Christ University Entrance Test 02810afbb4c14
Christ University Entrance Test 02810afbb4c14
Christ University Entrance Test 02810afbb4c14
CHRIST UNIVERSITY
ENTRANCE TEST
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What is the correct amount of profit to be reported (a) sanction (b) allow
in the books? (c) permission (d) suggestion
(a) Rs.1,47,000 (b) Rs. 1,51,000
14. he was __________ of the sea
(c) Rs.1,63,000 (d) Rs.1,41,000
(a) fonder (b) familiar
10. Deewali advance given to an employee is: (c) friendlier (d) offended
(a) Revenue Expenditure 15. one of his ___________ stole away
(b) Capital Expenditure (a) companion (b) comrades
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure (c) friendly (d) possessions
(d) Not an Expenditure
11. A sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with 16. a thick fog _________ those
an appropriate word. Four alternatives are (a) prevented (b) hinder
suggested. Choose the correct option. (c) obstacle (d) assaulted
You must _______ for this mistake. 17. The captain became __________,
(a) account (b) courage (a) deceived (b) frightening
(c) dedicate (d) adjust (c) scare (d) alarmed
12. A sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with 18. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
an appropriate word. Four alternatives are Why can't you just be done with what (he has been
suggested. Choose the correct option. trying) to tell you since so long?
The juice of gooseberry is said to be ________. (a) He has tried (b) He have trying
(a) salubrious (b) lugubrious (c) Had he been trying (d) No improvement
(c) sweetly (d) savoury
19. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
Direction (Q.13-Q.17): For each of the questions Even after all the fuzz, the companies (have still not
below, a passage is given with five blanks. Choose the reach) a consensus.
correct words to be filled in each blank. (a) Have still to reached
At twelve years of age, he asked ________ to go to sea (b) Had till not reached
with an uncle named Suckling, but as his uncle did not (c) Have still not reached
sail that year, he was sent in charge of a friend, on a (d) No improvement
voyage to the West Indies. It was not many days
before the sailor boy knew the name of every rope on 20. In each of the questions below, four sentences are
the ship, and the use of each. He could "box the given, which when properly arranged, make up a
compass," that is, repeat the names of all the thirty- paragraph. Rearrange the given sentences and
two points backwards and forwards, and could tell in choose the option that provides the correct final
what direction the ship was sailing. When he returned order.
to England he was __________ of the sea than ever. P. Now, researchers are working on a new alcohol-
Sometime after reaching home he heard that two monitoring implant that could help people stay on the
ships of the navy were going to the North Pole, and he wagon.
obtained permission to go with them. The vessels Q. All they'll have to give up is some of their autonomy.
after sailing far toward the north, were becalmed. The R. Wherever humans socialize, you can bet that the
weather became very cold, and they were surrounded booze will follow.
by great fields of ice. One night, while they were S. Its omnipresence, plus its addictive qualities, can
frozen up in the ice fields, Nelson and one of his make it really hard for people to stop drinking, even if
___________ stole away from their ship to attack a huge they really want to.
polar bear. Pretty soon they were missed but (a) RSPQ (b) RPQS
although they were not far away, a thick fog _________ (c) SPQR (d) SQRP
those on board from seeing them. The captain became 21. In each of the questions below, four sentences are
__________, the signal for their return was fired, and given, which when properly arranged, make up a
Nelson, much disappointed, went back to the ship. paragraph. Rearrange the given sentences and
13. he asked ________ to go to sea
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choose the option that provides the correct final 26. In the following questions, out of the four
order. alternatives, select the alternative which best
P. Firing into the camp, they killed two of the Indians expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
and frightened the rest away. A litmus test
Q. When the girls did not return to their home, Boone (a) To know the potency of something
knew at once what had happened. (b) To figure out the viability of something
R. With some neighbours he started in pursuit. (c) A method that helps to know if something is
S. Guided by the twigs and bits of cloth they overtook correct
the savages just as they were cooking supper. (d) To measure the effectiveness of something
(a) SQRP (b) QPRS
27. In the following questions, out of the four
(c) QRSP (d) SPQR
alternatives, select the alternative which best
22. In the following questions, out of the four expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to Bite off more than you can chew
the word given. (a) Not able to complete a task due to lack of ability
Diffident (b) Take more than required
(a) Pleasure (b) Bashful (c) Eat more than required
(c) Annoy (d) Separate (d) Give someone excessive power
23. In the following questions, out of the four 28. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
the word given. one part of the sentence. The option against that part
Culminate will be the answer. In case of 'no error', choose
(a) Jeopardize (b) Climax option (d) as the answer. (Ignore errors of
(c) Sample (d) Careful punctuation, if any.)
(a) The cacophony of electioneering
24. In the following question, out of the four (b) had hardly died down than
alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to (c) a whole new suite of claims
the word given. (d) No error
Ceremonious
29. In the following questions, the parts of sentence is
(a) Abrupt (b) Repetitive
given in the options. Some part may contain
(c) Summation (d) Score
grammatical error. If any part contains error then
25. In the following question, out of the four mark that option as the answer and if there is no
alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to error then mark "no error" as the answer.
the word given. (a) As per the directions of our new editor,
Dunce (b) each of the mistakes have to be corrected
(a) Forthcoming (b) Genius (c) before the final version is sent for printing.
(c) Developing (d) Sacred (d) No error
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30. out of the four alternatives, choose the one which Some reformers pray for a financial crisis that will
can be substituted for the given words/sentences. shake the politicians from their stupor, as happened
A group of people hired to applaud or abuse a in 1991, allowing the PM to sneak through his changes.
performer or public speaker What a paradox! Though India's banks face bad debts,
(a) Mob (b) Claque its cloistered financial system, high foreign-exchange
(c) Throng (d) Posse reserves and capable central bank mean it is not
about to keel over.
Direction (Q.31-Q.35): Read the following passage
and answer the questions that follow. Instead the dreary conclusion is that India's feeble
In A world economy as troubled as today's, news that politics are now ushering in several years of feebler
India's growth rate has fallen to 5.3% may not seem economic growth. Indeed, the politicians' most
important. But the rate is the lowest in seven years, complacent belief is that voters will just put up with
and the sputtering of India's economic miracle carries lower growth—because they supposedly care only
social costs that could surpass the pain in the Euro about state handouts, the next meal, cricket and
zone. religion. But as Indians discover that slower growth
means fewer jobs and more poverty, they will become
But now, after a slump in the currency, a drying up of
angry. Perhaps that will be no bad thing, if it makes
private investment and those GDP figures, the miracle
them vote for change
feels like a mirage. Whether India can return to a path
of high growth depends on its politicians — and, in 31. The author says that the fall in India’s growth may
the end, its voters. The omens, frankly, are not good. not seem that important because
(a) the rate is lowest in seven years
Some of this crunch reflects the rest of the world's
(b) the fall would cost India socially
woes. The Congress-led coalition government, with
(c) it is not a new phenomenon
Brezhnev-grade complacency, insists things will
(d) the world economy is going through a relatively
bounce back. But India's slowdown is due mainly to
worse phase.
problems at home and has been looming for a while.
The state is borrowing too much, crowding out 32. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
private firms and keeping inflation high. It has not (a) Eurozone is going through some kind of crisis.
passed a big reform for years. (b) India’s economic growth in 2009 was less than
that in 2007.
The remedies, agreed on not just by foreign investors
(c) The value of the rupee has dropped.
and liberal newspapers but also by the government,
(d) The millions of poor Indian’s will never come out
are blindingly obvious. A combined budget deficit of
of poverty.
nearly a tenth of GDP must be tamed, particularly by
cutting wasteful fuel subsidies. India must reform tax 33. The author puts the main blame for India’s economic
and foreign-investment rules. It must speed up big slump on which of the following?
industrial and infrastructure projects. It must (a) Global recession
confront corruption. None of these tasks is (b) Uncontrollable factors
insurmountable. Most are supposedly government (c) International problems
policy. (d) Domestic causes
When the government tries to clear bottlenecks, 34. Which of the following is not a ‘remedy’ referred to by
feuding and overlapping bureaucracies can get in the the author?
way. When it suggests raising fuel prices, it faces (a) Control the budget deficit.
protests and backs down. When it tries to pass (b) Improve tax and foreign investment rules.
reforms on foreign investment, its populist coalition (c) Speed up big industrial and infrastructural
partners threaten to pull the plug. It does not help projects.
that the ageing PM has little clout of his own: he (d) Reduce wasteful use of fuel.
reports to the ailing president of the ruling party
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(a) Due to a surplus in domestic oil production. 55. What did Tata AutoComp Systems recently sell in
(b) Following the easing of U.S. sanctions on Pune?
Venezuela. (a) Manufacturing unit
(c) To counter rising oil prices in the Middle East. (b) Land parcel and structure
(d) In response to increased oil demand in India. (c) Research and development center
(d) Fleet of vehicles
49. What is the primary focus of the World Bank’s
initiative, led by President Ajay Banga, to scale 56.
8
−
36
+
54
−
27
is the expansion for
𝑥3 𝑥 2𝑦 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑦3
climate finance through the Private Sector
(a) (2/x - 3/y)3 (b) (2/x + 3/y)3
Investment Lab (PSIL)?
(c) (3/x - 2/y)3 (d) (3/x + 2/y)3
(a) Reducing carbon emissions directly
(b) Creating a securitizable asset class for climate 57. In △ABC, E and F are points on AB and AC such that
investments EF II BC. EF then produced to G such that ∠FCG =
(c) Increasing government funding for climate ∠FGC. If AE/AB = 5/9 and AC = 72 cm, then find the
projects length of FG.
(d) Implementing carbon offset programs (a) 32 cm (b) 40 cm
(c) 44 cm (d) Cannot be determined
50. Why did India refrain from signing the COP28
Declaration on Climate and Health? 58. The number of students in a hostel increases from
(a) Lack of awareness about the declaration’s 5400 and becomes 6075. By what percentage should
content the hostel reduce the consumption of food so that the
(b) Concerns that reducing greenhouse gas expenditure does not increase?
emissions for cooling in healthcare infrastructure (a) 12(1/2)% (b) 10%
could hinder medical services in underserved (c) 11(1/9)% (d) 8(1/3)%
areas
59. If c = a + b - x, a = b + c - y and 2b = z, then find the
(c) Disinterest in global climate initiatives
value of (x2- y2- z2)/4.
(d) Political disagreements with COP28 Presidency
(a) b (a + b + c) (b) c (a - b - c)
51. Who is considered the father of the Mobile Phone? (c) a (a + b + c) (d) b (a - c - b)
(a) Steve Jobs (b) Martin Cooper
60. The average runs scored by Aman in 12 innings is 2.5
(c) Bill Gates (d) Mark Zuckerberg
more than the average runs scored by Pritam in 11
52. Gayatri Mantra is addressed to which Hindu god? innings. Pritam and Aman scored 79 and 93 runs
(a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Vishnu respectively in 12th inning. If the average runs scored
(c) Surya (Sun god) (d) Lord Ganesha by Pritam in 12 innings is 24, then what is the average
runs scored by Aman in 11 innings?
53. What is the primary purpose of a windfall tax in the
(a) 14 (b) 16
context of the energy sector?
(c) 15 (d) 17
(a) To encourage companies to generate higher
profits 61. A person bought a home theatre system that cost Rs.
(b) To prevent companies from earning any profits 25344 and made the payment in two equal
(c) To regulate excessive profits during favorable instalments at the rate of 25% rate of interest
market conditions compounded annually. What is the instalment that he
(d) To increase government revenue from all paid each year?
industries (a) Rs. 9011 (b) Rs. 16460
(c) Rs. 17600 (d) Rs. 17450
54. What is the primary goal of the Amplifi 2.0 portal
launched by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban 62. A six-digit number 749xyz is divisible by 9, 11 and 4,
Affairs in India? then what is the value of {3x - (4y + 5z)/2x}? [Assume
(a) Enhancing Agricultural Practices x ≠ z]
(b) Centralizing Data for Urban Development (a) 12 (b) 13
(c) Promoting Rural Infrastructure (c) 14 (d) 11
(d) Facilitating Health Services
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63. Height of a trapezium is 4 cm more than its shorter 69. The ratio of cost price of 2 articles is 4:5. If they are
parallel side and 12 cm less than its longer parallel marked up by 25% and 20% respectively and the
side. If area of trapezium is 896 cm2, then calculate its percentage discount provided on them is 10% and
height. 5% respectively, what is the ratio of their Selling
(a) 32 cm (b) 36 cm prices?
(c) 24 cm (d) 28 cm (a) 12:13 (b) 15:19
(c) 16:21 (d) 17:19
64. A shopkeeper mixes good quality Rice which cost him
Rs 60/kg and a poor-quality rice which cost him Rs 70. In the following diagram, O is the centre of the circle
35/kg in the ratio 3:2. What is the discount and AD is parallel to BC. If ∠AOB = 52 and ∠DFC = 64,
percentage provided by him if he sells it after a mark- what is the measure of ∠FAE?
up of 28% such that he makes a profit of 15.2%?
(a) 5% (b) 8%
(c) 10% (d) 12%
65. R and S started a business by investing Rs. 1600 and
Rs. 2480 respectively. S left the business after a few
months. At the end of twelve months, the ratio of the
share of the profits received by R and S is 48:31
respectively. After how many months did S leave the
business?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) 48° (b) 50°
66. The value of (5 3/4 + 4 2/3) - [48% of 25 × (3 5/8 ÷ 1 (c) 52° (d) 54°
13/16 + 7 3/4 - 12 1/8)] + (32 ÷ (4/3))% of 50 is:
5 11 71. Find that value of (coefficient of x2y2 ÷ coefficient of
(a) 11 (b) 50
12
11
12
7
x4) in the expansion of (2x + 3y)4.
(c) 40 (d) 48 (a) 14.5 (b) 12.5
12 12
(c) 11.5 (d) 13.5
67. Upper and lower radii of frustum of a cone are 7 cm
and 14 cm respectively. If the lateral surface area of 72. Downstream speed of boat A is 80% of downstream
the frustum of cone is 462 √5 cm3 , then find its speed of boat B and the ratio of upstream speed of
approximate volume (in cm3). (take π = 22/7) boat A and boat B is 9: 13 respectively. Speed of boat
(a) 5031 (b) 5155 A is approximately what percent of speed of boat B in
(c) 4873 (d) 4939 still water?
(a) 69%
68. If (Ax3 + 27y3) ÷ (Bx + 3y) = 16x2 + 9y2- Cxy, then what (b) 71%
is the value of B(A - C)? (c) 76%
(a) 188 (b) 208 (d) Cannot be determined
(c) 196 (d) 212
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73. The value of perimeter of rectangle is 68 cm and the statements. Choose the option which shows the
ratio of length to width is 4 ∶ 13. Find the difference in conclusions which logically follow from the given
the area when the value of length and width is statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
increased by 50%. Statements:
(a) 348 cm2 (b) 260 cm2 All verbs are nouns.
(c)225 cm 2 (d)468 cm2 Some nouns are adverbs.
No adverb is an adjective.
74. The vehicle of Mr. Ghosh needs 30% more fuel at the
Conclusions:
speed of 75 kmph than it needs at the speed of 50
I. Some verbs can be adverbs.
kmph. At a speed of 50 kmph, Mr. Ghosh can go to a
II. Some nouns are not adjectives.
distance of 195 kms. At the speed of 75 kmph, he will
III. Some nouns are verbs.
able to travel a distance of
(a)Only I follows
(a) 120 kms (b) 150 kms
(b) Only I and III follows
(c) 160 kms (d) 140 kms
(c) Either I or III and II follows
75. Which of the following pairs of numbers are relative (d) All I, II and III follow
primes?
81. Ria is running in the east direction and runs for 45.2
(i) 24, 25
m. Then, she turns towards the west direction and
(ii) 133, 285
runs for 87.5 m. Finally, she turns towards the east
(iii) 210, 255
direction and runs for 50.4 m. How far is she from her
(iv) 15, 91
starting point?
(v) 123, 164
(a) 12.5 m (b) 11.7 m
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (i), (iv) and (v)
(c) 8.1 m (d) 6.8 m
(c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) Only (iv) and (v)
82. Study the given pattern carefully and select the
Direction (Q.76-Q.79): Study the following
number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
information carefully to answer the given questions.
There are eight persons sitting around a circular table
facing the centre. Z is a neighbour of W. Number of
persons sitting between A and P is the same as the
number of persons sitting between M and Q. D sits to
the immediate right of K. Two persons are sitting
between Q and W. Three persons are sitting between
K and A. Q is a neighbour of K and P is not a neighbour
of Q.
76. Who sits second to the left of P?
(a) W (b) Z
(c) D (d) Q (a) 12 (b) 21
(c) 16 (d) 18
77. What is the position of M with respect to D?
(a) Immediate left (b) Second to the left 83. Select the option which shows the letter cluster which
(c) Second to the right (d) Third to the left can replace the question mark (?) in the series given
below.
78. Who among them are the immediate neighbours of A? aBDg, hIKn, oPRu, vWYb, ?
(a) Q and D (b) W and D (a) dGHk (b) dEHl
(c) P and Z (d) M and Z (c) cDFi (d) bEFj
79. Who sits opposite to Z? 84. Who is the oldest person?
(a) P (b) M (a) P (b) T
(c) Q (d) K (c) S (d) Cannot be determined
80. In the following question, three statements are given 85. How many persons are shorter than P?
and three conclusions are given below these
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(a) One (b) Two II. Some Indians living in the USA prefer cuisines that
(c) Three (d) Four are not Indian.
(a) Only II follows
86. Who is the tallest person?
(b) Neither I nor II follows
(a) Q (b) T
(c) Only I follows
(c) S (d) P
(d) Both I and II follow
87. In a certain coded language, "TODAY" is coded as "23"
91. In the following question, out of the four figures
and "MOON" is coded as "14". Then, what will be the
marked (I), (II), (III) and (IV), three are similar in a
code for "CHANNELS" in that coded language?
certain manner. However, one figure is not like the
(a) 23 (b) 47
other three. Choose the figure which is different from
(c) 79 (d) 62
the rest.
88. Select the option which can replace the question
marks (?) in the given series.
LO, ___, JQ, IR, HS, GT, FU, ___
(a) KP, EV (b) JO, DW
(c) JK, VW (d) MN, XC
89. Select the option which can replace the question mark (a) I (b) II
(?) in the given series. (c) III (d) IV
GH7, MN12, ST22, YZ42, ?, KL162, QR322 92. Statement:
(a) CD88 (b) IJ144 The Health Ministry issued an order to ban smoking
(c) EF82 (d) JK142 in public places from 2nd of October this year and a
fine of Rs.500 to be imposed on the defaulters.
Conclusions:
I. One should be ready to pay Rs.500 if one wants to
smoke in public places from 2nd of October this year.
II. The cigarette manufactures will incur losses from
the 2nd of October this year.
(a) if only conclusion I follows.
(b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either I or II follows.
(d) if neither I nor II follows.
93. Statement:
The information needs of villagers are entirely
different from that of urban people.
Conclusions:
I. There is no information need which is common for
villagers and urban people.
II. Urban people are well educated hence their needs
are different.
(a) if only conclusion I follows.
90. In the question below, a statement is given followed (b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either I or II follows.
by a few conclusions which may or may not follow
(d) if neither I nor II follows.
from the statement. Choose the one that reflects the
conclusion that follows. 94. In a coded language, FEAR is coded as 6, AWAY is
Statement: Most Indians living in the USA prefer coded as 2 and GONE is coded as 20, then what is the
eating Indian food. code for IRON ?
Conclusions: (a) 8 (b) 32
I. People residing in foreign countries miss the local (c) 24 (d) 11
cuisine of their native country.
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95. In a certain code language, "MISERY" is coded as relationship that is unique to each other. Read both
"1391951825", "PLUTO" is coded as "1612212015" the statements carefully and mark the answer.
find the code for "DONATE" in the same code Statement:
language. I. The factory employees have started their indefinite
(a) 416141204 (b) 515141206 hunger strike and lock out due to non-payment of
(c) 415141215 (d) 415141205 festival bonus by factory owner.
II. The trade union have called of their week-long
96. In a certain code language PRECISE is written as
strike and demonstration yesterday.
FULCBPO. How would MONSOON be written in that
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
code?
effect.
(a) OQRSNQQ (b) NQQSKML
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
(c) OQRSKML (d) OPQSKML
effect.
97. Direction: In the following question, two statements (c) Both the statements I and II are independent
are given. They may either be independent causes, causes.
independent effects or bear a cause and effect (d) Both the statements I and II are effects of
independent causes.
98. Find the mirror image of the figure given below when
a mirror is placed to the right of the figure:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
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99. Which of the following figures among I, II, III, IV depict Year income Expenditure Profit %
the correct cube obtained on folding the given 2006 234.5 - 12.5%
unfolded hollow cube?
2007 208.6 193.6 -
50
43
40 37
33
31
30 28 27
23
20 17 17 16
13 13 14
11 11 12
9
10 7
0
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
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106. If 35% of the trains passing through platform 1 (c) 319 (d) 337
have this railway station as the source, then the
109. If due to some construction work, Platform 2
ratio of trains passing through platform 1 which
remained closed on Saturday & all the trains
have other stations as source to the total number of
passing through platform 2 were equally divided
trains passing through platform 2 over whole week
into platforms 1 & 3. How much percent more trains
is?
pass through platform 1 than platform 3 in such
(a) 7:12 (b) 2:3
scenario?
(c) 25:39 (d) 8:13
(a) 54% (b) 67%
(c) 85% (d) 75%
107. On how many day(s) of the week, does number of
trains passing through platform 2 is less than the 110. Correct order of days according to number of trains
average number of trains passing through all passing through all platforms of the railway station
platforms on that particular day? is?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday >
(c) 3 (d) 4 Wednesday > Tuesday
(b) Thursday > Monday > Friday > Saturday >
108. If 1/5th of the trains passing through platform 3 are
Tuesday > Wednesday
superfast trains & 15% of the trains passing
(c) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Tuesday >
through platform 1 are Rajdhani trains. Rest all the
Wednesday > Friday
trains passing through all platforms are express
(d) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday
trains. Find the number of express trains passing
>Tuesday > Wednesday
through the station over the week?
(a) 362 (b) 344
Direction (Q.111-Q.114): Following Pie charts represent the number of students, who have appeared and cleared
phase I of Civil Service Exam from various departments of an Arts and Science College.
Total number of students appeared for
Civil Service Exam = 5,484
Percentage of students appeared from various departments
Other, 67o
English, 88o
Commerce, 72o
Maths, 60o
Physics,
42o
Chemistry, 31o
111. The total number of students clearing phase I from article at Rs.120 such that on day 1 only one article
commerce and other department is what of A is sold and 450 articles of B were sold. Every
percentage of the number of students clearing day the sale of article A is increased by 4 articles
phase I from physics department(approx.) ? and the sale of article B is decreased by 6 articles.
(a) 340 % (b) 310 %
115. After how many days the shopkeeper will start
(c) 320 % (d) 330 %
earning profit on a whole?
112. What has the ratio between numbers of students (a) 75 Days (b) 100 Days
appeared from Maths and physics departments to (c) 107 Days (d) 108 Days
the number of students appeared from chemistry
and commerce departments?
(a) 16:15 (b) 15:17
(c) 16:17 (d) 15:16
113. From which department is the difference between
the number of students cleared and the number of
students appeared is the second minimum?
(a) Chemistry (b) Physics
(c) Commerce (d) Maths
114. What is the percentage of students, who did not
clear the phase I of the exam?
(a) 84.45% (b) 84.55%
(c) 83.55% (d) 83.45%
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116. From which day the shopkeeper will start earning 117. What is the loss observed by selling articles A and B
profit on daily basis? on Day 23?
(a) 49th day (b) 50th day (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs.10,050
(c) 51st day (d) 75th day (c) Rs. 10,360 (d) Rs. 11,500
Direction (Q.118-Q.120): Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Below Chart has price of each share of 3 companies over the 5 years.
1600
1400
1200
1000
800
600
400
200
0
2017 2018 2019 2020 2021
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22. (b) Sol. 'Diffident' means modest or shy because of a lack NEVER come out of poverty.
of self-confidence. 'Bashful' means reluctant to draw 33. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct answer as in the third
attention to oneself; shy. Clearly, the two words are paragraph, second sentence, the author says, “... due
synonyms of each other, making option B, the mainly to…” clearly, it is domestic cause. (a) is not
correct answer. mentioned in the passage. (b) is not blamed by the
23. (b) Sol. 'Culminate' means to reach a 'climax' or point of author. No traces of (c) can be found.
highest development. Hence, option B will be the 34. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct choice as In the fourth para, the
correct answer. 'Jeopardize' means to put (someone author refers to the remedies. All except 4 are
or something) into a situation in which there is a mentioned. The author talks about fuel subsidies,
danger of loss, harm, or failure. not the use of fuel itself. (a) and (b) and and (c) are
24. (a) Sol. 'Ceremonious' means relating or appropriate to mentioned by the author in para 4.
35. (c) Sol. option (c) is correct as In the penultimate
grand and formal occasions. The opposite of this
paragraph the author talks about reformers praying
would be unceremonious, meaning having or
for a crisis which will wake the politicians from their
showing a lack of courtesy; rough or 'abrupt'. Hence,
stupor. Now, in a crisis situation wishing for another
option A will be the correct answer. 'Summation'
is paradoxical. This is best expressed in c. (a) is
means summary.
nowhere mentioned. (b) is not a close option thus
25. (b) Sol. 'Dunce' means a person who is slow at learning; can be omitted. (d) is out of scope of the
a stupid person. 'Genius' will be the apt antonym of 36. (b) Patiala
it. Hence, option B will be the correct answer. It is considered a Premier Sports Institute in Asia.
26. (c) Sol. The idiom "A litmus Test" refers to a method The Institute is located at Moti Bagh Palace, Patiala
employed to determine whether something is (Punjab).
correct or not. 37. (c) Adi Shankaracharya
27. (a) Sol. The idiom "Bite off more than you can chew" Shankaracharya was an early 8th century Indian
refers to not being able to complete a task due to lack philosopher and theologian who consolidated the
of ability. doctrine of Advaita Vedanta. He established four
28. (b) Sol. The word 'when' is used with the conjunctive major mathas in different regions of India -
adverb 'hardly' instead of 'than'. 'Than' is usually Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri.
used when comparing, which is not the case here. 38. (b) Hydrogen
Hence, the correct form will be 'had hardly died The element common to all acids is Hydrogen. The
down when'. number of standardized hydrogen ions accounts for
29. (b) Sol. Syntax: Each + of + noun (plural) + verb the acidity of a compound. The more the number of
(singular). Each uses singular verb/auxiliary, hence Hydrogen ion in the solution, the more acidic the
replace 'have' with 'has'. solution is.
30. (b) Sol. Mob: a large crowd of people, especially one that 39. (c) Bill Gates
is disorderly and intent on causing trouble or Business at the Speed of Thought is a book written
violence. by Bill Gates and Collins Hemingway in 1999. It
discusses how business and technology are
Claque: A group of people hired to applaud or abuse
integrated, and explains how digital infrastructures
a performer or public speaker.
and information networks can help someone get an
Throng: a large, densely packed crowd of people or
edge on the competition.
animals.
40. (b) Liver
Posse: a group of people who have come together
Bile is a fluid that is made and released by the liver
for the same purpose
and stored in the gallbladder. Bile helps with
31. (d) Sol. option (d) is the correct answer as The, very first
digestion. It breaks down fats into fatty acids, which
sentence of the passage gives us the answer to this:
can be taken into the body by the digestive tract.
In a world… seem important.’ This clearly means
41. (d) Siemens AG and Kyosan Electric Manufacturing Co
that the world is going through a worse phase in
are involved in the deployment, and the
comparison to India. This is why news about India’s
collaboration involves radio surveys.
bad phase may not seem that important. (a) is
42. (c) Approval for a Telecom Center of Excellence in
nowhere mentioned. (b) and (c) are irrelevant.
Saharanpur. The Chief Minister has given approval
32. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct answer for this question.
for the establishment of the country’s inaugural
Choices (a) and (b) be understood from the first
Telecom Center of Excellence in Saharanpur.
paragraph, choice (c) can be understood from the
43. (c) Curtains, drapes, and interior blinds. These products
first sentence of the second paragraph Choice (d) is
made from synthetic fibres are highlighted as crucial
extreme in nature and cannot be inferred. The
in driving the growth of India’s MMF textile exports.
author merely says the 2004 - 08 growth promised
44. (b) Carbon
to lift India’s poor out of poverty which would not
happen now. Well this does not mean that they will
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6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is From the above arrangement, M sits third to the left
the same as the number of persons sitting between of D.
M and Q. Hence, “Third to the left” is the correct answer.
7) P is not a neighbour of Q.
So, our final arrangement is,
3) Q is a neighbour of K.
Here, some verbs can be adverbs, some nouns are not adjectives and some nouns are verbs.
Hence, all conclusions I, II and III follow.
81. (c) The distance from her starting point = 45.2 + 50.4 - 82. (a) Diagonally:
87.5 = 8.1 m 23 + 35 = 58 and 71 - 58 = 13
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84. (c) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
persons from the tallest to the shortest is same as the order of the persons from the youngest to the oldest.
Hence, Q is the third oldest as well as the third tallest. R is the second oldest as well as the second shortest.
It is given that P is taller than R. Hence, P is either the oldest or the second oldest. If P is the oldest, then he/she should be
the youngest. But this is not possible as it is given that T is younger than P.
Thus, P is the second oldest as well as the second youngest. T is the oldest as well as the youngest.
The final arrangement is as follows.
Order Height (tallest to shortest) Age (oldest to Youngest)
1 T S
2 P R
3 Q Q
4 R P
5 S T
S is the oldest person. Choice (C)
85. (c) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
persons from the tallest to the shortest is same as the order of the persons from the youngest to the oldest.
Hence, Q is the third oldest as well as the third tallest. R is the second oldest as well as the second shortest.
It is given that P is taller than R. Hence, P is either the oldest or the second oldest. If P is the oldest, then he/she should be
the youngest. But this is not possible as it is given that T is younger than P.
Thus, P is the second oldest as well as the second youngest. T is the oldest as well as the youngest.
The final arrangement is as follows.
Order Height (tallest to shortest) Age (oldest to Youngest)
1 T S
2 P R
3 Q Q
4 R P
5 S T
Three persons are shorter than P.
86. (b) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
persons from the tallest to the shortest is same as the order of the persons from the youngest to the oldest.
Hence, Q is the third oldest as well as the third tallest. R is the second oldest as well as the second shortest.
It is given that P is taller than R. Hence, P is either the oldest or the second oldest. If P is the oldest, then he/she should be
the youngest. But this is not possible as it is given that T is younger than P.
Thus, P is the second oldest as well as the second youngest. T is the oldest as well as the youngest.
The final arrangement is as follows.
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𝟏 𝟐 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
𝐀 𝐁 C D E F G H I J K L M
𝐙 𝐘 X W V U T S R Q P O N
𝟐𝟔 𝟐𝟓 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
89. (c) GH (I J K L) MN (O P Q R) ST (U V W X) YZ (A B C D) 91. (c) Each outer figure has two smaller figures of the same
EF (G H I J) KL (M N O P) QR shape inside it such that one of them is darkened III
7 + 5 = 12; 12 + 10 = 22; 22 + 20 = 42; 42 + 40 = 82; has two pentagons inside the big (outer) hexagon.
82 + 80 = 162; 162 + 160 = 322. In each of the questions below is given a statement
90. (a) Only II follows. From the statement, we can conclude followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
that not all people prefer Indian food, i.e., there are have to assume everything in the statement to be
some people who like other cuisines more than true and then consider the two conclusions together
Indian cuisine. (I) does not follow as we cannot and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
generalize about people living abroad based on the reasonable doubt from the information given in the
given data which states only about Indians living in statement. Give your answer as
the USA.
92. (a) From the statement it cannot be said how effectively the order will be implemented. But it is clear that one should be
prepared for the eventuality in case one defaults. Hence I follows.
It is not known how such a ban is going to have an effect on the sales of cigarettes. Hence, II does not follow.
∴ Only I follows. Choice (1)
93. (c) The statement does not imply that it talks about each and every need of the village and urban people. Hence I does not
follow.
The reason for which the information needs of urban people differ from those of villagers are not referred to in the
statement. Hence II also does not follow. Choice (3)
94. (c) Here, the alphabets and their positions in the alphabetical order are considered.
Sum of positions of the vowels is the code for each word.
Here, IRON has two vowels which are I and O.
Hence, the code for IRON is 9 + 15 = 24.
𝟏 𝟐 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
𝐀 𝐁 C D E F G H I J K L M
𝐙 𝐘 X W V U T S R Q P O N
𝟐𝟔 𝟐𝟓 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
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98. (d)
100. (c)
Alphabets A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Positional
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
value
Positional
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
value
Alphabets Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
The logic is as shown,
C + 3 → F, F + 3 → I, I + 3 → L, L + 3 → O
A + 4 → E, E + 4 → I, I + 4 → M, M + 4 → Q
E + 5 → J, J + 5 → O, O + 5 → T, T + 5 → Y
Hence, the required term is OQY.
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1530 .7
=
6
= Rs. 255.1 million
So, there are 4 days on which trains passing through platform 2 is less than average: Tuesday, Thursday, Friday &
Saturday
108. (c) From the given graphs we have:
Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362
Total trains passing through platform 3 = 125
Superfast trains = 125/5 = 25
Total trains passing through platform 1 = 120
Rajdhani trains = 0.15 ×120 = 18
Express trains = total trains – (superfast trains + Rajdhani trains) = 362 – 25 – 18 = 319
109. (c) From the given graphs we have:
Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362
If platform 2 is closed, 6 extra trains each will pass through platform 1 and 3.
Then no. of trains passing through platform 1 = 31 + 6 = 37
& no. of trains passing through platform 3 = 14 + 6 = 20
Hence, percent = (37- 20)/20 × 100 = 17/20 × 100 = 85%
110. (d) From the given graphs we have:
Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362
The correct order is Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday > Tuesday > Wednesday
111. (d) → No. of students cleared from commerce & other dept. → Difference = (768-99) = 669
= [(72+67) /360]*847 = (139/360)* 847 = 327 Chemistry Department:
→ No. of students cleared physics department → Appeared = (11/100) * 5484 = 603
= (42/360)* 847 = 99 → Cleared = (31/360)* 847= 73
→ X= (327/99)* 100 → Difference = (603-73) = 530 (ans)
→ X= 330 % (ans) Commerce Department:
112. (c) → Ratio = (Maths +Physics): (Chemistry + Commerce) → Appeared = (23/100) * 5484 = 1261
= (18+14): (11+23) = 32: 34 = 16:17 (ans) → Cleared = (72/360)* 847= 169
113. (a) English Department: → Difference = (1261-169) = 1092
→ Appeared = (27/100) * 5484 = 1481 Other Departments:
→ Cleared = (88/360)* 847=207 → Appeared = (7/100) * 5484 = 384
→ Difference = (1485-207) = 1274 → Cleared = (67/360)* 847= 158
Maths Department: → Difference = (384-158) =226
→ Appeared = (18/100) * 5484 = 987 114. (b) → No. of students not cleared= (5484 -847) = 4637
→ Cleared = (60/360)* 847=141 → % of students not cleared = (4637/5484) *100 =
→ Difference = (987-141) = 846 84.55 % (ans)
Physics Department: 115. (d) 108 Days
→ Appeared = (14/100) * 5484 = 768 Day A B
→ Cleared = (42/360)* 847=99 Day 1 1∗ 30 450∗ 40
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Day 2 ∗
5 30 ∗
444 40 Difference in 2020 = 450 - 300 = 150
Day 76 301∗ 30 0∗ 40 Difference in 2021 = 500 - 350 = 150
Total loss = 75/2(2*450+74*6)*40 = 684000 The difference was maximum in 2020 and 2021.
Total profit must be greater than 684000 Hence, option 4.
n/2(2*1+(n1)*4)*30 >684000 119. (d) Average per share value of PQR over the years = (500+
For n =108 above equation satisfies 450 +500 +350 + 450)/5 = 450
116. (c) (1+(n-1)*4)*30> (450+(n-1)*-6)*40 Required percentage = (450 x 100)/400 - 100 = 12.5%
n>50.91 Hence, option 4.
n=51 120. (b) Average per share value of ABC in 2018, 2019 and 2020
117. (b) Day 23: Articles A sold : 89 then profit = 89*30 =2670 = (300 + 450 + 450)/3 = 400
Articles B sold: 318 loss = 318*40 = 12720 Average per share value of PQR in 2017, 2018 and
118. (d) Difference in 2017 = 450 - 350 = 1008 2019 = (500+ 450 + 500)/3 = 483.33
Difference in 2018 = 400 - 300 = 100 ∴ required difference = 483.33 - 400 = 83.33
Difference in 2019 = 450 - 450 = 0 Hence, option 2.
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