IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

NEET GRAND TEST - 3

Date : 21.04.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII & LT SET – 2 Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of four parts (Physics, Chemistry, Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.

In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS

CORRECT.

Candidate have attempt all the questions in Section-A and only 10 questions in

Section-B;

Marking Scheme :

Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks

Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks

For each question in every part you will be awarded4 Marks if you darken the

bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are

darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
1. S  A 1  e  Bxt  , where S is speed and x is displacement. The unit of B is
1) m1s 1 2) m2 s 3) s 2 4) s 1
  
2. The resultant of two vectors A and B is perpendicular to the vector A and its
 
magnitude is equal to half the magnitude of vector B . The angle between A and

B is
1) 120o 2) 150o 3) 135o 4) None of these
3. Identical guns fire identical bullets horizontally at the same speed form the same
height above level planes, one on the Earth and another one on the Moon. Which
of the following statement are “TRUE”?
I) The horizontal distance travelled by the bullet is greater for the moon,
II) The flight time is less for the bullet on the Earth.
III) The velocities of the bullets at impact are the same.
1) III only 2) I and III only 3) I and II only 4) II and III only
4. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a
little and then released so that the mass executes SHM of time period T. If the
5T m
mass is increased by m, the time period becomes . Then the ratio of is
3 M
25 16 5 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 3 5
5. An iron bar (young’s modulus = 10 N/m , α = 10 / C) 1 m long and 10-2 m2 in
10 2 -5 o

area is heated from 0oC to 50oC without being allowed to bend or expand. Find the
compressive force developed inside the bar
1) 50,000 N 2) 1000 N 3) 5000 N 4) 105 N
6. In which of the following process, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a
system?
1) Adiabatic 2) Isobaric 3) Isochoric 4) Isothermal
7. A cylinder rolls without slipping down an inclined plane, the number f degrees of
freedom it has, is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 1
2
8. The bulk modulus of a liquid is 3  10 Nm . The pressure required to reduce the
10

volume of liquid by 2% is
1) 3  108 Nm 2 2) 9  108 Nm 2 3) 6  108 Nm 2 4) 12  108 Nm 2
9. When temperature is increased
A. Viscosityof the gas increases B. Viscosity of the gas decreases
C. Viscosity of the liquid decreases D. Viscosity of the liquid increases
1) A and C are true 2) B and C are true
3) B and D are true 4) A and D are true
10. Scent sprayer is based on
1) Charle’s law 2) Boyle’s law
3) Archimedes principle 4) Bermoulli’s therorem
11. A 3kg mass and a 4kg mass are placed on x and y axes at a distance of 1 metre
from the origin and a 1kg mass is placed at the origin. Then the resultant
gravitational force on 1kg mass is
1) 7G 2) G 3) 5G 4) 3G
12. An open pipe is in resonance in 2 harmonic with frequency f1. Now one end of
nd

the tube is closed and frequency is increased to f2 such that the resonance again
occurs in nth harmonic. Choose the correct option.
3 5 5 3
1) n  3, f 2  f1 2) n  3, f 2  f1 3) n  5, f 2  f1 4) n  5, f 2  f1
4 4 4 4
13. Which of following statement is true.
1) COM of a rigid body is always inside the body.
2) Mass must be present physically at COM.
3) COM of two particle system is closer to particle with greater mass.
4) All above statements are true

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
14. The field of view is maximum for
1) Plane mirror 2) Concave mirror 3) Convex mirror 4) Cylindrical mirror
15. In Young double slit experiment, how many minimas can be obtained on a
screen, if wavelength of light used is 2000 Å and slit width is 0.0008 mm.
1) 6 2) 7 3) 8 4) 9
16. When YDSE is carried out in liquid, 5 bright fringe lies at a point on the screen
th

where 3rd dark fringe was lying in air. The refractive index of the medium is
1) 1.5 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1.2
17. The figure shows some of the electric field lines corresponding to an electric field.
The figure suggests.

1) EA > EB > EC 2) EA = EB = EC 3) EA = EC > EB 4) EA = EC < EB

18. Out of the two following statements.
A) Two like charges can only produce a null point.
B) Due to two opposite charges infinite number of zero potential points are
formed.
1) A is correct B is wrong 2) A is wrong and B is correct
3) Both A and B are wrong 4) Both A and B are correct
19. Three identical condensers are connected in different combinations using all
three each time arrange the following cases in the increasing order of effective
capacity.
(i) all in series
(ii) all in parallel
(iii) two in series and one in parallel
(iv) two in parallel and one in series
1) i,iv,iii,ii 2) i,ii,iii,iv 3) ii,iii,i,iv 4) iii,ii,iv,i
20. Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1st
coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. What is the ratio of potential difference applied
across them, so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2
21. Two long straight conductors with currents I1 and I2 are along X and Y axes. The
equation of locus of points of zero magnetic induction is
1) Y = X
I X
2) Y  2
I1
I
3) Y  1 X
I2
X
4) Y 
I1 I 2
22. I. When radius of a circular wire carrying curernt is doubled, its magnetc moment
becomes four tiems.
II. Magnetic moment is directly proportional to area of the loop.
Which of the follwong statement(s) is/are correct?
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I and II 4) None of these
23. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetizing field of 1200 Am 1 .
The permeability of the material of the rod is (Take,  0  4  10 7 T m A 1 )
1) 8.0  10 5 T m A 1 2) 2.4  10 5 T m A 1 3) 2.4  10 7 T m A 1 4) 2.4  10 4 T m A 1
24. The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by  = 5t3 – 100t +
300, the e.m.f. induced in the coil at t = 2 second is
1) – 40 V 2) 40 V 3) 140 V 4) 300 V
25. When a certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of
wavelength 𝜆, the stopping potential for photoelectric current is 3𝑉 and when
same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2𝜆 , the same stopping
potential is 𝑉 . The threshold wavelength of this surface for photoelectric effect is
1) 6𝜆 2)4𝜆/3 3) 4𝜆 4) 8𝜆

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
26. In the Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is furnished by the
coulomb attraction between the proton and the electron. If a0 is the radius of the
ground state orbit, m is the mass and e is the charge on the electron and 0 is
the vaccum permittivity, the speed of the electron is:
e e 4 0 a0 m
1) Zero 2) 3) 4)
0 a0 m 4 0 a0 m e
27. Which of the junction diodes shows here are forward biased?

28. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to
gravity on planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2m on the surface of A. What is
the height of jump by the same person on the planet B?
1) (2/9)m 2) 18m 3) 6m 4) (2/3) m
29. A ball thrown by one player reached the other in 2s. The maximum height
attained by the ball above the point of projection will be (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 2.5m 2) 5m 3) 7.5m 4) 10m
2
30. k / r represents the force under which a particle is moving in a circle of radius r.
The total energy of the particle is
k 2k k k
1) 2) 3) 4) 
2r r r 2r
31. An ideal gas is compresed to half its initial volume by means of several process.
Which of the process results in the maximum work done on the gas?
1) Adiabatic 2) Isobaric 3) Isochoric 4) Isothermal
32. A diatomic molecule has how many degrees of freedom
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
33. The moment of inertia in rotational motion is equivalent to :–
1) angular velocity of linear motion 2) mass of linear motion
3) frequency of linear motion 4) current
34. A real, inverted and equal in size image is formed by
1) a concave mirror 2) a convex mirror
3) a plane mirror 4) none of these
35. When you walk through a metal detector carrying a metal object in your pocket, it
raises an alarm. This phenomenon works on
1) Electromagentic induction 2) Resonance in ac circuit
3) Mutual induction in ac circuits 4) Interference of electromagnetic waves
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:

36. The circular divisions of shown screw gauge are 50. It moves 0.5mm on main
scale in one rotation. The diameter of the ball is

1) 2.25 mm 2) 2.20 mm 3) 1.20 mm 4) 1.25 mm

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
37. A simple pendulum is released from A as shown in the figure. If m and l
represent, the mass of the bob and length of the pendulum respectively, the gain
in kinetic energy at B is

mgl 3 mgl 2
1) 2) mgl 3) 4) mgl
2 2 2 3
0.8
38. y  x, t   represents a moving pulse where x and y are in metres and
 4 x  5t 2  5 
 
t in second. Then :
1) pulse is moving in positive x-direction 2) in 2s it will travel a distance of 2.5m
3) its maximum displacement is 0.8m 4) particle vibrating along x-axis
39. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform magnetic field B directed
along positive z axis. The direction of induced current on the surface of cylinder
as seen from the z axis will be
1) Clockwise of the +ve z axis 2) Anticlockwise of the +ve z axis
3) Zero 4) Along the magnetic field
11
40. The radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state is 5.3  10 m . After collision
11
with an electron it is found to have a radius of 21.2  10 m . What is the principle
quantum number n, of the final state of the atom:
1) n  4 2) n  2 3) n  16 4) n  13
41. A system as shown in figure is in equilibrium and is at rest. The spring and
string are massles, now the string is cut. The acceleration of the masses ‘2m’ and
‘m’ just after the string is cut, will be

g g
1) upwards, g downwards 2) g upwards, downwards
2 2
3) g upwards, 2g downwards 4) 2g upwards, g downwards
42. For a gas at a temperature T the root mean square velocity vrms, the most
probable speed vmp, and the average speed average obey the relationship.
1) vav > vrms > vmp 2) vrms > vav > vmp 3) vmp > vav > vrms 4) vmp > vrms > vav
43. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the
centre O of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The
electric field at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is (K is
mid point of AB)

1) E along KO 2) 3E along OK 3) 3E along KO 4) E along OK

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
44. A wire has a non-uniform cross-section as shownin figure. A steady current flows
through it. The drift speed of electrons at points P and Q is vP and vQ, then :-

1) vP = vQ 2) vP < vQ 3) vP > vQ 4) data is insufficient

45. The plot represents the flow of current through a wire for different time intervals.
The ratio of charges flowing through the wire corresponding to these time
intervals is (see figure) :

1) 2 : 1 : 2 2) 1 : 3 : 3 3) 1 : 1 : 1 4) 2 : 3 : 4
46. Statement – I: An AC circuit undergoes electrical resonance if it contains either a
capacitor or an inductor.
Statement – II: An AC circuit containing a pure capacitor or a pure inductor
consumes high power due to its non-zero power factor.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1) Both statements-I and II are true
2) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
3) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
4) Both statements-I and II are false
47. Two identical photo-cathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2 . If the velocities
of the photo electrons (of mass m ) coming out are respectively v1 and v 2 , then
1/2
 2h  2h
1) v1  v 2    f1  f2  2) v12  v 22   f1  f2 
m  m
1/2
 2h  2h
3) v1  v 2    f1  f2  4) v12  v 22   f1  f2 
m  m
48. A ball bounces to 80% of its original height. What fraction of its mechanical
energy is lost in each bounce?
1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 26% 4) 30%
49. Two spheres made of same substance have diameters in the ratio 2 : 1. Their
thermal capacities are in the ratio of :
1) 1 : 2 2) 8 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 2 : 1
50. The following table provides the set of values of V and I obtained for a given diode.
Let the characteristics  be nearly linear, over this range, the forward and reverse
bias resistance of the given diode respectively are
V I
2.0V 60mA
Forward basing
2.4V 80mA
0V 0A
Reverse basing
-2V -0.25A
1) 10,8 10 
6
2) 20, 4  10 
5
3) 20,8  106  4) 10,10
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
51. Which of the following shows higher freezing point?
1) 1.6 molal aqueous Urea 2) 0.9 molal aqueous KCl
3) 0.8 molal aqueous BaCl2 4) 0.6 molal aqueous AlCl3
52. 10g of NaOH is dissolved in 400ml of aqueous solution. 20ml of this solution
neutralises 50ml of given HCl solution. Then the weight of HCl present in 1 litre
of given HCl solution is ______g.
1) 4.563 2) 2.281 3) 9.125 4) 18.25

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
53. Identify a reagent from the following list which can easily distinguish between
1- Butyne and 2-Butyne?
1) Bromine in CCl4 2) H2, Lindlar’s catalyst
3) Dilute sulphuric acid, HgSO4 4) Ammonical Cu2Cl2 solution
54. IE1 and IE2 of magnesium are 178 and 348 K.cal/mole respectively. The energy
required for the reaction, Mg  g   Mg g2  2e  is_______per 1 mole Mg atoms
1) +178 K.cal 2) +348 K.cal 3) +526 K.cal 4) +170 K.cal
55. The radii of F  , F , O 2  and O are in the order
1) O2  F   O  F 2) O2  F   F  O 3) F   O2  F  O 4) O2  O  F   F
56. Which is not the correct IUPAC name ?
1) Ethanedioic acid 2) 4 – pentanone
3) Pentanedial 4) Pent – 2 – ene
57. Assertion (A) : The frequency of ultraviolet radiation is greater than the
frequency of infrared radiation.
Reason(R) : The velocity of ultraviolet radiation is greater than the velocity of
infrared radiation.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not correct explanation
of the Assertion
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) Assertion is false and Reason is true
58. Glucose does not react with
1) NaHSO3 2) Schiff’s reagent 3) Tollen’s reagent 4) Both 1 and 2
59. Match the following columns :
Column-I Column-II
1) A pair of optical isomers A)

2) A pair of geometrical B)
isomers and
diastereomers

3) A pair of metamers C) C2H5OC2H5; CH3OC3H7

4) A pair of diastereomers D)

Codes :
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
1) D A C B 2) A B D C
3) C D B A 4) B C A D

60. Libermann’s nitroso test used for identification of which functional group in
organic compounds
1) Alcohol 2) 1o -amine 3) Phenolic 4) Aldehyde
61. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate on treatment with
dilute hydrochloric acid, which dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulphide
gas is passed through the hot acidic solution, a black precipitate is obtained. The
substance is a
1) Hg 22 salt 2) Cu 2 salt 3) Ag  salt 4) Pb2 salt
62. When a salt solution is treated with aqueous AgNO3 solution then a dark yellow
ppt is formed which is insoluble in ammonia. Then the given salt
contains___anion.
1) Cl  2) Br  3) I  4) NO3

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
63. Which of the following order is not correct?
1) SF2 > SF4 > SF6 (ionic character)
2) AlF3 < Al2O3 < AIN (covalent character)
3) MgCl2 < AlCl3 < SiCl4 (covalent character)
4) CaCl2 < ZnCl2 < CdCl2 (ionic character)
64. The solubility product of CaSO4 is 6.4 x 10-5. The solubility of salt in moles / litre
is:
1) 8 x 10-16 2) 8 x 10-2 3) 8 x 10-3 4) 1.6 x 10-3
65. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II
A) Trigonal planar p) PCl5

B) Tetrahedral q) NH 4

C) Trigonal bipyramidal r) SF6

D) Octahedral s) BF3

1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s 2) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p

3) A-s, B-q, C-p, D-r 4) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s
66. Which of the following compound is aromatic?

1) 2) 3) 4) All of these

67. Correct statement about inductive effect is :

1) It is a temporary effect
2) It decreases as the distance increases
3) It doesn’t depend upon the electronegativity
4) It operates through -bond only

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
3
68. Assertion : B ion does not exists.
Reason : Sum of IP1, IP2 & IP3 of Boron is very high.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
69. Assertion : PbI4 does not exists.
Reason : Pb-I bond formed during the reaction does not release enough energy to
unpair 6s2 electrons and excite one of them to higher orbital.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
70. Which will undergo fastest SN 2 substitution reaction when treated with NaOH ?

71. ,

Y in the above reaction is

1) Hexane 2) Cyclohexane 3)Cyclohexylcyclohexane 4) Dicyclohexylether
72. Statement I: When 2-fluorobutane is reacted with alcoholic KOH then butene-1
is formed as major product.
Statement II: Butene-2 is more stable than butene-1.
1) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
73. Starting with 2 moles of A and 1 mole of B, the following reaction
2 A + 3B  X + 2Y
is made to take place. Assume the reaction goes to completion. Match the
number of moles listed in column II with various species listed in Column I at the
end of the reaction.
List-I List-II
(a) A (P) 1/3
(b) B (Q) 2/3
(c) X (R) 0.0
(d) Y (S) 4/3
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) S R P Q (2) P Q R S
(3) Q S R P (4) Q R S P
74. Chlorophyll, the green colouring matter of plants responsible for photosynthesis,
contains 2.68% of magnesium by mass. The number of magnesium atoms in
2.00g of chlorophyll is
(1) 1.345 × 1021 (2) 1.345 × 1020
(3) 13.45 × 1021 (4) 1.345 × 1023
75. In the reaction: As2 S3  HNO3  H 3 AsO4  H 2 SO4  NO, the element oxidized is/are:
1) As only 2) S only 3) N only 4) Both As and S

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
76. Which reagent will you use for the following reaction?
CH3CH2CH2CH3 
CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl  CH3CH2CHClCH3
1) Cl2 / UV light 2) NaCl + H2SO4
3) Cl2 gas in dark 4) Cl2 gas in the presence of iron in dark.
77. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their densities.

1) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV) 2) (I) < (III) < (IV) < (II)
3) (IV) < (III) < (II) < (I) 4) (II) < (IV) < (III) < (I)
78. Which one of the following is wrong?
1) Oxygen and sulphur belong to the same group of periodic table
2) Oxygen is a gas while sulphur is solid
3) Both oxygen and sulphurn show +2,+4 and +6 oxidation states
4) H 2 S has no hydrogen bonding
79. Boiling point is very high for
1) He 2) Ne 3) Kr 4) Xe
80. For a reaction, A+B →products; the rate law is given by
rate  K  A  B 
3/2 1
. Then the order of reaction ___________
1) Zero 2) -1 3) 3/2 4) 1/2
81. 75% of first order reaction is completed in 40min. Then the rate constant of the
reaction is _____
1) 0.05min-1 2) 0.3465 mol.L-1.min-1
3) 0.03465 min-1 4) 0.114 min-1
82. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium
gives
1) diphenyl ether 2) p-hydroxyazobenzene
3) chlorobenzene 4) Benzene
83. Methanol and ethanol are distinguished by:
1) Treating with Schiff's reagent 2) Treating with Lucas reagent
3) Heating with iodine and alkali 4) Treating with CrO3 in dil. H2SO4
84. Which of the following is an extenstive property?
1) Molar entropy 2) Viscosity 3) Pressure 4) Heat capacity
85. When 1 mol of water at 100 C is converted into steam at 100 o C at a constant
o

 
pressure of 1 atm, the entropy change in cal K 1mol1 is : [Heat of vaporization of
water at 100 C  540 cal/g ]
o

1) 6.66 2) 12.44 3) 20.22 4) 26.06

SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
86. In the alloy mischmetall, along with 95% of lanthanoid, which of the following has
higher percentage in its total composition?
1) Al 2) Ca 3) Fe 4) S
87. In which of the following pairs both the ions are coloured in aqueous solutions?
1) Sc3+, Ti3+ 2) Sc3+, Co2+ 3) Ni2+, Zn2 4) Ni2+, Ti3+
88. Which of the following is the best method for synthesis of benzoic acid from
bromobenzene?
H 3O  H 3O 
1) C6 H 5 Br  KCN 
 A   2) C6 H 5 Br  AgCN  A  
4) C6 H5 Br  
Mg
3) C6 H 5 Br 
Mg
THF
 A 
CO2
H O
 THF
3

89. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol B. The acid reduces Fehling’s
solution. Oxidation of alcohol B gives acid A. The ester is
1) Methyl formate 2) Ethyl formate 3) Methyl acetate 4) Ethyl acetate
90. Select the incorrect option regarding Na3[CoF6]
1) Octahedral geometry 2) High spin complex
3) 4 unpaired electrons 4) d2sp3 hybridisation

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3
91. Spin only magnetic moment value of  Mn  CN 6  ion is
1) 2.83 BM 2) 3.87 BM 3) 4.9 BM 4) 1.73 BM
92. Which of the following is not an outer orbital complex?
2)  MnCl6  3)  FeF6  4) CoF6 
3 3 3 3
1)  Co  C 2 O4 3 
93. For which of the following the pH is exactly 3 ?
1) 0.001M CH3COOH 2) 0.001M NaCl
3) 0.001M NaOH 4) 0.0005M H2SO4
94. Which of the following linear combinations of atomic orbitals is correctly
depicted?

95. How much PCl5 must be added to a one litre vessel kept at 250oC in order to

obtain 0.1 mole of Cl2 gas [ KC for PCl5 g   PCl3 g   Cl2 g  is 0.0414 mol/L ]
1) 0.0341 mole 2) 0.341 mole 3) 0.241 mole 4) 0.024 mole
96. The conjugate base of  CH 3 2 NH 2 is


1)  CH 3 2 NH 2)  CH 3 2 N  3)  CH 3 3 N  4)  CH 3 2 N 
97. Arrange the following amines in the decreasing order of their basicity

1) 1 > 3 > 2 2) 3 > 2 > 1 3) 1 > 2 > 3 4) 2 > 1 > 3

98. For the following cell reaction
Al  s  / Al 3 1M  // Fe 2 1M  / Fe  s 
Standard Gibb’s energy change is ______ kJ
Given : E Al0 3 / Al  1.66 V and E Fe
0
2
/ Fe
 0.44 V
1) -117.73 2) -353.19 3) -235.46 4) -706.38
99. Among the following statements.
A) In galvanic cell chemical energy of a redox reaction is converted to electrical
energy.
B) In electrolytic cell a non-spontaneous reaction is taken place by passing
electricity .
C) Nickel-cadmium cell has longer life than lead storage battery
1) All A, B and C are correct. 2) Only A and B are correct.
3) Only A and C are correct. 4) Only B and C are correct.
100. A gas absorbs a photon of wavelength 355 nm and emit it at two wavelengths. If
one of the emissions is at 680 nm, the other is at
1) 1035 nm 2) 325 nm 3) 743 nm 4) 518 nm

BOTANY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
101. The organisms considered as “smallest known living cells” differ from all the other
members of its own kingdom by being
1) facultively anaerobic 2) Parasitic
3) Wall less 4) Prokaryotic
102. The name of some common diseases are given below
Cholera, Typhoid, Tobacco Mosaic, Influenza, Tetanus, Citrus – canker
How many of the above are bacterial diseases caused in human beings?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) Four

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103. Match the Column I and Column II and select the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Photoautotrophs (I) Recycling of nutrients
(B) Chemoautotrophs (II) Most abundant
(C) Heterotrophic (III) Water blooms
bacteria
.
(D) Pathogenic (IV) Mycoplasmas
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
.

1) III IV II I 2) I II III IV
3) II I IV III 4) III I II IV
104. Select a mismatch.
1) Plague – Bacterial disease
2) Whooping - Cough – Kali khansi-Viral infection
3) Diphtheria - Gal ghotus - Bacterial disease
4) Leprosy – Kushtrog - Bacterial disease
105. Pick out a true statements from the following:
1) A) Prolife means – not against,
B) Alexander Fleming discovered staphylo cocci
2) A) Antibiotics are chemical substances,
B) Staphylococci are tend to form chains
3) A) ‘Anti’ is a Greek word that means – against,
B) Flemming, Chain, and flory were awarded their noble prize for the discovery
of penicillin
4) A) Bio means life,
B) A chemical produced by the virus kills the growth of moulds on unwashed
petridishes.
106. Which of the following options contains the end products formed during
anaerobic respiration in yeast?
1) H2O, CO2 and energy 2) H2S, C6H12O6 and energy
3) CO2, C2H5OH and energy 4) H2O and CO2 only
107. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) The haploid gametophyte is main plant body in Algae , Bryophytes .
2) The diploid sporophyte is dominant phase in Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms,
and Angiosperms.
3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte phases are free-living, photosynthetic in life
cycle of Pteridophytes.
4) Both gametophyte and sporophyte phases are free-living, photosynthetic in life
cycle of bryophytes.
108. Choose the Mismatched pair
1) Isogamous………… Ulothrix, Spirogyra 2) Anisogamous…………… Eudorina
3) Oogamous………… Volvox, Fucus. 4) Nonmotile Isogametes…… Ulothrix
109. Which of the following are correct for gymnosperms?
I. They are heterosporous.
II. The roots are generally tap roots.
III. Posses fruits
IV. Requires water for fertilization.
1) I, and II are correct. 2) II, III and IV are correct.
3) I, II and V are correct. 4) I, II, III and IV are correct
110. Restriction enzymes are
1) Not required in genetic engineering
2) Essential tool in genetic engineering
3) Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites
4) Both (2) and (3)
111. Find out the correct polindromic sequence of DNA.
𝐺𝐴𝑇𝐺𝐴𝑇 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑇𝐶𝐺 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑇𝑇𝐴 𝐺𝐺𝐶𝐺𝐶𝐶
1) 2) 3) 4)
𝐶𝑇𝐴𝐶𝑇𝐴 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝐴𝐺𝐶 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝐴𝐴𝑇 𝐶𝐶𝐺𝐶𝐺𝐺
112. Recognition sequence in EcoRI is
1) GGCC 2) GAATTC 3) AAGCTT 4) CTGCAG

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
113. With respect to the agarose gel electrophoresis:
Statement-I: The matrix used in this technique is artificial polymer
Statement-II: After exposed to UV light, it has to be stained with Etbr (Ethidium
bromide).
1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
3) Both Statements I and II are false
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
114. Match Column-I with Column-II and find the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
p) Lysozyme a) Plant
q) Cellulase b) Bacteria
r) Chitinase c) Fungi
1) p-a, q-b, r-c 2) p-c, q-b, r-a 3) p-b,q-a, r-c 4) p-b, q-c, r-a
115. Identify the region of root on the basis of the given statement.
A. Cells of this region are very small, thin-walled, and with dense protoplasm.
B. Cells of this region are responsible for the growth of root in length.
C. Some epidermal cells of this region form very fine and delicate thread-like
structures.
A B C
1) Region of meristematic activity Region of elongation Region of maturation
2) Region of meristematic activity Region of cell Region of maturation
differentiation
3) Region of elongation Region of meristematic Region of cell
activity differentiation
4) Region of cell differentiation Region of meristematic Region of elongation
activity
116. Which of the following character is not represented by the given floral diagram of
an angiospermic family?

1) Bicarpellary ovary 2) Imbricate aestivation in calyx

3) Axile placentation 4) Tetradynamous condition of stamen
117. Analyse statements w.r.t. below diagram.

A :Calyx K, sepals five, free.

B :Androecium : stamens five epiphyllous.
C : Gynoecium : Bicarpellary, apocarpous, parietal placentation.
1) Only A and B are true 2) C and A are true
3) Only A and B are false 4) A, B, C are false
118. Match the following :
Column-I Column-II
a) Adelphous stamens (i) Carpels more than one, free
b) Apocarpous (ii) Filaments fused; anthers free
c) Syncarpous (iii) Filaments attached to petals
d) Epipetalous (iv) Carpels more than one, fused
1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii) 2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)
3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) 4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
119. On hydrolysis of a nucleoside would not yield
1) Purine 2) Pyrimidine 3) Pentose sugar 4) Phosphate

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GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
120. Which of the following is synthesized through reverse transcription?
1) m-RNA 2) r-RNA 3) t-RNA 4) c-DNA
121. Which of the following correctly represents a replicating fork?

122. DNA and RNA differ with respect to :-

1) only purine 2) only pyrimidine
3) only sugar 4) Both nitrogen base and sugar
123. If the sequence of coding strand in a DNA molecule is, 5'
ATCGATCGACTG 3' then the sequence of RNA transcribed from
template strand would be :-
1) 3' ATCGATCGACTG 5' 2) 5' TAGCTAGCTGAC 3'
3) 3' UAGCUAGCUGAC 5' 4) 5' AUCGAUCGACUG 3'
124. Which of following can be coupled in bacteria?
1) Replication & transcription 2) Transcription & translation
3) Replication & translation 4) Both 1 and 2
125. Root hairs are consided as
1) Unicellular elongation of the epidermals cells of epidermis
2) Multicellular elongation of the epidermals cells of epidermis
3) Unicellular elongation of the cortical cells of epidermis
4) 2 & 3
126. Assertion : The innermost layer of the cortex is called endodermis.
Reason : The outermost layer of the root is called epiblema.
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false
4) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
127. A dicot root differs from a monocot root in which of the following-
1) Presence of epidermis
2) Presence of pericycle
3) Presence of less-developed (poorlydeveloped) pith
4) Presence of radial vascular bundles
128. In a cross 45 tall and 14 dwarf plants were obtained, genotype of parent would be
1) TT × TT 2) TT × Tt 3) Tt × Tt 4) TT × tt
129. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given:
Column I Column II
(Plastids) (Storage)
(a) Elaioplast i. Protein
(b) Amyloplast ii. Contain xanthophylls
(c) Aleuroplast iii. Carbohydrate
(d) Chromoplast iv. Fat
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-I 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.
130. Genes do not occur in pairs is
1) Zygote 2) Somatic cell 3) Endosperm cell 4) Gametes

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131. Co-dominant genes could be best defined as
1) Dominant genes not showing their effect in a homozygous
2) Alleles, each producing an independent
3) Alleles, each producing a coordinating effect on homozygous
4) Dominant genes producing an intermediate
132. Assertion (A): Law of segregation is one of the most important contributions to
genetics.
Reason (R): It introduced the concept of hereditary factors as discrete physical
entities which do not blend.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
133. Which of the following kingdoms has no well defined boundaries?
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) Plantae
134. Which of the following statement of a bacterial cell is/ are correct?
(i) Mesosome is formed by the extensions of plasmamembrane into the cell.
(ii) The pili are elongated tubular structures made up of a protein.
(iii) Fimbriae helps to attach bacteria to host tissues.
(iv) Ribosomes are about 30 cm by 50 cm in size.
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) All of the above
3) (ii) and (iv) only correct 4) Only (i) is correct
135. Read the following statements carefully and identify the correct statement :-
1) Chalaza is present opposite to micropyle
2) Cells of integument of ovule have abundant food material
3) Megasporangium in angiosperm is commonly called carpel
4) In papaver apocarpous gynoecium is present
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
136. Study the following diagram carefully and identify the structure which is involved
in triple fusion :

1) A : Synergids 2) B : Polar nuclei 3) C : Egg cell 4) D : Polar nuclei

137. Which of the following are crucial for storage of seeds ?
1) Dehydration and hydration 2) Dehydration and dormancy
3) Hydration and vivipary 4) Dehydration and vivipary
138. Which of the following set of cells have haploid number of chromosome in their
nucleus ?
1) Antipodal cell, synergids, egg 2) Embryo, egg, synergids.
3) Generative cell, megaspore, nucellus 4) Embryo cell, microspore, tapetum
139. The sum total composition of acid soluble and acid insoluble fraction represent
the entire empirical composition of
1) Dead cells 2) Gene pool 3) Cellular pool 4) Gene library
140. Statement –I : Many lipids have both fatty acids and trihydroxy propane with
ester bonds.
Statement –II : By the esterification of glycerol & fatty acids glycerides are
formed. The number of glycerides (mono, Di etc) are equal to number of evoluved
water molecules.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are wrong
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are correct
3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is wrong
4) Statement-I is wrong, Statement-II is correct

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141. Identify the correct statement w.r.t. the leaves given below.

1) A and B both show equal absolute growth rate but relative growth rate of A is
more than B.
2) A shows more absolute as well as relative growth rate
3) B shows more absolute as well as relative growth rate
4) A and B both show equal absolute growth rate but relative growth rate of B is
more than A.
142. Formation of interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are example of
1) Differentiation 2) Dedifferentiation
3) Redifferentiation 4) Both 2 and 3
143. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1) There are more than 100 gibberellins to be reported.
2) GA3 was one of the gibberellins to be discovered
3) All in GA are basic
4) GAs are also reported in fungi
144. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
(I) Leptotene a) Compaction of chromosome
(II) Zygotene b) Separation of chromosome except at
crossover
(III) Pachytene c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(IV) Diakinesis d) Appearance of recombination of nodules
(V) Diplotene e) Synapsis
1) I-a, II-e, III-d, IV-c, V-b 2) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c, V-e
3) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-e, V-b 4) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-e, V-c
145. If the amount of DNA of each daughter cell after the result of meiosis is 42 pg,
what would be the amount of DNA of meiocyte in G2phase.
1) 84 pg 2) 42 pg 3) 168 pg 4) 336 pg
146. Which of the following is generally not a limiting factor and major limiting factor
for photosyntheis respectively
1) Light and oxygen 2) Light and carbondioxide
3) Carbondioxide and light 4) Water and carbondioxide
147. Consider the following statement –
A) Action spectrum of Chl a is similar to absorption spectrum of Chl a
B) Phosphorylation occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast.
How many are correct?
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Both A and B 4) Both are wrong
148. OAA forms other four carbon acids which are transported to the bundle sheath
cells in C4 leaves
1) Malic acid and oxalic acid 2) Malic acid and aspartic acid
3) Succinic acid and aspartic acid 4) Succinic acid and glutamic acid
149. What will be the RQ for the following equation
2  C51 H 98O6   145O2 102CO2  98H 2O  Energy
1) 0.9 2) 1 3) 0.8 4) 0.7
150. The C – C bond of complex compound is broken by which process of respiration?
1) Oxidation 2) Reduction 3) Hydrogenation 4) Carboxylation

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ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
151. Statement – I : Finch birds show adaptation from its original insect eating
features.
Statement – II : Finches are small black birds.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
152. Name the three subspecies of tiger which are extinct.
1) Thylacine, Javan, Caspian 2) Bali, Javan, Thylacine
3) Bali, Quagga, Caspian 4) Bali, Javan, Caspian
153. Frog shows sexual dimorphism. Male frog can be distinguished from female one
in having
1) Sound producing vocal sacs
2) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
3) Cloaca 4) Both (1) and (2)
154. In female cockroach, 7th sternum together with 8th and 9th sterna forms
1) A brood/genital pouch 2) Anal cerci
3) Anal style 4) None of these
155. The given graphic representation of age group of a population shows.

1) Declining population 2) Increasing population

3) Stable population 4) Fluctuating population
156. Micturition signal is initiated by ______
1) Stretching of the urinary bladder as it release urine into urethra
2) Stretching of the urinary bladder as it gets filled with urine
3) Ureters only
4) Simultaneous contraction of urethra & urinary bladder.
157. The P wave of the ECG represents _______________
1) ventricular depolarization 2) atrial depolarization
3) ventricular repolarization 4) ventricular systole
158. Some salient features and phyla of organisms are given below. Select the option
which shows correct combination of organisms, its phylum and salient features.

1 Hydra CoelenterataBilateral Cnidoblasts present

symmetry
2 Planaria Platyhelminthes Bilateral High regeneration
symmetry capacity
3 Ancylostoma Mollusca Bilateral Elongated and worm
symmetry shape
4 Octopus Mollusca Radial symmetry Soft sponge layer of
visceral hump
159. The technique of DNA finger printing was initially developed by
1) Laliji Singh 2) Alec Jeffreys 3) Fredrick sanger 4) Mendel
160. Assertion: Pleiotropic gene exhibits multiple phenotypic expression.
Reason: Pleiotropic gene has effect on metabolic pathways that contribute
towards different phenotype.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true and reason is false
4) Assertion is false and reason is true

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161. Grazing food chain composed with
1) Green plantsherbivoresprimary carnivoressecondary carnivoressun
2) SunGreen plantsherbivoresprimary carnivoressecondary carnivores
3) Green plantssunherbivoresprimary carnivoressecondary
carnivoresdecomposers
4) Green plantsherbivoresprimary carnivoressecondary carnivores
decompoesers
162. Full form of CDRI is
1) Central Development Research Institute
2) Child Development Research Institute
3) Common Development Research Institute
4) Central Drug Research Institute
163. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
I. Contraction of diaphragm.
II. Contraction of external inter-costal muscles.
III. Pulmonary volume decreases.
IV. Intra pulmonary pressure increases.
1) III and IV 2) I, II and IV 3) Only IV 4) I and II
164. After ovulation, the path of secondary oocyte in fallopian tube is
A. Fimbriae B. Coelomic cavity C. Infundibulum D. Ampulla
1) ABCD 2) ADCB 3) ACBD 4) BACD
165. The appearance of dry, Scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin,
nails and scalp are the main symptoms of the disease.
1) Ascariasis 2) Ring worm 3) Amoebiasis 4) Typhoid
166. Which of the following events can occur in successive tropic levels after the
primary producer level in an ecosystem in terms of chemical energy?
1) No changes in energy levels 2) gradual decreases in energy levels
3) Rapid increases in energy levels 4) random decreases in energy levels
167. In the grassland ecosystem, which of the pyramids are upright?
a. Pyramid of energy b. Pyramid of number c. Pyramid of biomass
1) Only a 2) Only a and b 3) Only c 4) All a, b and c
168. The disadvantage of using bovine insulin (from cow) and porcine insulin (from
pig) in diabetic patients is-
1) More better than humulin 2) It may cause allergic reaction
3) No side effects 4) All of the above
169. Assertion A: The portion of the myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ lines is
considered as the functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Reason R: During contraction, ‘I’ bands get reduced whereas ‘A’ bands retain the
length, thereby causing shortening of the sarcomere.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is true but R is false
3) A is false but R is true
4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
170. The type of natural selection in which more individuls acquire mean charcter
value is called
1) Disruptive selection 2) Stabalising selection
3) Directional selection 4) Geographical isolation
171. Rivert popper hypothesis explains about
1) Role of exotic species in ecosystem stability
2) Role of key species in ecosystem stability
3) Role of plants in an ecosystem
4) Role of hervibores in an ecosystem
172. Select an incorrect statement for predation.
1) Predation is commonly illustrated by the herbivore-carnivore interaction
2) Reduction in prey population may increase the population of predator
3) Predator keeps check on prey population
4) If the predator population increases, it consumes more prey, there by reducing
the population of prey

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173. Sweat produced by the sweat glands is a watery fluid, containing the all following
wastes except _______
1) NaCl 2) Small amount of urea
3) Small amount of hydrocarbons 4) Lactic acid
174. The sequence of pulmonary circulation is
1) Left ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs →pulmonary vein → right atrium
2) Right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs →pulmonary vein → left atrium
3) Left ventricle → pulmonary vein → lungs →pulmonary artery → right atrium
4) Right ventricle → pulmonary vein → lungs →pulmonary artery → left atrium
175. Which of the following statements is true?
1) All vetebrates are chordates 2) All chordates are vertebrates
3) Protochordates are non-chordates 4) Protochordates are vertebrates
176. In 1953 S.L. Miller, an America scientist created similar conditions of early earth,
in laboratory scale observed the first formation of _____.
1) Sugars 2) Pigmens & fats 3) Nitorgen bases 4) Aminoacids
177. Statement - I: Pancreas is a composite gland that acts both exocrine &
endocrine.
Statement - II: Testes perform dual function as primary sex organ and endocrine
gland.
1) Both S – I & S – II are true 2) Both S – I & S – II are false
3) S – I is true , S – II is false 3) S – I is false , S – II is true
178. Statement I: Myotonic dystrophy is autosomal dominant trait.
Statement II: Chromosomal disorders can be easily traced in a family by
pedigree analysis.
1) Statement I is true, Statement II is false 2) Both statement I and II are true
3) Both statement I and II are false
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
179. In soil dark coloured amorphours substance is humus which is :
1) Highly suitable for microbial action and undergoes decomposition very fast
2) Highly resistant for microbial action and undergoes decomposition very slow
3) low resistant for microbial action and undergoes decomposition very slow
4) Non mineralized colloidal particles that hustle decomposition activity of
microbes.
180. The barrier method of contraception
(a) can be used by males only
(b) prevents physical meeting of sperm and ovum
(c) are used at the time of coitus.
Select the most appropriate option.
1) (a) and (c) are correct 2) (a), (b), (c) are correct
3) (b) and (c) are correct 4) Only (b) is correct
181. What is correct with respect to diversity in the living world?
1) 1.8 to 1.9 billion 2) Exporing old areas, no new species
3) Exploring new areas, no new species
4) Dense forest will have greater diversity than our living surroundings.
182. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A,
B, C and D. Select the option, which gives correct identification and main
function and/or characteristic.

1) A–trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting

inspired air
2) 2) B–pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against
rubbing
3) C–alveoli-thin walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases
4) D–lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration

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183. In human genome, the average gene consists of how many bases.
1) 3000 bases 2) 30,000 bases 3) 3 109 bases 4) 3 106 bases
184. Choose the incorrect statement from the following;
1) The ovary secretes oestrogen and progesterone
2) Growing ovarian follicles secretes oestrogen
3) Growing ovarian follicles secretes progesterone
4) After ovulation ruptured graffian follicle is converted to corpus luteum
185. The source of energy for the respiration of plants is
1) NPP 2) GPP 3) GSP 4) NSP

SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
186. The sliding filament theory states that:
1) Contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thick filaments
over the thin filaments
2) Contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments
over the thick filaments
3) Relaxation of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thick filaments
over the thin filaments
4) Relaxation of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments
over the thick filaments
187. In an anology if tendril is to cucurbita _______ is to penguin.
1) Feather 2) Wing 3) Flipper 4) Beak
188. Cockroaches breath through
1) Nephridia 2) Chloragogen cells 3) Green glands 4) Spiracles
189. Study the following flow chart related to regulation of kidney function.

Activation of osmoreceptors

C
Identify the correct option.
A B C
1. Excessive loss of Stimulate hypothalamus Release of ADH from
fluid from body Adenohypophysis
2. Excessive intake of Inhibits hypothalamus Release of aldosterone
fluids into the body from Adenohypophysis
3. Extreme summer Stimulate hypothalamus Release of aldosterone
season from Adenohypophysis
4. Excessive loss of Stimulate hypothalamus Release of ADH from
fluid from body Neurohypophysis
190. Which of the following has the thickest wall?
1) Right ventricle 2) Left ventricle 3) Right atrium 4) Left atrium
191. Select a set of peptide hormones which are antagonists to each other
1) TCT & PTH 2) Insulin & PTH 3) Glucagon & Insulin4) PTH & Glucagon
192. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
(i) An unfertilised egg from Queen bee develops in to male by parthenogenesis.
(ii) Male honey bee produces sperm by meiosis
(iii) Male honey bee has half the number of chromosomes as that of Queen
(iv) Queen produces egg by meiosis
1) ii alone 2) ii, iv 3) i,ii,iii,iv 4) iii,iv

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

GT - 3 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
193. Match the following :

A B C D A B C D
1) I IV III II 2) II IV III I
3) I II III IV 4) I II IV III
194. _______, ________ are essential before undertaking any graft or transplant
1) Blood group, Tissue matching 2) Antibiotics, Immuno suppressants
3) Self, non self antigens 4) None of the above
195. Select the correct statement.
1) Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles
2) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure during
inspiration
3) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary
pressure
4) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm
196. A) Dengue – Alpha virus
B) AIDS – Flavi virus
C) Chikungunya – Retro virus
D) Common cold – Rhino virus
Find the correct match
1) A, B 2) C, D 3) D 4) A, C
197. The parenting that combines with high levels of nurturance and consistent
discipline, has been associated with lowered risk of ________ abuse
1) Tobacco 2) Drug 3) Alcohol 4) All the above
198. Read the following statements and select the correct option
Animal Level of organisation Gut type
1) Spongilla Cellular Complete gut
2) Ctenoplana Organ level Incomplete gut
3) Fasciola Tissue level Incomplete
4) Asterias Organ system Complete gut
199. Best method to conserve genetic strain of commercially important plants :
1) Cold storage 2) Tissue culture
3) Seed bank 4) Sacred grooves
200. Which of the following male accessory glands secretion help in the lubrication of
penis at the time of coitus?
1) Prostate gland 2) Skene’s glands
3) Bulbourethral glands 4) Seminal vesicles

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY