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    Pharmacology I Sample Questions - Pharmacodynamics

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    Ahmed Ziad

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    Pharmacology I Sample Questions - Pharmacodynamics

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    Pharmacology I sample questions -Pharmacodynamics

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    Pharmacology I Sample Questions - Pharmacodynamics

    Uploaded by

    Ahmed Ziad

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    © All Rights Reserved
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    of 7

    Sample Questions in Pharmacodynamics

    Question one: Read each of the following statements and choose the most
    appropriate answer:

    1. A partial agonist:
    - Can occupy all available receptors.
    a- Is always irreversibly binds the receptor.
    b- Brings the same maximal response as a full agonist.
    c- Has the same efficacy as a full agonist.

    2. Adrenaline is added to local anesthetic solutions to:


    a- Produces local vasoconstriction thus reducing blood supply to the site of administration.
    b- Reduced systemic toxicity of local anaesthetic.
    c- Prolong the duration of action of local anaesthetic.
    d- All of the above.

    3. One of the following statements is INCORRECT:


    a- Shifting of the dose response curve of the full agonist to the right means less potency.
    b- Competitive antagonist will shift the dose response curve of full agonist to the right.
    c- Reversible antagonist will not change the efficacy of the full agonist.
    d- Irreversible antagonist will not change the efficacy of the full agonist.

    4. Chemical antagonism is represented by:


    a. Histamine and Adrenaline.
    b. Acetylcholine and succinylcholine
    c. Acetylcholine and atropine.
    d. Heparin and protamine sulphate.

    5. The maximal effect of a drug is also known as the drug's:


    a- Potency.
    b- Efficacy.
    c- Affinity.
    d- Agonism.

    6. Drug A dose response curve was shifted slightly to the right with a decrease of the maximum
    response when drug B is present. Drug B is:
    a. A full agonist.
    b. An irreversible antagonist
    c. A competitive antagonist.
    d. A physiological antagonist.

    1
    7. Which of the following definition is INCORRECT:
    a- Therapeutic index = ED50 / LD50 .
    b- Volume of distribution = amount of drug in the body / concentration of drug in the plasma.
    c- pKa = pH at which 50% of the drug is ionized and 50% unionized.

    8. Given the information shown in the figure below, which of the following statements is
    CORRECT?

    a- Drug A has the most appropriate pharmacodynamic properties of the three drugs shown as it
    reaches maximal efficacy within the therapeutic window.
    b- Drug B has the most appropriate pharmacodynamic properties of the three drugs shown as a range
    of its plasma concentrations are within the therapeutic window.
    c- Drug C has the most appropriate pharmacodynamic properties of the three drugs shown as non-
    toxic effects are achieved within the therapeutic window.
    d- All three drugs have appropriate pharmacodynamic properties as they all achieve maximal
    physiological effects and have concentrations within the therapeutic window.

    9. A 67-year-old hospitalized patient with a deep venous thrombosis is currently on intravenous


    heparin on an hourly drip. Unfortunately, because of a calculation error, the heparin drip is
    running at 100 times the rate it should be running at. Protamine sulfate is immediately given
    intravenously. This agent works by which of the following mechanisms of action?
    a- Chemical antagonist.
    b- Agonist.
    c- Functional agonist.
    d- Physiological antagonist.
    e- Partial agonist.

    2
    f-

    10. The following are competitive antagonists EXCEPT:


    a- Atropine and acetylcholine.
    b- Diphenhydramine and histamine.
    c- Loratidine and histamine.
    d- Salbutamol and histamine .cuz it's a physiological antagonist(they bind to 2 different
    receptors so there's no competition over a specific receptor aslan!

    11. Which of the following occurs if a drug lacking an effect of its own (0) increases the effect of a
    second active drug?
    a. Antagonist
    b. Potentiation
    c. Addition
    d. Synergism is when both of the drugs have their own effect but putting them together
    enhance the response .(2) + 7
    e. Tolerance

    12. Physiological antagonism between two drugs means:


    a- The agonist and antagonist act on the same receptors.
    b- The agonist and antagonist act on the different receptors.
    c- Both drugs act as agonist on the same receptors.
    d- Both drugs act as agonist on the different receptors.

    13. A 46-year-old man with AIDS is hospitalized for a fever of unknown origin. He is placed in a
    combination of antibiotics including a Beta-lactam and an aminoglycoside. The rationale
    behind the use of multiple antibiotics includes which of the following?
    a- Nephrotoxicity.
    b- Hepatotoxicity.
    c- Potentiation.
    d- Synergism.

    14. The maximal effect of a drug is also known as the drug's:


    a- Potency.
    b- Efficacy.
    c- Affinity.
    d- Agonism.
    15. Chronic administration of an antagonist results in:
    a. Down regulation.
    b. Up regulation.
    c. Tolerance.
    d. None of the above.

    16. One of the following statements is CORRECT:


    a. Shifting of the dose response curve of the full agonist to the right means less potency.
    b. Competitive antagonist will shift the dose response curve of full agonist to the left.
    c. Reversible antagonist will change the efficacy of the full agonist.
    d. Irreversible antagonist will not change the efficacy of the full agonist.

    17. Physiological antagonism is represented by:


    a. Histamine and Adrenaline.

    3
    b. Acetylcholine and succinylcholine
    c. Acetylcholine and atropine.
    d. Heparin and protamine sulphate.

    18. A competitive antagonist affects the agonist ____ and a non-competitive antagonist
    affect the agonist ____.
    a- Potency; Efficacy
    b- Efficacy; Potency
    c- Duration; Speed
    d- Speed; Duration

    19. Which of the following provides information about the variation in sensitivity to a drug within
    the population studied:
    a. Therapeutic index.
    b. Maximal efficacy.
    c. Quantal dose-response curve.
    d. Graded dose-response curve.
    e. None of the above.

    Question Two: indicate whether each statement is true or false


    1. Competitive antagonism shows same efficacy & potency. FALSE ( different potency “ the
    curve shifts to the right remember !)
    2. A partial agonist has the same efficacy as a full agonist, but takes longer to achieve this
    effect. FALSE
    3. If drug A has a greater potency compared to drug B, you can predict that drug A will also
    have a greater efficacy. FALSE ( it's not necessary so, drug B can actually reach the same
    efficacy if we increased the concentration of the drug!)
    4. The ED50 is a measure of efficacy. FALSE (it measures the potency )
    5. Clinical effectiveness of a drug depends on its potency. TRUE (cuz the ED 50% is affected
    by the potancy)

    Question Three: Choose the appropriate term for each statement

    Part A
    a- Tolerance b- First pass effect c- pH
    d- Enzyme induction e- Onset of action f- Bioavailability
    g- Down regulation h- Idiosyncrasy i- Quantal response
    j- Full agonist k- Blood brain barrier l- Half life time
    m- Phase II metabolism n- Parenteral administration o-

    1. A drug given by injection. N


    2. It is an all or none response. i

    4
    3. Will determine the degree of ionization of a drug in a biological fluid. C
    4. Describes the start of the therapeutic action after taking the drug e
    5. Increases the metabolism of drugs. D
    6. A disappearance of the therapeutic response after repeated administration. A
    7. Prevents ionized molecules (drugs) from entering the brain
    8. Includes conjugation.
    9. Indicates the rate of elimination of a drug from the body.
    10. A drug which produce maximum response.
    11. Is an abnormal reaction to drugs due to genetic disorder?
    12. A decrease in the number of the receptors after long use of agonist.
    13. Describes the amount of the drug that reaches general circulation.
    14. Describes extensive hepatic metabolism of orally taken drugs.

    Part B:

    p- Eicosanoids q- cGMP r- Half life time


    s- Enzyme induction t- An intrinsic activity u- Microsomal enzymes
    v- Propranolol w- First pass effect x- Onset of action
    y- Full agonist z- Tolerance aa- Phase II metabolism
    bb- Serotonin (5-HT) cc- cAMP dd- Atenolol
    ee- A prodrug ff- Hydrocortisone gg- Bile excretion
    hh- Na Cromoglycate ii- Down regulation

    15. Includes glucuronidation. AA


    16. Describes the start of the therapeutic action after taking the drug. X
    17. A second messenger whose synthesis is increased by pilocarpine.
    18. A disappearance of the therapeutic response after repeated administration. Z
    19. Is prophylactic agent that appears to stabilize mast cells. hh
    20. Is neurotransmitter in the brain has a role of mood control. bb
    21. They play important roles in inflammation.
    22. Increases the duration of action of drugs. gg
    23. Chronic administration of an agonist.ii
    24. Indicates the rate of elimination of a drug from the body. r
    25. Hydrophilic beta blocker.
    26. A second messenger whose synthesis is directly stimulated by nitric oxide.
    27. Parenteral form, which is life-saving in severe acute bronchial asthma.
    28. Converted from pharmacological inactive drug to pharmacological active metabolites. ee
    29. An ability of the agonist to produce action. T
    30. Increases the metabolism of drugs.
    31. Responsible for the hepatic oxidation of drugs.
    32. A drug which produce maximum response.
    33. Lipophilic beta blocker.

    5
    34. Describes extensive hepatic metabolism of orally taken drugs.

    6
    Match the flowing statements in (A) with their correspondence in (b)

    (A) (B)
    1- Tolerance ( ) Describes the start of the therapeutic action after taking the drug

    2- First pass effect ( ) Describes the amount of the drug that reaches general circulation.

    3- pH ( ) A decrease in the number of the receptors after long use of agonist.

    4- Enzyme induction ( ) Is an abnormal reactions to drugs due to genetic disorder.

    5- Onset of action ( ) It is an all or none response.

    6- Bioavailability ( ) A drug which produce maximum response.

    7- Down regulation ( ) Prevents ionized molecules from entering the brain

    8- Idiosyncrasy ( ) Indicates the rate of elimination of a drug from the body.

    9- Quantal response ( ) Includes conjugation.

    10- Full agonist ( ) A drug given by injection.

    11- Blood brain barrier ( ) Increases the metabolism of drugs.

    12- Half life time ( ) will determine the degree of ionization of a drug in a biological fluid.

    13- Phase II metabolism ( ) Describes extensive hepatic metabolism of orally taken drugs.

    14- Parenteral ( ) A disappearance of the therapeutic response after repeated

    administration administration.

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