Christ University Entrance Test 02810afbb4c14

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CHRIST UNIVERSITY
ENTRANCE TEST

MBA WT (ANALYTICAL WRITING


TEST) AT IIM

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CHRIST UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE TEST


1. If one of the cars purchased by a car dealer is used 7. In income measurement & recognisation of assets &
for business purpose, instead of resale, then it should liabilities which of the following concepts goes
be recorded by __________. together?
(a) Dr Drawing A/c & Cr Purchases (a) Periodicity, Accrual, Matching
A/c (b) Cost, Accrual, matching
(b) Dr Office Expenses A/c & Cr Motor Car A/c (c) Going concern, cost, Realization
(c) Dr Motor Car A/c & Cr Purchases (d) Going concern, Periodicity, Reliability
A/c
(d) Dr Motor Car & Cr Sales A/c 8. Rohit carrying on real estate business sold a piece of
land for Rs.4,00,00,000 (cost Rs.3,50,00,000) then
2. Change in the capital A/c of proprietor may occur the type of receipt is __________ nature and profit on
due to __________. sale is:
(a) Profit earned (b) Loss incurred (a) Capital & transferred to capital reserve
(c) Capital Introduced (d) All of the above (b) Revenue & transferred to P & L a/c
3. Fixed assets are held by business for __________. (c) Capital & transferred to P & L a/c
(a) Converting into cash (d) Revenue & transferred to general reserve
(b) Generating revenue
(c) Resale
(d) None of the above
4. If nothing is given in the financial statements about
the three accounting assumptions then it is to be
treated as it
(a) Is assumed that it is not followed
(b) Is assumed to be followed
(c) Is assumed to be followed to some extent
(d) None of the above
5. Which of the following is wrong?
(a) All real and personal accounts
are transferred to balance sheet
(b) Nominal accounts are transferred to P & L
account
(c) Each account is opened separately in ledger
(d) Rent is a personal account, outstanding rent
is nominal account
9. A firm has reported a profit of Rs.1,47,000 for the
6. A trader purchases goods for Rs. 2500000, of these year ended 31-3-2014 after taking into
70% of goods were sold during the year. At the end consideration the following items.
of 31st December 2009, the market value of such (i) The cost of an asset Rs.23,000 has been taken as
goods were Rs. 500000. But the trader recorded in an expense
his books for Rs. 750000. Which of the following (ii) The firm anticipated a profit of Rs.12,000 on the
concept is violated? sale of an old furniture
(a) Money measurement (iii) Salary of Rs.7,000 outstanding for the year has
(b) Conservatism not been taken into account.
(c) Consistency (iv) An asset of Rs.85,000 was purchased for
(d) None of these Rs.75,000 and was recorded in the books at
Rs.85,000.

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What is the correct amount of profit to be reported (a) sanction (b) allow
in the books? (c) permission (d) suggestion
(a) Rs.1,47,000 (b) Rs. 1,51,000
14. he was __________ of the sea
(c) Rs.1,63,000 (d) Rs.1,41,000
(a) fonder (b) familiar
10. Deewali advance given to an employee is: (c) friendlier (d) offended
(a) Revenue Expenditure 15. one of his ___________ stole away
(b) Capital Expenditure (a) companion (b) comrades
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure (c) friendly (d) possessions
(d) Not an Expenditure
11. A sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with 16. a thick fog _________ those
an appropriate word. Four alternatives are (a) prevented (b) hinder
suggested. Choose the correct option. (c) obstacle (d) assaulted
You must _______ for this mistake. 17. The captain became __________,
(a) account (b) courage (a) deceived (b) frightening
(c) dedicate (d) adjust (c) scare (d) alarmed
12. A sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with 18. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
an appropriate word. Four alternatives are Why can't you just be done with what (he has been
suggested. Choose the correct option. trying) to tell you since so long?
The juice of gooseberry is said to be ________. (a) He has tried (b) He have trying
(a) salubrious (b) lugubrious (c) Had he been trying (d) No improvement
(c) sweetly (d) savoury
19. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
Direction (Q.13-Q.17): For each of the questions Even after all the fuzz, the companies (have still not
below, a passage is given with five blanks. Choose the reach) a consensus.
correct words to be filled in each blank. (a) Have still to reached
At twelve years of age, he asked ________ to go to sea (b) Had till not reached
with an uncle named Suckling, but as his uncle did not (c) Have still not reached
sail that year, he was sent in charge of a friend, on a (d) No improvement
voyage to the West Indies. It was not many days
before the sailor boy knew the name of every rope on 20. In each of the questions below, four sentences are
the ship, and the use of each. He could "box the given, which when properly arranged, make up a
compass," that is, repeat the names of all the thirty- paragraph. Rearrange the given sentences and
two points backwards and forwards, and could tell in choose the option that provides the correct final
what direction the ship was sailing. When he returned order.
to England he was __________ of the sea than ever. P. Now, researchers are working on a new alcohol-
Sometime after reaching home he heard that two monitoring implant that could help people stay on the
ships of the navy were going to the North Pole, and he wagon.
obtained permission to go with them. The vessels Q. All they'll have to give up is some of their autonomy.
after sailing far toward the north, were becalmed. The R. Wherever humans socialize, you can bet that the
weather became very cold, and they were surrounded booze will follow.
by great fields of ice. One night, while they were S. Its omnipresence, plus its addictive qualities, can
frozen up in the ice fields, Nelson and one of his make it really hard for people to stop drinking, even if
___________ stole away from their ship to attack a huge they really want to.
polar bear. Pretty soon they were missed but (a) RSPQ (b) RPQS
although they were not far away, a thick fog _________ (c) SPQR (d) SQRP
those on board from seeing them. The captain became 21. In each of the questions below, four sentences are
__________, the signal for their return was fired, and given, which when properly arranged, make up a
Nelson, much disappointed, went back to the ship. paragraph. Rearrange the given sentences and
13. he asked ________ to go to sea

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choose the option that provides the correct final 26. In the following questions, out of the four
order. alternatives, select the alternative which best
P. Firing into the camp, they killed two of the Indians expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
and frightened the rest away. A litmus test
Q. When the girls did not return to their home, Boone (a) To know the potency of something
knew at once what had happened. (b) To figure out the viability of something
R. With some neighbours he started in pursuit. (c) A method that helps to know if something is
S. Guided by the twigs and bits of cloth they overtook correct
the savages just as they were cooking supper. (d) To measure the effectiveness of something
(a) SQRP (b) QPRS
27. In the following questions, out of the four
(c) QRSP (d) SPQR
alternatives, select the alternative which best
22. In the following questions, out of the four expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to Bite off more than you can chew
the word given. (a) Not able to complete a task due to lack of ability
Diffident (b) Take more than required
(a) Pleasure (b) Bashful (c) Eat more than required
(c) Annoy (d) Separate (d) Give someone excessive power
23. In the following questions, out of the four 28. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in
the word given. one part of the sentence. The option against that part
Culminate will be the answer. In case of 'no error', choose
(a) Jeopardize (b) Climax option (d) as the answer. (Ignore errors of
(c) Sample (d) Careful punctuation, if any.)
(a) The cacophony of electioneering
24. In the following question, out of the four (b) had hardly died down than
alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to (c) a whole new suite of claims
the word given. (d) No error
Ceremonious
29. In the following questions, the parts of sentence is
(a) Abrupt (b) Repetitive
given in the options. Some part may contain
(c) Summation (d) Score
grammatical error. If any part contains error then
25. In the following question, out of the four mark that option as the answer and if there is no
alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to error then mark "no error" as the answer.
the word given. (a) As per the directions of our new editor,
Dunce (b) each of the mistakes have to be corrected
(a) Forthcoming (b) Genius (c) before the final version is sent for printing.
(c) Developing (d) Sacred (d) No error

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30. out of the four alternatives, choose the one which Some reformers pray for a financial crisis that will
can be substituted for the given words/sentences. shake the politicians from their stupor, as happened
A group of people hired to applaud or abuse a in 1991, allowing the PM to sneak through his changes.
performer or public speaker What a paradox! Though India's banks face bad debts,
(a) Mob (b) Claque its cloistered financial system, high foreign-exchange
(c) Throng (d) Posse reserves and capable central bank mean it is not
about to keel over.
Direction (Q.31-Q.35): Read the following passage
and answer the questions that follow. Instead the dreary conclusion is that India's feeble
In A world economy as troubled as today's, news that politics are now ushering in several years of feebler
India's growth rate has fallen to 5.3% may not seem economic growth. Indeed, the politicians' most
important. But the rate is the lowest in seven years, complacent belief is that voters will just put up with
and the sputtering of India's economic miracle carries lower growth—because they supposedly care only
social costs that could surpass the pain in the Euro about state handouts, the next meal, cricket and
zone. religion. But as Indians discover that slower growth
means fewer jobs and more poverty, they will become
But now, after a slump in the currency, a drying up of
angry. Perhaps that will be no bad thing, if it makes
private investment and those GDP figures, the miracle
them vote for change
feels like a mirage. Whether India can return to a path
of high growth depends on its politicians — and, in 31. The author says that the fall in India’s growth may
the end, its voters. The omens, frankly, are not good. not seem that important because
(a) the rate is lowest in seven years
Some of this crunch reflects the rest of the world's
(b) the fall would cost India socially
woes. The Congress-led coalition government, with
(c) it is not a new phenomenon
Brezhnev-grade complacency, insists things will
(d) the world economy is going through a relatively
bounce back. But India's slowdown is due mainly to
worse phase.
problems at home and has been looming for a while.
The state is borrowing too much, crowding out 32. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
private firms and keeping inflation high. It has not (a) Eurozone is going through some kind of crisis.
passed a big reform for years. (b) India’s economic growth in 2009 was less than
that in 2007.
The remedies, agreed on not just by foreign investors
(c) The value of the rupee has dropped.
and liberal newspapers but also by the government,
(d) The millions of poor Indian’s will never come out
are blindingly obvious. A combined budget deficit of
of poverty.
nearly a tenth of GDP must be tamed, particularly by
cutting wasteful fuel subsidies. India must reform tax 33. The author puts the main blame for India’s economic
and foreign-investment rules. It must speed up big slump on which of the following?
industrial and infrastructure projects. It must (a) Global recession
confront corruption. None of these tasks is (b) Uncontrollable factors
insurmountable. Most are supposedly government (c) International problems
policy. (d) Domestic causes

When the government tries to clear bottlenecks, 34. Which of the following is not a ‘remedy’ referred to by
feuding and overlapping bureaucracies can get in the the author?
way. When it suggests raising fuel prices, it faces (a) Control the budget deficit.
protests and backs down. When it tries to pass (b) Improve tax and foreign investment rules.
reforms on foreign investment, its populist coalition (c) Speed up big industrial and infrastructural
partners threaten to pull the plug. It does not help projects.
that the ageing PM has little clout of his own: he (d) Reduce wasteful use of fuel.
reports to the ailing president of the ruling party

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35. Which of the following best describes ‘the paradox’


the author mentions in the penultimate paragraph?
(a) The PM’s being allowed to come out of the
economic crisis by sneaking through changes.
(b) Despite being faced with great difficulties the
Indian banks and financial system are not about to
keel over.
(c) Economic reformers, who are desirous to come
out of the present crisis, desiring for another as a
remedy.
(d) The PM, who can bring the economic situation
under control, not being allowed to sneak through his
changes.
36. In which city is the Netaji Subhash National Institute
of Sports situated?
(a) New Delhi (b) Patiala
(c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata
37. Which religious teacher established four maths in
four corners of the country at Badrinath (North), 43. Which products are identified as key drivers for the
Dwarka (West), Puri (East) & Sringeri (South)? growth of India’s MMF textile exports?
(a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Guru Nanak (a) Leather goods
(c) Adi Shankaracharya (d) Ramanuja (b) Synthetic footwear
(c) Curtains, drapes, and interior blinds
38. Which element is necessarily present in all acids?
(d) Wooden furniture
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Carbon (d) Nitrogen 44. Diamond and Graphite are allotropes of which
element?
39. Who out of the following authored the book 'Business
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon
at the Speed of Thought'?
(c) Silicon (d) Nitrogen
(a) Warren Buffett (b) Elon Musk
(c) Bill Gates (d) Mark Zuckerberg 45. Who is the only Indian cricketer to have taken all 10
wickets in a Test innings?
40. Which organ in the human body produces Bile?
(a) Kapil Dev (b) Anil Kumble
(a) Stomach (b) Liver
(c) Harbhajan Singh (d) Ravichandran Ashwin
(c) Pancreas (d) Kidneys
46. What regulatory measure was introduced by the
41. What is the role of Siemens AG and Kyosan Electric
Indian government in April 2020 regarding FDI from
Manufacturing Co in the deployment of the Kavach
neighboring countries?
system?
(a) Mandatory Registration
(a) Upgrading existing railway networks
(b) Pre-Approval Requirement
(b) Developing open-source technology
(c) Tax Incentives
(c) Deploying advanced 4G and 5G technology
(d) Automatic Clearance
(d) Participating in radio surveys
47. What is the current status of foreign portfolio
42. What recent approval has Uttar Pradesh Chief
investments in Indian equities for the calendar year?
Minister Yogi Adityanath given, and where will the
(a) A net outflow of funds
groundbreaking initiative be established?
(b) Approximately ₹96,340 crore invested
(a) Approval for a new airport in Lucknow
(c) A decrease compared to the previous year
(b) Approval for a shopping mall in Agra
(d) No significant foreign investor interest
(c) Approval for a Telecom Center of Excellence in
Saharanpur 48. Why has India resumed importing Venezuelan crude
(d) Approval for a sports complex in Varanasi oil?
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(a) Due to a surplus in domestic oil production. 55. What did Tata AutoComp Systems recently sell in
(b) Following the easing of U.S. sanctions on Pune?
Venezuela. (a) Manufacturing unit
(c) To counter rising oil prices in the Middle East. (b) Land parcel and structure
(d) In response to increased oil demand in India. (c) Research and development center
(d) Fleet of vehicles
49. What is the primary focus of the World Bank’s
initiative, led by President Ajay Banga, to scale 56.
8

36
+
54

27
is the expansion for
𝑥3 𝑥 2𝑦 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑦3
climate finance through the Private Sector
(a) (2/x - 3/y)3 (b) (2/x + 3/y)3
Investment Lab (PSIL)?
(c) (3/x - 2/y)3 (d) (3/x + 2/y)3
(a) Reducing carbon emissions directly
(b) Creating a securitizable asset class for climate 57. In △ABC, E and F are points on AB and AC such that
investments EF II BC. EF then produced to G such that ∠FCG =
(c) Increasing government funding for climate ∠FGC. If AE/AB = 5/9 and AC = 72 cm, then find the
projects length of FG.
(d) Implementing carbon offset programs (a) 32 cm (b) 40 cm
(c) 44 cm (d) Cannot be determined
50. Why did India refrain from signing the COP28
Declaration on Climate and Health? 58. The number of students in a hostel increases from
(a) Lack of awareness about the declaration’s 5400 and becomes 6075. By what percentage should
content the hostel reduce the consumption of food so that the
(b) Concerns that reducing greenhouse gas expenditure does not increase?
emissions for cooling in healthcare infrastructure (a) 12(1/2)% (b) 10%
could hinder medical services in underserved (c) 11(1/9)% (d) 8(1/3)%
areas
59. If c = a + b - x, a = b + c - y and 2b = z, then find the
(c) Disinterest in global climate initiatives
value of (x2- y2- z2)/4.
(d) Political disagreements with COP28 Presidency
(a) b (a + b + c) (b) c (a - b - c)
51. Who is considered the father of the Mobile Phone? (c) a (a + b + c) (d) b (a - c - b)
(a) Steve Jobs (b) Martin Cooper
60. The average runs scored by Aman in 12 innings is 2.5
(c) Bill Gates (d) Mark Zuckerberg
more than the average runs scored by Pritam in 11
52. Gayatri Mantra is addressed to which Hindu god? innings. Pritam and Aman scored 79 and 93 runs
(a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Vishnu respectively in 12th inning. If the average runs scored
(c) Surya (Sun god) (d) Lord Ganesha by Pritam in 12 innings is 24, then what is the average
runs scored by Aman in 11 innings?
53. What is the primary purpose of a windfall tax in the
(a) 14 (b) 16
context of the energy sector?
(c) 15 (d) 17
(a) To encourage companies to generate higher
profits 61. A person bought a home theatre system that cost Rs.
(b) To prevent companies from earning any profits 25344 and made the payment in two equal
(c) To regulate excessive profits during favorable instalments at the rate of 25% rate of interest
market conditions compounded annually. What is the instalment that he
(d) To increase government revenue from all paid each year?
industries (a) Rs. 9011 (b) Rs. 16460
(c) Rs. 17600 (d) Rs. 17450
54. What is the primary goal of the Amplifi 2.0 portal
launched by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban 62. A six-digit number 749xyz is divisible by 9, 11 and 4,
Affairs in India? then what is the value of {3x - (4y + 5z)/2x}? [Assume
(a) Enhancing Agricultural Practices x ≠ z]
(b) Centralizing Data for Urban Development (a) 12 (b) 13
(c) Promoting Rural Infrastructure (c) 14 (d) 11
(d) Facilitating Health Services

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63. Height of a trapezium is 4 cm more than its shorter 69. The ratio of cost price of 2 articles is 4:5. If they are
parallel side and 12 cm less than its longer parallel marked up by 25% and 20% respectively and the
side. If area of trapezium is 896 cm2, then calculate its percentage discount provided on them is 10% and
height. 5% respectively, what is the ratio of their Selling
(a) 32 cm (b) 36 cm prices?
(c) 24 cm (d) 28 cm (a) 12:13 (b) 15:19
(c) 16:21 (d) 17:19
64. A shopkeeper mixes good quality Rice which cost him
Rs 60/kg and a poor-quality rice which cost him Rs 70. In the following diagram, O is the centre of the circle
35/kg in the ratio 3:2. What is the discount and AD is parallel to BC. If ∠AOB = 52 and ∠DFC = 64,
percentage provided by him if he sells it after a mark- what is the measure of ∠FAE?
up of 28% such that he makes a profit of 15.2%?
(a) 5% (b) 8%
(c) 10% (d) 12%
65. R and S started a business by investing Rs. 1600 and
Rs. 2480 respectively. S left the business after a few
months. At the end of twelve months, the ratio of the
share of the profits received by R and S is 48:31
respectively. After how many months did S leave the
business?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) 48° (b) 50°
66. The value of (5 3/4 + 4 2/3) - [48% of 25 × (3 5/8 ÷ 1 (c) 52° (d) 54°
13/16 + 7 3/4 - 12 1/8)] + (32 ÷ (4/3))% of 50 is:
5 11 71. Find that value of (coefficient of x2y2 ÷ coefficient of
(a) 11 (b) 50
12
11
12
7
x4) in the expansion of (2x + 3y)4.
(c) 40 (d) 48 (a) 14.5 (b) 12.5
12 12
(c) 11.5 (d) 13.5
67. Upper and lower radii of frustum of a cone are 7 cm
and 14 cm respectively. If the lateral surface area of 72. Downstream speed of boat A is 80% of downstream
the frustum of cone is 462 √5 cm3 , then find its speed of boat B and the ratio of upstream speed of
approximate volume (in cm3). (take π = 22/7) boat A and boat B is 9: 13 respectively. Speed of boat
(a) 5031 (b) 5155 A is approximately what percent of speed of boat B in
(c) 4873 (d) 4939 still water?
(a) 69%
68. If (Ax3 + 27y3) ÷ (Bx + 3y) = 16x2 + 9y2- Cxy, then what (b) 71%
is the value of B(A - C)? (c) 76%
(a) 188 (b) 208 (d) Cannot be determined
(c) 196 (d) 212

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73. The value of perimeter of rectangle is 68 cm and the statements. Choose the option which shows the
ratio of length to width is 4 ∶ 13. Find the difference in conclusions which logically follow from the given
the area when the value of length and width is statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
increased by 50%. Statements:
(a) 348 cm2 (b) 260 cm2 All verbs are nouns.
(c)225 cm 2 (d)468 cm2 Some nouns are adverbs.
No adverb is an adjective.
74. The vehicle of Mr. Ghosh needs 30% more fuel at the
Conclusions:
speed of 75 kmph than it needs at the speed of 50
I. Some verbs can be adverbs.
kmph. At a speed of 50 kmph, Mr. Ghosh can go to a
II. Some nouns are not adjectives.
distance of 195 kms. At the speed of 75 kmph, he will
III. Some nouns are verbs.
able to travel a distance of
(a)Only I follows
(a) 120 kms (b) 150 kms
(b) Only I and III follows
(c) 160 kms (d) 140 kms
(c) Either I or III and II follows
75. Which of the following pairs of numbers are relative (d) All I, II and III follow
primes?
81. Ria is running in the east direction and runs for 45.2
(i) 24, 25
m. Then, she turns towards the west direction and
(ii) 133, 285
runs for 87.5 m. Finally, she turns towards the east
(iii) 210, 255
direction and runs for 50.4 m. How far is she from her
(iv) 15, 91
starting point?
(v) 123, 164
(a) 12.5 m (b) 11.7 m
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (i), (iv) and (v)
(c) 8.1 m (d) 6.8 m
(c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) Only (iv) and (v)
82. Study the given pattern carefully and select the
Direction (Q.76-Q.79): Study the following
number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
information carefully to answer the given questions.
There are eight persons sitting around a circular table
facing the centre. Z is a neighbour of W. Number of
persons sitting between A and P is the same as the
number of persons sitting between M and Q. D sits to
the immediate right of K. Two persons are sitting
between Q and W. Three persons are sitting between
K and A. Q is a neighbour of K and P is not a neighbour
of Q.
76. Who sits second to the left of P?
(a) W (b) Z
(c) D (d) Q (a) 12 (b) 21
(c) 16 (d) 18
77. What is the position of M with respect to D?
(a) Immediate left (b) Second to the left 83. Select the option which shows the letter cluster which
(c) Second to the right (d) Third to the left can replace the question mark (?) in the series given
below.
78. Who among them are the immediate neighbours of A? aBDg, hIKn, oPRu, vWYb, ?
(a) Q and D (b) W and D (a) dGHk (b) dEHl
(c) P and Z (d) M and Z (c) cDFi (d) bEFj
79. Who sits opposite to Z? 84. Who is the oldest person?
(a) P (b) M (a) P (b) T
(c) Q (d) K (c) S (d) Cannot be determined
80. In the following question, three statements are given 85. How many persons are shorter than P?
and three conclusions are given below these
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(a) One (b) Two II. Some Indians living in the USA prefer cuisines that
(c) Three (d) Four are not Indian.
(a) Only II follows
86. Who is the tallest person?
(b) Neither I nor II follows
(a) Q (b) T
(c) Only I follows
(c) S (d) P
(d) Both I and II follow
87. In a certain coded language, "TODAY" is coded as "23"
91. In the following question, out of the four figures
and "MOON" is coded as "14". Then, what will be the
marked (I), (II), (III) and (IV), three are similar in a
code for "CHANNELS" in that coded language?
certain manner. However, one figure is not like the
(a) 23 (b) 47
other three. Choose the figure which is different from
(c) 79 (d) 62
the rest.
88. Select the option which can replace the question
marks (?) in the given series.
LO, ___, JQ, IR, HS, GT, FU, ___
(a) KP, EV (b) JO, DW
(c) JK, VW (d) MN, XC
89. Select the option which can replace the question mark (a) I (b) II
(?) in the given series. (c) III (d) IV
GH7, MN12, ST22, YZ42, ?, KL162, QR322 92. Statement:
(a) CD88 (b) IJ144 The Health Ministry issued an order to ban smoking
(c) EF82 (d) JK142 in public places from 2nd of October this year and a
fine of Rs.500 to be imposed on the defaulters.
Conclusions:
I. One should be ready to pay Rs.500 if one wants to
smoke in public places from 2nd of October this year.
II. The cigarette manufactures will incur losses from
the 2nd of October this year.
(a) if only conclusion I follows.
(b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either I or II follows.
(d) if neither I nor II follows.
93. Statement:
The information needs of villagers are entirely
different from that of urban people.
Conclusions:
I. There is no information need which is common for
villagers and urban people.
II. Urban people are well educated hence their needs
are different.
(a) if only conclusion I follows.
90. In the question below, a statement is given followed (b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either I or II follows.
by a few conclusions which may or may not follow
(d) if neither I nor II follows.
from the statement. Choose the one that reflects the
conclusion that follows. 94. In a coded language, FEAR is coded as 6, AWAY is
Statement: Most Indians living in the USA prefer coded as 2 and GONE is coded as 20, then what is the
eating Indian food. code for IRON ?
Conclusions: (a) 8 (b) 32
I. People residing in foreign countries miss the local (c) 24 (d) 11
cuisine of their native country.
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95. In a certain code language, "MISERY" is coded as relationship that is unique to each other. Read both
"1391951825", "PLUTO" is coded as "1612212015" the statements carefully and mark the answer.
find the code for "DONATE" in the same code Statement:
language. I. The factory employees have started their indefinite
(a) 416141204 (b) 515141206 hunger strike and lock out due to non-payment of
(c) 415141215 (d) 415141205 festival bonus by factory owner.
II. The trade union have called of their week-long
96. In a certain code language PRECISE is written as
strike and demonstration yesterday.
FULCBPO. How would MONSOON be written in that
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
code?
effect.
(a) OQRSNQQ (b) NQQSKML
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
(c) OQRSKML (d) OPQSKML
effect.
97. Direction: In the following question, two statements (c) Both the statements I and II are independent
are given. They may either be independent causes, causes.
independent effects or bear a cause and effect (d) Both the statements I and II are effects of
independent causes.

98. Find the mirror image of the figure given below when
a mirror is placed to the right of the figure:

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

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99. Which of the following figures among I, II, III, IV depict Year income Expenditure Profit %

the correct cube obtained on folding the given 2006 234.5 - 12.5%
unfolded hollow cube?
2007 208.6 193.6 -

2008 - 197.0 9.7 5%

2009 274.4 202.8 -

2010 332.0 - 25%

2011 - 218.6 21.25%

101. What is the expenditure of the company in 2010 (in


million rupees)?
(a) 265.6 (b) 256.5
(c) 260.9 (d) 206.9
(a) I (b) II
102. Income in 2011 is what percent more than that in
(c) III (d) IV
2007?
100. In the following question, a series is given, with one
(a) 26% (b) 16%
term missing. Choose the correct alternative from
(c) 27% (d) 32%
the given ones that will complete the series.
CAE, FEJ, IIO, LMT, ? 103. What is the average income of the company (In
(a) YOU (b) OUY rupees) in 2008?
(c) OQY (d) UIO (a) 255.1 million (b) 225.0 million
(c) 230.8 million (d) 248.4 million
Direction (Q.101-Q.105): Study the following
table and answer the questions given below it. 104. If the profit percent for the year 2005 was 2.5% less
than that for 2006, what was the expenditure for
Given below is the table showing income,
2005 (In million rupees)?
expenditure and profit percentage of a company.
(a) 238.8 (b) 204.0
Income and expenditure are in million rupees
(c) 196.7 (d) 213.2
105. What is the net profit percent of the company
during the period 2006-11?
(a) 18.88% (b) 21.42%
(c) 25.76% (d) 15.09%
Direction (Q.106-Q.110): There are 3 platforms in a railway station. Number of trains passing through these
platforms on 6 days of the week is given below:

50
43
40 37
33
31
30 28 27
23
20 17 17 16
13 13 14
11 11 12
9
10 7

0
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday

Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3

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106. If 35% of the trains passing through platform 1 (c) 319 (d) 337
have this railway station as the source, then the
109. If due to some construction work, Platform 2
ratio of trains passing through platform 1 which
remained closed on Saturday & all the trains
have other stations as source to the total number of
passing through platform 2 were equally divided
trains passing through platform 2 over whole week
into platforms 1 & 3. How much percent more trains
is?
pass through platform 1 than platform 3 in such
(a) 7:12 (b) 2:3
scenario?
(c) 25:39 (d) 8:13
(a) 54% (b) 67%
(c) 85% (d) 75%
107. On how many day(s) of the week, does number of
trains passing through platform 2 is less than the 110. Correct order of days according to number of trains
average number of trains passing through all passing through all platforms of the railway station
platforms on that particular day? is?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday >
(c) 3 (d) 4 Wednesday > Tuesday
(b) Thursday > Monday > Friday > Saturday >
108. If 1/5th of the trains passing through platform 3 are
Tuesday > Wednesday
superfast trains & 15% of the trains passing
(c) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Tuesday >
through platform 1 are Rajdhani trains. Rest all the
Wednesday > Friday
trains passing through all platforms are express
(d) Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday
trains. Find the number of express trains passing
>Tuesday > Wednesday
through the station over the week?
(a) 362 (b) 344
Direction (Q.111-Q.114): Following Pie charts represent the number of students, who have appeared and cleared
phase I of Civil Service Exam from various departments of an Arts and Science College.
Total number of students appeared for
Civil Service Exam = 5,484
Percentage of students appeared from various departments

Total number of students cleared phase I of


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Civil service Exam = 847


Students cleared from various departments in degree

Other, 67o

English, 88o

Commerce, 72o
Maths, 60o

Physics,
42o

Chemistry, 31o

111. The total number of students clearing phase I from article at Rs.120 such that on day 1 only one article
commerce and other department is what of A is sold and 450 articles of B were sold. Every
percentage of the number of students clearing day the sale of article A is increased by 4 articles
phase I from physics department(approx.) ? and the sale of article B is decreased by 6 articles.
(a) 340 % (b) 310 %
115. After how many days the shopkeeper will start
(c) 320 % (d) 330 %
earning profit on a whole?
112. What has the ratio between numbers of students (a) 75 Days (b) 100 Days
appeared from Maths and physics departments to (c) 107 Days (d) 108 Days
the number of students appeared from chemistry
and commerce departments?
(a) 16:15 (b) 15:17
(c) 16:17 (d) 15:16
113. From which department is the difference between
the number of students cleared and the number of
students appeared is the second minimum?
(a) Chemistry (b) Physics
(c) Commerce (d) Maths
114. What is the percentage of students, who did not
clear the phase I of the exam?
(a) 84.45% (b) 84.55%
(c) 83.55% (d) 83.45%

Direction (Q.115-Q.117): Study the given


information and answer the following questions
A shop keeper bought some articles of A and B at
Rs.90 and Rs. 160 per article. He sold them each

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116. From which day the shopkeeper will start earning 117. What is the loss observed by selling articles A and B
profit on daily basis? on Day 23?
(a) 49th day (b) 50th day (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs.10,050
(c) 51st day (d) 75th day (c) Rs. 10,360 (d) Rs. 11,500
Direction (Q.118-Q.120): Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Below Chart has price of each share of 3 companies over the 5 years.

1600

1400

1200

1000

800

600

400

200

0
2017 2018 2019 2020 2021

ABC XYZ PQR

(a) 14.5% more (b) 12% less


118. In which of the following years the difference
(c) 10% less (d) 12.5% more
between the share price of XYZ and ABC is
maximum? 120. What is the difference between the average per
(a) 2018 and 2019 (b) 2019 and 2017 share average per share value of ABC for the year
(c) 2017 and 2020 (d) 2020 and 2021 2018, 2019 and 2020 and average per share value
of PQR for the years 2017, 2018 and 2019?
119. How much percent is the average per share value of
(a) 97.67 (b) 83.33
PQR over the years is more less than the per share
(c) 57.33 (d) 49.33
value of XYZ in 2018?

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ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS


1. (c) is the correct answer. sense. B is the right answer.
2. (d) is the correct answer. 16. (a) Sol. Hinder - prevent. Obstacle - barrier. Assault -
3. (b) is the correct answer. attack. We need a verb here, so C is incorrect as it is
4. (b) is the correct answer. a noun. Also, we need the simple past tense of the
5. (d) is the correct answer. verb, as the sentence is in past tense. So, B is
6. (b) is the correct answer. incorrect as it is in the simple present tense. D makes
7. (a) is the correct answer. no contextual sense. A is the right answer.
8. (b) is the correct answer. 17. (d) Sol. Deceived - tricked. Frightening - causing
9. (b) is the correct answer. someone to get scared. Alarmed - scared. We need an
10. (d) is the correct answer. adjective here, so C is incorrect as it can act only as a
11. (a) Sol. We need a noun in the given blank, while option noun or a verb. B is incorrect as we need an adjective
C and D are verb. 'courage' does not fit the context of that means scared, not one that means causing one
the sentence. 'Account' for means to give a to become scared. A makes no contextual sense. D is
satisfactory record of something or to possess the the right answer.
responsibility of something. Option (a) is the right 18. (d) Sol. The given sentence is perfectly correct, making
answer. option D, the correct answer.
12. (a) Sol. Salubrious: healthy. 19. (c) Sol. The context is of past tense which will require
Lugubrious: Sad the past tense form of "reach", thereby eliminating
Savoury: Taste of salt or spicy. the original phrase. Option A houses an incorrectly
We need an adjective in the blank, while C is an structured phrase as the infinitive 'to' must be
adverb. Gooseberry (fruit) juice cannot be salty or followed by the base form of the verb. "Till" from
spicy. But it is healthy. So, salubrious is the correct option B will provide a different meaning, which
option. won't be correct here. Hence, option C will be the
13. (c) Sol. Sanction - official grant for something. A will not correct answer.
fit in the context, as the passage is not talking about 20. (a) Sol. R begins by telling us about the topic of
something formal or official. B is a verb while we discussion - alcohol. S comments on its
need a noun. Between the remaining two words, omnipresence and tells us that it is hard for people
only C makes contextual sense. to stop drinking. PQ follow as a pair: P tells us on a
14. (a) Sol. Fond - to like something. Familiar - to know well. scientific method that can help people to stop
Offended - insulted. B and C will be incorrect as they drinking. Q gives us the cost of using such a method.
should be followed by the preposition with, instead RSPQ is the final order.
of ‘of’. D makes no contextual sense in the passage. A 21. (c) Sol. Q begins the passage by introducing the main
is the right answer. character - Boone. It tells us that the girls hadn't
15. (b) Sol. Comrade – companion/ friend. Possession - returned home. R follows by telling us that he
something which one owns. We need the plural form started a pursuit accompanied by some neighbours.
of the noun here, as warranted by the construction S continues by telling us how they were guided in
one + of + the + noun’. So, A is incorrect. Also, we their pursuit. P concludes the passage by telling us
need a noun here, so C is incorrect as it is an they stormed into the camp and killed some Indians.
adjective. D is incorrect as it makes no contextual QRSP is the final order.

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22. (b) Sol. 'Diffident' means modest or shy because of a lack NEVER come out of poverty.
of self-confidence. 'Bashful' means reluctant to draw 33. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct answer as in the third
attention to oneself; shy. Clearly, the two words are paragraph, second sentence, the author says, “... due
synonyms of each other, making option B, the mainly to…” clearly, it is domestic cause. (a) is not
correct answer. mentioned in the passage. (b) is not blamed by the
23. (b) Sol. 'Culminate' means to reach a 'climax' or point of author. No traces of (c) can be found.
highest development. Hence, option B will be the 34. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct choice as In the fourth para, the
correct answer. 'Jeopardize' means to put (someone author refers to the remedies. All except 4 are
or something) into a situation in which there is a mentioned. The author talks about fuel subsidies,
danger of loss, harm, or failure. not the use of fuel itself. (a) and (b) and and (c) are
24. (a) Sol. 'Ceremonious' means relating or appropriate to mentioned by the author in para 4.
35. (c) Sol. option (c) is correct as In the penultimate
grand and formal occasions. The opposite of this
paragraph the author talks about reformers praying
would be unceremonious, meaning having or
for a crisis which will wake the politicians from their
showing a lack of courtesy; rough or 'abrupt'. Hence,
stupor. Now, in a crisis situation wishing for another
option A will be the correct answer. 'Summation'
is paradoxical. This is best expressed in c. (a) is
means summary.
nowhere mentioned. (b) is not a close option thus
25. (b) Sol. 'Dunce' means a person who is slow at learning; can be omitted. (d) is out of scope of the
a stupid person. 'Genius' will be the apt antonym of 36. (b) Patiala
it. Hence, option B will be the correct answer. It is considered a Premier Sports Institute in Asia.
26. (c) Sol. The idiom "A litmus Test" refers to a method The Institute is located at Moti Bagh Palace, Patiala
employed to determine whether something is (Punjab).
correct or not. 37. (c) Adi Shankaracharya
27. (a) Sol. The idiom "Bite off more than you can chew" Shankaracharya was an early 8th century Indian
refers to not being able to complete a task due to lack philosopher and theologian who consolidated the
of ability. doctrine of Advaita Vedanta. He established four
28. (b) Sol. The word 'when' is used with the conjunctive major mathas in different regions of India -
adverb 'hardly' instead of 'than'. 'Than' is usually Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri.
used when comparing, which is not the case here. 38. (b) Hydrogen
Hence, the correct form will be 'had hardly died The element common to all acids is Hydrogen. The
down when'. number of standardized hydrogen ions accounts for
29. (b) Sol. Syntax: Each + of + noun (plural) + verb the acidity of a compound. The more the number of
(singular). Each uses singular verb/auxiliary, hence Hydrogen ion in the solution, the more acidic the
replace 'have' with 'has'. solution is.
30. (b) Sol. Mob: a large crowd of people, especially one that 39. (c) Bill Gates
is disorderly and intent on causing trouble or Business at the Speed of Thought is a book written
violence. by Bill Gates and Collins Hemingway in 1999. It
discusses how business and technology are
Claque: A group of people hired to applaud or abuse
integrated, and explains how digital infrastructures
a performer or public speaker.
and information networks can help someone get an
Throng: a large, densely packed crowd of people or
edge on the competition.
animals.
40. (b) Liver
Posse: a group of people who have come together
Bile is a fluid that is made and released by the liver
for the same purpose
and stored in the gallbladder. Bile helps with
31. (d) Sol. option (d) is the correct answer as The, very first
digestion. It breaks down fats into fatty acids, which
sentence of the passage gives us the answer to this:
can be taken into the body by the digestive tract.
In a world… seem important.’ This clearly means
41. (d) Siemens AG and Kyosan Electric Manufacturing Co
that the world is going through a worse phase in
are involved in the deployment, and the
comparison to India. This is why news about India’s
collaboration involves radio surveys.
bad phase may not seem that important. (a) is
42. (c) Approval for a Telecom Center of Excellence in
nowhere mentioned. (b) and (c) are irrelevant.
Saharanpur. The Chief Minister has given approval
32. (d) Sol. (d) is the correct answer for this question.
for the establishment of the country’s inaugural
Choices (a) and (b) be understood from the first
Telecom Center of Excellence in Saharanpur.
paragraph, choice (c) can be understood from the
43. (c) Curtains, drapes, and interior blinds. These products
first sentence of the second paragraph Choice (d) is
made from synthetic fibres are highlighted as crucial
extreme in nature and cannot be inferred. The
in driving the growth of India’s MMF textile exports.
author merely says the 2004 - 08 growth promised
44. (b) Carbon
to lift India’s poor out of poverty which would not
happen now. Well this does not mean that they will
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Diamond and Graphite are allotropes of carbon. 2 3 3 3 2 3 2 3


They consist of carbon atom atoms but they have = ( ) − ( ) − 3 ⋅ ( ) ⋅ ( ) [( ) − ( )]
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
different physical properties. They are polymorphs
2 3 3
having the same chemistry but the crystalline =( − )
𝑥 𝑦
structures are different.
57. (a) According to the question:
45. (b) Anil Kumble
On this day, February 7, in 1999, India's spin legend
Anil Kumble became only the second bowler and
the first Indian to claim all 10 wickets in an innings
of a Test match. Kumble achieved this 'unthinkable
feat' in the Delhi Test at the Feroz Shah Kotla
ground (now Arun Jaitley Stadium) against arch-
rivals Pakistan.
46. (b) In April 2020, the government mandated prior
approval for foreign investments from countries
sharing land borders with India to prevent
opportunistic takeovers, particularly in the context
of the COVID-19 pandemic.
47. (b) Foreign portfolio investors have injected
approximately ₹96,340 crore into Indian equities Here, AE/AB = AF/AC
this calendar year. Then, 5/9 = AF/72
48. (b) India resumed imports after the temporary lifting of AF = 40 cm
U.S. sanctions on Venezuela in October. Now, FC = AC - AF = 72 - 40 = 32 cm
49. (b) The PSIL’s main focus is on creating a securitizable Here, ∠FCG = ∠FGC, so, FC = FG
asset class in climate investments. Therefore, FG = 32 cm
50. (b) India refrained from signing due to concerns that the 58. (c) Percentage increase in the number of people = (6075
proposed reduction in greenhouse gas emissions for - 5400)/5400 × 100% = 12.5%
cooling in healthcare infrastructure might impede We know, in order to not increase expenditure,
the nation’s ability to meet the increasing demands reduction in consumption = (12.5/(100 + 12.5)) ×
for medical services, especially in remote and 100% = 11(1/9)%
underserved areas.
51. (b) Martin Cooper
Martin Cooper (born December 26, 1928, Chicago,
Illinois, U.S.) American engineer who led the team
that in 1972–73 built the first mobile cell phone and
made the first cell phone call. He is widely regarded
as the father of the cellular phone.
52. (c) Surya
The Gāyatrī mantra is dedicated to Savitṛ, a Sun
deity. The mantra is attributed to the much revered
sage Vishwamitra, who is also considered the
author of Mandala 3 of Rig Veda.
53. (c) A windfall tax is designed to regulate excessive
profits that companies may earn during favorable
market conditions. It aims to ensure a fair
distribution of wealth and prevent profiteering.
54. (b) The primary goal of the Amplifi 2.0 portal is to
centralize and streamline raw data from cities across
India for effective urban development.
55. (b) Tata AutoComp Systems sold a 13.26-acre land
parcel along with a 100,000 sq ft structure in Pune’s
Maan area.
8 36 54 27 59. (d) c = a + b - x
56. (a) ( − + − )
𝑥3 𝑥2𝑦 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑦3 x = a + b - c ........ (1)
3 3
2 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 a=b+c-y
= ( ) − ( ) − 3( ) ⋅ ( ) − 3⋅ ( )( ) y = b + c - a ....... (2)
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
2b = z ........ (3)
Now,

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(x2- y2- z )/4 x+z = 17/2, which is not possible.


= [{(x - y) (x + y)} - z2]/4 So, {3x – (4y + 5z)/2x} = {3 × 6 – (4 × 2 + 5 × 8)/(2 ×
= [{(a + b - c - b - c + a) (a + b - c + b + c - a)} - 6)} = 14
(2b)2]/4 63. (d) Let height of trapezium = h cm
= [{(a - c - c + a) (b + b)} - 4b2]/4 Longer parallel side = (h + 12) cm
= [4b (a - c) - 4b2]/4 Shorter parallel side = (h - 4) cm
= b (a - c - b) Now, area = (1/2) × (sum of parallel side) × height
60. (c) The average runs scored by Pritam in 11 innings = 896 = (1/2) × (h + 12 + h - 4) × h
(12 × 24 - 79)/11 = 19 h2 + 4h - 896 = 0
Now, the average runs scored by Aman in 12 (h + 32)(h - 28) = 0
innings = 2.5 + 19 = 21.5 h = -32, 28 (but height cannot be negative)
Therefore, the average runs scored by Aman in 11 So, height = 28 cm
innings = (21.5 × 12 - 93)/11 = 15 64. (c) C.P of the mixed Rice = (60×3 + 35×2)/5 = Rs 50/kg
61. (c) P = X/(1 + r/100) + X/(1 + r/100)2 + .. + X/(1 + For a %profit of 15.2%,
r/100)n S.P = 50× (115.2/100) = Rs 57.6
So, 25344 = X/(1 + 25/100) + X/(1 + 25/100)2 Since, %mark-up is 28%
25344 = X/(5/4) + X/(5/4)2 M.P = 50(1 + 28/100) = Rs 64/kg
25344 = X(20 + 16)/25 %discount = ((M.P - S.P)/M.P) ×100% = ((64 -
X = 17600 57.6)/64) ×100% = 10%
So, monthly instalment = Rs. 17600 65. (b) R and S started a business by investing Rs. 1600 and
62. (c) For divisibility by 11, Rs. 2480 respectively.
(7 + 9 + y) - (4 + x + z) = 0 or multiple of 11 Let S leave the business after 'm' months.
12 + y - x - z = 0 or 12 + y - x - z = 11 So, ratio of the shares of profits = (1600 ×
x - y + z = 12 ---------(1) 12):(2480 × m) = 240:31m
or x - y + z = 1 -----------(2) Hence, 240:31m = 48:31
For divisibility of 9: m=5
7 + 4 + 9 + x + y + z = multiple of 9 So, S left the business after 5 months.
20 + x + y + z = 27, 36 or 45 66. (b) (5 3/4 + 4 2/3) - [48% of 25 × (3 5/8 ÷ 1 13/16 + 7
So, x + y + z = 7, 16 or 25 -----(3) 3/4 - 12 1/8)] + (32 ÷ (4/3))% of 50
When x + y + z = 7 = (9 + (9+8)/12) - [12 × (29/8 × 16/29 - 5 + 3/4 -
So, from equation (1) and (3), we get 1/8)] + (32 × 3/4)% of 50
x + z = 19/2 which is not possible = (9 + 17/12) - [12×(2-5+(6-1)/8)] + 24% of 50
From equation (2) and (3), we get = (9 + 17/12) - [12 × (-3 + 5/8)] + 12
x+z=4 = (9 + 1 5/12) + (19×3)/2 + 12
y=3 = 10 + 5/12 + 28 + 1/2 + 12
For divisibility of 4, the last two digits of a number = 50 + (5+6)/12
must be divisible by 4. = 50 11/12
749xyz is divisible by 4 when yz = 32, 36 67. (a) For the frustum of a cone:
For z = 2, x = 2 which is not possible as x ≠ z. Lateral surface area = π × (R + r) × l
For z = 6, x = -2 which is not possible 462√5 = (22/7) × (14 + 7) × l
When x + y + z = 25 l = 7√5
So, from equation (1) and (2), we get Now, l2 = (R - r)2 + h2
x + z = 37/2 which is also not possible (7√5)2 = (14 - 7)2 + h2
From equation (2) and (3), we get h = 14 cm
x + z = 13 Therefore, volume = (1/3) × πh × (R2 + rR + r2)
y = 12, which is not possible = (1/3) × (22/7) × 14 × (142 + 7 × 14 + 72)
When x + y + z = 16 = 5031 cm3 (approx.)
So, from equation (1) and (2), we get 68. (b) We know, (a3 + b3) = (a + b)(a2- ab + b2)
x + z = 28/2 = 14 Then, on comparing the formula, we get A = (√16)3
So, y = 2 = 64
For divisibility of 4, last two digits of a number
And, B = √16 = 4
must be divisible by 4.
C = 12
749xyz is divisible by 4 when yz = 20, 24, 28
Therefore, B(A - C) = 4(64 - 12) = 208
For z = 0, x = 14 which is not possible
69. (b) Let the C.P of the articles be Rs 4k and Rs 5k
For z = 4, x = 10 which is not possible
respectively.
For z = 8, x = 6 which is possible.
M.P of first article = 4k(1 + 25/100) = Rs 5k
Hence, number is 749628
M.P of second article = 5k(1 + 20/100) = Rs 6k
From equation (2) and (3), we get
S.P of first article = 5k×(1 - 10/100) = Rs 9k/2
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S.P of second article = 6k× (1 - 5/100) = Rs 57k/10 s = (13a - 9b)/4


Required ratio = (9k/2) : (57k/10) = 45:57 = 15:19 4b - 5a = (13a - 9b)/4
70. (c) Joining BD, a = 25b/33
Percentage = 25 x 100/33 = 76% (approx.)
73. (b) Length ∶ width = 4 ∶ 13
⇒ l/w = 4/13
⇒ l = 4w/13
For the value of area,
⇒ Perimeter of rectangle = 2(l + w)
⇒ 68 = 2[(4w/13) + w]
⇒ 34 = 17w/13
⇒ (34 × 13)/17 = w
⇒ w = 26 cm
Now, l = 4w/13 = (4 × 26)/13 = 8 cm
Area of rectangle = w × l = 26 × 8 = 208 cm2
Value of length and width increase by 50%,
∠ADB = (1/2)*∠AOB = 26° Increased value of length = 1.5 × 8 = 12 cm
Since, AD is parallel to BC Increased value of width = 1.5 × 26 = 39 cm
∠DBC = ∠ODB = ∠ADB = 26° [Alternate angles] New area formed = 12 × 39 = 468 cm2
∠DEC = ∠DBC = 26° [Angles in same segment] ∴ Difference in the area = 468 – 208 = 260 cm2
∠AFE = ∠DFC = 64° [Vertically opposite angles] 74. (b) The only thing which matters in this problem is
∠DEA = 90° [Angle in a semicircle] mileage or kms per litre of the fuel. At 50 kmph 195
∠AEF = 90 − ∠DEF = 90 - 26 = 64° kms can be covered. According to condition 1.3
∠FAE = 180 – 2×64 = 52° times the fuel will be required at 75kmph.
71. (d) (r + 1)th term of (a + b)n = Tr + 1 = nCr an - r br Therefore, distance travelled will be 195/1.3 = 150
(r + 1)th term of (2x + 3y)4 = Tr + 1 = 4Cr(2x)4 - r(3y)r kms.
For coefficient of x4: 4 - r = 4 => r = 0 75. (c) (i) Numbers which are relative primes must have a
1st term of (2x + 3y)4 = T0 + 1 = 4C0 (2x)4 – 0 (3y)0 H.C.F. of 1, consecutive numbers are always relative
= 1 × 16x4 × 1 = 16x4 prime.
For coefficient of x2y2, 4 - r = 2 => r = 2 (ii) 133 = 19 × 7
3rd term of (2x + 3y)4 = T2 + 1 = 4C2 (2x)4 – 2 (3y)2 285 = 19 × 15
= 6 × 4x2 × 9y2 = 216x2y2 As 19 is the HCF of 133 and 285, they are not relative
Required answer = 216 ÷ 16 primes.
= 13.5 (iii) As both 210 and 255 are divisible by 3, they are
72. (c) Sol. Let speed of boat A and boat B in still water are not relative primes.
'a' km/hr and 'b' km/hr respectively and stream is (iv) 15 = 3 × 5
flowing with speed 's' km/hr. 91 = 7 × 13
Upstream speed of boat A = a - s As 15 and 91 have no common factor other than 1,
Upstream speed of boat B = b - s they are relative primes.
Downstream speed of boat A = a + s (v) 123 = 3 × 41
Downstream speed of boat B = b + s 164 = 4 × 41
a + s = 80% of (b + s) As 41 is a common factor of 123 and 164, 123 and
s = 4b - 5a 164 cannot be relatively primes.
And, (a - s): (b - s) = 9: 13

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76. (b) 1) Three persons are sitting between K and A.


2) D sits to the immediate right of K.
3) Q is a neighbour of K.

6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is


the same as the number of persons sitting between
M and Q.
4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W. 7) P is not a neighbour of Q.
5) Z is a neighbour of W. So, our final arrangement is,

6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is From the above arrangement, M sits third to the left
the same as the number of persons sitting between of D.
M and Q. Hence, “Third to the left” is the correct answer.
7) P is not a neighbour of Q.
So, our final arrangement is,

From the above arrangement, “Z” sits second to the


left of P.
Hence, “Z” is the correct answer.
77. (d) 1) Three persons are sitting between K and A.
2) D sits to the immediate right of K.
3) Q is a neighbour of K.

78. (c) 1) Three persons are sitting between K and A.


2) D sits to the immediate right of K.
3) Q is a neighbour of K.

4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W.


5) Z is a neighbour of W.
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3) Q is a neighbour of K.

4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W.


5) Z is a neighbour of W. 4) Two persons are sitting between Q and W.
5) Z is a neighbour of W.

6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is


the same as the number of persons sitting between 6) The number of persons sitting between A and P is
M and Q. the same as the number of persons sitting between
7) P is not a neighbour of Q. M and Q.
So, our final arrangement is, 7) P is not a neighbour of Q.
So, our final arrangement is,

From the above arrangement, “P and Z” are the


immediate neighbours of A. From the above arrangement, Q sits opposite to Z.
79. (c) 1) Three persons are sitting between K and A. Hence, “Q” is the correct answer.
2) D sits to the immediate right of K.

80. (d) The given statements are,


All verbs are nouns. Some nouns are adverbs. No adverb is an adjective.
The basic minimum overlapping diagram and another possible diagram are,

Here, some verbs can be adverbs, some nouns are not adjectives and some nouns are verbs.
Hence, all conclusions I, II and III follow.
81. (c) The distance from her starting point = 45.2 + 50.4 - 82. (a) Diagonally:
87.5 = 8.1 m 23 + 35 = 58 and 71 - 58 = 13

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41 + 17 = 58 and 71 - 58 = 13 Five persons – P through T, are comparing their


46 + 12 = 58 and 71 - 58 = 13 heights and ages. P is taller than the second oldest
83. (c) a B (c) D (e f) g h I (j) K (l m) n o P (q) R (s t) u v W person R. Only two persons are younger than Q. T is
(x) Y (z a) b c D (e) F (g h) i younger than P. No person is shorter as well as
Directions for questions 13 to 15: These questions younger than any one person.
are based on the following information.

84. (c) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
persons from the tallest to the shortest is same as the order of the persons from the youngest to the oldest.
Hence, Q is the third oldest as well as the third tallest. R is the second oldest as well as the second shortest.
It is given that P is taller than R. Hence, P is either the oldest or the second oldest. If P is the oldest, then he/she should be
the youngest. But this is not possible as it is given that T is younger than P.
Thus, P is the second oldest as well as the second youngest. T is the oldest as well as the youngest.
The final arrangement is as follows.
Order Height (tallest to shortest) Age (oldest to Youngest)
1 T S
2 P R
3 Q Q
4 R P
5 S T
S is the oldest person. Choice (C)
85. (c) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
persons from the tallest to the shortest is same as the order of the persons from the youngest to the oldest.
Hence, Q is the third oldest as well as the third tallest. R is the second oldest as well as the second shortest.
It is given that P is taller than R. Hence, P is either the oldest or the second oldest. If P is the oldest, then he/she should be
the youngest. But this is not possible as it is given that T is younger than P.
Thus, P is the second oldest as well as the second youngest. T is the oldest as well as the youngest.
The final arrangement is as follows.
Order Height (tallest to shortest) Age (oldest to Youngest)
1 T S
2 P R
3 Q Q
4 R P
5 S T
Three persons are shorter than P.
86. (b) The statement "no person is shorter as well as younger than any one of the individual person" implies that the order of the
persons from the tallest to the shortest is same as the order of the persons from the youngest to the oldest.
Hence, Q is the third oldest as well as the third tallest. R is the second oldest as well as the second shortest.
It is given that P is taller than R. Hence, P is either the oldest or the second oldest. If P is the oldest, then he/she should be
the youngest. But this is not possible as it is given that T is younger than P.
Thus, P is the second oldest as well as the second youngest. T is the oldest as well as the youngest.
The final arrangement is as follows.

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Order Height (tallest to shortest) Age (oldest to Youngest)


1 T S
2 P R
3 Q Q
4 R P
5 S T
T is the tallest person.
87. (d) The words are coded considering the number of letters in the words.
TODAY -- (5 x 5) - 2 = 25 - 2 = 23.
MOON -- (4 x 4) - 2 = 16 - 2 = 14.
Hence, "CHANNELS" is coded as -- (8 x 8) - 2 = 64 - 2 = 62.
88. (a) Here, the positions of letters in the alphabetical order and in the reverse alphabetical order are considered.

𝟏 𝟐 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

𝐀 𝐁 C D E F G H I J K L M

𝐙 𝐘 X W V U T S R Q P O N

𝟐𝟔 𝟐𝟓 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14

89. (c) GH (I J K L) MN (O P Q R) ST (U V W X) YZ (A B C D) 91. (c) Each outer figure has two smaller figures of the same
EF (G H I J) KL (M N O P) QR shape inside it such that one of them is darkened III
7 + 5 = 12; 12 + 10 = 22; 22 + 20 = 42; 42 + 40 = 82; has two pentagons inside the big (outer) hexagon.
82 + 80 = 162; 162 + 160 = 322. In each of the questions below is given a statement
90. (a) Only II follows. From the statement, we can conclude followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
that not all people prefer Indian food, i.e., there are have to assume everything in the statement to be
some people who like other cuisines more than true and then consider the two conclusions together
Indian cuisine. (I) does not follow as we cannot and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
generalize about people living abroad based on the reasonable doubt from the information given in the
given data which states only about Indians living in statement. Give your answer as
the USA.
92. (a) From the statement it cannot be said how effectively the order will be implemented. But it is clear that one should be
prepared for the eventuality in case one defaults. Hence I follows.
It is not known how such a ban is going to have an effect on the sales of cigarettes. Hence, II does not follow.
∴ Only I follows. Choice (1)
93. (c) The statement does not imply that it talks about each and every need of the village and urban people. Hence I does not
follow.
The reason for which the information needs of urban people differ from those of villagers are not referred to in the
statement. Hence II also does not follow. Choice (3)
94. (c) Here, the alphabets and their positions in the alphabetical order are considered.
Sum of positions of the vowels is the code for each word.
Here, IRON has two vowels which are I and O.
Hence, the code for IRON is 9 + 15 = 24.

𝟏 𝟐 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

𝐀 𝐁 C D E F G H I J K L M

𝐙 𝐘 X W V U T S R Q P O N

𝟐𝟔 𝟐𝟓 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14

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95. (d) When all the letters in alphabetical series from A to


Z are numbered from 1 to 26,
MISERY = 1391951825
PLUTO = 1612212015
DONATE = 415141205
D=4
O = 15
N = 14
A=1
T = 20
E=5
96. (c) First the given word is reversed and its letters are
shifted in the below manner: PRECISE
E S I C E R P
- - -
+1 +2 +3 0
3 2 1
F U L C B P O
Similarly, for MONSOON
N O O S N O M
+1 +2 +3 0 - -
-
3 2 1
O Q R S K M L
Hence, it would be written as OQRSKML Option c is 99. (c) 6 is opposite to 1
correct 2 is opposite to 4
97. (d) Both statements are the effects of independent cause. 3 is opposite to 5
The factory employees’ strike is due to non-payment
of festival bonus. The trade union called of the strike
because of some negotiations. There is no proof in
the statements to link the two incident. We cannot
say the same trade union strike and factory strikes
are the same as there is no sufficient evidence in the
two statements.

98. (d)

100. (c)
Alphabets A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Positional
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
value
Positional
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
value
Alphabets Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
The logic is as shown,
C + 3 → F, F + 3 → I, I + 3 → L, L + 3 → O
A + 4 → E, E + 4 → I, I + 4 → M, M + 4 → Q
E + 5 → J, J + 5 → O, O + 5 → T, T + 5 → Y
Hence, the required term is OQY.

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101. (a) 104. (d)


Required expenditure Profit percent for the year 2005 = 12.5% - 2.5% = 10%
100 So, expenditure for 2005
= × 332.0 =
100
× 234.5
100+25 100+10
100
= × 332.0 100
= 110 × 234.5
125
= 265.6 million ≈ 213.2 million
105. (a)
102. (c)
Expenditure for 2006
121.25
Income in 2011 = 100 × 218.6 100
= 100+12.5 × 234.5

= 265.05 ≈ 265.0 million 100


= 112.5 × 234.5
So, required percent ≈ 208.4 million
265.0−208.6
= × 100 Total income of the company for all the years
208.6 = 234.5 + 208.6 + 216.2 + 274.4 + 332.0 + 265.6
56.4
= × 100 = 27% = 1530.7 million
208.6 and total expenditure of the company for all the years
103. (a) = 2084 + 193.6 + 197.0 + 202.8 + 265.6 +218.6 = 1286 million
So, net profit of the company during the period 2006-11
1530 .7−1286
= × 100
1286
244.7
= × 100 = 18.88 %
1286
100+9.75
Income for 2008 = × 197
100
109.75
= 100 × 197
≈ 216.2 million
So, average income of the company
234.5+208.6+216.2+274.4+332.0+265.0
=
6

1530 .7
=
6
= Rs. 255.1 million

106. (b) From the given graphs we have:


Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362
Total no. of trains having this station as the source = 0.35 × 120 = 42
Trains having other stations as a source = 120 – 42 = 78
Total no. of trains passing through platform 2 = 117
Hence, ratio = 78: 117 = 2:3
107. (d) From the given graphs we have:
Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362

Day Average no. of Trains passing through


trains platform 2
Monday 58/3 = 19.33 28
Tuesday 43/3 = 14.33 11
Wednesday 35/3 = 11.67 17
Thursday 113.3 = 37.67 33
Friday 56/3 = 18.67 16
Saturday 57/3 = 19 12
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So, there are 4 days on which trains passing through platform 2 is less than average: Tuesday, Thursday, Friday &
Saturday
108. (c) From the given graphs we have:
Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362
Total trains passing through platform 3 = 125
Superfast trains = 125/5 = 25
Total trains passing through platform 1 = 120
Rajdhani trains = 0.15 ×120 = 18
Express trains = total trains – (superfast trains + Rajdhani trains) = 362 – 25 – 18 = 319
109. (c) From the given graphs we have:
Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362
If platform 2 is closed, 6 extra trains each will pass through platform 1 and 3.
Then no. of trains passing through platform 1 = 31 + 6 = 37
& no. of trains passing through platform 3 = 14 + 6 = 20
Hence, percent = (37- 20)/20 × 100 = 17/20 × 100 = 85%
110. (d) From the given graphs we have:
Platform 1 Platform 2 Platform 3 Total
Monday 13 28 17 58
Tuesday 9 11 23 43
Wednesday 11 17 7 35
Thursday 43 33 37 113
Friday 13 16 27 56
Saturday 31 12 14 57
Total 120 117 125 362
The correct order is Thursday > Monday > Saturday > Friday > Tuesday > Wednesday

111. (d) → No. of students cleared from commerce & other dept. → Difference = (768-99) = 669
= [(72+67) /360]*847 = (139/360)* 847 = 327 Chemistry Department:
→ No. of students cleared physics department → Appeared = (11/100) * 5484 = 603
= (42/360)* 847 = 99 → Cleared = (31/360)* 847= 73
→ X= (327/99)* 100 → Difference = (603-73) = 530 (ans)
→ X= 330 % (ans) Commerce Department:
112. (c) → Ratio = (Maths +Physics): (Chemistry + Commerce) → Appeared = (23/100) * 5484 = 1261
= (18+14): (11+23) = 32: 34 = 16:17 (ans) → Cleared = (72/360)* 847= 169
113. (a) English Department: → Difference = (1261-169) = 1092
→ Appeared = (27/100) * 5484 = 1481 Other Departments:
→ Cleared = (88/360)* 847=207 → Appeared = (7/100) * 5484 = 384
→ Difference = (1485-207) = 1274 → Cleared = (67/360)* 847= 158
Maths Department: → Difference = (384-158) =226
→ Appeared = (18/100) * 5484 = 987 114. (b) → No. of students not cleared= (5484 -847) = 4637
→ Cleared = (60/360)* 847=141 → % of students not cleared = (4637/5484) *100 =
→ Difference = (987-141) = 846 84.55 % (ans)
Physics Department: 115. (d) 108 Days
→ Appeared = (14/100) * 5484 = 768 Day A B
→ Cleared = (42/360)* 847=99 Day 1 1∗ 30 450∗ 40

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Day 2 ∗
5 30 ∗
444 40 Difference in 2020 = 450 - 300 = 150
Day 76 301∗ 30 0∗ 40 Difference in 2021 = 500 - 350 = 150
Total loss = 75/2(2*450+74*6)*40 = 684000 The difference was maximum in 2020 and 2021.
Total profit must be greater than 684000 Hence, option 4.
n/2(2*1+(n1)*4)*30 >684000 119. (d) Average per share value of PQR over the years = (500+
For n =108 above equation satisfies 450 +500 +350 + 450)/5 = 450
116. (c) (1+(n-1)*4)*30> (450+(n-1)*-6)*40 Required percentage = (450 x 100)/400 - 100 = 12.5%
n>50.91 Hence, option 4.
n=51 120. (b) Average per share value of ABC in 2018, 2019 and 2020
117. (b) Day 23: Articles A sold : 89 then profit = 89*30 =2670 = (300 + 450 + 450)/3 = 400
Articles B sold: 318 loss = 318*40 = 12720 Average per share value of PQR in 2017, 2018 and
118. (d) Difference in 2017 = 450 - 350 = 1008 2019 = (500+ 450 + 500)/3 = 483.33
Difference in 2018 = 400 - 300 = 100 ∴ required difference = 483.33 - 400 = 83.33
Difference in 2019 = 450 - 450 = 0 Hence, option 2.

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