West Bengal

Questions & Solutions

for
NTSE (Stage-I) 2018-19

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions.

1. Total number of questions are 200 (100 Q. MAT & 100 Q. SAT) for this paper. All questions carry one mark each.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. For each question there are four options given in question paper. Check for the correct answer and bubble correct
option from four circles given in answer sheet by Black/Blue pen. Please do not write any answers on question
papers.
4. Start answering from first question one after the other till last question.
5. If you do not know the answer of any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. Time
permitting you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
6. Utilize the allotted time for solving the questions in best possible way. The rough work is to be done in the box given
under each page.
 MAT:- PART-I : MENTAL ABILITY TEST
Directions : (Q1 to Q10) : In the Number series given
below, one Number is missing. Each series is followed by
five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is
the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the
"Instructions".
1. 4, 18, 48, 100, .....
(1) 180 (2) 196
(3) 204 (4) 160
(5) 192
Answer (1)
Sol. 1(22), 2(32), 3(42), 4(52), 5(62) = 180
2. 8, 15,......, 53, 102, 199
(1) 30 (2) 23
(3) 29 (4) 31
(5) 28
Answer (5)
Sol. x 2-1 x2-2 x 2-3 x2-4 x 2-5

8, 15, 28 53 102 199

3. 4, 9, 25, 49,.....,169, 289, 361
(1) 36 (2) 64
(3) 121 (4) 100
(5) 73
Answer (3)
Sol. 22, 32, 52, 72, 112 , 132, 172, 192

121
4. 430, 345, 270, 205,......
(1) 155 (2) 150
(3) 175 (4) 155
(5) 120
Answer (2)
Sol. -85 -75 -65 -55
430, 345, 270, 205, 150
5. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27,.....,64
(1) 36 (2) 16
(3) 25 (4) 49
(5) 32
Answer (2)
2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3
Sol. 1,1,2,2,3 ,3,4,4

16
6. 25, 25, 5, 21, 18, 5, 14,.....
(1) 11, 5 (2) 11, 8
(3) 10, 7 (4) 5, 10
(5) 10, 5
Answer (1)
-7 -7
Sol. 28, 25, 5 21, 18, 5 14, 11 5
-7 -7
7. 13, 29, 15, 26, 17, 23, 19,
(1) 20, 21 (2) 21, 23
(3) 22, 20 (4) 21, 17
(5) 25, 27
Answer (1)
-3 -3 -3
Sol. 13, 29, 15, 26, 17, 23, 19, 20, 21
+2 +2 +2 +2
 +10 +10
Sol. 70, 71, 76, 70, 81, 86, 70, 91, 96
+10 +10
9. 1, 20, 58, .....,191
(1) 116 (2) 115
(3) 105 (4) 111
(5) 110
Answer (2)
Sol.
+19 +38 +57 +76
1, 20, 58, 115,191
10. 36, 34, 30, 28, 24,.....
(1) 26 (2) 22
(3) 20 (4) 25
(5) 23
Answer (2)
36, 34, 30, 28, 24, 22
Sol.
-2 -4 -2 -4 -2
Directions: (Q11 to Q15): Questions have become wrong
due to wrong order of signs. Choose the correct order of
signs from the five alternatives given under each question.
11. 5  0  3  5  20
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 
Answer (2)
Sol. 5  0  3  5  20
12. 3  3  6  6  2  12
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 
Answer (4)
Sol. 3  3  6  6  2  12
13. 20  7  4  8
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 
Answer (1)
Sol. 20  7  4  8

14. 20  4  6  11
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 
Answer (4)
Sol. 20  4  6  11

15. 6  5  6  36
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 
Answer (1 or 5)
Sol. 6+5 × 6 = 36, 6 × 5 + 6 = 36
16. 74  2 5
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 
Answer (5)
Sol. 7  4  2  5

17. 8  
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 

Answer (5)
Sol. 8  4  7  5
 18. 11 2  10  9
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 
Answer (2)
Sol. 11  2  10  9

19. 5  4  7  13
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
(5) 
Answer (3)
Sol. 5  4  7  13

20. 16  4  2  8
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4)  
(5) 
Answer (1)
Sol. 16  4  2  8
Directions: (Q21 to Q25): In the following figure, small
square represents the persons who know English, Triangle
to those who know Urdu, big sqaure to those who know
Telugu and circle to those who know Hindi.

12 English
Urdu
4 3 5
6 7 2
8 11
9 Hindi

10 Telugu

21. How many persons can speak English and hindi

both, the language only?
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 13 (4) 19
(5) 8
Answer (2)
22. How many persons can speak Urdu and Telugu
both?
(1) 13 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 9
(5) 17
Answer (1)
23. How many persons an speak only Hindi?
(1) 10 (2) 4
(3) 12 (4) 19
(5) 11
Answer (5)
24. How many persons can speak English, Hindi and
Telugu?
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 7 (4) 8
(5) 3
Answer (2)
25. How many persons can speak Hindi and Urdu only?
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4) 3
(5) 10
Answer (4)
Directions: (Q26 to Q30): In these questions, number are
placed on the basis of some rules. One place is vacant
which is indicated as?. Find out the correct alternative to
replace the question mark.

4 5 4 6 5 7
26. 25 ? 35
5 6 0
(1) 30 (2) 36
(3) 24 (4) 28
(5) 35
Answer (1)
Sol. 4  5  5  25
 5  7  0  35
4  6  6  30

5 6 7
27. 7 20 3 8 30 6 6 ? 5

5 3 3

(1) 57 (2) 27
(3) 21 (4) 51
(5) 40
Answer (2)
Sol. (7  5)  (3  5)  20

(8  6)  (3  6)  30

(6  7)  (3  5)  27
28. 1 3
3

4 ? 4 2 13 3 4 32 5

7 4
3
(1) 24 (2) 17
(3) 25 (4) 22
(5) 16
Answer (3)

Sol. (1 7)  (2  3)  13

(3  4)  (4  5)  32

(3  3)  (4  4)  25
29. 25 21 15 7 11 9

184 176 ?

(1) 30 (2) 202

(3) 20 (4) 40
(5) 50
Answer (4)

Sol. (25  21)(25  21)  184

(15  7)(15  7)  176

(11  9)(11  9)  40
30. 6 4 2
4 3
9 ? 3
(1) 6 (2) 12
(3) 7 (4) 10
(5) 5
Answer (1)
Sol. 6 - 2 = 4
7-4=3
9-3=6
Directions: (Q31 to Q40): (Problem deals with is
Relationship)
31. A and B is a married couple. X and Y are brothers.
X is the brother of A. How is Y related to B?
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
(3) Son (4) Cousin
Answer (2)

Sol. y+x+A B
32. If B's mother was A's mother's daughter, how was A
related to B?
(1) Maternal uncle (2) Father
(3) Brother (4) Sister
Answer (1)

Sol.
A+
B
33. A and B are brothers, C and D are sister. A's son is
D's brother. How is B related to C?
(1) Father (2) Mother
(3) Uncle (4) Aunt
Answer (3)
Sol.
A+B

+D+C
34. If A is the brother of the son of B's son. How is A
related B?
(1) Son (2) Brother
(3) Cousin (4) Grandson
Answer (4)
B

Sol.

+A
35. B is the brother of C; A is sister of B; E is the
brother of D; D is the daughter of C. Who are the
cousins of B?
(1) C and A (2) A and E
(3) B and E (4) D and E
Answer (Bonus)
Sol.
A+B+C

D+E
36. If Ajit is the brother of the son of Sethi's son, what
is the relationship between Ajit and Sethi?
(1) Cousin (2) Grandson
(3) Brother (4) Nephew
Answer (2)
Sol.
S

A+
37. Pointing to a man, Rohit said, "His son is my son's
uncle". How is the man related to Rohit?
(1) Brother (2) Uncle
(3) Father (4) Grand-father
Answer (3)

Sol. M
+R

38. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only

brother is the brother of my wife". how is the lady
related to the man?
(1) Maternal aunt (2) Mother-in-law
(3) Mother's sister (4) Sister of fatehr-in-law
Answer (4)
Sol.
L+
+ M
39. Q's mother is sister of P and daugher of M. S is
daughter of P and sister if T. How is M related to T?
(1) Father
(2) Grand mother
(3) Grand fatehr
(4) Either Grand mother or Grand fatehr.
Answer (4)
Sol.
M
+ P+
Q S +T
40. Anu told Mani, "The girl met yesterday at the beach
was the youngest daughter of the brother-in-law of
my friend's mother." How is girl related to Anu's
friend?
(1) Cousin (2) Niece
(3) Aunt (4) Friend
Answer (1)

+
Sol.

Friend of A
Directions: (Q31 to Q40): Choose alternative as the
answer (Series of small latters).
41. bc - b - c - b - ccb
(1) cbcb (2) bbcb
(3) cbbc (4) bcbc
Answer (1)
Sol. bccb bccb bccb
 42. a - c - abb - a - bc - bc - ab
(1) cbcaaa (2) bcccab
(3) bccaac (4) acbabc
Answer (3)
Sol. abcc
cc a c aabc abcc ab
43. a - ba - cbaac - aa - ba
(1) ccbb (2) cabc
(3) cbcb (4) bbcc
Answer (2)

Sol. acba acba acba acba

44. aaa - bb - aab - baaa - bb
(1) abab (2) bbaa
(3) babb (4) baab
Answer (3)

Sol. aaa bbb aaa bbb aaa bbb

45. - bam - amb - m - a - bam
(1) mbabm (2) abmab
(3) mabma (4) ambbm
Answer (1)
Sol. mba mba mba mba mba m
46. - - abb - abba - - ba
(1) bbaab (2) abbba
(3) baaaa (4) babab
Answer (1)
Sol. bba | bbaa| bbaa| bba |
47. - b - a - ba - b - abab - a
(1) ababab (2) baabba
(3) bbaabb (4) bababa
Answer (1)
Sol. a b b a a b a b aababba
48. b - ba - - bb - - aa - bba
(1) ababab (2) bababa
(3) baabab (4) abbaba
Answer (3)
Sol. b b b a a a b b b a a a bb
49. - a - bb - ba - bb - - aab
(1) abbaba (2) aabbb
(3) bbabba (4) baaaab
Answer (4)

Sol. baabbabaabbabaab
50. - b - a - bb - - ab - bbaa
(1) abaaba (2) ababab
(3) babbab (4) bbaabb
Answer (3)

Sol. bb ab ba bb
51. If Z = 2197 and R = 729. How would J be written in
that code ?
(1) 216 (2) 124
(3) 512 (4) 125
Answer (4)
3 3
 26   10 
Sol. Z    = 2197, J    = 125
 2   2 
52. If PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 and RISK is coded
as 2398, how is RIVETS coded ?
(1) 234679 (2) 243769
(3) 234769 (4) 234976
Answer (3)
Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
Eg. P = 1
R=2
I=3
V=4
A=5
T=6
E=7

53. In a certain code, LAKSHMI is coded as 32. How

can SHIVA be coded ?
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 19 (4) 20
Answer (3)
Number of letters +1
2

Sol. =32
2
 Shiva +1
2

 18
2
54. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as
NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code ?
(1) CPNCBX (2) CPNCBZ
(3) CPOCBZ (4) CQOCBZ
Answer (2)
Sol. BOMBAY
CPNCBZ
B+1=C
O+1=P
M+1=N
B+1=C
A+1=B
Y+1=Z
55. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, how can
SUCCESS be coded ?
(1) VXEEIVV (2) VXFFHVV
(3) VYEEHVV (4) VYFFIVV
 Answer (2)
Sol. SUCCESS
VXFFHVV
Adding +3 to each letter

56. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE is

written as 785291, how is GREECE coded.?
(1) 381171 (2) 381191
(3) 832252 (4) 835545
Answer (2)
Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
Eg. E = 1
N=2
G=3
L=4
A=5
N=2
D=6
II. Questions (57 to 60)
The number in each question below is to be codified
in the following code.

Digit 7 2 1 5 3 9 8 6 4

Letter W L M S I ND J B

57. 184632
(1) MDJBSI (2) MDJBIL
(3) MDJBWL (4) MDBJIL
Answer (4)
Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
58. 879341
(1) DWNIBS (2) DWNBIM
(3) DWNIBM (4) NDWBIM
Answer (3)
Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
59. 64928
(1) JBNLD (2) JBLND
(3) BJNLD (4) DBNLS
Answer (1)
Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters
60. 23549
(1) LISBJ (2) LISBN
(3) LSINB (4) LSIMW
Answer (2)
Sol. Take corresponding numbers of given letters

Questions (61 to 70) : Find the correct alternatives.

61. AG : IO :: EK : ...
(1) LR (2) MS
(3) PV (4) SY
Answer (2)

+8 +8

EK : MS
Sol. AG : IO

+8 +8
62. ACE : FHJ :: OQS :
(1) PRT (2) RTU
(3) TVX (4) UWY
Answer (3)
 +5 +5

Sol. ACE : FHJ OQS : TVX

+5 +5 +5 +5
63. ACEG : DFHJ :: QSUW :
(1) KMND (2) MNPR
(3) TQST (4) TVXZ
Answer (4)
+3 +3 +3 +3

Sol. ACEG : DFHJ QSUW : TVXZ

+3 +3 +3 +3
64. EGIK : FILO :: FHJL :
(1) GHMP (2) GMJP
(3) GJMP (4) JGPM
Answer (3)
+1 +3 +1 +3

Sol. EG IK : F I LO FHJL : G JMP

+2 +4 +2 +4
65. CAT : DDY :: BIG : ...
(1) CLL (2) CLM
(3) CML (4) CEP
Answer (1)
+1 +1

Sol. CAT : DDY B IG : CLL

+3 +5 +3 +5
66. ODOMETER : MILEAGE :: COMPASS : ...
(1) SPEED (2) HIKING
(3) NEEDLE (4) DIRECTION
Answer (4)
Sol. COMPASS for DIRECTION
67. MARATHON : RACE :: HIBERNATION :
(1) WINTER (2) BEAR
(3) DREAM (4) SLEEP
Answer (4)
Sol. MARTHANA is LONG RACE
HIBERNATION is LONGSLEEP
68. CUP : COFFEE :: BOWL :
(1) DISH (2) SOUP
(3) SPOON (4) FOOD
Answer (2)
Sol. CUP is for COFFEE
BOWL is for SOUP
69. REPTILE : LIZARD :: FLOWER :
(1) PETAL (2) STEM
(3) DAISY (4) ALLIGATOR
Answer (3)
Sol. LIZARD is a type of REPTILE
DAISY is a type of FLOWER
70. PLAY : ACTOR :: CONCERT :
(1) SYMPHONY (2) MUSICIAN
(3) PIANO (4) PERCUSSION
Answer (2)
Sol. An ACTOR performes in PLAY
A MUCISIAN performs at a CONCERT
Directions : (Q71 to Q80) : In each of the following
questions figures (A) and (B) have a definite relationship,
find out from (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The figure that has
a similar relationship with figure (C).
71.

Answer (4, 5)
72.

Answer (2)
73.

Answer (3)
74.

Answer (1)
Sol. Rotate figure-A anti-clockwise to get figure - B same
way Rotate Figure-C anticlock wise to get figure - D

75.

Answer (4)

Sol. Line is change to curve in figure A to B same way

C to D

76.

Answer (2)
Sol. = shifting half a side in anti-clockwise same way #
is moving half side anti-clockwise
77.

Answer (1)
Sol. Arc is changing to circle same way line is changing
to square
78.

Answer (4)
Sol. Rotate figure A anti-clockwise and take water image.
79.

Answer (2)
Sol. Element shifts one side in anti-clockwise direction

80.

Answer (5)
Directions : (Q81 to Q90) : Out of the five figures (1),(2), (3), (4)
and (5) given in each problem, four are similar in a certain way. Choose
the figure which is different from the other figures.
81.

Answer (3)
Sol. Except Option -3, rest all are common

82.

Answer (2)
Sol. Except square rest all figures are in equal in size.

83.

Answer (1)
Sol. Except Option - 1, rest all curves are towards the
given image.

84.

Answer (3)
Sol. Except Option - 3 rest all figures are semi-circles

85.
86.

Answer (4)
Sol. Except Option - 5 rest all figures have 3 lines
87.

Answer (3)
Sol.
88.

Answer (4)
Sol. Except Option - 4 rest all are opposite in direction
90.

Answer (3)
Sol. Except Option - 3 rest all figures circles are
opposite to each other
Directions :
Questions (91 to 100) :
Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E
called the problem figures; followed by five alternatives marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called
the answer figures. Select a figure which will continue the same series established by
the five problem figures.
91.
Answer (4)
Sol. Shifiting one side anti-clockwise direction

92.

Answer (1)
Sol. = symbol shifts anti-clockwise one side, one and half
side respectively.
93.

Answer (3)
Sol. Rotate the figure in anti-clockwise direction and
adding one line
94.

Answer (4 or 5)

Answer (4)
Sol. Shifiting one side anti-clockwise direction
95.

Answer (3)
Sol. Shaded circle shifts one side clockwise direction, but
because square position it shifts one more side

96.

Answer (2)
Sol. Dot shifts one and half side anti-clockwise direction
97.

Answer (2)
98.
Answer (1)
Sol. Dot is in semicircle
99.

Answer (4)
100.

Answer (2)
 SAT:- PART-II: SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
1. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20
cm.What is its focal length ?
(1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm
(3) 25 cm (4) None
Answer (1)

R 20
Sol. f    10 cm
2 2
2. There is an object infront of convex mirror at a
distance of 5 cm. If its focal length is 10 cm, then
its magnification is ...
(1) 0.44 cm (2) 0.66 cm
(3) 0.88 cm (4) None
Answer (4)

Sol. u  5 cm

f  10 cm

f 10 10
m    0.666
f  u 10  5 15
magnification has no units

3. The mirror used by dentists is ...

(1) Convex (2) Plane
(3) Concave (4) None
Answer (3)
Sol. Mirror used by dentist is concave mirror which
provides magnified, upright images
4. The lens maker's formula is ...

1 1 1
(1) n   f  1  R  R 
 1 2

1 1 1
(2) R   n  1  f  f 
 1 2
 1 1 1
(3) f   n  1  R  R 
 1 2

(4) None
Answer (3)
Sol. From Len's maker's formula

1 1 1
  n  1   
f  R1 R2 

5. Focal length of the plano-convex lens is..., when its

radius of curvature of the surface is R and n is the
refractive index of the lens.

R
(1) f  R (2) f 
2

R  n  1
(3) f   n  1 (4) f 
R
Answer (3)

1 1 1
Sol. f   n  1  R  R 
 1 2

R1  R2  R

1 1
  n  1
f R
R
f 
1

6. The ray passing through the ... of the lens is not

deviated.
(1) Focus (2) Optic centre
(3) Centre of curvature (4) None
Answer (2)
Sol. Optic centre
7. The size of an object as perceived by an eye
depends primarily on...
(1) actual size of the object
(2) distance of the object from the eye
(3) aperture of the pupil.
(4) size of the image formed on the retina.

Answer (4)
Sol. Conceptual
8. The process of re-emission of absorbed light in all
directions with different intensities by the atom or
molecule is called..
(1) Scattering of light
(2) Dispersion of light
(3) Reflection of light
(4) Refraction of light
Answer (1)
Sol. Definition of Scattering of light.
9. The value of 1 KWH in Joules is...
(1) 2.6 106 Joules (2) 1.6 106 Joules

(3) 3.6 106 Joules (4) None

Answer (3)
Sol. 1 KWH  103 W x 3600 s

 3600 103 Ws

 3.6 106 J
10. If the resistance of your body is 100000  , what
would be the current that flows in your body when
you touch the terminasl of a 12V battery ?

(1) 10 10 5 A (2) 14 10 5 A

(3) 12 10 5 A (4) None

Answer (3)
Sol. V  12 V
 V 12
I   12  105 A
R 105
11. Which of the following converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy ?
(1) Motor (2) Battery
(3) Generator (4) Switch
Answer (1)
Sol. Conceptual
12. The S.I. unit of magnetic field induction is...
(1) Weber / m 2 (2) Tesla

(3) Weber  m 2 (4) Weber

Answer (2)
Sol. Conceptual
13. If an object is moving with constant velocity, then the motion is ....
(1) Speed (2) Uniform acceleration (3) Uniform motion
(4) Non-uniform motion
Answer (3)
Sol. Conceptual
14. Change of solid into vapour without changing into
liquid is known as...
(1) Evaporation (2) Vapourisation
(3) Sublimation (4) Boiling
Answer (3)
Sol. The process of transformation of solid directly to gas
is sublimation

15. If water turns into ice at a pressure of atmosphere at 0°C,then the

temperature of this system in this process
(1) Decreases (2) Increases
(3) Remains same (4) None
Answer (3)
Sol. Phase transformation take place at constant
temperature.So temperature remains same.
16. The physical mixtures of two substances is called..
(1) Mixture (2) Compound
(3) Colloid (4) Suspension
Answer (1)
Sol. Concept
17. The phenomenon of scattering of a visible light by the
particle of a colloid is known as...
(1) Tyndall effect (2) Chromatography
(3) Sublimation (4) Reflection
Answer (1)
Sol. Concept
18. Chemical formula of Aluminium Sulphate is...
(1) Al2SO4 (2) (Al2)2(SO4)3
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) AlSO4
Answer (3)

Al3 SO24

Al SO4
Sol. Symbol
Valency 3 2
=Al (SO4)
2 3
19. The other name of Tungsten...
(1) Natrium (2) Kalium
(3) Wolfram (4) Cuprum
Answer (3)
Sol. Concept
20. Hydraulic Jack works on the principle of...
(1) Archimedes principle (2) Buoyancy
(3) Pascal's priniciple (4) Air pressure.
Answer (3)
Sol. Concept
21. The electronic configuration of Sodium is...
 (1) 2,8 (2) 8,2,1
(3) 2,1,8 (4) 2,8,1
Answer (4)
Sol. Concept

22. Deuterium and Tritium are the isotopes of...

(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen
(3) Hydrogen (4) Helium
Answer (3)
Sol. Concept
23. Colour of Silver bromide is...
(1) Red (2) Silver
(3) Light yellow (4) Blue
Answer (3)
Sol. Concept
24. Which one of the following types of medicines is
used for treating indigestion?
(1) Antibiotic (2) Analgesic
(3) Antacid (4) Antiseptic
Answer (3)
Sol. Concept
25. Acid rain occurs,when pH value of rain water is less
than...
(1) 6.5 (2) 5.6
(3) 7.2 (4) 2.7
Answer (2)
Sol. Concept
26. Formula of Bleaching powder...
(1) CaSO4 (2) Na2CO3
(3) NaHCO3 (4) CaOCl2
Answer (4)
Sol.Concept
Sol. C6H12O6   2C3H4O3
in cytoplasm
Glycolysis

28. When two individuals are similar in external

apperance but different in their genetic makeup,
these are called...
(1) Allele
(2) Dominant
(3) Homozygous
(4) Heterozygous
Answer (4)
Sol. When individuals are similar in external apperance
(phenotype) but different in genetic
makeup(genotype), these are called Heterozygous.

example: Tt Tall  & TT Tall 

 
Heterozygous Homozygous
tall phenotype tall phenotype

29. Villi present on the inner lining of the intestinal wall...

(1) secretes enzymes for digestion
(2) secretes hormones.
(3) decreases the surface area for absorption
(4) increases the surface area for absorption
Answer (4)
Sol. Villi are the finger like projections which are meant
for increasing the area of absorption in intestine.
30. Which of the following are not examples of
analogous structures ?
(1) Wings of bat and butterfly.
(2) Wings of bat and forelimbs of cattle.
(3) Thorn and spine
(4) Tendril of Lathyranthus and tendril of Gloriosa.
Answer (2)
Sol. Wings of bat and forelimbs of cattle have similar origin and
different functions. So are homologous organs.
31. What will be the genotypic ratio of the cross
between Rr and Rr ?
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
Answer (3)
Sol. Genotypic ratio: 1 : 2 : 1 (Homozygous round
:Heterozygous round :wrinkled)
Phenotypic ratio:3:1 (Round : Wrinkled)
32. Which is the key intermediate compound linking
glycolysis to Kreb's cycle ?
(1) Mallic acid
(2) Acetyl-CoA
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Citric acid
Answer (2)
Sol. Two molecules of pyruvate were produced form
glycolysis and converted into two molecules of acetyl
CoA.

33. In the given figure, various tropic levels are shown in

a pyramid. At which tropic level is maximum energy
available ?

T4

T3

T2

T1

(1) T4 (2) T2

(3) T1 (4) T3

Answer (3)

Sol. T1 will have maximum energy and reduces as we

proceed to the next tropic level.
34. The part of the human body which is called as
Second Brain, is...
(1) Small intestine (2) Large Intestine
(3) Stomach (4) Mouth
Answer (1)
Sol. More number of neurons are connected to small Intestine as
it is longer than other parts of the alimentary canal.

35. Stock and Scion are attached , which type of

characters will come into the offspring ?
(1) Characters of Scion
(2) Characters of Stock
(3) Special desired characters
(4) Cannot expect.
Answer (1)
Sol. Scion(part of desired plant variety with superior characters)
is grafted on a matured stock (plant with strong root
system). Hence Progeny will have characters of scion.

36. Which of the following is not a part of female

reproductive system in human beings ?
(1) Ovary
(2) Uterus
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Fallopian Tube
Answer (3)
Sol. Vas deferens is the male reproductive part.

37. The best way to dispose waste is ...

(1) Making a paste of all domestic waste and
putting them in a river.
(2) Separating bio-degradable and non-degradable
waste in bins before disposing.
(3) Throw the waste on roadside.
(4) Dumping all domestic waste in litter bin.
Answer (2)
Sol. Seperating bio degradable and non-bio degradable
waste in bins before disposing is the best way to
dispose waste.
38. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
events of sexual reproduction in a flower ?
(1) Pollination, Fertilization, Seedling, Embryo.
(2) Seedling, Enmbryo,Fertilization, Pollination.
(3) Pollination,Fertilization, Embryo,Seedling.
(4) Embryo,Seedling,Pollination,Fertilization.
Answer (3)
Sol. Pollination  Fertilization  Embryo  Seedling.
39. Conservation of wildlife includes...
(1) Preventing poaching of animals
(2) Construction of National Parks, Sanctuaries.
(3) Ban on trading endangered species
(4) All of the above
Answer (4)
Sol. We can conserve wild life by preventing poaching of
animals , by construction of national
parks,sanctuaries, by banning on trading endagered species.

40. What is the breath rate in human beings ?

(1) 5-6 times/minute
(2) 15-18 times/minute.
(3) 40-45 times/minute
(4) 70-80 times/minute.
Answer (2)
Sol. Adult Human breathes 15-18 times per minute.
41. Let x be real number such that x3 + 4x = 8, then the
value of x7 + 64x2 is ...
(1) 136 (2) 146
(3) 128 (4) 156
Answer (3)
Sol. x3 + 4x = 8

x3  8  4x ... (1)
x7 + 64x2 =
 (x3)2.x + 64x2
 (8 – 4x)2x + 64x2
 (64 + 16x2 – 64x)x + 64x2
 64x + 16x3 – 64x2 + 64x2
16(x3 + 4x) = 16(8) = 128
42. If 102017 – 2017 is expressed as integer, what is the sum of its digits?
(1) 18,144 (2) 17,468 (3) 16,466 (4) 18,564
Answer (1)
Sol. 102017 – 2017
 999...
 9 7983
2013times

 Their sum = 2013 × (9) + 7 + 9 + 8 + 3

= 18144
43. If P(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d, a, b, c, d  z
and P(1) = P(2) = P(3) = 0
Then the value of P(4) + P(0) will be ...
(1) –12
(2) 24
(3) 16
(4) 18
Answer (2)
Sol. P(x) = (x – k)(x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3)
P(4) + P(0) = (4 – k)(3)(2)(1) + (–k)(–1)(–2)(–3)
= 24 – 6k + 6k
= 24
44. If 3 9 + 3 12 + 3 15 + 3 n is a perfect cube (of an
integer) where n  N, then find the value of n.
(1) 18
(2) 14
(3) 16
(4) 17
Answer (2)
Sol. 39(1 + 33 + 36 + 3n–9)
When n = 14
= 39(103)
= (33 × 10)3
45. If a + b + c = 1, a2 + b2 + c2 = 9 and a3 + b3 + c3
1 1 1
= 1, then the value of   is ...
a b c
1
(1) 4 (2)
2
1
(3) 1 (4)
4
Answer (3)
Sol. a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 –
ab – bc – ca)
 1 – 3abc = 1 (9 – (ab +bc + ca)) ...(1)
(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
 ab + bc + ca = –4
From (1)
1 – 3abc = (9 + 4)
 3abc = –12
abc = –4
1 1 ab  bc  ca 4
    1
a b c abc 4
46. A finite sequence of 16 numbers such that ...
(i) It reads the same from left to right as right to
 left.
(ii) The sum of any 7 consecutive terms is –1.
(iii) The sum of any 11 consecutive terms is +1,
then the sum of 16 numbers in the sequence is
(1) 142 (2) 56
(3) 24 (4) 8
Answer (4)
Sol. Let T1 + T2 + .... + T11 = 1
T1 + T2 + .... + T7 = – 1

 T8  T9  T10  T11  2

 Sum of any 4 consecutive terms = 2

 Sum of 16 terms = 4 × 2 = 8
47. Compute

L.C.M. of (1,2,3,.....,200)
L.C.M. of (102,103,104,....,200)

(1) 101 (2) 106

(3) 184 (4) 176
Answer (1)
L.C.M. (1,2,3,.....,200)
Sol.  101
L.C.M.(102,103,104,....,200)
1 2x
48. If x   5 , then is equal to .....
x 3x  5x  3
2

1
(1) 5 (2)
5
1
(3) 3 (4)
3
Answer (2)
1
Sol. x  5
x
2x 2 2 1
  
3x 2  5x  3  1
3 x    5
10 5
 x
49. If every side of a triangle is doubled, then increase
in the area of the triangle is .....

(1) 100 2% (2) 200%

(3) 300% (4) 400%
Answer (3)

Sol. A old  s(s  a)(s  b)(s  c)

Anew  s(s  a)(s  b)(s  c)

2a  2b  2c abc
s   2 
2  2 

s  2s

A new  4A old
Anew = 4Aold
A new  Aold
 Increasing area =  100
A old
= 300%
50. When x3
+ 3x2 – kx + 4 is divided by x – 2, the
remainder is 2k, then the value of k is ....
(1) 6 (2) –6
(3) 2 (4) –2
Answer (1)
Sol. f(2) = 2k
 8 + 12 – 2k + 4 = 2k
4k = 24
k=5
51. Number 50, 42, 35, 2x + 10, 2x – 8, 12, 11, 8 are written
in desending order and their medain is 25 find x.
(1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 12 (4) 11
Answer (3)
 2x  10  2x  8
Sol.  25
2
4x + 2 = 50
x = 12
52. The value of angle B will be in the given figure, if
A  50 , C  60 .

C A
B

(1) 60° (2) 50°

(3) 70° (4) 80°
Answer (3)
Sol. B = 70°
53. If sin3 + cos3 = 0,
Then  will be ....
(1) 60° (2) 45°
(3) 0° (4) –45°
Answer (4)
Sol. tan3 = –1
  = –45°

54. The measures of the perpendiculars drawn from a point

situated inside an equilateal triangle are 6 cm,
8 cm and 10 cm. The area of the triangle will be ....
(1) 256 3 (2) 192 3
(3) 64 3 (4) 3 3
Answer (2)
A
Sol.

10 6
x x
O

8
B C
x
Ar(ABC) = Ar(AOB) + Ar(BOC) + Ar(AOC)

3 2
x  12x
4
x  16 3
3
 Area = × 256 × 3 = 192 3
4
55. There is a rhombus of one side 17 cm and one
diagonal 30 cm. The area of the rhombus will be ...
(1) 60 cm2 (2) 240 cm2
(3) 305 cm2 (4) 750 cm2
Answer (2)

D
Sol.
17
15

A C
x O

B
x = 8cm
1
 Area of rhombus   16  30
2
= 240 cm2

56. The points A, B and C be on a circle in such a way

that  ABC = 52° and  ACB = 78°. The measure
of the angle subtended at the centre by the arc BC
will be ...
(1) 26° (2) 50°
(3) 100° (4) 115°
Answer (3)
 A

Sol. 50°

52° 78°
B C

BOC  2BAC  100

1
57. If x  7  4 3 , the value of x 
2
will be .....
x2
(1) 146 (2) 148
(3) 194 (4) 196
Answer (3)

Sol. x  7  4 3
 x 74 3
2
1  1
 x2  2
 x   2
x  x
= 196 – 2 = 194
3
58. If  is in the first quadrant and cos   , then the
5
5 tan   4 cosec 
valeu of will be ....
5 sec   4 cot 
5 5
(1) (2)
16 34
5 5
(3)  (4) 
34 16
Answer (1)
3
Sol. cos  
5
4 5
 tan   , sec  
3 3
5 3
 cosec   , cot  
4 4
 4 5
5  4
5 tan   4 cosec  3 4

5 sec   4 cot  5 3
5  4
3 4
5

16
59. If log47 = x, then the valeu of log716 will be....
(1) x2 (2) 2x
2
(3) x (4)
x
Answer
(4)
Sol. log47 = x
1
 log7 4 
x
2
 2log7 4 
x
2
log7 16 
x
60. The sum of the integers from 1 to 100 that are
divisible by 2 or 5 is ...,
(1) 2550 (2) 3050
(3) 3550 (4) 3600
Answer (2)
Sol. Total sum = sum of multiples of 2 + sum of multiples
of 5 – sum of multiples of 2 & 5
Sum of multiples of 2 = 2 + 4 + .... 100

50  51
 2 = 2550
2
Sum of multiples of 5 = 5 + 10 + .... 100
 20  21
 5 = 1050
2
Sum of multiples of 10 = 10 + 20 + .... 100

10  11
 10  = 550
2
 Total sum = 2550 + 1050 – 550
= 3050
61. Find the wrong one about hockey.
(1) Modern hockey evolved from trational games
once current in Britain.
(2) the first hockey club in India was started in
Calcutta in 1885-1886.
(3) Between 1928 and 1956, India won gold medals
in six consecutive Olympic Games.
(4) None of the above
Answer (4)
62. In which princely state, women of the shanar caste
were attacked by upper caste nairs for wearing a
cloth across their upper bodies.
(1) Jammu & Kashmir (2) Rajaputana
(3) Mysore (4) Travancore
Answer (1)
Sol. ??
63. Which U.S. president called upon farmers “plant
more wheat, wheat will win the war”?
(1) Woodrow Wilson (2) Franklin Roosevelt
(3) James Munroe (4) Harry S.Truman
Answer (1)
Sol. Woodrow Wilson
64. Match the followiing.
 Pastoralists State
(1) Monpas (i) Gujarat
(2) Dhangars (ii) Rajasthan
(3) Raikas (iii) Maharashtra
(4) Maldharis (iv) Arunachal Pradesh.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer (3)
65. Which treaty recognised the independence of
thirteen colonies?
(1) Treaty of Paris, 1783
(2) Treaty of Philadelphis, 1788
(3) Treaty of Rome, 1791
(4) Treaty of Vienna, 1803
Answer (1)
66. Find out the incident that is not related to the
unification of Germany.
(1) Formation of Zollverein.
(2) The Schleswig-Hostein
(3) Civil war
(4) Ems Telegram
Answer (3)
67. Who are known as “Boers”?
(1) Dutch farmers settled in South Africa.
(2) Norwegian farmers settled in China.
(3) Spanish farmers settled in Chile.
(4) Portuguese farmers settled in Mexico.
Answer (1)
68. “That Smallpox signalled God’s blessings for the
colonist, the natives were near all dead of small pox,
so as the lord had cleared our tittle to what we
possess.” Which Massachusetts Bay colony
Governor wrote this to the England Government?
(1) George Popham (2) Ralegh Gilbert
(3) John Winthorp (4) William Bradfort
Answer (3)
69. The main reason for Gandhiji calling off Disobedience
Movement is ...
(1) Chauri chaura incident.
(2) Poona pact.
(3) Gandhi - Irwin pact.
(4) Arrival of Simon
Answer (3)
70. Which among the following is a main draw back in
formation of Simon commission?
(1) The Commission did not have a single Indian
member.
(2) The Commission constituted of Military officers.
(3) It was more expensive.
(4) All the above.
Answer (4)
71. The Royal Indian Navy Revolt took place in the year
(1) 1942 (2) 1944
(3) 1946 (4) 1940
Answer (3)
72. We consider it natural that these two worlds remian
distinct what the man gives in courage on the battle
field, the gives in eternal self sacrifies, in eternal pain
and suffering. Evey child that women bring to the
world is a battle, a battle waged for the existence of
her people.” Who said this addressing women?
(1) Otto von Bismarck (2) Adolf Hitler
(3) Benito Mussolini (4) General Franco
Answer (3)
73. Who founded the Vietnamese Communist party?
(1) Chinh Phu Ngam
(2) Gia Huan Ca
(3) Ho Chi Minh
(4) Bao Dai
Answer (3)
74. Name of England poet, who organised funds and
later went to fight the war for the independence of
Greece, which was a part of Ottoman empire?
(1) Emily Bronte (2) Lord Byron
(3) John Clare (4) Rudyard Kipling
Answer (2)
75. Match the Following
(A) (B)
(1) Mechanical Repair (i) James Hargreaves
(2) Spinning Jenney (ii) Cyrus Mc Cormick
(3) First modern Roads (iii) Brindley
(4) Modern Canals (iv) John Loudon Mc Adam
a b c d
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer (4)
76. In which island of Lakshadweep, a bird sanctuary is
located?
(1) Andrott island (2) Pitti island
(3) Minicoy island (4) Agatti island
Answer (2)
77. In Which plain region, Dudhwa National Park is
located?
(1) Bhabar (2) Bhangar
78. Match the Following.
A B
(a) Lake Sambhar (i) Largest fresh
water lake in India.
(b) Lake Wular (ii) Back waters of
Bhakra Nangal Project
(c) Guru Gobind Sagar (iii) Water is used for
producing salt
(d) Ox-bow Lakes (iv) Formed by
Meandering river.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer (4)
79. Arrange the onset of south west monsoons in an
order, where they appear first?
(1) Mangalore, Daman, Sura, Vadodara.
(2) Daman, Surat, Mangalore, Vadodara.
(3) Mangalore, Surat, Daman, Vadodara.
(4) Vadodara, Daman, Mangalore, Surat.
Answer (1)
80. The roots of which plants are submerged under
water?
(1) Tropical evergreen forests.
(2) Deciduous forests.
(3) Thorny forests.
(4) Mangroove forests.
Answer (4)
81. In India, most migrations have been from rural to
urban areas because of the push factor in rural
areas. Which among these is not a push factor?
 (1) Unemployment
(2) Adverse conditions of poverty
(3) Seasonal employment
(4) Better living conditions.
Answer (4)
82. Consider the following statements about population.
(a) Internal migration does not change the size of the
population.
(b) Migration among women is mainly due to
marriages.
(c) The government of India initiated the
comprehensive family planning programme in
1952.
(d) the highest annual growth rate was recorded in
the decade 1981.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct.
(1) a only. (2) a and b.
(3) a,b,c (4) a, b, c, d
Answer (4)
83. Coriolis force is maximum at ..
(1) the Equator
(2) the Tropics.
(3) the Arctic and Antarctic Circles.
(4) the Poles.
Answer (4)
84. North South Corridor Project does not pass
through...
(1) Jhansi (2) Nizamabad
(3) Bangalore (4) Indore
Answer (4)
85. Which of these minerals is used in hardening of
steel?
(1) Cooking coal (2) Lime stone
(3) Manganese (4) Mica
Answer (3)
86. Find the wrong one about maize crop.
(1) Maize is Kharif crop but some states like Bihar
grow it in Rabi also.
(2) It is used both as food and fodder.
(3) Major maize producing states are Karnataka and
Uttar Pradesh.
(4) Maize is the third most important food crop with
respect to area and production.
Answer (4)
87. Salal project is located on river...
(1) Chenab (2) Jhelum
(3) Beas (4) Ghagra
Answer (1)
88. In which of the following states is / are black soil
found?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Telangana
(4) All of the above.
Answer (4)
89. Find out the writings which is not related to
conservation of resources?
(1) Small is beautiful
(2) Our common future
(3) The silent spring
(4) None of the above
Answer (4)
90. Find out the wrong one about Tiger Reserves of India.
(1) Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam
(2) Bandhavagarh National Park -Maharashtra
(3) Periyar National Park - Kerala
(4) Corbett National Park - Uttaranchal.
91. Which of the following statements is wrong about
today’s world?
(1) The relationship between different countries has
become more democratic than ever before.
(2) In more and more countries, rulers are being
elected by the people.
(3) There are no military rulers in the world.
(4) None of the above.
Answer (3)
92. Which of the following statements is not a character
of democratic elections?
(1) Everyone should have one vote and every vote
should have qual value.
(2) Elections must be held regularly after every few
years.
(3) The candidate preferred by the people should get
elected.
(4) The contestant can canvas on the grounds of
caste
Answer (4)
93. Match the following.
A B
(a) Founder of (i) Shyam Prasad
Republican Mukherjee.
party of Indian
(b) Founder president (ii) Jaipal Singh
of Bharatiya Jana
Sangh.
(c) Founder of the (iii) B.R.Ambedkar
Swatantra party.
(d) Founder of (iv) K.M.Munshi.
Jharkand party.
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Answer (4)
94. Who was the president of the Constituent Assembly?
(1) Pt.Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
(3) Dr.BR Ambedkar (4) K.M.Munshi.
Answer (2)
95. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum strength of
(1) 250 (2) 275
(3) 300 (4) 325
Answer (1)
96. Largest income under indirect taxes is obtained
from..
(1) Sales Tax (2) Excise Tax
(3) Customs Duty (4) Service Tax
Answer (1)
97. Which of the following statements is wrong about food grains in India?
(1) The production of the food graisn has increased
five times over the last five decades.
(2) Today a farmer is able to produce nearly 800
kgs of food grains per acre of cultivable land.
(3) A large stock of food grains has also built up
with the government through Central
Warehousing Corporation.
(4) None of the above.
Answer (3)
98. A person is said to be over weight if the body mass
index is more than...
(1) 18 (2) 22
(3) 16 (4) 25
Answer (4)
98. A person is said to be over weight if the body mass
index is more than...
(1) 18 (2) 22
(3) 16 (4) 25
Answer (4)
99. Which of the following neighbouring countries has
better performance in terms of expected years of
schooling than India?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) Srilanka
(3) Pakistan
(4) All the above
Answer (2)
100. Find out the wrong statement.
(1) Employment in the service sector has not
increased to the same extent as production.
(2) Most of the workers in the organised sector
enjoy the job security
(3) The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary
sectors are interdependent.
(4) None of the above.
Answer (4)