ANATOMY

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ANATOMY QUESTIONS

Choose the best answer:

1. The superior boundary of the epiploic foramen:


A. free border of the lesser omentum containing the portal triad
B. inferior vena cava
C. caudate process of the caudate lobe of the liver
D. first portion of the duodenum

2. Which of the following does not contribute to why the appendix is prone to infection:
A. it has a large amount of lymphoid tissue in its wall
B. the lumen has a tendency to become obstructed by hardened intestinal contents
C. it is supplied by a long small artery that does not anastomose with any other artery
D. it is a long narrow blind-ended tube which encourages stasis of large bowel contents

3. Occurring at points where the circular muscle is weakest. Where the blood vessels pierce
the muscles, herniation of the lining mucosa through the circular muscle between taenia
coli occurs:
A. volvulus B. intussusception C. diverticulosis D. achalasia

4. Common cause of colic, EXCEPT:


A. compression of the inferior vena cava
B. intestinal obstruction
C. passage of gallstone in the biliary duct
D. passage of the stone in the ureter

5. Total gastrectomy for gastric cancer does not include the removal of:
A. lower end of esophagus C. head of the pancreas
B. first part of duodenum D. spleen

6. Herniorrhaphy of an indirect inguinal hernia constitute the repair of the floor of the
inguinal canal, the floor is formed by:
A. internal oblique C. lateral umbilical ligament
B. inguinal ligament D. external oblique

7. While doing a spinal tap, the spinal needle is inserted in between the:
A. L1 and L2 vertebrae C. L3 and L4 vertebrae
B. L2 and L3 vertebrae D. L4 and L5 vertebrae

8. The cresenteric inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath:


A. Spigelian line C. semilunar line
B. arcuate line of Douglas D. linea alba

9. Intraperitoneal organ:
A. lower third of rectum C. kidney
B. jejunum D. pancreas

10. The femoral ring:


A. is the medial opening of the inguinal canal
B. is the base of the femoral canal
C. forms the medial border of the Hesselbach’s triangle
D. contains the spermatic cord

11. Forms the floor of both the submental and the digastric triangle:
A. hyoglossus B. thyrohyoid C. mylohyoid D. geniohyoid

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12. In doing stellate ganglion block, the needle of the anesthetic syringe is inserted through
the skin over the carotid tubercle; this carotid tubercle is a part of:
A. cricoid cartilage B. 1st rib C. hyoid bone D. 6th cervical vertebra

13. Due to the close proximity of their drainages in the nasal cavity, frontal sinusitis nearly
always involves this sinus:
A. maxillary C. anterior ethmoidal
B. posterior ethmoidal D. sphenoidal

14. The trigeminal nerve provides sensory innervation to the face except for a small area
which is supplied by the:
A. zygomaticotemporal nerve C. great auricular nerve
B. lesser occipital nerve D. auriculotemporal nerve

15. In the living subject, the foramen lacerum of the cranial fossa is closed inferiorly by
cartilage and fibrous tissue; above this closed inferior opening, foramen lacerum
receives the:
A. carotid canal C. foramen cecum
B. condylar canal D. inferior orbital fissure

16. The artery supplying the “leg area” of the cerebral cortex:
A. is the biggest branch of the internal carotid artery
B. passes in the longitudinal fissure of the cerebrum
C. is a component of the circulus arteriosus
D. all of the above are correct

17. The following extraocular muscle is supplied by the most slender cranial nerve:
A. superior oblique B. superior rectus C. lateral rectus D. none

18. The retina extends anteriorly as far as the:


A. ora serrata B. ciliary processes C. iris D. limbus

19. Epistaxis usually occur upon rupture of the anastomosing branches of:
A. greater palatine and sphenopalatine arteries
B. sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries
C. greater palatine and maxillary arteries
D. facial and superior labial arteries

20. The vestibular ligaments of the larynx represent the inferior margin of the:
A. fibroelastic membrane of the larynx C. quadrangular membrane
B. cricothyroid ligament D. false vocal cords

21. Frey’s syndrome is due to damage to the following nerves:


A. auriculotemporal and zygomaticotemporal
B. zygomaticotemporal and zygomaticofacial
C. great auricular and auriculotemporal
D. chorda tympani and buccal branch of facial nerve

22. In the Caldwell-Moloy pelvic classification, a transversely wide pelvis is:


A. gynecoid B.platypelloid C. android D. anthropoid

23. The following branches of internal iliac artery pass through the greater sciatic foramen,
except:
A. superior gluteal B. inferior gluteal C. internal pudendal D. obturator

24. Boundaries of pelvic inlet, except:


A. sacral promontory B. symphysis pubis C. ischial spine D. iliopectineal line

25. Voluntary control of micturition is done at the level of:


A. internal urethral meatus C. fossa navicularis
B. urogenital diaphragm D. apex of the urinary bladder
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26. Which of the following components of the respiratory tract wall increase/s in amount from
trachea to alveoli:
A. cilia B. elastic fibers C. smooth muscle D. cartilage

27. In hypersensitivity reactions, this cell functions as an antigen-presenting cell in the skin:
A. keratinocyte B. Langerhan’s cell C. melanocytes D. Merkel’s cell

28. Which of the following hormone is most likely affected in hypothalamic tumors:
A. ADH B. ACTH C. FSH D. TSH

29. Increase aqueous humor of the eye is due to the secretion by:
A. ciliary epithelium C. Schlemm’s canal
B. choriocapillary layer D. corneal endothelium

30. Contraction of the muscles of the forearm that commonly follows fractures of the distal
end of the humerus or fractures of the radius and ulna:
A. compartment syndrome of the forearm
B. Dupuytren’s contracture
C. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture
D. Bontonniera deformity

31. Fracture of the distal end of the radius which occurs from a fall on the back of the hand:
A. Colle’s fracture C. Monteggia’s fracture
B. Smith’s fracture D. Bennett’s fracture

32. A young boy sustained a superficial laceration in front of his right wrist which was
bleeding profusely. He had sensory loss over the palmar aspect of the medial 1 ½
fingers but normal sensation on the back of these fingers over the middle and proximal
phalanges. Which of the following statements about the patient is true:
A. the radial artery was cut in front of the flexor retinaculum
B. the loss of skin sensation was caused by the injury to the ulnar nerve as it crossed
infront of the flexor retinaculum
C. there was no sensory loss in the palm of the hand because the palmar cutaneous branch
of the ulnar nerve was cut
D. this will lead to carpal tunnel syndrome

33. Which of the following is not part of the rotator cuff muscles:
A. infraspinatus B. subscapularis C. supraspinatus D. teres major

34. Tennis elbow is characterized by pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of the
humerus. It is caused by:
A. repeated friction between the anconeus and abductor pollicis longus
B. partial tearing of the extensor muscles from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
C. supracondylar fracture of the humerus
D. dislocation of the elbow joint

35. Klumpke’s palsy is characterized by:


A. upper lesion of the brachial plexus C. Waiter’s tip position
B. lower lesions of the brachial plexus D. excessive traction or tearing of C5 & C6

36. Which blood vessel passes along the deltopectoral groove:


A. axillary artery C. cephalic vein
B. suprascapular artery D. basilic vein

37. Nerve supply of the anterior fascial compartment of the leg:


A. deep peroneal nerve C. posterior tibial nerve
B. superficial peroneal nerve D. sciatic nerve

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38. A 17 year old boy was crossing a busy street when he was bumped by a car on the lateral part
of his right knee. X-ray showed a fracture of the head of the fibula. The patient was seen to be
dragging his right foot and catches his toes on the ground as he walks. Which of the following
explains this:
A. the patient injured his common peroneal nerve
B. the medial meniscus was injured
C. skin sensation on the posterior leg is lost
D. the patient will not be able to plantarflex his right foot

39. The dortalis pedis artery lies between the tendons of extensor hallucis longus and:
A. peroneus tertius C. extensor digitorum brevis
B. extensor digitorum longus D. extensor hallucis brevis

40. Arch of the foot which consists of the bases of the metatarsal bones and the cuboid and the 3
cuneiform bones:
A. medial longitudinal arch C. transverse arch
B. lateral longitudinal arch D. posterior arch

41. In what division of the mediastinum is thoracic duct to the duct to the left side of the vertebral
column:
A. superior B. inferior C. middle D. posterior

42. A patient with cancer of esophagus develops hoarseness. This is suggestive of direct invasion
of the following structures:
A. larynx C. left recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. nasal cords D. bronchus

43. Sound of closure of the cardiac valve is heard best over the sternal end of right 4th intercostal
space:
A. aortic B. pulmonic C. mitral D. tricuspid

44. Apex beat has the some auscultation area as the following heart valve:
A. aortic B. mitral C. pulmonic D. tricuspid

45. Composed the medial and lateral bronchopulmonary segments:


A. superior lobar C. middle lobar
B. apical bronchopulmonary segment D. inferior lobar

46. A stab wound in an the anterior chest wall just to the right of sternum at 4th ICS would most
likely injure the following structure:
A. superior vena cava C. right ventricle
B. right atrium D. inferior vena cava

47. A 48 year old female teacher was admitted to the hospital and diagnosed on a CT scan to have
a thrombosis of pontine vessels supplying the medial left sector of caudal pons. Expected
neurologic findings of the patient would be:
A. ipsilateral hemiplegia C. inability to close the right eye
B. inability of the left eye to look laterally D. dysphagia

48. “Upper motor neuron lesions” involving the spinal cord can be produced by the damage to the:
A. spinothalamic tract D. spinocerebellar tract
B. posterior columns E. Lissauer’s tract
C. corticospinal tract

49. The broad ligament contains all of the following , EXCEPT the:
A. round ligament of the ovary D. uterine tubes
B. uterine artery E. ureters
C. round ligament of the uterus

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50. A 60 year old man consults at your clinic with the complain of occasional deep-seated
retrosternal discomfort radiating to the left shoulder, 2 months duration, associated with exertion.
Upon auscultation, you take note of bradycardia and dysrthmia. By incidence, the slowly
occluding vessel would be the:
A. Coronary sinus
B. Right Coronary artery
C. Circumflex artery
D. Anterior Descending artery

51. In the emergency evacuation of a massive hemopericardium compromising cardiac and


systemic circulation, the best and safest area to make your access incision en route to the
pericardial cavity is via:
A. 5th left ICS immediately lateral to the sternum
B. 7th left ICS immediately lateral to the sternum
C. 6th left ICS 10 cm from the midsternal line
D. Immediately subxiphoidal

52. A 70 year old male suffered massive myocardial infarction involving the right coronary artery.
With your recent knowledge, what part/s of the heart does the right coronary artery supplies?
A. SA node D. right ventricle
B. AV node E. All of the above
C. right atrium

53. If blood regurgitates back in the right atrium during systole. Which of the following valve is
most likely to be damaged?
A. Mitral C. aortic
B. Tricuspid D. pulmonic

54.In the auscultation of heart valves, what valve is heard best behind the right half of the sternum
opposite the 4th intercostal space?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Aortic valve

55. The lower border of the heart is formed mainly by what structure?
E. Right ventricle
F. Left ventricle
G. Right atrium
H. Left atrium

56. Which of the following structures prevents the spread of urine inferiorly to the thigh in case of
ruptured penile urethra due to straddle injury?
A. Camper’s fascia C. conjoint tendon
B. Scarpa’s fascia D. rectus sheath

57. The triangle of Calot is used to identify the:


A. hepatic artery proper C. cystic duct
B. bile duct D. cystic artery

58. A 25 year old female was hit on her left side by a car and thrown about 10 feet. Aside from
multiple fractures, the patient was diagnosed to have internal bleeding upon initial physical exam.
What organ was most likely injured?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Intestines
D. Spleen

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59. Swallowed gas within the proximal GIT will almost always collect in this region, as
appreciated on antero-posterior X-ray views of the abdomen:
A. Esophageal hiatus C. cardia
B. Fundus D. pylorus

60. What part of the posterior cranial fossa occupies the central area of the floor and transmits the
Medulla oblongata?
A. Cerebellar fossa
B. Tentorium cerebelli
C. Foramen magnum
D. Foramen rotundum

61.A 20-year old male was involved in a riot and was allegedly hit by a baseball bat at the back of
the head. What injury would the patient sustain?
A. Rupture of the Middle meningeal artery
B. A large tear in the Circle of Willis
C. Tearing of the Superior cerebral veins
D. Rupture of the Lenticulostriate artery

62. Ischemia due to thrombosis in the anterior spinal artery would affect the following sensory
modalities of that particular spinal segment, EXCEPT:
A. pain C. temperature
B. light touch D. proprioception

63. What congenital anomaly results from the failure of development of the spines and arches of
one or more vertebra?
A. Scoliosis
B. Anencephaly
C. Spina bifida
D. Lordosis

64. The muscle that initiates the first 15 degrees of shoulder abduction is the:
A. trapezius C. subscapularis
B. supraspinatus D. deltoid

65. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a loss of the median nerve function?
A. Dupuytren’s contracture
B. Carpal Tunnel syndrome
C. Fracture of the spiral groove of the humerus
D. Fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus

66. Femoral neck fractures may disrupt which of the following vessels?
A. femoral artery C. circumflex femoral artery
B. deep femoral artery D. artery to the head of the femur

67. If the medial border of the cubital fossa is severed by a knife, which of the following structure
most likely suffers damage?
A. radial nerve C. pronator teres
B. brachioradialis D. ulnar nerve

68. To maintain balance and prevent the hips from tilting and sagging in the unsupported side of
the pelvis while walking, the muscle involved is the:
A. gluteus maximus C. piriformis
B. gluteus medius D. quadratus femoris

69.The bony protruberance on the dorsal aspect of the wrist is part of what bone?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Phalanges
D. Metacarpals

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70. A patient suffering from “Wrist drop” is most likely caused by injury to the:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve
71.A patient suffering from “Claw hand” is most likely caused by injury to the:
A.Median nerve
B.Ulnar nerve
C.Radial nerve
D.Lateral cutaneous nerve

72. Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus will most likely injure which of the following
nerves?
A. musculocutaneous C. axillary
B. median D. radial

73. Which of the following nerve is jeopardized in a fracture of the medial epicondyle (X-ray) of
the humerus?
A. Ulnar C. median
B. Radial D. musculocutaneous

74. A knife wound immediately below the right 4th rib along the midclavicular line will most likely
injure the following bronchopulmonary segment:
A. apical and posterior segment C. medial basal and anterior basal
B. medial and lateral segment D. posterior basal and lateral basal

75. The trachea extends from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage in the neck to approximately
the level of the:
A.10th thoracic vertebra
B.Sternal angle
C.Xiphisternal joint
D.Suprasternal notch

76. An impalement injury at the area of the sternal angle would most likely injure the following
structures, EXCEPT:
A. T4/T5 IV disc C. carina
B. ascending aorta D. larynx

77. Which of the following ligaments transmits the uterine artery as it supplies the uterus?
A. round ligament C. cardinal ligament
B. broad ligament D. uterosacral ligament

78. Which of the following provide dynamic support to the uterus?


A. position of the uterus relative to the uinary bladder C. uterosacral ligament
B. transverse cervical ligament D. muscles of the pelvic diaphragm

79. In females, the rectouterine pouch is best accessible to examination via:


A rectal vault C. lateral vaginal fornix
B. anterior vaginal fornix D. posterior vaginal fornix

80. Prostatic cancer cells metastasize to the skull via the:


A. pampiniform venous plexus C. lumbar nodes
B vertebral venous plexus D. internal iliac nodes

81. The normal anatomic position of the uterus is:


A. Anteverted and anteflexed
B. Retroverted and anteflexed
C. Retroverted and retroflexed
D. Anteverted and retroflexed

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82.A culdocentesis was performed on a 27-year old female suspected to have a ruptured ectopic
pregnancy. She had a 10 week history of amenorrhea and presented with severe hypogastric pain.
In culdocentesis, blood pools in the area of the rectouterine pouch because:
A. It is the most dependent part of the entire peritoneal cavity
B. The pouch lies anteriorly to the vagina
C. The pouch has a direct contact with the uterine tubes
D. All of the above

83. A 22 year old male was rushed to the emergency room semiconscious with multiple
hematomas on the right lumbar area of the posterior abdominal wall, right gluteal region and right
lateral area of the thigh. The organ most likely to be traumatized is the:
A. Liver C. Pancreas
B. Kidney D. Spleen

84. Having inserted approximately 11-12cm. of the catheter, you note some difficulty in insertion.
The catheter tip is most probably in what part of the urinary system?
A. Spongy urethra C. Prostatic urethra
B. Membranous urethra D. Urinary bladder

85.A 55-year old man was diagnosed to have ureteric stones. With your knowledge in the anatomy
of the ureters, the following are considered to be the anatomic narrowings, except:

A. The pelviureteral junction


B. Pass the level of L3
C. The pelvic brim
D. Upon entering the urinary bladder

86. A 40 year old male complained of episode of severe pain which starts in the costovertebral
angle radiating to the left scrotal area. His urinalysis showed microscopic RBCs. He is diagnosed
to have ureterolithiasis (ureter stone). Blood in the urine is most likely to come from the following
vessels, EXCEPT:
A. Testicular C. Superior vesical
B. Renal D. Left colic

87. A KUB-IVP was done and showed a dilated left ureter from the renal pelvis up to the level of
L4. You then suspect the ureterolith to be lodged in the:
A. renal pelvis C. ureterovesical junction
B. pelvic brim D. bladder

88. Which part of the pituitary gland is really a downward continuation of the hypothalamus?
A. Neurohypophysis C. both
B. Adenohypophysis D. neither

89. Which of the following is NOT a part of neurohypophysis?


A. pituitary stalk C. intermediate lobe
B. posterior lobe D. all of the above

90. The thyroid gland synthesizes the following hormones, EXCEPT for the:
A. T3 C. calcitonin
B. T4 D. melatonin

91. In an asthmatic person, you expect the peripheral blood smear to have higher than normal
amount of:
A. Basophils C. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils

92. On surfaces constantly exposed to abrasion, such as the skin and esophagus, the most suitable
epithelium that can afford protection is:
A. simple squamous C. stratified squamous
B. transitional D. pseudostratified

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93. A spiral fracture in the middle to distal third of the humerus may injure this structure:
a. axillary artery c. radial artery
b. radial nerve d. axillary nerve

94.The hormone calcitonin is produced by what particular endocrine cell?


A.thyrocyte c. parafollicular cells
B.chief cell of the parathyroid d. oxyntic cells of the prathyroid

95.Surfactant production is a function of which of the following cells of the pulmonary system?
A.pneumocytes type I c. endothelium
B.pneumocytes type II d. Clara cells

96.The following are features of the right primary bronchus, EXCEPT that:
A.It is shorter c. it is more vertical
B.It is narrower d. It has 3 branches

97.The following intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve
EXCEPT the:
A.oblique arytenoid c. thyroarytenoid
B.cricothyroid d. posterior cricoarytenoid

98.The nerve supply for general sensations of the mucous membrane covering the anterior two
thirds of the tongue is the:
A. glossopharyngeal nerve c. lingual nerve
B. hypoglossal nerve d. chorda tympani branch of facial
nerve

99.Which of the following arteries supplies the lower part of the greater curvature of the
stomach?
A.left gastric artery c. left gastroepiploic artery
B.right gastric artery d. right gastroepiploic artery

100.Which of the following structures is NOT a component of the portal triad of the liver?
A.bile ductile c. central vein
B.hepatic arteriole d. portal vein

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