(NEET) OG_SR & LT [ALL INDIA] [NEET-2021 MODEL] DATE: 29.08.

2021

Time: 3.00 Hrs [SER-1] GT-10 (FINAL PHASE) Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with
blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The
maximum marks are 720.

3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions.
Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case
if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will
be considered for marking.

4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking
responses.

6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet
only.

7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to
the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.

8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any
stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space
in the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.

9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

pg. 1
 PHYSICS
SECTION-A (35 Questions)
1. A particle moves towards east with velocity 5 m s . After 10 seconds its direction changes towards north
with same speed. The average acceleration of the particle is
1 1 1
1) Zero 2) m / s2 N  W 3) m / s2N  E 4) m / s 2S  W
2 2 2
2. If L, C and R represent inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively, then which of the following
does not represent dimensions of frequency
1 R 1 C
1) 2) 3) 4)
RC L LC L
3. The velocity-time and acceleration-time graphs of a particle are given as

Its position-time graph may be given as

1) 2) 3) 4)
4. A particle moves in a circle of radius 30cm . Its linear speed is given by   2t where t is in second and
 is in m/s. Find out its radial and tangential acceleration at t  3sec respectively
1) 220 m sec2 ,50 m sec2 2) 100 m sec2 ,5 m sec2
3) 120 m sec2 ,2 m sec2 4) 110 m sec2 ,10 m sec2
5. Which of the following is the altitude-time graph for a projectile thrown horizontally from the top of the
tower

1) 2) 3) 4)
6. As shown in the figure, two equal masses each of 2 kg are suspended from a spring balance. The
reading of the spring balance will be

1) Zero 2) 2 kg 3) 4 kg 4) Between zero and 2 kg

pg. 2
7. The potential energy of a conservative system is given by V  x    x 2  3 x  joule. Then its equilibrium
position is at
1) x  1.5m 2) x  2m 3) x  2.5m 4) x  3m
8. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional

forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine g  10 m s
2

1) 12.3kW 2) 7.0kW 3) 8.1kW 4) 10.2kW
9. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface, shown in figure with a transnational velocity  m/s. If
sphere climbs up to height h then value of  should be

10 10
1)  gh 2)  2gh 3) 2gh 4) gh
7 7
10. If linear density of a rod of length 3m varies as   2  x , then the position of the centre of gravity of
the rod is
7 12 10 9
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
3 7 7 7
11. If the mass of a body is M on the surface of the earth, the mass of the same body on the surface of the
moon is
1) M 2) Zero 3) M/6 4) 6M
12. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy
E0 . Its potential energy is
1)  E0 2) 1.5E0 3) 2E0 4) E0
13. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of length l. when this wire is subjected to a constant force
F, the extension produced in the wire is l . Which of the following graphs is a straight line
l 1
1) l versus 2 2) l versus l 3) l versus 4) l versus l 2
l l
14. Two droplets merge with each other and forms a large droplet. In this process
1) Energy is liberated 2) Energy is absorbed
3) Neither liberated nor absorbed 4) Some mass is converted into energy
15. The velocity of the surface layer of water in a river of depth 10m is 5ms 1 . The shearing stress between
the surface layer and the bottom layer is (Coefficient of viscosity of water,   103 SI units)
1) 0.6  103 Nm 2 2) 0.8  103 Nm 2 3) 0.5  103 Nm 2 4) 103 Nm2
16. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from
temperature 20 C ? The temperature of boiling water is 100 C
1) 12.6 min 2) 4.2 min 3) 6.3 min 4) 8.4 min

pg. 3
17. 0.1m3 of water at 80 C is mixed with 0.3m 3 of water at 60 C . The final temperature of the mixture is
1) 65 C 2) 70 C 3) 60 C 4) 75 C
18. At NTP, sample of equal volume of chlorine and oxygen is taken. Now ratio of no. of molecules is
1) 1:1 2) 32 : 27 3) 2 :1 4) 16 :14
19. When an ideal gas in a cylinder was compressed isothermally by a piston, the work done on the gas was
found to be 1.5 104 joules. During this process about
1) 3.6  103 cal of heat flowed out from the gas
2) 3.6  103 cal of heat flowed into the gas
3) 1.5  104 cal of heat flowed into the gas
4) 1.5  104 cal of heat flowed out from the gas
20. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1 , is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless
piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature T2 by releasing the piston suddenly.
If L1 and L2 are the lengths of the gas column before and after expansion respectively, then T1 / T2 is
given by
23 23
L  L L L 
1)  1  2) 1 3) 2 4)  2 
 L2  L2 L1  L1 
21. Ice starts forming in lake with water at 0 C and when the atmospheric temperature is 10 C . If the
time taken for 1cm of ice to be formed is 7 hours, then the time taken for thickness of ice to change
from 1cm to 2cm is
1) 7 hours 2) 14 hours 3) less than 7 hours 4) more than 7 hours
22. A point mass is subjected to two simultaneous sinusoidal displacements in x-direction, x1  t   A sin t
 2 
and x2  t   A sin  t   . Adding a third sinusoidal displacement x3  t   B sin t    brings the
 3 
mass to a complete rest. The values of B and 
3 4 5 
1) 2 A, 2) A, 3) 3 A, 4) A,
4 3 6 3
23. A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz produced 10 beats per second when sounded with a vibrating
sonometer string. What must have been the frequency of the string if a slight increase in tension
produces lesser beats per second than before
1) 460 Hz 2) 470 Hz 3) 480 Hz 4) 490 Hz
24. A string fixed at both ends is vibrating in the second overtone, then the number of nodes and antinodes
between the ends of the string are respectively
1) 3 and 2 2) 2 and 3 3) 4 and 3 4) 3 and 4
25. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice is given a velocity of 6 m s and then stopped by friction in
10s. Then the coefficient of friction is
1) 0.01 2) 0.02 3) 0.03 4) 0.06
26. A photon and an electron have equal energy E. photon / electron is proportional to
1) E 2) 1 E 3) 1 E 4) Does not depend upon E
pg. 4
 
27. The minimum wavelength of X-ray emitted by X-rays tube is 0.4125 A . The accelerating voltage is
1) 30 kV 2) 50 kV 3) 80 kV 4) 60 kV
28. A circular loop carrying current I of radius R is placed in the x-y plane with centre at the origin. Half of
the loop with x > 0 is now bent so that it now lies in the y-z plane. Then new magnetic moment of the
loop will be
2 I R2 2 I R2
1) I  R 2 2) 3) 2 IR 4)
2 2
29. One conducting U tube can slide inside another as shown in figure, maintaining electrical contacts
between the tubes. The magnetic field B is perpendicular to the plane of the figure. If each tube moves
towards the other at a constant speed  then the emf induced in the circuit in terms of B, l and  where l
is the width of each tube, will be

1) Zero 2) 2Bl 3) Bl 4)  Bl

30. A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I in the negative z direction. The magnetic field

vector B at a point having coordinates (x,y) in the z = 0 plane is

1)
 
0 I yiˆ  xjˆ
2)
 
0 I xiˆ  yjˆ
3)
 
0 I xjˆ  yiˆ
4)
 
0 I xiˆ  yjˆ
2  x 2  y 2  2  x 2  y 2  2  x 2  y 2  2  x 2  y 2 
31. The transition from the state n  4 to n  3 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation.
Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition
1) 2  1 2) 3  2 3) 4  2 4) 5  4
32. In an electrical circuit R,L,C and a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from
the circuit the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is  / 3 . If instead, C is
removed from the circuit the phase difference is again  / 3 . The power factor of the circuit is
1) 1 2 2) 1 2 3) 1 4) 3 2
33. AC voltage V(t) = 20 sin  t of frequency 50 Hz is applied to a parallel plate capacitor. The separation
between the plates is 2 mm and the area is 1 m2. The amplitude of the oscillating displacement current
for the applied AC voltage is________.
Take  0  8.85 1012 F / m
1) 21.14  A 2) 83.37  A 3) 27.79  A 4) 55.58 A

pg. 5
34. In a Young’s double slit experiment (slit distance d) monochromatic light of wavelength  is used and
the fringe pattern is observed at a distance L from the slits. The angular position of the bright fringes are
 1   1 
  N      N   
 N  2   N  2 
1) sin 1   2) sin 1   3) sin 1   4) sin 1  
 d   d   L   L 
   
   
35. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1mm wide and the
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between the first dark
fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is
1) 1.2 mm 2) 1.2 cm 3) 2.4 cm 4) 2.4 mm

PHYSICS
SECTION-B
(Section-B will have 15 Questions, out of these 15 Questions, you can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.)

36. A point charge q is situated at a distance r on axis from near end of a thin conducting rod of length L
having a charge Q [Uniformly distributed along its length]. The magnitude of electric force between the
 1 
two is  K  
 4 0 
2KQ KQq KQq KQq
1) 2) 3) 4)
r  r  L r2 r  r  L r  r  L
37. The electric charges are distributed in a small volume. The flux of the electric field through a spherical
surface of radius 10 cm surrounding the total charge is 20 Vm. The flux over a concentric sphere of
radius 20 cm will be
1) 20 Vm 2) 25 Vm 3) 40 Vm 4) 200 Vm
38. Two large metal plates are placed parallel to each other. The inner surfaces of plates are charged by 
and  (Coulomb/m2). The outer surface are neutral. The electric field is … in the region between the
plates and…. outside the plates respectively.

2   2 2
1) , 2) , zero 3) , zero 4) zero,
0 0 0 0 0
39. Masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 1. The
ratio of their electrical resistances are
1) 1: 3 : 5 2) 5 : 3 :1 3) 1:15 :125 4) 125 :15 :1
pg. 6
40. The n rows each containing m cells in series are joined in parallel. Maximum current is taken from this
combination across an external resistance of 3  resistance. If the total number of cells used are 24 and
internal resistance of each cell is 0.5  then
1) m  8, n  3 2) m  6, n  4 3) m  12, n  2 4) m  2, n  12
41. A radioactive substance emits n beta particles in the first 2 seconds and 0.5n beta particles in the next 2
seconds. The mean life of the sample is
2
1) 4s 2) 2s 3) s 4) 2  ln 2 s
 ln 2 
42. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ shown. Pick out the correct output
waveform.

1) 2)

3) 4)
43. For the circuit shown below, calculate the value of Iz:

1) 25mA 2) 0.15 A 3) 0.1A 4) 0.05 A

44. A watch shows time as 3 : 25 when seen through a mirror, time appeared will be
1) 8 : 35 2) 9 : 35 3) 7 : 35 4) 8 : 25
45. The focal length of a plano convex lens is f and its refractive index is 1.5. It is kept over a plane glass
plate with its curved surface touching the glass plate. The gap between the lens and the glass plate is
filled by a liquid. As a result, the effective focal length of the combination becomes 2f. Then the
refractive index of the liquid is
1) 1.5 2) 2 3) 1.25 4) 1.33

pg. 7
46. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is
1) Virtual, erect and magnified 2) Real, erect and magnified
3) Real, inverted and magnified 4) Virtual, erect and reduced
47. Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium which has relative permeability 1.3 and relative permittivity
2.14. Then the speed of the electromagnetic wave in the medium will be
1) 13.6  106 m / s 2) 1.8  102 m / s 3) 3.6  108 m / s 4) 1.8  108 m / s
48. A heater coil is cut into parts of equal length and one of them is used in the heater. The ratio of the heat
produced by this half coil to that by the original coil is
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1
49. The maximum velocity to which a proton can be accelerated in a cyclotron of 10 MHz frequency and
radius 50 cm is
1) 6.28  108 m / s 2) 3.14  108 m / s 3) 6.28  107 m / s 4) 3.14  107 m / s
50. A domain in a ferromagnetic substance is in the form of a cube of side length 1 m . If it contains
8  1010 atoms and each atomic dipole has a dipole moment of 9  1024 A m 2 , then magnetization of the
domain is
1) 7.2  105 A m 1 2) 7.2  103 A m 1 3) 7.2  109 A m 1 4) 7.2  1012 A m 1

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (35 Questions)
51. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are given below. The correct match is
1) O2-1 , O2-2 - Both are diamagnetic 2) O +2 , O2-2 - Both are paramagnetic
3) O 2+, O2 - Both are paramagnetic 4) O2 , O2-2 - Both are paramagnetic
52. In aqueous medium, among alkali metals the most and least powerful reducing agents are respectively
1) Cs and Li 2) Li and Na 3) Li and Cs 4) Li and K
53. Silicones have the general formula
2 n
1) SiO44 2) SiO76 3)  R2 SiOn 4)  SiO3 n
54. List – I List – II List – III
(Molecule/ion) (Hyb) (Shape)
A) I3 Sp Linear

B) CH 3 Sp2 Planar trigonal

C) NO 2 Sp3 Angular
D) SF4 Sp3d Regular Tetrahedron
The correct match is
1) B 2) C 3) A 4) D
55. The metal used in making windows of X-ray tubes is
1) Be 2) Mg 3) Ca 4) Sr
56. B > Al > Tl > In > Ga This order indicates which property of group 13 elements?
1) Ionisation enthalpy 2) Electronegativity
3) Boiling points 4) Melting points
pg. 8
57. Wrong match is
1) SF4  lone pair at equatorial position 2) XeF4  lone pairs at axial positions
3) BrF5  lone pairs at axial positions 4) XeF2  lone pairs at axial positions
58. In which of the following processes, maximum energy is released?
1) O  g  e   O  g 2) O  g  e   O2  g
3) S  g   e  S  g 4) S  g  e   S2   g 
59. The main cause of acid rain is due to the increase in concentration of ….in air.
1) Ozone and dust 2) CO2 and CO 3) SO3 and CO 4) SO2 and NO2
60. p H values of 10  8 M HCl and 10  8 M NaOH respectively are
1) 6.96, 6.96 2) 6.96, 7.04 3) 7.04, 7.04 4) 8, 6
61. Which of the following property of Hydrogen and Deuterium are equal
1) Melting point 2) Boiling point
3) Inter nuclear distance 4) Atomic mass
62. The value of Kc for the reaction 2A  B  C is 2 10 3 . At a given time the composition of reaction
mixture is  A   B  C   3104 M. Then
1) Qc  Kc and reaction will proceed in the reverse direction
2) Qc  Kc and reaction will proceed in the forward direction
3) Qc  Kc no net reaction occurs
4) Qc  Kc and reaction will proceed in the forward direction
63. In which of the following processes, the entropy decreases?
1) CaCO3 ( s )  CaO ( s )  CO 2 ( g ) 2) 2 NH 3 ( g )  N 2 ( g )  3 H 2 ( g )
3) 2 H 2 ( g )  O2 ( g )  2 H 2 O (l ) 4) O3 ( g )  O2 ( g )  O ( g )
64. The difference between heats of reaction at constant pressure and at constant volume for the reaction
2C H  15O  g   12CO  g   6 H O at 250C in KJ is
6 6 l  2 2 2 l
1) -7.43 2) +3.72 3) -3.72 4) +7.43
65. The number of atoms in 1.6g of methane is
1) 6.02x1023 2) 3.01 x 1024 3) 3.01x 1023 4) 6.02 x 1024
66. What are the Oxidation Numbers of Bromine in tribromo octa oxide.
1) +6, +4, +6 2) +5, + 5, +6 3) +6, +5, +6 4) +6, +4, +5
67. Stationary phase in paper chromatography
1) solid Al2 O3 2) silica gel 3) water 4) mixture of CH 3OH & CHCl3
68. Which of the following can exhibit geometrical isomerism
1) 1-butene 2) 2-methyl 2-butene
3) 2-chloro 2-butene 4) 2,3 dimethyl 2-butene

pg. 9
69. The two optical isomers given below are
CH 3 CH 3
H Cl H Cl
Cl H H Cl
C2 H 5 C2 H 5
and
1) enatiomers 2) geometrical isomers
3) diastereomers 4) structureal isomers
70. Set – I Set – II
(Reagent) (Reaction)
A) Na / Ether 1) Decarboxylation
B) NaOH + CaO 2) Wurtz reaction
C) Zn / CH3COOH 3) Reduction of alkyl halides
D) H2 / Pt 4) Sabatier – Sandren’s reaction
5) Kolbe’s electrolysis
A B C D A B C D
1) 1 2 3 4 2) 2 1 3 4
3) 2 1 4 5 4) 1 2 4 3
71. When n hexane is heated with Mo2O3 at 5 0 0 0 C and 20 atmosphere , the compound formed is:
1) 3-methyl pentane 2) Neo hexane
3) 2-methyl pentane 4) Benzene
72. What are X and Y respectively in the following reactions
X Y
Trans -2-butene   2-butyne   cis-2-butene
1) Na/NH3(l) & Pd/ BaSO4+H2 2) Ni/1400 C & Pd/ BaSO4+H2
3) Pd/ BaSO4+H2 & Na/NH3(l) 4) Ni/1400 C & Na/NH3(l)
73. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives
1) 3-Bromopropane 2) Allyl bromide 3) n-propyl bromide 4) Isopropyl bromide
74. The vander waals constant ‘a’ in atm. lit mol-2 for O2, N2 , CH4 and NH3 are 1.36 , 1.39 , 2.25 and 4.17
2

respectively, then the gas that can be liquefied most easily is:
1) O2 2) N2 3) CH4 4) NH3
75. In photoelectric effect no. of photo electrons emitted is proportional to
1) Intensity of incident beam 2) frequency of incident beam
3) wavelength incident beam 4) all
76. Wrong match is
1) C2H5OH+CH3COCH3 – positive deviation from Raoult’s law
2) HNO3+H2O – Negative deviations from Raoults law
3) C6H5OH+C6H5NH2 – Maximum boiling azeotrope
4) CS2+CH3COCH3 – Ideal Solution
77. Sweetest of the following is
1) asparatame 2) saccharin 3) sucralose 4) alitame
pg. 10
78. Incorrect statement about XeF4 is
1) Hydrolysis is a disproportionation reaction
2) Hybridisation of central atom is sp3d2
3) Dipole moment is zero
4) It is a non- planar molecule
79. Which of the following is a condensation homopolymer
1) Teflon 2) PHBV 3) Nylon-6 4) Nylon-66
80. Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to
1) Pernicious anemia 2) Night blindness 3) Beriberi 4) Rickets
81. C2H5MgI reacts with HCHO followed by hydrolysis gives
1) CH3CHO 2) CH3CH2 CH2OH 3) CH3COCH3 4) CH3COOCH3
82. I = CH3CH2CH2CH2 Br II = CH3CH 2CH  Br  CH 3 ,
III = CH3 3 CBr IV = CH 3 2 CHCH 2 Br
The correct reactivity order of above alkyl halides towards SN 2 reaction is
1) I > II > III > IV 2) III > II > IV > I 3) I > II > IV > III 4) I > IV > II > III
83. Oxidation of toluene with CrO3 in the presence of (CH3CO)2O gives a product (A) which on hydrolysis
produces
1) C6H5CHO 2) (C6H5CO)2O 3) C6H5COONa 4) 2-4-Diacetyltoluene

anhydrous Conc
84. + CO + HCl 
AlCl  X 
NaOH  Y + Z; Y & Z are respectively
3

1) C6H5CH2OH, C6H5COOH 2) C6H5CH2OH, C6H5COONa

3) C6H5CH3, C6H5COOH 4) C6H5CHO, C6H5COONa
85. Maximum pkb value is for

NHCH 3
1) 2)  C 2 H 5 2 NH

NH
3)  CH 3 2 NH 4)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-B
(Section-B will have 15 Questions, out of these 15 Questions, you can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.)

86. The final product in the following sequence of reaction is


CH 3COOH  NH3
  A   P2O 5
 B    C  
Na/C 2 H 5 OH
D
1) Ester 2) Amine 3) Acid 4) Alcohol
3
87. Number of unpaired electrons in  Mn  CN 6  are

pg. 11
 1) 4 2) Zero 3) 2 4) 3
88. In Fe  CO5 the Fe-C bond possesses
1) both  and  characters 2) ionic character
3)  -character only 4)  -character only
89. Which of the following alloy contain 95%. Lanthanoid metals
1) wood metal 2) misch metal 3) german silver 4) electron
90. Incorrect statement is
1) TiO used in pigment industry
2) Actinides are very reactive with HCl & HNO3
3) MnO2 used in dry battery cells
4) TiCl4 + Al (CH3)3 used as catalyst for the manufacture of polyethene
91. In the reaction: A+2B  3C+D which of the following expressions does not describe changes in the
concentration of various species as a function of time?
d [C ] 3d [ A] 3d [ D] d [C ]
1)  2) 
dt dt dt dt
3d [ B ] 2d [C ] 2d [ B]  d[ A]
3)  4) 
dt dt dt dt
92. Four different electro chemical cells are constructed with the following half cells. The cell that would
produce maximum emf
1) 0.1M CuSO 4 , 0.1M ZnSO 4 2) 0.1M CuSO 4 , 0.01M ZnSO 4
3) 0.01M CuSO 4 , 0.1M ZnSO 4 4) 0.01M CuSO 4 , 0.01M ZnSO 4
93. Fe3+ + e- → Fe2+ ; E0 = +0.77V
Al+3 + 3e- → Al ; E0 = - 1.66V
Br2 + 2e- → 2Br- ; E0 = +1.06V
From the above data the correct oxidising power order is
1) Br2 > Fe+3 > Al+3 2) Fe+3 > Al+3 > Br2
3) Al+3 > Fe+3 > Br2 4) Al+3 > Br2 > Fe+3
94. The volume of atoms (radius r) present in one unit cell of metal with fcc lattice is
20 3 24 3 12 3 16 3
1) r 2) r 3) r 4) r
3 3 3 3
95. A centi molar solution of potassium ferrocyanide is 50%dissociated at 300k. Then osmotic pressure of
the solution is
1) 0. 615 atm 2) 6.15 atm 3) 5.12 atm 4) 07.38 atm
96. Which of the following will be the best protective colloid?
1) Gelatin (Gold No. = 0.005)
2) Potato starch (Gold No. = 25)
3) Gum arabic (Gold No. = 0.15)
4) Haemoglobin (Gold No. = 0.03)

pg. 12
97.

What are x and y?

1) 2)

3) 4)
98. Which of the following cannot exist
1) MnF7 2) Mn2O7 3) MnO3F 4) VF5
99. Which of the following complexes cannot show linkage isomerism
2
1) K3 CoF6  2)  Mn  SCN 4 

3) Co  NH3 5  NO2   Cl2 4) Co  NH 3 5  ONO   Cl2

100. Which of the following is incorrect arrangement?
acetone
1) R  Cl  NaI   R  I  NaCl - Finkelstein reaction
2) R  Br  AgF  RF  AgBr - Swart’s reaction
Ether
3) C6 H 5 Br  2 Na  C6 H 5 Br   - Fittig reaction
Ether
4) CH3Cl  2 Na  CH 3Cl   CH 3  CH 3  Wurtz reaction
BOTANY
SECTION-A (35 Questions)
101. In Bryophyte after which type of cell division and from which part of sporophyte spore are produced
1) Mitosis, capsule 2) Meiosis, foot 3) Meiosis, frond 4) Meiosis, capsule
102. Dicotyledonae, Hominidae and Angiospermae are respectively:
1) Class, Family, Phylum 2) Class, Family, Division
3) Family, Class, Phylum 4) Division, Family, Class
103. Which one of the following is correct about Trypanosoma
1) They are flagellated protozoan 2) They are parasites
pg. 13
 3) They cause sleeping sickness 4) More than one option is correct
104. Sexual reproduction in fungi takes place by:
1) Oospores, Ascospores, Aplanospores 2) Sporangiospores, Ascospores, Basidiospores
3) Conidia, Oospores, Aplanospores 4) Oospores, Ascospores, Basidiospores
105. In Algae isogamous, oogamous, anisogamous are which type of reproduction
1) Asexual reproduction 2) Vegetative reproduction
3) Sexual reproduction 4) All of these
106. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
a) Lycopsida i) Adiantum
b) Pteropsida ii) Selaginella
c) Sphenopsida iii) Psilotum
d) Psilopsida iv) Equisetum
1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
107. Find out the incorrect statements
a. Family with good ornamentals - Lily family
b. Family with mostly herbs, shrubs and rarely small trees- Potato family
c. Family widely distributed in tropics, subtropics and even temperate zones - Potato family
d. Family with monothecous anther and diadelphous stamens–Fabaceae
1) a, b only 2) a, b, c only 3) d only 4) c, d only
108. A common character of monocot and dicot root is
1) Exarch protoxylem 2) Number of xylem strands
3) Endarch protoxylem 4) Occurrence of secondary growth
109. Which of the following is not included in stomatal apparatus
1) Stomatal aperture 2) Guard cells
3) Subsidiary cells 4) Sclerenchymatous cells
110. Select the correct option with respect to dihybrid cross
1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
3) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
4) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked
ones
111. Though the parents contain two alleles, during formation of gamete, the factors or alleles of a pair
separate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors. This is explained by
which law
1) Law of dominance 2) Law of independent assortment
3) Law of segregation 4) Both 2 and 3
112. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the option given below
Column – I Column –II
(Organic compound) (Example)
(a) Fatty acid (i) Glutamic acid
(b) Phospholipid (ii) Tryptophan
(c) Aromatic amino acid (iii) Lecithin

pg. 14
 (d) Acidic amino acid (iv) Palmitic acid
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
113. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:
1) Plasmodium 2) Saccharomyces
3) Streptococcus 4) Chlamydomonas
114. The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists of:
1) Sulphoglycerides 2) Thioglycerides
3) Phosphoglycerides 4) Selenoglycerides.
115. Read following and find out the correct option
i. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-factor
ii. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-enzyme
iii. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Metal ions
iv. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Prosthetic group
1) (i) is false but (ii) is true 2) (i) and (ii) are false but (iii) and (iv) are true
3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are false but (iv) are true 4) i, ii, iii, iv are correct
116. Functions of which of the following is not known in host organisms:
1) Abrin 2) Ricin 3) GLUT -4 4) Both 1 & 2
117. Which of the following is incorrect
(a) The stage between 2 mitotic divisions is called interphase
(b) Meiosis II is initiated immediately after cytokinesis
(c) The nuclear membrane reappears by the end of prophase II
(d) Diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of synaptonemal complex
1) All are incorrect 2) None of the option is incorrect
3) Only (c) is incorrect 4) Only (b) is incorrect
118. The genetic material of QB bacteriophage
(1) Has 5 methyl uracil
(2) Is able to replicate itself
(3) Has free 2’ OH in its sugar component
(4) Undergoes no mutational changes
119. Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to Nucleopolyhedrovirus:
1 Used as biological control agents
2) Attack insects and other arthropods
3) Are species specific and narrow spectrum
4) Have no negative impact on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on target insects
120. Molecules translocated via phloem is /are
1) Sugar 2) Hormone 3) Amino acid 4) All of these
121. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is:
1) Ammonia 2) NO3– 3) Glutamate 4) NO2–
122. Chlorosis of plant is caused by the deficiency of
1) Fe 2) B 3) Cu 4) Ca

pg. 15
123. Match the following column:
Column-I Column-II
a. 2,4D i. Bolting
b. ABA ii. Stomatal closure
c. Ethylene iii. Weed-free lawns
d. GA iv. Ripening of fruits.
1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
124. The pea plants heterozygous for round seed shape and yellow seed colour were selfed and total
800 seeds are collected. What is the total number of seeds with both recessive traits?
1) 200 2) 50 3) 100 4) 400
125. Cytochrome 'a' and 'a3 ' are present in
1) Complex III 2) Complex V
3) Complex II 4) Cytochrome 'c' oxidase complex
126. In animals steroidal hormones are synthesised by
1) Peroxisome 2) RER 3) SER 4) Golgi apparatus
127. Which one of the following molecule are utilised as well as released during glycolysis process:
1) ATP, H2O 2) ATP 3) ATP, H2O, CO2 4) ATP, H2O, CO2, O2
128. All the given traits of pea plant can express themselves in heterozygous condition, except
1) Inflated pod shape 2) Green pod colour
3) Axial flower position 4) Green seed colour
129. In mature seeds (a) and (b) are crucial for storage of seeds which can be used as food throughout
the year and also to raise crop in the next season:
(a) Dehydration (b) Dormancy (c) Size of seed
1) Only b 2) a, b 3) a, c 4) b, c
130. The primary succession refers to the development of communities on a:
1) forest clearing after devastating fire
2) newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier vegetation
3) freshly cleared crop field.
4) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry phase
131. The chemical nature of severo ochoa enzyme is:
1) Polynucleotide transacetylase
2) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
3) Polypeptide phosphorylase
4) Ribonucleotidase
132. Which of the following are palindromic sequence:
1) 5' – GAATTC – 3'3' – CTTAAG – 5'
2) 5' – TATATA – 3' 3' – ATATAT – 5'
3) 5' – GAGCTC – 3'3' – CTCGAG – 5'
4) All of these

pg. 16
133. In the given below diagram how many structure are not the underground modification for food storage:

1) 7 2) 1 3) 3 4) 4
134. In citrus polyembryony is due to
1) synergids 2) maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
3) antipodal cells 4) diploid egg
135. A B-DNA samples contained 300000 bp then what is the length of this B-DNA sample:
1) 0.102 mm 2) 1.02 mm 3) 10.2 mm 4) 1.2 metre
BOTANY
SECTION-B
(Section-B will have 15 Questions, out of these 15 Questions, you can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.)
136. Which of the following are correct for transforming principal of Griffith:
i. He experiments with streptococcus
ii. S strain is virulent
iii. R strain is transformed by heat killed S strain
1) Only i correct 2) Only ii correct
3) Only iii correct 4) More than one option is correct
137. All the three RNAs are needed to synthesis a protein in a cell, in the following options RNAs are given
with their corresponding functions, which one is incorrectly matched:
1) r–RNA  Structural & catalytic role
2) t–RNA  Brings amino acid and reads genetic code
3) m–RNA  structural & catalytic role
4) m–RNA  template for translation
138. Number of nucleotides present in a molecule of ds DNA having 60 adenine and 40 guanine:
1) 100 2) 200 3) 60 4) 400
139. What is correct about Hind-II
1) It is the first restriction endonuclease
2) Its functioning depends on a specific DNA nucleotide sequence
3) It cuts DNA by identifying a specific sequence of six base pairs
4) More than one option is correct
140. Which one of the following is the correct statement
1) Vegetative (tube) cell present in embryosac
2) Generative cell present in embryosac
3) Only diploid nuclei are present in embryosac

pg. 17
 4) Ploidy of antipodal cell and vegetative cell are similar
141. Which one of the following is incorrect statement
1) RuBiSCO present in C3 plant
2) PEP case present in C4 plant
3) RuBiSCO present in both C3 and C4 plant
4) OAA compound formed in a pathway called photorespiration
142. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
1) Haploid organism – Meiosis 3) Diploid organism - Meiosis
3) Heterogametes – Fucus 4) Heterogametes – Cladophora
143. Which one of the following is the incorrect matched
1) Pusa gaurav – Aphids 2) Pusa sem 2 – Aphids
3) Pusa A-4 - Fruit borer 4) Pusa sawani - Jassids
144. Which one of the following is the correct matched
1) CryIAc - Cotton bollworm 2) CryIAb - Cotton bollworm
3) CyIIAb - Corn borer 4) RNAi - Takes place in Prokaryotes
145. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Zygotene (i) Bivalents align on the equatorial plate
b. Metaphase I (ii) Nuclear envelope disintegrates
c. Diakinesis (iii) Single metaphasic plate is formed
d. Metaphase II (iv) Occurs before pachytene
1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) 4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
146. How many linkage groups are present in human male?
1) 22 2) 23 3) 24 4) 46
147. The distance between genes for eye colour and wings in Drosophila is
1) 1.3% 2) 62.8% 3) 37.2% 4) 98.7%
148. Statins are produced by
1) Algae 2) Bacteria 3) Yeast 4) Mushroom
149. Select the incorrect match from the following.
1) Red tide causing organism Cyanobacteria
2) Photosynthetic protist Dinoflagellate
3) Cell wall absent but performs Euglena
photosynthesis
4) Most notorious endoparasite Sporozoan
150. Cleistogamous flowers
1) Open during the self-pollination
2) Remain close and bisexual
3) Are female flowers and never open
4) Are bisexual and open during cross pollination

pg. 18
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A (35 Questions)
151. Which contractile tissue is with intercalated discs?
1) Cardiac muscle fibres 2) Smooth muscle fibres
3) Voluntary muscle fibres 4) Skeletal muscle fibres
152. Statement – I: All vertebrates are chordates
Statement – II: All chordates are not vertebrates
1) Both the statements – I and II are incorrect
2) Statement – I is correct statement – II is incorrect
3) Both the statements – I and II are correct
4) Statement – I is incorrect statement – II is correct
153. Synapse is formed by
1) Pre synaptic membrane 2) Post synaptic membrane
3) With or without synaptic cleft 4) 1, 2 and 3
154. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse i.e in resting state the axonal membrane is
A) Comparatively more permeable to potassium ions K   
B) Nearly impermeable to sodium ions Na  
C) Comparatively more permeable to sodium ions Na   
D) Nearly impermeable to potassium ions K   
Identify the correct combination from the above
1) C and D 2) A and B 3) A & C only 4) C & B only
155. Match the following:
List-1 List - II
A) Multipolar neurons i) Embryonic stage
B) Bipolar neurons ii) Cerebral cortex
C) Unipolar neurons iii) Dorsal root ganglion of
spinal nerve
D) Pseudo unipolar neurons iv) Retina

1) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i 2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv 4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
156. Tongue is attached to the A of oral cavity by the B.
1) A-Roof, B-Frenulum 2) A-Floor, B-Bone
3) A-Floor, B-Frenulum 4) A-Roof, B-Cartilage
157. Choose the correct w.r.t human adult dentition (number of teeth)
1) Incisors = Premolars
2) Premolars and canines = Molars
3) Incisors and premolars = Molars + canines
4) More than one option

pg. 19
158. Which one of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse
1) SA node  AV node  Bundle of his  Purkinje fibres
2) AV node  Bundle of his  SA node  Purkinje fibres
3) SA node  Purkinje fibres  AV node  Bundle of His
4) Purkinje fibres  AV node  SA node  Bundle of His
159. In the ventricular diastole, the A valve closure causes the second heart sound B .
Choose the correct option for A and B
1) A – Semilunar; B – dub 2) A – Mitral; B – dub
3) A – Bicuspid; B – dub 4) A – Tricuspid; B – dub
160. Study the following statements
A) The PO2 in deoxygenated blood and tissue is same
B) The PCO2 in deoxygenated blood and tissue is same
C) The PO2 in tissue and PCO2 in oxygenated blood is same
D) The PO2 in alveoli and oxygenated blood is same
How many statement/s is/are correct
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
161. Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II
a. IC 1. ERV + TV + IRV
b. FRC 2. VC – ERV
c. VC 3. ERV + RV
d. TLC 4. TV + ERV + IRV + RV
1) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 2) a-2, b-1, c-2, d-3 3) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 4) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
162. i and ii carry the waste products.
1) i-Renal artery, ii-Renal vein 2) i-Renal vein, ii-Urethra
3) i-Renal vein, ii-Ureter 4) i-Renal artery, ii-Ureter
163. The part of the nephron which is impermeable to water is
1) proximal convoluted tubule 2) descending limb of Henle’s loop
3) ascending limb of Henle’s loop 4) collecting duct
164. Which two bones in the given figure form a hinge joint?

1) I and II 2) IV and III 3) I and IV 4) II and III

165. During resting stage in muscle, the binding site of actin for myosin remains masked by
1) Troponin 2) G-actin 3) Tropomyosin 4) Meromyosin
pg. 20
166. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex disorder called
1) Diabetes insipidus 2) Gynaecomastia
3) Diabetes mellitus 4) Acromegaly
167. Which gland degenerates in old individuals resulting in weaker immune response?
1) Parathyroid gland 2) Thymus gland 3) Thyroid gland 4) Parotid gland
168. The mouth parts of cockroach are
1) biting and chewing type 2) piercing and sucking type
3) sucking and rasping type 4) sucking and siphoning type
169. Frog’s eyes are protected under water by the presence by
1) Retina 2) Upper eyelid
3) Nictitating membrane 4) Lower eyelid
170. The development of P.americana is
1) Holometabolous 2) Paurometabolous 3) Hemimetabolous 4) Ametabolous
171. Cuboidal epithelium with microvilli and columnar epithelium with microvilli are located respectively in
1) PCT and DCT 2) DCT and Stomach
3) PCT and Intestine 4) Intestine and PCT
172. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled
A, B, C and D and select the right option about them

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
173. Match the following:

List-1 List - II
A) Star fish i) Osteichthyes
B) Jelly fish ii) Chondrichthyes
C) Saw fish iii) Echinodermata
D) Angel fish iv) Coelenterata
1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

pg. 21
174. Correct statement for the bipedal vertebrate group depicted below is

1) All are with oil gland but without fore limbs

2) All are with indirect development
3) All are without scales but with feathers
4) All are oviparous with internal fertilisation
175. In the diagrammatic representation given below, the letter which denotes Lateral-hearts is

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
176. Which one of the following is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and
Marino rams?
1) Hisardale 2) White Leghorn 3) Aseel 4) Mule
177. Match the column-A with column-B
Column-A Column-B
A) Genome coding proteins i) 1.4 million locations
B) No.of genes on Y chromosome ii) < 2%
C) SNPs – Single Nucleotide Polymorphs iii) 231
D) Dissimilarity of nucleotide bases iv) 0.01%
among individuals v) 2968
A B C D A B C D
1) ii v iv i 2) ii iii i iv
3) iv v ii i 4) ii v iv iii
178. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be
drawn for the character.

1) The female parent is heterozygous

2) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character.
3) The trait under study could not be colour blindness
4) The male parent is homozygous dominant

pg. 22
179. In which of the following individual, out of the total number of produced sperms, only 50% carry
allosome besides autosomes?
1) Honey bee (Drone) 2) Bird (male)
3) Fruit fly (male) 4) Grasshopper (male)
180. A strong tool in human genetic which is utilised to trace the inheritance of a specific trait, abnormality
or disease is
1) DNA fingerprinting 2) pedigree analysis
3) sex determination 4) pleiotropy
181. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome. Which
diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
1) WIDAL 2) ELISA 3) MRI 4) Ultrasound
182. Which of the following groups of cell in the male gonad, represent haploid cell?
1) Spermatogonial cells 2) Germinal epithelial cells
3) Secondary spermatocytes 4) Primary spermatocytes
183. Darwin’s finches are a good example of
1) convergent evolution 2) industrial melanism
3) connecting link 4) adaptive radiation
184. The organism A and B are example of

1) Convergent evolution 2) Divergent evolution

3) Homologous organs 4) Both 1 and 3
185. Montreal protocol aims at
1) Biodiversity conservation
2) Control of water pollution
3) Control of CO2 emission
4) Reduction of ozone depleting substances
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-B
(Section-B will have 15 Questions, out of these 15 Questions, you can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.)
186. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. National forest policy i. 1987
B. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act ii. 1988
C. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iii. 1980
D. Concept of joint Forest Management iv. 1974
1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
3) A-i, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
pg. 23
187. The given figure follows biome distribution with respect to annual temperature and precipitation. In this
few parts are marked as A, B & C. Mark the correct identification from the following picture.

A B C
1) Tropical forest Temperate forest Coniferous forest
2) Temperate forest Tropical forest Coniferous forest
3) Temperate forest Coniferous forest Tropical forest
4) Coniferous forest Tropical forest Temperate forest
188. Match Column-I with column-II and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. Biodiversity i. Edward Wilson
B. In-situ conservation ii. Co-extinction
C. Plant pollinator mutualism iii. On-site conservation
D. Ex-situ conservation iv. Off-site conservation
1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii 2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv 4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
189. Which of the following is not a natural method of contraception?
1) Periodic abstinence 2) Withdrawal method
3) Lactational amenorrhoea 4) Condoms
190. An ideal contraceptive should be
1) User friendly 2) Reversible 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Decrease sexual drive
191. Transgenic animals have been successfully used for producing
1) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans.
2) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
3) transgenic cow – Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
4) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
192. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A. Rosie i. Emphysema
B. Biopiracy ii. Right granted for biological entities
C. Biopatent iii. Unauthorised use of biological products and processes
D.   1  antitrypsin iv. Transgenic cow
pg. 24
 A B C D A B C D
1) iv iii ii i 2) iii ii i iv
3) ii i iv iii 4) iv i iii ii
193. Which gene was introduced in the first transgenic cow?
1) Human   lactalbumin 2)   1  antitrypsin
3)   1  antitrypsin 4) cry I Ac
194. How many of the diseases given below are not caused by bacteria
Diphtheria, plague, pneumonia, typhoid, common cold, malaria, ringworms, AIDS
1) Five 2) Four 3) Three 4) Two
195. Which of the following is incorrect option about AIDS?
1) it is caused by retrovirus 2) it is a sexually transmitted disease
3) it is a curable disease 4) Do not specifically affect sex organs
196. Identify the labelled parts A-D in the given figure of human foetus within the uterus

A B C D
1) Umbilical cord Placental villi Yolk sac Embryo
2) Yolk sac Umbilical cord Placental villi Embryo
3) Placental villi Yolk sac Embryo Umbilical cord
4) Placental villi Embryo Yolk sac Umbilical cord
197.

Which of the following is correct match for the above diagram?

1) (a) – Meiosis II completed
2) (b) – Diploid stage
3) (c) – and (d) – 2 and 4 cells embryo respectively
4) (e) – Blastula stage
198. ‘According to Haeckel’
1) development of individual metazoan shows embryonic characters of ancestors
2) ontogeny repeats phylogeny

pg. 25
 3) germplasm is immortal
4) every organism is produced by its parents
199. Major producers of a terrestrial Ecosystem is
1) Algae and fungi 2) Phytoplankton and algae
3) Woody & herbaceous plants 4) Floating and submerged plants
200. The mass of living material at a particular time, at each trophic level is
1) Standing state 2) Standing crop 3) Stratification 4) Recycling of nutrient

* * All the Best * *

pg. 26