Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED.GOOD LUCK.

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
GOOD LUCK.

PART 1: APPLIED MATHEMATICS, SURVEYING, PRINCIPLE OF TRANSPORTATION AND

HIGHWAY ENGINEERING, CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT AND METHODS.

1. A quadrilateral ABCD is inscribed in a semi-circle with side AD coinciding

with the diameter of the circle. Side AB=8cm, BC=10cm, CD=12cm. What is
the area of the semi-circle in cm2?
A. 1,267.87 C. 316.97
B. 158.48 D. 633.93

2. A symmetrical cross of thickness 12cm is to be cut out from a piece of

cardboard of radius 20cm. What percent of the area of the cardboard is
considered as waste?
A. 36.72% C. 38.58%
B. 28.64% D. 27.12%

3. Find the expected production in loose cubic meters (LCM) per hour of a
small hydraulic excavator. Heaped bucket is 0.57 m3. The material is
sand and gravel with a bucket fill factor of 0.95. Job Efficiency is 50
min/hr. Average depth of cut is 4.3 m. and Maximum depth of a cut is
6.1m.
CYCLE OUTPUT= 250 cycles/60 min.
Swing depth factor=1.00
A. 113 LCM/hr C. 133 LCM/hr
B. 131 LCM/hr D. 111 LCM/hr

4. Estimate the production in loose cubic meters for a medium-weight

clamshell excavating loose earth. Heaped bucket capacity is 0.75 m^3.
The soil is common earth with a bucket fill factor of 0.95. Estimated
cycle time is 40 seconds. If the Job Efficiency is 50 min/hr.
A. 53 LCM/hr C. 55 LCM/hr
B. 35 LCM/hr D. 35 LCM/hr

5. What is the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:35 pm?

A. 102.5° C. 87.5°
B. 124.3° D. 98.6°

6. One essential step to ensure the success of a microgravity bean seed

germination project is that 10 gallons of a 70% concentrated nutrient
solution be administered to the bean seeds. If the payload specialist
has some 90% nitrogen and some 30% nitrogen, how many gallons from
30% nitrogen solution should she mix in order to obtain the desired
solution?
A.2.50 gallons C.6.67 gallons
B.7.50 gallons D.3.33 gallons

7. A grain elevator operator wants to mix two batches of corn with a

resultant mix of 54 pounds per bushel. If he uses 20 bushels of 56
pounds per bushel corn, which of the following gives the amount of
50 pounds per bushel corn needed?
A.20 bushels C.15 bushels
B.10 bushels D.5 bushels

8. There were twice as many tickets sold to non-students than to students

for a basketball game in the UAAP last season. Student tickets were
at P60 while non-student tickets were at P110. If the total revenue

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 Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

for the game was P15,400, then how many tickets were sold to non-
students?
A.90 C.100
B.110 D.120

9. A student finds the average of 10 positive integers. Each integer

contains two digits. By mistake, the boy interchanges the digits of
one number, say ba for ab. As a consequence, the average becomes 1.8
less than what it should have been. What was the difference of the
two digits a and b?
A.8 C.6
B.2 D.4

10. It is now between 9 am and 10 o'clock am. In 4 minutes, the hour hand
of the clock will be directly opposite the position occupied by the
minute hand 3 minutes ago. What time is it?
A.9:20.0 C.9:20.5
B.9:20.3 D.9:19.8

PART 2: HYDRAULICS AND PRINCIPLE OF GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING:

Situation 1. Following are the result of a field density test performed on

the same soil by means of the sand cone method:
Calibrated dry density of Ottawa sand = 1570 kg/m3
Calibrated mass of Ottawa sand to fill the cone = 0.545 kg
Mass of jar + cone + sand (before use) = 7.59 kg
Mass of jar + cone + sand (after use) = 4.78 kg
Mass of moist soil from hole = 2.835 kg
Moisture content of moist soil = 10.2%

11. Determine the in situ dry density of the soil?

A. 2046.4 kg/m3 C. 1965.1 kg/m3
B. 1647.5 kg/m3 D. 1783.2 kg/m3

12. If the maximum dry density is 1885.24 kg/m3. Determine the relative
compaction in the field?
A. 96.11% C. 94.59%
B. 95.88% D. 92.87%

Situation 2. A concrete dam of trapezoidal cross-section, with one face

vertical has a thickness of 0.6m at the top and 4.2m at the bottom. It is
7m high and has a horizontal base. The vertical is subjected to a water
pressure by water standing 6m. above the base. Use 𝜸𝒄 = 𝟐𝟒 𝒌𝑵/𝒎𝟑 . Determine
the ff:

13. The total hydrostatic force on the dam, in kN.

A. 204.53 C. 176.58
B. 158.67 D. 240.35

14. The moment, in kN-m, that would prevent the dam from tipping.
A. 1057.5 C. 995.7
B. 1118.9 D. 1277.4

15. Factor of safety against overturning

A. 2.0 C. 2.8
B. 3.2 D. 3.6

Situation 3. A tank 10m. long is filled with 2m. of water is accelerated

horizontally 2.45 m/s2. Assume the tank is high enough to prevent spilling.

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 Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

16. What is the minimum pressure (kPa) at the bottom of the tank?
A. 903 C. 3.73
B. 390 D. 7.36

17. What is the maximum pressure (kPa) at the bottom of the tank?
A. 37.13 C. 3.73
B. 31.88 D. 7.36

18. What is the total force of water at the side with the greatest depth if
the width of the tank is 2m?
A. 150.52 C. 39.2
B. 103.6 D. 93.2
19. A closed tank contains 1.5 m of oil, 1 m of water, 20 cm of mercury, and
an air space on top. If pbottom = 60 kPa, what is the pressure (kPa) in
the air space?
A. 12.8 C. 11.7
B. 14.1 D. 13.2

20. In the given figure, water and gasoline (sg = 0.68) surfaces are open
to the atmosphere and at the same elevation. What is the height “h” of
the third liquid in the right leg, in meter(s)?
A. 2.08 C. 2.24
B. 1.52 D. 1.13

21. Curve wall ABC is a sector of a circle having a radius of 6m. Determine
the vertical force (kN) acting on the gate per unit width.
A. 32 C. 28
B. 35 D. 25

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 Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

Situation 4. A vertical triangular plate with base horizontal and 3.6 m high
is submerged in water. The distance between the center of gravity and the
center of pressure is 20 cm.
22. How deep is the water from the tip of the triangle, in meter(s).
A. 1.2 C. 1.8
B. 3.6 D. 0.6

23. If the total force acting on one side of the triangle is 79.46 kN, find
the base width of the triangle, in meter(s).
A. 1.25 C. 2.50
B. 3.75 D. 7.50

24. Find the depth of water to the center of pressure, in meter(s).

A. 4.4 C. 6.2
B. 3.8 D. 3.2

PART 3:PRINCIPLE OF STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS AND DESIGN

Situation 5. If each one of the ropes will break when it is subjected to a

tensile force of 450 N,

25. Determine the maximum uplift force F (in N) the balloon can have before
one of the ropes breaks.
A. 843 C. 1,774
B. 1,433 D. 1,216

26. Which of the three ropes will break first?

A. AB C. AD
B. AC D. all

27. Determine the tension in rope AD before one of the ropes breaks.
A. 265 C. 214
B. 450 D. 365

Situation 6. The truss shown below supports loads at joints N, P and R.

28. Determine the force in member HJ, in kN.

A. 8.25 (C) C. 16.0 (C)
B. 8.25 (T) D. 16.0 (T)

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 Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

29. Determine the force in member GI, in kN.

A. 8.25 (C) C. 16.0 (C)
B. 8.25 (T) D. 16.0 (T)

30. The following are zero-force members, except

A. FE C. DF
B. HI D. DE

Situation 7. The hook is subjected to three forces P, Q and S as shown. P =

35 kN and Q = 45 kN.

31. Determine the angle α such that the resultant of the three forces is 80
kN acting horizontally to the right.
A. 22.85º C. 24.98º
B. 21.78º D. 23.12º

32. If angle α = 60°, find the magnitude of the force S, in kN, such that
the resultant force is horizontal to the right.
A. 48 C. 42
B. 51 D. 45

33. Find the magnitude of the force S such that the three forces are in
equilibrium.
A. 43.87 C. 45.98

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 Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

B. 40.93 D. 38.6

y S

α
P = 35 kN x

60°

Q = 45 kN

Situation 8. Data of a beam section is given below.

B×H = 250 mm × 600 mm
Bar diameter = 16 mm
Clear concrete cover to 10 mm
diameter ties = 40 mm
Concrete fc’ = 35 MPa
Steel fyl = 415 MPa
ϕ=0.90
The beam is simply supported with a span of 6m. It will carry an 8.6 kN/m
total factored dead load and 11.4 kN/m factored live load.
34. Which of the following most nearly gives the critical factored moment
(kN-m).
A. 90.0 C. 231.0
B. 128.5 D. 186.5
35. Determine the required number of tension bars.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
36. If a 20 kN service live load is added at midspan, determine the required
number of tension bars.
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 6

Situation 9. A T-beam section has a flange width of 600 mm, flange thickness
of 100 mm, width of web of 350 mm, effective depth of 480 mm and a total
depth of 550 mm. Use fc’ = 21 MPa and fy = 415 MPa. The section is required
to resist a total service dead load moment of 170 kN-m and a service live
load moment of 110 kN-m. Use 0.90 as a strength reduction factor. Use
2015 NSCP.
37. Determine the required flexural nominal strength (kN-m) for the concrete
beam section.
A. 408 C. 577
B. 423 D. 502
38. Calculate the depth (mm) of the concrete rectangular stress block.
A. 110 C. 122
B. 67 D. 91
39. Determine the number of 28mmf required as tension reinforcement.
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 6

Situation 10. An I-shaped beam with depth d = 328 mm and moment of inertia Ix
= 388 x 10^6 mm^4 is supported by a column at point B and pinned at point
C and is loaded with a uniform load, w, as shown below. Assume that the
column is to carry axial load alone.
40. Determine the maximum uniform load, w, considering an allowable bending
stress of 165 MPa.
A. 21.6 C. 14.3
B. 48.7 D. 31.1

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 Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

41. Find the minimum diameter of the pin at C, considering double shear, if
the allowable shearing stress is 130 MPa.
A. 32 C. 36
B. 28 D. 22
42. Find the bearing pressure under the plate at D if the plate dimensions are
400 mm x 200 mm.
A. 2.2 C. 3.1
B. 1.4 D. 4.9

Situation 11. A hollow circular pole 300 mm in diameter, 6 mm thick, and 3

m high is fixed at the base. The pole is subjected to a torque T = 25
kN-m and a lateral force H = 3 kN at the top. Modulus of rigidity G =
78 GPa.
43. What is the shear stress (MPa) on the outermost fiber of the pole due
to torsion alone?
A. 40.91 C. 31.30
B. 30.05 D. 4.72
44. What is the maximum angle of twist (degrees)?
A. 0.069 C. 0.008
B. 0.92 D. 0.46
45. What is the maximum flexural stress (MPa) at the base?
A. 22.54 C. 62.60
B. 43.74 D. 9.43

Situation 12. For the beam shown below,

46. Determine the maximum positive moment (in kN-m) if x1 = 2 m.
A. 30.0 C. 27.5
B. 25.0 D. 20.0

47. Find the value of x1 (in m) causing zero moment at midspan.

A. 2.5 C. 2.75
B. 2.0 D. 2.25
48. Calculate the value of x1 (in m) for the least value of the maximum
moment.
A. 2.93 C. 2.07
B. 2.50 D. 1.38

Situation 13. A car hit a tubular steel post at B. The post is fixed to the
ground at A.

Given: Force from the car, P = 185 kN

Section of the post = 300x300mm

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 Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

Thickness of the post = 15 mm

Modulus of Elasticity = 200 GPa
H1 = 1.5m
H2 = 1.0m

49. How much is the resulting deflection at B?

A. 8.97 mm C. 4.48 mm
B. 1.54 mm D. 3.08 mm
50. How much is the resulting deflection at c?
A. 8.97 mm C. 4.48 mm
B. 17.94 mm D. 6.16 mm
51. If roller is added at the free end, what is the resulting reaction (kN)
at the added support?
A. 39.96 kN C. 76.96 kN
B. 38.48 kN D. 79.92 Kn

Situation 14. A 2 meters cantilever beam is loaded with 15 kN/m uniform load
along its length and a concentrated load P = 45 kN at mid-length. EI =
2500 kN-m^2.
52. How much is the resulting deflection at the free end?
A. 15 mm C. 27 mm
B. 10 mm D. 25 mm
53. How much is the resulting deflection at midlength?
A. 10.25 mm C. 16.25 mm
B. 13.50 mm D. 17.95 mm
54. What is the moment at the fixed support?
A. 45 kN-m C. 55 kN-m
B. 75 kN-m D. 65 kN-m

Situation 15. An 8m W18x76 A36 steel beam has adequate lateral support.
Properties of W18x76: bf = 280mm tf = 17.3mm d = 462.5mm tw = 10.8mm
Determine the following:
55. Find the allowable bending stress (MPa) of the beam.
A. 176 C. 149
B. 164 D. 205
56. Determine the allowable moment (kN-m).
A.355 C. 390
B. 488 D. 419
57. Compute the safe uniform load (kN) if the beam is simply supported.
A. 48.7 C. 52.4
B. 61.0 D. 44.4

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 Review Innovations November 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 2

Situation 16. An 8-m long steel column is pinned at the top and fixed at the
bottom. The column is provided with lateral support at mid height in the
p 2 EI
weak direction. The Euler critical load is Pc =
(kL)2
The properties of the column section:
k = effective length factor
Ix = 178.1 x 106 mm4 Iy = 18.8 x 106 mm4 A = 8129 mm2
k = 1.0 when both ends are pinned
k = 0.5 when both ends are fixed
k = 0.7 when one end is fixed and other end is pinned

58. What is the critical effective slenderness ratio of the column?

A. 38 C. 54
B. 83 D. 58
59. Calculate the critical load Pc in kN?
A. 11210 C. 4733
B. 5493 D. 2319
60. Calculate the buckling stress.
A.285 MPa C.375 MPa
B.429 MPa D.643 MPa

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