marginalized and those in vulnerable or crisis situations.
a. Reproductive Health

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b. Reproductive Health Care
c. Reproductive Health Care Program
d. Reproductive Health Rights
147. It refers to the privileges of the individuals and couples, to decide freely and responsibly whether or
not to have children; the number, spacing and timing of their children; to make other decisions concerning
reproduction, free of discrimination, coercion and violence; to have the information and means to do so;
and to attain the highest standard of sexual health and reproductive health.
a. Reproductive Health
b. Reproductive Health Care
c. Reproductive Health Care Program
d. Reproductive Health Rights
148. Refers to the access to a full range of methods, facilities, services and supplies that contribute to
reproductive health and well-being by addressing reproductive health problems. It also includes sexual
health, the purpose of which is the enhancement of life and personal relations.
a. Reproductive Health
b. Reproductive Health Care
c. Reproductive Health Care Program
d. Reproductive Health Rights
149. It refers to the lifelong learning process of providing and acquiring complete, accurate and relevant age
- and development - appropriate information and education on reproductive health and sexuality through
life skills education and other approaches
a. Sustainable Human Development
b. Sexual Health
c. Responsible Parenthood
d. Reproductive Health and Sexuality Education
150. It refers to a state of physical, mental and social well-being in relation to sexuality. It requires positive
and respectful approach to
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sexuality and sexual relationships, as well as the possibility of having pleasurable and safe sexual experiences,
free from coercion, discrimination and violence.
a. Sustainable Human Development
b. Sexual Health
c. Responsible Parenthood
d. Reproductive Health and Sexuality
Education
151. It refers to bringing people, particularly the poor and the vulnerable, to the center of development
process, the central purpose of which is the creation of an enabling environment in which all can enjoy
long, healthy and productive lives, done in the manner that promotes their rights and protects their life
opportunities of future generations and the natural ecosystem on which all life depends.
a. Sustainable Human Development
b. Sexual Health
C. Responsible Parenthood
d. Reproductive Health and Sexuality
Education
152. It refers to the will and ability of a parent to respond to the needs and aspirations of the family and
children. It is likewise a shared responsibility between parents to determine and achieve the desired
number of children, spacing and timing of their children according to their own family life aspirations,
taking into account psychological preparedness, health status, sociocultural and economic concerns
consistent with their religious convictions.
a. Sustainable Human Development
b. Sexual Health
c. Responsible Parenthood
d. Reproductive Health and Sexuality Education
153. Which among the following statements is incorrect?
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a. A child witness is any person who at the time of giving testimony is below the age of 18 years
b. In-depth investigative interview or disclosure interview is an inquiry or proceeding conducted by duly
trained members of a multidisciplinary team or representatives of law enforcement or child protective
services for the purpose of determining whether child abuse has been committed
c. Best interest of the child means the least detrimental available alternative for safeguarding the growth and
development of the child
d. A guardian ad litem is a person chosen by the child to accompany him to testify or to attend a judicial
proceeding to provide emotional support to him
154. The following devices may be used
during the examination of a child witness,
which one is not?
a. Live-link television
b. Screens, one-way mirrors, and other devices to shield child from accused
c. Videotaped depositions
d. Testimonial aids such as dolls, anatomically-correct dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins and the like
e. Leading questions
Choices: A.) abcde B.) abc
C.) abcd D.) cde
155. Who among the following may file a Petition for Appointment of Guardian?
a. Any relative or other person on behalf of minor
b. The minor himself if 14 years of age or over
280
c. The Secretary of Social Welfare and Development in the case of insane minor who needs to be hospitalized
d. The Secretary of Health in the case of insane minor who needs to be hospitalized
Choices: A.) abcd B.) acd
C.) ab D.) abd
156. Which among the following are the grounds
for the appointment of guardian over the person
or property, or both of a minor:
a. Death, continued absence, or incapacity of parents
b. Suspension, deprivation or termination of parental authority
c. Remarriage of surviving parent, if the latter is found unsuitable to exercise parental authority
d. When the best interest of the minor so require
Choices: A.) abcd B.) acd
C.) ad D.) ac
157. Which among the following concepts is INCORRECT?
a. The term public policy always refers to the action of both the private and government institutions and
their intentions that determine those actions.
b. Public policy is a commitment to a course or plan of action agreed to by a group of people with the power
to carry it out.
C. A broad guide to present and future decisions, selected in light of given conditions from a number of
alternatives; the actual decision or set of decisions designed to carry out the chosen course of actions; a
projected programs consisting of desired objectives and the means of achieving them.
281
d. A proposed course of action of a person, group or government within a given environment providing
obstacles and opportunities which the policy was proposed to utilize and overcome in an effort to reach a goal
or realize an objective or purpose.
158. This term was used to replace the category Children in Especially Difficult Circumstances (CEDC), a
trend that seemed to emerge in national and international child rights legal documents.
a. Council for the Protection of Children
b. Child Protection
c. Children Special Protection
d. Children in Need of Special Protection
159. This has been drawn in an attempt to concretize the vision in Child 21:
a. National Plan of Action for Children
b. Millennium Development Goals
c. Sustainable Development Goals
d. World Fit for Children
160. This is the primary implementing structure closest to children. This unit, however, has to implement
many other duties in compliance to a multitude of directives coming from the local chief executive and
national level agencies.
a. Local Government Unit
b. Barangay Council for the Protection of Children
c. Barangay
d. Local Council for the Protection of Children
161. The following are the components of the Philippine Social Protection Framework, which one is not?
a. Social Insurance
b. Social Safety Nets
c. Child Protection
d. Labor Market Programs
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162. The following are relevant national government agencies related to trafficking in person, which one is
not?
a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. Philippine Information Agency
c. Department of Education
d. Council for the Welfare of Children
163. This program is a range of interventions to individuals, families and communities in crisis or difficult
situations, such as those affected by or vulnerable to disasters.
a. Protective Service Program
b. Assistance to Individuals/Families in Crisis Situations
c. Assistance to Communities in Need
d. Disaster Response Operations Program
164. It is a human development program of the national government that invests in health and education of
poor households, particularly children aged 0-18 years old.
a. Sustainable Livelihood Program
b. Kapit-bisig Laban sa Kahirapan Comprehensive and integrated Delivery of Social Services
c. Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program
d. Social Pension Program
165. It is one of the poverty alleviation programs of the Philippine Government being implemented by the
DSWD. It uses community- driven development approach, a globally recognized strategy for achieving
service delivery, poverty reduction, and good governance outcomes.
a. Sustainable Livelihood Program
b. Kapit-bisig Laban sa Kahirapan Comprehensive and integrated Delivery of Social Services
c. Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program
d. Social Pension Program
283
166. It is the additional government assistance in the amount of Five Hundred Pesos (Php500.00) monthly
stipend, to augment the daily subsistence and other medical needs of indigent senior citizens.
a. Sustainable Livelihood Program
b. Kapit-bisig Laban sa Kahirapan Comprehensive and integrated Delivery of Social Services
c. Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program
d. Social Pension Program
167. This is a strategy to spread prosperity among communities in the Philippines. This encourages the poor
families to engage in resource-based and market-driven community micro-enterprise, or explore
employment opportunities.
a. Sustainable Livelihood Program
b. Kapit-bisig Laban sa Kahirapan Comprehensive and integrated Delivery of Social Services
c. Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program
d. Social Pension Program
168. This is also called the National Household Targeting System for Poverty Reduction. It is an information
management system that identifies who and where the poor are in the country. The system makes
available to national government agencies and other social protection stakeholders a database of poor
families as reference in identifying potential beneficiaries of social protection programs.
a. Residential and Non-residential Facilities
b. Gender and Development
c. Listahanan
d. Pamana
169. It is the national government's program and framework for peace and development. It is implemented
in areas affected by conflict and communities covered by existing agreements.
a. Residential and Non-residential Facilities
284
b. Gender and Development
c. Listahanan
d. Pamana
170. This serves as the safety net or a stop-gap mechanism to support recovery of individuals and families
from unexpected crisis such us illness or death of a family member, natural and man-made calamities, and
other crisis situations. It provides immediate rescue and protection, direct financial and material
assistance, referrals for medical, legal, psychological, temporary shelter, and other services.
a. Assistance to Individuals in Crisis Situations
b. Disaster Response Operation Program
c. Assistance to Communities in Need
d. Protective Service Program
171. The following are the services included in the Assistance to Communities in Need, which one is not?
a. Repair/Upgrading/ Construction of Day Care Centers
b. Cash/Food for Work
c. Food and Non-food Assistance to Individuals and Families
d. Senior Citizen Center
172. It serves as the blueprint for national government agencies, local government units and non-
government organizations, in planning measures/ interventions and budget appropriations to achieve the
goals and targets for the realization of Filipino children's rights.
a. Child 21
b. National Plan of Action for Children
c. Philippine Plan of Action for Children
d. International Commitment to Children
173. This enables poor families to have access to credit for their increased income, enhancement of their
socio-economic skills and development of positive entrepreneurial values.
285
a. Sustainable Livelihood Program
b. Self-Employment Assistance para sa Kaunlaran
c. Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program
d. Assistance to Individuals/ Families in Crisis Situations
174. This is called the mitigating risks of its participants through advocacy and facilitating access of its
participants to micro-insurances and agricultural/ crop insurances to be more resilient in shocks,
developing and widening asset base to have more diverged livelihood options through the Cash for
Building Asset strategy, and provision of grant to acquire physical assets for enterprising activities and
engagement in gainful employment opportunities.
a. Labor market intervention
b. Social Welfare
c. Social safety nets
d. Social insurance
175. This is an elaboration of the National Plan of Action for Children Child Protection Component. It
espouses vigorous advocacy and public consciousness-raising, capacity building, alliance building, family
and community participation and empowerment, civil society mobilization and resource generation
towards a broad-based response for promotion, protection and fulfillment of the rights of children
particularly those needing special protection.
a. National Framework to End Violence Against Children
b. National Framework for Children's Participation
c. Comprehensive Program on Child Protection
d. Philippine National Strategic Framework for Plan Development for Children
176. This is an equivalent term for Child21
286
a. National Framework to End Violence Against Children
b. National Framework for Children's Participation
c. Comprehensive Program on Child Protection
d. Philippine National Strategic Framework for Plan Development for Children
177. Statement 1: To participate in local
governance, the children support the strengthening of barangay councils, where they can be represented.
Statement 2: Children
must be trained to advocate for the enactment of local ordinances and setting up programs for child
participation.
a. Statement 1 is true while Statement 2 is false
b. Statement 1 is false while Statement 2 is true
c. Both Statements are true
d. Both Statements are false.
178. Statement 1: Values education classes can
also promote the discussion on children's rights. Statement 2: School administrators should
provide a venue where students can freely express their views, feelings and talents.
a. Statement 1 is true while Statement 2 is false
b. Statement 1 is false while Statement 2 is true
c. Both Statements are true
d. Both Statements are false.
179. Statement 1: Establishment of broad
network of NGOs supporting children's rights cannot strengthen initiatives on children participation.
Statement 2: Children should be aware of children's issues and participate in the discussions and advocacy
efforts.
a. Statement 1 is true while Statement 2 is false
287
b. Statement 1 is false while Statement 2 is true
c. Both Statements are true
d. Both Statements are false.
180. It refers to any work or economic activity performed by a child that subjects him/her to any form of
exploitation or is harmful to his/her health and safety or physical, mental or psychosocial assessment.
a. Child labor
b. Child poverty
c. Child protection
d. Child abuse
181. As defined by UNICEF, it refers to preventing and responding to violence, exploitation and abuse.
a. Child labor
b. Child poverty
c. Child protection
d. Child abuse
182. It is the maltreatment, whether habitual or not, of a child, which includes any of the following:
psychological and physical abuse, neglect, cruelty, sexual abuse and emotional maltreatment.
a. Child labor
b. Child poverty
c. Child sexual abuse
d. Child abuse
183. It is the employment, use, persuasion, inducement, enticement, or coercion of a child to engage in sexual
intercourse or lascivious conduct, or the molestation, prostitution, or incest with children.
a. Child labor
b. Child poverty
c. Child sexual abuse
d. Child abuse
184. These measures aimed at enhancing employment opportunities and protection of the rights and welfare
of workers. Employment
288
enhancing measures include trade policies and skills development and training.
a. Labor market intervention
b. Social Welfare
c. Social safety nets
d. Social insurance
185. The following are the elements of the social protection framework, which one is not?
a. Identifying and responding to major risks and vulnerabilities
b. Identifying and responding to priority targets and sectors
c. Working towards universal coverage
d. Sustain standard of living in spite of exposure to risk of different types
186. DSWD internally started to orchestrate its social protection programs. This is called:
a. Scaling Up Community Driven Development
b. Convergence
c. Building Adaptive Capacity
d. Institutionalized Monitoring and Evaluation System
187. This setting provides an approximation of family life under the guidance of trained staff, but it is used
as a last recourse, resorted to in the absence of foster families.
a. Adoption
b. Foster Care
c. Legal Guardianship
d. Residential/Institutional Care
188. This is the road map of the implementation of the United Nations Convention on the Right of the Child
a. United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF)
b. Child Protection
c. Child 21
d. Child Fund
189. Which among the following context is not correct?
289
a. Policies and programs should be developed based on adult's understanding so that it will become more
integrated and holistic.
b. Children who participate in various activities gain more exposure to social realities and they realize their
important role in the society.
c. When children interact with people, their capacities are developed and they discover new strengths,
limitations and potentials.
d. The right to participate enables children to express what they think and feel on matter important to them.
190. The following are the important role in facilitating children's participation, which one is not?
a. They help develop methodologies that are culturally appropriate and child- friendly, which help children
express their views and feelings.
b. They help and work with children in evaluating their activities, formulating their recommendations and in
developing their capacities.
c. Child participation help fulfills their rights such as nutrition, immunization, early childhood care and
education in their communities.
d. They work with the children in making decisions. They help explain the available choices and possible
consequences.
191. This was launched to recognize and promote child-friendly programs. It aimed to guide parents in the
choice of appropriate programs for their children. It encouraged produce to improve their productions for
children.
a. Kabataan News Network
b. Anak-TV Seal
290
c. 5 and Up
d. Batibot
192. The following non-government agencies were included in the core group formation in 2005 as a follow-
up at the Regional Consultation Study which one is not?
a. Christian Children's Fund
b. Open Heart Foundation
c. Plan Philippines
d. Council for the Welfare of Children
193. The goal of this national strategic framework is to build a child-sensitive and child-friendly society as
the country's promise to Filipino children.
a. Child 21
b. Millennium Development Goals
c. Sustainable Development Goals
d. Convention on the Rights of the Child
194. Which among the following concepts is INCORRECT?
a. There is a need for more deliberate efforts on the part of member agencies to integrate child protection
program thrusts and priorities into their respective annual investment plans.
b. Evidence, based policies, programs, guidelines and procedures for child protection are only possible with
the existence of accurate, updated and disaggregated database and information system.
c. Activating, strengthening and sustaining local councils for the protection of children, particularly the
Barangay Council for the Protection of Children (BCPC), has remained perennial challenge.
d. Adjudication of child abuse cases has been finalized and adopted comprehensive protocols on case
management of child victims of abuse, neglect and exploitation.
291
195. Government should respect the rights and responsibilities of families to direct and guide their children
so that, as they grow, they learn to use their rights properly. This concept is based on the right of the child,
under the convention, to:
a. Survival and development
b. Parental guidance
c. Separation from parents
d. Family reunification
196. Government should take steps to stop children being taken out from their own country illegally. This
article is particularly concerned with parental abductions. The Convention's Optional Protocol on the sale
of children, child prostitution and child pornography has a provision that concerns abductions for financial
gain. This concept is based on the right of the child:
a. Against kidnapping
b. Against abduction, sale, or trafficking
c. Against sexual exploitation
d. Against other forms of exploitation
197. The responsible agency which is primarily responsible for ensuring participation of women as recipients
in foreign aid, grants and loans. It shall determine and recommend the amount to be allocated for the
development activity involving women.
a. National Commission on the Role of Filipino Women
b. Philippine Commission on Women
c. National Organization for Women
d. National Economic and Development Authority
198. This is the focal inter-agency body of the Philippine government for children's concern.
a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child
292
c. Council for the Welfare of Children
d. Child Fund
199. This is a preventive and developmental
interventions that seek to support the minimum basic requirements of the poor, particularly the poorest of
the poor, and reduce risk associated with unemployment, resettlement,
marginalization, illness disability, old age and loss of family care.
a. Labor market intervention
b. Social Welfare
c. Social safety nets
d. Social insurance
200. Which among the following national laws of the Philippines which are the legal bases in the
implementation of temporary shelter assistance and prioritization of victims of disaster/ internally
displaced persons?
a. Republic Act 10121
b. Republic Act 7160
c. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010
d. Magna Carta for Women
Choices: A. ) abcd B.) bcd C.) ab D.) a

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Answer Key

1. c 41. 81. C 121. 161. C

B B
2. A 42. 82. A 122. 162. A
C B
3. B 43. 83. C 123. 163. A
A A
4. C 44. 84. C 124. 164. C
D C
5. B 45. 85. B 125. 165. B
C A
6. B 46. 86. A 126. 166. D
B B
7. B 47. 87. D 127. 167. A
C B
8. C 48. 88. C 128. 168. C
A D
9. B 49. 89. B 129. 169. D
D C
10. 50. 90. A 130. 170. A
A B A
11. 51. 91. B 131. 171. C
D D B
12. 52. 92. D 132. 172. A
D D A
13. 53. 93. C 133. 173. A or
B A A B
14. 54. 94. A 134. 174. D
C B A
15. 55. 95. D 135. 175. C
C D D
16. 56. 96. B 136. 176. D
B C B
17. 57. 97. A 137. 177. C
B B C
18. 58. 98. B 138. 178. C
D C B
19. 59. 99. C 139. 179. B
A D C
20. 60. 100. 140. 180. A
C D B C
21. 61. 101. 141. 181. C
B C A B
22. 62. 102. 142. 182. D
B B C B
23. 63. 103. 143. 183. C
D D D C
24. 64. 104. 144. 184. A
D A A B
25. 65. 105. 145. 185. D
B C A A
26. 66. 106. 146. 186. B
C D D C
27. 67. 107. 147. 187. D
A C C D
28. 68. 108. 148. 188. C
A A D B
29. 69. 109. 149. 189. A
A B C D
30. 70. 110. 150. 190. C
C C D B
31. 71. 111. 151. 191. B
A B B A
32. 72. 112. 152. 192. D
A C B C
33. 73. 113. 153. 193. A
A A A D
34. 74. 114. 154. 194. D
D B C C
35. 75. 115. 155. 195. B
A C C A
36. 76. 116. 156. 196. A
A D A A
37. 77. 117. 157. 197. D
D A B A
38. 78. 118. 158. 198. C
C C B D
39. 79. 119. 159. 199. B
C C D A
40. 80. 120. 160. 200. A
B A B C

294
ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
297

SOCIAL WORK ADMINISTRATION AND SUPERVISION

1. Management as an element of administration is concerned with

a. Administrative process in a social welfare agency
b. Setting up the framework of different units in social agency
c. Allocation and utilization of resources in a social welfare agency
d. Process of identifying the goals of an agency
2. Social welfare administration is also known as:
a. Social work administration
b. Social agency administration
c. Social administration
d. Administration
3. Supervision is an administrative function which aims to enable the
a. supervisor to become a better supervisor
b. supervisee to more effective in delivering social services
c. supervisor to exercise her functions toward the supervisee
d. supervisee to accept supervision from her designated supervisor
4. Staffing involves recruitment, hiring, placement of workers for the purpose of
a. Maximizing efficiency and economy in achieving the goals of the agency
b. Advancing the worker to a better job or position
c. Training workers required for the adequate performance of their tasks
d. Placing the right person for the right job
5. Records are permanent accounts of an event in an agency and used primarily
a. For public relations or propaganda for the agency
299
b. For administrative purposes, research, training, teaching and supervision
c. For information upward and downward
d. For records purposes
6. The steps in controlling include
a. Transmitting problems, ideas and suggestions
b. Decision-making processes relative to staff relationship
c. Setting standards or strategic points
d. Coordinating the achievement of the goals of the agency
7. In the private sector, policy-making is the responsibility of
a. Board of trustees or board of directors
b. First-line supervisors
c. Executive director
d. Direct service providers and clients
8. The starting point of planning is
a. Investigation and analysis
b. Identification or setting objectives
c. Documentation of actions to be
undertaken
d. Designing the program, available resources and time table
9. Linking together the functions of the
organization and the people is:
a. Communication
b. Controlling
c. Coordination
d. Cooperation
10. One of the duties of the public relations officer is:
a. Participating in the formulation of policies and programs
b. Providing support and assistance to workers
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c. Providing information about the agency, programs and services
d. Checking and reporting on performance
11. One of the administrative functions of a supervisor:
a. Holding workers to account for the quality and quantity of production
b. Providing for a climate for learning
c. Helping the supervisees deal with job- related stress
d. Motivating workers to learn
12. Classifying the expenditures based on an analysis of objectives and resources and the interrelations among
them to achieve a comprehensive program of action is:
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Financial management
c. line item budgeting
d. program, planning, budgeting system
13. Blending bureaucratic and democratic characteristics in an organization results:
a. In adhocracy
b. Bureaucratic model
c. in a collegial/professional model
d. democratic model
14. The tutorial model of supervision is best for:
a. Experienced supervises
b. Peer group
c. inexperienced supervisees
d. a team
15. In student supervision, the primary function of the supervisor is:
a. Administrative function
b. Tutorial function
c. supportive/helping function
d. teaching function
301
16. Evaluation as a management function in operational terms involves the:
a. Establishing the agency's identity in the community
b. Assessing the effectiveness of an ongoing program of the agency
c. Documenting programs and services for management
d. Reporting of progress of projects in the community
17. The process of interrelating the various parts of the work of an agency is called?
a. Recording c. Communication
b. Reporting d. Coordination
18. Programming as an administrative function is the:
a. Unit of planned purposive action
b. Setting up a program involving a specific period of time per service
c. Summarizing the main features of a program/project
d. Designing the organizational structure of the agency
19. Private welfare agencies/NGOs are characterized by the following excluding:
a. Governed by their own constitution and by-laws and governing board
b. Required to be registered at the Securities and Exchange Commission
c. Source of funds are from donations, private endowments and others
d. Functions, programs and structure created by law
20. Provides the framework for social work practice that relates to other
a. Social work profession
b. Social work administration
c. Social administration
d. Social welfare administration
302
21. Social administration also refers to:
a. Administration in the field of health, education and social services
b. The activity that allocates and utilizes resources to achieve objectives
c. Social agency administration
d. Secondary method of social work
22. In a line and staff organization, the staff performs functions of:
a. Advising and providing expert knowledge/opinions to line executives
b. Providing social services to identified clientele groups
c. Focusing on functions/activities of each unit by a functional supervisor
d. Operating consistently according to a body of laws and rules
23. The supervisory relationship can be best described as a:
a. Social relationship between the supervisor and supervisee
b. Interdependent relationship with both parties having responsibilities
c. Dependent relationship with the supervisor
d. Professional relationship between management and supervisor
24. Among the components of a social system, the throughput is the:
a. The Ms - manpower, money, methods, materials, etc.
b. Programs and services to achieve agency's goals
c. The conversion process of inputs to outputs
d. Interrelationships of components of the different units
303
25. The following are the principles of policy determination excluding:
a. Policy must be based on agency purpose
b. Policy should be expressed in positive form
c. The entire agency should participate in policy formulation
d. Policy recommendations should only come from the board of directors
26. A pictorial presentation of the organizational structure of an agency is the:
a. Line and staff organization
b. Bureaucratic form of organization
c. Organizational chart
d. Formal organization
27. A short chain of command is reflected in the organization is:
a. A step pyramid or several levels between top management and workers
b. A flatter pyramid/fewer levels between top management and workers
c. A smaller limit of a number of supervisees by a supervisor
d. A delegation of authority to a supervisor by top management
28. The most effective form of administrative communication is through:
a. Formal communication
b. The grapevine
c. Informal communication
d. Verbal/oral communication
29. Persons assisting social workers deliver services supervised by social workers
a. volunteers
b. service providers
c. paraprofessional
d. students
304
30. Perpendicular or vertical coordination users is based on:
a. homogenous assignment
b. hierarchical or scalar principle
c. division of labor
d. unity of command
31. Social welfare agencies are also social systems in view of their being:
a. subjected to pressures from outside and within the organization
b. established to attain specific goals, have internal structures, procedures
c. made up of various levels of staff, volunteers and management
d. created by law and supported by taxes and the public
32. Group supervision to be effective should be done only with:
a. inexperienced supervisees
b. members of the group participating as equals
c. homogenous group and members have facility to communicate
d. two group members deciding to function apart from a bigger group
33. Supervision of volunteers to enable them contribute to agency's goals include:
a. ensuring that quality services are rendered to the clients
b. planning and budgeting for specific program/service
c. orient them of agency's programs and assign tasks along their capacity
d. performance appraisal of tasks assigned to them
34. Performance appraisal of a staff in an agency is primarily the basis for:
a. compulsory retirement of personnel
305
b. promotions, incentives, transfer and separation
c. personnel, policies contained in the personnel manual of agency
d. job descriptions and orientation for new personnel
35. Program planning and proposal writing are part of the function of:
a. policy formulation
b. staffing
c. planning
d. budgeting
36. Government agencies are examples of a bureaucratic form of organization due
a. to standard operating procedures observed during transactions
b. to nepotism, red tape and corruption
c. to a short chain of command
d. efficiency and effectiveness of its programs/services
37. One of the functions of social work administration is:
a. organizing of social welfare agency
b. identify social needs and social welfare programs to address these needs
c. directing the allocation of resources for specific programs/services
d. recruitment, selection, and hiring social work personnel in an agency
38. The direct service providers have the unique position to:
a. be responsible to policy formulation
b. to place, evaluate and promote personnel
c. interact with clients needing services and providing these to them
d. to supervise staff, volunteers and paraprofessionals
306
39. The organizational chart of an agency should show the:
a. resources generated by the agency
b. pictorial presentation of the physical plant/facilities of the agency
c. job descriptions, wages and benefits of all personnel
d. line of authority showing the superior- subordinate relationships
40. As a supervisor, one should stimulate learning of supervisees which include:
a. giving recognition for a good work done
b. giving transactions to correct work done
c. giving materials rewards to worker and families
d. providing a threatening environment during supervisory sessions
41. The responsibility of recording the tasks and activities as a basis for reports and further decisions belong
to:
a. the executive
b. the public relation officer
c. supervisor
d. every worker
42. Distance, time, availability of adequate facilities, ability and competence of workers are factors that affect:
a. homogenous assignments
b. cooperation
c. span of control
d. evaluation
43. The key to effective coordination is:
a. organization c. delineation
b. cooperation d. delegation
44. Identify which principle of organization is involved when the agency executive reduces to
307
as few as possible, the levels of supervision between top management and the rank and file:
a. homogenous assignments
b. short chain of command
c. line and staff
d. Balance
45. It is a tool used by the administrator to help him make a choice among viable competing programs
designed to achieve certain objectives:
a. management and information system
b. cost-benefit analysis
c. the budget
d. financial reports
46. In planning, when we are concerned with day to day details, we are doing one of the following:
a. substantive planning
b. procedural planning
c. fiscal planning
d. general planning
47. The process of bringing together related units into a working whole is referred to as;
a. unification c. organization
b. coordination d. cooperation
48. Evaluation of the process of helping is necessary for;
a. determining budget programs
b. weeding out of inefficient staff
c. improvement of practice
d. its organizational value
49. A bureaucracy has certain strength. From the following identify that which is not a strength.
a. economy c. role clarity
b. depersonalization d. security
308
50. It is the procedure for introducing a new worker to this agency's history, objectives, operating policies,
rules and regulations, etc.
a. orientation c. selection
b. recruitment d. staffing
51. All delegated responsibility must be accompanied by corresponding:
a. assignments c. duties
b. authority d. guidelines
52. The art of enabling workers and students to perform their functions under the guidance of a trained
person:
a. consultation c. supervision
b. administration d. social planning
53. Administration, supervision and research are examples of:
a. Primary methods of social work
b. Secondary methods of social work
c. Primary Settings
d. Secondary settings
54. The ability of the social work administrator to see his organization as whole include the recognition of how
the various functions of his organization depend on one another and how a change in one part affects the
others:
a. human skill
b. conceptual skill
c. technical skill
d. administrative skill
55. The ability of the social work administrator to get things done through the efforts of his subordinate is:
a. technical skill
b. conceptual skill
c. human skill
d. management skill
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56. The process by which the objectives of social welfare agency or organization are met is called:
a. Planning
b. Delivery system
c. Policy-making
d. Administration
57. To assure the quality of service delivery of the agency, it provides adequate:
a. vehicles
b. supervision
c. direct service workers
d. resources
58. A social agency is:
a. a government institution
b. the provider of the resources that clients need to alleviate their problems
c. a social policy
d. a private society
59. Secondary methods of social work are those which:
a. are not necessary in order to render social services
b. facilitate an agency's operation without touching the client directly
c. do not require social worker skills for discharge of its functions
d. provides funds for the agency
60. The systematic way of achieving an objective or goal or the blue print for action is called:
a. Policy formulation
b. Programming
c. Planning
d. Organizing
61. The model of organization which is informal and employees participate and share in decision making is
called:
a. Bureaucratic c. Adhocracy
b. Democratic d. Collegial
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62. Among the models of administration this model is concerned with the provision and distribution of societal
resources and helping persons to use maximally the social resources available to them:
a. Social administration
b. Social work administration
c. Social welfare administration
d. Social development
63. A process involved in staffing to advertise in national papers, journals, and contacts with school and
through personal contacts. This process is:
a. Placement
b. Recruitment, selection and hiring
c. Promotion
d. Transfer
64. The work of constraining, coordinating and regulating action in accordance with plans for the achievement
of specified objectives is:
a. Controlling c. Coordinating
b. Directing d. Supervising
65. The ratio of output over input is high criteria of:
a. Equity
b. Responsiveness
c. Efficiency
d. Effectiveness
66. Which of the following best defined Social Administration?
a. Administration is a continuous, dynamic process.
b. The process is set into motion in order to accomplish a common goal.
c. The resources of people and material are harnessed so that the common goal can be achieved.
d. Implicit in the definition are the elements of planning, organizing, staffing,
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monitoring and evaluation and leadership.
Choices: A.) a,b,c,d B.) a,d
C.) b,c,d D.) a,b,d
67. The following are the principles of scientific management which one is not.
a. Hierarchy of authority
b. Describes and break down the task to its smallest unit
c. Use time and motion studies to find one's best way to do work
d. Restrict behavioral alternatives facing worker-remove worker discretion in planning, organizing,
controlling.
68. Referred to as secondary method of SW that is concerned with the provision and distribution of societal
resources to enable clientele groups to meet their needs and fulfill their potentials SW direct practice
a. Social planning
b. SW Administration
c. SW Research
d. SW Action
69. As the chief executive of the organization, s/he is tasked to organize people and resources, motivating the
workforce to perform and achieve the end of the agency.
a. Manager
b. Chairman of the board of directors
c. Supervisor
d. HRD/Personnel officer
70. Day care, immunization, capability building
a. Program
b. service
c. tactic
d. strategy
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71. A coordinated group of activities maintained over a period of time aimed at producing services to various
individuals, groups and communities.
a. program
b. services
c. plan
d. policy
72. A course of action that involves matching needs and resources, of organizational intentions and resources,
of organizational intentions and resource capability and transforms a present state to a desired state.
a. Resource mobilization
b. Planning
c. Policy formulation
d. Program implementation
73. Basis for policy making:
a. Social problems
b. Demand service
c. Data from the community
d. Services rendered
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abc
C.) abd D.) ac
74. A purposive course of actions manifesting the organization's goals and prescribing the ways by which these
could be accomplished.
a. Social policy
b. Social legislations
c. plan of action
d. program plan
75. RA 7160 or the local Government Code way for programs and services within the reach of the people
through devolution. This service delivery characteristic is:
a. Comprehensive delivery system
b. Continuous program development
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c. Accessibility of services
d. Integrated delivery of services
76. One of its major flagship strategies of the SRA is the Comprehensive and Integrated Delivery of Social
Services (CIDSS) that brought together various services to respond to the minimum basic needs (MBN) of
people. This service delivery strategy is referred to as:
a. Accessibility
b. Convergence of services
c. Focused targeting
d. Comprehensiveness of service delivery
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abc
C.) ac D.) bd
77. The following are resources of social policy. Which one is not?
a. Philippine constitution
b. UN-MDG
c. Social legislations
d. Programs and services
78. This management function tries to answer the questions WHY, WHAT, and HOW that require a thorough
needs assessment, goal setting, method of meeting the goals, decisions to be made, and a blueprint of
implementing guidelines.
a. Planning
b. Policy formulation
c. program implementation
d. evaluation of programs
79. A principle of organization that limits the authority of a supervisor over a specified number of supervisees.
a. Unity of command
b. Organizational structure
c. Span of control
d. Division of labor
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80. This staffing function involves effective recruitment, selection, hiring, and placement.
a. organization
b. acquiring
c. maintaining
d. developing
81. Regulating action by interpreting, explaining, giving instructions regarding expected performance of a task
or plan.
a. coordination
b. organization
c. directing and control
d. implement guidelines
82. To ensure compliance by the employees /social workers of the requirements of their tasks and accomplish
agency objectives, the manager needs feedbacks through:
a. periodic evaluation of work
accomplishments
b. performance appraisal and control
c. regular staff meeting
d. reporting
83. The management function meets the following purposes: teaching, research and administrative purpose
like evaluation.
a. program development
b. Reporting
c. Records
d. Plan
84. They are blueprints of the organization for the coming months or years expressed in monetary terms:
a. Plan of actions c. budget
b. Programs d. records
85. Involves periodic gathering, processing, and consolidation of data to identify deviations or gaps and needs
in the actual conduct of work or
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activities, and applications of corrective or support inputs if warranted.
a. Evaluation c. planning
b. Monitoring d. controlling
86. A management function that is used for making decision for the continuance or termination of a programs
after assessment of its strengths and weaknesses, and application of corrective or goals/objectives and
gaps in the implementation.
a. Monitoring
b. Evaluation
c. recording
d. program implementation
87. An evaluation tool that assesses or identifies the changes brought about by the implementation of a
program/project.
a. Summative evaluation
b. Cost benefit analysis
c. Impact analysis
d. Monitoring
88. An evaluation tool that is used to determine merits for increase in salary or promotion of the staff.
a. Monitoring
b. Performance appraisal
c. Impact analysis
d. Staff evaluation
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abc
C.) ac D.) bd
89. This management function requires the ability to integrate various parts of the organization and motivate
the workforce to work in a collaborative and cooperative manner.
a. Organization
b. Unity of command
c. c. leadership
d. coordination
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90. Basis of a budget:
a. Expected income
b. Needs for the coming year
c. Program priorities
d. Program cost
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abc
C.) ab D.) cd
91. A management functions that requires overseeing and enabling subordinates to perform their tasks to the
best of their ability ensuring satisfaction to themselves and to the agency.
a. Evaluation
b. Directing and control
c. Supervision
d. Organization
92. The ability to inspire and motivate people to work for the achievement of an objective.
a. Leadership
b. Management
c. administration
d. supervision
93. The following statement, "It is hereby declared that it is the responsibility of the State to provide a
comprehensive program of social services through the convergence of government agencies resources" is
called?
a. Plan c. principle
b. Policy d. philosophy
94. As a tool determine situation of barangays for CIDSS implementation, the Minimum Basic Needs such as
the following are assessed.
a. Food, nutrition, health, water, clothing
b. Shelter, peace and order
c. Basic education, literacy, people's participation
d. Gainful employment and adequate income
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Choices: A.) abcd B.) abc
C.) bcd D.) cd
95. The aim is to foster growth and development of the capacities of people by ensuring a more equitable
distribution of goods and services and provisions of sufficient opportunities of raising the living standards
of the population.
a. Social justice
b. Social equity
c. People empowerment
d. Social development
96. Poor communities may benefit from economic activities, as such, income-generating projects may be
prioritized by the social work in her work in the barangay. For the project, the social worker may be able to
tap the following agencies:
a. The local government unit that can provide capital for the project.
b. Any non-government organization
c. The DSWD to launch CIDSS
d. The PCSO for the other needs of the community
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abc
C.) acd D.) abd
97. Poverty reduction is a major goal for the Philippines and many international organizations like the UN. This
is especially articulated in the following social policies and social legislations.
a. Social Reform
b. Millennium Development Goal
c. R.A. 8425
d. Philippine Constitution
Choices:
A.) a,b,c,d B.) b,c,d
C.) a,b,d D.) b,d
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98. The art of enabling staff and students to perform their functions under the guidance of a trained person.
a. Consultation c. Supervision
b. Administration d. Social planning
99. The tasks of giving assignment, of organizing, of coordinating and facilitating the manpower and agency
resources are among the roles of this supervisory function.
a. Administration function
b. Educational Function
c. Expressive-supportive function
d. Planning function
100. This means that linkages must be established between the program, the budget and the goals.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefit Analysis
d. Developing Plan
101. The following are the classification of social welfare services, EXCEPT ONE:
a. Semi-private
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People's Organization
102. It is created by a constitutional mandate, legislative act and by executive order of the President.
a. Semi-private
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People's Organization
103. It is created by a group of citizens who have decided to organize to meet the felt/ identified needs of a
community or groups of people, utilizing community resources to render social
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services to the people. It has a constitution and by-laws, a governing board responsible for policy formulation,
policies to guide its program and trained personnel to implement its programs. It generally draws volunteers
from the community that help in social services delivery.
a. Semi-private
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People's Organization
104. Their creation, functions and programs are determined by law and can be changed only by law. Their
organizational structure is bureaucratic and they are less flexible than programs of private agencies. These
characteristics are the characteristics of
a. Semi-private
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People's Organization
105. They are created, not by law, but organized as a voluntary response of private citizens to meet people's
needs in the community. They may also be national chapters of international welfare organizations such as
the Red Cross, YMCA, YWCA, Girl and Boys scouts. These characteristics are the characteristics of
a. Semi-private/ NGO
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People's Organization
106. Their organizational structure does not follow a bureaucratic pattern and, therefore they are more
flexible in their policies and programs and can respond to people's needs more quickly. In the case of
religious- sponsored agencies they adhere to policies of their doctrinal beliefs and this makes them less
flexible. Their
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concepts, philosophies and methods of work follow their religious beliefs. These characteristics are the
characteristics of
a. Semi-private
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People's Organization
107. It is the process of developing guidelines for an agreed course of action- a process by which statements
of intention adopted by the board or policy-making body are for the implementation by the management
and staff to achieve agency goals.
a. Policy
b. Social Policy
c. Social Welfare Policy
d. Policy Formulation
108. It is a verbal or written or implied expression of agency purpose that provides the guideline for
execution action. It is a stated course of action adopted and followed by the agency in doing its work.
a. Policy
b. Social Policy
c. Agency Policy
d. Policy Formulation
109. These are written statements formally adopted by the Board or legal authority and made public so that
persons will know the conditions under which services will be rendered. The community, the constituency,
and the staff should be clear on the nature and purpose of the specific policy and its interpretation.
a. Policy
b. Social Policy
c. Agency Policy
d. Policy Formulation
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110. It is the laying out or charting the course of translating agency policies into programs and services. It
involves looking ahead, assessing future probabilities, getting the facts and arranging systematically the
steps to be taken and the methods of doing them to give focus and direction.
a. Planning
b. Coordinating
c. Directing
d. Programming
111. It is developing a set of planned purposive activities. This is a unit of planned activities. It is a
coordinated group of activities maintained over a period of time, aimed at producing a specific type or
types of services.
a. Planning
b. Coordinating
c. Directing
d. Programming
112. The following are the parameters of programming, EXCEPT ONE.
a. Defining existing resources in the community including agency resources and identifying service areas.
b. Identifying gaps in service areas/ or resources
c. Identifying the factors related to gaps
d. Setting specifics objectives
113. It is the setting up of the framework of structure of the different units of the system to carry on or
perform distinct tasks for a specified objective.
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Planning
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114. It is the function of selecting, hiring, training and maintaining the competent work force in such a way
as to accomplish with maximum efficiency and economy, the functions and objectives of the agency.
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Coordination
115. Is the overseeing, guiding and supervising people in the organization the social work administrator is
the professional leader of the staff. He carries major responsibilities for helping the staff to set goals,
achieve high standards of work productivity, and provide high quality of services.
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Coordination
116. It is an activity that inter-relates the various parts of the agency so that it functions as a whole.
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Coordination
117. The following are the characteristics of budget and financing, except one.
a. The agency budget is the annual estimate of the financial needs of the organization.
b. A budget is a document containing words and figures, which proposes expenditures for certain items and
purposes. The words describe items of expenditures or purposes and the figures attached to each item or
purpose.
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c. The budget is a link between financial resources and human behavior to accomplish policy objectives.
d. A decision is made as to the resources required to achieve the purposes.
118. It is a conversational activity between the
social work supervisor and social work
supervisee.
a. Administration
b. Supervision
c. Intervention
d. Conference
119. The following are the essential components of supervision, WHICH ONE IS NOT?
a. Sanction and support by organizations
b. Acknowledgement and practice by the supervisor of her/his positional authority
c. Meetings that use a formal structure and format
d. Promotion of social justice
120. The following are one of the five-fold purposes of supervision to provide quality service, WHICH ONE IS
NOT?
a. Knowledge and skill development
b. Evaluation by and of all participants
c. Professional development as a social worker
d. Administrative tasks
121. It is oriented toward agency policy and organizational demands and focuses on a supervisee's level of
functioning on the job and work assignment.
a. Administrative supervision
b. Educational Supervision
c. Supervision
d. Supportive Supervision
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122. It decreases job stress that interferes with work performance and provides the supervisee with
nurturing conditions that compliments their success and encourages self-efficacy.
a. Administrative supervision
b. Educational Supervision
c. Supervision
d. Supportive Supervision
123. It focuses on professional concerns and relates to specific cases. It helps supervisee to better
understand social work philosophy, become more self-aware, and refine their knowledge and skills.
a. Administrative supervision
b. Educational Supervision
c. Supervision
d. Supportive Supervision
124. It focuses on staff development and the training needs of a social worker to a particular caseload. It
includes activities in which the supervisee is guided to learn about assessment, treatment and
intervention, identification, and resolution of ethical issues, and evaluation and termination of services.
a. Administrative supervision
b. Educational Supervision
c. Supervision
d. Supportive Supervision
125. For purposes of risk management, social work supervisor should:
a. Maintain the documentation of supervision
b. Ensure that the services provided to clients by supervisees meet or exceed standards of practice
c. Monitor supervisee's professional work activities
d. All of the above
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126. Social work supervisors and supervisees may face ethical dilemmas when providing services to clients.
To address those dilemmas, the supervisor and the supervisee should:
a. Have a thorough knowledge of the agency policy and procedures under which they are employed.
b. Have a thorough knowledge of the code of ethics under which they practice.
c. Consult with the president of the agency
d. Terminate the services.
127. Supervisors help supervisees learn ethical decision-making, a process that is both cognitive and
emotional. Supervisors should
a. Discuss and model the process of identifying and exploring problems, looking at issues, values, principles,
and regulations.
b. Discuss with their supervisees possible consequences, as well as cost and benefits of certain actions.
c. Should explore what actions best achieve fairness, justice, and respect for others, make a decision about
actions to be taken, and evaluate them after implementation.
d. All of the above
128. What are other ethical considerations that are included in supervision?
a. A supervisor should always focus on the goals of supervision and the nature of supervisory relationship
and avoid providing psychotherapy services to the supervisee.
b. Supervisors working with more than one supervisee should see each supervisee as an individual and adapt
to that supervisee's needs.
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c. Supervisors must be fair and consistent when providing supervision to multiple supervisees.
Choices: A.) abc
B.) ab
C.) ac
D.) None of the above
129. Which of the following statements are true as regards to evaluation and outcomes?
a. The evaluation and outcome of the supervisor process is an integral part to the development of
professional social workers.
b. The evaluation of supervisee, as well as the evaluation of the impact and outcome of supervision, is a
significant responsibility of the supervisor.
c. An evaluation serves many purposes, which vary depending on the setting and context.
Choices: A.) abc B.) bc
C.) ac D.) ab
130. Is the one responsible for providing direction to the supervisee, who applies social work theory,
standardized knowledge, skills, competency, and applicable ethical content in the practice setting.
a. Manager
b. Field Instructor
c. Supervisor
d. Professor
131. The supervisory relationship is built on
a. Sympathy, Mutuality, Security and Acceptance
b. Trust, Confidentiality, Support and Empathic Experiences
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c. Individualism, Self-determination,
Acceptance and Confidentiality
d. Trust, Empathy, Acceptance and Support
132. These qualities are also inherent in the supervisory relationship
a. Constructive Feedback
b. Safety
c. Respect
d. Self-care
Choices: A.) abcd B.) ab
C.) cd D.) abd
133. It occurs when the supervisor or supervisee leaves the organization or is promoted or when the
supervisee obtains licensure.
a. Ending phase
b. Beginning phase
c. Termination
d. Termination phase
134. This may also occur when the goals are achieved in the agreement between the supervisor and
supervisee.
a. Ending phase
b. Beginning phase
c. Termination
d. Termination phase
135. Defined supervision in social work as the process of overseeing, directing, coordinating, enhancing and
evaluating the on-the-job performance of workers for whom the supervisor is responsible.
a. Horejs and Sheafor
b. Kadushin and Harkness
c. Zastrow and Williams
d. John and Skidneight
136. The following are the short-term objectives of supervision, WHICH ONE IS NOT?
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a. Provides workers with the work structure and agency resources that enable them to do their jobs
effectively
b. Increase workers' knowledge, skills and ability to do their jobs effectively and help workers develop
professionally
c. Sustain workers emotionally in the performance of their job
d. Provide clients the most efficient and effective service possible, consistent with agency policies and
procedures.
137. It encompasses all of the procedures an agency uses to improve the job-related knowledge, skills and
attitudes of its staff.
a. Staff development
b. Educational supervision
c. In-service training
d. Administrative supervision
138. It is a formal training that is planned in advance and provided to a circumscribed group of personnel at
an agency who have the same job responsibilities or same job classification. The content taught at an in-
service training applies to all members of the group but is specifically relevant to none of them.
a. Staff development
b. Educational supervision
c. In-service training
d. Administrative supervision
139. It refers to training that is tailored to the needs of a specific worker who has a specific caseload and is
dealing with specific problems - i.e., the program of education is individualized to meet the needs of this
worker. Through this, the supervisor helps the worker apply the generic training offered by in-service
training.
a. Staff development
b. Educational supervision
c. In-service training
d. Administrative supervision
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140. It refers to the ability to implement one's authority
a. Command
b. Power
c. Unity of Command
d. Coercion
141. The ability to control tangible punishments (demotion, poor performance rating, etc.) and psychic
punishments (criticism, disapproval) to be effective, workers must believe that the supervisor is likely to
take disciplinary action.
a. Reward power
b. Coercive power
c. Legitimate/ Positional power
d. Referent power
142. Stems from the authority associated with the position of supervisor, regardless of the person holding
the position. The worker believes that the supervisor - simply because of his position - has a legitimate
right to expect workers to follow his authority.
a. Reward power
b. Coercive power
c. Legitimate/ Positional power
d. Referent power
143. The ability to control tangible rewards (raises, work assignments, etc.) and psychic rewards (e.g.,
praise). For reward power to be effective, workers must believe that their supervisor has authority to
make decisions concerning rewards, and it must be apparent to workers that rewards are distributed
based on job performance.
a. Reward power
b. Expert power
c. Legitimate/ Positional power
d. Referent power
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144. Derives from the worker's identification with her supervisor and eagerness to be like him and liked by
him. Having a positive relationship with a worker provides a supervisor with a source of power for
influencing the worker's behavior and attitudes. When a worker identifies with her supervisor, she
internalizes his expectations.
a. Reward power
b. Expert power
c. Legitimate/ Positional power
d. Referent power
145. It exists when the supervisor has special knowledge and skills that his supervisees need. This form of
power is confined to areas in which the supervisor has expertise and can diminish as a worker's own
expertise grows and she relies less on the supervisor for help. This may also stem from the supervisor's
expert knowledge of the policies, procedures, and operations in the agency.
a. Reward power
b. Expert power
c. Formal power
d. Functional power
146. The power which is related to the title/position a supervisor (or other leader) holds and the authority
delegated to that position. This power is acquired automatically when a person becomes a supervisor and
there is little difference between supervisors in the same agency in regard to their formal power.
a. Reward power
b. Expert power
c. Formal power
d. Functional power
147. Is the most common kind of meeting between supervisors and workers?
a. Individual supervisory conference
b. Group supervisor conference
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c. Case presentations
d. Focused group discussions
148. The supervisor watches the interview from behind; he can see and hear the interaction but cannot be
seen or heard by the worker or client.
a. One-way mirror
b. Co-therapy supervision
c. Sitting In
d. Focused group discussions
149. The father of scientific management
a. Frederick Taylor
b. Max Weber
c. Henri Fayol
d. Abraham Maslow
150. Father of modern management
a. Frederick Taylor
b. Max Weber
c. Henri Fayol
d. Abraham Maslow
151. In this type of supervision, the members of the group participate as equals. There is no designated
supervisor
a. Group supervision
b. Peer-group supervision
c. Case consultation
d. Tutorial supervision
152. The development of supervision originated in
a. Great Britain c. Philippines
b. U.S.A. d. Canada
153. Supervision is significant to SW practice for
a. The protection of the client
b. Maintaining the agency's prestige
c. Promoting the good-will
d. Meeting the accreditation requirements
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154. This type of supervision is effective with homogeneous participants:
a. Tandem supervision
b. Tutorial supervision
c. Group supervision
d. Case consultation
155. In this supervisory function the supervisor's role is directly related to helping the supervisee deal with
job-related stress
a. Administrative function
b. Educational function
c. Expressive-Supportive function
d. Coordinating function
156. In this level of supervision, the use of andragogy is a must in a teaching function
a. Supervisor-Student level
b. Supervisor-Staff level
c. Supervisor-Paraprofessional level
d. Supervisor-Volunteer level
157. This type of supervision developed out of the peer-group model with many similarities and there is no
leader
a. Tutorial model
b. Group supervision
c. Tandem Supervision
d. Team
158. One of the following is a supervisory tool
a. Questionnaire
b. Case records
c. Information sheet
d. Interview guide
159. It is a component of a supervision that increases the worker's knowledge in understanding her client
and in managing her cases
a. Teaching
b. Discipline
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c. Efficiency rating
d. Recording
160. The process of enabling worker to perform their functions more effectively is called?
a. Supervision c. Facilitating
b. Training d. Structuring
161. The key to effective or successful supervision is?
a. Discipline c. Authority
b. Relationship d. Knowledge
162. This law stipulated the completion of 1,000 hours of supervised field work as a requirement for board
examination
a. RA 5413 c. RA 7530
b. RA 6104 d. RA 4373
163. The turn key for the whole process of supervision is
a. Relationshipc. Planning
b. Communication d. Control
164. Starting with the simple and moving on to the complex is a factor to consider in this supervisory
function
a. Administrative c. Supportive
b. Educational d. Facilitative
165. The type of supervision most commonly used for new and inexperienced worker including students
a. Tutorial model
b. Case consultation
c. Group supervision
d. Peer-group supervision
166. This model of supervision is economical in terms of administrative time, money, effort and expertise
a. Individual supervision
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b. Group Supervision
c. Tandem Supervision
d. Team
167. The membership is deliberately varied within the agency in this supervisory model
a. Case consultation
b. Group Supervision
c. Team
d. Peer-group
168. This worker serves as the bridge or human link between the agency and the client
a. Social Worker
b. Paraprofessional
c. Supervisor
d. Psychologist
169. In the teaching function of the supervisor of the paraprofessional this process is preferred since the
supervisee is an adult
a. Pedagogy
b. Facilitative
c. Andragogy
d. Lecture
170. This type of paraprofessional is selected to match the ethnic, racial, educational and socioeconomic
background of the client group.
a. Ubiquitous c. Volunteer
b. Indigenous d. Enabler
171. Which of the following function is not the task of the paraprofessionals?
a. Conducting Survey
b. Distributing aids
c. Conducting casework
d. Contacting leaders
172. Providing short daily conferences rather than a weekly one, is one of the roles of this type of
supervisory functions of paraprofessionals
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a. Administrative function
b. Educational function
c. Supportive function
d. Planning function
173. Defined administration as the process of setting objectives and establishing policies, creating and
maintaining an organization, making plans and carrying them out, and evaluating the results
a. Kidneight
b. Johns
c. Stein
d. Scwarts
174. Social work administration can be defined as the process of transforming social policy into social
services, and the use of experience in recommending modification of policy.
a. Kidneight
b. Johns
c. Stein
d. Scwarts
175. Defined administration as a process of defining and attaining the objectives of an organization through
a system of coordinated and cooperative effort.
a. Kidneight
b. Johns
c. Stein
d. Scwarts
176. Defined administration as the process and the organization of people toward objective which entail the
production of goods or the provision of services.
a. Kidneight
b. Johns
c. Stein
d. Scwarts
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177. Is the setting up of the framework or structure of the different units of the system to carry out or
perform distinct tasks for specified objectives.
a. Administration
b. Supervision
c. Organization
d. Management
178. This is called the scientific utilization of manpower, money, machines, materials, methods, time and
space for the achievements of agency goals.
a. Administration
b. Supervision
c. Organization
d. Management
179. In the Filipino style of management, valuing hard work means
a. Kayod
b. Libro
c. Lusot
d. Oido
180. In the Filipino style of management, by the book means
a. Kayod
b. Libro
c. Lusot
d. Oido
181. In the Filipino style of management, playing it by ear and gut feeling means
a. Ugnayan
b. Libro
c. Lusot
d. Oido
182. In the Filipino style of management, capitalizing on a loophole to avoid work or cover failure means
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a. Kayod
b. Libro
c. Lusot
d. Ugnayan
183. In the Filipino style of management, putting emphasis on relationships means
a. Kayod
b. Libro
c. Lusot
d. Ugnayan
184. According to Trecker, the following are the common elements of administration
a. Administration is a continuous, dynamic process.
b. The process is set into motion in order to accomplish a common purpose or goal
c. The resources of people and material are harnessed so that the common purpose or goal may be achieved.
d. Coordination and cooperation are the means by which the resources of people and material are
harnessed.
e. Implicit in the definition are the elements of planning, organization and leadership.
Choices: A.) abcde B.) bde
C.) bcde D.) abe
185. It is seen as a method practiced by social work administrators to enable all people involved in the
agency's work to fulfill their responsibilities in accordance with their functions and to make maximum use
of resources to the end that the agency provides the best possible services to the people of the
community.
a. Social Work Supervision
b. Social Work Administration
c. Social Work Methods
d. Social Work Research
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186. It is work with people. It is a dynamic process based upon an ever- increasing knowledge and
understanding of human behavior, human relations and human organization.
a. Social Work Supervision
b. Social Work Administration
c. Social Work Methods
d. Social Work Research
187. The following are the dimensions of social work administration, EXCEPT ONE
a. The community within which the agency works.
b. The psychosocial dimension within which people release their feelings and energies which are properly
channeled and directed by administrators to enable people to accomplish their tasks in relation to the
goals of agency service.
c. A central dimension is the task or work assignment within the agency structure.
d. People, resources and purposes are brought together by administration in a continuous, dynamic process.
188. It is the structural framework within which administrative tasks are carried out. The agency structure
inevitably conditions and controls the specifics of the administrative process in a given situation. Inasmuch
as social agencies are wholes and their parts are interrelated, administration likewise must be thought of
as a total process rather a series of segmented acts.
a. Social Work Agency
b. Social Agency
c. Social Welfare Agency
d. Modern Social Agency
189. It is a complex social system involving many people. These may include the board, administrative, staff,
other staff, volunteers,
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members, clients or persons served, and the supporting community. It is a social system with each part
bearing a relation to every other part and all are interdependent.
a. Social Work Agency
b. Social Agency
c. Social Welfare Agency
d. Modern Social Agency
190. It is an instrument of society. It has been established by governmental or voluntary effort to meet the
social needs of people to achieve a social goal.
a. Social Work Agency
b. Social Agency
c. Social Welfare Agency
d. Modern Social Agency
191. Is a whole with each part, bearing in relation to every other part and all are inter-dependent. It is not
impermeable to other social systems and is affected by other social systems.
a. Social Role
b. Social Unit
c. Social System
d. Social System Theory
192. The following are the elements of a social system
a. Interaction, education, roles, status,
empowerment, sanctions, psychological identification and boundary
maintenance.
b. Interaction, position, mission, goals,
power, vision, psychological
identification and boundary
maintenance.
c. Interaction, position, roles, status,
power, sanctions, psychological
identification and boundary
maintenance.
340
d. Interaction, objectives, roles, vision, mission, sanctions, psychological identification and boundary
maintenance.
193. It is the knowledge of performance of tasks; techniques used in transforming inputs into outputs.
a. Technical subsystem
b. Psycho-social system
c. Organizational structure system
d. Managerial system
194. Spans the entire organization by relating it to the environment, setting the goals, planning, organizing,
programming and controlling activities.
a. Technical subsystem
b. Psycho-social system
c. Organizational structure system
d. Managerial system
195. It consists of individual behavior and motivation, status, role relationships, group dynamics, influence
systems. This is influenced by external environment, technology, task and structures.
a. Technical subsystem
b. Psycho-social system
c. Organizational structure system
d. Managerial system
196. It involves tasks differentiation and division of labor and coordination of activities.
a. Technical subsystem
b. Psycho-social system
c. Organizational structure system
d. Managerial system
197. It may be defined as inquiring to aid in the process of decision making to choose the course of action
by investigating proper objectives,
341
comparing qualitatively, where possible, the cost of strategies for achieving them and formulating additional
alternatives. This is necessary when objectives are multiple, conflicting and involves a large element of
judgment.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefit Analysis
d. Developing Plan
198. It is an orderly study of the system designed to help the decision maker identify a preferred course of
action among possible alternatives.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefit Analysis
d. Developing Plan
199. In this analysis, the comparison is expressed in terms of their cost and effectiveness in attaining a
desired objective.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefit Analysis
d. Developing Plan
200. This means that linkages must be established between the program, the budget and the goals.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefit Analysis
d. Developing Plan
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Answer Key

1. c 41. 81. C 121. 161.

D A B
2. B 42. 82. C 122. 162.
C D D
3. B 43. 83. C 123. 163.
B B B
4. D 44. 84. C 124. 164.
B B B
5. B 45. 85. B 125. 165.
B D A
6. C 46. 86. B 126. 166.
B B B
7. A 47. 87. C 127. 167.
B D C
8. B 48. 88. D 128. 168.
C A B
9. A 49. 89. D 129. 169.
B A C
10. 50. 90. A 130. 170.
C A C B
11. 51. 91. C 131. 171.
A B B C
12. 52. 92. A 132. 172.
D C A A
13. 53. 93. B 133. 173.
A B C B
14. 54. 94. A 134. 174.
C D C A
15. 55. 95. D 135. 175.
C D B C
16. 56. 96. B 136. 176.
B C D D
17. 57. 97. A 137. 177.
D D A C
18. 58. 98. C 138. 178.
B B C D
19. 59. 99. A 139. 179.
B B B A
20. 60. 100. 140. 180.
B C D B B
21. 61. 101. 141. 181.
A B D B D
22. 62. 102. 142. 182.
A B C C C
23. 63. 103. 143. 183.
B B B A D
24. 64. 104. 144. 184.
C A C D A
25. 65. 105. 145. 185.
D C A B B
26. 66. 106. 146. 186.
C A B C B
27. 67. 107. 147. 187.
B A D A D
28. 68. 108. 148. 188.
A B A A C
29. 69. 109. 149. 189.
C A C A D
30. 70. 110. 150. 190.
B B A C A
31. 71. 111. 151. 191.
B A D B C
32. 72. 112. 152. 192.
C B D B C
33. 73. 113. 153. 193.
C B A A A
34. 74. 114. 154. 194.
B A B C D
35. 75. 115. 155. 195.
C C C C B
36. 76. 116. 156. 196.
A D D C C
37. 77. 117. 157. 197.
B D D C B
38. 78. 118. 158. 198.
C A B B B
39. 79. 119. 159. 199.
D C D D C
40. 80. 120. 160. 200.
A B B A D

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ANSWER SHEET

344

ANSWER SHEET
345

ANSWER SHEET
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Social Work Methods

Working with Individuals and Families (Casework)

1. The client is upset and disappointed about not being called back after a job interview. You should respond
by saying
A. "You have to be patient in a job search."
B. "I guess you are hurt and angry about not getting the job."
C. "I would be very angry if I were you."
D. "Remember this will take a long time."
2. Which one of these is NOT evidence of discrimination in a job interview or on a job application?
A. Please send in a photograph with the application
B. What is your birth date?
C. List your last three jobs.
D. What is your husband's occupation?
3. In spite of the need that most of us have of finding rules and procedures to guide us, we must face the
difficulty at the outset that there is no such thing as a model case record. Of the following, the best
justification for this statement is that
A. Records should be written to suit the case
B. Case recording should be patterned after the best models obtainable
C. Rules cannot be applied to social case work because each case requires individual treatment
D. The establishment of routine procedures in social work is an ideal that cannot be realized
4. Of the following, the best statement with regard to the efficiency of the caseworker in a public assistance
agency is that
A. Clerical efficiency automatically speeds up the satisfaction of clients' needs.
B. Clerical efficiency automatically increases skill in client relationships
C. Clients resent clerical efficiency in social work
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D. Clerical efficiency automatically meets the client's needs
5. A woman applying for aid says that her husband is a drunkard, beats her, and mistreats her children. The
social worker, when referring this case to a caseworker, should make a notation that this man should be
A. Committed to an institution for alcoholics
B. Taken to court and ordered to keep the peace
C. Referred to a psychiatric clinic
D. None of the above
6. The essential purpose of the face sheet of the case record is to present
A. Identifying data about the particular individuals in the social situation who present a problem to the
agency
B. Intimate personal facts about the persons concerned in the social situation
C. Identifying data about the persons concerned in the social situation
D. A social diagnosis of the family for reference purposes
7. One of the primary functions of a social worker is to
A. Receive and record all complaints
B. Interview all applicants for aid
C. Take inventories of materials and supplies received
D. Receive the commodities to be used by needy persons
8. Which among the following does not belong to the group?
a. Service coordination
b. Administrative
c. Resource coordination
d. Intensive
9. This model adopts a positive view of the child's life and circumstances, actively seeking strengths on which
to build. The belief is that children, like all people, have a "self-righting
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mechanism" that will help them bounce back from problems using their own power and ideas
a. Strength-based model
b. Preventive model
c. Resiliency model
d. Cognitive-behavioral model
10. Which among the following statements is an example of warning or threatening as one of the roadblocks
of communication in case management?
a. "Look, just go over and apply for the job."
b. "Leave your house and find another one."
c. "Go right back over to the courthouse and get those forms!"
d. "You'd better not to do if you know what's good for you!"
11. Which among the following shows that the social worker displays the belief that they are superior to their
clients and have all the answers?
a. "You should know that doing that is wrong!"
b. "If you take that suggestion, you'll be sorry!"
c. "I can tell you that something like that won't work!"
d. "You won't get your medications if you don't attend the group therapy regularly."
12. Which among the following shows that the social worker believes that their clients have nothing useful to
contribute to the resolution of a problem and make unilateral decisions without their client's input?
a. "You should not think like that."
b. "It would seem to me that you should stay home."
c. "You ought to see a counselor"
d. "I can tell you that something like that won't work!"
13. Writing a case record in a busy agency involves knowledge of acceptable practices in social case
350
recording. Below are four practices an interviewer might follow in writing up a long first investigation. Choose
the best of the four
A. Write verbatim in the presence of the client everything he or she says.
B. Omit from the record any mention of agreements or promises made by the case worker
C. Omit any mention of tension observed between members of the family, describing only what has to do
with the economic condition of the family
D. Give a picture of the problem as it appears to the family
14. Which of the following is not a good practice in writing up a case?
A. Include everything of importance said by the caseworkers
B. Give a clear account of the client's difficulties
C. Record any line of actions the case worker may have agreed to follow
D. Make the case record as lengthy and detailed as possible
15. Of the following, the least valid reason for the maintenance of the case record in public assistance
administration is to
A. Furnish reference, material for other case workers
B. Improve the quality of service to the client
C. Show how the public funds are being expanded
D. Reduce the complexities of the case to manageable proportions
16. A public assistance agency will learn more on forms than a private agency in the same field of activity
because
A. Forms simplify the recording responsibilities of newly appointed eligibility specialist
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B. Public welfare records are of the family agency type
C. The government framework requires a greater degree of standardization
D. More interviews and visits are made in connection with the public assistance cases
17. During an interview with a client in which you are to determine his eligibility, he shares confidential
information with you and asks you to withhold it from the record. You should
A. Listen to the client - because that is what is most important - and record the information since you must
report all information as part of the case record.
B. Listen to the client - because that is what is most important - and respect his wishes by keeping the
material private and separate from their record
C. Provide the client with an open ear - after all, you are aware that he has no one else to share his problems
with
D. Explain to the client that he should not share any information with you that he will want withheld from his
record since you must report all information as part of the case record
18. A face sheet will include all the following EXCEPT
A. A client's name
B. A client's prior sexual relationship
C. A client's address
D. A client's demographic data
19. In a case record, you should do which of the following?
A. Keep it brief, succinct, and clear
B. Keep it prolonged and repetitious so that you make your point
C. Add your personal observations of the client's personal preferences
D. Describe what you did not like about the person
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20. Which of the following is not considered as assets that will be include in someone's budget?
A. Wages
B. Stocks
C. IRA
D. Burial fund
21. In a case record, you should include all of the following EXCEPT
A. The family history
B. Anything the family shares with you
C. The family's perception of each other's problems
D. Any occurrence of family problems
22. It is often good case management procedure for the worker to set up a personal "tickler" file in order to
have easy accessibility to the essential matters involving each case responsibility. Of the following, the
information least needed to be included on most cases would be the
A. Client's name, address, and phone number if any
B. Case number for reference to actual case record
C. Medical history of each client
D. Dates when required visit are made
23. Is a process for assessing the client's total
situation and addressing the needs and problems found in the assessment; its primary purpose is to improve
the quality of life for the client. It is called?
a. Case management
b. Casework process
c. Assessment process
d. Planning process
24. Atsara Geronimo is a 17-year-old client in the daytime partial hospitalization program. Her mother phoned
and requested to know Atsara's psychiatric diagnosis so that she could inform the family's physician who is
treating her for diabetes. The best thing is you should:
353
A. Advise the mother of the diagnosis and the name of the psychiatrist who made the diagnosis.
B. Call the family physician directly and advise him of the diagnosis
C. Ask Atsara to sign a release of information form giving consent for the physician and/or the mother to be
advised of her diagnosis
D. Refuse to release the information at all
25. A client requests a copy of his current treatment plan. As his/her worker, you should:
A. Have the client put the request in writing and discuss the issue with the treatment team
B. Make a copy of the current treatment plan and give it to the client
C. Discuss the treatment plan and give it to the client
D. Refer the client to the attending psychiatric physician
26. Regine Velagket, a 13-year-old client, requests that his school counselor be sent a copy of her initial
interview and discharge summary. The client signs the release of information form, documenting her
written consent for the information to be transmitted. The best way that the social worker will do is that
he/she should:
a. Forward the material to the school counselor
b. Give the information to the client who can deliver it to the school counselor
C. Have the medical records department forward the information to the school counselor
d. Refuse to release the information until a parent co-signs the release of information form
27. This relationship exists when you and your client to whom you are giving services have more than one
relationship.
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a. Triadic relationship
b. Dual relationship
C. Casework relationship
d. Family relationship
28. Dumbledoris Bigornia is depressed elderly woman who was admitted to Walang Mabuhay Hospital due to
sever back pain. She was advised that she might need surgery to correct the problem. You are her case
manager at the Office of the Senior Citizens Affair, and she calls to say she is considering suicide. The
constant back pain has made her feel like "just giving up". Dumbledoris Bigornia is currently at home,
awaiting a surgery date. You know she has a supply of pills, and she says she wants to take all the pills. You
feel that there is substantial risk that she might follow through on her threat. As his/her case manager, you
should?
a. Contact the Hospital staff who are currently seeing her in the outpatient clinic
b. Maintain frequent contact with her, but respect her wishes to keep her suicide plan confidential
c. After discussing with her what you are about to do, contact crisis intervention
d. Advise the city police department of her suicide plans
29. Fukuzawa Hainaku is a client who has been in an alcohol treatment programs in your agency, AlakpaMore
Rehabilitation Center. He is currently depressed about his pending annulment and present marital
separation. He has signed a release of information form for you to share information with his priest, who is
counseling him about his religious conflicts regarding the annulment. A man calls you claiming to be
Fukuzawa's priest and requesting information on his current state of mind. You have never actually spoken
with Fukuzawa's priest, and you think this might actually be his
355
wife's attorney calling. As his caseworker, you should:
a. Give no information on the phone until you have verified the identity of the caller.
b. Refer the caller to Fukuzawa Hainaku
c. Insist upon meeting with the priest in person
d. Refuse to share any information with the caller
30. Nicki Minajic Johnson is completing a student internship for her associate degree in the therapeutic
activities program. She asks to review the medical records of the clients who were just in her projects
group. You are the social worker supervising Nicki. As his/her supervisor, you should:
a. Advise Nicki that the records are confidential and may not be inspected by students
b. Make certain Nicki is well trained in the policies and procedures relating to confidential information, and
only then allow her to access to the medical records
c. Permit Nicki free access to the records because she is like part of the staff
d. Obtain written consent from each client for Nicki to review the records
31.TiyaNing Tatum was a client who improved and was discharged 2 years ago. You receive a call from the
Summa Cum Laundry Corporation. The caller explains that Tiya Ning Tatum has applied for a job and that
the corporation would like to hire her. She told them that she was in treatment two (2) years ago and was
discharged after showing considerable improvement. The corporation wishes to confirm the fact that Tiya
Ning Tatum did indeed complete the program as she claims. As her former caseworker, you should:
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a. Be careful not to reveal whether Tiya Ning Tatum was ever in treatment until a signed release form is
received
b. Confirm that Tiya Ning Tatum completed his treatment but make no comment on progress or condition at
discharge
c. Explain, on the phone, the he did successfully complete treatment and request that the company forward
a release information form/ written consent to you in the next mail
d. Make no comment and hang up quickly
32.Brigido Dimakatae is currently enrolled in treatment and you are his case manager. He asks you if he
may read his case record. You should:
a. Ask Brigido Dimakatae to put request in writing, and assist him in completing the written request if he
seems to have limited skills in reading and writing
b. Present Brigido Dimakatae's request to his treatment team
c. If the treatment team concludes that it will not harm Brigido Dimakatae to review his record, allow him to
read it in the presence of a therapist
d. Decide with the treatment team who will assist Brigido Dimakatae in reading and understanding his
record. then follow through by allowing him to review his record with that person
33. This occurs when you are in two different relationships with a client, one related to your position as the
person's case manager and the other unrelated to that role.
a. Triadic relationship
b. Dual relationship
c. Casework relationship
d. Family relationship
34. Complete the statement: If you are the client's case manager as well as his/her cousin. It is possible that
you could:
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Statement 1: Exploit or give the appearance
of exploiting your power of position
Statement 2: There is enormous potential
for a conflict of interest
a. Statement 1 only
b. Statement 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of the above
35. The case manager helped a family in their crisis situation. Elated with by how well things were done, the
family gave the case manager a pot of an organic plant and told the case manager: "We just wanted you to
have these for all you have done for our family". However, your agency has a policy against personally
accepting gifts from clients. The best thing you should do is:
a. Accept the gift and give it to someone else.
b. Tell your client "Oh I can't accept that, you have to give it to someone else"
c. Tell your client that you cannot accept the gift because it is against your policy
d. Accept the gift and plant it in the planter near the door of the agency
36. The following are the warning signs from the client that may become too personal which one is not?
a. The client dresses in seductive attire
b. The client repeatedly hugs and touches the worker
c. The client indicates a desire to be special to the worker
d. The client is prominent in the worker's dream
37. The following are some of the rules for avoiding value conflicts and ensuring that your clients get
professional service, which one is not?
358
a. Always give your best service to your client, even when you disagree with the person
b. Attempt to change the client's values to coincide with your own.
c. Be respectful of attitudes and lifestyles that differ from your own
d. Never practice prejudice toward minorities, those with disabilities, or those differing in sexual preference
38. A client receiving services always has the right to consent to services or withdraw from them. In making
this decision, the client must be informed enough to make a wise decision. When the client is informed
and consent to treatment, it is called
a. Informed Consent
b. Voluntary Consent
c. Consent
d. Voluntariness
39. Which among the following list contains items
that should be addressed when relevant to
client's services, the client has the right to be
informed about:
1. Any side effects, adverse effects, or negative consequences that could occur as a result of treatment,
medications or procedures
2. Any risks that might occur if the client elects not to follow through with treatment or services
3. What is being offered to the client, including what the treatment is, what will be included, and any
potential risks and benefits
4. Any alternate procedures that are available
Choices:
a. 1234b. 124
c. 123 d. 234
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40. Suppose you are working in an agency and have been asked to give Lolita Magtanan, a student, a view of
what you do. To illustrate what you have told Lolita Magtanan, you showed her several case files. She
reads the cases and discovers that one of them is the boyfriend of her cousin. What she read in the file is
alarming to her, and she decides her cousin should not be dating the client. She leaves the agency and
begins to share the information with the cousin, who knew part of the story but not all of it. The situation
can be best described as:
a. Guarding confidentiality on the Phone and in other conversations
b. Collegial sharing
c. Confidentiality
d. Release of information form
41. Which among the following situations or circumstances allows you to break confidentiality?
A. When you must warn and protect others from possible harmful actions by the client
B. When the client needs professional services
C. When you must protect clients from harming themselves
D. When you are attempting to obtain payments for services and the payment has not been made
E. When obtaining professional consultation from your supervisor regarding how to best proceed with a case
in the course of normal supervision
Choices: a. ABCE b. ABCDE
C. BCDE d. ACDE
42. On June 14, 2016, Kelly Ling was a patient of Dr. Samuel Tampuhin at Walang Mabuhay Memorial Hospital
at San Jose, Mindoro. Dr. Tampuhin, a psychologist, was told by Kelly Ling
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of his intention to kill Sarah Labatiba who is also in the same hospital. Dr. Tampuhin called the police, who
briefly detained Kelly Ling but released him when he appeared to the police to be rational. Apparently, Dr.
Malelang, Dr. Tampuhin's supervisor, directed that nor further action be taken to detain Kelly Ling. You are the
social worker who is one of the members of the treatment team, you knew that Kelly Ling will kill Sarah
Labatiba, the best thing you do is:
a. Recommend that Kelly Ling continuously be detained
b. Talk to Kelly Ling at tell him that it is not good to kill Sarah
c. Warn Sarah Labatiba that Kelly Ling intends to kill her
d. Initiate means to file charges against Kelly Ling for attempted homicide
43. Each individual has a right to be his/her own person, separate and distinct from others, and to be treated
and regarded as such.
a. Self-determination
b. Individualization
c. Acceptance
d. Emotional involvement
44. It refers to the right of the client to make his/her own choices and decisions in the process of receiving
help.
a. Self-determination
b. Individualization
c. Acceptance
d. Emotional involvement
45. The Filipino family today is basically
a. Patriarchal
b. Matriarchal
c. Patrilineal
d. Polygamous
46. The aspect of human personality which refers to the life force in the individual which drives him to want,
to will, to need and to strive.
a. Ego
b. Id
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c. Superego
d. Emotions
47. The psychological conflict which occurs in the toilet training stage
a. Trust vs. mistrust
b. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
c. Initiative vs. guilt
d. Industry vs. inferiority
48. An emotional stage where feelings of love alternate with equally intense feeling of hate
a. Jealousy
b. Rivalry
c. Ambivalence
d. Passion
49. Refers to the assessment of the problem, breaking it down to manageable units, and helping the client to
think and decide where he/she wants to begin
a. Timing
b. Partialization
c. Structuring
d. Differential Diagnosis
50. This role of the social worker is expected to link the client with the sources that he or she needs or procure
these for him/her
a. Teacher
b. Broker role
c. Change agent
d. Enabler role
51. A condition or situation in which something necessary is required, needed or wanted
a. Absolute poverty
b. Need
c. Relative poverty
d. Coping mechanism
52. The components of social work practice according to Helen Harris Perlman
a. People, place, power, problem
b. Pragmatism, plagiarism, pluralism
c. Person, problem, place, process
d. Charity, resources, process
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53. This is unconscious and not reality based. The client's displacement on the worker of a particular feeling
and attitude he/she originally experienced towards family members or people he/she was close to
a. Counter-transference
b. Instinct
c. Transference
d. Reality
54. It is a combination of motivation and capacity that enables a person to engage himself with the persons
and means of solving his problem. It means both "ability to work" and "responsiveness to therapeutic
influence".
a. Workability
b. Willingness
c. Stabilization
d. Strategies
55. The need to realize potentialities in order to become what one is capable of becoming
a. Safety needs
b. Ego needs
c. Self-actualization
d. Self-esteem
56. This has to do with interpersonal forces which serve to balance a person's inherent capacity and his
impulses and needs.
a. Young adulthood
b. Latency
c. Adulthood
d. Ego ideal
57. Stage of development where the control focus is around the mouth
a. Anal
b. Oral
c. Phallic
d. Latency
58. The aspect of the situation which reduces the willingness of the client system to change
a. Personal limitation
b. Resistance force
c. Culture dependency
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d. Indifference to change
59. The phases of reflective thinking include the following EXCEPT
a. Recognizing the difficulty
b. Defining or specifying difficulty
c. Seeking for advice on the best possible solution
d. Carrying out a solution
60. An emotional reaction on the part of an individual, family, or group to a threatening life event
a. Problem
b. Crisis
c. Stress
d. Ambivalence
61. A process for actively influencing the psychosocial functioning of individuals and groups, during a period of
time.
a. Problem-solving
b. Counseling
c. Crisis intervention
d. Treatment sequence
62. Defined as what the client is to do to alleviate the problem which makes it both an immediate goal and the
means of achieving the problem.
a. Task
b. Process
c. Work
d. Strategy
63. Specific situational and maturational crises which do not require assessment of the psychodynamics of the
individual in crisis.
a. Individual approach
b. Group approach
c. Generic approach
d. Systems approach
64. The following EXCEPT ONE, are the components of a client's situation to determine whether a crisis exists
and what its current status is
a. Hazardous event
b. Vulnerable or upset state
c. Negative attitude towards life pressure
364
d. Precipitating factor or event
65. Considered as the "executive officer" of the personality
a. Id
b. Superego
c. Ego
d. Person
66. Refers to classifying problems based on personality disturbance
a. Clinical diagnosis
b. Diagnosis
c. Problem solving
d. Assessment
67. The best known personality theorist, founded psychoanalysis
a. Carl Rogers
b. Sigmund Freud
c. B.F. Skinner
d. Erik Erikson
68. A type of diagnosis which refers to the cause or origin of the difficulty, whether preceding events or
current interactions
a. Dynamic
b. Etiological
c. Classificatory
d. Clinical
69. Those with whom the social worker interacts in a cooperative way in order to bring about change
helpful to the client.
a. Action system
b. Change agent system
c. Client system
d. Family system
70. Refers to one's rank or standing in a group or standing in a group based on the kind of job he holds.
a. Status
b. Role
c. Rank
d. Position
71. The target of communication that interprets the message being transmitted.
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a. Client
b. Channel
c. Receiver
d. Man
72. Refers to the entire way of life of a people or society which is created or acquired from other societies and
is transmitted to subsequent generations
a. Life style
b. Culture
c. Development
d. Tradition
73. The intake phase of the casework process aims to achieve which of the following?
a. Establish person's eligibility for services
b. Record of person's identifying data, identifying the presenting problem and establish his eligibility for
services
c. Record the person's identifying data regarding his problem/request
d. Identification of the presenting problem.
74. Which statement is FALSE in relation to treatment plan?
a. It is actually the social treatment itself.
b. It sets goal for the direction of the treatment process
c. It is a guide for casework during the treatment process
d. It serves as the basis for the direction of the actual treatment
75. As a method of social work, one of the characteristics of social casework?
a. It can be used to help individuals and families
b. It is practiced in an agency
c. It is a process with the systematic steps in helping a person
d. It is a process with systematic steps to help individuals and families in an agency setting
76. When can a caseworker be a generalist? When the casework:
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a. Works with the different types of clients
b. Uses the different methods of social work
c. Uses an array of helping approaches and interventions
d. Has the competence to work in different types of setting and with different client system
Choices: A.) abcd B.) ab
C.) bc D.) cd
77. What are the steps in problem solving approach in casework?
a. Action taken on the basis of several
consideration
b. Problems identification, search for possible solution, undertake action to solve the problem
c. Search for possible means of solution and the decision process to use this solution
d. Problem identification and understanding the causes and effects of the problem and how the client feels
about it.
78. Identify who among the following had not been appointed as secretary of DSWD
a. Sylvia P. Montes
b. Alicia Bala
c. Corazon Juliano-Soliman
d. Corazon Alma De Leon
79. The following, except for one, are things which should be looked into when conducting an interview
a. Association of ideas
b. Shifts of conversation
c. Concealed meaning
d. Apathetic
80.The following are the factors which help in the formulation of the problem statement, EXCEPT:
a. The problem should be a social condition or situation

367
b. There should be a person evaluating the situation as problematic
c. There has to be a reason or basis for the evaluation
d. There should be adequate proof or evidence from reliable sources
81. It is the client's motivation and capacity that enables him to be helped to a greater or lesser degree
a. Client's prognosis
b. Client's adaptability
c. Client's effectivity
d. Client's workability
82. This agency is considered a secondary agency
a. Elsie Gatches Village
b. Nayon ng Kabataan
c. Veterans Memorial Medical Center
d. Sanctuary Center for Women
83. An account in writing of the progress of the client is called
a. Intake
b. Case recording
c. Profile
d. Inventory
84. The primary source of information about the client's problem
a. Collateral information
b. Significant others
c. Client
d. Records
85. The following are the relationship component in casework except
a. reality
b. transference
c. counter-transference
d. referral
86.The problem that the social worker and the client jointly agree to work on together is referred to as the
a. underlying problem
b. immediate problem
c. target problem

368
d. presenting problem
87. Data gathering for problem-solving is done
a. upon assessment of the client
b. throughout the entire process
c. during the identification of the problem
d. during the planning of the solution
88. An interviewer resorts to this technique when she desires to know more of the given information from the
interviewee
a. clarification
b. insight development
c. communication
d. psychological report
89. A concrete statement of facts and circumstances of the client prepared by the worker to crystallize her/ his
assessment of the client's situation based on the data gathered and makes explicit the objectives he/ she
will pursue to implement these objectives.
a. report
b. assessment
c. social case study
d. intake
90. The social work helping process is essentially
a. problem-solving
b. give and take
c. consultative
d. remedial
91. Treatment in casework is
a. activities to restore social functioning
b. the sum of all activities and services
c. the creation of opportunities for growth and development
d. the prevention of social breakdown
92.These are families who have been overwhelmed by cumulative efforts of chronic economic
dependency and the repetition of this condition in succeeding generations
a. alcoholic families
b. multi-problem families
c. psychotic families
d. neurotic families

369
93. This is the structure of personality which is concerned with the right and wrong
a. ego
b. superego
c. instinct
d. id
94. This need is identified as the highest in Maslow's hierarchy of needs
a. esteem
b. belongingness
c. physiological
d. self-actualization
95. Society is made up of parts which form a whole; these parts are called
a. system
b. structure
c. unites
d. groups
96. Involves bringing to the surface, giving expression to, and opening for consideration those feelings and
attitudes that need to be brought out because it affects the functioning of the people involved
a. ventilation
b. purposeful expression of feelings and controlled emotional involvement
c. reassurance
d. openness
97. Change originating from a decision to make a deliberate effort to improve the system and to obtain the
help of an outside agent in making this improvement
a. social change
b. planned change
c. unplanned change
d. structural change
98. An aspect of the situation which increases the willingness of the client system to make a proposed change
a. change force
b. resistance force
c. life force

370
d. planned change
99. In social work, this is usually considered an individual, a family, a small group, and a community
a. client
b. marginalized group
c. client system
d. target system
100. This is not just a cognitive process since it involves a relationship between two parties, the worker and
the client system
a. problem-solving process
b. helping process
c. social work helping process
d. change process
101. Maybe called for in situations where worker's values clash with the client's values
a. sensitivity
b. understanding
c. caring attitude
d. self-awareness
102. These are used by the social worker which are previously collected and reports from other
professionals and social workers of other agencies
a. secondary data
b. existing data
c. collateral data
d. records
103. The process by which a potential client achieves the status of a client
a. intake
b. eligibility study
c. interview
d. assessment
104. Involves the rendering of all the specific and interrelated services appropriate to the given problem
situation in the light of the assessment and planning
a. treatment
b. intervention
c. casework help
371
d. helping process
105. A tool that pictures the family or individual in the life space and enables the worker to see the client
not as an isolated identity for study but as part of a complex ecological system
a. records
b. assessment report
c. case profile
d. ecomap
106. A person who acts as intermediating or conciliator between two persons or sides
a. facilitator
b. enabler
c. mediator
d. change agent
107. The act of directing a client to another worker/agency because the service that the client needs is beyond
the present agency worker's competence
a. referral
b. service delivery
c. program implementation
d. intervention
108. The following are considered limitations on worker activity except
a. time
b. skills
c. ethics
d. programs
109. Evaluation is a continuous process where the worker keeps on gathering data which she uses in an
ongoing reassessment of objectives, intervention plans, and even the definition of the plan. This is called
a. Interim evaluation
b. Ongoing evaluation
c. Mid evaluation
d. Post evaluation
110. In this type of role, the worker has to take a partisan interest in the client and his cause
a. advocate
b. facilitator
372
c. mediator
d. enabler
111. Social workers and social work agencies must answer for their work, not just to the clients who are the
direct users, but to the public that supports them
a. Social responsibility
b. Professional accountability
c. Responsibility
d. Professional ethics
112. The structure of evaluation will include the following elements except
a. inputs
b. activities
c. outputs/ outcomes
d. feedback
113. In this interventive role, the social worker documents the need for more adequate social welfare
policies about programs based on her knowledge about the inadequacies or deficiencies in these existing
welfare policies and programs, as well as on her beliefs as to how they ought to be, in the light of
professional values and goals.
a. Documentor/ social critique
b. facilitator
c. recorder
d. self-awareness
114. the focus of social work is
a. agency services
b. social problem
c. person-in-situation
d. helping
115. an act of putting oneself in the client's situation and experiencing the way he/she feels
a. empathy
b. sympathy
c. apathy
d. transference
116. This role is premised on the belief that there are client problems which are caused not so much by
situational factors in the client himself
373
such as wrong attitudes, distorted values, low self-esteem, limited use of knowledge, lack of understanding,
etc.
a. change agent
b. enabler
c. counselor/therapist
d. facilitator
117. Social work practice which integrates the three primary methods to achieve man's social functioning
a. specialized practice
b. clinical practice
c. generic social work
d. traditional social work
118. The family into which one is born and where one is reared or socialized is referred to as
a. the family of procreation
b. the family of orientation
c. the conjugal family
d. the extended family
119. The client's willingness to postpone gratification because his hope and confidence sustain him is an
indication of the client's:
a. maturity
b. motivation for casework help
c. emotional capacity
d. social intelligence capacity
120. The Christian faith calls for unconditional love; the social work profession rationalizes the principle of
a. Non-judgmental attitude
b. Acceptance
c. Self-determination
d. Individualization
121. Casework trilogy by Mary Richmond comprises of the following except
a. Social study
b. Rehabilitation
c. Treatment
d. Diagnosis

374
Case No. 1 - Kathy the Cynic (Pessimist)
Kathy, 16 years old, is a complainant in four (4) counts of statutory rape, Jimmy her stepfather, was raping
her since she was 10 years old. The abuse was discovered a week before her 12 th birthday. She has a nine-year
old half-sister, Nicole, who has cerebral palsy. On two occasions she witnessed Jimmy inserting his fingers into
the vagina of Nicole. But owing to her half-sister's speech difficulty, Nicole cannot describe the sexual abuses
committed by her own biological father.
With the passage of time, Kathy became Skeptical and doubtful that she and her sister could find justice
through the court system. She thinks that pursuing the case is a waste of time and energy. The court
subpoenaed her to testify. For the nth time, she doubts that the hearing will push through. Now she is
imposing two conditions in exchange for her testimony. First, she wants you to promise that Jimmy will be
convicted. Second, she wants an assurance that her testimony will be completed in one hearing date.
122. As a social worker, how will you talk to Kathy to convince her to testify?
a. Place yourself in her situation to regain her trust in the judicial system
b. Explain judicial process and do not promise her to secure a conviction
c. Explain to her that she plays a crucial role in the conviction of the accused
Choice: A.) ac B.) ab
C.) bc D.) abc
123. Which among the choices is the LEAST thing that you will do as a social worker?
 a. Refer Kathy for psycho-social treatment
b. Refer Kathy to a support group
c. Refer Kathy to CPUs and Kids-at-Court
d. Tell a story similar story of sexually abused children.

375
124. Since Nicole is a special child and Kathy is a minor, what strategy should be used while they are
testifying in Court considering that they are child witnesses?
a. Use anatomically correct dolls in narrating the story
b. Exclude the child from the public while testifying
c. Used live-link while testifying
d. Shield the child from the accused
Choices: A.) abd B.) acd
C.) abcd D.) bcd
Case No. 2 - Jomari Goes to Court
Jomari is 7 years old. He has attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. His parents enrolled him in a school
for special children.
One day, as his father met Jomari at the school gate he noticed the boy's zipper open. When asked about
it, Jomari said "Nibukat ni Teacher Michael tipper ko. Tapos nitiptip nya tetet ko. Tapos nikiss niya ako sa lips."
Due to the request of his parents, Jomari was transferred to the section of Teacher Jesse.
As a special child, he has no sense of time and place. When you asked him what his teacher did to him, he
answers, "Wala. Gusto ko teacher Jesse. Bait siya." His point of reference is teacher Jesse because the latter is
current teacher.
The court directed you to conduct as social case study report.
125. As a social worker, how will you phrase your questions to draw out the identity of teacher Michael?
a. Did he not do it?
b. Isn't it true that teacher Michael did it to you? Didn't he?
376
c. Wouldn't you say that your teacher did it to you?
d. Do you know teacher Michael?
126. As a social worker, how will you phrase your questions to draw out the sexual acts committed by
teacher Michael?
a. Did he not do it?
b. Isn't it true that teacher Michael did something to you? Didn't he?
c. Wouldn't you say that your teacher did it to you?
d. What did teacher Michael do to you? Case No. 3 - The Problematic De Villa Family
The De Villa family first came to the attention of the agency when Mrs. Monica De Villa applied for aid for
the schooling of her children. Mr. Adrian De Villa, 55 yrs. old, became ill with cancer and could no longer
support his family. His medical needs often put a strain on the family. He has 7 children ranging from 17 to 4
years old. Monica is 35.
In a series of contacts, the following is an excerpt from the social worker's recording of a home visit.
January 30, 2014. As the family interviews progressed, the attitude of family withdrawal and tension
emerged. The De Villas had dropped all former contacts with organization because of their guilt of being on
relief and because they could not pay their dues. The family ceases to go together on Sundays to parks and
playgrounds for recreation and the children are missing a lot of school. Adrian becomes insecure in his
marriage. Monica confided that Adrian distrust her and makes accusation even in front of their children that
she is having an affair with Max. Monica said that it hurts her so much and she is handling the matter by not
reacting, instead, she keeps silent every time she is accused of such thing.
377
 Lately, she developed symptoms of somatic illness like frequent headaches. She said that she wants to be a
good mother more than anything else in the world. She wanted her children to have the best of everything,
and wants them all to become professional. She has frequently asked for concrete suggestions about helping
the children.
127. At this stage of working relationship, what is the status of De Villa family?
a. Potential client
b. client
c. an applicant for service
d. a possible applicant
128. The main consideration in the choice of the primary client is one of the following:
a. The workability of the person
b. The resources available in the agency
c. The nature of the problem and its effect on the person
d. The decision of the worker
129. The most pressing need of the family at this time of the working relationship is
a. The medical needs of the father
b. The existing relationship of the couple
c. The inability of the children to go to school
d. The daily needs of the family
130. When the problem of the family is exacerbated by the family's guilt feeling of being on relief, we refer
to this in social work as:
a. The underlying problem
b. The dual nature of the problem
c. The dynamic nature of the problem
d. Working problem
131. Suppose the couple should separate, the best measure that could help the children is:
a. Put them in institutions
b. Extend legal assistance to parents to facilitate legal separation
c. Let the children stay with any of the parents
d. Let them stay at home without parents
378
132. These principles are necessary as guide for social worker in handling the seeming hostility of Adrian De
Villa
a. Self-awareness
b. Acceptance
c. Purposeful expression of feelings
d. Non-judgmental attitude
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abd
C.) acd D.) bd
133. The attitude of Adrian towards his wife may be attributed to:
a. The inability of Monica to take care of the family
b. His feeling of uselessness because of his illness
c. The indifferent attitude of the children toward their mother
d. Monica's extra-marital affair
134. The most viable source that the social worker may tap in helping the family is:
a. Adrian
b. Monica
c. The older children
d. None of them
135. Considering the needs of the family, the social agency can provide the children the following assistance
a. Financial assistance to put them back into scouting
b. Skills training
c. Educational assistance
d. Job placement
136. What is the most appropriate social work model in working with the family at this stage of the working
relationship?
a. Crisis intervention
b. Direct provision model
c. Psycho-social approach
d. Task-centered model
379
137. One social work technique that can be applied in working with Monica characterized by
encouragement for her to talk freely and express her feelings, as the expression of empathy and desire to
help and the confidence that may be found to improve client's situation. It is called?
a. Clarification
b. Psycho-social support
c. Confrontation
d. Small talk
138. In the case of Adrian, considering his level of social functioning and his current behavior, a social work
technique that can be used in working with him is to create sufficient pressure and anxiety as to produce
motivation for change. This is referred to as:
a. Reassurance
b. Confrontation
c. Manipulation
d. Support
139. Even if the social worker is unable to provide services from his agency for the needs of Adrian De Villa,
he can still be helped through
a. Referral
b. Environmental manipulation
c. Reassurance
d. Special services
140. Since January 30 recording of the social worker reflects only one of the series of contacts he/she had
with the De Villa family, what transaction transpired between Monica and the worker when the former
first came to the social agency for assistance?
a. Psychological support given by the social worker while Monica was relating to her problem
b. Referral by the worker of the case to other agency particularly the medical needs of Adrian
c. Intake interview conducted by the worker.
380
d. Reaching out of the client towards the worker.
141. The inability of Adrian to provide support to his family caused him some degree of insecurity, the
primary reason for the insecurity being that:
a. His children have been deprived of their continuous schooling
b. His self-esteem is at stake
c. This is the main cause of Monica having extra-marital affair
d. He is no longer capable of his role as a husband
Choices: A.) abcd B.) abc
C.) abd D.) ab
142. The social worker may explain the anxieties of Monica as attributable to the accusations of Adrian
compounded by the nature of his illness and its effects on Adrian and their children. This process is called
a. Problem identification
b. Diagnosis
c. Treatment
d. Study
143. The frequent headaches that Monica
developed is symptomatic of:
a. The beginning phase of psychosis
b. A passive-aggressive reaction to the events in her life
c. A weakening coping mechanism on her part
d. Normal in someone with problems
144. The following are interventions that the
social worker may provide in relation to Adrian
and his family.
a. To look for financial resources to help him with his medical bills
b. To provide socio-psychological support to his family.
381
c. Provide psychological and spiritual support to Adrian giving assurance for a probable cure
Choices: A.) abc B.) ab
C.) ac D.)bc
145. The home visit to De Villa family conducted by the social worker has the following purpose:
a. Continuous data-gathering
b. Problem identification
c. For collateral information
d. Assessment
146. When a caseworker is making a plan for his/her client linking it to other institution to meet the needs
of the client - it is called:
a. Case worker
b. Networking
c. Case Management
d. None of the above
147. In casework, the targets of change are the following, except
a. Case worker
b. Client
c. Social functioning
d. None of the above
148. The following are the skills needed by the case worker except:
a. The ability to establish relationship
b. Needs assessment skills
c. Directing skills
d. None of the above
149. A patient confined in the hospital discussed with you that he is a drug pusher. He requested that the
social worker would keep the information confidential. In this situation, identify the primary principle that
the social worker should observe.
a. Principle of confidentiality
b. Non-judgmental attitude
c. Principle of self-determination
d. None of the above
382
150. Which of the following responses of the social worker violates the social work principle?
a. Inform the client of the implications of keeping the information to himself
b. Social workers assure and promise the client to keep the information in confidential
c. Identify the client the possible resources for protection
d. All of the above
Case No. 4 - The VAWC Victim
Dina Lego, 30 years old, is a survivor of physical and emotional abuse by her 38-year-old husband. She was
slapped, dragged, yelled at, insulted, and even threatened with death. These acts of violence occurred inside
and outside their house in Eastern Samar every time she returned late from providing home service as a
beautician. They reportedly stemmed from the husband's insecurity and intense jealousy.
Domestic violence led to Dina Lego's hematoma and emotional pain. She expressed her fear, anger and
hatred towards her husband, and feels shamed in her community.
151. If you are the social worker, which among the following steps will you take to help Dina Lego about her
case?
A. I will report the matter to BCPC for the issuance of Barangay Protection Order.
B. I will refer Dina to the Office of MSWDO for intervention and assistance.
C. I will report the matter to the police for legal assistance.
D. I will conduct counseling to her husband to prevent further harm.
Choices: a. ABCD b. BCD
c. ABC d. ACD
383
152. Based on the facts given, the social worker assessed that Dina Lego has the strong point to cope with
her problems; she has the skills to earn income to support her family's needs; has an external support
system such as the BCPC, police and the community's social worker as well as a supportive family; she has
good decisionmaking skills and positive outlook in life. She has also the desire to separate from her abusive
husband even if this means supporting the children by herself. What approach did the social worker use?
a. Evidenced-based Approach
b. Biopsychosocial Approach
c. Cognitive Behavioral Approach
d. Strength-based Approach
153. Which among the following are social work techniques?
A. Paradoxical directive
B. Reframing
C. Solution-focused
D. Hypothesizing
Choices: a. ABCD b. ABD
c. ACD d. BCD
154. The following are some of the approaches, models and theories used in social work practice, which one
is not?
a. Multi-generational
b. Structural family Therapy
c. Strategic Family Therapy
d. Solution Talk
155. Which is the central technique that will be used by the social worker will utilize multi- generational
model?
a. Genogram
b. Scaling question
c. Miracle question
d. Sculpting
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156. Reflecting the pervasive impact of the ecological perspective in social work, an assessment report of a
child is most frequently termed as:
a. Psychosocial study
b. Bio-psychosocial assessment
c. Multidimensional assessment
d. Self-report assessment
157. It is the starting point of all social work practice activities.
a. Collection of data
b. Intake
c. Intervention
d. Assessment
158. Enchong Go, a 16-year-old male who has
been diagnosed with ADHD and oppositional defiant order (ODD), is brought into an agency
th
by his parents, because he is "failing 10 grade
and pre-calculus, and he won't listen." Enchong Go also has threatened to run away from home on more than
one occasion. What are the areas that the social worker may cover with Enchong Go's parents during an initial
interview?
A. Hopes and expectations
B. Presenting problem and specific precipitating factor
C. Targeted behavior/ goal setting
D. Attempts to deal with the problem
Choices: a. ABC b. ABCD
c. BCD d. ABD
159. In relation to the case in No. 158, to deal with the "I don't know" answer during the interview with
Enchong Go, as the social worker, which among the following options will you do?
A. Allow silence (about 20-30 seconds)
B. Rephrase the question
C. Ask relationship questions
D. Say, "I know you don't know, so just make it up"
385
Choices: a. BCD b. ACD
c. ABCD d. ABD
160. In the context of social casework, when the person or any member of his family or of his neighborhood
manifests disguised or expresses dissatisfaction or ambivalence over his situation may be considered a:
a. Unmet need
b. Stress
c. Need
d. Problem
386

Answer Key
1. B 41. 81. D 121.
B B
2. C 42. 82. C 122.
C D
3. A 43. 83. B 123.
B D
4. A 44. 84. C 124.
A C
5. D 45. 85. D 125.
A D
6. D 46. 86. C 126.
B D
7. B 47. 87. B 127.
B B
8. A 48. 88. A 128.
A C
9. C 49. 89. C 129.
B A
10. 50. 90. B 130.
D B B
11. 51. 91. B 131.
A B C
12. 52. 92. B 132.
B C A
13. 53. 93. B 133.
D C B
14. 54. 94. D 134.
D A B
15. 55. 95. A 135.
C C C
16. 56. 96. B 136.
C D B
17. 57. 97. B 137.
D B B
18. 58. 98. A 138.
B B B
19. 59. 99. C 139.
A C A
20. 60. 100. 140.
D B C C
21. 61. 101. 141.
C C D C
22. 62. 102. 142.
C D B B
23. 63. 103. 143.
A C B C
24. 64. 104. 144.
C B B B
25. 65. 105. 145.
A C D A
26. 66. 106. 146.
D A C B
27. 67. 107. 147.
B B A A
28. 68. 108. 148.
D B D C
29. 69. 109. 149.
A B B A
30. 70. 110. 150.
D A A C
31. 71. 111. 151.
A C B C
32. 72. 112. 152.
A B D D
33. 73. 113. 153.
B B A B
34. 74. 114. 154.
C A C D
35. 75. 115. 155.
D D A A
36. 76. 116. 156.
D A C B
37. 77. 117. 157.
B B C D
38. 78. 118. 158.
A B B D
39. 79. 119. 159.
A D D C
40. 80. 120. 160.
B D A D

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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
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Social Work with Groups (Groupwork)

1. Dorwin Cartwright have three ways of viewing how group enter in the process of change. In this process,
the target of influence is the individual member and the source of that influence is the group.
a. Group as target of influence
b. Group as medium of change
c. Group as agent of change
d. Group as agent and target of change
2. In this phase of group development, the worker's activity is encouraging the emergent leadership may well
move into a less central role and thus maximize the group functioning in its own behalf. It is also when the
group works at implementing its plans in order to achieve the defined goals.
a. Group Formation Phase
b. Group Functioning and maintenance phase
c. Group Intermediate Phase
d. Group Revision Phase
3. In choosing program media what are the factors are taken into consideration?
I. Goals for the Group
II. Influence Group Climate
III. Promote group interaction
IV. Mood of the group
Answer:
a. 1, 2, 3 & 4 c. 1 and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3 d. 2 and 3
4. In relation to worker intervention roles, Margaret Hartford presents different stances, which of the
following are the examples of these stances?
I. Direct stance
II. Facilitating stance
III. Evaluative stance
IV. Permissive stance
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Answer:
a. All of the above c. 1, 2&4
b. 1 & 3 d. 1, 2 & 3
5. This stance assumes that if correct group composition has been made, the purpose and the focus of group
is clear, the group will emerge because the participants have come together.
a. Permissive stance
b. Flexible stance
c. Facilitating stance
d. Evaluative stance
6. This stance simply means that the worker will change his stance in the course of a session or over a series
of sessions in response to his assessment of the progress of the group towards its objective; needs,
capacities etc.
a. Permissive
b. Flexible
c. Facilitating
d. Direct
7. Assessment and planning are on what phases in group development?
a. Pre-group and group formation
b. Group functioning and maintenance
c. Group formation
d. None of the choices
8. This purposive process which Tropp describes means by seeing others in similar situations - how they
handle themselves, and how others see them, each member gains a clearer picture of behavior among
peers.
a. Self-appraisal
b. Support
c. Reality orientation
d. Release of feelings
9. This means acceptance and affection through belongingness and recognition of self- expression that is
translated into achievement, which encourages the tapping for further strengths resulting in gains of self-
esteem.
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a. Support
b. Self-Appraisal
c. Reality orientation
d. Release of feelings
10. Is a process for actively influencing the psychosocial functioning of individuals, groups and families during a
period of acute disequilibrium. The aim is to help these systems, through differential assessment and
intervention techniques, to move toward adaptive and away from maladaptive resolution.
a. Crisis Intervention
b. Psychosocial intervention
c. Problem Solving Intervention
d. None of the choices
11. This is what should be evaluated to a client's situation to determine whether a crisis exists and what its
current status, except.
a. Hazardous event
b. Vulnerable or upset state
c. Precipitating factor
d. State of integration and organization
12. What does CISD means?
a. Crucial Incidence Stress Debriefing
b. Crisis Intervention Stress Debriefing
c. Crisis Incident Stress Debriefing
d. Critical Intervention Stress Debriefing
13. This term refers to the socially-recognized pattern of expectations of behavior on the part of the person in
a certain position which help us to interpret what a person is doing or is trying to do.
a. Group Norms
b. Role
c. Leadership
d. Status
14. It refers to one's rank or standing in the group based on any or all of the following: the person's closeness
in the group, the carrying on of a particular activity and person's position in the web of communication.
a. Role

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b. Status
c. Norms
d. Leadership
15. One of the basic characteristics of this approach is phenomenological - this is concern with the content of
the group experience.
a. Remedial
b. Crisis intervention
c. Developmental
d. Psychosocial
16. Joy was rescued by an NGO, which helps street children to have a temporary shelter and experience a
home-like environment. The social worker based on the information gathered needs to include her to the
support group of sexually abused children. What kind of approach is suited in the situation?
a. Crisis intervention
b. Remedial
c. Psychosocial
d. Developmental
17. To maintain consistency among set standards so that people know what the rules are, that what they are
doing is either right or wrong: this is referred as ("ought to do").
a. Role
b. Status
c. Norms
d. Standards
18. There are two forms of conformity and this view a person who is outwardly agrees but inwardly disagrees.
a. Expedient Conformer
b. True Conformer
c. Independent Conformer
d. False Conformer
19. The task - centered approach with groups involves the following steps except:
a. Preliminary interview
b. Group Composition
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c. Group Implementation
d. Group process for task accomplishment
20. The social worker can perform any of the following roles using behavioral modification techniques:
1. Direct modifier
2. Teacher
3. Behavioral instigator
Answer:
a. All of the above
b. None of the choices
c. 1&3
d. 2&3
21. The group in the interactionist approach has four major features: choose the features that belong to it.
1. Group is a collective in which people face and interact with each other;
2. People need each other for certain specific purposes
3. They come together to work on common tasks
4. Work is embedded in a relevant agency function
Answer:
a. All of the above c. 2, 3 & 4
b. 1, 2 & 3 d. 1, 3 & 4
22. This refers to the modification of the behavior or attitudes of person's in the client's social environment or
large social systems within which both clients and other individuals occupy statues which may in turn lead
to positive changes in the group members own behavior and attitudes.
a. Direct means of influence
b. Indirect Means of Influence
c. Extra group means of influence
d. Interpersonal means of influence
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23. This is not a group processes
a. Group bond
b. Group size
c. Conflict
d. Contagion
24. These are structural properties of group except
a. Size
b. Power
c. Leadership
d. Competition
25. Leadership style is come-up with the following except
a. Democratic
b. Functional
c. Authoritarian
d. Legitimate
26. There are different conflict styles one of this is:
a. Compromise
b. Competition
c. War
d. Comparison
27. This kind of power structure refers to that influence resulting from a person's position in the group and or
from responsibilities that go with that position
a. Referent power
b. Expert Power
c. Coercive Power
d. Legitimate Power
28. Among the uses of program media in groupwork would be:
a. To promote group interaction
b. To entertain members
c. To minimize the workers interventive activities
d. All of the above
29. This author describes the phases in group development as consisting of the following: pregroup phase,
group formation phase, integration reintegration phase, group maintenance phase and termination phase:
a. Robert Vinter
398
b. Emanuel Tropp
c. Margaret Hartford
d. Walter-Friedlander
30. This is not a basic skill in social group work
a. Program media
b. Group dynamics exercises
c. Recreation
d. Sensitivity training exercise
31. This is the essence of conflict in the groups:
a. Argument
b. Debate
c. Difference
d. Group Plans
32. The rules agreed on by the group during the formation stage are called:
a. Group standards
b. Group norms
c. Group guidelines
d. Group values
33. This is not a good way of resolving conflict in a social work group.
a. Voting
b. Compromise
c. subjugation
d. Consensus-taking
34. The means informing others about the
decision to offer a particular program
a. group formation phase
b. group functioning phase
c. private pre-group phase
d. public pre-group phase
35. It is during this phase that the social and emotional qualities of giving support and helping appear
a. group functioning and maintenance phase
b. group formation phase
c. group integration, disintegration or reintegration phase
d. termination phase
36. In social group work, this refers to any activity that the group does to satisfy their interest and
399
which is used by the worker to achieve group goal.
a. meeting
b. program
c. conference
d. project
37. All of these except one are worker's tasks before the group is organized
a. conceptualizing the group program
b. recruiting members
c. preparing logistics
d. defining group goals
38. Groups that enhances personal and interpersonal awareness and develop more effective interaction
patterns are called:
a. work groups
b. task groups
c. sensitivity
d. self-help group
39. Activities of the group must be planned according to the particular needs and interest of the:
a. group worker
b. group leader
c. group member
d. group work agency
40. As facilitator, one:
a. defines, interprets, evaluates
b. list down expectations and abilities
c. offers help
d. discipline
41. A group is more than sum of individuals. This is related to the principle of:
a. individualization
b. offers help
c. disciplines
d. purposeful helping relationship
42. This is the phase in group development when the group gets organized.
a. Pre-group formation
b. group organization
c. group formation
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d. group planning
43. This is the phase in group development when the group has stabilized and group bond, commitment to the
group is observable.
a. group formation
b. group organization
c. group functioning and maintenance
d. group goal achieving
44. This is the theme of the termination phase in group development.
a. separation anxiety
b. mourning
c. relief
d. ending ties
45. In the selection of program media, the following except for one are taken into consideration
a. goals for the group
b. physical characteristics of the members
c. moods of the group
d. members' interests
46. In planning a group's program of activities, the
principle of should always be a guide
a. Individualization
b. Participation
c. Acceptance
d. All of the above
47. The following except for one are assumptions about groups
a. customs, norms and values are passed on by society
b. group may produce good as well as bad consequences
c. means through which controls in society are maintained
d. the group becomes the sources of influence over its members
48. The way in which person relate and is the heart of the group process
a. group bond
b. affectional structure
c. social interaction
401
d. communication
49. The following except one are the record that group workers usually write or keep
a. individual case assessment
b. evaluation record
c. attendance record
d. records of referrals to other agencies
50. A involves the various activities
that workers may design for group participation
a. group dynamics
b. group work proposal
c. program
d. none of the above
51. Program to be of maximum value in- group work should
a. person centered
b. develop from interest and needs of group members
c. reality- oriented
d. utilize the worker as a helping person
52. Young people belonging to similar circumstances as age, rank, class and who associate with each other
belong to a
a. peer group
b. sub-group
c. clique
d. associates
53. Who among the following are associated with crisis intervention theory in social work?
I. Harleigh Trecker
II. Howard Parad
III. Naomi Golan
IV. Lydia Rapoport
Answer:
a. I and III c. I and II
b. I d. II, III and IV
54. The essence of the social work principle of acceptance is that the social workers must deal with the group
in its own:
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a. Environment
b. Reality
c. Space
d. Dilemma
55. A worker's decision on whether she should do individual or group intake interviews should be based on
the
a. Nature of the prospective member's problems
b. Worker's preference
c. Prospective member's preference
d. Agency policy/rules
56. In the Developmental approach in group work,
the theme is focused on what is
happening in the life situation in or outside the group, rather than what happened in the past.
a. Humanistic
b. Phenomenological
c. Situational
d. developmental
57. Which program media, which were developed in sensitivity training programs should not be used in social
group work unless appropriate to the situation of the group?
a. Role-playing
b. Psychodrama
c. Group dynamics exercise
d. Values exercises
58. records show the effectiveness of the
worker's interventive efforts and/or explain why certain helping efforts failed.
a. Evaluation
b. Termination
c. Summary
d. Process
59. The agency's is a good guide in
the worker's decision about the group's composition.
a. Policy statement
b. Mission-vision statement
c. Purpose for the group program
d. Priorities and preferences
403
60. Which of these is NOT an expected outcome of the Middle/Task Phase in the Interactionist Approach
a. Translation of ideas and feelings into work
b. Engagement of client energies
c. Expression of conflict
d. Partialization of tasks
61. In terms of group composition, the Interactionist Approach has no special requirements other than that
the members
a. Need each other and can work together on the task they have agreed on
b. Have a common problem
c. Commit themselves to focus on their goals
d. Have compatible personalities
62. Which of these justify a continuing helping relationship with a group after the practitioner has already
terminated her work with the group?
I. The members/group request for the relationship to continue
II. The group has a new concern/problems
III. The worker feels the group still needs
her help/guidance
Answer:
a. I and III c. II
b. I and II d. I
63. This social work task is the culmination of individual-level assessment that is done I treatment-oriented
groupwork.
a. Formulating goals
b. Action-planning
c. Admitting client for agency service
d. Writing individual diagnostic statement/case assessment
64. Which of these best describe what would be the social worker's stance in the Crisis Intervention
Approach?
a. Sympathetic and facilitative
404
b. Active, purposive and committed
c. Firm, decisive and facilitative
d. Kind but firm and assertive
65. A group worker has to understand that the liking and disliking that takes place among group members may
be attributed to unconscious needs of members. Which of these are examples of such unconscious needs?
I. Unfulfilled love from parents II. Sibling rivalry
III. Transference
Answer:
a. II and III c. I and III
b. I, II and III d. I and II
66. In which stage of the Remedial Model of groupwork does the social worker seek the emergence of group
goals, activities and relationships and relationships that make the group effective for the treatment of its
members?
a. Group development and treatment
b. Group composition and formation
c. Diagnosis and treatment-planning
d. Evaluation
67. If individual members of closed treatment groups are terminated at different times because goals for them
have been achieved what is likely o happen?
a. Worker will have to admit addition/new members
b. The group will have to be terminated
c. Group size will dwindle and worker may end up terminating simultaneously the remaining members
d. The agency will have to give up the group service
68. The worker stance in social work
with groups requires the worker to promote the exchange of ideas in the group, clarify and focus problems,
support leadership and patterns of relationship and assess group processes/
405
a. Enabling
b. Guiding
c. Directing
d. Facilitating
69. The criteria for membership in any social work group emanates from the decision about the
a. Client sector and need/problem to be addressed
b. Agency function
c. Priority target clientele
d. Program activities to be undertaken
70. A group that has reached a level of maturity usually during the Group Maintenance Phase, is able to
respond not only to intergroup processes, but also to extragroup and intergroup threats when these
happen. Which of these is an example of intergroup threats?
a. Membership withdrawal
b. Power struggle in the group
c. Family or agency group
d. Other groups in the community
71. Which of the following should NOT be used as an activity in the group mode of service in social work?
a. Changing attitudes of outsiders towards the group
b. Individual counseling during group sessions
c. Modifying rules in the institution where the group exists
d. Work on a community project
72. Knowledge about enables the
worker to identify he actual stage where the group is when she enters the scene, which is important for
understanding the events occurring in the group and for planning the interventions that are appropriate.
a. Group phases
b. Group dynamics
c. Group structure
d. group processes
406
73. This treatment technique in the Crisis Intervention Approach involves the giving of advice and suggesting
or advocating a particular action to the client.
a. Direct intervention
b. Sustaining technique
c. Direct influence
d. Reflective discussion
74. Verbal and non-verbal activities selected and engaged in by the group with the guidance of the social
works are referred to as
a. Program tools
b. Program media
c. Group dynamics or G.D.
d. Activity exercises
75. Interviews with members outside of the group
sessions are called interviews
a. Counseling
b. Marginal
c. Extragroup
d. Collateral
76. The model of group work is
particularly appropriate for use by special workers of agencies performing social control functions, or those
working with people headed toward deviant paths unless given timely attention.
a. Rehabilitative
b. Remedial
c. Socialization
d. Psychosocial
77. In the Developmental Approach, is
one of the gains experienced by the individual group members in which they attain a clearer understanding of
themselves and others, new ways for handling situations and improved ability to make judgment.
a. Self-appraisal
b. Insight
c. Self-awareness
d. Reality orientation
407
78. Why are written individual case assessments and statements of group concern/problems, goals and action
plans important?
I. They inform worker about client's preintervention state
II. They provide the worker with tools for self-assessment
III. They enable worker to assess progress made at the time of evaluation
Answer:
a. Ill only c. I, II and III
b. I and II d. I and III
79. In the interactionist approach, which of the following may be involved in the worker's efforts to help the
client and the system with which it is in interaction?
I. Conflict and confrontation
II. Cooperation
III. Negotiation
Answer:
a. I, II and III c. I and II
b. II and III d. I and III
80. Feelings that certain actions will result in the groups having to give up the security it now enjoys, thereby
reducing the group's desire to change is an example of a?
a. Negative force
b. Opposing force
c. Ambivalence
d. Resistance force
81. Which of these is a major principle in the Developmental Approach in groupwork?
a. Group self-direction toward a common goal is an effective means to bring about the social growth of its
members
408
b. The goal for the group is social competence through the teaching and learning in social roles
c. The group is a mutual aid group that is focused on her and now problems that the agency should address.
d. Problematic behavior results from interaction between the client and individual's situations
82. In the Interactionist Approach I group work, the
function of social work is to the
transactions between people and the various systems through which they carry on their relationships with
society-family, peer group neighborhood, social agency, school, work, etc.
a. Negotiate
b. Facilitate
c. Mediate
d. Enhance
83. Phases in group development is essentially about
a. Group procedures/movement
b. The life of a group
c. Group structure and processes
d. The problem-solving process with a group
84. What term is used to refer to worker activities that may need to be done outside of the group sessions?
a. Indirect interventions
b. Extra means of intervention
c. Extra group activities
d. Extra group work
85. What is NOT part of a Diagnostic or Case Assessment in group work?
a. Case summary
b. Treatment goals
c. Worker's definition of client's social functioning problem
d. Helping/action plans
409
86. Who makes the decision as to whether individual members of treatment groups are ready for
termination?
a. Group
b. Social worker
c. Worker, leader and group
d. Individual client/group member
87. Which of the following comprise the logistical support for a group program?
I. Personnel
II. Facilities
III. Volunteers
Answer:
a. I and II c. I, II and III
b. I and III d. II and III
88. Which of the following justify termination of a worker's helping relationship with a group?
I. Goals have been achieved
II. Little or no progress toward goal
achievement and change in the situation is not likely to happen
III. Group is bored and lacks direction
Answer:
a. I, II and III c. I and II
b. I only d. I and III
89. In the Remedial Model, the use of the group as a means and a context for treatment means that the
group:
I. Serves as a vehicle through which peer interactions and influences are used to affect group members
II. Provides opportunities for direct worker-client interactions which can contribute to change
III. Utilizes its structures and processes to treat its members
410
Answer:
a. II and III c. I, II and III
b. I only d. I and III
90. In which phase of the Interactionist Approach does the social worker expect to be able to help establish
some of the ground rules and procedures that will facilitate collaborative and independent problem-
solving?
a. The beginning phase
b. Tuning-In Phase
c. Middle phase
d. Ending Phase
91. Which phase in group development may be said to have taken place when two social workers who had
earlier discussed a group program proposal presented this and had this approved by the agency?
a. Pre-Group Phase
b. Private Pre-Group Phase
c. Planning Phase
d. Public Pre-Group Phase
92. Social group workers cannot avoid dealing with group norms, some of which are:
I. Written rules
II. Unwritten rules
III. Norms the group is not consciously aware of
Answer:
a. II and III c. I, II and III
b. I and II d. I and III
93. In the Remedial Model, the worker has to deal with many events and processes outside the treatment
group, and use them to benefit clients. Which of the following are areas of what is called the worker's
extra group means of influence?
I. Client's significant others
II. Social systems of which the clients are members
411
III. Social environment of the treatment group
Answer:
a. I, II and III c. I and II
b. I and III d. II and III
94. Which of the following are discussed with prospective group members before group formation?
I. Agency services and purpose for the group program
II. Agency expectations from group
III. Duration of program and basis for membership termination
Answer:
a. II and III c. I and II
b. I and III d. I, II and III
95. Like all other social workers, the job assignment of the group worker is to
I. Help the members/group cope with their problems
II. Modify change the group's situation to enable the members/group to cope
III. Mediate between the
members'/group's capacity and situational demands
Answer:
a. II and III c. I, II and III
b. I and II d. I and III
96. The most important aspect of a concept paper
for a group program is the statement of the
of the group program, which is based on the agency's function.
a. Strategy
b. Philosophy
c. Activities
d. Purpose
412
97. Which of the following justify the use of the group approach in social work practice?
I. The agency wants to save money
II. The agency social workers enjoy
using the group approach III. The group approach is the
appropriate response to the
client's problem
Answer:
a. II and III c. Ill only
b. I, II and III d. I and III
98. In group work, the practitioner can engage the group activities, i.e., program or program media which
emanate from the group's function. Which of these is NOT a functional mode in group work practice?
a. Group dynamics group
b. Action group
c. Activity group
d. Counseling group
99. Decision-making by consensus is usually the most effective approach for getting group members to
support and work for a group's decision. Which of these characterize consensus?
I. It is time-consuming II. It requires participation from members
III. Some members may try to dominate or manipulate the group
Answer:
a. I, II and III c. II and III
b. I and II d. I and III
100. To be effective, help Crisis Intervention should
be readily available, i.e., made within
hours of the request or cry for help.
a. 24-72
413
b. 48-60
c. 8-24
d. 48-96
101. When guided group processes are used to help members of the group with such problems as distorted
self-image, inability to relate, negative attitudes, etc. the group is being used as
a. User of change
b. Medium of change
c. Target of change
d. Agent of change
102. This is the type of group leadership where the leader determines all policies and rules.
a. democratic
b. laissez faire
c. autocratic
d. dictatorial
103. The socialization goals that were pursued in group-serving agencies like the YWCA and YMCA during
the American Colonial Period in the Philippines focused on activities for this objective:
a. recreation
b. personality/character development
c. skills development
d. human relations training
104. In the historical background of group work, prevention, treatment and developmental goals were the
focus during the:
a. fifties
b. before sixties
c. sixties
d. seventies
105. In the historical background of group work, developmental goals were the focus during the:
a. fifties
b. before sixties
c. sixties
d. seventies
106. In the historical background of group work, socialization goals were the focus during the:
414
a. fifties
b. before sixties
c. sixties
d. seventies
107. UN's Declaration of the Second Developmental Decade:
a. seventies
b. sixties
c. eighties
d. fifties
108. It focuses on the use of the small group to help individuals who already have a problem or breakdown
in their social functioning.
a. treatment purpose
b. socialization purpose
c. developmental purpose
d. all of the above
109. It emphasizes human and community resource mobilization.
a. treatment purpose
b. socialization purpose
c. developmental purpose
d. all of the above
110. The process by which people selectively acquire the values and attitudes of the groups of which they are
a part- was the main goal of group-serving social agencies during their first decades in the country.
a. recreational activities
b. group dynamics
c. socialization
d. all of the above
111. Choose which one of the following is not involved in the exchange between the client group and the
system the Mediating Model:
a. cooperation
b. confrontation
c. negotiation
d. coercion
415
112. In this type of direct means of influence in the Remedial Model, the social worker is a focal point for
group emotions:
a. Worker as symbol and spokesman
b. Worker as central person
c. Worker as motivator and stimulator
d. Worker as executive-controller of member's roles
113. In William Schwartz' Mediating Approach, in which the worker uses skills to encourage the client group
and the system to have realistic exchange, this worker characteristic is crucial to his effectiveness in
helping resolve differences between the two parties.
a. Commitment
b. Trustworthiness
c. Neutrality
d. Honesty
114. One major category of worker tasks in Crisis Intervention is termed "psychosocial tasks" which are
concerned with:
a. Provision of concrete resources
b. Provision of direct guidance
c. Dealing with client's feelings, anxieties, despair, etc. In the process of carrying out what client and worker
have agreed on as necessary
d. Insight development
115. This phase is when the prospective members, or some of them, meet for the first time.
a. Pre-group phase
b. Convening phase
c. Private pre-group phase
d. Group formation phase
116. In this type of direct means of influence in the Remedial Model, addresses the individual member's
interests, aims, activities and skills.
a. Worker as symbol and spokesman
b. Worker as central person
c. Worker as motivator and stimulator
416
d. Worker as executive-controller of member's roles
117. A clinic forms a treatment group of young adults - 4 men and 4 women. All 8 clients are present for the
first group session. The social worker introduces herself and the members introduce themselves. Then
 everyone looks expectantly at the social worker. There is silence. The social worker's most appropriate
response is to:
a. Comment that they are clearly expecting her to start things
b. Ask everyone to say something about the problems they have that brought them to this group
c. Not break the silence; wait for the group to start things
d. Ask "where would you like to start?"
118. A social worker facilitates a group of young adults. One member rudely disagrees with the social
worker's comments. The social worker is annoyed by this behavior. His best response is to:
a. Communicate the feelings of annoyance
b. Speak to the person after the group
c. Allow the group to respond
d. Do nothing until it happens again
119. Salvador Minuchin has written about the families of delinquent boys who live in poor, urban
neighborhoods. Parents find it difficult to maintain an emotional connection with these children or to
assert parental authority, since anti-social activities and peer pressure are powerful influences. The most
precise family system concept that contributes to understanding this family phenomenon is:
a. Disengagement
b. Triangulation
c. Sibling subsystems
d. Boundaries
417
120. A support group in a working class community has one group member, Andy, who strives to impress
other members, but manages only to antagonize them. He tries to appear superior by doing such things as
quoting from obscure novels or wearing shirts with French cuffs. In one session, Bob, another group
member, becomes infuriated with Andy's pretentious conduct. Bob jumps up and invites Andy to step
outside, shouting, "I'm gonna beat the crap out of you." The social worker would:
a. Exclude Bob from the group in order to protect Andy from physically aggressive behavior
b. Firmly ask Bob to sit down, and restate that all forms of verbal expression are acceptable, but physical
threats are not.
c. Encourage expression and reactions from the group regarding the behavior of both Andy and Bob
d. Interpret that Bob's anger is his defense mechanism and utilize the episode in the discussion of the day
121. During an adult support group, Jerry often speaks sarcastically of Henry's appearance and his inability
to communicate well. Joe and Alice are irritated by Jerry's statements and finally tell him that they do not
like his behavior. Jerry turns to the social worker and asks him what he did wrong. The social worker
would:
a. Suggest to Jerry that he ask Joe and Alice what they meant
b. Do nothing
c. Ask Jerry why he speaks so sarcastically
d. Ask Jerry if he is aware of what he is doing
122. Whatever is the agency purpose for a group program, these have to be conducted to obtain at least
basic or some other necessary information on perspective group members:
a. Collateral interviews
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b. Pre-group interviews
c. Interviews with referral sources
d. Individual intake
123. The individual client-level worker task is based on assessment and is the outcome of assessment:
a. intake
b. Action-planning
c. Evaluation
d. None of the above
124. This worker task is an important aspect of group composition:
a. Group intake
b. Selection of group members
c. Preparing case profiles
d. All of the above
125. Choose which one in this list is not a perspective for analyzing goal formulation in social work with
groups:
a. Members' perspective
b. Worker's perspective
c. Group system perspective
d. Community's perspective
126. Among the use of group program media in group work would be:
a. To promote group interaction
b. To entertain members
c. To minimize the worker's interventive activities
d. All of the above
127. One in this list is not a factor to consider in the selection of group program media
a. Group goals
b. Physical, emotional and social characteristics of the members
c. Worker's skill and capacities
d. Worker's personal preferences
128. One of the following is not among the stances a worker should take during group sessions:
a. Direct stance
b. Permissive stance
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c. Facilitating stance
d. Counselling stance
129. This group record is essential to the worker's doing a terminal group evaluation:
a. statement of group problem/s, group goals and action plans
b. intake records
c. collateral interview records
d. records of marginal interviews
130. This should be explained during the intake interview.
a. agency purpose
b. Group's problem
c. Termination
d. None of the above
131. The use of a group as a means and context for helping is a characteristic of a:
a. Remedial group
b. Self-help group
c. Developmental group
d. Crisis-centered group
132. Choose which one of the following is not a major theme in Emanuel Tropp's Developmental Approach
in group work:
a. Humanistic theme
b. Phenomenological theme
c. Holistic theme
d. Developmental theme
133. Choose which one of the following is not a strategy of intervention in the Remedial Model
a. External means of influence
b. Direct means of influence
c. Indirect means of influence
d. Extragroup means of influence
134. All of the following are characteristics of formed groups EXCEPT:
a. They have an identified purpose
b. They have a professionally trained leader
c. They come together spontaneously
d. They usually have some auspice e.g. agency, organization
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135. Who among the following established group work as a method within the profession of social work?
a. Mary Richmond
b. Charlotte Towle
c. Grace Coyle
d. Geisala Knopka
136. All of the following are common group properties EXCEPT:
a. All groups have a purpose
b. All groups go through stages of
development
c. All groups have an analytic base
d. All groups have criteria for their
composition
137. Group workers must attend to all of the following group structures, EXCEPT:
a. The group as whole
b. The roles individual members play in
the group
c. Subgroups and/or cliques within the group
d. All of the above
138. According to Shulman, the person who blocks topics from group discussion is referred to as:
a. The scapegoat
b. The monopolizer
c. The gatekeeper
d. The deviant
139. Which one of the following captures implicit and explicit group communication and interaction
patterns?
a. A genogram
b. A cognitive map
c. An ecomap
d. A sociogram
140. All of the following are necessary for practice with non-clinical groups, EXCEPT:
a. Knowledge of how groups work (cause- effect)
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b. Ability to use moral reasoning and ethics to assess the group's behavior and desired end-goals
c. Knowledge of curative factors and mutual aid
d. Skills (theory-based) needed to manage group dynamics specific to each area of non-clinical practice.
141. To promote social justice, macro practitioners use groups to do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Raise consciousness
b. Challenge discriminatory institutional practices
c. Advocate for reform through legislation
d. Engage in armed conflict
142. Understanding group dynamics is important for management practice for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT:
a. Organizations are themselves group entities
b. Groups facilitate the work of agencies and organizations
c. Dysfunctional organizational cultures reflect inappropriate group dynamics
d. All of the above are reasons for understanding group dynamics in management practice
143. All of the following are types of groups found in management practice EXCEPT:
a. Consciousness raising groups
b. Boards and cabinets
c. Deliberative meetings
d. Committees and task groups
144. Which one of the following theories best explains how boards are formed and how they are used?
a. Power-conflict theory
b. Social exchange theory
c. Bureaucracy theory
d. Human relations theory
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145. The beginning stage of deliberative meetings requires all of the following EXCEPT:
a. a quorum
b. an agenda
c. rules to govern interactive behavior
d. all of the above
146. All of the following are TRUE about organizations EXCEPT:
a. Organizational dynamics have little in common with group dynamics
b. Organizations are themselves group entities
c. Organizations engage in governance and decision making
d. Organizations permit members to influence their policies and procedures to some extent
147. Groups have relevance to community practice in all the following ways EXCEPT:
a. Interactions between one community and another involve group dynamics; distribution of goods and
services
b. How subgroups within a community interact with each other involve group dynamics; tolerance vs.
divisiveness
c. How a subgroup interacts with the community as a whole is a matter of group dynamics; public good vs.
minority rights
d. All of the above are reasons that groups have relevance to community practice.
148. Which one of the following is a "secondary group"?
a. Nuclear family
b. Peer group
c. Association
d. Joint family
149. The success of group work does NOT depend on?
a. Achievement of goals
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b. Understanding and agreement on major problems
c. Handling of behavioral problems
d. Ignoring individual problems
150. Leader in a group does NOT depend on?
a. Authoritarian Approach
b. Distribution of responsibility
c. Rapport with individual members
d. Understanding group dynamics
151. Who among the following helped group work rooted in social work profession?
a. Kurt Lewin
b. H.B. Trecker
c. Murry G. Ross
d. G. Hamilton
152. Responsibility for the choice of program in
group work rest with -----?
a. Members of the group
b. Group worker
c. The Agency
d. Members of the group with the help of group worker
153. Value of the program in group work lies in?
a. Establishing satisfying affective (love) relationship
b. Enhancing knowledge of possible alternative activities.
c. Giving expression to creative dynamics drives
d. Increasing proficiency in the chosen program activity.
154. Program in social group work is based on ----- ?
a. Interest and resources
b. Interests and resources of the worker
c. Interests and resources of the group
d. None of the above.
155. Social group work as a method of social work
aims at?
a. Development of democratic life style
b. Development of leadership qualities
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c. Development of capability of adjustment
d. All the above
156. Which of the following is NOT a principle of social group work?
a. Confidentiality
b. Guided group interactions
c. Progressive program development
d. Evaluation of the progress made by the group
157. Self-disclosure is an effective method of
a. Group study
b. Group diagnosis
c. Group relations
d. Group treatment
158. The stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning is the contribution of ?
a. Napier
b. Bruce Tuckmen
c. Anne Hopes
d. James Albert
159. The relationship in a secondary group is?
a. Personal
b. Intimate
c. Formal
d. Informal
160. No compromise on law is characteristic of leadership?
a. Democratic
b. Autocratic
c. Bureaucratic
d. Laissez Faire
161. Which model of group work focuses on restoration to normalcy after a point of breakdown?
a. Remedial model
b. Development model
c. Preventive model
d. None of the above
162. Cognitive Behavioral group work model was developed by?
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a. James Albert
b. Rose
c. Napier
d. Peter Samuel
163. Sociometry is a technique widely used for study of?
a. Group structure
b. Status of members in the group
c. Leadership
d. All the above
164. Which of the following is NOT a stage of social group work process?
a. Conforming
b. Norming
c. Storming
d. Performing
165. Which of the following is NOT a primary group?
a. Mob
b. Family
c. Gang
d. Peer group
166. Group work is intended specially?
a. To promote social action
b. To facilitate community organization
c. To enhance social functioning
d. To solve individual and group problems through group process
167. Role of the group worker can be best understood through the term?
a. Indirect leader
b. Enabler
c. Resource person
d. Program planner
168. Good recording in group work should focus
on ?
a. Activities organized
b. Skills used
c. Group process
d. Member's characteristics
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169. Social group work is a process by which:
a. Individuals are helped to feel comfort in a group
b. Social functioning is enhanced through recreation
c. Social functioning is enhanced through purposeful group experience
d. Social functioning of group is the focus
170. What is the unique characteristic of social group work?
a. The natural of being the primary group
b. Worker client relationship
c. Creative use of program media
d. None of the above
171. The most important tool at the disposal of group worker is?
a. Professional self
b. Verbal interaction
c. Program activities
d. Group morale
172. The main feature of the primary group is?
a. Face to face relationship
b. Relations are causal
c. It has large membership
d. It governs rules and regulations
173. Program in social group work is based on?
a. Interests and resources of the
agency
b. Interests and resources of the worker
c. Interests and resources of the
members of the group
d. None of the above
174. Social group as a method of social work primarily aims at?
a. Development of leadership qualities
b. Development of democratic lifestyle
c. Development of capability for
adjustment
d. All the above
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175. Which one of the following is a reference group?
a. Occupational group
b. Group taken to evaluate one's own aspect of life
c. A relative longer group
d. A group which allows for social mobility
176. Program planning in group work practice includes?
a. Group members practice
b. Group members interest
c. The program content
d. All the above
177. Which of the following is NOT a principle of group work?
a. Progressive and Program
experience
b. Specific objectives
c. Group experiment planning
d. Continuous evaluation
178. Which is a social group with some degree of 'we feeling' and living in a given area?
a. Community
b. Society
c. Association
d. Crowd
179. Group which serves as point of comparison is known as?
a. In-group
b. Out-group
c. Reference group
d. Primary group
180. Self-disclosure is an effective method of?
a. Group study
b. Group dynamics
c. Group relations
d. Group treatment
181. The founder of YMCA in the year 1844 is?
a. George Williams
b. Jane Addams
c. Trecker H.B.
d. None of the above
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182. YWCA which was formed in the year 1877 by?
a. Mrs. Kinnird &. Miss. Roberts
b. Ms. Annibesent
c. G.H. Cooley
d. Coyle
183. Which one of the following is NOT the purpose of social group work?
a. Social adjustment of individual
b. Social consciousness of the group
c. Personality development
d. Inter-group rivalry
184. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of secondary group?
a. Large size
b. Personal orientation
c. Secondary relations
d. Formal communication
185. In a democratic group process, the group morale and discipline will be?
a. Leader centered
b. Agency centered
c. Change centered
d. We centered
186. Group work is based on this theory of individuals and groups?
a. Eclectic theory
b. Social theory
c. Economic theory
d. Personal factors
187. Which of the following is NOT a basic skill in social group work?
a. Skill in establishing purposeful relationships
b. Skill in analyzing the group situation
c. Skill in group dynamics
d. Skill in evaluation
188. Which of the following is NOT a model of group work?
a. Remedial
b. Developmental
c. Therapeutic
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d. Educational
189. Which of the following is a 'principle of group work?
a. To create more groups
b. Planned group formation
c. To provide material help to groups
d. To encourage groupism
190. Which of the following is NOT the objective of social group work?
a. Development of sense of belonging
b. Development of ego power of individual in the groups
c. Development of the capacity to
participate
d. Development of warmth & accepting social climate
191. The process through which the worker
guides the group in setting up of formal
organization is known as?
a. Principle of flexible functional organization
b. Principle of guided group interaction
c. Principle of progressive program
experience
d. None of the above
192. The principle of specific objective is a principle of?
a. Social case work
b. Social group work
c. Community organization
d. Social welfare administration
193. Acceptance in a group is shown ?
a. By listening to the group members
b. Probing & questioning the group members
c. Solving the problems of the group
d. Doing things for the group members
194. Group characterized by impersonal relationships and self-interests.
a. In-group
b. Gesellschaft
c. Secondary
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d. Both B & C
195. It refers to a socially defined position in a group or society.
a. Role
b. Interaction
c. Status
d. Deviance
196. This theory states that people are motivated
by self-interest in the interactions with other
people.
a. Conflict
b. Exchange
c. Interaction
d. Structural
197. Name the system adopted by a given society to guide family or blood relationship.
a. Marriage
b. Culture
c. Kinship
d. Taboos
198 . of individuals is an important
feature of social group.
a. Contact
b. Interaction
c. Communication
d. Relation
199. Contradictory demands of different roles individuals perform is termed as
a. Role strain
b. Role identity
c. Role conflict
d. Role playing
200. The process by which certain group members motivate and guide the group is called
a. Leadership
b. Group dynamics
c. Social control
d. Social facilitation
201. Group think is happening when members desire
a. Control
b. Freedom
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c. Harmony
d. Power
202. Goal-oriented group activities may result in the uninhibited expression and sharing of thoughts,
feelings and experiences which means the worker should exercise good judgement so that this basic social
work principle is observed:
a. Participation
b. Self-determination
c. Individualization
d. Confidentiality
203. Groupwork evolved from
a. Religious movement
b. Cooperative movement
c. Settlement House movement
d. None of the above
204. The date when the Community Chest of Greater Manila was organized.
a. December 20, 1949
b. December 19, 1949
c. December 18, 1949
d. December 21, 1949
205. This agency is associated with the socioeconomic movement during the American colonial period in the
Philippines when group work focused in character building and other socialization programs.
a. 4-H Clubs
b. Lions Club
c. YWCA
d. Red Cross
206. This is the main characteristic of an open group in social work with groups.
a. There are no membership criteria
b. Anybody can apply/join
c. New members are admitted even after the group has been organized.
d. The group is allowed by the agency to set its own rules.
432
Case No. 1
A group of Biology students came to seek your help about their course requirement of community
outreach. The student representative speaks for the group while the rest are just looking on. Your job as a
community liaison of the university is to assist students to find a suitable community for students' outreach
activities. Sometimes it happens that students would just go to the area and expect everything to be arranged
for them by the community liaison. You wanted the group to get involve actively.
207. What is the level of the group at this time in relation to the helping process?
a. Performing phase because they are about to engage in a task together.
b. Storming phase because only one is talking and the rest are silent
c. Forming phase because they are already there
d. Pre-formation phase because there is no clear relationship yet
208. At this phase of engagement with the group, the worker is not expected to do the following:
a. Talk to the students' department head or professor in-charge about the course requirements
b. Request for a formal letter from the group
c. Conduct community visit to make the necessary arrangement
d. Give some information to students about community outreach
209. To enlist the participation of the group, the workers should avoid-
a. Plan for the group and instruct them what to do
b. Conduct preliminary group sessions with the group to draw out from them what specifically they can do
and how you can work together
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c. Make some arrangements with the contact community along with a student representative
d. Build group feeling by helping group members to express themselves
Case No. 2
Fifteen mothers of children receiving educational assistance from a child-caring agency were organized
into a self-help group. The social worker explained that the group was formed that they can address their
common problems.
After sharing their concerns (facilitated by the social worker) for two sessions, they agreed to abide the
following rules:
• Be on time for the weekly meeting every Friday at 4:00-5:30 p.m. in the agency Conference room.
Latecomers and absentees will be fined P 5.00 and P 10.00, respectively.
• Listen to and respect each other's opinions. With the guidance of the social worker, the
mother learned how to facilitate their meetings with maximum participants and document minutes of the
meeting. The others organized working committees, scheduled their activities, planned training programs,
invited resource persons and evaluated each activity.
210. The helping approach applied in this group of mother is:
a. Interactionist approach
b. Remedial approach
c. Developmental approach
d. None of the above
211. All of the activities below belong to the beginning phase except one:
a. Self-introduction
b. Sharing expectations
c. Talking about concerns as mothers
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d. One of the mothers facilitating the meeting
212. One of the activities below is part of the middle stage
a. Setting group rules
b. Initial feeling of sharing common concerns
c. Planning training program
d. Social worker facilitating the discussion
213. In the ending stage, the social worker and the group jointly decide to
a. Terminate or extend the group
b. Evaluate the growth/gains of the members from the group activities
c. Formulate post termination plan
d. All of the above
214. If the group seeks to get assistance in improving the services of the health center, this approach shall
be employed.
a. Interactionist approach
b. Remedial approach
c. Developmental approach
d. None of the above
215. If the mothers were survivors of abuse with poor self-esteem, this approach will be used.
a. Interactionist approach
b. Remedial approach
c. Developmental approach
d. Crisis-intervention approach
216. To ensure client's protection from gossips, it is important in the remedial approach, that the worker
sees to it that the members observe
a. Privacy
b. Confidentiality
c. sincerity
d. Openness
217. In the remedial approach, this person takes an active role in processing activities for optimum learning.
a. Client
b. Group leader
c. Social worker
435
d. All of the above
218. This activity plays an important part in remedial approach
a. Screaming
b. Catharsis facilitated by the social worker
c. Processing of feelings
d. All of the above
219. Most of the activities planned by the mothers can be classified as:
a. Human relations
b. Skills training
c. Client's capacity building
d. Group development
Case No. 3
The subject of "Program Activities for Groups" has been put on the agenda for the next Social Service Staff
meeting. This has become an issue because a nurse in the Cancer Ward had complained to the ward social
worker that her group's loud singing of religious hymns was creating a disturbance in the ward. An attendant
had also told this social worker that the nurses were talking about whether conducting Bible studies is a social
work task.
220. What should be clearly defined before the social worker and the group decide on the activities for its
sessions in the hospital?
a. The patients' medical conditions.
b. The purpose for the group program
c. The hospital's realities
d. The administrative support available
221. Which of these is appropriate program media for a group of hospital patients?
I. Discussion of illness-related concerns, fears and problems
II. Audio-visual material
III. Resource persons for spiritual needs
Answer:
a. I c. I, II and III
b. I and II d. II
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222. What should be a social worker's response to negative feedback about her group's activities?
a. Revise the activities
b. Review the activities to see if feedback is justified and act accordingly
c. Ignore it as one cannot please everybody
d. Let the group decide what to do about the feedback
223. Who should decide the program media for a social work group of hospital patients?
a. The social worker
b. The social worker and the group
c. The patients/group
d. The Medical team
Case No. 4
As a social worker in the probation office, you decided to organize a group of nine "new" adult
probationers whose suspended court sentences enable them to continue with their lives in the community.
You believe that the socialization model of groupwork would be very appropriate to use.
224. What will you do if during the group formation meeting, the members ask for an election of officers for
the group?
a. Agree but tell the group to just have a few officers
b. Agree to the request
c. Explain why it is not necessary
d. Add more members to justify having officers
225. Which program media would be very appropriate for this group if you are using the socialization
model?
I. Play activities
II. Resource person on laws and social norms and rules
III. Values and role-related exercises
437
Answer:
a. I, II and III c. II and III
b. I and II d. I and III
226. Which of the following would you need to do to get data you still need for the groupwork you are
planning to undertake with these probationers?
a. Additional individual interviews
b. Marginal interviews
c. Collateral interviews
d. intake
227. What will you do if after 3 weekly sessions and despite having set rules on attendance the same
two/three members are always absent?
a. Ask the rest of the group to decide what to do about the absentees
b. I'll ignore it since group membership should be voluntary
c. Switch to casework for the absentees
d. Reiterate that the group sessions are court-required activities for probationers and inform the absentees
promptly about this
228. What would be appropriate tasks in this group if you are using the socialization model?
I. Teaching
II. Modelling
III. Setting expectations
Answer:
a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. I and II
d. II and III
Case No. 5:
Cora, a social worker in Pag-asa, a home for unwed mothers was assigned to work with six women, ages 22
to 33, all of whom were admitted to the facility during the last two weeks. All the
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women are on their third, fourth, or fifth month of pregnancy and sought admission to Pag-asa for varied
reasons: fear of parents' reaction to the pregnancy, decision to keep the matter a secret from family and
friends, inability to meet the financial requirements of hospital confinement during delivery, need for
guidance/assistance relating to the plan for the baby to be given up for adoption, having no place to stay in
and no resources after being abandoned by the boyfriend, etc.
229. What reasons might the individual women have for joining the group?
I. To overcome boredom, loneliness and/or idleness
II. To get advice/support from the group
III. To show cooperation out of gratitude to the agency
Answer:
a. I, II and III c. II and III
b. I and II d. I and II
230. Given this situation of the mothers, which groupwork model/approach seems most appropriate to
guide the social worker's actions with the group?
a. Crisis-centered
b. Mediating
c. Task-centered
d. Psychosocial
231. If you were Cora, which of these would you cite to motivate the prospective mothers to join the group?
I. The group will provide them the opportunity to share their feelings, concerns, etc. Relating to their
situation
II. The group will clarify their different options relating to the baby after birth
439
III. The group will allow the participants to share ideas, plans relating to their lives after discharge from Pag-
asa.
Answer:
a. II and III c. I and III
b. I and II d. I, II, III
232. What do you think would be the most appropriate goal for this group of unwed mothers in Pag-asa?
a. Reconciliation/reunion with their families after delivery
b. Stay physically and emotionally healthy for a successful delivery
c. Arrive at a realistic and sensible postdelivery plan for themselves and their babies
d. Utilization of existing community resources now and after discharge from Pag-asa
233. What should the social worker do if, during a group session, one participant gets very upset
emotionally, starts sobbing so that the rest of the group become very uncomfortable, not understanding
what triggered the behavior?
a. Ignore her and continue with the discussion so the participant will not feel guilty about disrupting the
session
b. Touch the participant to show acceptance and ask her if she wants to be excused from the group for a
while
c. Ask the participant to share with the group what brought it about
d. Remind the group that one of the rules agreed on is that there will be no disruptive behavior during
sessions.
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Case No. 6
On the first week of March, the worker receives her transfer order to assume bigger responsibilities in the
capital town 100 kilometers away effective April 25 of the same year.
In the village, she handled a group of youngster, 14-16 years old, whom she organized more than a year
ago. It was a play group to begin with but as time passed the youth start to think about bigger things for the
neighborhood cleanliness & beautification projects that would change the image of their neighborhood
completely. To begin with, the worker motivated them to practice habits cleanliness, orderliness at home. The
big project was going to be launched at the end of the school year.
The worker has mixed feelings about her living- there were project to finish; group projects were picking-
up momentum, the community at large which was now beginning to fill her positive influence on the youth,
etc.
Thus, she decided to keep the news to herself until the week of her giving, causing the group mixed
emotional responses: confusion, bitterness, feeling of being abandoned, etc.
234. The worker violated this major responsibility in the worker-client relationship.
a. preparation of the group
b. giving the group before project completion
c. turn over
d. exit interview
235. You are the worker. From the choices below, what is the most appropriate thing to do concerning the
assignment/transfer such as this?
a. the group should know as early as possible the temporariness of the worker. Both worker & group should
work toward building leadership & independence.
b. tell the group that you are going to be
replaced by equally good, if not a better
worker
441
c. meet the group as early as possible & handle the group anxieties
d. do exactly as this worker did
236. Given this situation, what is its most likely effect on the subsequent worker client relationship?
a. Unwelcoming
b. willingness to give the relationship another try
c. disbelief
d. distrust
237. It is apparent that the worker had her own relationship problem with the group, what is this?
a. mother-figure relationship
b. the group is her source of power & authority
c. did not maintain professional distance
d. uncontrolled emotional involvement
238. The worker's keeping the transfer assignment to herself indicates this coping mechanism referred to in
the list:
a. avoidance
b. denial
c. rejection
d. acceptance
Case No. 7
A company labor union is already preparing a list of what worker should negotiate for in the next collective
bargaining meeting.
All of his union leaders are male only a few women are bold enough to speak up what other women
workers would likely want, such as a day care center in the company & more women overseers in factory
departments where more women are involved.
But most of this request of women workers hardly ends up in the bargaining, this transpired. "Hindi
maintindihan ng ating mga lider ng union ang mga bagay na hinihingi nating ibang manggagawa kasi panay
lalaki sila". (The union officers don't understand why these things are necessary because all of them are men!)
One woman blurted to a co-worker during a meeting. "Hintayin n'yo na
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lang ang botohan, tingnan natin kapag sinuwerte kayo", (Just wait for the elections, let's see if your kind will
win.) a female co-worker teasingly butted in.
A union officer overheard the exchange, to which he retorted, "Tigilan na ninyo "yang daldalan kasi, para
may pupuntahan itong miting!" (will you two stop bickering, so our meeting will have some direction.)
239. You are the company social worker. The union is suspicious of your motivations. Of the options
hereunder, how best you can gain the group's trust/
a. Visit them in their homes, be friend their families & look into their needs.
b. Attend all their meetings
c. Demonstrate your support to their cause if you find them justifiable including representations to
management
d. Give them small tokens to remember their birthdays/anniversaries
240. You are the worker. Given this particular situation what do you do?
a. Moderate the discussion initially to help group draw up a long list of needs as basis for further discussion
b. Suspend the meeting to give you time to coach the leaders
c. Tell the group that the important thing is for them to negotiable for higher pay
d. Preside over the meeting to avoid conflict
241. The process in decision making that is most appropriate in determining the union's common needs
include in the bargaining list.
a. Consensus
b. brain storming
c. sort listing
d. prioritizing
Case No. 8
Several boys in a middle class subdivision were organized by Mang Tomas, parent of one of the youth, into
a basketball team. He provided uniforms & play equipment.
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On his request, parents donated goodies for the boys snack every time they played. It was the beginning of
summer & they agreed that it was a good idea to keep the boy's busy & out of idleness & mischief in this
manner. Sometimes the parents played with them. By mid-summer the group started to disintegrate. And the
fun was over.
242. What was wrong in the organizational process?
a. over eager parents to help the youth
b. the boys had other interest
c. it was not the boys' decision to form a recreation group
d. too much parental influence
243. You discover that Johnny is a church elder. He grew up in an atmosphere where obedience is strictly
emphasized. How best would you describe Mang Tomas' relationship with the group?
a. put self-interest above others
b. hearing
c. clannish
d. paternalistic & authoritarian
244. You are worker. Among the options listed, what do you do to start the work?
a. Meet with the boys' parents & plan with them
b. Get acquainted with the boys, & find out their needs
c. Make a survey of community resources
d. The parents know them best. Encourage them to engage in sports
245. What group work principle was violated in the organizational process?
a. individualization
b. Acceptance
c. self-determination
d. client participation in problem solving
246. Mang Tomas comes to you requesting for help to save the situation. Appearing peeved, he says his
own son embarrass him. What should you do initially?
a. meet with parents
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b. deal with Mang Tomas' feelings
c. organize the group
d. encourage the boy to apologize to his father
Case No. 9
 Bigay tulong, a youth group of ten members doing charity work was on in the season of looking for new
recruits. For the past two years, the group had not seen a new member though there were at least 20
youngsters who tried joining in.
One who back out from joining the group was Linda, 16-year old who moved to the neighborhood only 3
years ago. She said she felt left hour, especially with those private jokes & group gossips going around. She
added that although the members were friendly towards her, they seldom listen to what she had to say.
Linda noted that during organization meetings, the group would only affirm what the officers had planned
ahead or what members have voiced out in informal talks with one another.
Much to her disgust, Linda learned from the grapevine that the group prefers recruit close friends or kin of
present members "to keep the organization intact". Linda believes this rumor to be true since some of the
officers are relatives & most members were friends from childhood.
"Kamag-anakan lang naman iyan eh!"(The group is just about being relatives anyway.) Linda remarked to
youngsters in the neighborhood who wanted to join Bigay-tulong.
247. What is it about this group that makes it difficult for them to take in new members?
a. unattractive programs
b. in-group culture/kinship
c. disorganized
d. lacks funding
248. A basic criterion in recruitment of new members is not spelled out in this case. What is it?
a. community needs
b. structure
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c. purpose
d. qualification requirements
249. You are the local social worker. The charities of the group are useful to you and you also want to help
the group. What will you do?
a. encourage the group to be warm to new members
b. assess the group's situation (focus on individual needs, group goals & programs)
c. endorse Linda to the group
d. reorganize the group
250. Linda tells you about her failed experience in seeking group membership. This is not new to you. You
had heard the same stories before. She needs your help. What do you do?
a. engage her in small talk to find out more about herself & her motivations for joining the group
b. let her release her hurt feelings
c. confirm her story to lessen her pain
d. help her join another group
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Answer Key
1. B 41. 81. A 121.
A A
2. B 42. 82. C 122.
C D
3. C 43. 83. B 123.
C B
4. C 44. 84. C 124.
B B
5. A 45. 85. A 125.
D D
6. B 46. 86. B 126.
 B C
7. C 47. 87. A 127.
D D
8. C 48. 88. C 128.
B D
9. A 49. 89. C 129.
D A
10. 50. 90. A 130.
A C C
11. 51. 91. D 131.
D C A
12. 52. 92. C 132.
C A C
13. 53. 93. A 133.
B D A
14. 54. 94. D 134.
B B C
15. 55. 95. C 135.
C A C
16. 56. 96. D 136.
B B C
17. 57. 97. C 137.
C B D
18. 58. 98. A 138.
A A C
19. 59. 99. A 139.
C C D
20. 60. 100. 140.
A D A C
21. 61. 101. 141.
A A B D
22. 62. 102. 142.
C B C D
23. 63. 103. 143.
B D B A
24. 64. 104. 144.
D B C B
25. 65. 105. 145.
D B D D
26. 66. 106. 146.
A A B A
27. 67. 107. 147.
D C A D
28. 68. 108. 148.
A D A C
29. 69. 109. 149.
C A C D
30. 70. 110. 150.
A D C A
31. 71. 111. 151.
C B D B
32. 72. 112. 152.
B A B D
33. 73. 113. 153.
C C C A
34. 74. 114. 154.
D B C C
35. 75. 115. 155.
A B B D
36. 76. 116. 156.
A B C A
37. 77. 117. 157.
D C B D
38. 78. 118. 158.
C D A B
39. 79. 119. 159.
C A A C
40. 80. 120. 160.
A D B C

447

161. 185. 209. 233.

A D A B
162. 186. 210. 234.
B A C A
163. 187. 211. 235.
A C D A
164. 188. 212. 236.
A A C D
165. 189. 213. 237.
A B A D
166. 190. 214. 238.
D B A B
167. 191. 215. 239.
D A B C
168. 192. 216. 240.
C B C A
169. 193. 217. 241.
A A C D
170. 194. 218. 242.
C B B C
171. 195. 219. 243.
C C C D
172. 196. 220. 244.
A B B B
173. 197. 221. 245.
C C B C
174. 198. 222. 246.
D B B B
175. 199. 223. 247.
B C B B
176. 200. 224. 248.
D A C C
177. 201. 225. 249.
C C C D
178. 202. 226. 250.
A C A A
179. 203. 227.
C C D
180. 204. 228.
D A A
181. 205. 229.
A C A
182. 206. 230.
A C C
183. 207. 231.
D D D
184. 208. 232.
B C C

448
ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
450
ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
452

Working with Communities (Community Organizing)

Situation No. 1
When Gardo Versausage started as the community in this rice producing barangay, the landless farmers
have been at the mercy of influential money lenders or usurers for years. Each planting season, they would
practically beg for loans to finance needed farm inputs. Come harvest time, their income practically goes to
these money lenders, and this vicious cycle results in an endless struggle for survival. However, with the help
of the worker, they now see the futility of their farming efforts, learn about the roots of their dependence,
realize they have capacities to plan and find other ways of improving their lives, and so begin to organize
themselves. One of the major activities initiated by the group is to demand that the 50 hectares they are tilling
be subjected to agrarian reform, an action that the landlord opposes. Dialogues have started with local agency
officials without the landowner who refuses to sit down with them.
1. With more rice farmers demonstrating concern over the situation, and after an initial training of leaders,
they can now form an organization categorized as:
a. Sectoral organization
b. Cause-oriented organization
c. Political organization
d. Civic organization
2. As an organization formed with a specific objective, the activities of the farmers that can lead to the
achievement of their purpose are:
a. To pressure the landlord to distribute the land among them according to law
b. To get the most benefit from the government
c. To compel the landowner to have a dialogue with them for a more suitable tenurial agreement
454
d. To enable the farmers to plan the best possible way of increasing their production
Choices: A. a, b, c B. a, b, d
C. a, c, d D. a, c
3. What legal basis do the farmers have in demanding for the distribution of the 50- hectares land under
agrarian reform?
a. RA 7279
b. RA 6657
c. RA 8368
d. PD 772
4. Formalization of the farmer's organization involves the following EXCEPT ONE.
a. Creation of committees
b. General assembly
c. Lobbying of leaders
d. Election of officers
5. With the formation of the organization, the worker can start the creation of communities to handle
specific functions. One of the urgent reasons for the creation of communities is the on-going dialogues to
air out their demand for agrarian reform. The nature of these communities are:
a. Permanent
b. Temporary
c. Quasi-permanent
d. Functional until project is accomplished
Choices: A. a, b, c B. a, c, d
C. c,d D. b,d
6. One of the effective intervention that you as the social worker can initiate to counter usurers:
a. Train them to get loans from banks
b. Organize a cooperative
c. Capability building
d. Organize a union among them
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7. Which of the following intervention could have been used by the social worker in raising the level of
consciousness of the farmers?
a. Counseling
b. Advocacy
c. Networking
d. Structure building
8. In situations like the above, the most appropriate model of organizing is based on the root of the farmer's
demand is?
a. Community development
b. Baranganic approach
c. Social action
d. Social planning
9. At times it is best that one model or approach in
organizing the farmers may be paired with another to ensure maximum benefit: countering usurers through
cooperative while demanding for agrarian reform. The appropriate
combination is:
a. Community development and social planning
b. Community development and social action
c. Baranganic approach and social action
d. Social action and social planning
10. The following value assumptions and principles are bases of empowering this group of farmers.
a. People in the communities want change and they can change
b. They are afraid of unknown result of organizing, hence depend very much on the worker
c. Communities are self-determining
d. Discontent on the part of the people leads to the formation of an association or organization
Choices: A. a, b, c, d B. a, c, d
C. b,c,dD. b,d
11. The use of dialogue between two opposing parties in a controversy, like agrarian dispute
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has the possibility that this may not succeed. In which case, the farmers may still continue their struggle
through the use of the following tactics:
a. Negotiation
b. Brokerage
c. Mild coercion
d. Arbitration
Choice: A. a, b, c, d B. a, b, d
C. a, d D. c, d
12. The social worker handling the organization of farmers can do much in stimulating wide interest and
participation of farmers in community affairs, improving power base, fostering collaborative attitudes and
practices as well as increasing indigenous leadership. These activities fall under what goal of community
organization?
a. Task goal
b. Process goal
c. Relationship goal
d. Organization goal
13. During the lull season, the farmers would resort to the nearby lake to fish as an alternative source of
income. However, their difficulty is often caused by the typhoons and gradual silting of the lake because of
pollution. The issue of pollution was tackled at the barangay council but no further action had been done.
The following are the causes of pollution in the lake:
a. Wanton disposal of waste by people
living near the lake
b. Lack of proper waste management
system adopted by the barangay
c. Apathy of the people
d. Lack of political will on the part of the LGU to stop housing project near the lake
Choices: A. a, b, c, d B. a, b, d
C. a,d D. c,d
14. The farmer fisher folk can still use the lake as a source of income. But they have to do
457
something about pollution. The following actions may be resorted to:
a. Lake clean up
b. Coordination with appropriate agency for more sustainable waste management actions
c. Fishing technology
d. Coastal resource management
Choices: A. a, b, c B. a, b, d
C. c,d D. b,d
15. The farmer-fisherfolk is one group whose rights are often violated. As a social worker, the important role
to enable them to get the optimum benefits from society owing their Constitutional rights is:
a. Enabler
b. Advocate
c. Social actionist
d. Direct provider
Situation No. 2
Barangay San Tianco is a village in one of the northeastern provinces of Luzon. Results of data gathering
revealed that men perceived dominant (including those considered "violent") behavior as indicators of being
"macho". This perception inevitably leads to domestic violence that includes wife battering and verbal abuse.
The barangay council invited you to attend a general assembly to discuss this problem.
16. As a social worker assigned in the community, your objective in attending the assembly is to
a. Raise the level of consciousness of the community on the problem
b. Confront the Brgy. Council on its duty to recommend sanction to abusers
c. Assist victims in filing complaint with police authority
d. Organize the women to protect themselves against further abuse
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17. Domestic violence includes the following violations.
a. Wife battering
b. Infidelity committed by one spouse
c. Sexual abuse against the child of a live- in partner
d. Verbal abuse by one spouse against the other
Choices: A. a, b, c, d B. a, d
C. a, b, d D. a, c
18. The barangay is one of the five pillars of justice or our judicial system. As such very worker should learn to
appreciate working with it. Cases are brought before its Lupon ng Kapayapaan primarily for the following
purpose/s:
a. For amicable settlement between parties
b. To support police work
c. To arrest the perpetrator of the crime
d. To issue certificate to bring the case to the fiscal's office.
19. Women's rights are basically human rights. The women victims in this barangay may be considered abused
in terms of their:
a. Right to freedom of opinion and expressions
b. Right to join associations
c. Right to life, liberty, security of person
d. Right to freedom of thought and religion
20. Violence against women is perpetuated in view of the following reason/s:
a. The culture of silence has kept women mum about their situation
b. Women in the Philippines society were not respected
c. Traditionally, women are considered the inferior sex
d. Women are weak and they have no capacity to protect themselves
Choice: A. a, b, c B. a, c, d
C. c,d D. b,d
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21. Community organization is defined as a sustained process of what?
1. Educating the people to develop critical consciousness of their existing conditions
2. Working with people to work collectively and efficiently towards meeting immediate and long-term goals
3. Mobilizing people to develop their capability and readiness to respond and take action on their immediate
and longterm needs and problems
4. Forming an organization as means to respond to their problem
Choices:
A. All of the above C. 2, 3 & 4
B. 1, 2 & 3 D. 1, 3 & 4
22. This principle in CO recognize people's inherent desire to change their conditions to grow and develop:
a. Trust in People
b. Start where the people are
c. CO is biased to the interest of the majority
d. None of the choices
23. Community Integration is...
1. A process of imbibing community life
2. A method of raising people's awareness of their situation
3. An approach of bringing people together
4. A process of clarifying /explaining
program objectives especially to key people
Choices:
A. 3 & 4 C. All of the above
B. 2 D. 1
24. Social Investigation includes the following except
a. Focused Group Discussions
b. Community meetings
460
c. Ground work and follow-up
d. Dynamic interaction
25. This type of advocacy aims to amend and / or introduce new laws or policies affecting community sector:
a. Policy Advocacy
b. Legislative Advocacy
c. Outstanding Advocacy
d. Introductory Advocacy
26. In this style, it is to know and understand the conditions of a particular community. Usually this is done in a
survey form, people are just considered respondents on a ready-made designs or survey instruments.
a. Program style
b. People-centered style
c. Survey form style
d. Technical style
27. This is a group of people who maintain an enduring social exchange network based "we feeling" arising
from their commitment both to a belief system or to a value system or to an ideology reinforced by the
celebration of cultic devices and to the expressive community.
a. Symbolic Community
b. Affective Community
c. Intentional Community
d. Spatial Community
28. This is that human grouping where individuals or families make a total commitment to a rationalized and
abstract value system or to a belief withdrawing from society in some form and defining its social
boundaries clearly.
a. Symbolic Community
b. Affective Community
c. Intentional Community
d. Spatial Community
29. If the practitioner's role in social action model is likely incorporate in the advocate and activist roles. Social
Planning is?
461
a. More technical or expert roles are emphasized
b. Serve as an enabler or encourager
c. Acts as a therapist
d. All are possible answers
30. In Community Organization, the CO worker uses the following techniques in identifying leaders except:
a. directly asking the barrio people
b. using field and documentary sources
c. personal observation using some objectives/ criteria
d. good human relation bought within and outside the community.
31. The social worker has contribution to make for development efforts through social planning
a. interest and resources of any agency
b. social worker's objective and orientation
c. people's motivation and participation
d. social worker's knowledge of human needs and responses
32. Refers to irrelevant or defective social policies & community decision-making process which needs to be
changed or modified as they adversely affect the interest & welfare of the majority of the people
a. Residual problems
b. Residential problems
c. Institutional problems
d. Social Problems
33. A process of identifying problems & needs, prioritizing them, formulating solutions in solving problems,
attaining needs & implementing them through cooperative & collaborative effects which result to
improved capacity in community
a. Community development
b. Community mobilization
c. Social preparation of community
d. Community organization
34. One of the goals of C.O. that concerned with the process of helping people in a community or
462
group strengthen their quality of participation, self-direction & cooperation. It concerns to help people grow &
develop to prepare them for their roles in community building & development
a. Process Goals
b. Development Goals
c. Relationship Goals
d. Capacity development Goals
35. C.O. strategy used in communities where the people are apathetic towards their pressing problems &
needs when the other strategies fail. It is designed to awaken the people from their lethargy & trigger the
desired action on their part to do something about their community problem
a. Campaign strategy
b. Collaborative strategy
c. Use of conflict
d. Management of power
36. The dynamic interplay of forces in which contact between person result in modification of attitudes &
behavior or participants
a. Communication
b. Social interaction
c. Group preview
d. Group dynamic
37. This technique illustrates ways of dealing with certain social problems which can subsequently adopted for
similar uses by the community and other communities and organizations.
a. Role play
b. Demonstration
c. Socio-drama
d. B&C
38. Every member of the group should be allowed to share their ideas and opinions in any deliberation of the
group & be involved in the problem-solving & decision-making process it undertakes.
a. Principle of participatory leadership
b. Principle of feedback
c. Principle of democratic view
463
d. Principle of participation
39. The ultimate test of an effective committee is how they can harmonize their disagreements & be able to
come out with an output every member should be willing to support
a. Principle of cooperation
b. Principle of participation
c. Principle of good leadership
d. Principle of teamwork
40. This pertains to group members' sense of security in relation to the group.
a. Group stability
b. Sense of belonging
c. Group solidarity
d. Sense of common purposes
41. Based on the viewpoints of social work profession, it is the process of releasing the potentials of people
through appropriate programs, services & strategies; removing blocks that their growth & development &
accessing them for the enhancement of their highest capacities that they would be freed from the fetters
or poverty, ignorance, oppression, social injustice & fear to stand with rights & pursuits the happiness as a
member of a free and just society.
a. People's advocacy
b. People's growth and development
c. Peoples' power
d. People empowerment
42. The type of questions in handling group discussion is used to launch of a new subject matter and should
therefore be challenging and be able to promote participants to think
a. Kick off
b. Direct questions
c. Overhead questions
d. Follow-up questions
43. People empowerment should be approached through an integrated and interdisciplinary effort since a
person's total well-being is
464
attained through his physical, social, economic, mental and spiritual needs.
a. Holistic approach
b. Atmosphere of Freedom
c. Social justice
d. General approach
44. C.O.'s lifeblood:
a. process
b. development
c. people's participation
d. a&c
45. This strategy is used in influencing change or modification of policies, legislations, ordinances, programs
and services deemed irrelevant, inadequate or disadvantageous to the greater sector of society.
a. Social brokerage
b. Lobbying
c. Use of integrative mechanisms to strengthen organization
d. Social protests to support social movements
46. A description of the new forms of Association that seek to respond to the interest of the people
themselves alongside the state, economy and political society.
a. Labor union
b. Civil society
c. Militant group
d. Government organization
47. Private voluntary organizations, social development agencies or alternative support of cause-oriented
groups that are non-profit oriented which are committed to the task of development.
a. Civic organization
b. Religious/charitable organization
c. Non-government Organization
d. Private agencies
48. The process of expansion to more quality benefits to more people over a wider
465
geographical area, more quickly, more equitably and more lasting
a. Scaling up
b. Expansion
c. Massive implementation
d. Integration
49. Selection of the community organization model is determined by:
a. Preference of the worker
b. Nature of the problem
c. Availability of resources
d. Competence of the worker
50. Rothman's locality development model is
a. Collaborative
b. Conflict-oriented
c. Results-oriented
d. Relationship-oriented
51. Community work may be used interchangeably with
a. community chest
b. community organization
c. social action
d. planning
52. In prioritizing community problems, the worker and the people must be guided by the following:
a. urgency and magnitude of the problem
b. preference of the local chief executive
c. availability of resources
d. relative ease of solving problem
53. The problem-solving process has the following components:
a. Systems analysis, resource analysis, task analysis
b. Plan, logistics, main actors
c. Assessment, problem-definition,
planning, implementation,
evaluation, termination or expansion
d. Activities, time frame and budget
54. What is the next step after data-gathering?
a. analysis/diagnosis
466
b. monitoring
c. treatment planning
d. evaluation
55. When the whole community affected by disaster is being transferred to new town sites or resettlement
areas, what activities are undertaken by the community organization workers prior to transfer?
a. social integration
b. social preparation
c. emergency feeding
d. community assembly
56. A process of identifying problems and needs, prioritizing them, formulating solutions in solving problems,
attaining needs and implementing them through cooperative and collaborative effects which result to
improved capacity in community.
a. Community development
b. Community mobilization
c. Social preparation of community
d. Community organization
57. "Acceptance of the right of the community to decide what it wants rather than having the organizer's view
imposed upon it"
a. Philosophy of C.O.
b. Principle of C.O.
c. Goal of C.O.
d. Procedure of C.O.
58. The process of making people to gradually take over responsibility through capacity development
a. Termination
b. Phase over
c. Turn-over
d. Institutionalization
59. Parties, individuals or institutions with interest in and/or affected by development initiatives, programs
and projects
a. Stakeholders
b. NGO
c. Stakeholders
467
d. Civil society
60. The partner of community people in development who acts as catalyst for participatory development
involving multistakeholders
a. Community development Worker
b. Directly affected
c. Indirectly affected
d. Government elected officials
61. An element of C.O. process which brings together the community people and community development
worker in a helping process
a. Selection area
b. Problem
c. People
d. Programs and services
62. C.O. is a long journey into development partnership with the community people. This journey requires
basic considerations and preparations for the CDW and Development Organization which is basically:
a. Legitimate identity and acceptability to the community in which it operates
b. Courtesy call
c. Familiarize the community profile
d. Training of volunteers and organizing community structures
63. The indices for selection of C.O. areas must be consistent with the development organizations:
a. Vision-Mission-Goals
b. Plan
c. Target
d. Funding Sources
64. Stage of C.O. Process in which establishing a friendly yet purposeful relationship starts. A low profile is
preferable than a grand one that probably raises unnecessary or false expectations from the people.
a. Initial meeting
b. Gathering collateral information
c. Entry to the community
d. Establishing sectoral volunteers
468
65. It refers to the basic continuing efforts by which the CDW becomes one with the community people by
integrating himself/herself in community life
a. Community visitation
b. Immersion with the people
c. Ground working
d. Immigration
66. The germination process of building trust and cooperation networks which is basic in social work.
a. Building social capital
b. Establishing rapport
c. Getting community trust
d. Capacity development
67. Acting as between groups, the client
community and outside resources
a. broker
b. Mediator
c. Negotiator
d. coordinator
68. The C.O. worker plays the role of providing expert knowledge and information to achieve planned goals
and objective.
a. Expert
b. Adviser
c. Counsellor
d. Consultant
69. A C.O. technique which involves the breaking up of a problem situation, or collection of data, exploring the
content and examining and setting forth of the various aspects, issues and relationships involved to gain
insight and understanding the content better for logical conclusion/solutions.
a. structuring
b. Situation analysis
c. Data gathering
d. Problem analysis
70. A C.O. worker function which is to initiate, develop new programs and services and modify
469
or terminate social welfare programs and services that had become irrelevant
a. Program management
b. Program development
c. Program termination
d. Program evaluator
71. A C.O. model which refers to individual or group activity designed to influence a change in social policy or
to lobby social legislations for the benefit and welfare of the welfare.
a. social activism
b. Social integration
c. Social action
d. Social brokerage
72. A method popularized by Paolo Freire which involves the people in problem solving process through
consciousness raising
a. Action-reflection-action
b. Capability building
c. Social learning
d. Social capital
73. Refer to individuals in the community who maybe the more informed persons which facilitate the
organizer's entry into the community.
a. Core group
b. Barangay officials
c. Contact person
d. Indigenous leaders
74. Small organization of community which form the base of solid organizing
a. Alliance
b. PO's
c. Stakeholders
d. All of the above
75. A traditional approach in development in which the formulation of policies and programs is done by an
outside group considered expert.
a. Bottom-up approach
b. Participatory approach
c. Liberating approach
d. Top-down approach
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76. When the CO moves the people to act.
a. Mobilization
b. Advocacy
c. Lobbying
d. All of the above
77. An organizing which involves introducing project to be managed by the people for community self-
reliance.
a. Issue-based organizing
b. Program-based organizing
c. Project-based organizing
d. All of the above
78. An aggregation of sectors or group or their organizing to confront a common problem or issue.
a. Alliance
b. Union
c. NGO's
d. PO's
79. A stage towards empowerment which confers on developing skills to bring back to the people their
confidence in themselves.
a. Consciousness raising
b. Capability building
c. Social praxis
d. None of the above
80. According to Alinsky, the ability to effect decision that shape social outcome is
a. Leadership
b. Competence
c. Organizing
d. Power
81. Perlman and Gurin found one common element in the practice of CO, this is the
a. Needs assessment
b. Program development
c. Problem-solving process
d. All of the above
82. CO involves a struggle for power often between the "haves" and the "Haves-not" is the concept of
a. Murray
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b. Dunham
c. Alinsky
d. Freire
83. The knowledge base and practice of CO in the Philippines were derived from the experience of
a. London
b. USA
c. Europe
d. India
84. This was the clearest expression of CO during the period from 1870-1917 in US.
a. Federation
b. Community Chest
c. Councils
d. Charity Organization Society
85. One of the most significant development in CO in 1960 is the emphasis on the concern on
a. Mass organizing
b. Social change
c. Grassroots organization
d. Empowerment of people
86. One of the effective strategies that was practiced by the ZOTO was
a. Socialization & meetings
b. Workshops & seminars
c. Shared leadership
d. Survey of needs
87. According to CO is matching needs
and resources
a. Arthur Dunham
b. Perlman & Gurin
c. Murray Ross
d. Kramer & Specht
88. Arthur Dunham in his definition of CO identifies three objectives except one
a. Task goal
b. Relationship goal
c. Organizational goal
d. Process goal
89. The CO worker identified block for growth of the community except one
a. Ignorance
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b. Ningas-cogon
c. Regionalism
d. Poor health
90. This strategy employs educating, persuading & pressuring the recalcitrants into agreeing with a group's
proposed solution/approach to a major issue or problem in the community.
a. Campaign
b. Collaborative
c. Contest
d. Structuring
91. If there is an operational breakdown of either the producing system or the consuming public, this
breakdown results to gaps in services and lack of resource, we called this problem as?
a. Residual
b. Institutional
c. Societal
d. Governance
92. ZOTO as a people's organization used this issue as a rallying point to organize people
a. Poverty
b. Militarization
c. Housing problem
d. Squatter status
93. The best agent for social development is the
a. GO & NGO
b. Community Development Worker
c. Community
d. PO's
94. The assists private organizations and
foundations engage in social development programs.
a. NCSFDF
b. CWAPI
c. PBSP
d. COOPERATIVE
95. The forerunner of community development in the Philippines
a. PACSA
b. PACD
c. DSWD
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d. CWAPI
96. The ZOTO is the first people's organization in the Philippines had used
a. Freire CO approach
b. Alinsky CO approach
c. Murray CO approach
d. Dunham CO approach
97. There are 3 approaches in making a community profile except one
a. Ecological approach
b. Structural approach
c. System approach
d. Normative approach
98. The CO worker performs the role of
when she/he works for the just of any disadvantage groups sectors or community as a whole
a. Activist
b. Intervenor
c. Broker
d. Advocate
99. When a client or citizen's group is in need of help and existing institution are uninterested in providing
services or negative and hostile to the client group, the social worker may provide to influence the
institution to change its negative attitude. In this situation, the social worker is exercising her role as:
a. an advocate
b. a mediator
c. an educator
d. an enabler
100. The CO worker employs this strategy for fast-track, learning designed for indigenous leaders' training
for community development and leadership roles.
a. Lobbying
b. Formal study
c. Use of field trips
d. Use of experiential learning in training
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101. This technique is the process of looking into the causes of the problem and their effects on those
affected by it.
a. Situation analysis
b. Problem analysis
c. Use of conflict
d. None of the above
102. This may be included as the fourth strategy of social action wherein interest groups attend committee
meeting of the legislative bodies and the legislative sessions itself to show support of or protests against
the passage of certain bills or some of its offending provisions
a. Social brokerage
b. Lobbying
c. Use of integrative mechanisms to strengthen organization
d. Social protests to support social movements
103. Social problems are generally interrelated and solutions are oftentimes:
a. dependent
b. inter-dependent
c. dynamic
d. interrelated
104. All, except one, are knowledge which should be possessed by the CO worker in dealing with this
community.
a. situation analysis
b. research
c. use of inter-group relationship
d. administration
105. The following are the skills required of the CO worker working in this community except one
a. budgeting
b. leadership
c. working with people
d. organizing
Situation No. 3
Three months after their transfer, the
relocated squatters in their relocation site received
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their contracts to buy their ready-made one-room concrete homes. The homes will be paid on installment
basis for a period of five years. One family beneficiary discovered that the contract clause stipulated that
"failure on the part of the tenant to pay monthly amortization for six months will be a basis for automatic
ejection from their homes. This part of the contract was considered unfair and threatening since they learned
about it only after three months and they only have three months left to re-establish themselves and get new
jobs, not to mention the added expenses on their part for transportation fare to their old places of work. The
concerned residents brought up this problem to the attention of the CO worker.
The CO worker met with the other residents of the relocation site to assess if they had shared perceptions
and reactions to the same problem. Finding out that this is a shared problem, he contacted the housing
authority official in-charge of the project. The CO worker presented the residents' dilemma and explored how
the housing agency could modify the terms of the contract to make it more realistic and within the capability
of the newly relocated squatters. The housing authority in turn presented a counter proposal, which the CO
worker took back to the residents for approval. The negotiations between the residents and the housing
authorities, with the help of the CO worker, went on until satisfactory compromise was forged.
106. What role/s did the CO worker plays?
a. Negotiator
b. Broker
c. a and b
d. Facilitator
107. What CO model was used in this case?
a. Locality Development
b. Social Planning
c. Social Action
d. none of the above
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108. Communities have informal, formal and societal resource systems. What are the informal resource
systems of the community?
a. Family members, other residents and neighbors
b. Social worker and his agency
c. Housing authority
d. Legal system
109. The social worker and his organization exemplify:
a. informal resource
b. formal resource
c. societal resource
d. none of the above
110. This phase of the process signals that the CP and CDW are already prepared to work together as
partners in development.
a. Immersion with the people
b. CO proper
c. Entry into the community
d. Phase-over
111. This kind of approach argues that communities can be brought back to life if local assets, rather than
local needs, become the focus.
a. Problem-focused approach
b. Resource-focused approach
c. Asset-focused approach
d. Solution-focused approach
112. It is an integral part of the development and change processes where interconnectivity of its various
critical elements and evaluation are see from the contributive rather than attributive view.
a. Capacity development
b. Capacity-building
c. Social praxis
d. Core group formation
113. The ability to engage the people in the process of individual and collective discovery of their realities,
visioning, planning, taking appropriate action, evaluation and reflection
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a. Pakikisangkot
b. Pakikiramdam
c. Pakikialam
d. All of the above
114. This is a tool for problem-solving derived from the work of Kurt Lewin's Field theory of social change. It
is a process of identifying the dimensions of a problem and determining the strategies for solving it.
a. SWOT analysis
b. Force Field Analysis
c. Participatory Rural appraisal
d. Appreciative Planning and action
115. This is an organizational methodology that follows the 4-D Cycle of Discovery, Dream/Visioning,
Design/Planning and Destiny/delivery.
a. SWOT analysis
b. Force Field Analysis
c. Participatory Rural appraisal
d. Appreciative Planning and action
116. It serves as concrete basis for the people to come up with their plan of action designed to transform
their realities.
a. Stakeholders analysis
b. Validated community profile
c. Operational community profile
d. Participatory rural appraisal
117. The ability to enable the people to develop a sense of ownership of their development programs and
internalize the values and philosophy of community development.
a. Pakikisangkot
b. Pakikiramdam
c. Pakikialam
d. All of the above
118. Ocular survey is a requirement before one may engage in organizing people. This is usually conducted
at what stage of the CO process?
a. Pre-helping phase
b. Helping phase
c. Problem-solving phase
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d. Middle phase
119. The idea behind the formation and training of core groups in the community.
a. To have an elite group that could handle situations in the community
b. Formation of partners who can help worker in reaching out to other members of the community
c. Prepare a group that can later on be
tapped for the implementation of
community projects
d. Formation of groups to be the partners of the barangay officials in solving crimes in the community
120. The different methods of data gathering you
can use to validate or get additional information
are:
a. Use instruments, observation, collateral information, community meetings and assemblies
b. Objective setting, contract of setting
success of indicator formulation
c. Arousing community awareness, developing community interest, giving information
d. Programming, budgeting, scheduling
121. The 4 levels of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) that companies do in response to the social and
developmental issues and crises are all of the following except.
a. Resource transfer
b. Business/industry practices
c. Business relations
d. Business opportunity
122. The fundamental principle that underlie the concern and involvement of the corporation in the
development of their employees and/or the families and communities.
a. Business social responsibility
b. Corporate social responsibility
c. Christian responsibility
d. Developmental responsibility
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123. The convergence of the following became instrumental to the People Power 2 except.
a. Civil society
b. The Church
c. The Military
d. Fraternities
124. A development approach which is founded on the conviction that each and every human being, by
virtue of being human, is a holder of rights.
a. Rights -based approach
b. Human dignity
c. Issue based approach
d. Ethical approach
125. The pooling together of the NGOs, Pos and the GOs to complement each other in development work.
a. Convergence
b. Association
c. Tripartism
d. Civil union
126. The process of planning, implementing, and monitoring sustainable uses of coastal resources through
participation, collective action, and sound decision making
a. Coastal resource management
b. Participatory resource management
c. Coastal project management
d. Coastal project monitoring and management
127. The key to success in any community project
a. Funds
b. Clarity of objectives
c. People's active participation
d. Project proposal
128. The process of making the people aware of the social conditions affecting their lives
a. Counselling
b. Conscientization
c. Monitoring
d. Empowerment
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129. Anything regarded as necessary in the carrying out of one's occupation or profession
a. Approaches
b. Skill
c. Method
d. Tool
130. Goals concerned with concrete tasks, undertaken in order to meet specific problems
a. Process
b. Relationship
c. Task
d. Developmental
131. Authored the book, Pedagogy of the
Oppressed which conveys the problem faced by the oppressed people and how culture of silence is
developed.
a. Saul Alinsky
b. Joseph Biden
c. Paolo Freire
d. Martin Luther King
132. These are the elements of Social Work
Practice as applied to Community Organization except:
a. networking
b. value
c. knowledge
d. purpose
e. sanction
f. method
Choices:
A. abcdef B. bcdef
C. cdef D. acdef
133. The following is not identified as a
community organizer
a. Saul Alinsky
b. Paolo Freire
c. Murray Ross
d. Robert Vinter
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134. This is the distinctive way of doing community organization that is of working to achieve task, process
or relationship.
a. Method
b. Style
c. Technique
d. Strategy
135. The federation of urban poor community groups based on relocation sites and areas for demolition
established in 1970 and considered to be the oldest urban poor organization in the Philippines
a. Davao Urban Poor Organization
b. Zone One Tondo Organization
c. Samahan ng mga Maralitang
Mamayan ng Maynila
d. Ugnayan ng mga Biktima ng Demolisyon
136. The origin of the C.O. as a method can be traced to the influence of this organization
a. YWCA
b. Ladies of Charity
c. Charity Organization Society
d. US Association of Charities
137. The main goal of community organization is
to the people
a. Create awareness
b. Empower
c. Serve
d. Brainwash
138. Maintenance of the peace and order in the community is handled by the police force. Its present PNP
Director is
a. Gen. Alan Purisima
b. Gen. Arthur Yap
c. Gen. Jaime Yap
d. Gen. Hilario Jose
139. This approach refers to the physical attributes of the community and how these affect man's
interaction with his social environment
a. Structural
b. Ecological
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c. Cultural
d. Normative
140. The worker's proficiency or ability to accomplish something and is concerned primarily with doing
rather than with either knowing or feeling
a. Approach
b. Technique
c. Skill
d. Tool
141. The heart and soul of community organizing is
a. Community assemblies
b. People in the community
c. Training
d. Business organization
142. This is the public promotion of a cause, measure or objective in an effort to obtain support or official
action
a. Locality development
b. Social action
c. Social planning
d. Community development
143. Most common and most practical methods of data gathering
a. Chatting and storytelling
b. Drinking sessions with people in the community
c. Attending social and political meeting
d. Record analysis, observations in the community meetings and collateral information
144. When the company has been organized into a union, the terms and conditions of employment, wages,
hours, holidays, pensions, medical benefits, insurance are determined in negotiations between the union
and the employer and are set down in a formal contract.
a. Terms of reference
b. Negotiation
c. Conflict resolution
d. Collective bargaining
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145. Work stoppage for a long time may result to bankrupt employers for their transfer to another location,
reduce laborers to destitution, seriously inconvenience the general a public
a. Rest and recreation
b. Negotiation
c. Strike
d. Arbitration
146. To remedy the weakness of the individual employee compared to the power of the large corporation,
the laborers combine themselves into a
a) Cooperative
b) Union
c) Association
d) Organization
147. A learning process that enables individual and organizations to generate and apply strategies designed
to accomplish individual and or institutional objectives
a. Social learning
b. Capacity development or capacity building
c. Organizational development
d. Strategic development
148. It was created by President Ramon Magsaysay in 1956 which implemented the UN concept of
community development in the Philippines
a. Ministry of Human settlements
b. Presidential Assistance on Community Development
c. Department of local government
d. Department of Social Welfare
149. Community Organization as a method of intervention looks at the community as its
a. Problem
b. Social entity
c. Client or target
d. Solution
150. Refers to the population who have a common interest in changing existing institutions to their
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advantage in order to achieve redistribution of opportunity, resources and benefits
a. Poor, deprived & oppressed groups
b. Lobby groups
c. Cause-oriented groups
d. Relevant groups
151. May be considered as all the people in a specific village, town neighborhood, district, area, city,
metropolitan region, state, province, territory, nations of the world
a. Social community
b. Geographic community
c. Organization
d. Global community
152. The essence of community organizing
a. Mobilization
b. Pro-active action
c. People's participation
d. Social action
153. Refers to a group of people gathered together in any geographic area, large or small who have
common interests, actual or potentially recognized in the social welfare
a. Association
b. Community
c. Club
d. Territory
154. Consists of various method of intervention whereby a professional change agent helps a community
action system composed of individuals, groups, or organizations to engage in planned collective action in
order to deal with social problems within a democratic system of values
a. Strategy
b. Tactics
c. Community organizing
d. Planned social change
155. Focus on changing certain types of social relationships especially decision making patterns in a
community
a. Relationship goal
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b. Community work
c. Task goal
d. Community based goal
156. When a worker improves a client's psycho social functioning by inducing some changes in his attitudes
and behavior, he is playing the role of
a. Enabler
b. Catalyst
c. Change agent
d. Mediator
157. Based on the assumption of consensus or common base of values and interest among the parties in
disagreement and those agreements can be obtained by overcoming poor communication, misinformation
and inaction is called?
a. Consensus building
b. Decision building
c. Collaborative strategy
d. Memo of agreement
158. For social workers, People Power may be considered as a form of
a. Political action
b. Pressure group
c. Mediator
d. Social action
159. The CO worker uses this strategy by helping create new centers of power in communities where
leadership is indifferent and ineffective
a. Management of power
b. Power relations
c. People power
d. Power grab
160. An effective strategy in enabling the community to be self-reliant and self-managed community
a. Information technology
b. Economic development
c. Public relations
d. Training of leaders for their role functions
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161. A strategy employed when a problem threatens to be explosive or disruptive & is diffused through the CO
worker's interventions as a broker with the involvement of relevant groups & individuals who can help
diffuse a crisis situation
a. Social brokerage
b. Diffusing strategy
c. Brokerage strategy
d. Broker
162. This is not a model of community organization
a. Locality development
b. Social Structuring
c. Social Action
d. Social Planning
163. It is applicable when the people are not in agreement on how an issue should be resolve. It employs
educating, persuading & pressuring the recalcitrant into agreeing with a group's proposed strategy/
solution to a major issue or problem in the community.
a. Force field
b. Reinforcement strategy
c. Campaign strategy
d. Advocacy
164. Interest groups attend committee meetings of the legislative bodies & the legislative sessions itself to
show support of or protests against the passage of certain bills or some of its offending provisions
a. Legal action
b. Legislative meeting
c. Lobbying
d. Voting
165. An effective strategy for lack of manpower & resources
a. Manpower development
b. Skills training
c. Human resource development
d. Use of volunteers
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166. A strategy for fast track learning designed for indigenous leaders training for community development
and leadership roles
a. Use of field trips
b. Indigenous training
c. Manpower skills training
d. Leadership training
167. Selection of Community Organizing model is determined by
a. Worker's preference
b. Nature of the problem
c. Availability or resources
d. Consultant's choice
168. This community organization approach is used to develop the capacity of people to plan, solve
problems and make decisions by working through the smallest unit of political structure
a. Participatory approach
b. BEC approach
c. Baranganic approach
d. Team approach
169. The procedure used by the social worker to achieve a goal is
a. Approach
b. Skill
c. Method
d. Strategy
170. "Ugnayan" is an example of an indigenous
a. Inter-disciplinary approach
b. Skill
c. Method
d. Strategy
171. Planning of solutions or treatment planning has these following components
a. System analysis, resource analysis, task analysis
b. Plan, logistics, main stakeholders
c. Objective setting, contract setting, formulation of success indicators
d. Plan, logistics, setting, contracting
172. Community work may be used interchangeably with
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a. Community chest
b. Planning
c. Community organization
d. Social action
173. Proponent of the Social Action model of community organization
a. Walter Freidlander
b. Saul Alinsky
c. Helen Perlman
d. Arthur Dunham
174. When whole communities affected by natural or man-made disasters are being transferred to new
town sites or resettlement areas, what activities are undertaken by the co-workers prior to the transfer
a. Social integration
b. Community assembly
c. Emergency relief
d. Social preparation
175. Its essence is the dearth of resources. Refers to the clash between contradictory impulses or 2 or more
incompatible motive
a. Hostility
b. Competition
c. Conflict
d. Violence
176. When disadvantaged sectors such as the urban poor, tenant farmers, marginal fisher folks, etc. band
together and organize, their groups is called?
a. An NGO
b. People's Organization
c. LGU
d. Civic Organization
177. Which of the following would you consider an NGO?
a) San Miguel Corporation
b) Couples for Christ
c) KMU
d) PBSP
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178. Cause-oriented groups and street
parliamentarians were instrumental in People Power 1 phenomenon
a. JAJA / ATOM
b. Gabriela/ Bayan Muna
c. Cooperatives
d. TUCP
179. Barangay Council for the Protection of Children is a group organized for child surveillance. It represents a
a. Community structure
b. People's organization
c. Community organization
d. Pressure group
180. Duly elected representatives of the marginalized groups in the Philippine congress are called
a. Sectoral representatives
b. Marginalized representatives
c. Party list representatives
d. Political representatives
181. Linking organizations, institutions and
individuals for a common good
a. Chain building
b. Networking
c. Organizing
d. People power
182. Viewed as a unifying factor in the
development of the community since it motivates people to tackle a common problem
a. Project
b. Discontent
c. The agency
d. Democratic system
183. Building the capacity of women as co-equal
being of men
a. Training
b. Compelling
c. Empowerment
d. Embattlement
184. The last phase of community organization
a. Termination phase
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b. Phase-out
c. Evaluation phase
d. Needs assessment phase
185. A joint fund raising for private voluntary social welfare is known as
a. Bingo socials
b. Community chest
c. Number games
d. Lotto games
186. During the worker's initial entry to the community, the organizer needs to
a. To conduct community meeting
b. Pay a courtesy call to the brgy captain
c. Keep quiet and observe the community
d. Start interviewing the people
187. Matching social welfare resources and social welfare needs within a geographical area
a. Linkaging
b. Problem-solving
c. Matching
d. Organizing
188. Organizing evacuees in evacuation centers for self-management
a. Disaster preparedness
b. Self-determination
c. Capability-building
d. Self-reliance
189. A mitigating measure that helps protect communities
a. Training
b. Education
c. Disaster preparedness
d. Training
190. Protest against oil price hike is an example of
a. Subversion
b. Social disturbance
c. Social action strategy
d. Social diversion
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191. Concerned with meeting specific needs and accomplishing concrete objectives
a. Intervention
b. Process goal
c. Relationship goal
d. Task goal
192. An indicator of successful community organizing
a. Well accepted organizer
b. Increased integration of community life
c. Increasing number of leaders
d. Successful livelihood
193. Translating social goals into programs and services
a. Community development
b. Social action
c. Locality development
d. Social planning
194. Stimulate interaction when used in data- gathering
a. Games
b. Role playing
c. Interview guide
d. Questionnaire
195. Derived by the social worker from his relationship with the leaders and community
a. Negotiated sanction
b. Public relations
c. Official sanction
d. Rapport
196. In practice, it is interwoven in various terms with negotiation, and procedural social action as part of
the over-all promotional strategy of the group
a. Pakiusapan
b. Legislation
c. Communication
d. Direct action
197. Refers to communicating or carrying on dealing with a view to coming to terms
a. Negotiation
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b. Chatting
c. Conference
d. Dialogue
198. It means informal group discussion by 3 or more persons, with the object of carrying an open-minded
exploration and usually achieving consensus or integration of thinking on a subject or problem
a. Discussion
b. Conference
c. Trialogue
d. Conference
199. Making representative with a municipal council to modify an ordinance that is advantageous to
majority of the social worker's clients
a. Paternalism
b. Advocacy
c. Politicking
d. Personal intervention
200. A private institution that consolidates and assumes fund raising activities for several welfare agencies
into an organized and concerted effort
a. PAGCOR
b. NEDA
C. PBSP
d. Community Chest
201. An indigenous social work approach that develops the barangay's capability for problem solving and
development
a. Bayanihan
b. Damayan
c. Baranganic
d. Paluwagan
202. Appointed or elected officials in a barangay are
a. Informal leaders
b. Formal leaders
c. Council of leaders
d. Herbolarios
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203. Refers to people's knowledge of the existing community conditions and what they can do about this.
a. Community integration
b. Wisdom of the people
c. People's will
d. Community awareness
204. A group of evacuees are agitating for permanent settlement. They organized a rally in Mendiola
a. Social action strategy
b. Community mobilization
c. Negotiation
d. Strike
205. Implies a resolution of conflict by the parties themselves but with the aid of a neutral conciliator or
mediator
a. Avoidance
b. Conciliation
c. Negotiation
d. Diffusion
206. a type of research identified with
community organizing
a. Qualitative participatory research
b. participatory action research
c. organizational research
d. empirical research
207. The and object and subject of all development initiatives
a. Economy
b. People
c. Policy change
d. Politics
208. The release of the innate potentials of the people
a. Empowerment
b. Human resource development
c. Freedom
d. People power
209. It means the system whereby power and resources are controlled by a very small number will have to
be changed so that the creative &
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productive potentials of the people can be released because such system only serves to intensify & generate
the problem of poverty, making it impossible for the masses to meet their basic needs & live in dignity.
a. Liberal change
b. Revolution
c. Structural change
d. Reform
210. One very important task of stimulating, motivating & assisting people to become active partners in
planned change, focusing on the full participation of the people in any effort/decision that will affect their
lives
a. Mobilizing people
b. Relief giving
c. Role playing
d. Lending
211. It assumes that worker & client have equal & legitimate expertise, that is, knowledge & skills that can
be utilized for the tasks required for problem solving.
a. Worker-client relationship
b. equality
c. power-shared relationship
d. problem solving relationship
212. It involves merging the energy of the individuals into a whole which provides an opportunity for
support, consciousness raising, mutual aid, developing skills & action on behalf of the whole
a. Collectivity
b. Conscientization
c. Synergy
d. Interfacing
213. A strategy to gather accurate information representative of the needs of a community and which
establishes the essential foundation for vital planning
a. Social planning
b. Community needs assessment
c. Evaluation
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d. Consensus sharing
214. A type of community within an ecclesiastical or civil territory
a. Sectoral
b. Functional
c. Tribal
d. Geographical
215. A technique where information is gathered from a representative sample of community residents
about issues affecting their well-being.
a. Key informant approach
b. focus group interview
c. community forum
d. community attitude survey approach
216. The counterpart to needs assessment
a. Observation
b. Evaluation
c. Immersion seeking
d. Strategic planning
217. Public meetings for invited people to express opinions about problems and needs.
a. Survey
b. Fora
c. Focus group
d. People's evaluation
218. SWOT analysis is a broad spectrum of the most internal function performed during the strategic
planning process. This means
a. Surveying, willingness, outcome, timing
b. Stimulus, wanting, overcoming, tilting
c. Strength, weakness, opportunity, threats
d. Survey, welfaring, opposing, togetherness
219. The community organizer monitors the
progress of the community by
a. Terminating the community as
he/she may deem it right
b. Keeping abreast with its
developmental direction
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c. Evaluating the effectiveness of changes, strategies and intervention
d. Guiding them toward goal attainment
220. The CO organizer to be effective in the community she, he must be familiar with its
a. Demography and geography
b. Attitude/values
c. Relationship
d. All of the above
221. This is not a principle in community organization
a. Leadership is rooted in the formal leaders
b. Moves towards goal of self-financing and recognizes a democratic society
c. Program should arise out of the local people's participation
d. All of the above
222. The "conscientization model" of social action speaks of
a. Education
b. Sensitizing
c. Empowerment
d. Rebellion
223. When people begin to "share their grievances" which of the ff. conditions that increase participation in
social action has occurred
a. Recruiting members
b. Intensification of dissent
c. Conduct meetings
d. Identity mediation
224. The term "social action" was used for the first time in social work by
a. Mary Richmond
b. Gisela Konopka
c. Arthur Dunham
d. Saul Alinsky
225. In community development the word "jack of all trades and master of none" is a title given to
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a. Supervisors
b. Officers
c. Politicians
d. Community organizers
226. This leader epitomized the so called active non-violence or passive resistance (ahimsa) movement in
mobilizing people fighting for their rights
a. Paolo Freire
b. Martin Luther King
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Saul Alinsky
227. The conflict theory was initiated by
a. Joseph Stalin
b. Mao Tse Tung
c. Karl Marx
d. Thomas Hobbes
228. Social planning involves this important
element
a. Resource mobilization
b. Use of volunteers
c. Participation of key players
d. Multi-sectoral planning
229. Which among the following are the elements
of social work practice as they apply to
community organization?
a. Value
b. Purpose
c. Knowledge
d. Sanction
e. Method
Choices:
A. abcde C. bed
B. acdeD. ade
230. The following are the assumptions and presumptions in the practice of community organization which
seeks to realize the primary and ultimate values, except?
a. Readiness to change which affects the potential and the rate of
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community change obtainable at any given time
b. Social welfare provisions services and programs can enhance human welfare and prevent and reduce
social ills
c. A recognition of the diversity of groups and organizations with different emphasis on community welfare.
d. Skills in participating in a democratic process can be taught and learned by individuals and groups
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Answer Key
1. A 41. D 81. C 121. A 161. D
2. D 42. A 82. C 122. B 162. B
3. B 43. A 83. B 123. D 163. C
4. C 44. C 84. D 124. A 164. C
5. C 45. B 85. B 125. C 165. D
6. B 46. B 86. C 126. A 166. A
7. B 47. C 87. A 127. C 167. B
8. C 48. A 88. C 128. B 168. C
9. B 49. B 89. D 129. D 169. D
10. B 50. A 90. A 130. C 170. D
11. A 51. B 91. A 131. C 171. C
12. A 52. A 92. D 132. B 172. C
13. A 53. C 93. C 133. D 173. B
14. B 54. A 94. C 134. D 174. D
15. A 55. B 95. A 135. B 175. B
16. A 56. A 96. B 136. C 176. B
17. A 57. A 97. C 137. B 177. D
18. A 58. B 98. D 138. A 178. B
19. C 59. C 99. A 139. B 179. A
20. B 60. A 100. C 140. C 180. C
21. B 61. B 101. B 141. B 181. B
22. A 62. A 102. B 142. B 182. B
23. D 63. A 103. B 143. D 183. C
24. C 64. C 104. D 144. D 184. A
25. B 65. B 105. A 145. C 185. A
26. D 66. A 106. A 146. B 186. B
27. A 67. A 107. C 147. B 187. A
28. C 68. D 108. A 148. B 188. C
29. A 69. B 109. A 149. C 189. C
30. B 70. B 110. B 150. C 190. C
31. D 71. C 111. C 151. B 191. D
32. C 72. A 112. A 152. C 192. B
33. D 73. D 113. C 153. B 193. D
34. A 74. B 114. B 154. C 194. C
35. C 75. D 115. D 155. A 195. A
36. B 76. A 116. C 156. B 196. D
37. B 77. C 117. A 157. C 197. D
38. A 78. A 118. A 158. D 198. A
39. D 79. B 119. C 159. A 199. B
40. A 80. D 120. A 160. D 200. D

500

201. C
202. B
203. D
204. A
205. B
206. B
207. B
208. A
209. C
210. A
211. C
212. C
213. B
214. D
215. B
216. B
217. B
218. C
219. C
220. D
221. A
222. A
223. B
224. A
225. D
226. C
227. C
228. D
229. A
230. C

501
ANSWER SHEET
502
ANSWER SHEET
503
ANSWER SHEET
504

Field Practice

1. You have scheduled an hour's time for an interview for a client, as it is almost time and you must go on to
your next client, the client suddenly begins to talk about what he/she believes to be a new problem. It
would be best for you to:
a. Conclude the interview and schedule another appointment with the client in the near future.
b. Allow the client to talk as much he / she needs and skip your next scheduled interview.
c. Tell your client that you have no more time to spend with her/him.
d. None of the above
2. You are meeting your client for the first time. The client has some questions about financial resources. You
observe your client exhibiting shaky and anxious behavior at this meeting, you should:
a. Confront the client and tell him/her that he/she behaving strangely
b. Ignore the behavior and answer the question to avoid offending her/him
c. Do a thorough assessment and once you have achieved a comfort level, ask the client how she/he is
feeling because she/he seems to be anxious.
d. None of the above
3. Assume that you are the social worker assigned in the alcoholism clinic; one of your clients appears for a
scheduled interview intoxicated or drunk. It would be best for you to:
a. Conduct a session completely devoted to the evils of drinking.
b. Cancel the interview and make another appointment for the client, and tell him that you cannot go on
with the session while he is drunk.
c. Recommend that he be referred for further psychological assistance because you are not able to help him.
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d. None of the above
4. One of your clients is an 18-year old unmarried pregnant woman who wants an abortion even though her
boyfriend encouraging her to have the child because he is going to marry her. She is confused and does
not know what to do. It would be best for you to:
a. Encourage the client to make up her mind and you will support her decision.
b. Lecture her emphasizing that it was her carelessness that causes her pregnancies.
c. Encourage her to listen to what her boyfriend wants her to do because he is offering to marry her.
d. All of the above
5. During the follow up interview session with a young female client, she suddenly interrupted you from
talking "stop all these professional stuff, let's talk about this like friends" it would be best for you to
respond by saying:
a. "our rules and regulations prohibit this"
b. We can be friends, but I will have to get you assigned to another social worker"
c. If we are friends, it would be difficult for me to help you as I should."
d. None of the above
6. On the basis of your interview with a male client you discovered that he is on probation having been
recently released from prison. You feel that it would be necessary for you to contact the client's probation
officer in order to secure additional information about the client. It would be best for you to contact the
probation officer after:
a. The counseling without the client consent.
b. The counseling only, with the client consent
c. Only is the client can present during the discussion.
d. None of the above
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7. During your first interview with the newly hospitalized client, she tells you of her son's absences from
school. She seems overly concerned with this matter. Your response would be:
a. This is your son's problem; your problem is more important at this point.
b. Has your son failed any subjects because of his absences?
c. Will this matter bother you during your hospitalization?
d. None of the above
8. In your interview with a battered woman who wants to leave her violent husband, as a social worker you
must be aware that:
a. The woman must be in great danger as men who are violent are often angry by the woman's effort to seek
outside help.
b. The husband must be contacted to help repair the relationship and reduce the level of violence.
c. Women often make false claims of abuse in order to improve their situation.
d. All of the above
9. Following your introduction to your new client which of the following questions is the most appropriate to
asks first?
a. Will you be having visitors today?
b. Are you single?
c. How can I help you?
d. None of the above
10. You can best clarify a statement made by the client during an interview by:
a. Asking the client to rephrase his or her statement.
b. Telling that the client that you do not understand what he or she is saying
c. Rephrasing the statement and asking the client if that is what he/she meant.
d. All of the above
11. In the midst of your interview a married client, ask if you are married, you should reply by:
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a. Stating in a friendly manner "you know we are here to talk about you" and then continue with your
question.
b. Tell the client that you are married and proceed to show him the picture of your spouse.
c. Share with him that you are having difficulties in your married life and you would rather not discuss it.
d. None of the above
12. You are social worker in a family agency, and a 13-year old boy mentions that is having suicidal thoughts.
You believe that it is serious. What should be done first?
a. Consult your supervisor
b. Respect the confidential relationship
between the caseworker and the adolescent boy.
c. Call the client's family after telling him that you are required to do.
d. None of the above
13. After you have introduced yourself to a new
client, she proceeds to give you a lengthy
introduction of herself: it would be best for you
in this instance to show concern by:
a. Making brief comments and asking
relevant question.
b. Making no comment so that the client not interrupted.
c. Interrupting frequently so that you may clear in your mind points you do not understand.
d. All of the above
14. You decided that it would be proper for you to refer one of your clients for a psychiatric help. He agrees to
cooperate but requested that you withhold in your report certain information that he be given you in
confidence. For you to include this information in your report to the psychiatrist without the client
permission would be:
a. Proper because the psychiatrist need this information
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b. Improper because you are violating the confidence
c. Proper because the client welfare of utmost important
d. None of the above
15. One of your client is a woman who had been severely beaten by her husband, is visibly upset and
embarrassed about relating detailed information concerning the beatings. It would be best for you to:
a. Put off your interview until such time that the husband can be present to his side of the story.
b. Insist that she tells you her entire story including the beatings.
c. Tell the woman that she did not need to tell you the detail about the beatings but ask her how you can
help her.
d. All of the above
16. One of your clients appears to be depressed over the fact that he has been ill over the period when his
wife and children were away. In this instance, it would be most appropriate for you to:
a. Tell the man that you would deal to this situation before and it works. Now find out what he feels about
taking the same approach.
b. Tell the man of your experience and show sympathy.
c. Tell the man of your experience and use the same approach.
d. None of the above
17. While working in the welfare agency, you received a call from an individual whom you do not know. The
person tells you that he has tried committing suicide by taking pills. You should:
a. Give him the phone number of a walk-in clinic
b. Take down his information and inform him that you would like to help him and
510
arrange for an emergency help immediately
c. Tell him to get into a cab and come over to meet with you for an appointment as soon as he can make it.
d. None of the above
18. As you enter the place of your employment, you see an elderly woman trip over the curb and fall to the
ground. What will you do?
a. Inform the administrator of the accident
b. Help the woman to her feet and walk her into the hospital where she can sit down
c. Stay with woman and caution her not to move until the help is available.
d. All of the above
19. You are assigned to a client whose problem seems typical to those many of your other clients. In this
situation it would be appropriate for you to:
a. Attempt to learn more about the client to ascertain if there are significant differences.
b. Discuss the matter with another social worker
c. Just handle the client as you do with your other client
d. All of the above
20. For clients beginning treatment, the primary focus of the social worker is:
a. Establish a warm relationship with the client
b. Gather information for a psychological disguise
c. Understand why the client is seeking help
d. All of the above
21. While conducting an interview with a new client, your mind wonders and you feel that you might have
miss something important details that your client has been telling you, at this point it should be best for
you to:
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a. Let the client continue and hope that he/she repeat that what she/he been saying
b. Tell the client to rephrase what he/she has been saying
c. Admit that you did not get part the client story and ask him/her to repeat it from the part you last
remember.
d. None of the above
22. One of your clients requires services from another city agency. The proper way to make this referral is:
a. Have the client execute release information and forward it to the agency with a summary of the client's
problem and request that an appointment be setup for him.
b. Telephone the agency and advise them that he is on his way
c. Write a referral letter for a client and bring it with him
d. None of the above
23. Because social workers are generally not trained psychiatrist, when encountering psychiatric problems in
the performance of their duties they should?
a. Ignore such problems because they are beyond the scope of their responsibilities
b. Inform the affected people that they recognize their problem personally but will take no official cognizance
of them.
c. Ask to be relieved to the cases in which these problems are met and recommend that they be assigned to
the psychiatrist.
d. None of the above
24. Umma Trauma, a 14-year old girl stops attending school and stays at home. The social worker has ruled
out school phobia and trauma as a reason. As a social worker you should:
a. Let the girl stays at home
b. Get a girl a tutor
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c. Explore her resistance and encourage her parents to urge the child to go back to school as soon as
possible.
d. None of the above
25. The man enters your office without an appointment and tells you that he is a close friend of your clients
who is a terminal cancer patient. He seats himself in a chair next to your desk. Your first remark to the man
would be:
a. You know that your friend is dying from a cancer?
b. May I help you?
c. Do you have a problem?
d. None of the above
26. During the interview, a curious client asks several questions about your private life. As a social worker you
should:
a. Refuse to answer the question
b. Answer the question fully
c. Explain that your primary concern is with her problems and that discussion of your personal affairs will not
be helpful in meeting their needs
d. Explain that it is the responsibility of the social worker to asks questions and not to answer them
27. You are working with the 15-year old student who is having difficulty both academically and behaviorally.
The student is distracted and overwhelmed by her studies and she is extremely negative over herself and
others. She is strongly resistant to meeting you would most likely to:
a. Recommend that she seek long-term therapy with a psychologist
b. Plan to meet with her on a short-term trial basis
c. Meet other student like herself
d. Make arrangement to meet with her on the long-term basis
28. Dennis De Belen is the third child of five children born to hardworking professional
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parents. Now that he is 8 years old, he experiences difficulties with his classmates who often tease him
because he refuses to speak Pilipino. He has gotten into trouble many times and his parents were called for
this. Both his two elder brothers do well in school, in fact they are scholars. Dennis' parents came from
Visayas. Which of these approaches will be more applicable in dealing with the situation?
a. Behavior Modification
b. Task Centered
c. Family Conference/Therapy
d. Counseling
29. In treating a client in crisis, the caseworker should focus on
a. The immediate presenting problem
b. A few specific problems in day-to-day functioning
c. a wide range of problems in day-to-day functioning
d. underlying personality problems
30. A social worker is interviewing a new patient who presents some symptoms of depression. The patient
reports recent changes such as diminished functioning, marked weight gain, early morning awakening,
fatigue, inability to concentrate, suicidal thoughts and headaches. The patient mentions that he started a
new medication for a medical condition three weeks ago. The worker would first
a. arrange a psychiatric consultation in order to have an anti-depressant prescribed
b. ascertain the prescribed medication and investigate its side-effects
c. proceed with a thorough psychosocial history and precipitating events
d. hospitalize this patient until the suicidal ideation passes
31. A social worker is utilizing environmental manipulation as a technique when he/she
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a. represents the agency at a health and welfare council meeting
b. uses a psychosocial framework
c. suggests the use of psychoactive medications
d. helps the client find more satisfying employment in a supportive environment
32. A diagnosis of Schizophreniform Disorder is generally applied to clients whose psychotic symptoms
a. are related to substance abuse
b. are very long term
c. show a marked and continuing decline in functioning
d. are similar to those of schizophrenia and have existed more than one month, but less than six months.
33. A 15-year old female patient at a mental health clinic complains that for the past three weeks she has been
uncharacteristically angry and irritable and has had difficulty concentrating on school work. She says that
she feels "down in the dumps". Her appetite has diminished and though weighing 120 pounds a month
earlier, she has lost 9 pounds. She has difficulty sleeping and has withdrawn from after school activities
that she had previously found interesting and enjoyable. During the interview she seems constantly in
motion, rising several times and walking around the room before returning to her chair. It is most likely
that she is suffering from
a. a drug induced depression
b. a somatoform disorder
c. a depressive episode
d. an adolescent behavior disorder
34. The policy of providing Permanency Planning refers to
a. children who are at risk of removal or are removed from their own homes
b. the development of a plan through which abused and neglected children will be
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assured of a stable family situation throughout childhood
c. a stable foster care plan for children removed from their homes
d. the use of adoption for children at risk
35. DSM IV permits certain diagnoses for mental disorders to be made, even though the diagnosis does not
totally fit DSM IV criterion. These diagnoses are normally modified by the word;
a. Revised
b. Provisional
c. Temporary
d. Latent
36. A social worker and his agency supervisor are sued for malpractice by the family of a teen age boy who
made several attempts at suicide and finally succeeded in killing himself. Which statement best reflects the
supervisor's legal status in this lawsuit?
a. Since the supervisor was not the direct clinician and had never personally treated the youth, she is not
liable for any negligent actions committed by others in the agency.
b. The supervisor shares vicarious legal liability and is responsible for carefully monitoring and evaluating the
status of every case under treatment by her supervisees, and for keeping records concerning the
supervisee's work on the case.
c. The agency is the only legally liable party and the workers are not individually responsible.
d. In cases such as these, parents often believe that a finding of negligence on the part of the clinician will
reduce their sense of loss and failure. The lawsuit is probably frivolous and neither the worker, nor the
supervisor is responsible.
37. A patient is present at an ambulatory care facility and is in obvious psychological distress,
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showing severe anxiety and paranoia. The clinician is unable to determine the exact configuration of the
patient's symptoms, but is certain that it is an Anxiety Disorder. The worker is unable to determine if the
disorder is primary, caused by the patient's severe kidney disease or related to other factors such as the
patient's continuing substance abuse. The most likely DSM IV diagnosis is;
a. Anxiety Disorder, with generalized anxiety
b. Anxiety Disorder, undifferentiated
c. Anxiety Disorder, NOS
d. Anxiety Disorder, provisional
38. A school social worker interviews a 15-year old male student with an IQ of 70. Though assigned to slower
classes, the student maintains social relationships and is able to respond appropriately to teachers and
class mates. His school work is within the range that would be expected for his recorded IQ. He can read
(somewhat below grade level) and is able to do very basic arithmetic. He is also able to follow instructions
and is generally amiable in responding to coaching and correction. In developing a plan with this student
and the family, the social worker would?
a. plan for eventual supervised residence in a facility for the mentally disabled
b. establish a plan that includes vocational preparation and that will eventually lead to independent living.
c. emphasize vocational achievement in the near term
d. provide coaching and tutoring to improve his reading
39. A DSM IV diagnosis of a specific disorder generally includes a criterion of
a. a clinically significant impairment, or distress in a social, occupational, or other important area.
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b. a description that includes an identifiable etiology
c. distress that exceeds 6 weeks
d. no medical involvement
40. A DSM IV diagnosis
a. provides sufficient information for developing a treatment plan
b. ends the treatment planning process
c. is insufficient by itself for treatment planning
d. is an early or intermediate step in the treatment planning process.
41. A DSM IV diagnosis often includes a specifier or suffix to delineate the severity of the disorder. The usual
specifier is
a. mild, moderate or severe
b. in partial remission
c. in full remission
d. prior history
42. A client begins treatment with a social worker and tells the social worker that he must promise never to
involuntarily hospitalize him no matter how depressed or suicidal he may seem. The underlying ethical
principle that determines the social worker's response is?
a. The obligation to start where the client is
b. The expectation that the client has good reasons to raise this issue.
c. The need to do what is necessary to keep a severely ill client from ending treatment.
d. Never to make a promise that is in conflict with legal and ethical requirements.
43. A social worker who attempts to impose her judgments on clients is most likely to elicit clients'
a. Acquiescence
b. Cooperation
c. Resistance
d. Appreciation
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44. In a first interview, a worker observes that the client moves slowly, with stooped posture, talks slowly and
in a lifeless way, lacks spontaneity, and shows little change in facial expression as they discuss the client's
problem. The worker would most likely suspect?
a. Depression
b. a manic stage
c. anxiety
d. delusional thinking
45. In a first session at an HMO mental health clinic with a couple who want to address marital problems, the
wife complains that the biggest problem in their marriage is the husband's nasty temper. The worker's
best response is
a. can you tell me more about this problem?
b. have you done anything that might provoke his anger?
c. at our session today he doesn't seem to have a problem with self-control
d. to ask the husband if he wishes to discuss his problems with his temper
46. A social worker at a health center is working with a young adolescent group concerned with drug and
alcohol prevention. The social worker is uneasy about conflicts within the group and is fearful that they
may interfere with group process. The worker's supervisor might initially?
a. seek to delineate and resolve the worker's personal history with regard to conflict
b. communicate support, indicating that controversy and conflict may be normal and natural means for
resolving issues
c. inquire about the concerns of the worker and reflect back the issues without resolving them
d. suggest that the worker not reach any conclusions and bring in any issues which might arise
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47. Children who suffer physical, mental or emotional injuries inflicted by caretaking adults are commonly
termed
a. children of poverty
b. abused or neglected children
c. developmentally masochistic
d. victims
48. Under the Philippines state laws, mental health professionals must alert child welfare agencies or other
lawful authorities to
a. suspicion of child abuse
b. evidence of child sexual abuse
c. imminent threats to a child
d. child custody battles
49. A supervisor wants to observe a supervisee's client interview through a two-way mirror. Because the
supervisor is a professional staff member with overall responsibility for all cases in treatment by staff, the
worker would
a. not need to obtain the client's informed consent since the observation's purpose is supervision
b. not have to obtain informed consent of the client, since such consent is given when clients sign a release
form for information at intake
c. have to obtain the client's informed consent on the observation and its use
d. have to obtain informed consent only if the session is to be recorded
50. A social worker is conducting a small counseling group. The members seem to have some difficulty in
beginning. A statement the worker would not make is
a. In what way can I help you to begin?
b. Who might like to begin?
c. It's sometimes difficult to begin
d. It seems hard to begin today
51. A hospital patient is referred to social services after she complains of insufficient money for food. After
talking with the patient, the worker's diagnosis is that the patient, although from a
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low income family, is not indigent. She seems to consistently have difficulties managing money and does not
appear to handle her funds appropriately. Her diet appears nutritionally adequate. The worker's most suitable
action would be to?
a. help the patient obtain assistance from a casework agency for help with money management
b. provide continuing casework treatment through the hospital social service department to insure that her
diet remains adequate
c. suggest to the patient that she apply to the public welfare agency to determine eligibility for public
assistance
d. reassure the patient that her income can be made to cover her essential needs
52. A social worker using a psychosocial casework approach is not likely to
a. consider the client-worker relationship to be a basic therapeutic tool
b. rely on psychiatric diagnostic- classifications
c. be concerned with the client's interaction with the environment
d. frequently use novel, unconventional treatments
53. The process of assessment is the task of the
a. social worker
b. client
c. social worker and the client
d. agency psychiatrist
54. Eight-year-old Gara Palan, on whose account her mother is receiving aid to dependent children, is a truant
from school. Disturbed by the course of events, her mother appears at the center and informs you, his/her
caseworker, that her efforts to stop Gara Palan's truancy have been unavailing. You should tell Gara
Palan's mother that
521
a. The grant will be discontinued since Gara Palan's truancy is evidence of her failure as a parent.
b. She can be referred to a specialized agency in the community
c. You will institute court action to remove Johnny from his home environment
d. You will give her two months to straighten out the problem before taking further actions
55. A woman named, Umma Trauma, appears at your center and asks for advice on how she can remain at
home with her 3 children, ages 4, 7, and 10. She declares that her husband has been killed and she is
unable to manage on her old- age and survivor's insurance. Assuming the facts to be true as stated, the
caseworker should advise her
A. To apply for 4P's for her children to become beneficiaries
B. To try to find a job
C. To apply for more money under old-age and survivor's insurance
D. That there are no other public financial resources available in her case
56. From a mental hygiene point of view, good parental attitudes offers a child: (a) emotional security- a
feeling of stability, permanence and safety; (b) acceptance- a feeling of belonging and being welcome for
what he or she is being held only to a child's accountability for actions;
(c) freedom of experience- an environment that offers a child opportunities to try out his or her own
abilities, interests, ideas, and games; and
(d) the right to feel and to expressed feelings both of affection and aggression. According to the ideas
expressed in the paragraph
A. A family in which there is economic dependence cannot be good for children
B. Emotionally secure children do not have feelings of aggression
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C. Children should not be held accountable for their actions
D. Parental attitudes that are inadequate do not give the child feelings of belonging and freedom for
experience
57. A child was born out of wedlock to Ms. Miriam Sankwago and has been placed in a private foster home.
Ms. Sankwago is unable to pay anything toward the child's care. She asks about visiting her little girl. The
most desirable reply for the case worker to make in this situation would be that, Ms. Sankwago
A. Cannot visit the child because she would exert an adverse influence over her
B. Should not visit since she is not paying for the child's care
C. Should not visit because it will be difficult for the child to explain to her friends that her mother is
unmarried
D. Has the same right as any other mother to visit her child
58. The best thing to do with a problem child is to
A. Advise the parents to maintain strict discipline
B. Ask the police to watch the child
C. Put the child on probation
D. Follow an individual plan after analysis of the case
59. Mariah Carey-Carey, age 8, has many difficulties in life. Her father deserted when Mariah was 2 years old
and his whereabouts are unknown. Mariah's mother whom she loved dearly, died three months ago. Since
that time he has been living with her grandmother, who is old and ill, and cannot care for such an active
little girl. Together, the grandmother and you, the caseworker, have decided that placement in a foster
home is essential for Mariah's wellbeing. You know she will resist any change in his living arrangement.
According to acceptable casework practice with individuals and families,
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the best of the following methods for you to apply in this situation is to
A. Take the girl to her new home without telling her anything beforehand
B. Explain that it is necessary to move her and that she is going to a very nice place where she will be happy
and have many things she does not have now
C. Tell her you are sorry if she feels bad about it, but grown-ups know best what is good for her and she will
have to do what you say
D. Give the child a chance to get to know you before she is moved and to express her feelings in relation to
the plan being made for her
60. Suppose you, as a caseworker, are considering institutional care for several different types of children for
whom removal from present homes is indicated. Of the following, the type least suited for such care would
be
A. A child needing observation, study, and treatment for severe crippling condition
B. A 5-year-old boy who resents adult authority
C. A family of 6 brothers and sisters who are devoted to each other
D. A 3-year-old girl without any physical or mental disabilities whose mother is dead and whose father is
employed at night
61. Ms. Mimi Hasa is an 18-year-old client with 2 children. During your next meeting she informs you that she
may be pregnant. You should
A. Discuss safe sex practices with her
B. Discuss how she is going to manage her home and plan for this new baby
C. Tell her that you will report her to the authorities for neglect
D. Do nothing; it is none of your business
62. Child Welfare Services conduct programs that provide help for children apart from financial assistance and
education. This falls into several
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categories. In every category, it is fundamental that the focus be on the well-being of the child. All of the
following are significant people whose best interest are significant for the welfare of the child EXCEPT
A. Agency personnel and the courts
B. Abusive parents
C. Adoptive parents
D. Biological parents
63. The skill of the casework specialist in conducting the first interview with a client in a public assistance
agency is important because
A. The attitude of the client toward assistance may be observed at this time and his or her future reactions
determined
B. After the first interview, the client may compare notes with other clients and change his or her story
C. It may establish a mutual understanding between the client who expresses needs and the worker who
interprets the agency
D. If the worker is not skillful, the client may secure information about the agency policies that he or she may
use later or his or her own advantages
64. From the social work point of view, the most desirable requisite for a potential caseworker to have at the
outset is
A. A desire to return full value of the taxpayer's peso taxes
B. Knowledge of eligibility requirements for assistance
C. Understanding of the functions of the Department of Social Welfare and Development
D. A desire to help people work through their problems
65. Your client and his wife are quarreling continually. This is having a bad effect upon the children and causing
friction in the home. The
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husband has been unemployed for some time. You would
A. Arrest the client
B. Commit the children to institution
C. Determine the underlying cause
D. Cut off assistance
66. An anonymous letter was received by your office stating that one of your clients has several
unacknowledged children in good financial circumstance. You would
A. Cut off assistance immediately
B. Attempt to verify the information
C. Bring charges for refund
D. Trace the writer of the letter
67. An applicant for assistance moved about a great deal in Makati city since becoming a resident of
Philippines. His required time of residence is still questionable. You would
A. Refuse assistance because of nonresidence
B. Return him to his birth place
C. Make effort to verify his residence
D. Turn him over to the Transient Bureau
68. A member of client's family develops a definite mental condition. His presence in the home jeopardizes the
welfare of the family. You would
A. Call a police officer
B. Call an ambulance
C. Obtain a mental examination
D. Subdue him yourself if necessary
69. A client obtains work that last for two months at wages that are twice as much as his assistance allowance.
You would
A. Continue assistance
B. Cut-off assistance temporarily
C. Cut-off assistance permanently
D. Require a refund for benefits paid
70. A husband on assistance has an accident and is taken to the hospital. You would
A. Discontinue assistance because the hospital is taking care of him
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B. Increase assistance because if the situation
C. Adjust the family budget during his absence
D. Required married children to support the family
71. A family applies for assistance. The man was born in Ireland but he is a citizen of the Philippines. He is 66
years old and able to work but unemployed. You should
A. Refer him to the State Department of Labor Employment Division for work
B. Grant assistance because of need
C. Refer him for old-age assistance
D. Deny assistance on grounds that he is able to work
72. A client brings to his home the family of an unemployed married son from another region. He asks for
increased assistance to cover additional needs of the son's family. You would
A. Discontinue assistance because the client brought the family in without permission
B. Increase assistance to take care of additional needs
C. Communicate with the legal residence of the son's family for reimbursement of additional assistance
D. Bring charges against the son for trying indirectly to get assistance for a nonresident
73. You find that a client has withheld the information that he and his son won a piece of property jointly. Sale
of the property is pending and the client feels that his interests are being endangered. You would
A. Continue aid during the transaction
B. Discontinue aid because of fraudulent statements as to assets on the part of the client
C. Help the client protect his interest in the property so that reimbursement of the assistance grant is assured
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D. Make a claim on the property because aid granted
74. You find that an applicant has a war-connected disability for which he never though he could receive a
veteran's pension. He has the necessary papers to prove his war disability. He is in extreme need. You
would
A. Grant immediately assistance because of need
B. Transfer him to another center
C. Arrange for him to stay for lodging house until he finds work
D. Refer him to the Department of Veterans Affairs for assistance
75. A child of one of your clients develops tuberculosis of the lung and is rapidly getting worse. The welfare of
the entire family is thus endangered. You would
A. Increase assistance because of sickness
B. Discontinue assistance because of the health menace created
C. Arrange hospital care for the child
D. Send the child to a summer camp to get well
76. An applicant has previously been denied assistance because a son in the home was working. The son
marries and establishes an independent home. You would
A. Deny assistance because of the son's marriage
B. Grant assistance because of need
C. Force the son to support his parents
D. Make the parents live in their son's new home
77. You inform your client in the 4Ps that their assistance will be decreased. Your client threatens to kill you
the next time he receives his cash assistance. You would
A. Reason with him, pointing out the cause of your action
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B. Tell him you are not afraid of him and will be ready for him the next time you call, armed with a weapon of
protection
C. Bring the police officer with you the next time you visit his home
D. Discontinue assistance because of his threats
78. You find that a married brother of an applicant is reputed to be wealthy and able to support his brother.
You would
A. Deny assistance because the brother is able to support the applicant
B. Interview the brother and attempt to obtain help for the applicant
C. Bring action against the wealthy brother because his brother is liable to become a public charge
D. Grant assistance immediately because of need
79. Katy Payrin, a widow with a 17-year-old girl and 18-year-old boy applies for aid. There are rumors that she
has been supported by a boarder living in her home and the moral relationship is questioned. You would
A. Ascertain the facts and grant aid if warranted
B. Deny assistance because the boarder seems to be able to support the family
C. Refer the applicant to the Child Welfare for a widow's pension
D. Bring charges immediately against the mother for jeopardizing the moral of her children
80. Victoria Malihim (Victoria Secret), a client of yours, is a 55-year-old mother who is caring for her 2 children,
Rexona, a 5-year-old boy, and Nivea, a 10-year-old girl who is wheelchair- bound. You learn that Victoria
has developed a heart condition that will affect her ability to care for her children. You should
A. Refer her case to Office of the Solo Parents Affairs
529
B. Refer to her case to Child Protective Services so the agency can find Victoria a homemaker to help her to
care for her children in her home
C. Tell Victoria Malihim that she should keep this quiet because she could lose her benefits and her children
D. Refer Victoria Malihim for counseling to deal with this stressful situation
81. You learn from Mr. Greogorio Talahib (George Bush) that he is very stressed and has been abusing his 14-
year-old daughter for several months now. You should
A. Anonymously report him to Child Protective Services
B. Inform him that you are mandated reporter and explain to him that you will need to report him to Child
Protective Services
C. Help him get counseling
D. See if you can increase his financial grant so that his stress level will be reduced
82. Mr. Juanito Lakarin (Johnny Walker) is a 45- year-old man who is severely disabled, he is currently
receiving public assistance, and you learn during your most recent interview that he has taken on a part-
time job that is generating some income. You should
A. Discuss with him that this will affect his case, and tell him that you will need to close his case
B. Close his case immediately
C. Discuss his income with him and find out how long he has been receiving this income
D. Report him to the administration
83. Mamon Tulfo, your client with a disability is receiving disability payments, but you know she is able to
work. This client wants to take in 2 foster children, but this means she will have to give up her disability
payments. She is aware of this. You should
530
A. Call the foster-care agency and tell them that she is untrustworthy
B. Report this immediately to the fostercare agency
C. Ask her to discuss this matter in further detail and try to determine how she will manage financially
D. Allow her to make this decision to take in these foster children
84. You are outside of your office and you see Sinigangnam Style, your client, out at a local a store buying a
large amount of clothing in an expensive department store. You should
A. Address this with your client at your next meeting, and ask her how she plans to financially manage such a
large purchase
B. Call your client at home the next day and confront her
C. Stop the client in the store and question her about her purchase
D. Ignore the situation
85. When a client request that the Department of Social Welfare and Development take some action because
her unemployed husband is indifferent to her and unconcerned about the welfare of their children, the
caseworker should
A. Inform the husband that he will be cut of the grant id he does not change his attitude.
B. Advise the woman to separate and try to build a life apart from the husband
C. Tell the woman to appeal to the family court to have her husband ordered to spend his evenings at home
D. Suggest that the woman discuss this matter with a private family agency
86. Knowing that a client needs a period of rest and that another agency can arrange this, it would be the
responsibility of a caseworker to
A. Notify the client of his resources an suggest that he apply there if he wishes
to.
531
B. Try to make all the arrangements for the client, telling the other agency her or she knows all about the
client's situation and can supply information on him.
C. Tell the client that unless he applies to the other agency, he or she will do so for him
D. Tell the client he seems insufficiently interested in getting well enough to work and the Department of
Social Services may discontinue his assistance
87. One of your clients finds it necessary to be away from home for two weeks and arranges with her mother
to care for her children, for whom she receives an aid-to-dependent-children grant, without notifying your
department about this plan. You discover her absence, however, when making a periodic revisit to the
client's house. In view of these facts it would be most advisable to
A. Stop the grant immediately because you are unable to see the client at this time
B. Let the grant continue as the temporary planned because of the client does not affect her eligibility
C. Tell the client's mother that a recipient of aid to dependent children may not leave her children even for a
temporary aid
D. Order the client's mother to wire her return within two days or the grant will stop
88. Assuming that careful interpretation has been given but an applicant for public assistance refuses to
consent to the necessary procedures to establish his caseworker would be to
A. Do nothing further
B. Grant temporary aid in the hope that the applicant will change his mind
C. Try to ascertain why the applicant feels as he does but to respect his decision if he refuses to change his
mind
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D. Proceed to check on all the facts possible even though the applicant has not given his permission.
89. The best of the following reasons for which a public assistance agency should not insist on certain
standards of cleanliness as a factor in eligibility to receive public assistance is that it is generally
acknowledge that.
A. People have a right to decide how they will live, provided their mode of living does not hurt others
B. Standards of cleanliness vary so much among people as to make one standard impracticable.
C. A little dirt has never hurt anyone
D. It would take too much of the eligibility specialist's time to maintain a constant check on this factor.
90. Assume that Mr. Pim Paul applied for aid three weeks ago. As he had not yet received any assistance, he
comes to see the caseworker, claiming department neglect. A checkup on Mr. Pim Paul's status reveals
that his application has been active pending receipt of a reply from a former employer. When informed of
this contingency, Mr. Pim Paul offers to expedite matters by getting in touch with the employers himself.
The best way to handle this case would be to tell Mr. Pim Paul that
A. The determination of his eligibility is the responsibility of the caseworker alone.
B. It would help if he could hurry the reply
C. If he discusses this with the employer, the information will be invalidated
D. He should just go home and wait
91. Before beginning to demolish a slum area, the families concerned should be assisted, when necessary, in
moving. The families' social adjustment is more likely to be achieved, according to case work theory, if
families move to
533
A. A neighborhood chosen by the agency because the agency knows what is best for the families
B. A neighborhood chosen by professional social workers because social workers will choose a better
neighborhood
C. A neighborhood chosen by families themselves because people should be permitted to make their own
plans
D. A neighborhood chosen because relatives live nearby, since relative are always helpful
92. Boy Abundat, a 40-year-old unemployed carpenter, lost a leg in an accident five years ago. This is his first
application for public assistance. The least valid assumption for the caseworker to make prior to
investigation is that
A. He should be classified as permanently unemployable
B. He is receiving worker's compensation
C. Although disabled, he may do well in suitable employment
D. His physical handicap may limit his opportunities for employment.
93. When conducting a first interview with an international client who is applying for aid, the skill of the
caseworker is indicated by
A. Discussing the situation with the client without any particular consideration of his cultural background
B. Explain the client that he will probably find it difficult to get work because of the prejudices of English-
speaking person against persons from other countries
C. Utilizing his or her familiarity with the cultural background of the client in order to promote the purpose of
the interview
D. Explaining to the client how his cultural background affects his dependency.
94. It is important for the caseworker to realize that the use of authority is
534
A. Natural only to the aggressive person and that any of its manifestations should be avoided
B. Indicative of an assumption of power that the eligibility specialist should not hesitate to apply in all
instances
C. A necessary technique for the eligibility specialist to make the client conform to the agency policies
D. Inherent in the role of the social workers and he or she should be aware of its potential uses and abuses
95. Suppose a client whom you are investigating has barrowed 200 pesos in order to purchase an evening
gown for one of her children who is graduating from high school. She is planning to repay the loan at the
rate of 20 pesos a week, and presents verification of this transaction as well as the purchase. As a social
worker, you would be complying with the best case work principles by
A. Telling the client her grant will be reduced in view of her ability to manage on 20 pesos less each week
B. Telling the client that she must never do this again
C. Explaining to the client how her action will make it more difficult for the family to get along on her limited
grant
D. Suggesting that she return the dress and repay the barrowed money in this way
96. The best of the following principles to keep in mind in handling persons who come to social agencies is
that
A. Destitution is not the only reason for opening a case
B. Families of the same size should be given the same amount of relief regardless of the other factor
C. One can usually accomplish more by the use of authority than by suggestion and cooperation
535
D. persuasion by means of reasoning is always effective
97. Mr. Ne-Yo Zep, a widower with 3 children, has been receiving aid for about two months. The caseworker
noticed on a visit that the children had new clothing. Mr. Ne-Yo Zep explained that the clothing came from
an aunt in a distant city. He stated that the aunt could help regularly and asked that no contact be
established with her. Since the aunt was not legally responsible, the caseworker consented to this
arrangement. About two week later, the worker was told by the neighbor that Mr. Ne-Yo Zep was working
regularly. The neighbor did not know where Mr. Ne-Yo Zep was employed. The best of the following
procedures to follow is to
A. Go to Mr. Ne-Yo Zep at once and accuse him of concealing assets
B. Investigate the matter further before taking action
C. Cut the family off assistance without further investigation
D. Tell Mr. Ne-Yo Zep that the case worker
would never again believe anything he said and that other case workers would
be informed of Mr. Ne-Yo Zep's
unreliability
98. The Dimagiba family consists of a mother and
5 children. The father had disappeared five years before. The oldest boy, 17, unable to find work, is
considering leaving home to avoid becoming a burden to the family. The family owns its six-room home, and
rents out one room 600 pesos a month. Mrs. Dimagiba does day
work, but does not earn enough to cover
expenses. Her health is poor. A partial aid to dependent children allowance is granted. The best practice for
the case worker to follow in this case would be
A. Encourage the oldest boy in his plan to leave home
536
B. Determine whether the allowance should be increased to permit Mrs. Dimagiba to stay home
C. Get in touch with the neighbors to determine if Mr. Dimagiba has been seen recently
D. Urge the DSWD to grant the full allowance immediately
99. Mr. Bitter Ocampo was sent to prison in 2001 as a result of conviction for armed robbery. He will not be
eligible for parole until 2006. His former employer is giving the family small weekly allowance. The family
owns a home, but has heavy taxes to pay and interest on the mortgage. The family consist of 3 children,
none of whom is older than 16. No payments have been made since Mr. Bitter Ocampo left home and
there is no income, other than the employer's allowance. Dingdong Dentist, the second-oldest boy, is in
 the seventh grade in school and wants to go through high school. His IQ is 74. The family has lived in San
Jose, Occidental Mindoro for twenty-five years. The best of the following procedures is to
A. Refer Mrs. Ocampo to the AICS and Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program
B. Warn Mrs. Ocampo that the children may turn out to be like the father
C. Urge Bitter Ocampo to continue through high school
D. Use the agency's influence to get Mr. Bitter Ocampo paroled at once
100. A social services division was helping the family of Saleslady Gaga. The borrowed money from her
brother, James, helped to cut down the amount of aid the family received. A hospital dispensary worker
informed the investigator that James was receiving regular treatments for syphilis at the dispensary. The
disease was in a noninfectious stage, and the dispensary stated that the family was in no danger of
contracting the disease. James had asked the medical social
537
worker not to tell his sister of his condition because he feared that it would worry her. the best of the
following procedures for the caseworker to adopt is to
A. Initiate with the sister a discussion of the danger of syphilitic infection, permitting her to draw her own
discussion
B. Tell the sister about the brother's condition without telling her the source of the information
C. Leave the health matters of the man in the hands of the medical social worker
D. Question the sister about the morals of her brother
101. One of the deleterious effects of child labor from the social work point of view is that it inevitably
deprives the child of
A. Valuable discipline
B. Opportunities for play
C. A sense of responsibility
D. Opportunities for companionship
102. Aid to Dependent Children such as the
Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program is
premised upon the assumption that
A. Children are better off with their mothers under any circumstances
B. Children should not be removed from their homes because of poverty alone
C. Children should not be removed from
their homes because of behavior
problems alone
D. Children whose mothers work are generally neglected
103. The modern practice in the child care field recognize that the boarding care of children is desirable
A. At all times
B. Under no circumstances
C. Provided there is adequate supervision of the boarding house
D. In very few cases

538
104. The most widely accepted of the following principles of child welfare work is that
A. Foster homes in which children are placed should be, so far as practicable of the same religious persuasion
and culture as that of the child
B. No illegitimate child should ever be permitted to stay with her mother
C. It is important that prospective foster parents be far above the average in their social and economic status
D. No child should be placed with foster parents until arrangements have been completed for having the
foster parents adopt the child
105. It is generally agreed among psychologist that children need to have certain experiences to develop
into healthy, well-integrated adults. Of the following, which is most important to the development of the
pre-adolescent child?
A. That he or she lives in a good neighborhood
B. That he or she has a room of his or her own
C. That he or she has nice clothes
D. That he or she has the feeling that he or
she is loved and wanted by the parents
106. All of the following are involved in the nutritional assistance to Child Care Facilities EXCEPT
A. Department of Social Welfare and
Development
B. Purchasers and redistributors of food
C. Donors from local restaurants
D. Food and Nutritional Services
107. The licensing of facilities for children must meet all of the following EXCEPT
A. A solid recreational program that
addresses each physical need for development
B. Public health inspections
C. Sufficient staffing
539
D. Fire and safety controls
108. A significant result of doing a good job is that
A. The client will be grateful and tell others of the good service they have received
B. The functions of the agency will be interpreted to the community
C. The supervisor will give the worker a higher rating because the clients will never complain
D. The newspapers will give publicity to the program only if the work is well done
109. A son of your client secures work. You don't know any of the details. You would
A. Continue assistance as before
B. Cut off assistance immediately
C. Ascertain length of employment and wages
D. Summon the employer to court
110. When a client receives assistance, he or she
A. Gives up the right to manage in his or her own way
B. Is justified in assuming that he or she has proved eligible for assistance and to free to use the money
according to his or her best judgment
C. Is limited in spending the money only for expenditures itemized in the agency budget
D. Is obligated to keep an itemized list of experiment
111. "Expansion, succession, and mobility have played a part in determining the social characteristics of the
informal settling. The immigrant populations that have poured into the transitional zones of Philippine
cities have not sought the informal settling, have not created informal settlers, but have been forced by
their low economic status to live in the low rental dwellings created in these zones by the city's expansion.
The varieties of cultural backgrounds immigrant groups have brought with them have contributed to the
cultured confusion of the
540
informal settling." On the basis of this quotation, which of the following statements is least accurate?
a. As the population of a city expands and moves out of certain areas, these areas tend to change in
character.
b. Informal settlers have been created by the variety of immigrants' cultured backgrounds.
c. The low earnings of individuals have forced them into housing left behind in expansion process.
d. The cultured confusion of the slum
existed before the influx if immigrant.
112. "A general area in which unsanitary or
substandard housing conditions exist may include land, either improved or unimproved, and buildings or
improvements not in
themselves unsanitary or substandard. Demolition or rehabilitation of the latter may be necessary for effective
re-planning or reconstruction of the entire area." On the basis of this quotation, it would be most accurate to
state that
a. An area may be considered substandard from the housing viewpoint even though it contains some
acceptable housing.
b. In re-planning an entire area,little if any
consideration needs to be given to
buildings or improvements not in themselves unsanitary or substandard.
c. It is not easy determine the exact boundaries of slum areas.
d. Under existing law, only substandard dwelling quarters may actually be demolished.
113. The slum is not a grimy mass of brick and mortar that can be torn down and demolished: it is also a
way of living - a whole series of habits, attitudes and sentiments." On the basis of this quotation, it would
be most correct to state that
541
a. Demolition of substandard housing in slum areas will provide the basis for a new way of living
b. Desirable urban community life is menaced by the existence of social class forced into inferior housing and
living standards.
c. Substandard housing and inferior living conditions constitute social problems of first magnitude
d. The slum is imprinted in the lives of the people that occupy it - both adults and children
114. "There is urgent need to proceed as rapidly as possible with the revision of existing zoning regulations,
especially with regards to so-called 'unrestricted' districts. These districts, in which much current private
building activity is going on, are to all intents and purposes unzoned." If the revision to in this quotation
were to be places in effect, an immediate result would probably be that
a. Blighted areas would be saved and prevent from becoming slums
b. New industrial and business construction would have to conform to whatever regulations are set up
c. Slums would be eliminated
d. The unsightly and uneconomic mixture of land uses fund in many neighborhoods would disappear.
115. "The housing problem itself clearly is a consequence of lack of proper distribution of income and
wealth, unemployment and other economic factors." On the basis of this quotation, it would be most
correct to state that
a. Eradication of unemployment is the key to the housing problem
b. Good housing generally could be available for all if every family had adequate income
542
c. Proper distribution of housing is a basic factor in solving the housing problem
d. Slums are a direct result of the unavailability of acceptable housing
116. "Human society in a slum area is extremely mixed. A majority of the adults are self- respecting, law-
abiding working men and women in low paid or irregular occupations who want to bring their children up
right and have them on in the world. A smaller group has been pushed down from higher income level by
illness, accident, or incompetence." On the basis of the above quotation, it would be most accurate state
that
a. Adults earning good salaries should live in slums area
b. Children who are raised in slums areas are most likely to present problems of juvenile delinquency
c. Residents of slums areas includes adults who formerly had a higher income level
d. Self-respecting, law-abiding working men and women in low-paid occupations are as likely to be found in
slum area as anywhere else.
117. "A considerable body of substandard housing can be made acceptable by repairs and modernization.
For this reason and others, the volume of substandard housing is much greater than the volume
reasonably recommended by demolition. On the other hand, any slums clearance scheme will involve the
demolished. No locality large enough for neighborhood development is made up completely of housing
unfit for use." On the basis of the quotation, it would be most correct to say that
a. A combination of unsanitary conditions exists only in slum areas that need to be redeveloped
b. Clearing slums always involves demolition of some acceptable housing
543
c. Localities that need to be developed contain substandard housing only
d. Repairs and modernization are an acceptable substitute for development of a slum area
118. "Zoning ordinances have generally served a highly useful purposed in preserving neighborhoods
unspoiled for the greatest good of the greater number. Zoning has been a boon to families of moderate
means. The wealthy could always protect themselves by living in restricted districts or owning large estate.
Working people well enough off to live in new sections have been helped too, those in older sections very
little, those in slums not at all." On the basis of this quotation, it may properly be assumed that
a. Adequate zoning laws will, over a long period, rehabilitate slum areas
b. Business districts do not benefit from zoning laws
c. Homeowners need the protection afforded by zoning laws
d. New homes for families of moderate income can change the character of a decadent area.
119. "Complete absence of policy hampered the World War II housing program from the start. Operations
were again centralized in national government. As further appropriations were authorized, a dozen
uncoordinated national agencies began to scramble for a share of the purse. The completed for sites and
personnel and sometimes outbid one another. In one city, one agency actually blocked off another's
street." On the basis of this quotation it would be most correct to assume that
a. Appropriations for war housing reflected wartime rush and confusion
b. Centralized of national war-housing operations would have result in more coordinated program
544
c. Centralized authority can bring order out of chaos
d. Overlapping functions and operations of different bureaus led to inefficiency
120. "Tearing down informal settlers may be esthetically satisfying and emotionally soothing but it does not,
of itself, improve the housing conditions of low income families. Slum clearance tends to impose additional
hardship on tenants and does nothing to remedy the underlying condition." On the basis of the above
quotation it would be most correct to state that
a. Healthful decent housing for low-income families implies the demotion of informal settlers
b. Healthful decent housing within the means of low-income families must be provided before informal
settlers can be thrown down
c. Low-income families must be forced to live in slum areas
d. Slum clearance is a necessary preliminary to improving housing conditions of low-income families
121. "More damage has been done to the health of children of the Philippines by a sense of chronic
inferiority due to consciousness of life in substandard dwellings than by all the defective plumbing those
dwelling may contain." Of the following, the most reasonable conclusion that may be drawn from this
statement is that
a. Esthetic satisfaction in the home and its surroundings has some bearing on the physical well-being of the
children
b. Normal physical and mental development is not possible when children are conscious of the substandard
nature of their homes
c. Psychiatric treatment is a necessary component of the adjustment of the children of slum families after
transfer to public housing project
545
d. The replacement of defective plumbing can have little effect on the health of children in slum areas.
122. "Across the years, our social sense has decreed that every position of social leadership, every place of
influence, every concentration of social power in the hands of an individual, and every instrument or
agency that has aggregated to itself the power to affect the common welfare has become by that very fact
a social trust that must be administered for the common good. In our moral world, the social obligations of
power are real and inescapable." On the basis of this quotation, it would be most correct to state that
a. An individual engaged in private enterprise does not have the social responsibility of one who holds public
office
b. Social leadership carries with it the obligation to administer for the public good.
c. In our moral world, the abuse of power is real and inescapable
d. Social leadership depends upon the aggregation of power in the hands of an individual in an agency that
wields concentrated influence
123. "Personnel selection has been a critical problem for local housing authorities. The pool of qualified
worker trained in housing procedures is small and the colleges and universities have failed to grasp the
opportunity for enlarging it. While real estate experience makes a good background for management of a
housing project, many real estate people are deplorably lacking in understanding of social and
governmental problems. Social workers, on the other hand, are likely to be different in business
judgment." On the basis this quotation, it would be most accurate to state that
546
a. Colleges and universities have failed to train qualified workers for proficiency in housing procedures
b. Social workers are deficient in business judgment as related to the management of a housing project
c. Real estate experience makes a person a good manager of housing project
d. Local housing authorities have been critical of present methods of personnel selection
124. "The financing of housing represents two distinct forms of costs. One is the actual capital invested and
the other is the interest rate that is charged for the use of capital. In fixing rents, the interest rate that
capital is expected to yield plays a very important part." On the basis of this quotation, it would be most
correct to state that
a. The financing of housing represents two distinct forms of capital investment
b. Reducing the interest rate charge the use of capital is not as important as economies in construction in
achieving lower rentals
c. In fixing rents, the interest rate is expected to yield capital gains justifying the investment
d. The actual capital invested and the interest rate charges for the use of this capital are factors in
determining housing costs.
125. "The housing authority faces every problem of the private developer and it must also assume
responsibilities of which private buildings are free. The authority must account to the community; it must
conform to federal regulations; it must provide durable buildings of goods standards at low cost; it must
overcome the prejudices against public operations of contractors, bankers, and prospective tenants. These
authorities are being watched by antihousing enthusiasts for the first error of
547
judgment or the first evidence of high costs, to be torn to bits before a congressional committee." On the basis
of this quotation, it would be most correct to state that
a. Private builders do not have the oppositions of contractors, bankers and prospective tenants
b. Congressional committees impede the progress of public housing by petty investigations
c. A housing authority must deal with all the difficulties encounters by the private builders
d. Housing authorities are no more immune from errors in judgment than private developers.
126. "Another factor that has considerably added to the city's housing crisis has been the great flux of low-
income workers and their families seeking better employment opportunities during wartime and defense
boom periods. There was one such influx during World War II and defense buildup. The circumstances of
these families forced them to crowd into the worst kind of housing and produced on a renewed scale the
conditions from which slums flourish and grow." On the basis of this quotation, one would be justified in
stating that
a. The great influx of low-income workers has aggravated the slum problems
b. Metro Manila has better employment opportunities than other sections of the country
c. The high wages paid by our defense industries have made many families ineligible for tenancy in public
housing
d. The families who settled in the city during World War II and the defense buildup brought with them
language and social customs conducive to the growth of slums
548
127. "Much of the city felt the effects of the general postwar increase of vandalism and street crime, and
the greatly expanded public housing program was no exception. Project built in congested slum areas with
a high incidence of delinquency and crime were particularly subjected to the depredations of
neighborhood gangs. The civil service watchmen who patrolled the projects, unnamed and neither trained
nor accepted to perform policies duties, were unable to cope with situation." On the basis of this
quotation, the most accurate of the following statements is that
a. Neighborhood gangs were particularly responsible for the high incidence of delinquency and crime in
congested slums areas having public housing programs
b. Civil service watchmen who patrolled housing projects failed to carry out their assigned police duties
c. Housing project will not spare the effect of the general postwar increase of vandalism and street crime
d. Delinquency and crime affected housing projects in slum areas to a greater extent than other dwelling in
the same area
128. "Another peculiar characteristic of real
estate is the absence of liquidity. Each parcel is
a discrete unit as to size, location, rental, physical condition, and financing arrangements. Each property
requires investigation, comparison of rents with other properties, and individualized haggling on price and
terms." On the basis of this quotation, the least accurate of the following statements is that
a. Although the size, location, and rents of
parcel vary, comparison with rents of
other properties affords an indication of the value of a particular parcel
549
b. Bargaining skill is the essential factor in determining the value of parcel of real state
c. Each parcel of real estate has individual peculiarities distinguishing it from any other parcel
d. Investigation of each property is necessary in relation to rent and not price
129. "In part, at least the charges of sameness, monotony, and institutionalism directed at public housing
projects result from the degree in which they differ from the city's normal housing pattern. They seem
alike because their very difference from the usual makes them stand apart. In many respect, there is
considerably more variety between public housing projects than there is between different streets of
apartment houses or tenements throughout the city." On the basis of this quotation, it would be least
accurate to state that
a. There is considerably more variety between different streets of tenements throughout the city.
b. Public housing projects differ from the city's normal housing pattern to the degree that sameness,
monotony, and industrialism are characteristics of public buildings.
c. Public housing projects seem alike because their deviation from the usual dwellings draws attention to
them.
d. The variety in structure between public housing projects and other public buildings is related to the period
in which they were built.
130. "The amount of debt that can be charged against Philippines for public housing is limited by law. Part
of the country's restricted housing means goes for cash subsidies, so that it may be required to contribute
to state-aided projects. Under the provisions of the state law, the cities
550
must match the state's contributions in subsidies, and while the value of the partial tax exemption granted by
the city is counted for this purpose, it is not always sufficient." On the basis of this quotation, it would be most
accurate to state that
a. The amount of money that the Philippines may spend for public housing is limited by annual tax revenues
b. The value of tax exemption granted by the city to educational, religious, and charitable institutions may be
added to its subsidy contributions to public housing projects
c. The subsidy contributions for state-aided public housing projects are shared equally by the state and the
city under the provision of the state law
d. The tax revenues of the city, unless implemented by state aid, are insufficient to finance public housing
projects
131. "Maintenance cost can be minimized and the usual life of houses can be extended by building with the
best and most permanent material available. The best and most permanent materials in many cases are,
however, much more expensive than materials that require more maintenance. The most emotional
procedure in home building has been to compromise between the capital costs of high quality and
enduring materials and the maintenance cost of less desirable material." On the basis of this quotation,
one would be justified in stating that
a. Saving in maintenance cost make the use of less durable and less expensive building materials preferable
to high- quality materials that would prolong the useful life of houses constructed from them

551
b. Financial advantages can be secured by the home builder if he or she judiciously combines costly but
enduring building materials with less desirable materials that, however, require more maintenance
c. Comprise between the capital cost of high quality materials and the maintenance costs of less desirable
materials makes it easier for home builder to estimate construction expenditures
d. Most economical procedures in home building is to balance the capital cost of the most permanent
materials against the cost of less experience material that are cheaper to maintain
132. "The shift from public to private facilities for those who need institutional care can be seen in most
areas of services. Care for the infirmed and aged, dependent children, youthful offenders, people who are
physically disabled and people with mental illness has moved from public to private resources. Some
observers of social policy, as noted refer to the shift as the privatization of services." A reason for the
privatization of services would be due to
a. Public policy making many shifts throughout history
b. Governmental involvement in
constructing facilities and staffing development very often increases
expenses due to tremendous fiscal obligation that would continue
indefinitely
c. Private care being much more humane
d. Public agencies having more control than private ones
133. "Community mental health programs
provides for mental health counseling, hospitalization for community hospitals for people who require it for
short periods of time,
552
employment referral, and training and community education about mental health problems. Today's
community mental health centers typically provide screening for those who appear to need mental
hospitalization. The effort is to prevent commitment to an institution and to serve the patient in the
community instead." On the basis of the above quotation, it would be most precise to say that
a. Community mental health programs
offers a wide scope of services that are focused on continuity of care
b. Community mental health programs
avoid institutionalizing individuals who may be in desperate need such services
c. Community mental health programs
sadly lacking in a clear understanding of really mental health problems in the areas serving the poor
d. Community mental health program greatly lacking in resources to provide adequate services in slum areas
134. "Part of the competence of a professional is systematic knowledge of one's roles and the reason for
one's work in human services, simply following rules and regulations that implement social policy
minimizes the professional's role. One should know why the policy is being
applied, the social values the policy reflects, the alternative ways in which the policy might be applied,
alternatives policies, the sources of founding and financing alternatives, and the effectiveness of the policy."
This reading is best captured in which of the following statements?
a. The competence of a professional is
based on attitude toward his or her work
b. The competence of a professional is
based on many factors, which include a thorough knowledge of one's field as well as broad scope of the
various components of his/her work
553
c. The competence of a professional is rarely affected by policy decisions
d. The competence of a professional's knowledge of his or her role is completely intuitive.
135. When a family asks for the help of the caseworker because they consistently exceeding their food and
clothing allowance, he or she should
A. Use the services of the home economist for consultation on the management problem that has developed.
B. Order the family to live within their budget allowance
C. Ignore the situation as it is the family's responsibility to make ends meet.
D. Recommend small increases in the food and clothing allowance for this family
136. The home-making center of DSWD furnishes the services of mother's aides to families to help care for
their children because of the mother's temporary incapacity or absence. Mother's aide can assume
responsibility for such households' duties as feeding infants, preparing meals, cleaning the house etc. they
are mature, responsible women with previous homemaking experience who have passed a literacy test
and have undergone through physical examination. According to current thinking in the field, for the
caseworker assigned in any case where a mother's aide is furnished, to use the mother's aide as a source
of obtaining confidential information for the department would be
A. Advisable. As a result of contact with the family, the mother's aide will have observed many details
concerning their daily activities
B. Inadvisable. While the mother's aide will have observed many details concerning the daily activities of the
family, she has not been trained to interpret these observations.
554
C. Advisable. The mother's aide has been thoroughly examined regarding her ability to perform her duties in
the households
D. Inadvisable. The mother's aide has primary obligation to the family rather than to the department
137. Social workers generally agree that except for the problems presented in individual cases, financial
dependency should be treated as a
A. Symptom of general industrial unrest
B. Manifestation of individual inadequacy and personality maladjustment
C. Problem in relationship
D. Symptom of economic and personal
problems
138. The best of the following practices in
handling cases in social agencies is to
A. Use indirect questioning sometimes in
preference to direct questioning to obtain more complete information about the client
B. Use general terms in preference to the specific terms tin writing case record
C. Give advice and make promises freely in the first interview in order to gain the confidence of the client
D. Attempt to increase the client's nervous tension so that he or she will be more anxious to find work
139. A 15-year-old girl calls on you, the caseworker, to say that her mother is negligent and buys clothing for
herself and treats he male friends to movie dates with the grant from aid to dependent children. According
to the most generally accepted social case work principles, you should tell the girl that
A. The grant will be stopped immediately
B. She does not have to put up with that kind of environment and can arrange to leave her mother
immediately
555
C. You will take this matter up with her mother and see her again at some future time
D. She should file a formal complaint against her mother
140. A case history describes a client as a delinquent, illiterate, and shy individual who hardly ever engages
in group activities and never goes to church, the movies, or thee theater. She is regarded by other with
annoyance or condescension. The caseworker would be justified in forming the conclusion that
A. The social isolation is responsible for the delinquency
B. The delinquency is responsible for the social isolation
C. Both the poverty and isolation are responsible for the delinquency
D. A single case is insufficient for the inference that social isolation is regularly associated with poverty and
delinquency
141. Mr. and Mrs. Dalikdik appear to be struggling each month to meet their budget; however, they
continue to exceed this amount. They applied for an increase, and were denied. You should advise them to
A. Continue to request a small increase in their allowance
B. Explain to the family that they must live within their budgeted allowance.
C. Refer the case to another worker
D. Meet with the family to decide on ways that they can better manage their budget and if necessary seek
out the assistance of the professional economist on the staff to assist you.
142. Mrs. Claudine Burrito, a client of yours, consults you to discuss her family situation. She is managing on
her allowance; however, she has monthly disagreements with her son who steal her money and appears to
be abusing drugs. You can best help her by
556
A. Referring her to a counseling agency
B. Telling her that you have also had some clients with drugs problems with whom she may to talk.
C. Pointing out to her that is not a area that you can help her with
D. Informing her that you can try and apply for some extra funds for her so that she can help her son
143. Mr. Armani Pacquiao has AIDS and is getting by with his assistance, which you have processed for him.
He is upset about being financially dependent on the government and being "on the dole." He tells you
that he is ashamed, and that he wants to withdraw his case and find an alternative way rather than
depending on others. You know that he is quite ill and has no other means of support. You should
A. Ignore what he is saying because he is
ill, and he needs these services
B. Close his case and refer him to an agency who provides services to people suffering from AIDS.
C. Take him off to your case list and refer him to another worker
D. Be sensitive to his situation, and explain to him that he has illness that makes him unable to do certain
things for himself. Help him understand that his intention is notable but this grant money is to help him to
be strong
144. Mr. Bruno Nars has been a paraplegic since he was 14. He was injured in a diving accident. He is not yet
33 and his mother who has supported him has passed away leaving him with no other supported him has
passed away leaving him with no other supports. He will need to apply for public assistance because
A. He is unemployable
B. His disability will limit his ability to be employed
557
C. He can never marry someone who can assist him
D. He was injured at such a young age
145. In meeting with a client for an interview, the
best reason to be knowledgeable about
someone's culture because
A. It will help you build a rapport with this individual
B. It will decrease the client's anxiety
C. It will make you look more knowledgeable
D. It will limit the client's predisposition about the Philippines
146. The degree of social intelligence a person possesses can best be determined by the
A. Extent of success the person has a
getting along with people
B. Score obtained on the test of social intelligence
C. Judgment of a psychologist in an interview with the person
D. Person's own judgment of his or her success in dealing with social situations
147. Which of the following statements best
describes the relationship that exist among environment, intelligence, and learning to read and write?
A. The proper environment is necessary to make the most of one's intelligence in learning to read and write
B. There is no relationship among
environment, intelligence, and the ability to read and write
C. A person with low intelligence cannot learn to read and write, regardless of environment
D. Intelligence develops with reading and writing, regardless of environment
148. Assume a young, healthy-looking male client who is jobless and on public assistance tells you he feels
and thinks he may have AIDS. As his caseworker, you should first
558
A. Assure him that he is probably all right, not to worry, and to find a job
B. Inform him he will be ineligible for public assistance if he has AIDS, but may be able to receive Social
Service Incentive
C. Refer him to his doctor or to health provides who is knowledgeable about AIDS to learn the truth
D. Assure him that he will not be cut off public assistance if he has AIDS
149. Assume that a client calls with an emergency problem that appears to require an immediate home
visit. You, as his caseworker, is handling the supervisor's phone messages since she is at an important
meeting with the agency's director. Of the following, you best action is to
A. Tell the client you cannot leave the office but that he should come to the office to see you as soon as
possible
B. Send another caseworker to visit the client and to handle the emergency
C. Schedule a visit to the client for the following morning
D. Request another caseworker to handle the phone, leave a note for your supervisor explaining the
situation, and visit the client immediately
150. Assume you are the caseworker for an elderly woman not working and living alone. She is constantly
visiting the social service office and holding long conversations unrelated to her case with you, your
supervisor, your co-worker, and with anyone else who is around. You should understand that this client
A. May be trying to tell you something of vital importance related to her eligibility
B. Is trying to ingratiate herself with the staff so that she will be given special consideration
C. Is in need of psychiatric help and should be referred to a clinic for consultation and therapy
559
D. Maybe lonely and seeking the companionship of other people but not knowledgeable about community
programs and activities that might be of interest to her.
151. Assume that a new caseworker sits next to you in the public assistance office and is constantly
besieging you with questions, only some of which are connected with your agency's work. As a result, you
are somewhat behind in your own responsibilities. Of the following, you should initially
A. Report to your supervisor that the new workers needs further training
B. Request that your desk be moved without giving an explanation
C. Say nothing to the supervisor or to the new worker but remain after working hours complete your
responsibility in a timely manner
D. Explain to the new worker that you will be glad to answer pertinent questions related to her duties but
that you must complete your own work on time.
152. Which among the following responses shows that the social workers sound as if they believe their
clients are incompetent; only the workers know the whole picture and do not encourage real discussion of
client's feeling and problems?
a. "Now look, you have two choices. You can either stay or leave. That's what you have to decide."
b. "I don't care what anyone tells you! You have to go see that lawyer!"
c. "You won't get your medications if you don't attend to the group therapy regularly."
d. "Your plan is faulty because you never did your research."
153. Which among the following statements where the social workers or case managers see themselves as
judges of their client's behaviors?
560
This statement shows that instead of being supportive, the worker is grading his/her client's behavior.
a. "I am going to give you the facts about domestic violence. If this doesn't change your mind, I don't' know
what will."
b. "You aren't thinking clearly."
c. "Well, I happen to think you did just fine."
d. "Now what you need to do is call the police. That will circumvent any action on their part and free you to
move to another location."
154. Which among the following responses does not display that the worker's cut-off any meaningful
discussion or further exploration and relieve the workers from having to deal with the real pain their
clients might want to talk about?
a. "You'll figure this out. Don't worry."
b. "It will work out for the best. You'll see."
c. "Don't worry. Things will work out."
d. "You're smart enough to know what you need to do."
155. Which among the following responses which does not respond to feelings?
a. "Sounds like you really feel..."
b. "It sounds like that they [he/she]..."
c. "It sounds like you're really feeling"
d. "That must have been..."
156. Which among the following responses shows that the social worker confirms that he/she is hearing
what the client has told him/her and confirm for the client how important the details are to the worker?
a. "So it's important to you that..."
b. "You're really concerned about..."
c. "So you were [he/she was]..."
d. "So you just..."
e. "You must be..."
Choices: A. abcde C. bcde
C. abcd D. bcd
561
157. A caseworker who attempt to impose his or her judgments on clients is most likely to elicit
A. Appreciation
B. Collaboration
C. Submission
D. Resistance
158. A 16-year-old client in foster care reveals to you that she is involved in many casual and unprotected
sexual relationships. She asks you for guidance. You should respond by
A. Notifying the foster parents and explain your concern
B. Suggesting that she talk to her foster parent about this
C. Not notifying the foster parents but referring the girl for counseling
D. Do nothing
159. An anxious client of yours involved in mental health treatment is repeatedly being asked for money by
his drug-addicted son. Recently, the son has threatened violence and begun calling the father at all hours
of the night. How should you advise the father?
A. Suggest that he has a right to be careful and that should consider calling the police if his son does not stop
his threats
B. Ask the client if he can call his son
C. Do nothing
D. Suggest that he disconnect the phone or get an answering machine
160. Of the following, who represents the fasters growing sub-types of single parent families?
a. Jean, a widow
b. Lasie, who has recently had an annulment
c. Geraldine whose spouse is working abroad
d. Rosalie, a single mother who has never been married
562
The Case of BARLIG TOWN
Barlig is a depressed 5th class municipality of Pangasinan Province and can be reached through bumpy,
dusty and dilapidated roads and some 240 kms from Manila. It has 10 barangays. 2016 survey showed the
following average ages of the residents: husbands are about 45 years old, wives 40 years and other members
of the household around 15 years. Educational attainment is about 5 to 7 years of schooling and most have
only reached the intermediate school years. Average population of each barangay has reached to about 2,500
residents.
Barlig is basically a fishing community. Most the men derive their income from fishing. The wives and the
older children help by selling fish directly to the consumers, to the middlemen and sometimes to the town
market and in some cases directly to the customers' houses.
December, January and February are reported to be the months when fish is most abundant. The lean
months are June, July and august. During the good months the fishermen net about an average of Php500 a
day and about Phpl50 during the lean months. The families supplement their income during the lean months
by gathering shells and selling them in the town.
 More so, the fishermen's catch should have been in abundance if not for the presence of big trawlers
owned by a rich businessman who happened to be the son of the town mayor. These trawlers have crippled
on their already depleted catch, but have made their owner raked in millions of pesos.
The town's soft soil is good for inter cropping but people however are indifferent in engaging into it due to
lack of capital and business acumen.
A fishermen's association was organized by the local Bureau of Fisheries but few of the residents are
members and the rest seem not to be interested in it.
563
The result of the survey indicated the need for a community organization program which would help
improve the level of organizational functioning and mobilize the community in utilizing its resources to meet
their needs like inadequate income and poor fishing practices which affect the fishing yield.
A Social Action Center under the Diocese of Pangasinan has decided to work in 5 of its most depressed
barangays. Consequently, the first task of the executive director was to recruit a professional trained social
worker with expertise on community organization.
161. The executive Director needs to hire a community organizer who has the experience in
a. Social action
b. Locality development
c. Social planning
d. Consultancy
162. The Bureau of Fisheries has identified this
fishing method as the most dangerous to the
coral reefs
a. Muro-ami
b. Cyanide fishing
c. Trawling
d. Dynamite fishing
163. The selection of the CO model of intervention is determined by the
a) Worker's preference
b) Nature of the problem
c) Mayor's choice
d) People's choice
164. The community organizer's initial approach in working with those communities is
a. Conduct evaluation of the resource availability
b. Formulation of the indices for the selection of areas to be helped
c. Identification of the target area
d. Identification and assessment of the problem
564
165. The limited income of the fishermen was attributed to the illegal practice of trawling on the part of the
mayor's so. Your advice to these fishermen is
a. Hold a rally against the mayor's son
b. Inform the Bureau of Fisheries regarding the existence of the trawlers
c. Schedule a dialogue with to mayor
d. Write a petition letter to the DIULKG for the removal of the mayor from office
166. The indifference of the people to improve their livelihood can be attributed to the
a. Government's lack of financial support to them
b. Absence of NGO assistance
c. Apathy developed through the years of cultural conditioning
d. Lack of education and training
167. As the CO practitioner, and the community work together for the solution of their problems, emotional
reactions on both sides may impair the effectiveness of the helping relationship due to the ff. except
a. Dysfunctional interactions patterns
b. Policies' and procedures that restrict the community's access to resources
c. Community's longing for cooperation
d. Inappropriate attitudes and beliefs learned from the kind of relationship existing in the community
168. Networking when working with communities has one of the ff. purposes.
a. Maximize the uses of the other community's resources
b. Build alliances for mobilizing mass actions
c. Ensure enough resources for the community
d. Avoid committing mistakes that other communities have done
169. When there is a gross injustice within the system that affects the effective participation of
565
the people in local governance, the most effective CO model is.
a. Advocacy
b. Organizing BEC
c. Social action
d. Political actions for planned change
170. Mutually negotiating goals to be achieved to solve the problem and mutually formulating contract are
vital processes because of the ff. except
a. Diverts the helping process for what the people may have
b. Global interventions may be employed without attending to the uniqueness of each group/community
problems
c. What problem solving may entail
d. What they will mutually be seeking to accomplish and in what ways they will be done
171. Jennifer feels pressure because of the increasing demands for care giving related to the failing health
of her aging parents and the transitional demands of her adolescent children. According to Kadushin and
Martin her circumstances illustrates:
a. Parental incapacity
b. Role rejection
c. Inter-role conflict
d. Parental role unoccupied
172. The social worker in an HIV/AIDS is faced with what issue?
a. Conflict between personal values and client's values
b. Discrimination
c. Right to privacy
d. All of the above
173. The goal of correction assists
the offenders after prison release to adopt and reestablish themselves in the community.
a. Reintegration
b. Deterrence
c. Reformatory
566
d. Retribution
174. These are the available and reserve that support social functioning meet needs, and resolve problems.
a. Community chest
b. Adaptive devices
c. Resources
d. Policies
175. As social worker can initiate
changes within the social service delivery.
a. Catalyst
b. Outreach worker
c. Scholars
d. Educators
176. is a court supervised
programs that defers criminals from imprisonment.
a. Parole
b. Probation
c. Pardon
d. Sentence suspension
177. Resource management involve
a. Doing "for" the client
b. Doing "to" the client
c. Doing "with" the client
d. Doing "around" the client
178. The court mandated Jo to participate in group counseling sessions. She is
a. Reluctant client
b. Voluntary client
c. Unmotivated client
d. Involuntary client
179. When Rose says, "It's not fair and I hate that
I'm burdened with this illness!" she is expressing her according to Kuber-Ross
a. Desire to bargain
b. Anger
c. Acceptance
d. Despair
180. Regine Velasquez communicates with her client about their feelings. Regine is demonstrating
567
a. Warmth
b. Genuineness
c. Openness
d. Empathy
568
Answer Key
1. A 41. 81. B 121. 161.
A A A
2. C 42. 82. C 122. 162.
D B C
3. B 43. 83. C 123. 163.
C A B
4. A 44. 84. A 124. 164.
A D D
5. C 45. 85. D 125. 165.
A C C
6. B 46. 86. A 126. 166.
B A C
7. B 47. 87. B 127. 167.
 B C C
8. A 48. 88. C 128. 168.
A B B
9. C 49. 89. A 129. 169.
C B C
10. 50. 90. B 130. 170.
C A C B
11. 51. 91. C 131. 171.
A A B C
12. 52. 92. A 132. 172.
C D B D
13. 53. 93. C 133. 173.
A C A A
14. 54. 94. D 134. 174.
C B B C
15. 55. 95. C 135. 175.
C B A A
16. 56. 96. A 136. 176.
A D B B
17. 57. 97. B 137. 177.
B D D C
18. 58. 98. B 138. 178.
C D A D
19. 59. 99. A 139. 179.
A D C B
20. 60. 100. 140. 180.
C D C D D
21. 61. 101. 141.
C B B D
22. 62. 102. 142.
A B B A
23. 63. 103. 143.
C C C D
24. 64. 104. 144.
C D A B
25. 65. 105. 145.
B C D A
26. 66. 106. 146.
C B C A
27. 67. 107. 147.
B C A A
28. 68. 108. 148.
C C B C
29. 69. 109. 149.
A B C D
30. 70. 110. 150.
B C B D
31. 71. 111. 151.
D C B D
32. 72. 112. 152.
D C A A
33. 73. 113. 153.
C B D B
34. 74. 114. 154.
B D B C
35. 75. 115. 155.
B C B B
36. 76. 116. 156.
B B C C
37. 77. 117. 157.
C A B D
38. 78. 118. 158.
B B C C
39. 79. 119. 159.
A A D A
40. 80. 120. 160.
D B B D