07/06/2023 Test-1_Code C

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics - Electric Charges and Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry - Solid State, Solution, Electrochemistry
Mathematics - Relations and Functions, Inverse Trigonometric Functions

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out of 10. The answer to
each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.

1
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. The two metallic plates of radius r are placed 4. An electric field of 1000 V/m is applied to an
at a distance d apart and its capacity is C. If electric dipole at angle of 45°. The value of
a plate of radius r/2 and thickness d of electric dipole moment is 10–29 Cm. What is
dielectric constant 6 is placed between the the potential energy of the electric dipole?
plates of the condenser, then its capacity will (1) –9 × 10–20 J
be
(1) 7C/2 (2) –10 × 10–29 J
(2) 3C/7 (3) –7 × 10–27 J
(3) 7C/3 (4) –20 × 10–18 J
(4) 9C/4

5. A solid sphere of radius R carries a charge

2. A capacitor is made of two square plates Q + q distributed uniformly over its volume. A
each of side ‘a’ making a very small angle α very small point like piece of it of mass m
between them, as shown in figure. The gets detached from the bottom of the sphere
capacitance will be close to and falls down vertically under gravity. This
piece carries charge q. If it acquires a speed
v when it has fallen through a vertical height
y (see figure), then : (assume the remaining
portion to be spherical).

(1) ε0 a
2
3αa
(1 – )
d 2d

(2) ε0 a
2
αa
(1 – )
d 2d

(3) ε0 a
2
αa
(1 + )
d d (1) 2
qQ
v = y[ + g]
(4) ε0 a
2
αa
4πε0 R(R+y)m
(1 – )
d 4d (2) 2
qQ R
v = 2y [ + g]
3
4πε0 (R+y) m

3. A parallel plate air capacitor has (3) qQ

2
capacitance C. Now half of the space is filled v = y[
2
4πε0 R ym
+ g]

with a dielectric material of dielectric

constant K = 3 as shown in figure. The new (4) 2
qQ
v = 2y [ + g]
capacitance is C′. Then 4πε0 R(R+y)m

6. A particle has charge +q and a particle B

has charge +4q with each of them having
the same mass m. When allowed to fall from
rest through the same electric potential
v
difference, the ratio of their speed v will
A

become
(1) 2 : 1
(1) C′ = 2 C (2) 1 : 2
(2) C′ = 4 C (3) 1 : 4
(3) C′ = 5 C (4) 4 : 1
2

(4) C
′
=
3
C
8

2
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

7. Find the equivalent capacitance of the 10. Charge is distributed within a sphere of
grouping between points A and B. radius R with volume charge density
−2 r
A
ρ (r) =
2
e a
, where A and a are
r

constants. If Q is the total charge of this

charge distribution, the radius R is
(1)
a 1
log ( )
2 Q
1−

(1)
2π aA
17C

10 (2) a Q
log (1 − )
(2) 10C 2 2πaA

17
(3) Q
(3) 12C a log (1 −
2πaA
)
5

(4) 5C (4)
1
12
a log ( )
Q
1−
2π aA

8. The electric potential at O is

11. A capacitor is used to store 24 watt hour of
energy at 1200 volt. What should be the
capacitance of the capacitor
(1) 120 m F
(2) 120 μ F

(3) 24 μ F

(4) 24 m F

12. A piece of cloud having area 25 ×

106 m2 and electric potential of 105 volts. If
(1) 3.2 V the height of cloud is 0.75 km, then energy of
(2) 3.5 V electric field between earth and cloud will be
(3) 3.6 V
(1) 250 J
(4) 3.4 V
(2) 750 J

9. Two capacitors of capacitance 3 μF and 6 μF (3) 1225J

respectively are charged to a potential of 12 (4) 1475J

V each. They are connected to each other
such that the positive plate of one is joined
to the negative plate of the other. The 13. A body has – 80 micro coulomb of charge.
potential difference across each capacitor Number of additional electrons in it will be
will now be
(1) Zero (1) 8 × 10
−5

(2) 3 V (2) 80 × 10
−17

(3) 4 V (3) 14
5 × 10
(4) 6 V
(4) 1.28 × 10
−17

14. 64 small drops of mercury, each of radius r

and charge q coalesce to form a big drop.
The ratio of the surface density of charge of
each small drop with that of the big drop is
(1) 1 : 64
(2) 64 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

3
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

15. Two charged balls, each of mass m and 18. A long cylindrical volume (of radius R)
each carrying charge q, when suspended contains a uniformly distributed charge of
from the same point, by insulating threads, density ρ. Variation of electric field at a
hang in equilibrium, when they are distance x from axis is shown by
immersed in an insulating liquid of density = (1)
1

3
times density of solid and di-electric
constant k, the angle between them remains
same. Then the value of ‘k’ is
(1) 3.5
(2) 2.5
(3) 1.5
(4) 3

16. Electric charges of 1μC, − 1μCand (2)

2μC are placed in air at the corners A, B and

C respectively of an equilateral triangle ABC

having length of each side 10 cm. The
resultant force on the charge at C is
(1) 0.9 N
(2) 1.8 N
(3) 2.7 N
(4) 3.6 N
(3)
17. The potential difference between two
uniformly charged concentric spherical
shells depends on
(1) Charge on the inner shell alone
(2) Charge on the outer shell alone
(3) Charges on inner as well as outer shell
(4) Sum of charges on the inner shell and
outer shell

(4)

4
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

19. A spherical cavity of radius R/2 is formed in

a uniformly charged sphere of radius R and
volume charge density ρ as shown. Potential
difference between centre of sphere O and
center of cavity O' is

(1) ρR
2

2ε0

(2) ρR
2

6ε0

(3) ρR
2

8ε0

(4) ρR
2

12ε0

20. Electric field at point P(x, y) makes an angle

x
tan
−1
(
y
) with positive x-axis. Equation of
electric field lines may be
(1) x2 + y2 = constant
(2) y2 – x2 = constant
(3) y = constant
x

(4) y
+
x
= constant
x y

5
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

Section-II

21. Three identical, parallel conducting plates A, 25. Two point charges Q are placed on the x-
– –
B and C are placed as shown. A charge –6 axis at x = +10√2 and x = −10√2 . A
μC is given to B. If S1 and S2 both are closed third charge ‘ q’ is placed on the y-axis such
together. Find the amount of charge (in μC) that the force on the charge ‘ q’ is maximum.
on inner surface of plate C in μC. The distance (in meter) of charge ‘ q’ from
the origin is ______.

26. An electric field E⃗ = 4x^ ^

i − ( y + 1) j N/C
2

passes through the box shown in figure. The

flux of the electric field through surfaces
ABCD and BCGF are marked as ϕ1 and
ϕ∥I respectively. Find value of (ϕ1 + ϕ∥I ) (in

Nm2 /C) ______.

22. A capacitor of capacitance C1 = 1 μF

withstands a maximum voltage V1 = 6 kV
while another of capacitance C2 = 2 μF
withstands a maximum voltage V2 = 4 kV. If
they are connected in series, what maximum
voltage (in kV) the system will withstand
now?

23. Four capacitors and two batteries are

connected as shown in figure. Find potential
difference VM –VN (in volts)
27. A point charge +2Q is placed just inside a
cube corner on the body diagonal of the
cube. If electric flux passing through any of
the adjacent face (close to the charge) is
7Q

ke0
, then value of k is _____.

24. Slant surface of cone (approximately) shown

in figure is a soap (solution) film of surface
tension 'T' created on a non conducting fixed
ring of radius R0 . At the center of the ring a
charge +q is fixed and in apex of the cone a 28. The maximum charge that can be given to
charge of +2q is fixed, which can be treated the outer surface so that there is no
as point charge and is free to move along breakdown of air around is nπε0 R2 Eb . Find
with the soap material. For equilibrium we n. Given that breakdown field strength of air
got the relation q 2 = χπ 2 ε0 T hy . Then the is Eb . (Both spheres are made of conducting
value of the product xy is (Assume h < < R0 , material).
and neglect the gravity)

6
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

29. A soap bubble (R = 10 cm) with wall

thickness of 3.3 × 10–6 cm is charged to a
potential of 10 V. The bubble bursts and falls
as a spherical drop. Find the potential
(nearest integer) of the drop (in kV).

30. There is an infinitely long straight wire

carrying a charge of linear density λ = 40
μC/m. The potential difference between
points 1 and 2 is n × 10n V, where point 2 is
two times farther from the wire than point 1.
Find value of n.

7
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. A crystal is made up of metal ions 'M1 ' and 36. On mixing 10 mL of acetone with 40 mL of
'M2 ' and oxide ions. Oxide ions form a ccp chloroform, the total volume of the solution is
lattice structure. The cation 'M1 ' occupies (1) < 50 mL
50% of octahedral voids and the cation 'M2 ' (2) > 50 ml
occupies 12.5% of tetrahedral voids of oxide (3) = 50 mL
lattice. The oxidation numbers of 'M1 ' and
(4) Cannot be predicted
'M2 ' are, respectively.
(1) + 3, + 1
37. The degree of ionisation of a weak
(2) + 4, + 2 electrolyte AXBY is related to van't Hoff
(3) + 1, + 3 factor(i) by expression
(4) + 2, + 4 (1) α = x+y−1
i−1

(2) x+y+1
32. For which of the given crystal system, axial α =
i−1
angles are α = β = γ = 90°?
(3) α =
i−1

(1) Triclinic x+y−1

(2) Monoclinic (4) α =

i−1

x+y+1
(3) Trigonal
(4) Tetragonal
38. A mixture of liquid showing positive
deviation in Raoult's law is
33. The radius of the largest sphere which fits (1) (CH3 )2 CO + C2 H5 OH
properly at the centre of the edge of a body
centred cubic unit cell is (Edge length is (2) ( CH3 ) CO + CHCl3
2

represented by ‘a’) (3) ( C2 H5 ) O + CHCl3

2
(1) 0.027 a
(4) ( CH3 ) CO + C6 H5 NH2
(2) 0.047 a 2

(3) 0.067 a
(4) 0.134 a 39. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and
B are 400 and 600 mmHg, respectively at
298 K. On mixing the two liquids, the sum of
34. A compound formed by elements P and Q their initial volumes is equal to the volume of
crystallises in a cubic lattice where P atoms the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid
are at the corners and Q atoms are at body B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure
centre and all face centres of the cube. of the final solution, the mole fractions of
Formula of the compound is components A and B in vapour phase,
(1) PQ2 respectively are :
(1) 500 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
(2) PQ3
(2) 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
(3) PQ4
(3) 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
(4) P2 Q3
(4) 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5

35. Vant hoff factor of BaCl2 of conc. 0.01M is 40. The equivalent conductance at infinite
1.98. Percentage dissociation of BaCl2 on dilution of a weak acid such as HF
this conc. Will be
(1) Can be determined by measurement of
(1) 49 very dilute HF solution
(2) 69 (2) Can be determined by extrapolation of
(3) 89 measurements on dilute solutions of
(4) 98 HCl, HBr and HI

(3) Can best be determined by

extrapolation on measurements of
dilute solutions of N aF , N aCl and
HCI
(4) Is an undefined quantity

8
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

41. 45. Which of the following is not a stoichiometric

defect?
(1) Vacancy defect
(2) Dislocation defect
(3) Interstitial defect
(4) Metal excess defect

46. Which of the following statement is correct in

context of point defect in a crystal?
(1) AgCl has anion Frenkel defects and
ZnS has Schottky defects
(2) AgCl has cation Frenkel defects and
0
ZnS has anion Frenkel defects
E = +0. 34 V
(3) Both AgCl and ZnS have anion Frenkel
2+
Cu ∣ Cu
∣

E
0
2+
= −0. 76 V defects
Zn ∣ Zn
∣
(4) Both AgCl and ZnS have cation Frenkel
Identify the incorrect statement from the defects
options below for the above cell:
(1) If Eext < 1.1 V, Zn dissolves at anode
and Cu deposits at cathode 47. For the following electrochemical cell at 298
K,
(2) If Eext = 1.1 V, no flow of e– or current
Pt(s)|H2 (g, 1 bar)|H+(aq, 1 M)||M4+(aq), M2+
occurs (aq)|Pt(s)
(3) If Eext > 1.1 V, e– flows from Cu to Zn 2+
[M (aq)]
x
Ecell = 0 .092 V When = 10
(4) If Eext > 1.1 V, Zn dissolves at Zn
4+
[M (aq)]

electrode and Cu deposits at Cu Given :

RT
electrode E
∘
4+ 2+
= 0 .151 V; 2 .303
F
= 0 .059 V
M /M

The value of x is
42. In a galvanic cell (1) –2
(1) Anode is positive terminal (2) –1
(2) Cathode is negative terminal (3) 1
(3) Salt bridge provides an electric contact (4) 2
between two solution without mixing
them together
(4) Reduction takes place at anode 48. From the following E° values of half cells,
which combination of two half cells would
results in a cell with the largest potential?
43. Which of the following cell is an example of (I) P + 2e− → P 2− E° = −0.34 V
secondary battery? (II) Q− + e
−
→ Q
2−
E° = +1.1 V
(1) Dry cell (III)
(2) Mercury Cell R
−
+ 2e
−
→ R
3−
E° = −1.3 V

(3) Leclanche Cell (IV)

− 2−
(4) Lead Storage battery S + 2e → S E° = +0.74 V

(1) II, III

44. For an electrolyte, consider the below (2) III, IV
graph (3) II, IV
(4) I, II

For which of the following electrolyte above

graph is not possible?
(1) NaCl
(2) KCl
(3) CsCl
(4) CH3 COOH

9
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

49. E
o
3+
values for M1 , M2 and M3 are –0.5
M/M

V, 1.36 V, 0.76 V respectively. An aqueous

solution containing the tripositive ions is
electrolysed. Which of the metal is most
expected to be deposited at cathode under
standard conditions?
(1) M1
(2) M2
(3) M3
(4) M1 , M2 , M3 will be depositied in equal
amounts

50. Percentage of O2 and N2 by volume in air is

21% and 79% respectively. Henry’s law
constant for KO = 3.30 × 107 mm while for
2

KN = 6.51 × 107 mm. Then calculate the

2

ratio of mole fractions of oxygen (O2 ) to that

of nitrogen (N2 ) dissolved in water.
(1) 0.52
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.87
(4) 0.75

Section-II

51. A compound AB has rock salt type structure. 56. A non-electrolytic and non-volatile solute is
The formula weight of AB is 162.621 amu added to pure water, difference between
and the closest A – B distance is 1.5 nm. freezing point and boiling point is now
Find out the density of compound AB in kg 105°C. If the mass of solute present in 500 g
m–3 . (Nearest integer) of solvent is X, then the value of X (to the
5

nearest integer) is (Given molar mass of

52. Unit cell is composed of A and B. A forms solute = 120 g/mol, kb = 0.512 °Cm–1 , kf
BCC lattice and B occupies alternate face
=1.86 °Cm–1 )
centres. The molecular mass of compound
is_____.
[Atomic mass : A = 23, B = 32] 57. Lowering of vapour pressure (in torr) due to
5 molal aqueous solution of glucose at
100°C is (to the nearest integer)
53. The radius of Ag+ ion is 126 pm while that of
I– ion is 216 pm. The co-ordination number
58. The total pressure PT over a binary liquid
of Ag+ in AgI is expected to be mixture is given by PT = 117 – 31XB. Where
XB is the mole fraction of B in liq. phase.
54. The van’t Hoff factor of an electrolyte A3 B Then the correct value of vapour pressure of
undergoing dissociation is 2.14. The % pure liquid B is (assume all pressure in mm
degree of dissociation of electrolyte is Hg)
_______.

55. The vapour pressure of a 10–2 molal

solution of a weak base BOH in water at 300
K is 18.496 mm Hg. If the value of Kb for the
base is x × 10–4 what will be the value of x?
Aqueous tension at 300 K = 18.5 mm Hg.
[Assume molarity is equal to molality for
solute and molality of water = 55.5] (Nearest
integer)

10
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

59. Potassium chlorate is prepared by the

electrolysis of KCl in basic solution
− − − −
6 OH + Cl → ClO + 3H2 O + 6e
3

If only 60% of the current is utilized in the

reaction, the time (rounded to the nearest
hour) required to produce 10 g of KClO3
using a current of 2 A is_________.
(Given : F = 96,500 C mol–1 ; molar mass of
KCIO3 = 122 g mol–1 )

60. Ethanol C2 H5 OH, is the substance

commonly called “alcohol”. The density of
liquid ethanol is 0.782 g ml–1 at 20°C. If 1.7
mole of ethanol are needed for a particular
experiment. The volume (in ml) of ethanol
should be measured out is x ml. The value
x
of 100 to the closest integer is

11
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

The function f : R+→ R+, f(x) = √x ∀ x ∈ R+ The inverse of y = 3lnx is

−
−
61. 67.
is (1) x = yln3
(1) Injection but not surjection (2) x = 3lny
(2) Surjection but not injection
(3) 1

(3) Injection as well as surjection x = y ln 3

(4) Neither injection nor surjection (4) 1

ln y
x = 3

62. If f(x) = x2 – 1 and g(x) = x + 1 then gof (10) is 68. Consider the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and set B
equal to = {a, b, c, d, e}. Number of function f from A to
(1) 1 B such that f is onto and one-one is
(2) 10 (1) 120
(3) 1000 (2) 24
(4) 100 (3) 6
(4) 0
63. The number of surjections from A = {1, 2,
….10}, n ≥ 2, to B = {θ, ɸ} is 69. – –1

(1) 10 P2 The value of cot–1 (– √3) + cosec (2) is

(1) 2π
(2) 210 – 2
(2) 4π

(3) 210 – 1 6

(4) 2 10 (3) π
(4) 3π

64. If f(x + 15) + f(x + 9) = 0, then f(x) is a periodic

with period. 70. The domain of the function
(1) 12 1–|x|
f (x) = cos
–1
( ) is
(2) 5 5

(3) 7 (1) [–6, 6]

(4) 11 (2) (–∞, 2) ∪ (2, 3)
(3) (2, 3)

65. Let ‘*’ be the binary operation defined on the (4) [–6, 2) ∪ (2, 3)
set Z of all integers as a * b = a – b ∀ a, b ∈
R, then the value of 3 * 4 is equal to 71. Let f(x) = cosec–1 (x –1) + sin–1 (1 – x). The
(1) 1 range of f(x) is
(2) 2 (1) {0, π}
(3) –1 (2) {0, π }
2
(4) –2
(3) {0}
(4) { π }
66. The number of real roots of the equation 2

5 + |3 – 1| = 3 ( 3 – 3) is
x x x

(1) 1 72. If a > b > 0 and ac < –1 < bc then

(2) 3 tan
–1
(
a–b
)+
1+ab

(3) 0 –1 b–c –1 c–a

(4) 2 tan (
1+bc
) + tan (
1+ca
) is equal to
(1) π
(2) –π
(3) 0
(4) – π
2

12
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

73. The value of 1

sin
–1 12
is equal to 77. If f (t) =
t
+
t
+ 1, then f(t) is
t
2 13 e –1 2

(1) tan
–1
(
3
)
(1) Even Function
2
(2) Odd Function
(2) tan
–1
(
2
) (3) Neither even nor odd
3
(4) Constant function, with discontinuity
(3) tan
–1
(
3
)
4

−−− − −−− −
(4) –1 7
78. If cot
–1
√cos α – tan
–1
√cos α = 4 and
tan ( )
1–λ
17
sin(4) = λ then the value of is
1+λ

(1) sinα
74. , then x2 equals
3
If sin–1 x
+ cos
–1 x

3
=
π

2
(2) cosα
(1) 3 (3) tanα
(2) 16 (4) tan2 α

2
(3) 4
(4) 9
79. Which of the following function is not
periodic?
75. Let x*y = x + y then value of (1) f(x) = {x}
2sin
–1
[
1*2–3
] is (2) f (x) = |cos x|
1*2+3

(1) 0 (3) f (x) = 1–

2
sin x
–
cos x
2

1+cot x 1+tan x

(2) Not defined (4) f(x) = x + sinx

(3) 2
(4) 4 80. Solution set of inequation (cos–1 x)2 – (sin–
1 x)2 > 0 is
76. If sin
–1
x + sin
–1
y + sin
–1
z =
3π
, then (1)
2 1
2023 2023
[0, ]
x +y √2
value of is
z
2023
(2) 1
[– 1, )
(1) 0 √2

–
(2) 3 (3) (– 1, √2)
(3) 2 –
(4) (0, √2)
(4) 4

Section-II

81. Number of integral values of x lying in 85. Let f (x) = x

4
x

and the value of

1 4 +2
domain of the function f (x) = is 1996
1 2
√x–|x| f( ) +f( ) + ....... + f ( )
1997 1997 1997

k
is k then 10
is
82. tan
–1
1+tan
–1
2+tan
–1
3
If –1 –1
1
–1
1
= k , then value of k
tan 1+tan +tan
2 3
86. Number of solutions of equation
is
sin
–1 ax

c
+ sin
–1 bx

c
= sin
–1
x where a2 +

83. Let f be a function satisfying b2 = c2 (a, b, c > 0) is

1
2f (x)– 3f (
x
) = x
2
for any x ≠ 0, then the
value of |f (2)| is
m
in lowest form, then 87. The number of onto functions from A to B
n

|m + n| is where A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {a, b} is k then k2 is

84. Number of integral value of x such that

inequality sin–1 (sin5) > x2 – 4x holds is

13
Unit Test for Second Step (Group-1)-2024_T01 (Code-C)

88. The least value of n for which (n – 2)x2 + 8x 90. The value of
+ n + 4 > sin–1 sin(12) + cos–1 cos(12) ∀ x ∈ ∣
tan [2tan
–1
(
1
)–
π
] × 17
∣
is
∣ 5 4 ∣
R, where n ∈ N is

89. The number of solutions of the equation

|sin x| = |x| is

14