DATE : 04/11/2018 Test Booklet Code

E
TELANGANA

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Answers & Solutions

for
NTSE (Stage-I) 2018-19
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. There is no negative marking.
2. All the questions are compulsory. This test booklet contains 200 questions (Paper-I : 100 & Paper-II : 100)
of one mark each.
3. Paper-I : MAT : 1 - 100 questions
Paper-II : SAT : 1 - 100 questions
4. Answer each question by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR Sheet
with blue/black ball point pen.
5. Students are not allowed to scratch/alter/change out an answer once marked on OMR Sheet, by using
white fluid/eraser/blade/tearing/wearing or in any other form.
6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.
7. Please handover the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
8. Darken completely the ovals of your answers on OMR Sheet in the time limit allotted for that particular
paper.
9. Your OMR Sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and incorrect entries
may render your OMR sheet invalid.
10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc., is strictly prohibited.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

PAPER-I : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Directions : (Q1 to Q10) : In the Number series given 6. 25, 25, 5, 21, 18, 5, 14,.....
below, one Number is missing. Each series is followed by (1) 11, 5 (2) 11, 8
five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is
(3) 10, 7 (4) 5, 10
the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the
"Instructions". (5) 10, 5

1. 4, 18, 48, 100, ..... Answer (1)

(1) 180 (2) 196 -7 -7

(3) 204 (4) 160
Sol. 28, 25, 5 21, 18, 5 14, 11 5
(5) 192
-7 -7
Answer (1)
Sol. 1(22), 2(32), 3(42), 4(52), 5(62) = 180 7. 13, 29, 15, 26, 17, 23, 19,

2. 8, 15,......, 53, 102, 199 (1) 20, 21 (2) 21, 23

(1) 30 (2) 23 (3) 22, 20 (4) 21, 17

(3) 29 (4) 31 (5) 25, 27

(5) 28 Answer (1)

Answer (5) -3 -3 -3
Sol. x2-1 x2-2 x2-3 x2-4 x2-5
Sol. 13, 29, 15, 26, 17, 23, 19, 20, 21
8, 15, 28 53 102 199 +2 +2 +2 +2
8. 70, 71, 76,.....,81, 86, 70, 91,.....
3. 4, 9, 25, 49,.....,169, 289, 361
(1) 96 (2) 70
(1) 36 (2) 64
(3) 80 (4) 71
(3) 121 (4) 100
(5) 95
(5) 73
Answer (1 & 2)
Answer (3)
+10 +10
Sol. 22, 32, 52, 72, 112 , 132, 172, 192
Sol. 70, 71, 76, 70, 81, 86, 70, 91, 96
+10 +10
121
4. 430, 345, 270, 205,...... 9. 1, 20, 58, .....,191

(1) 155 (2) 150 (1) 116 (2) 115

(3) 175 (4) 155 (3) 105 (4) 111

(5) 120 (5) 110

Answer (2) Answer (2)

Sol.
Sol. -85 -75 -65 -55
430, 345, 270, 205, 150 +19 +38 +57 +76
5. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27,.....,64
1, 20, 58, 115,191
(1) 36 (2) 16 10. 36, 34, 30, 28, 24,.....
(3) 25 (4) 49 (1) 26 (2) 22
(5) 32 (3) 20 (4) 25
Answer (2) (5) 23
2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 Answer (2)
Sol. 1,1,2,2,3 ,3,4,4
36, 34, 30, 28, 24, 22
Sol.
16 -2 -4 -2 -4 -2
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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

Directions: (Q11 to Q15): Questions have become wrong 17. 8  

due to wrong order of signs. Choose the correct order of
signs from the five alternatives given under each question. (1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
11. 5  0  3  5  20
(5) 
(1)  (2) 
Answer (5)
(3)  (4) 
(5)  Sol. 8  4  7  5

Answer (2) 18. 11 2  10  9

Sol. 5  0  3  5  20 (1)  (2) 
12. 3  3  6  6  2  12 (3)  (4) 

(1)  (2)  (5) 

(3)  (4)  Answer (2)

(5)  Sol. 11  2  10  9
Answer (4) 19. 5  4  7  13
Sol. 3  3  6  6  2  12 (1)  (2) 
13. 20  7  4  8 (3)  (4) 
(1)  (2)  (5) 
(3)  (4)  Answer (3)
(5)  Sol. 5  4  7  13
Answer (1)
20. 16  4  2  8
Sol. 20  7  4  8
(1)  (2) 
14. 20  4  6  11 (3)  (4)  
(1)  (2)  (5) 
(3)  (4)  Answer (1)
(5) 
Sol. 16  4  2  8
Answer (4)
Directions: (Q21 to Q25): In the following figure, small
Sol. 20  4  6  11 square represents the persons who know English, Triangle
to those who know Urdu, big sqaure to those who know
15. 6  5  6  36
Telugu and circle to those who know Hindi.
(1)  (2) 
12 English
(3)  (4)  Urdu
4 3 5
6 7 2
(5) 
8 11
Answer (1 or 5) 9 Hindi

Sol. 6+5 × 6 = 36, 6 × 5 + 6 = 36 10 Telugu

16. 74  2 5 21. How many persons can speak English and hindi
(1)  (2)  both, the language only?

(3)  (4)  (1) 2 (2) 5

(5)  (3) 13 (4) 19

Answer (5) (5) 8

Sol. 7  4  2  5 Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
22. How many persons can speak Urdu and Telugu Sol. (7  5)  (3  5)  20
both?
(1) 13 (2) 10 (8  6)  (3  6)  30
(3) 11 (4) 9
(6  7)  (3  5)  27
(5) 17
Answer (1) 28. 1 3
3
23. How many persons an speak only Hindi?
(1) 10 (2) 4 4 ? 4 2 13 3 4 32 5

(3) 12 (4) 19
7 4
(5) 11 3

Answer (5) (1) 24 (2) 17

24. How many persons can speak English, Hindi and (3) 25 (4) 22
Telugu?
(5) 16
(1) 4 (2) 2
Answer (3)
(3) 7 (4) 8
(5) 3 Sol. (1 7)  (2  3)  13
Answer (2)
(3  4)  (4  5)  32
25. How many persons can speak Hindi and Urdu only?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3  3)  (4  4)  25
(3) 7 (4) 3
29. 25 21 15 7 11 9
(5) 10
Answer (4)
Directions: (Q26 to Q30): In these questions, number are 184 176 ?
placed on the basis of some rules. One place is vacant
which is indicated as?. Find out the correct alternative to (1) 30 (2) 202
replace the question mark. (3) 20 (4) 40
(5) 50
4 5 4 6 5 7
26. 25 ? 35 Answer (4)

5 6 0 Sol. (25  21)(25  21)  184

(1) 30 (2) 36
(15  7)(15  7)  176
(3) 24 (4) 28
(5) 35 (11  9)(11  9)  40
Answer (1)
Sol. 4  5  5  25
30. 6 4 2
5  7  0  35 4 3 7
4  6  6  30 9 ? 3
5 6 7 (1) 6 (2) 12
27. 7 20 3 8 30 6 6 ? 5 (3) 7 (4) 10

3 3 (5) 5
5
Answer (1)
(1) 57 (2) 27
(3) 21 (4) 51 Sol. 6 - 2 = 4
(5) 40 7-4=3
Answer (2) 9-3=6

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

Directions: (Q31 to Q40): (Problem deals with is Sol.

A+B+C
Relationship)
31. A and B is a married couple. X and Y are brothers.
X is the brother of A. How is Y related to B? D+E
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law 36. If Ajit is the brother of the son of Sethi's son, what
(3) Son (4) Cousin is the relationship between Ajit and Sethi?

Answer (2) (1) Cousin (2) Grandson

(3) Brother (4) Nephew
Sol. y+x+A B Answer (2)
Sol.
32. If B's mother was A's mother's daughter, how was A
related to B? S
(1) Maternal uncle (2) Father
(3) Brother (4) Sister
Answer (1)
A+
37. Pointing to a man, Rohit said, "His son is my son's
Sol. uncle". How is the man related to Rohit?
A+ (1) Brother (2) Uncle

B (3) Father (4) Grand-father

33. A and B are brothers, C and D are sister. A's son is Answer (3)
D's brother. How is B related to C?
(1) Father (2) Mother Sol. M
(3) Uncle (4) Aunt
Answer (3) +R
A+B
Sol.

38. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only

+D+C brother is the brother of my wife". how is the lady
related to the man?
34. If A is the brother of the son of B's son. How is A
related B? (1) Maternal aunt (2) Mother-in-law
(1) Son (2) Brother (3) Mother's sister (4) Sister of fatehr-in-law
(3) Cousin (4) Grandson Answer (4)

L+
Answer (4) Sol.
B
+ M
Sol.
39. Q's mother is sister of P and daugher of M. S is
+A daughter of P and sister if T. How is M related to T?
35. B is the brother of C; A is sister of B; E is the (1) Father
brother of D; D is the daughter of C. Who are the
(2) Grand mother
cousins of B?
(3) Grand fatehr
(1) C and A (2) A and E
(3) B and E (4) D and E (4) Either Grand mother or Grand fatehr.

Answer (Bonus) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
Sol.
M 45. - bam - amb - m - a - bam
(1) mbabm (2) abmab
+ P+ (3) mabma (4) ambbm
Answer (1)

Q S +T Sol. mba mba mba mba mba m

40. Anu told Mani, "The girl met yesterday at the beach 46. - - abb - abba - - ba
was the youngest daughter of the brother-in-law of
(1) bbaab (2) abbba
my friend's mother." How is girl related to Anu's
friend? (3) baaaa (4) babab
(1) Cousin (2) Niece Answer (1)
(3) Aunt (4) Friend Sol. bba | bbaa| bbaa| bba |
Answer (1) 47. - b - a - ba - b - abab - a

+
(1) ababab (2) baabba
(3) bbaabb (4) bababa
Sol.
Answer (1)

Friend of A Sol. a b b a a b a b b a a b a b b a
Directions: (Q31 to Q40): Choose alternative as the 48. b - ba - - bb - - aa - bba
answer (Series of small latters).
(1) ababab (2) bababa
41. bc - b - c - b - ccb
(3) baabab (4) abbaba
(1) cbcb (2) bbcb
Answer (3)
(3) cbbc (4) bcbc
Sol. b b b a a a b b b a a a b b b a
Answer (1)
49. - a - bb - ba - bb - - aab
Sol. bccb bccb bccb (1) abbaba (2) aabbb
42. a - c - abb - a - bc - bc - ab (3) bbabba (4) baaaab
(1) cbcaaa (2) bcccab Answer (4)
(3) bccaac (4) acbabc
Sol. baabbabaabbabaab
Answer (3)
50. - b - a - bb - - ab - bbaa
Sol. abcc abbc aabc abcc ab
(1) abaaba (2) ababab
43. a - ba - cbaac - aa - ba
(3) babbab (4) bbaabb
(1) ccbb (2) cabc
Answer (3)
(3) cbcb (4) bbcc
Answer (2)
Sol. bbaabbbbaabbbbaa
51. If Z = 2197 and R = 729. How would J be written in
Sol. acba acba acba acba that code ?
44. aaa - bb - aab - baaa - bb (1) 216 (2) 124
(1) abab (2) bbaa (3) 512 (4) 125
(3) babb (4) baab Answer (4)
Answer (3) 3 3
⎛ 26 ⎞ ⎛ 10 ⎞
Sol. Z  ⎜ ⎟ = 2197, J  ⎜ ⎟ = 125
Sol. aaa bbb aaa bbb aaa bbb ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

52. If PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 and RISK is coded 56. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE is
as 2398, how is RIVETS coded ? written as 785291, how is GREECE coded.?
(1) 234679 (2) 243769 (1) 381171 (2) 381191
(3) 234769 (4) 234976 (3) 832252 (4) 835545
Answer (3) Answer (2)
Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
Eg. P = 1
Eg. E = 1
R=2
N=2
I=3
G=3
V=4
L=4
A=5
T=6 A=5

E=7 N=2

53. In a certain code, LAKSHMI is coded as 32. How D=6

can SHIVA be coded ? II. Questions (57 to 60)
(1) 8 (2) 16 The number in each question below is to be codified
(3) 19 (4) 20 in the following code.
Answer (3)
Digit 7 2 1 5 3 9 8 6 4
Number of letters +1
2

Sol. =32
2 Letter W L M S I ND J B
 Shiva +1
2

 18
2 57. 184632
54. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as (1) MDJBSI (2) MDJBIL
NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code ?
(3) MDJBWL (4) MDBJIL
(1) CPNCBX (2) CPNCBZ
Answer (4)
(3) CPOCBZ (4) CQOCBZ
Answer (2) Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters

Sol. BOMBAY 58. 879341

CPNCBZ (1) DWNIBS (2) DWNBIM

B+1=C (3) DWNIBM (4) NDWBIM
O+1=P Answer (3)
M+1=N Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
B+1=C 59. 64928
A+1=B (1) JBNLD (2) JBLND
Y+1=Z
(3) BJNLD (4) DBNLS
55. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, how can
Answer (1)
SUCCESS be coded ?
(1) VXEEIVV (2) VXFFHVV Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters

(3) VYEEHVV (4) VYFFIVV 60. 23549

Answer (2) (1) LISBJ (2) LISBN

Sol. SUCCESS (3) LSINB (4) LSIMW
VXFFHVV Answer (2)
Adding +3 to each letter Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
Questions (61 to 70) : Find the correct alternatives. 66. ODOMETER : MILEAGE :: COMPASS : ...
61. AG : IO :: EK : ... (1) SPEED (2) HIKING
(1) LR (2) MS (3) NEEDLE (4) DIRECTION
(3) PV (4) SY Answer (4)
Answer (2) Sol. COMPASS for DIRECTION
+8 +8 67. MARATHON : RACE :: HIBERNATION :
(1) WINTER (2) BEAR
EK : MS
Sol. AG : IO (3) DREAM (4) SLEEP
+8 +8 Answer (4)
62. ACE : FHJ :: OQS : Sol. MARTHANA is LONG RACE
(1) PRT (2) RTU HIBERNATION is LONGSLEEP
(3) TVX (4) UWY 68. CUP : COFFEE :: BOWL :
Answer (3) (1) DISH (2) SOUP
+5 +5 (3) SPOON (4) FOOD
Answer (2)
Sol. ACE : FHJ OQS : TVX
Sol. CUP is for COFFEE
+5 +5 +5 +5 BOWL is for SOUP
63. ACEG : DFHJ :: QSUW :
69. REPTILE : LIZARD :: FLOWER :
(1) KMND (2) MNPR
(1) PETAL (2) STEM
(3) TQST (4) TVXZ
(3) DAISY (4) ALLIGATOR
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
+3 +3 +3 +3 Sol. LIZARD is a type of REPTILE

Sol. ACEG : DFHJ QSUW : TVXZ DAISY is a type of FLOWER

70. PLAY : ACTOR :: CONCERT :
+3 +3 +3 +3
(1) SYMPHONY (2) MUSICIAN
64. EGIK : FILO :: FHJL :
(3) PIANO (4) PERCUSSION
(1) GHMP (2) GMJP
Answer (2)
(3) GJMP (4) JGPM
Sol. An ACTOR performes in PLAY
Answer (3)
A MUCISIAN performs at a CONCERT
+1 +3 +1 +3
Directions : (Q71 to Q80) : In each of the following
Sol. EG IK : F I LO FHJL : G JMP questions figures (A) and (B) have a definite relationship,
find out from (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The figure that has
+2 +4 +2 +4 a similar relationship with figure (C).
65. CAT : DDY :: BIG : ... 71.
(1) CLL (2) CLM
(3) CML (4) CEP
Answer (1)
+1 +1

Sol. CAT : DDY B IG : CLL

Answer (4, 5)
+3 +5 +3 +5
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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

72.
76.

Answer (2)
Answer (2)
73. Sol. = shifting half a side in anti-clockwise same way #
is moving half side anti-clockwise
77.

Answer (3)

74. Answer (1)

Sol. Arc is changing to circle same way line is changing
to square
78.

Answer (1)

Sol. Rotate figure-A anti-clockwise to get figure - B same

way Rotate Figure-C anticlock wise to get figure - D
Answer (4)
75. Sol. Rotate figure A anti-clockwise and take water image.
79.

Answer (4)

Sol. Line is change to curve in figure A to B same way Answer (2)

C to D Sol. Element shifts one side in anti-clockwise direction
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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

80. 86.

Answer (4)
Sol. Except Option - 5 rest all figures have 3 lines
87.

Answer (5)
Answer (3)
Directions : (Q81 to Q90) : Out of the five figures (1),
Sol.
(2), (3), (4) and (5) given in each problem, four are similar
in a certain way. Choose the figure which is different from 88.
the other figures.
81.
Answer (2)
Sol. Except Option - 2 rest all figures are alphabets
89.
Answer (3)
Sol. Except Option -3, rest all are common

82. Answer (4)

Sol. Except Option - 4 rest all are opposite in direction
90.

Answer (2)
Sol. Except square rest all figures are in equal in size.
Answer (3)
Sol. Except Option - 3 rest all figures circles are
83.
opposite to each other
Directions :
Questions (91 to 100) :
Each of the following questions consists of five
Answer (1)
figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the problem
Sol. Except Option - 1, rest all curves are towards the figures; followed by five alternatives marked 1, 2, 3,
given image. 4 and 5 called the answer figures. Select a figure
which will continue the same series established by
84.
the five problem figures.
91.

Answer (3)
Sol. Except Option - 3 rest all figures are semi-circles

85.

Answer (5) Answer (4)

Sol. Except Option - 5 rest all are prime numbers Sol. Shifiting one side anti-clockwise direction

10
 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
92. 96.

Answer (2)
Answer (1) Sol. Dot shifts one and half side anti-clockwise direction
Sol. = symbol shifts anti-clockwise one side, one and half 97.
side respectively.
93.

Answer (2)
98.

Answer (3)

Sol. Rotate the figure in anti-clockwise direction and

adding one line
94.
Answer (1)
Sol. Dot is in semicircle
99.

Answer (4 or 5)
95.

Answer (4)
100.

Answer (3)

Sol. Shaded circle shifts one side clockwise direction, but

because square position it shifts one more side Answer (2)

11
 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

PAPER-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

1. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 5. Focal length of the plano-convex lens is..., when its
cm.What is its focal length ? radius of curvature of the surface is R and n is the
refractive index of the lens.
(1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm
(3) 25 cm (4) None R
(1) f  R (2) f 
2
Answer (1)
R  n  1
Sol. f 
R 20
  10 cm (3) f   n  1 (4) f 
2 2 R
2. There is an object infront of convex mirror at a Answer (3)
distance of 5 cm. If its focal length is 10 cm, then
1 ⎡1 1⎤
Sol. f   n  1 ⎢ R  R ⎥
its magnification is ...
(1) 0.44 cm (2) 0.66 cm ⎣ 1 2⎦

(3) 0.88 cm (4) None R1  R2  R

Answer (4) 1 1
  n  1
Sol. u  5 cm f R
R
f  10 cm f 
 n  1
f 10 10 6. The ray passing through the ... of the lens is not
m    0.666
f  u 10  5 15 deviated.

magnification has no units (1) Focus (2) Optic centre

(3) Centre of curvature (4) None
3. The mirror used by dentists is ...
Answer (2)
(1) Convex (2) Plane
Sol. Optic centre
(3) Concave (4) None
7. The size of an object as perceived by an eye
Answer (3)
depends primarily on...
Sol. Mirror used by dentist is concave mirror which
(1) actual size of the object
provides magnified, upright images
(2) distance of the object from the eye
4. The lens maker's formula is ...
(3) aperture of the pupil.
1 ⎡1 1⎤
(1) n   f  1 ⎢ R  R ⎥ (4) size of the image formed on the retina.
⎣ 1 2⎦
Answer (4)
1 ⎡1 1⎤
(2) R   n  1 ⎢ f  f ⎥
Sol. Conceptual
⎣ 1 2⎦ 8. The process of re-emission of absorbed light in all
directions with different intensities by the atom or
1 ⎡1 1⎤
(3) f   n  1 ⎢ R  R ⎥ molecule is called..
⎣ 1 2⎦
(1) Scattering of light
(4) None
(2) Dispersion of light
Answer (3)
(3) Reflection of light
Sol. From Len's maker's formula
(4) Refraction of light
1 ⎡1 1⎤
  n  1 ⎢  ⎥
Answer (1)
f ⎣ R1 R2 ⎦ Sol. Definition of Scattering of light.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

9. The value of 1 KWH in Joules is... 15. If water turns into ice at a pressure of atmosphere
at 0°C,then the temperature of this system in this
(1) 2.6  106 Joules (2) 1.6  106 Joules
process
(3) 3.6  106 Joules (4) None (1) Decreases (2) Increases
Answer (3) (3) Remains same (4) None
Sol. 1 KWH  103 W x 3600 s Answer (3)
Sol. Phase transformation take place at constant
 3600  103 Ws temperature.So temperature remains same.
16. The physical mixtures of two substances is called..
 3.6  106 J
(1) Mixture (2) Compound
10. If the resistance of your body is 100000  , what
(3) Colloid (4) Suspension
would be the current that flows in your body when
you touch the terminasl of a 12V battery ? Answer (1)
Sol. Concept
(1) 10  10 5 A (2) 14  10 5 A
17. The phenomenon of scattering of a visible light by the
5
(3) 12  10 A (4) None particle of a colloid is known as...

Answer (3) (1) Tyndall effect (2) Chromatography

(3) Sublimation (4) Reflection
Sol. V  12 V
Answer (1)
V 12
I   5  12  105 A Sol. Concept
R 10
18. Chemical formula of Aluminium Sulphate is...
11. Which of the following converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy ? (1) Al2SO4 (2) (Al2)2(SO4)3
(1) Motor (2) Battery (3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) AlSO4
(3) Generator (4) Switch Answer (3)
Answer (1) Al3 SO24
Sol. Conceptual
Al SO4
12. The S.I. unit of magnetic field induction is... Sol. Symbol
Valency 3 2
(1) Weber / m 2 (2) Tesla =Al (SO4 )
2 3
(3) Weber  m 2 (4) Weber 19. The other name of Tungsten...
Answer (2) (1) Natrium (2) Kalium
Sol. Conceptual (3) Wolfram (4) Cuprum
13. If an object is moving with constant velocity, then Answer (3)
the motion is .... Sol. Concept
(1) Speed (2) Uniform acceleration 20. Hydraulic Jack works on the principle of...
(3) Uniform motion (4) Non-uniform motion (1) Archimedes principle (2) Buoyancy
Answer (3) (3) Pascal's priniciple (4) Air pressure.
Sol. Conceptual Answer (3)
14. Change of solid into vapour without changing into Sol. Concept
liquid is known as...
21. The electronic configuration of Sodium is...
(1) Evaporation (2) Vapourisation
(1) 2,8 (2) 8,2,1
(3) Sublimation (4) Boiling
(3) 2,1,8 (4) 2,8,1
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
Sol. The process of transformation of solid directly to gas
is sublimation Sol. Concept

13
 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
22. Deuterium and Tritium are the isotopes of... Sol. When individuals are similar in external apperance
(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen (phenotype) but different in genetic
makeup(genotype), these are called Heterozygous.
(3) Hydrogen (4) Helium
Answer (3) example: Tt Tall  & TT Tall 

Sol. Concept  
23. Colour of Silver bromide is... Heterozygous Homozygous
tall phenotype tall phenotype
(1) Red (2) Silver
(3) Light yellow (4) Blue 29. Villi present on the inner lining of the intestinal wall...

Answer (3) (1) secretes enzymes for digestion

Sol. Concept (2) secretes hormones.

24. Which one of the following types of medicines is (3) decreases the surface area for absorption
used for treating indigestion? (4) increases the surface area for absorption
(1) Antibiotic (2) Analgesic Answer (4)
(3) Antacid (4) Antiseptic Sol. Villi are the finger like projections which are meant
Answer (3) for increasing the area of absorption in intestine.

Sol. Concept 30. Which of the following are not examples of

analogous structures ?
25. Acid rain occurs,when pH value of rain water is less
than... (1) Wings of bat and butterfly.

(1) 6.5 (2) 5.6 (2) Wings of bat and forelimbs of cattle.

(3) 7.2 (4) 2.7 (3) Thorn and spine

Answer (2) (4) Tendril of Lathyranthus and tendril of Gloriosa.

Sol. Concept Answer (2)

26. Formula of Bleaching powder... Sol. Wings of bat and forelimbs of cattle have similar
origin and different functions. So are homologous
(1) CaSO4 (2) Na2CO3
organs.
(3) NaHCO3 (4) CaOCl2
31. What will be the genotypic ratio of the cross
Answer (4) between Rr and Rr ?
Sol. Concept (1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
27. During the cellular respiration, one molecule of (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
Glucose is first broken down into two molecules of...
Answer (3)
(1) Acetic acid (2) Pyruvic acid
Sol. Genotypic ratio: 1 : 2 : 1 (Homozygous round
(3) Lactic acid (4) Sulphuric acid :Heterozygous round :wrinkled)
Answer (2) Phenotypic ratio:3:1 (Round : Wrinkled)
32. Which is the key intermediate compound linking
Sol. C6H12O6   2C3H4O3
in cytoplasm
Glycolysis
glycolysis to Kreb's cycle ?
28. When two individuals are similar in external (1) Mallic acid
apperance but different in their genetic makeup,
(2) Acetyl-CoA
these are called...
(3) Pyruvic acid
(1) Allele
(4) Citric acid
(2) Dominant
Answer (2)
(3) Homozygous
Sol. Two molecules of pyruvate were produced form
(4) Heterozygous
glycolysis and converted into two molecules of acetyl
Answer (4) CoA.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

33. In the given figure, various tropic levels are shown in 37. The best way to dispose waste is ...
a pyramid. At which tropic level is maximum energy
(1) Making a paste of all domestic waste and
available ?
putting them in a river.

T4 (2) Separating bio-degradable and non-degradable

waste in bins before disposing.
T3 (3) Throw the waste on roadside.
(4) Dumping all domestic waste in litter bin.
T2
Answer (2)
T1 Sol. Seperating bio degradable and non-bio degradable
waste in bins before disposing is the best way to
(1) T4 (2) T2 dispose waste.
38. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
(3) T1 (4) T3
events of sexual reproduction in a flower ?
Answer (3) (1) Pollination, Fertilization, Seedling, Embryo.
Sol. T1 will have maximum energy and reduces as we (2) Seedling, Enmbryo,Fertilization, Pollination.
proceed to the next tropic level. (3) Pollination,Fertilization, Embryo,Seedling.
34. The part of the human body which is called as (4) Embryo,Seedling,Pollination,Fertilization.
Second Brain, is...
Answer (3)
(1) Small intestine (2) Large Intestine
Sol. Pollination  Fertilization  Embryo  Seedling.
(3) Stomach (4) Mouth
39. Conservation of wildlife includes...
Answer (1)
Sol. More number of neurons are connected to small (1) Preventing poaching of animals
Intestine as it is longer than other parts of the (2) Construction of National Parks, Sanctuaries.
alimentary canal.
(3) Ban on trading endangered species
35. Stock and Scion are attached , which type of
(4) All of the above
characters will come into the offspring ?
Answer (4)
(1) Characters of Scion
Sol. We can conserve wild life by preventing poaching of
(2) Characters of Stock
animals , by construction of national
(3) Special desired characters parks,sanctuaries, by banning on trading endagered
(4) Cannot expect. species.
Answer (1) 40. What is the breath rate in human beings ?
Sol. Scion(part of desired plant variety with superior (1) 5-6 times/minute
characters) is grafted on a matured stock (plant
(2) 15-18 times/minute.
with strong root system). Hence Progeny will have
characters of scion. (3) 40-45 times/minute
36. Which of the following is not a part of female (4) 70-80 times/minute.
reproductive system in human beings ? Answer (2)
(1) Ovary Sol. Adult Human breathes 15-18 times per minute.
(2) Uterus
41. Let x be real number such that x3 + 4x = 8, then the
(3) Vas deferens value of x7 + 64x2 is ...
(4) Fallopian Tube (1) 136 (2) 146
Answer (3) (3) 128 (4) 156
Sol. Vas deferens is the male reproductive part. Answer (3)
15
 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
Sol. x3 + 4x = 8 45. If a + b + c = 1, a2 + b2 + c2 = 9 and a3 + b3 + c3
1 1 1
x3  8  4x ... (1) = 1, then the value of   is ...
a b c
x7 + 64x2 = 1
(1) 4 (2)
 (x3)2.x + 64x2 2
 (8 – 4x)2x + 64x2 1
(3) 1 (4)
 (64 + 16x2 – 64x)x + 64x2 4
 64x + 16x3 – 64x2 + 64x2 Answer (3)

16(x3 + 4x) = 16(8) = 128 Sol. a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 –

ab – bc – ca)
42. If 102017 – 2017 is expressed as integer, what is the
sum of its digits?  1 – 3abc = 1 (9 – (ab +bc + ca)) ...(1)

(1) 18,144 (2) 17,468 (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)

(3) 16,466 (4) 18,564  ab + bc + ca = –4

Answer (1) From (1)

Sol. 102017 – 2017 1 – 3abc = (9 + 4)

 3abc = –12
 999...9
 7983
2013times abc = –4
 Their sum = 2013 × (9) + 7 + 9 + 8 + 3 1 1 1 ab  bc  ca 4
    1
= 18144 a b c abc 4
43. If P(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d, a, b, c, d  z 46. A finite sequence of 16 numbers such that ...
and P(1) = P(2) = P(3) = 0 (i) It reads the same from left to right as right to
Then the value of P(4) + P(0) will be ... left.
(1) –12 (ii) The sum of any 7 consecutive terms is –1.
(2) 24 (iii) The sum of any 11 consecutive terms is +1,
then the sum of 16 numbers in the sequence is
(3) 16
(1) 142 (2) 56
(4) 18
(3) 24 (4) 8
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. P(x) = (x – k)(x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3)
Sol. Let T1 + T2 + .... + T11 = 1
P(4) + P(0) = (4 – k)(3)(2)(1) + (–k)(–1)(–2)(–3)
T1 + T2 + .... + T7 = – 1
= 24 – 6k + 6k
= 24  T8  T9  T10  T11  2
44. If 39 + 3 12
+ + 3 15 3n
is a perfect cube (of an
 Sum of any 4 consecutive terms = 2
integer) where n  N, then find the value of n.
 Sum of 16 terms = 4 × 2 = 8
(1) 18
47. Compute
(2) 14
(3) 16 L.C.M. of (1,2,3,.....,200)
(4) 17 L.C.M. of (102,103,104,....,200)

Answer (2) (1) 101 (2) 106

Sol. 39(1 + 33 + 36 + 3n–9) (3) 184 (4) 176
When n = 14 Answer (1)
= 39(103) L.C.M. (1,2,3,.....,200)
Sol.  101
= (33 × 10)3 L.C.M.(102,103,104,....,200)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

1 2x 2x  10  2x  8
48. If x   5 , then 2 is equal to ..... Sol.  25
x 3x  5x  3 2
1 4x + 2 = 50
(1) 5 (2)
5 x = 12
1 52. The value of angle B will be in the given figure, if
(3) 3 (4)
3 A  50 , C  60 .
Answer (2)
1
Sol. x  5
x C A
2x 2 2 1 B
2
  
3x  5x  3 ⎛ 1⎞ 10 5
3⎜ x  ⎟  5
⎝ x⎠
(1) 60° (2) 50°
49. If every side of a triangle is doubled, then increase
in the area of the triangle is ..... (3) 70° (4) 80°
Answer (3)
(1) 100 2% (2) 200%
Sol. B = 70°
(3) 300% (4) 400%
53. If sin3 + cos3 = 0,
Answer (3)
Then  will be ....
Sol. A old  s(s  a)(s  b)(s  c) (1) 60° (2) 45°
Anew  s(s  a)(s  b)(s  c) (3) 0° (4) –45°
Answer (4)
2a  2b  2c ⎛abc⎞
s   2⎜ ⎟ Sol. tan3 = –1
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
  = –45°
s  2s
54. The measures of the perpendiculars drawn from a
A new  4A old point situated inside an equilateal triangle are 6 cm,
8 cm and 10 cm. The area of the triangle will be ....
Anew = 4Aold
(1) 256 3 (2) 192 3
A new  Aold
 Increasing area =  100 (3) 64 3 (4) 3 3
A old
Answer (2)
= 300%
50. When x3 + 3x2 – kx + 4 is divided by x – 2, the A
Sol.
remainder is 2k, then the value of k is ....
(1) 6 (2) –6
10 6
(3) 2 (4) –2 x x
Answer (1) O
Sol. f(2) = 2k
8
 8 + 12 – 2k + 4 = 2k B C
x
4k = 24
Ar(ABC) = Ar(AOB) + Ar(BOC) + Ar(AOC)
k=5
51. Number 50, 42, 35, 2x + 10, 2x – 8, 12, 11, 8 are written 3 2
x  12x
in desending order and their medain is 25 find x. 4
(1) 20 (2) 25 x  16 3
(3) 12 (4) 11 3
 Area = × 256 × 3 = 192 3
Answer (3) 4
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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
55. There is a rhombus of one side 17 cm and one 3
58. If  is in the first quadrant and cos   , then the
diagonal 30 cm. The area of the rhombus will be ... 5
(1) 60 cm2 (2) 240 cm2 5 tan   4 cosec 
valeu of will be ....
(3) 305 cm2 (4) 750 cm2 5 sec   4 cot 
Answer (2) 5 5
(1) (2)
16 34
D
Sol. 5 5
(3)  (4) 
17 34 16
15 Answer (1)
A C 3
x O Sol. cos  
5
4 5
 tan   , sec  
3 3
B
5 3
x = 8cm  cosec   , cot  
4 4
1
 Area of rhombus   16  30
5
4
 4
5
2 5 tan   4 cosec 
 3 4
= 240 cm2 5 sec   4 cot  5 3
5  4
56. The points A, B and C be on a circle in such a way 3 4
that  ABC = 52° and  ACB = 78°. The measure 5

of the angle subtended at the centre by the arc BC 16
will be ... 59. If log47 = x, then the valeu of log716 will be....
(1) 26° (2) 50°
(1) x2 (2) 2x
(3) 100° (4) 115°
2
Answer (3) (3) x (4)
x
A Answer (4)
Sol. 50° Sol. log47 = x
1
 log7 4 
O x
2
52° 78°  2log7 4 
B C x
2
log7 16 
x
BOC  2BAC  100 60. The sum of the integers from 1 to 100 that are
1 divisible by 2 or 5 is ...,
2
57. If x  7  4 3 , the value of x  will be .....
x2 (1) 2550 (2) 3050
(1) 146 (2) 148 (3) 3550 (4) 3600
(3) 194 (4) 196 Answer (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. Total sum = sum of multiples of 2 + sum of multiples
Sol. x  7  4 3 of 5 – sum of multiples of 2 & 5
 x 74 3 Sum of multiples of 2 = 2 + 4 + .... 100
2
1 ⎛ 1⎞ 50  51
 x2   ⎜x  ⎟ 2  2 = 2550
x 2
⎝ x⎠ 2
= 196 – 2 = 194 Sum of multiples of 5 = 5 + 10 + .... 100
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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

65. Which treaty recognised the independence of

20  21
 5 = 1050 thirteen colonies?
2
Sum of multiples of 10 = 10 + 20 + .... 100 (1) Treaty of Paris, 1783
(2) Treaty of Philadelphis, 1788
10  11
 10  = 550 (3) Treaty of Rome, 1791
2
(4) Treaty of Vienna, 1803
 Total sum = 2550 + 1050 – 550
Answer (1)
= 3050
66. Find out the incident that is not related to the
61. Find the wrong one about hockey. unification of Germany.
(1) Modern hockey evolved from trational games (1) Formation of Zollverein.
once current in Britain.
(2) The Schleswig-Hostein
(2) the first hockey club in India was started in (3) Civil war
Calcutta in 1885-1886.
(4) Ems Telegram
(3) Between 1928 and 1956, India won gold medals
in six consecutive Olympic Games. Answer (3)

(4) None of the above 67. Who are known as “Boers”?

(1) Dutch farmers settled in South Africa.
Answer (4)
(2) Norwegian farmers settled in China.
62. In which princely state, women of the shanar caste
were attacked by upper caste nairs for wearing a (3) Spanish farmers settled in Chile.
cloth across their upper bodies. (4) Portuguese farmers settled in Mexico.
(1) Jammu & Kashmir (2) Rajaputana Answer (1)
(3) Mysore (4) Travancore 68. “That Smallpox signalled God’s blessings for the
Answer (1) colonist, the natives were near all dead of small pox,
so as the lord had cleared our tittle to what we
Sol. ??
possess.” Which Massachusetts Bay colony
63. Which U.S. president called upon farmers “plant Governor wrote this to the England Government?
more wheat, wheat will win the war”? (1) George Popham (2) Ralegh Gilbert
(1) Woodrow Wilson (2) Franklin Roosevelt (3) John Winthorp (4) William Bradfort
(3) James Munroe (4) Harry S.Truman Answer (3)
Answer (1) 69. The main reason for Gandhiji calling off Disobedience
Sol. Woodrow Wilson Movement is ...
64. Match the followiing. (1) Chauri chaura incident.

Pastoralists State (2) Poona pact.

(1) Monpas (i) Gujarat (3) Gandhi - Irwin pact.

(2) Dhangars (ii) Rajasthan (4) Arrival of Simon

(3) Raikas (iii) Maharashtra Answer (3)

(4) Maldharis (iv) Arunachal Pradesh. 70. Which among the following is a main draw back in
formation of Simon commission?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) The Commission did not have a single Indian
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) member.
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) The Commission constituted of Military officers.
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) It was more expensive.
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) All the above.
Answer (3) Answer (4)
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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
71. The Royal Indian Navy Revolt took place in the year 77. In Which plain region, Dudhwa National Park is
(1) 1942 (2) 1944 located?
(1) Bhabar (2) Bhangar
(3) 1946 (4) 1940
(3) Khader (4) Terai
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
72. We consider it natural that these two worlds remian
distinct what the man gives in courage on the battle 78. Match the Following.
field, the gives in eternal self sacrifies, in eternal pain A B
and suffering. Evey child that women bring to the (a) Lake Sambhar (i) Largest fresh
world is a battle, a battle waged for the existence of
her people.” Who said this addressing women? water lake in India.
(b) Lake Wular (ii) Back waters of
(1) Otto von Bismarck (2) Adolf Hitler
Bhakra Nangal Project
(3) Benito Mussolini (4) General Franco
(c) Guru Gobind Sagar (iii) Water is used for
Answer (3)
producing salt
73. Who founded the Vietnamese Communist party?
(d) Ox-bow Lakes (iv) Formed by
(1) Chinh Phu Ngam Meandering river.
(2) Gia Huan Ca (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Ho Chi Minh (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) Bao Dai (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Answer (3) (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
74. Name of England poet, who organised funds and (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
later went to fight the war for the independence of Answer (4)
Greece, which was a part of Ottoman empire?
79. Arrange the onset of south west monsoons in an
(1) Emily Bronte (2) Lord Byron order, where they appear first?
(3) John Clare (4) Rudyard Kipling (1) Mangalore, Daman, Sura, Vadodara.
Answer (2) (2) Daman, Surat, Mangalore, Vadodara.
75. Match the Following (3) Mangalore, Surat, Daman, Vadodara.
(A) (B) (4) Vadodara, Daman, Mangalore, Surat.
(1) Mechanical Repair (i) James Hargreaves Answer (1)
(2) Spinning Jenney (ii) Cyrus Mc Cormick 80. The roots of which plants are submerged under
water?
(3) First modern Roads (iii) Brindley
(1) Tropical evergreen forests.
(4) Modern Canals (iv) John Loudon Mc Adam
(2) Deciduous forests.
a b c d
(3) Thorny forests.
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) Mangroove forests.
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer (4)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
81. In India, most migrations have been from rural to
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) urban areas because of the push factor in rural
Answer (4) areas. Which among these is not a push factor?
76. In which island of Lakshadweep, a bird sanctuary is (1) Unemployment
located? (2) Adverse conditions of poverty
(1) Andrott island (2) Pitti island (3) Seasonal employment
(3) Minicoy island (4) Agatti island (4) Better living conditions.
Answer (2) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)

82. Consider the following statements about population. 88. In which of the following states is / are black soil
(a) Internal migration does not change the size of the found?
population. (1) Maharashtra
(b) Migration among women is mainly due to (2) Madhya Pradesh
marriages.
(3) Telangana
(c) The government of India initiated the
comprehensive family planning programme in (4) All of the above.
1952. Answer (4)
(d) the highest annual growth rate was recorded in
89. Find out the writings which is not related to
the decade 1981.
conservation of resources?
Which of the statements given above is /are correct.
(1) Small is beautiful
(1) a only. (2) a and b.
(2) Our common future
(3) a,b,c (4) a, b, c, d
(3) The silent spring
Answer (4)
83. Coriolis force is maximum at .. (4) None of the above

(1) the Equator Answer (4)

(2) the Tropics. 90. Find out the wrong one about Tiger Reserves of India.
(3) the Arctic and Antarctic Circles. (1) Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam
(4) the Poles. (2) Bandhavagarh National Park -Maharashtra
Answer (4)
(3) Periyar National Park - Kerala
84. North South Corridor Project does not pass
(4) Corbett National Park - Uttaranchal.
through...
(1) Jhansi (2) Nizamabad Answer (2)

(3) Bangalore (4) Indore 91. Which of the following statements is wrong about
today’s world?
Answer (4)
85. Which of these minerals is used in hardening of (1) The relationship between different countries has
steel? become more democratic than ever before.

(1) Cooking coal (2) Lime stone (2) In more and more countries, rulers are being
elected by the people.
(3) Manganese (4) Mica
Answer (3) (3) There are no military rulers in the world.

86. Find the wrong one about maize crop. (4) None of the above.

(1) Maize is Kharif crop but some states like Bihar Answer (3)
grow it in Rabi also. 92. Which of the following statements is not a character
(2) It is used both as food and fodder. of democratic elections?
(3) Major maize producing states are Karnataka and (1) Everyone should have one vote and every vote
Uttar Pradesh. should have qual value.
(4) Maize is the third most important food crop with (2) Elections must be held regularly after every few
respect to area and production. years.
Answer (4)
(3) The candidate preferred by the people should get
87. Salal project is located on river... elected.
(1) Chenab (2) Jhelum (4) The contestant can canvas on the grounds of
(3) Beas (4) Ghagra caste
Answer (1) Answer (4)
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 NTSE (S-I) 2018-19 (Code-E)
93. Match the following. 97. Which of the following statements is wrong about
A B food grains in India?

(a) Founder of (i) Shyam Prasad (1) The production of the food graisn has increased
five times over the last five decades.
Republican Mukherjee.
(2) Today a farmer is able to produce nearly 800
party of Indian
kgs of food grains per acre of cultivable land.
(b) Founder president (ii) Jaipal Singh
(3) A large stock of food grains has also built up
of Bharatiya Jana with the government through Central
Sangh. Warehousing Corporation.

(c) Founder of the (iii) B.R.Ambedkar (4) None of the above.

Swatantra party. Answer (3)

(d) Founder of (iv) K.M.Munshi. 98. A person is said to be over weight if the body mass
index is more than...
Jharkand party.
(1) 18 (2) 22
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) 16 (4) 25
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer (4)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
99. Which of the following neighbouring countries has
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
better performance in terms of expected years of
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) schooling than India?
Answer (4) (1) Bangladesh
94. Who was the president of the Constituent Assembly? (2) Srilanka
(1) Pt.Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Dr.Rajendra Prasad (3) Pakistan
(3) Dr.BR Ambedkar (4) K.M.Munshi.
(4) All the above
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
95. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum strength of
100. Find out the wrong statement.
(1) 250 (2) 275
(1) Employment in the service sector has not
(3) 300 (4) 325 increased to the same extent as production.
Answer (1) (2) Most of the workers in the organised sector
96. Largest income under indirect taxes is obtained enjoy the job security
from.. (3) The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary
(1) Sales Tax (2) Excise Tax sectors are interdependent.
(3) Customs Duty (4) Service Tax (4) None of the above.
Answer (1) Answer (4)

  

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