ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LỚP 11 NĂM 2019

PART I. LISTENING (50 points)

Section 1. Complete the notes below with ONE WORD for each numbered blank. (20p)
Noise in Cities
Past research focused on noise level (measured in decibels) and people’s responses.
Noise ‘maps’
• show that the highest noise levels are usually found on roads
• do not show other sources of noise, e.g. when windows are open or people’s neighbours are in their (1) _____
• ignore variations in people’s perceptions of noise
• have made people realize that the noise is a (2) issue that must be dealt with
Problems caused by noise
• sleep disturbance
• increase in amount of stress
• effect on the (3) of schoolchildren
Different types of noise
Some noises can be considered pleasant e.g. the sound of a (4) in a town
To investigate this, researchers may use methods from (5) sciences e.g.
questionnaires
What people want
Plenty of activity in urban environments which are (6) , but also allow people to relax
But architects and town planners
• do not get much (7) in acoustics
• regard sound as the responsibility of engineers
Understanding sound as an art form
We need to know
• how sound relates to (8)
• what can be learnt from psychology about the effects of sound
• whether physics can help us understand the (9) of sound
Virtual reality programs
• advantage: predict the effect of buildings
• current disadvantage: they are (10)
Section 2. You will hear part of a lecture on stone tools and pottery making in Ireland in the Neolithic period.
Answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS. Write your answers in the space provided.
(10p)
1. By which TWO possible ways were ploughs pulled?
…………………………………………..…… ; ………………………………………
2. What purposes were water and sand used for in the final stages of axe-making?
…………………………………………..………………………………………………
3. Which part of the pots was often rubbed to make them watertight?
…………………………………………..………………………………………………
4. Where did the clay often come from?
…………………………………………..………………………………………………
5. Which thing did the look of decoration around the tops of the earliest pots bear resemblance to?
…………………………………………..………………………………………………
Section 3. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chefs who both won prizes in the
National Railway Chef of the Year competition. For questions 1-5, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T) or
FALSE (F). (10 pts)
1. Chris said that the conditions of the competition were similar to his normal routine.
2. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to prepare a meal so quickly.
3. Both Chris and Jane felt the opportunity to be creative is unique about their job.
4. Chris thought being a railway chef would suit him mainly because it would enable him to satisfy his love of
travelling.
5. Jane thought she would be unable to take part in the kind of activity Chris suggested for the future.
Section 4. You will hear part of an interview with the comedian Brain Conley, who does a considerable amount of
work in panto, a type of family-friendly show which is popular at Christmas. For questions 1 to 5, choose the
correct answer A, B, C, or D. (10p)
1. Brian likes Birmingham because...
A. it has provided him with a steady income.
B. it is where he grew up.
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 C. it was where he first became famous.
D. he’s got some great memories here.
2 . When they discuss children’s participation in panto, Brian says that…
A. he prefers children not to come up on stage.
B. he thinks children can come up stage with their parents.
C. it’s important to get the parents’ permission if a child wants to participate.
D. he thinks that children’s participation adds a certain quality to the show.
3. According to Brian, the advantage of panto is that…
A. all the actors can change their lines to reflect current events.
B. the qualities required in panto match his talents.
C. it gives him the chance to play a comedy character.
D. he can do singing, dancing and comedy at the same time.
4. Brian became involved in comedy because…
A. he had wanted to do it since he was a child.
B. he was no longer interested in singing.
C. his friends at school encouraged him to do it.
D. he found he could earn more by doing comedy.
5. What does Brian feel with regards to nerves?
A. He agrees with a comment someone made early in his career.
B. He no longer feels nervous because he is more experienced.
C. He only feels nervous before the performance.
D. The extent of his nerves has changed over the years.
PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Section 1. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided. (15 p)
1. Hats like this may have been fashionable in the 60’s, but now they are the times.
A. beneath B. under C. over D. behind
2. Don’t be angry with Sue. All that she did was in good .
A. hope B. belief C. idea D. faith
3. Not only were the little children with this nasty cold. We had a few adult patients, too.
A. afflicted B. imposed C. injured D. aggravated
4. In the of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all time.
A. requirement B. demands C. assistance D. interests
5. It was decided that the cost of the project would be so it was abandoned.
A. repressive B. prohibitive C. restrictive D. exclusive
6. Sending out e-mails that people haven’t asked for to addresses is often known as
‘spamming’.
A. sufficient B. multiple C. countless D. widespread
7. Two colleagues are talking with each other about their work at the office.
Jane: “How is our production department doing?” Lynn: “
”
A. It is running on a very tight schedule.
B. Yes, I would not like to hear people complain.
C. I would hate to deal with unhappy customers.
D. Yes, that is the one. Did we start production on it yet?
8. - Why did you and mention the party to Roger?
- It was supposed to be a surprise.
A. have kittens B. put the cat among the pigeons
C. let the cat out of the bag D. kill two birds with one stone
9. We cannot afford to carry members who are not .
A. doing things by halves B. making a meal of it
C. knowing beans about it D. pulling their weight
10. In many places in Wales, we found that place-names in English had been with green
paint - the work of ardent Welsh Nationalists.
A. suppressed B. disguised C. obliterated D. destroyed
11. Evelyn tends to buy things on a without thinking first whether she’s going to need them or
not.
A. wick B. wit C. whim D. wham
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 12. He tries to himself with everyone by paying them compliments.
A. ingratiate B. please C. gratify D. commend
13. My sunburnt nose made me feel rather for the first few days of the holiday.
A. self-effacing B. self-centered C. self-conscious D. self-evident
14. My decision to leave university after a year is one I now regret.
A. harshly B. painfully C. keenly D. heavily
15. Peter: “I love your garden!” John: “Thanks. Yes, I suppose I’ve always .”
A. seen the wood for the trees B. turned over a new leaf
C. had green fingers D. let nature take its course
Section 2. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 p)
The stairlift
It’s ironic that very things that are supposed to provide access to the (1) 1. UP
floors of buildings-stairs-often, in fact, make them (2) 2. ACCESS
. For many elderly people and others with limited (3) 3. MOBILE
, getting upstairs can be a daily problem to be (4) .
However, stairlifts have been helping people solve that problem since they first appeared in
4. COME
the USA in the 1930s. Designs have (5) many changes over the 5. GO
years and stairlifts have become (6) safer and easier to
use. Most consist of a seat which moves along rails that run along the wall. 6. PROGRESS
The user controls how (7) the seat moves along the rails as it
travels from the bottom of the stairs to the (8) at the top. In today’s 7. RAPID
models, the (9) is controlled by computers to give a smooth ride 8. LAND
and the components are designed to (10) constant use. Many people have 9. MOVE
been given a new lease of life by the stairlift. 10. STAND

Section 3: There are FIVE mistakes in the passage below. Find the mistakes and correct them. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (5 p)
Line
1 Things started to go wrong as soon as we got to the hotel. We were all completely exhausted
2 after our long journey and looking forward to shower and a rest. However, we found that our
3 room was not ready, which was very annoying, although the manager was extremely
4 apologetic. While we were waiting, we asked about the excursions to places of an interest
5 which we had read about in brochure. Imagine how we felt when we were told they had all
6 been cancelled! Apparently, the person responsible for organising them had left suddenly and
7 had not been replaced. Then Sally saw a notice pinning to the door of the restaurant, saying
8 it has closed for redecoration, and Peter discovered that the swimming pool was empty.
When
9 we eventually got to our room we were horrified to find that it was at the back of the hotel,
10 and we had a view of a car park, which seemed to be used as a rubbish dump. We seriously
11 began to wonder whether or not to stay.

Line Mistakes Corrections

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
PART 3: READING (60 points)
Section 1: For questions 1-10, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided (10 p)
CROCODILE FARMS
When Andy Johnson (1) Britain’s first ever crocodile farm in 2006, he came under fierce criticism
from animal rights groups, opposed to the factory farming of wildlife. However, Johnson, who also farms cattle, pigs
and lambs, (2) that his motivation for starting a crocodile farm was for
(3) environmental reasons. He wants to protect wild crocodiles from being poached, and he is primarily
interested in their meat, not their skins.
“By supplying Europeans with home-produced crocodile, we can (4) the market value of
illegally supplied crocodile meat,” he claims.
Johnson says the meat “has a mild flavour- it’s low fat, high protein, very healthy and humanely produced”. His
crocodiles are housed in tropical heated room that measures around 20 and 30 metres, so they have plenty of room.
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However, Dr Clifford Warwick, a reptile biologist, (5) concern: “Their biology and behaviour do not (6)
themselves to a captive life. The animals may seem peaceful and relaxed, but an animal behaviourist can see that they
are stressed.”
In the last century, many species of crocodiles were hunted to the (7) of extinction as trade
in their skins flourished. Some 300,000 Australian saltwater crocodiles were killed between 1945 and 1973. The
alligator suffered in a similar (8) , although both species are now protected and their
(9)_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ are slowly rising. Worldwide, the legal trade in crocodilian skins (crocodiles, alligators and
Caymans) has roughly tripled since 1977, rising to a million or (10) animals by 2003.
The majority of these are framed animals, but upwards of 90,000 are killed annually in the wild.
1. A. put out B. gave off C. set up D. brought about
2. A. ascertains B. insists C. insures D. convinces
3. A. purely B. utterly C. cleanly D. finely
4. A. downsize B. downplay C. undercut D. undergo
5. A. expresses B. gives C. speaks D. arises
6. A. let B. owe C. make D. lend
7. A. frontier B. edge C. side D. line
8. A. luck B. destination C. chance D. fate
9. A. groups B. numbers C. counts D. volumes
10. A. some B. many C. more D. such
Section 2: For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 p)
Society does not encourage crying as a form of (1) expression. The shedding of tears
to make people feel uncomfortable and embarrassed. The (2) race is the only species that
sheds emotional tears. What (3) does crying serve?
It has been suggested that emotional tears play a role in the (4) of stress. Scientific
studies have revealed that emotional tears contain a chemical which is one of the body’s natural (5)
killers. The chemical is not found in tears (6) as a response to slicing onions.
Scientists think that tears may (7) to remove substances that accumulate in the body under stress. This would
explain why many people feel much better after crying. As a result of the view that it is not (8) to cry, men tend
to hold back their tears. This may explain when men develop more stress - related diseases than women. (9)
emotion, be if a feeling of sadness or happiness, is stressful. Tears are therefore shed as a response to
sorrow, anger or joy. It is natural to cry. Indeed, it may be (10) to hold back tears.
Section 3. Read an extract from an article and choose the sections A- D which you think fits best according to the
text. Write your answers on the space provided. (10 p)
The craft of perfumery has an ancient and global heritage. The art flourished in Ancient Rome, where the
emperors were said to bathe in scent. After the fall of Rome, much of the knowledge was lost, but survived in Islamic
civilizations in the Middle Ages. Arab and Persian pharmacists developed essential oils from the aromatic plants of
the Indian peninsula. They developed the processes of distillation and suspension in alcohol, which allowed for
smaller amounts of raw materials to be used than in the ancient process, by which flower petals were soaked in warm
oil. This knowledge was carried back to European monasteries during the Crusades.
At first, the use of fragrances was primarily associated with healing. Aromatic alcoholic waters were ingested as well
as used externally. Fragrances were used to purify the air, both for spiritual and health purposes. During the Black
Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be averted by inhaling
pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon. The Black Death led to an aversion to using water for washing, and so
perfume was commonly used as a cleaning agent.
Later on, the craft of perfume re-entered Europe, and was centred in Venice, chiefly because it was an
important trade route and a centre for glass-making. Having such materials at hand was essential for the distillation
process. In the late seventeenth century, trade soared in France, when Louis XIV brought in policies of protectionism
and patronage which stimulated the purchase of luxury goods. Here, perfumery was the preserve of glove-makers. The
link arose since the tanning of leather required putrid substances. Consequently, the gloves were scented before they
were sold and worn. A glove and perfume makers’ guild had existed here since 1190. Entering it required 7 years of
formal training under a master perfumer.
The trade in perfume flourished during the reign of Louis XV, as the master glove-and-perfume makers,
particularly those trading in Paris, received patronage from the royal court, where it is said that a different perfume
was used each week. The perfumers diversified into other cosmetics including soaps, powders, white face paints and
hair dyes. They were not the sole sellers of beauty products. Mercers, spices, vinegar-makers and wig-makers were all
cashing in on the popularity of perfumed products. Even simple shopkeepers were coming up with their own
concoctions to sell.
During the eighteenth century, more modern, capitalist perfume industry began to emerge, particularly in
Britain where there was a flourishing consumer society. In France, the revolution initially disrupted the perfume trade
due to its association with aristocracy, however, it regained momentum later as a wider range of markets were sought
both in the domestic and overseas markets. The guild system was abolished in 1791, allowing new high-end
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perfumery shops to open in Paris.
Perfume became less associated with health in 1810 with a Napoleonic ordinance which required perfumers
to declare the ingredients of all products for internal consumption. Unwilling to divulge their secrets, traders
concentrated on products for external use. Napoleon affected the industry in other ways too. With French ports
blockaded by the British during the Napoleonic wars, the London perfumers were able to dominate the markets for
some time.
One of the significant changes in the nineteenth century was the idea of branding. Until then, trademarks had
had little significance in the perfumery where goods were consumed locally, although they had a long history in other
industries. One of the pioneers in this field was Rimmel who was nationalized as a British citizen in 1857. He took
advantage of the spread of railroads to reach customers in wider markets. To do this, he built a brand which conveyed
prestige and quality, and were worth paying a premium for. He recognized the role of design in enhancing the value of
his products, hiring a French lithographer to create the labels for his perfume bottles.
Luxury fragrances were strongly associated with the affluent and prestigious cities of London and Paris.
Perfumers elsewhere tended to supply cheaper products and knock-offs of the London and Paris brands. The United
States perfume industry, which developed around the docks in New York where French oils were being imported,
began in this way. Many American firms were founded by immigrants, such as William Colgate, who arrived in
1806. At this time, Colgate was chiefly known as a perfumery. Its Cashmere Bouquet brand had 625 perfume varieties
in the early 20th century.
1. The purpose of the text is to…
A. compare the perfumes from different countries.
B. describe the history of perfume making.
C. describe the problems faced by perfumers.
D. explain the different uses of perfume over time.
2. Which of the following is NOT true about perfume making in Islamic countries?
A. They created perfume by soaking flower petals in oil.
B. They dominated perfume making after the fall of the Roman Empire.
C. They took raw materials for their perfumes from India.
D. They created a technique which required fewer plant materials.
3. Why does the writer include this sentence in paragraph 2?
During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be averted
by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon.
A. To explain why washing was not popular during the Black Death.
B. To show how improper use of perfume caused widespread disease.
C. To illustrate how perfumes used to be ingested to treat disease.
D. To give an example of how fragrances were used for health purposes.
4. Why did the perfume industry develop in Paris?
A. Because it was an important trade route.
B. Because of the rise in the glove-making industry.
C. Because of the introduction of new trade laws.
D. Because of a new fashion in scented gloves.
5. What does “putrid” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. bad-smelling B. rare C. prestigious D. numerous
6. Which of the following people most influenced the decline of perfumes as medicine?
A. Louis XIV B. Louis XV C. Rimmel D. Napoléon
7. In paragraph 4, it is implied that …
A. master glove and perfume makers created a new perfume each week.
B. the Royal Court only bought perfume from masters.
C. mercers, spicers and other traders began to call themselves masters.
D. cosmetics were still only popular within the Royal Courts.
8. How did the French Revolution affect the Parisian perfume industry?
A. The industry declined then rose again.
B. The industry collapsed and took a long time to recover.
C. The industry was greatly boosted.
D. The industry lost most of its overseas customers.
9. Which of the following is NOT true of Rimmel?
A. He was one of the first people to utilise trademarks.
B. He created attractive packaging for his products.
C. His products were more expensive than other brands.
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 D. He transported his goods to potential customers by train.
10. What is implied about the New York perfume industry?
A. It was the fastest-growing perfume industry in the world at that time.
B. It was primarily developed by immigrants arriving from France.
C. It copied luxury fragrances and sold them cheaply.
D. There was a wider range of fragrances available here than elsewhere.
Section 4. Read the passage and answer the questions 1-10. Write your answers in the corresponding space
provided. (20 p)
Why Are Finland’s Schools Successful?
The country's achievements in education have other nations doing their homework.
A At Kirkkojarvi Comprehensive School in Espoo, a suburb west of Helsinki, Kari Louhivuori, the school's
principal, decided to try something extreme by Finnish standards. One of his sixth-grade students, a recent immigrant,
was falling behind, resisting his teacher's best efforts. So he decided to hold the boy back a year. Standards in the
country have vastly improved in reading, math and science literacy over the past decade, in large part because its
teachers are trusted to do whatever it takes to turn young lives around. 'I took Besart on that year my private student,’
explains Louhivuori. When he was not studying science, geography and math Besart was seated next to Louhivuori's
desk, taking books from a tall stack, slowly reading one, then another, then devouring them by the dozens. By the end
of the year, he had conquered his adopted country's vowel-rich language and arrived at the realization that he could, in
fact, learn.
B This tale of a single rescued child hints at some of the reasons for Finland's amazing record of education
success. The transformation of its education system began some 40 years ago but teachers had little idea it had been so
successful until 2000, In this year, the first results from the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA),
a standardized test given to 15-year-olds in more than 40 global venues, revealed Finnish youth to be the best at
reading in the world. Three years later, they led in math. By 2006, Finland was first out of the 57 nations that
participate in science. In the latest PISA scores, the nation came second in science, third in reading and sixth in math
among nearly half a million students worldwide.
C In the United States, government officials have attempted to improve standards by introducing marketplace
competition into public schools. In recent years, a group of Wall Street financiers and philanthropists such as Bill
Gates have put money behind private-sector ideas, such as charter schools, which have doubled in number in the past
decade. President Obama, too, apparently thought competition was the answer. One policy invited states to compete
for federal dollars using tests and other methods to measure teachers, a philosophy that would not be welcome in
Finland. 'I think, in fact, teachers would tear off their shirts," said Timo Heikkinen, a Helsinki principal with 24 years
of teaching experience, 'If you only measure the statistics, you miss the human aspect.'
D There are no compulsory standardized tests in Finland, apart from one exam at the end of students' senior year
in high school. There is no competition between students, schools or regions. Finland’s schools are publicly funded.
The people in the government agencies running them, from national officials to local authorities, are educators rather
than business people or politicians. Ever school has the same national goals and draws from the same pool of
university-trained educators. The result is that a Finnish child has a good chance of getting the same quality education
no matter whether he or she lives in a rural village or a university town.
E It's almost unheard of for a child to show up hungry to school. Finland provides three years of maternity leave
and subsidized day care to parents, and preschool tor all five-year-olds, where the emphasis is on socializing. In
addition, the state subsidizes parents, paying them around 150 euros per month for every child until he or she turns 17.
Schools provide food, counseling and taxi service if needed. Health care is even free for students taking degree
courses.
F Finland's schools were not always a wonder. For the first half of the twentieth century, only the privileged got
a quality education. But In 1963, the Finnish Parliament made the bold decision to choose public education as the best
means of driving the economy forward and out of recession. Public schools were organized into one system of
comprehensive schools for ages 7 through 16. Teachers from all over the nation contributed to a national curriculum
that provided guidelines, not prescriptions, for them to refer to. Besides Finnish and Swedish (the country's second
official language), children started learning a third language (English is a favorite) usually beginning at age nine. The
equal distribution of equipment was next, meaning that all teachers had their fair share of teaching resources to aid
learning. As the comprehensive schools improved, so did the upper secondary schools (grades 10 through 12). The
second critical decision came in 1979, when it was required that every teacher gain a fifth-year Master's degree in
theory and practice, paid for by the state. From then on, teachers were effectively granted equal status with doctors
and lawyers. Applicants began flooding teaching programs, not because the salaries were so high but because
autonomous decision making and respect made the job desirable. And as Louhivuori explains, 'We have our own
motivation to succeed because we love the work.'
For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the lists of headings below. Write the
correct numbers (i-ix) in the space provided.

List of Headings Your answers

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 i A business-model approach to education 0. Paragraph A: vi

ii The reforms that improved education in Finland 1. Paragraph B:

iii Educational challenges of the future

iv Ways in which equality is maintained in the Finnish education system 2. Paragraph C:

v The benefits of the introduction of testing 3. Paragraph D:

vi An approach that helped a young learner

vii Statistical proof of education success 4. Paragraph E:

viii Support for families working and living in Finland 5. Paragraph F:

ix The impact of the education system on Finland’s economy

For questions 6-10, complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER
from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in the space provided
The school system in Finland
PISA tests
*In the most recent tests, Finland’s top subject was (6)
History
1963:
*A new school system was needed to improve Finland's economy.
*Schools followed (7) that were created partly by teachers.
*Young pupils had to study an additional (8)
*All teachers were given the same equipment to use.

*Teachers had to get a (9) but they did not have to pay for this.
1979: *Applicants were attracted to the (10) that teaching received.

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Section 5. You are going to read a selection of letters from a motoring magazine. For questions 1- 10, choose
from the people (A-F). The people may be chosen more than once. (10 p)
Book Corner
A round-up of the latest fiction and non-fiction from Beth Young.
A. Reading a new novelist is a bit like asking a stranger out on a date. You never quite know if this is the start of a
beautiful relationship. You check the blurbs, the publicity photograph, and flick through the book to look for the two
essentials: entertainment and substance. Beginner's Greek by James Collins is certainly big on the latter, weighing in at
400-plus pages. And the quotes on the back cover have the effect of a bunch of friends saying to you, 'Go on, you'll get
on brilliantly'. Early indications are that this blind date could lead to a deeper Relationship. Beginner's Greek is described
by The New York Times as a "great big sunny lemon chiffon pie of a novel" about romantic love amongst the American
middle classes. It is indeed delicious.
B. In Manil Suri's second outing The Age of Shiva we have a broad-sweeping, epic novel with an unforgettable heroine
so wilful yet flawed that it calls to mind that other famous leading lady, Scarlett O'Hara in Gone With the Wind. The
story begins at a firework party in Delhi where Meera falls disastrously in love. We follow her journey to Bombay,
marriage and obsessive motherhood, with occasional flashbacks to a childhood that was marred by political turmoil.
Mathematics professor, Suri, captures the fluidity of the role of women with a beautiful kind of precision.
C. Devotees of playwright David Mamet, whose screen work includes Wag The Dog and the award- winning Glengarry
Glen Ross may be less than enamoured of Ira Nadel's new biography, David Mamet: A Life in the Theatre. It may seem
churlish to question the minutia of incidents that abound in this comprehensive tome, but whilst Nadel is clearly striving
for accuracy one feels there ought to have been more sifting, more mining for the gold amongst the biographical trivia. In
addition, Nadel's tone is somewhat dry and academic and seems at odds with the brilliance of David Mamet's own
writing. That said, the book offers a sound introduction to the life and career of the man hailed as one of America's most
outstanding writers.
D. Can any Mother help me? is the true story of a desperately lonely mother who, in 1935, appealed to other women
through the letters page of a women's magazine. Writing under a pseudonym, the woman known as Ubique (meaning
'everywhere') little realised that she would be the trigger for the launch of a new and private magazine that would last for
the next fifty years. The Cooperative Correspondence Club was formed to offer comfort and support to wives, often well-
educated women, who craved stimulation beyond the drudgery of family life. Jenna Bailey has done a superb job of
organising and editing this compendium, adding her own insightful commentary.
E. Subtitled, The Life and Times of Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey, Jessie Child's debut historical biography, Henry
VIII's Last Victim, was the worthy winner of last year's Elizabeth Longford Prize. Henry Howard's victim status is owing
to the fact that he was the final person to be executed by King Henry VIII, a mere nine days before the king himself
expired. Although killed ostensibly for treason, the Earl of Surrey's only real crime it seems was leading an unsuccessful
army campaign in France. Only 29, he was also a distinguished poet with a fine literary voice, a persona which refutes
his reputation as the spoilt son of the Duke of Norfolk.
F. This is the 25th outing for T. Keneally but he's lost none of his writing powers. The Widow and Her Hero takes real
life events during the Second World War as its inspiration and builds a tale of love and intrigue. Grace looks back on her
life to recall her courtship with the hero of the title, the handsome Captain Leo Waterhouse. Leo is tragically killed whilst
on a secret mission but it is many years before Grace discovers the facts about his death. Keneally made fans galore when
Schindler's Ark was published and later made into the award-winning Steven Spielberg film, Schindler's List. The
Widow and Her Hero will bring him even more fans.
In which review are the following mentioned?
1) A story in which someone is unaware of the impact of their action.
2) A description of the opening scene.
3) An author who exemplifies source material with their own analysis.
4) A humorous comparison with a real-life situation.
5) A character who finds out the truth about a situation.
6) A hint that the author's future writing career will be positive.
7) A book that would be appreciated by people without much previous knowledge of the subject.
8) A book which has already won critical acclaim.
9) A book which includes too much factual detail.
10) A mention of the profession of the author.
PART IV: WRITING (60 points)
Section 1. Read the following passage and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be about
100 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. (10 points) .
The immune system is equal in complexity to the combined intricacies of the brain and nervous system. The
success of the immune system in defending the body relies on a dynamic regulatory communications network
consisting of millions and millions of cells. Organized into sets and subsets, these cells pass information back and
forth like clouds of bees swarming around a hive. The result is a sensitive system of checks and balances that
produces an immune response that is prompt, appropriate, effective, and self-limiting.
At the heart of the immune system is the ability to distinguish between self and non-self. When immune defenders
encounter cells or organisms carrying foreign or non-self molecules, the immune troops move quickly to eliminate the
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 intruders. Virtually every body cell carries distinctive molecules that identify it as self. The body’s immune defenses
do not normally attack issues that carry self- markers. Rather, immune cells and other body cells coexist peaceably in
a state known as self- tolerance. When a normally functioning immune system attacks a non-self molecule, the system
has the ability to remember the specifics of the foreign body. Upon subsequent encounters with the same species of
molecules, the immune system reacts accordingly. With the possible exception of antibodies passed during lactation,
this so-called immune system memory is not inherited. Despite the occurrence of a virus in your family, your immune
system must learn from experience with the many millions of distinctive non-self molecules in the sea of microbes in
which we live. Learning entails producing the appropriate molecules and cells to match up with and counteract each
non-self invader.
Any substance capable of triggering an immune response is called an antigen. Antigens are not to be confused with
allergens, which are most often harmless substances (such as ragweed pollen or cat hair) that provoke the immune
system to set off the inappropriate and harmful response known as allergy. An antigen can be a virus, a bacterium, a
fungus, a parasite, or even a portion or product of one of these organisms. Tissues or cells from another individual
(except an identical twin, whose cells carry identical self markers) also act as antigens; because the immune system
recognizes transplanted tissues as foreign, it rejects them. The body will even reject nourishing proteins unless they
are first broken down by the digestive system into their primary, non-antigenic building blocks. An antigen announces
its foreignness by means of intricate and characteristic shapes called epitopes, which protrude from its surface. Most
antigens, even the simplest microbes, carry different kinds of epitopes on their surface; some may even carry several
hundred. Some epitopes will be more effective than others at stimulating an immune response. Only in abnormal
situations does the immune system wrongly identify self as non-self and execute a misdirected immune attack. The
result can be so-called autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosis. The painful
side effects of these diseases are caused by a person’s immune system actually attacking itself.
Section 2. Graph description (20p)
The chart below shows the amount of money spent on the three types of books per person in the country of
Aspirana.
Write a report (of about 150 words) on how money has been spent on books over the period of twenty years.
Expenditure on Books
10000
US dollar

1000

100

10

1
1995 2000 2010 2014
Year
Politics Health Fiction

Section 3. Essay writing (30 p)

Some people think that a school teacher’s role is to motive and inspire students. However, others believe
that a teacher’s primary role is to pass on knowledge.

What is your opinion?

Write an essay of 300 - 350 words to highlight your opinion on this matter. Give reasons and specific examples to

support your opinion.

Page 9 of 18
Page 10 of 18
Section 3. Essay writing (30 p)
Some people think that a school teacher’s role is to motive and inspire students. However, others believe
that a teacher’s primary role is to pass on knowledge.
What is your opinion?
Write an essay of 300 - 350 words to highlight your opinion on this matter. Give reasons and specific examples to
support your opinion.

Page 11 of 18
 TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI
THỨ XV – SƠN LA 2019 CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN:
TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 11
Ngày thi: 27 tháng 7 năm 2019 HDC
gồm có 04 trang

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ PART I.
LISTENING (50 points)
Section 1. Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD for each answer. (20p)
1. garden(s) 6. lively
2. political 7. training
3. work/study 8. culture
4. fountain 9. nature
5. social 10. silent

Section 2. You will hear part of a lecture on stone tools and pottery making in Ireland in the Neolithic period.
Answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS. Write your answers in the space provided.
(10p)
1. people, (and) cattle
2. grinding, (and) polishing
3. outside
4. local sources
5. (a series of) stitches

Section 3. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chefs who both won prizes in the
National Railway Chef of the Year competition. For questions 1-5, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T) or
FALSE (F). (10 pts)

1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. T
Section 4. You will hear part of an interview with the comedian Brain Conley, who does a considerable amount of
work in panto, a type of family-friendly show which is popular at Christmas. For questions 1 to 5, choose the
correct answer A, B, C, or D. (10p)

1. A 2.D 3.B 4.D 5.A

PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Section 1. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided. (15 p)
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C
11. C 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. C

Page 1 of 4
Section 2. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 p)
1. upper 2. inaccessible 3. mobility 4. overcome 5. undergone
6. progressively 7. rapidly 8. landing 9. movement 10. withstand

Section 3: There are FIVE mistakes in the passage below. Find the mistakes and correct them. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (5 p)
1. shower  a shower
2. an interest  interest
3. in brochure  in the brochure
4. pinning  pinned
5. has closed was closed
PART 3: READING (60 points)
Section 1: For questions 1-10, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided (10p)
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. C

Section 2: For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10p)
1. self 2. human 3. function 4. reduction 5. pain
6. shed 7. serve 8. manly 9. Intense 10. harmful

Section 3. Read an extract from an article and choose the sections A- D which you think fits best according to the
text. Write your answers on the space provided. (10p)
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C

Section 4. Read the passage and answer the questions 1-10. Write your answers in the corresponding
space provided. (20p)
1. Paragraph B : …vii….
2. Paragraph C : …i….
3. Paragraph D : …iv….
4. Paragraph E : …viii….
5. Paragraph F : …ii….

6. science
7. guidelines
8. language
9. Master’s degree/ Master degree
10. respect/ status

Section 5. You are going to read a selection of letters from a motoring magazine. For questions 1- 10, choose from
the people (A-E). The people may be chosen more than once. (10 p)
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. F
6. A 7. C 8. E 9. C 10. B

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PART IV: WRITING (60 points)
Section 1: Read the following passage and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be about
100 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. (10 p)

Contents (8 points):
The summary MUST cover the following points:
- To defend the body, the immune system counts on sets and subsets of cells to produce an effective
response.
- The immune system is able to differentiate exotic molecules from self-ones to protect the whole body
+ Once removing intruders and being aware of self- makers, immune cells cooperate with various body ones
resulting in self-tolerance.
+ The immune system can memorize the non-self-makers and counteract with them in need.
- Antigens producing an immune response can signify the foreignness and get rid of this thanks to their
epitopes.
+ Some epitopes are better than others in terms of stimulating immune responses.
+ The immune system fail to remove exotic cells in abnormal scenarios leading to unexpected diseases.
The summary MUST NOT contain personal opinions.
Language use (2 points)
The summary:
- should show attempts to convey the main ideas of the original text by means of paraphrasing (structural and
lexical use),
- should demonstrate correct use of grammatical structures, vocabulary, and mechanics (spelling,
punctuations,.........................),
- should maintain coherence, cohesion, and unity throughout (by means of linkers and transitional
devices).

Penalties:
- A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to personal opinions found in the summary.
- A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to any summary with more than 20% of words copied from
the original.
- A penalty of 1 point will be given to any summary longer than 110 words or shorter than 90 words.

Part 2. Graph description (20p)

1. Contents (13 points)

The report MUST have at least 2 paragraphs covering the following points:
- Introduce the charts (3 points) and state the overall trends & striking features (3 points)
- Describe main features with relevant data from the charts and make relevant comparisons (7 points)
The report MUST NOT contain personal opinions (A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to personal opinions
found in the answer)

2. Language Use (7 points)

The report:
- Should demonstrate a wide variety of lexical and grammatical structures.
- Should have correct use of words (verb tenses, word forms, voice,..................) and mechanics (spelling,
punctuations,........)

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Section 3: Essay writing (30 p)
The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria:

1. Task achievement (10 points)

 ALL requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed
 Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples,
evidence, personal experience, etc.
2. Organization (10 points)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion and unity
b. The essay is well-structured:
 Introduction: is presented with clear thesis statement
 Body paragraphs are written with unity, coherence, and cohesion. Each body paragaph must have a topic
sentence and supporting details and examples when neccessary.
 Conclusion summarises the main points and offers personal opinions (prediction,
recommendation, consideration, ...) on the issue.

3. Language use (5 points)

a. Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary
b. Excellent use and control of grammatical structures

4. Punctuation, spelling and handwriting (5 points)

a. Correct punctuation and no spelling mistakes
b. Legible handwriting

THE END

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