THE UNIVERSITY OF ZAMBIA

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS – JULY 2016

HUMAN ANATOMY
HAN 3010

TIME ALLOWED: 3 HOURS MAXIMUM MARKS:

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
1. Attempt ALL questions
2. Read the instructions to each Section.
3. Write your computer number on each paper submitted

COMPUTER NUMBER:_________________________

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SECTION I: ONE CORRECT ANSWER MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 100

Select the one most appropriate answer from the alternatives A – E in each question, by
marking X on the answer sheet grid. There is no penalty for wrong answer

1. During a fight a man is stabbed in the lateral chest beneath the right arm. The wound
does not enter the chest cavity. Physical examination reveals that the vertebral
(medial) border of the patient's scapula projects posteriorly and is closer to the
midline on the injured side. On return visit the patient complains that he cannot reach
as far forward (such as to reach for a door knob) as he could before the injury. The
nerve injured which caused these symptoms is the:

A. axillary
B. long thoracic
C. musculocutaneous
D. radial
E. suprascapular

2. A man suffers a penetrating wound through the anterior axillary fold, with resulting
damage to one of the main terminal branches of the brachial plexus. Among the
effects is a significant weakening of flexion of the elbow. One or more other effects to
be expected is (are):
A. Loss of cutaneous sensation on the tips of several fingers
B. Only loss of cutaneous sensation on the anterolateral surface of the forearm
C. Only weakening of flexion at the shoulder
D. Weakening of flexion at the shoulder and loss of cutaneous sensation on the
anterolateral surface of the arm
E. Weakening of flexion at the shoulder and loss of cutaneous sensation on the
anterolateral surface of the forearm

3. A person sustains a left brachial plexus injury in an auto accident. After initial
recovery the following is observed: 1) the diaphragm functions normally, 2) there is
no winging of the scapula, 3) abduction cannot be initiated, but if the arm is helped
through the first 45 degrees of abduction, the patient can fully abduct the arm. From
this amount of information and your knowledge of the formation of the brachial
plexus where would you expect the injury to be:

A. axillary nerve
B. posterior cord
C. roots of plexus
D. superior trunk
E. suprascapular nerve

4. The cords of the brachial plexus are:

A. above the clavicle, medial to the scalenus medius
B. above the clavicle, anterior to the scalenus anterior
C. below the clavicle, closely related to the axillary artery.
D. below the clavicle, closely related to the subclavian vein
E. four in number

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5. A man riding a motorcycle hit a wet spot in the road, lost control, and was thrown
from his bike. He landed on the right side of his head and the tip of his shoulder,
bending his head sharply to the left and stretching the right side of his neck.
Subsequent neurological examination revealed that the roots of the 5th and 6th
cervical nerves had been torn away from the spinal cord.

Following the above injury, which of the movements of the arm at the shoulder would
you expect to be totally lost?
A. adduction
B. abduction
C. flexion
D. extension
E. medial rotation

6. Following the above injury there would most likely be diminished cutaneous
sensation over what part of the upper limb?
A. the back of the shoulder
B. the pectoral region
C. the top of the shoulder and the lateral side of the arm
D. the medial side of the arm and forearm
E. the tip of the little finger

7. During an industrial accident, a sheet metal worker lacerates the anterior surface of
his wrist at the junction of his wrist and hand. Examination reveals no loss of hand
function, but the skin on the thumb side of his palm is numb. Branches of which nerve
must have been severed?
A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
B. Medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm
C. Median
D. Radial
E. Ulnar

8. The nerve which passes through the quadrangular space of the posterior shoulder
innervates which muscle?
A. Deltoid
B. Infraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Supraspinatus
E. Teres major

9. In the axilla the pectoralis minor is a landmark, and is closely related to all of the
following structures except:
A. cephalic vein
B. cords of the brachial plexus
C. lateral thoracic artery
D. medial pectoral nerve
E. second part of the axillary artery

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10. The axillary nerve arises directly from which part of the brachial plexus?
A. inferior trunk
B. lateral cord
C. medial cord
D. middle trunk
E. posterior cord

11. Which of the following is not a direct branch of the axillary artery?
A. anterior circumflex humeral
B. posterior circumflex humeral
C. thoracoacromial
D. thoracodorsal
E. subscapular

12. In a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus, which artery may be injured?
A. Subscapular
B. Posterior humeral circumflex
C. Radial recurrent
D. Deep brachial
E. Circumflex scapular

13. While riding a bike, a patient fell against a tree and fractured the shaft of the humerus
at midlength. What nerve may be injured because of its close proximity to the injury?
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. Axillary
D. Medial antebrachial cutaneous
E. Median

14. As an inexperienced phlebotomist (blood drawer) attempts to insert the needle to draw
blood from the median cubital vein, the patient suddenly screams and complains of
pain and burning in the middle and thumb side of his palm. The nerve accidentally
impaled on the needle was the
A. lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
B. medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm
C. median
D. ulnar
E. posterior cutaneous nerve of the forearm

15. The general name for an alternate pathway of blood flow in or around an organ,
around a joint, or past an obstruction is called:
A. an arteriovenous anastomosis
B. a periarticular network
C. a perivascular plexus
D. a venous plexus
E. collateral circulation

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16. When people are severely burned they have great difficulty with fluid loss because the
portion of the skin which is the fluid barrier is destroyed. Which layer of the skin is
responsible for preventing fluid loss?
A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. investing fascia
D. panniculus adiposus
E. subcutaneous tissue

17. Supination of the hand and forearm would be diminished by loss of radial nerve
function. But one very powerful supinator would remain intact and unaffected,
namely:
A. Brachialis
B. Brachioradialis
C. Biceps brachii
D. Flexor carpi radialis
E. Supinator

18. The anterior interosseous is a branch of which nerve?

A. Axillary
B. Median
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Radial
E. Ulnar

19. What muscle is innervated by branches of both the median and ulnar nerves?
A. Flexor carpi ulnaris
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Flexor digitorum superficialis
D. Flexor pollicis longus
E. Pronator quadratus

20. Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel affects which hand muscle?
A. Dorsal interossei
B. Flexor pollicis brevis
C. Flexor pollicis longus
D. Opponens digiti minimi
E. Palmar interossei

21. The pulse of the radial artery at the wrist is felt immediately lateral to which tendon?
A. Abductor pollicis longus
B. Extensor pollicis longus
C. Flexor carpi radialis
D. Flexor digitorum profundus
E. Palmaris longus

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22. The following description pertains to questions 29 and 30:A patient sustained multiple
deep lacerations on the palm of his hand and anterior surface of his wrist. During
examination, the physician put a piece of paper between adjacent surfaces of the
patient's index and middle fingers and found him unable to squeeze them together
with sufficient force to hold the paper. What muscles are being tested?
A. First dorsal and first palmar interosseous muscles
B. First dorsal and second palmar interosseous muscles
C. First lumbrical and second dorsal interosseous muscles
D. Second dorsal and first palmar interosseous muscles
E. Adductor pollicis

23. The most specific nerve branch to these muscles is the:

A. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Recurrent (motor) branch of the median nerve
D. Superficial branch of the ulnar nerve
E. Ulnar nerve

24. The second costal cartilage can be located by palpating the:

A. costal margin
B. sternal angle
C. sternal notch
D. sternoclavicular joint
E. xiphoid process

25. The sternocostal surface of the heart is formed primarily by the anterior wall of which
heart chamber?
A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
E. None of the above

26. A patient involved in an automobile accident presents with a sharp object puncture of
the middle of the sternum at about the level of the 4th or 5th costal cartilage. If the
object also penetrated pericardium and heart wall, which heart chamber would most
likely be damaged?
A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
E. All of the above

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27. You are caring for a 68-year-old male who has copious amounts of fluid in the left
pleural cavity due to acute pleurisy. When you examine him as he sits up in bed
(trunk upright), where would the fluid tend to accumulate?
A. costodiaphragmatic recess
B. costomediastinal recess
C. cupola
D. hilar reflection
E. middle mediastinum

28. A 23-year-old male injured in an industrial explosion was found to have multiple
small metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. Since the pericardium was torn
inferiorly, the surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac. Slipping
her hand under the heart apex, she slid her fingers upward and to the right within the
sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near
the base of the heart. Her fingertips were then in the:
A. coronary sinus
B. coronary sulcus
C. costomediastinal recess
D. oblique sinus
E. transverse sinus

29. A hand slipped behind the heart at its apex can be extended upwards until stopped by
a line of pericardial reflection that forms the:
A. Cardiac notch
B. Costomediastinal recess
C. Hilar reflection
D. Oblique pericardial sinus
E. Transverse pericardial sinus

30. The first rib articulates with the sternum in close proximity to the:
A. Nipple
B. Root of the lung
C. Sternal angle
D. Sternoclavicular joint
E. Xiphoid process

31. The portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib is called the :
A. costodiaphragmatic recess
B. costomediastinal recess
C. costocervical recess
D. cupola
E. endothoracic fascia

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32. You are attending an operation to remove a thymic tumor from the superior
mediastinum. The surgeon asks, "What important nerve lying on and partly curving
posteriorly around the arch of the aorta should we be careful of as we remove this
mass?" You quickly answer, "The--
A. left phrenic
B. left sympathetic trunk
C. left vagus
D. right phrenic
E. right sympathetic trunk

33. A needle inserted into the 9th intercostal space along the midaxillary line would enter
which space?
A. Cardiac notch
B. Costodiaphragmatic recess
C. Costomediastinal recess
D. Cupola
E. Oblique pericardial sinus

34. The pleural cavity near the cardiac notch is known as the:
A. Costodiaphragmatic recess
B. Costomediastinal recess
C. Cupola
D. Hilum
E. Pulmonary ligament

35. The tubercle of the 7th rib articulates with which structure?
A. Body of vertebra T6
B. Body of vertebra T7
C. Body of vertebra T8
D. Transverse process of vertebra T6
E. Transverse process of vertebra T7

36. The ductus arteriosus sometimes remains open after birth requiring surgical closure.
When placing a clamp on the ductus, care must be taken to avoid injury to what
important structure immediately dorsal to it?
A. Accessory hemiazygos vein
B. Left internal thoracic artery
C. Left phrenic nerve
D. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Thoracic duct

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37. Blockage of which of the following arteries would lead to ischemia of the apex of the
heart?
A. Anterior interventricular (descending)
B. Left circumflex
C. Posterior interventricular (descending)
D. Right marginal
E. Right coronary

38. A stethoscope placed over the left second intercostal space just lateral to the sternum
would be best positioned to detect sounds associated with which heart valve?
A. aortic
B. pulmonary
C. mitral
D. Tricuspid
E. Inferior vena cava valve

39. Which valves would be open during ventricular systole?

A. Aortic and pulmonary
B. Aortic and tricuspid
C. Mitral and aortic
D. Tricuspid and mitral
E. Tricuspid and pulmonary

40. During fetal life and sometimes persisting into the adult there is an opening between
the right and left atria; this opening is called the:
A. atrioventricular canal
B. ventricular septal foramen
C. foramen ovale
D. sinus venosus
E. truncus arteriosis

41. The heart sound associated with the mitral valve is best heard:
A. In the jugular notch
B. In the second left intercostal space
C. In the second right intercostal space
D. In the fifth left intercostal space
E. To the right of the xiphoid process

42. Which heart valve has leaflets described as "anterior, left and right"?
A. Aortic
B. Pulmonary
C. Left atrioventricular
D. Right atrioventricular
E. Mitral

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43. Which structure does NOT lie in the coronary sulcus?
A. circumflex artery
B. coronary sinus
C. right coronary artery
D. right marginal artery
E. left coronary artery

44. Which structure contains postganglionic sympathetic fibers?

A. greater splanchnic nerve
B. recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. sympathetic trunk
D. ulnar nerve
E. vagus nerve

45. Which posterior mediastinal structure is most closely applied to the posterior surface
of the pericardial sac?
A. Aorta
B. Azygos vein
C. Esophagus
D. Thoracic duct
E. Trachea

46. In obstruction of the superior or inferior vena cava, venous blood is returned to the
heart by an alternate route via the azygos vein, which becomes dilated in the process.
Which of the following structures might it compress as a result?
A. trachea
B. root of the right lung
C. phrenic nerve
D. thoracic duct
E. descending aorta

47. You are called to perform thoracentesis (remove fluid from the pleural cavity). If you
are to avoid injuring lung or neurovascular elements, where would you insert the
aspiration needle?
A. the top of intercostal space 8 in the midclavicular line
B. the bottom of intercostalspace 8 in the midclavicular line
C. the top of intercostal space 9 in the midaxillary line
D. the bottom of intercostal space 9 in the midaxillary line
E. the top of intercostal space 11 in the scapular line

48. Which feature is found only in the left lung?

A. Cardiac notch
B. Horizontal fissure
C. Oblique fissure
D. Superior lobar bronchus
E. Three lobes

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49. The oblique fissure of the right lung separates which structures?
A. Lower lobe from lingula
B. Lower lobe from upper lobe only
C. Lower lobe from both upper and middle lobes
D. Lower lobe from middle lobe only
E. Upper from middle lobe

50. A 4-year-old girl is brought in with coughing, and you are told by her mother that she
had been playing with some beads and had apparently aspirated one (gotten it into her
airway). Where would you expect it to most likely be?
A. Apicoposterior segmental bronchus of left lung
B. Left main bronchus
C. Lingular segment of left lung
D. Right main bronchus
E. Terminal bronchiole of right lung, lower lobe

51. Which statement is true about the right lung?

A. it is slightly smaller than the left lung
B. it has a lingular segmental bronchus
C. it occupies the rightmost portion of the mediastinum
D. its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery
E. it has the right phrenic nerve passing posterior to the lung root

52. You are observing a doctor perform a bronchoscopy. As he passes the bronchoscope
down the trachea, a cartilagenous structure is observed separating the right and left
main stem bronchi. He asks what it is called. You reply that it is called the:
A. Carina
B. Cricoid cartilage
C. Costal cartilage
D. Pulmonary ligament
E. Tracheal ring

53. Which vessel courses across the mediastinum in an almost horizontal fashion?
A. Left subclavian artery
B. Left subclavian vein
C. Left brachiocephalic vein
D. Left internal jugular vein
E. Left common carotid artery

54. Sympathetic fibers in the greater splanchnic nerve arise from neuron cell bodies found
in the:
A. brainstem
B. celiac ganglion
C. chain ganglion
D. spinal cord
E. superior mesenteric ganglion

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55. Which nerve fiber would have its cell body in the lateral horn of the spinal cord at
segmental level T1?
A. Afferent fiber from cutaneous blood vessels of the nose
B. Afferent fiber from skin around the nipple
C. Efferent fibers to sweat glands in the lumbar region
D. Efferent fibers to skin of the forehead
E. Parasympathetic fibers to the heart

56. Gray rami communicantes contain postganglionic sympathetic fibers that innervate
which of the following structures in the thoracic region?
A. aorta
B. heart
C. lung
D. sweat glands
E. trachea

57. During a procedure to harvest lymph nodes in the posterior mediastinum, the thoracic
duct is accidentally cut. The resulting accumulation of lymph in the pleural cavity is
referred to as:
A. Pleurisy
B. Chylothorax
C. Pyothorax
D. Hemothorax
E. Lymphedema

58. Gaseous exchange occurs in all of the following except:

A alveolus
B tertiary bronchi
C respiratory bronchiole
D alveolar ducts
E alveolar sacs

59. Which of the following are correctly matched?

A elastic cartilage - secondary bronchus
B goblet cell - terminal bronchiole
C smooth muscle - respiratory bronchiole
D dust cell - tertiary bronchus
E ciliated epithelial cell - trachea

60. Which statement regarding lymphocyte circulation is not true:

A both T and B cells are found in peripheral blood
B lymphocytes exit lymph nodes from the convex surface
C T lymphocytes form the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) of the spleen
D lymphocytes enter the thymus via blood vessels
E B lymphocytes are dominant in the lymphoid follicle

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61. The following lymphoid organs is paired with the appropriate histological feature:
A Spleen - marginal zone
B Pharyngeal tonsil - ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
C thymus - HEV
D Lymph node - Billroth’s cords
E Peyer’s patches -- afferent lymphatic vessels

62. Germinal centres are normally found in the following except:

A spleen
B thymus
C lymph node
D tonsil
E appendix

63. Concerning cilia

A. have an actin core explaining its motility
B. it is attached to the terminal web
C. the base of a cilium is the centriole
D. imotile cilia is seen in the ear
E. it is important in the stomach

64. Which of the statements about the vestibule of the nose is incorrect?
A. it has an elastic cartilage framework
B. it has stratified squamous epithelium
C. it has sweat glands
D. it has cilia on its epithelium
E. it has sebaceous glands

65. The part of the gastrointestinal tract that contains the mucosa-associated lymphoid
tissue (MALT) is the:
A. muscularis mucosae
B. submucosa
C. lamina propria
D. serosa
E. muscularis externa

66. Regarding glands:

A. glands of Littre are sebaceous glands
B. apocrine sweat glands are functional before birth
C. urogastrone is from the duodenal glands
D. intestinal pits are infoldings of the mucosa
E. Brunner’s glands are compound tubuloacinar

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67. Which is not a feature of monocytes?

A. are the largest of the white cells

B. are precursors of histiocytes
C. it is highly phagocytic in circulating blood
D. are antigen presenting cells
E. have a nucleus with several nucleoli

68. In the alimentary system

A. the center of a classical hepatic lobule is a portal triad
B. In the upper third of the oesophagus the muscular externa consists
of skeletal muscles only
C. The vermiform appendix has Peyers patches
D. Blood flows from the periphery to the center of a portal lobule
E. the gall bladder has submucosal glands

69. Concerning the oral cavity:

A. foliate papillae are numerous on the human tongue
B. odontoblasts degenerate after eruption of the tooth
C. alveolar bone is spongy bone
D. vermillion border has sebaceous glands
E. the hard palate has a loss mucosa

70. Stereocilia
A. are actively moving in waves
B. are part of the respiratory epithelium
C. have a core of microtubules
D. is seen in the uterine tubes
E. have absorptive functions

71. Pilosebaceous unit is made up of the following except:

A. smooth muscles
B. hair follicle
C. sweat gland
D. saccular gland
E. arrector pilorum

72. Which statement is not true concerning eosinophils?

A. have a bilobed nucleus often obscured by bright red granules
B. circulate for about 3-8 hours
C. have a diurnal variation
D. increase in numbers in parasitic disease
E. are phagocytic

73. Regarding the skin

A. it has derivatives of neural crest cells
B. Langers lines are rich with Langerhans cells
C. some sweat glands open in hair follicles
D. sweat glands are seen on the glans penis
E. all sebaceous glands open in hair follicles

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74. Concerning haemopoiesis:
A. it first begins in the yolk sac
B. it first begins in the liver
C. it first begins in the bone marrow
D. bone marrow has reticulocytes that form reticular fibers
E. megakaryocytes are macrophages

75. The following statement about lymphocytes is incorrect:

A. T lymphocytes have three main subsets
B. CD4 cells are cytotoxic cells killing viual infected cells
C. B lymphocytes are derived from bone marrow
D. Natural killer cells kill viral infected cells
E. there comprise of 20 – 50% of leucocytes in circulation

76. Concerning veins:

A. valves occur in hepatic portal vein
B. they hold about 50% of blood volume at any one time
C. movements of blood towards the heart is aided by contraction of muscles in
their walls
D. veins in the kidneys are fenestrated
E. postcapillary venules are the main sites of diapedesis

77. Which of the following statements concerning the maculae adherentes is incorrect?

A. it is formed by a disc-shaped structure known as a connexon

B. it is important in cell adhesion
C. it is also known as desmosomes
D. it is also called a spot junction
E. it is associated with intermediate filaments

78. Stratified columnar epithelium is found in the following:

A. oesophagus
B. gall bladder
C. epididymis
D. conjunctiva
E. ducts

79. The organelle/s that divide by fission is or are the

A. ribosome
B. microbody
C. mitochondrion
D. Golgi apparatus
E. smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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80. Which statement concerning erythrocytes is not true?
A. their nuclei are not extruded prior to release into circulation
B. mature erythrocytes do not have any cytoplasmic organelles
C. they have a pale-staining central region
D. effete cells are removed from the circulation by the spleen and liver
E. synthesis of haemoglobin is completed before the cells are released into
the circulation

81. Regarding reticulocytes:

A. these are connective tissue cells of the bone marrow
B. they are easily distinguished from mature erythrocytes in routinely stained
blood smears
C. their count provides a measure of the rate of red blood cell formation in the
bone marrow
D. form the framework in the thymus
E. their number decreases following bleeding

82. The following concerning neutrophils are true except:

A. constitute 40-75% of circulating leucocytes
B. in peripheral blood films have an appendage on one of the nuclear lobes in
3% of females
C. have secondary granules which are large lysosomes
D. are also called pus cells
E. have a degree of protein synthesis

83. The nervous system:

A has CNS – made up of the brain only
B the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is a completely separate
anatomical entity from the CNS
C the autonomic nervous system is part of the PNS T
D cell bodies in the CNS are seen in grey matter T
E cell bodies of neurons outside the CNS form ganglia T

84. Mucous cells:

A. are usually cuboidal in shape
B. have nuclei that are pressed towards the bases of the cells
C. almost exclusively comprise the secretory portion of the submandibular gland
D. are basophilic
E. are seen in breast tissue

85. The following skin appendages are seen in thick skin:

A sweat glands
B hair follicles
C sebaceous glands
D apocrine sweat glands
E smooth muscle

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86. The following cell junction complexes are continuous except:
A. zonula adherens
B. zonula occludens
C. intermediate junction
D. macula adherens
E. tight junction

87. The terminal ends of the ilioinguinal nerves in the female are referred to as:
A. Anterior cutaneous branches
B. Anterior labial
C. Cremasterics
D. Iliohypogastrics
E. Pampiniform plexus

88. The usual location for an appendectomy incision is the:

A. umbilical
B. right lateral
C. right lower quadrant
D. right upper quadrant
E. right hypochondrium

89. The inferior border of the rectus sheath posteriorly is called the:
A. Falx inguinalis
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Internal inguinal ring
D. Arcuate line
E. Linea alba

90. A medical student was asked by her preceptor to palpate the margin of the superficial
inguinal ring of a healthy male patient. After passing her finger down the edge of the
medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring, she felt a bony protuberance deep to the
lateral edge of the spermatic cord, which she correctly identified as the :
A. pecten pubis
B. pubic symphysis
C. pubic tubercle
D. iliopubic eminence
E. iliopectineal line

91. Which structure passes through the deep inguinal ring?

A. Iliohypogastric nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Inferior epigastric artery
D. Medial umbilical ligament
E. Round ligament of the uterus

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92. A loop of bowel protrudes through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal
hernia; viewed from the abdominal side, the hernial sac would be found in which
region?
A. Deep inguinal ring
B. Lateral inguinal fossa
C. Medial inguinal fossa
D. Superficial inguinal ring
E. Supravesical fossa

93. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

A. External abdominal oblique aponeurosis
B. Falx inguinalis
C. Internal abdominal oblique muscle
D. Scarpa's fascia
E. Transversalis fascia

94. During exploratory abdominal surgery on a 55-year-old male complaining of right

lower quadrant pain, the surgeon initially sees no appendix but knows that he can
quickly locate it by
A. looking at the confluence of the teniae coli
B. palpating the ileocecal valve and looking just above it
C. palpating lymph nodules
D. removing the right layer of the mesentery of the jejunoileum
E. palpating and inspecting the pelvic brim

95. Meckel's diverticulum:

A. is an abnormal persistance of the urachus
B. is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue
C. is caused by a failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity
D. is an abnormal connection of the midgut to the duodenum
E. is associated with polyhydramnios

96. The following organs are derived from mesoderm except:

A. skeletal musculature
B. musculature of blood vessels
C. cardiac musculature
D. musculature of the stomach
E. suprarenal medulla.

97. In the foot, the term adduction implies movement of toes towards
the………………………..
A. First toe
B. Second toe
C. Third toe
D. Fifth toe
E. Fourth

98. Which of the planes specifically divides the body into unequal right and left parts?

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 A. Sagittal
B. Parasagittal
C. Mid-sagittal
D. Coronal
E. Lambdoid

99. What does the positional term proximal mean?

A. Near the surface of the body
B. Towards the body trunk
C. Close to the center
D. Away from the midline
E. Towards the tail

100. Which of the following anatomical terms means ‘on different sides of the
body’?
A. Sagittal
B. Ipsilateral
C. Contralateral
D. Lateral
E. Deep

101. Identify the correct order of tissue preparation steps.

A. Fixation, Dehydration, Clearing, Infiltration, Embedding and Trimming
B. Fixation, Clearing, Dehydration, Infiltration, Embedding and Trimming
C. Clearing, Fixation, Dehydration, Infiltration, Embedding and Trimming
D. Clearing, Fixation, Dehydration, Embedding, Infiltration and Trimming
E. Clearing, Dehydration, Fixation, Infiltration, Embedding and Trimming

102. Which of the following cell organelles are non-membrane bound?

A. Vesicle
B. Peroxisomes
C. Proteasomes
D. Lysosomes
E. Nucleus

103. Which of the following is NOT true concerning mitochondria?

A. They replicate independently from the cell
B. They are passed on via the sperm
C. Contain their own genetic material
D. Vary in morphology between cells
E. It makes proteins

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104. Which of the following has a membrane which is continuous with that of the
nucleus?
A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Heterosome
E. Centrosome

105. Which of the following are abundant in fibroblasts?

A. Free ribosomes
B. Proteasomes
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Proteasomes

106. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. DNA material that is inactive in RNA synthesis is referred to as euchromatin
B. The nucleus is structurally supported by microtubules called nuclear lamina
C. Chromatin is made up of heterochromatin and histone proteins
D. All the nucleoproteins are synthesised in the cytoplasm
E. None of the above

107. ……………………………… are numerous in highly metabolic cells.

A. Ribosomes
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Proteasomes
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Mitochondria

108. Concerning the cell cycle

A. In G1 phase the cells are functioning normally
B. M phase cells are at rest
C. G0 phase cells synthesize DNA
D. A neuron is an example of a cell at G2 phase
E. S phase is characterised by cell division

109. Which of the following is true about glands?

A. The glands in the large intestines are simple acinar glands
B. The mammary glands are compound tubular glands

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 C. Brunner’s glands are compound acinar
D. Stomach glands are simple branched tubular
E. The parotid gland is a mixed gland

110. The term opposition means moving the ……………………….

A. Fourth and fifth fingers towards the middle finger
B. Little finger towards the index finger
C. Medial and lateral fingers away from the middle finger
D. Thumb towards the other fingers
E. Long finger towards the little finger

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SECTION II: DIAGRAMS 54

101. Below is a diagram of a certain tissue label the parts A to L in the spaces provided

A------------------------------------------------- B------------------------------------------------------

C------------------------------------------------- D-----------------------------------------------------

E------------------------------------------------- F------------------------------------------------------

G------------------------------------------------- H------------------------------------------------------

I------------------------------------------------- J------------------------------------------------------

K------------------------------------------------- L------------------------------------------------------

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102. Below is a diagram of a histological section answer the questions

Name the parts

A------------------------------------------------- B-------------------------------------------------

C------------------------------------------------- D-------------------------------------------------

E. Name the tissue and structure shown----------------------------------------------------------

F. Name the structures found in A----------------------------------------------------------------

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103. Below is the diagram of the heart showing its anterior view. Label the structures shown
A to F.

A------------------------------------------------- B------------------------------------------------------

C------------------------------------------------- D-----------------------------------------------------

E------------------------------------------------- F------------------------------------------------------

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104. Below is a diagram of the brachial . Label the parts A to D in the spaces provided

A------------------------------------------------- B------------------------------------------------------

C------------------------------------------------- D-----------------------------------------------------

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26
1 arcade artries

2.Middle colic

3.Superior mesenteric

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END OF EXAMINATION

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