Biology (Volume - I)

INTERNATIONAL SR.SEC.
SCHOOL, NAMAKKAL
XII
BIOLOGY
(CBSE)
2024 - 2025
VOLUME - I
INDEX
PAGE
CHAPTER CHAPTER NAME
NO.
BOTANY
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
1 1
FLOWERING PLANTS
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE OF
2 24
VARIATION
3 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 54
ZOOLOGY
1 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 82
2 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 100
3 GENETICS 141
4 EVOLUTION 165
1
BOTANY
1. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
2 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Define essential and Non-essential parts of a flower.
Androecium (stamen) and Gynoecium (pistil) are the essential parts of a flower, calyx and corolla are
the non-essential parts of a flower.
2. What is perisperm? Give two examples for perispermic seeds?

Residual, persistent nucellus is called “perisperm”. Eg: Black pepper and Beet.
3. In angiosperms, “Endosperm development precedes embryo-development”. Why?

The endosperm is produced from the primary endosperm nucleus which is produced by triple fusion as
the second male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei during fertilisation. The endosperm provides
nutrition to the developing embryo, hence endosperm development precedes embryo development.
4. Explain syncarpous and apocarpous ovaries with suitable examples.

Syncarpous ovary : The flower with syncarpous ovary have more than one carpel, these carpels are
fused.
Eg : Flowers of Papaver.
Apocarpous ovary : The flower with apocarpous ovary have more than one carpel. These carpels are
free. Eg: Flowers of Michelia.
5. How does the cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set even in the absence of pollinators?
Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all, in such flowers the anther and stigma lie close to each other.
When the anther dehisce in the flower buds, pollen grains come to in contact with the stigma to effect
pollination. Thus assuring seed set even in the absence of pollinators.
6. Name the four post - fertilisation events.

The ovule becomes the seed
The ovary becomes the fruit
Zygote develops into embryo
Primary Endosperm Nucleus develops into endosperm which provides nourishment to developing
embryo.
Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

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7. Write the advantages provided by the seeds to angiosperms.

They provide nourishment and parental care to the developing embryo.
They protect the embryo from harsh environmental conditions.
The dispersal of seeds to far off places prevents competition among the members of the species, thus
prevents extinction.
8. Why is apple called as false fruit?

True fruits develops from ovary alone. False fruits develop from floral parts other than ovary.
Apple is called a false fruit because it develops from thalamus instead of ovary.
9. Differentiate between Geitonogamy and Xenogamy.

Geitonogamy Xenogamy
1. Transfer of pollengrains from the anther to the 1. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the
stigma of another flower of the same plant. stigma of different plants.
2. It is functionally cross pollination but 2. This is the only type of pollination which
genetically self pollination brings genetically different types of pollen
grains to the stigma.
10. Why pollen grains can remain well preserved as fossils?

The pollen grains exine is made up of sporopollenin, which is one of the most resistant organic material
known. It can withstand high temperatures, strong acids and alkali. No enzyme that degrades
sporopollenin is so far known. so pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.
11. State any one advantage and disadvantage of pollen grains to humans.
The advantage of pollen grains is rich in nutrients. It has become a fashion in recent years to use pollen
tablets as food supplements. Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of
athletes and race horses.
The disadvantage of pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions like
asthma, bronchitis etc.
12. What is the relationship exists between a species of moth and Yucca plant?
The plant Yucca shows a mutualistic relationship with the moth. Both can’t complete their life cycle
with out each other. The moth lays its egg’s inside the ovarian cavity of the plant and in return, the plant
gets pollinated as the moth visits another flower for laying eggs. Young seeds of Yucca are the source of
food for the larvae of moth.
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13. Draw a diagram of L.S. of an anatropous ovule of an Angiosperm and label the following parts.
i) Nucellus ii) Integuments iii) Hilum iv) Embryosac
14. What are cleistogamous flowers? Can cross pollination occurs in Cleistogamous flowers? Give
reason.
The flowers which do not open at all. In such flowers the anthers and stigma lie close of each other. thus
cleistogamous flowers are invariable autogamous as there is no chance of cross pollination.
15. What is apomixis? What is its importance?

Apomixis is the mechanism of seed production without involving the process of meiosis and syngamy.
It plays an important role in hybrid seed production. The method of producing hybrid seeds by
cultivation is very expensive for farmers. Also by sowing hybrid seeds, it is difficult to maintain hybrid
characters as characters segregate during meiosis.
16. List the advantages of pollination of angiospermic plants.

i) Pollen grains are transferred to stigma there by pollination provides male gamete for fertilization.
ii) It checks abscission of ovary,
iii) It stimulates ovules to form seeds
17. State the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.

Insects pollinated flowers are large, have brightly coloured petals and are often sweetly scented, usually
contain nectar to attract insects. Its pollen are often sticky or spiky to stick to the legs and body of the
insects.
18. How are the cells arranged in an Embryosac?

The characteristic distribution of the cells within the embryosac. Three cells are grouped together at the
micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus in turn consists of two synergids and
one egg cell. The synergids have special cellular thickenings called filiform apparatus, which play an
important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid. Three cells at chalazal end are called the
antipodals. The large central cell located at the centre. Thus a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at
maturity, 8 – nucleate and 7 – celled.
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19. Does apomixis require fertilization and pollination? Give reasons in support of your answer.
No, apomixis does not require pollination and fertilization. This is because apomixis is a form of
asexual reproduction in which the female reproductive apparatus is used. The embryos can develop
directly from the nucellus or synergids.
20. Give an example of a plant which came into the India as a contaminant and is a cause of pollen
allergy.
Parthenium or carrot grass is a major contaminant with imported wheat, which came to India and caused
pollen allergy.
21. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 76 seeds in a Guava fruit?
In female, one meiotic division of megaspore mother cell leads to formation of one egg cell. So, 76 egg
cells are formed from 76 meiotic divisions. In male, one meiotic division of sperm mother cell leads to
76
formation of four haploid cells, So 76 functional pollens will be formed by = 19 meiotic divisions.
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So, total meiotic division required to produce 76 seeds 76 + 19 = 95.
22. What is the function of germ pore?

Germ pores are present in the pollen grains through which the germ tube or pollen tube makes its exit on
germination.
23. “Pollen grains in wheat are shed at the 3-celled stage while in peas they are shed at the 2-celled
stage. “Explain. Where are germ pores present in a pollen grain?
At the time of shedding, wheat pollen consist of one vegetative and two male gametes (3 celled), while
pea pollen consists of one vegetative and one generative cell (2 celled).
Germ pores are present on the exine (where sporopollenin is absent).
24. A pollen grain in angiosperm at the time of dehiscence from an anther could be 2-celled or 3-
celled. Explain. How are the cells placed within the pollen grain when shed at a 2-celied stage?
In 2-celled stage, the mature pollen grain contains a generative and vegetative cell, whereas, in the 3-
celled stage, one vegetative cell and two male gametes are present.
The generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.

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25. Mention the polidy of the different types of cells present in the female gametophyte of an
angiosperm.
The functional megaspore developed by the meiotic division of megaspore mother cell and so it is
haploid. Hence, almost all the cells present in the female gametophyte i.e., three antipodals, two
synergids and one egg are haploid. However, the two haploid nuclei of the central cell fuse to give rise
to a single diploid nucleus. Therefore, the Ploidy level of the central cell may become diploid.
26. Name and explain the technique that can be used in developing improved crop varieties in plants
bearing female flowers onely.
Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches of crop improvement programme to improve crop
yield. In this method, desired pollen grains are used for pollination. This is achieved by emasculation
and bagging techniques. If the females parent is unisexual, then there is no need for emasculation. In
this case, the female flower buds are directly bagged before the flowers open. When the stigma
becomes receptive, suitable pollens are dusted onto it so as to allow germination.
27. A non-biology person is quite shocked to know that apple is a false fruit, mango is a true fruit and
banana is a seedless fruit. As a biology student how would you satisfy this person?
The fruit is a ripened ovary where as seed develops from the ovule. Apple is a false fruit because here in
this case along with the ovary, thalamus of the flower also takes part in the formation of fruit. Banana is
a seedless fruit as it develops without the stimulus of pollination and fertilization. Such fruits are also
called as parthenocarpic fruits. Mango fruit develops from the ovary after the fertilization process,
hence it is a true fruit.
28. Why is apple called a false fruit? Which part(s) of the flower forms the fruit?
False fn1its are those fruits in which accessory floral parts also contribute to fruit formation. In apple,
the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation. Therefore, it is called a false fruit. The fruit develops
from the ovary of the flower.
29. If one can induce parthenocarpy through the application of growth substances, which fruits would
you select to induce parthenocarpy and why?
Only fleshy fruits like orange, watermelon, lemon, etc., should be selected as parthenocarpic fruits. Here
seeds of fruits are irritant during consumption so seeds are removed so as to make the fruits even more
valuable. It is easy to make fruit juices, jams, etc. with seedless fruits.
30. Explain the role of tapetum in the formation of pollen grain wall.
Tapetum is the innermost wall layer of a microsporangium. It nourishes the developing pollen grains and
also help in the formation of wall of pollen grains. The cells of tapetum secrete Ubisch granules that
provide sporopollenin and other materials for exine formation.

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31. What is apomixis and what is its importance?

Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction to form seeds without
fertilisation.
In apomictic seeds, parental characters are maintained in the progeny/offspring as there is no meiosis or
segregation of characters.
Desired hybrid seeds are made apomictics as the farmers can keep on using the hybrid seeds to raise new
crops year after year.
32. What arc chasmogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers? Give
reasons for your answer.
Chasmogamous flowers are open flowers with exposed stamens and stigma which facilitate cross-
pollination.
No cross-pollination occurs in cleistogamous flowers as these flowers are closed and never open and
thus no transfer of pollen from outside to stigma of the flower is possible.
33. Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.

The two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers are:
i) Maturation of anthers and stigma at different time periods in a bisexual flower prevents self
pollination (dichogamy).
ii) Production of unisexual flowers.
34. What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed formation in self
incompatible species?
Self-incompatibility or self sterility is the inability of an intersexual or bisexual plant to produce viable
seeds on self-pollination, inspite of producing functional male and female gametes. Since, fertilisation
does not take place, no seeds are produced. It is a genetic mechanism that prevents self pollen from
fertilizing ovules by inhibiting pollen tube growth in pistil.
35. What is bagging technique? How is it useful in a plant breeding programme?

It is the covering of female plant with butter paper to avoid their contamination from foreign pollens
during breeding programme.
36. What is triple fusion? Where and how does it take place? Name the nuclei involved in triple
fusion.
Triple fusion is fusion of one male gamete and two polar nuclei (or secondary nucleus; if the two have
already fused) in the central cell of embryo sac to form primary endosperm nucleus. It takes place in the
central cell of an embryo sac. Three nuclei are involved in triple fusion, i.e., one male nucleus and two
polar nuclei in the central cell.

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37. Why do you think the zygote is dormant for sometime in a fertilised ovule?
The zygote is dormant for sometime in a fertilised ovule because the embryo which is developed from
zygote may obtain nutrition from endosperm.
38. Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female gametophyte
take place.
Development of male and female gametophytes takes place in anther and ovary, respectively.
39. Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence: pollen grain, sporogenous
tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Sporogenous tissue → Pollen mother cell → Microspore tetrad → Pollen grain → Male gametes
40. What is meant by monosporic development of a female gamctophyte?

Out of the four megaspores, three degenerate and only one remains functional which develops into a
female gametophyte or embryo sac. This is called monosporic development, i.e., when embryo sac
develops from one single megaspore it is called monosporic embryo sac.
3 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Explain the characters of wind pollinated flowers? Give the example for wind pollinated flowers?
Characters of wind pollinated flowers:
Wind pollinated flowers often have single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an
inflorescence.
Pollen grains are light and nonsticky, so that they can be transported in wind currents.
They often posses well exposed stamens.
Pollen grains are produced in large quantities.
2. Write a short note on Artificial hybridisation.

Artificial Hybridisation:
It is defined as the process of crossing two genetically different individuals having desirable traits to
obtain an offspring having superior traits than the parents. It can be achieved by emasculation in plants.
Emasculation is the removal of anthers in a bisexual flower to prevent self pollination. This flower is
bagged to prevent pollination. Mature pollengrains are collected from male flower the bag is opened
and pollens are dusted on the flower. After pollination flowers are bagged till fruits are formed. The
fruit produced is a hybrid and of superior quality.

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3. List three devices. Which flowering plants have developed to discourage self pollination.
i) In some species pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchornised. Either the pollen is
released before the stigma becomes receptive or stigma becomes receptive much before the release
of pollen (Dichogamy)
ii) In some other species the anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that pollen cannot
come in contact with the stigma of the same flower (Herkogamy)
iii) The third device to prevent inbreeding is “Self incompatibility”. This is a genetic mechanism and
prevents self pollen (from the same flower or other flower of the same plant) from fertilizing the
ovule by inhibting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
4. Draw a neat labelled diagram of monocot embryo.
5. “Incompatibility is the natural barrier in fusion of gametes”. Justify this statement.

The incompatibility is considered as the most widespread and effective device to prevent inbreeding and
promote out breeding. It acts as a natural barrier by the interaction of chemical substances produced by
the male gametophyte and the tissue of style, normally the functional pollens belonging to right mating
type germinate on stigma, develop pollen tube and bring about fertilization the pollen grains belonging
to other mating types are discarded.
6. Describe the structure of a pollen grain.

The pollen grain is surrounded by two layers as exine which forms the outer layer and intine which
forms the inner layer. The generative cell divides to form the two male gametes. The vegetative cell is
responsible for the providing nutrition. The intine layer comes out of the germ pore to form the pollen
tube.

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7. What is double fertilization? Where does it occur?

In this process, one of the two male gametes carried by the pollen tube fuses with the egg cell nucleus to
from the diploid zygote, and the other with the diploid central cell nucleus to form the primary endosperm
Nucleus. The process of fertilization is known as double fertilization as it involves two forms of fusion in
the embryo sac.
8. What will be the fate of the following structures in the angiospermic plant?
i) Ovary wall ii) Ovule iii) Zygote
iv) Outer integument ii) PEN vi) Inner integument
i) Ovary wall : Pericarp ii) Ovule : seed
iii) Zygote : Embryo iv) Outer integument : Testa
v) PEN : Endosperm vi) Inner integument : Tegmen
9. Differentiate between cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers.

Cleistogamous flower Chasmogamous flower
1) In this flower the anther and stigma lie close 1) The flowers have exposed anthers and
to each other. stigma
2) Flowers can only carry out self pollination 2) Flowers are usually cross- pollinated.
3) This flowers do not need pollinators or 3) To promote cross pollination,
attractive floral parts or nectaries to reward chasmogamous flowers often have strikingly
pollinators coloured petals and nectar guides to attract
and reward pollinators.
4) In the absence of pollinators, cleistogamous 4) The seeds produced are genetically distinct.
flowers develop assured seed set
10. Explain the stages involved in the maturation of a microspore into a male gametophyte.
Pollen grain / microspore mark the beginning of the first cell of the male gametophyte.
It undergoes the first mitotic division to produce bigger, naked vegetative cells and small, thin –
walled generative cells.
The vegetative cell is rich in food and having an irregularly shaped nucleus.
The generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cells
The second mitotic division is concerned with generative cells only and gives rise to two non- motile
male gametes.
The mitotic division of the generative cells takes place either in the pollengrain or in the pollen tube.
The pollen grains are shed from the anther, at this two – celled stage in most of the angiosperms.

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11. When and where do tapetum and synergids develop in flowering plants? Mention their functions.
Tapetum: Tapetum is formed during the process of formation of Microsporogensis.
Function: It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
Synergids: They are formed inside the ovule during the process of megasporogenesis.
Function: Synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus,
which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into it.
12. Where are the following structures Present in a male gametophyte of an angiosperm? Mention
the function of each one of them.
a) Germ pore
b) Sporopollenin
c) Generative cell
a) Germ pore: It is present in the exine of the pollen grains.
Function: The content of pollen grain move into the pollen tube through the germ pore.
b) Sporopollenin: It is present in exine of the pollens grains.
Function: Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature and strong acids and alkalies. It is the
most resistant organic material known.
c) Generative cells: It is present inside the pollen grains.
Function: It give rise to male gametes through mitosis.
13. What is meant by emasculation? When and why docs a plant breeder employ this technique?
Emasculation is a practice of removal of stamens/ anthers before the anther dehisces from bisexual
flowers in female parent. A plant breeder employs this technique in the bud condition before the anthers
begin to differentiate. It is required to prevent self-pollination.
Uses in plant breeding:
i) Prevention of contamination and pollination of stigma of female flowers with foreign undesirable
pollens.
ii) Prevention of damage by animals.
14. Trace the events that would take place in flower from the time of pollen grain of a species fall on the
compatible stigma upto the completion of fertilization.
After pollination, when pollen has landed on the stigma of a suitable flower of the same species. A chain
of events happen that ends in the making of seeds. A pollen grain on the stigma grows a tiny tube, all the
way down the style to the ovary. This pollen tube carries a male gamete to meet a female gamete in an
ovule. Once the pollen moves down the style it reaches the ovules that require sperm to fertilize them
and produce new embryos.

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15. Describe Autogamy, Geitonogamy and Xenogamy.

Autogamy, - Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma of the same flower
Geitonogamy - Transfer of pollen grains from one flower to the stigma of the another flower of the
same plant.
Xenogamy - Stigma receive the pollen of a flower from a genetically different plant.
16. Explain the development of PEN into endosperm.

The fusion of male gamete with the egg cell is called syngamy and results in the formation of diploid
zygote. The fusion of another male gamete with the secondary nucleus of central cell is called triple
fusion and results in the formation of a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) which further
develops into endosperm. The endosperm may either be completely consumed by the developing
embryo (eg: pea, bean, groundnut) before seed maturation or it may persist in the mature seed (eg:
castor and coconut)
17. a) When a seed of an orange is squeezed, many embryos, instead of one are observed. Explain
how it is possible.
b) Are these embryos genetically similar or different? Comment.
a) It is due to polyembryony.
Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony.
In orange, the nucellus cells, synergids or integument cells develop into several embryos of different
sizes. e.g., Citrus.
Sometimes the formation of more than one egg in an embryo sac can lead to polyembryony.
b) In such embryos, parental characters are maintained hence they are genetically similar. In this
process, there is no segregation of characters in the offspring (progeny).
4 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Vishal went to the market with his mother to buy fruits he saw a fruit seller selling green coconuts his
mother purchased 4 coconuts for the family to drink its water at home she told Vishal that coconut is
useful tree and provides livelihood to a large section of people across the country.
Read the above passage and answer the following questions.
i) What is the nutritive value of coconut water?
ii) What is morphological nature of coconut water?
iii) Why did Vishal’s mother say that coconut is a useful tree?
iv) Which type of reproduction is involved in the formation of coconut water?
i) Rich in nutrients, amino acids, vitamins, sugars and growth factors.
ii) It is liquid endosperm
iii) Coconut is a source of oil, coir fibres, used in thatching huts in coastal areas and used to eat, and
worshiping god.
iv) During sexual reproduction-one male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei (Endosperm).
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2. Raghav noticed that in ATAL PARK flowers of same species were different in one or the other
characters from the flowers growing in his house garden. He was surprised and asked the gardener
(Ramesh) of the ATAL PARK who was carefully removing anthers from some flowers. The gardener
explained him emasculation and bagging to obtain desired variety of flowers. Now answer the
following questions.
i) Name the technique used by ATAL PARK gardener.

ii) Give one commercial use of this technique.
iii) What information is required for using this technique?
iv) What value is displayed by Ramesh?

i) Artificial hybridization
ii) Commercial production of ornamental plants
iii) Knowledge about sexual reproduction and life cycle of flowering plants species
iv) Ramesh is an experienced gardener and keen to explain his techniques to Raghav on observing his
curiosity.
3. When you visited a garden a month back, you saw a number of moths, butterflies, dragonflies, etc.
hovering round the flowers/plants and many ants, other insects and some worms in the soil. Now,
after a month or so, when you happen to visit the same garden, to your dismay, you don't see any
butterflies or dragonflies or the ants in the soil. The gardener said he had used some 'medicines' to
avoid the insects causing damage to the plants.
i) Was it a wise decision?
ii) How would the yield from the garden be affected? Explain with reasons.
iii) Can this act of the gardener cause any health problems to the consumers? Explain the value of
organisms.
i) No
ii) Will be reduced because insects like butterflies, dragonflies etc. helps in pollination.
iii) Yes it, leads accumulation of pollutants and these organism are required for pollination.

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4. Two students A and B received unknown floral parts. Characteristics of part received by A are it is 7
celled 8 nucleate structure developed from single megaspore. Characteristics of part received by B is
haploid and contains male gametes it has 2 wall layers in which outer one is made up of
sporopollenin.
i) What does A and B students have received?
ii) Draw the diagram of embryo sac and male gametophyte.
i) A received embryo sac and B received pollen grain.
ii) Diagrams of Embryo sac and pollen grain.
5. Read the given passage and answer the questions:

The pollen-pistil interaction begins with pollination, followed by pollen adhesion to the stigma. After it
adheres, it imbibes water and gets hydrated which initiates pollen tube germination. Ther are different
agents of pollination like wind, insects, birds and water. Anemophilous flowers are pollinated by the
agency of wind. These flowers are small and inconspicuous. the pollen grains are very light, non-sticky
and sometimes winged. Entomophilic flowers are pollinated by insects. These flowers are often
attractive to look at with bright petals and are fragrant to attract the insect visitors to them. They often
have broad stigmas or anthers to allow the insect to perch on it. Many of the insect-pollinated flowers
also secrete nectar which attracts bees, butterflies or other similar insects to the flowers. The pollen
grain surface of such flowers produces mucilaginous secretion. Hydrophilic flowers are pollinated by
water. It is commonly found in algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes and some angiosperms. The pollen
grains may have a mucilagionous covering to protect it from getting wet.

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1. The pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process that involves pollen recognition. If the pollen
is compatible, then the pistil accepts it and promotes post-pollination events. What happens if
the pollen is incompatible to the stigma?
If the pollen is incompatible to the stigma, then the pistil rejects the pollen by preventing pollen
germination on the stigma or the pollen tube growth in the style.
2. Mention the three types of pollination based on the sources of incoming pollen grains.
Pollination is of three types based on the source of pollens namely,
i) Autogamy ii) Geitonogamy iii) Xenogamy
3. Do all aquatic plants use hydrophily as the preferred mode of pollination? If yes, then justify
with example and if no, give reason.
No, all aquatic plants does not adopt hydrophily. For example, in aquatic plants like water hyacinth,
water lily, etc., the flowers emerge above the level of water for entomophily or anemophily i.e., for
pollination to takes place by insects or wind.
4. Flowers generally have a sweet soothing smell. Why some flowers smell foul?
The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles secrete foul odours to attract these animals for
pollination.
6. Read the given passage and answer the questions:

Hybrid seeds created by crossing two varieties have superior qualities including high yield, pest
resistance and climate tolerance and have been used by farmers for decades. In a breakthrough for
farmers across the world, especially those from developing countries, scientists have discovered a way
to clone hybrid seeds of rice. Hybrid seeds created by crossing two varieties have superior qualities
including high yield, pest resistance and climate tolerance and have been used by farmers for decades.
However, a major challenge with such crops so far has been that unlike other crops, their seeds do not
produce plants with same qualities. So, farmers have had no option but to by expensive hybrid seeds
every year. Asexual reproduction through seeds, called Apomixis, is known to occur naturally in more
than 400 species of wild plants, but not in crops. The embryos can develop directly from a diploid egg
or the nucellus in the ovule without fertilization. This mechanism of seed production allows a plant to
clone itself through a seed, without fertilization and, thus prevents any loss of hybrid characters in
plants. However, recreating these pathways in crop plants has been a challenge to science.
1. Seed is the final product of sexual reproduction. Mature seeds can be differentiated into two
types. What are they?
Mature seeds may be non-albuminous or albuminous.
Non-albuminous or Non-endospermic seeds: These seeds have no residual endosperm as it is
completely consumed during embryo development.
Examples: pea, groundnut, beans.
Albuminous or Endospermic seeds: These seeds retain a part of the endosperm as it is not
completely used up during embryo development.
Examples: wheat, maize, barley, castor, coconut, sunflower.

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2. Some fruits have not seeds. What do we call such fruits and how they are formed?
In some species such as banana, the fruits develop without fertilization, these fruits are called
parthenocarpic fruits. Such fruits are seedless.
3. What are the advantages of production of hybrid seeds through apomixis?
Hybrid seeds have to be produced every year and its quite a costly process. Farmers cannot sow the
seeds from hybrid plants to grow new crops as the plants in the progeny will segregate and lose
hybrid characters. If the hybrids are made into apomicts, progeny. This helps farmers to use the
hybrid seeds to raise new crop year after year without losing hybrid characteristics.
4. What is the site for embryo development in a flower? Where does the developing embryo gets
its nutrition?
The embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated. The
developing embryo gets its nutrition from endosperm.
5 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Explain the monosporic embryo sac development. Draw a neat labelled diagram of embryo sac.
Monosporic embryo sac development :
The female gametophyte is an angiosperm is also called embryosac. It is present inside the ovule or
the megasporangium enclosed within the nucellus and integuments. Typically a single megaspore
mother cell gets differentiated at the micropylar region of the ovule. The megaspore mother cell
contains a dense cytoplasm and a large nucleus. Megaspore Mother Cell divides by meiotic division to
give rise to four haploid megaspores. Generally only one megaspore is functional towards chalazal end
and develops into female gametophyte or embryosac. This is known as “monosporic embryosac
development”. The rest three megaspores degenerate.
Monosporic development of female Gametophyte or embryosac :
The nucleus of the functional megaspore undergoes sequential mitotic division without the formation
of a cell wall i.e. free nuclear. It divides by mitosis to produce two nuclei. Which move to the opposite
poles of the embryosac. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear division’s leads to the formation of 4
nucleate and later embryosac with 8 nuclei and then the cell wall formation takes place six of the eight
nuclei are surrounded by cell wall and organized into cells. The remaining two nuclei called polar
nuclei are situated in the large central cell. This results in the formation of “7 cells and 8 nucleated
embryosac.”

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2. Briefly describe the following:

a) Seed viability with 2 suitable examples
b) Pollen products
c) Apomixis
d) Floral rewards
a) Seed viability with 2 suitable examples
Seed viability is the period of time for which the seeds retains the ability to germinate.
Ex : Seeds of Lupinus arcticus excavated from Arctic tundra germinated after 10,000 years of
dormancy.
Ex : Seeds of date palm (Phoenix dactylifera) is viable for 2000 years.
b) Pollen products
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. It has become a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as
food supplements. In western countries a large number of pollen products in the form of tablets and
syrups are available in the market. Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of
Athletes and race horses.
c) Apomixis
It is a type of asexual reproduction where seed of a plant is developed without fertilisation. In some
species the diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division and develops into embryo without
fertilisation. More often, as in many citrus and mango varieties some of the nucellar cells surrounding
the embryosac start dividing, protrude into the embryo sac and develop into the embryos resulting in
more than one embryo in a seed referred to as “Polyembryony”
d) Floral rewards
To attracts the pollinating agents like insects, birds etc. and ensures that they visit the flowers
regularly which will increase the chances of pollination, needed nectar and pollen grains are the usual
floral rewards. In some species floral rewards are in the form of providing safe places to lay eggs.
3. Explain the development of embryo in a dicotyledonous plant with the help of diagrams.
Embryo formation starts after a certain amount of endosperm is formed.
Zygote divides by mitosis to form a proembryo.
Formation of globular and heart- shaped embryo occurs, which finally becomes horse shoe- shaped
forms a mature embryo.
In dicot plants, embryo consists of two cotyledons and an embryonal axis between them.
The portion of embryonal axis above the level of attachment of cotyledons is called epicotyl and it
terminates in the plumule.

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The portion of embryonal axis below the level of attachment of cotyledon is called the hypocotyl, it
becomes radicle (root tip)
4. Explain the structure of ovule with the help of neat labelled diagram.
Funicle is the stalk of the ovule is attached to the placenta.
Hilum is the structure that connects body of the ovule and funicle.
Integuments are the covering layers that protects the developing embryo
embryo sac is the structure that contain ovum (egg) and polar nuclei for the fusion results in embryo
and endosperm development
Micropyle is the tiny opening of ovule which helps in germination of mature ovule by absorbing the
moisture.

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5. a) Where does microsporogenesis occur in microsporogenesis.

b) Draw a labelled diagram of the two-celled male gametophyte of an angiosperm. How is the
three celled male gametophyte different from it?
a) The process of formation of microspores or pollen grains from microspore or pollen mother cell
(MMC or PMC) by meiosis is called micro-sporogenesis. It takes place in pollen sacs or
microsporangia of each anther lobe.
The cells of sporogenous tissue of microsporangium functions as potential MMC/PMC in the anther.
They undergo meiosis and as a result form four microspores or pollen grains arranged in tetrads. the
pollen grains separate from the tetrads and give rise to two celled male gametophyte while still in
situ. In the majority of angiosperms, the pollen is released from the anther at 2 celled stages while in
some at 3-celled stage as the generative cell divides to form 3 male gametes.
b) Structure of 2 celled gametophytes:
Difference between 2-celled gametophyte and 3-celled gametophyte: In over 60% of

angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at the 2-celled stage. In others, the generative cell divides
mitotically to give rise to the two male gametes before pollen grains are shed (3-celled stage).
6. You are conducting artificial hybridisation on papaya and potato. Which one of them would
require the step of emasculation and why? However, for both, you will use the process of bagging.
Justify giving one reason.
Emasculation is the removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces to avoid self-
pollination in flowers.
Potato requires emasculation as it bears bisexual flowers.
Papaya bears unisexual flowers, so, there is no need of emasculation.
Bagging is the process of covering the flowers bearing stigmas with a bag of suitable size, generally
made up of butter paper.
Both (papaya and potato flowers) will require a bagging process to prevent contamination of their
stigmas with unwanted pollen.
Emasculation and bagging ensure that the female flower is completely protected from contamination.

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7. a) Explain the process of syngamy and triple fusion in angiosperms.

b) Trace the development of the product of syngamy up to its mature stage in a dicot plant.
c) Draw and label three important parts of a mature dicot embryo.
a) When the pollen grain falls on the stigma, they germinate and give rise to the pollen tube that passes
through the style and enters into the ovule. After this, the pollen tube enters one of the synergids and
releases two male gametes. Out of the two male gametes, one gametes fuses with the nucleus of the
egg cell and forms the zygote. The process is known as syngamy. The other male gamete fuses with
the two polar nuclei located in the central cell to form a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
Since, the process involves the fusion of three haploid nuclei, it is known as triple fusion.
b) The product of syngamy is zygote. It develops into an embryo having two cotyledons. The steps
are:
Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situatued.
The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and subsequently to the globular, heart-shaped and
mature embryo.
A typical dicot embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
The portion of embryonal axis, which lies above the level of cotyledon, is the known as
epicotyls. It terminates with the plumule (shoot tip).
The cylindrical portion of the embryonal axis, which lies below the level of cotyledons, is
hypocotyls. It terminates with the radical (root tip). The root tip is covered with a root cap.
c) Structure of a dicotyledonous embryo:

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8. i) Explain the post-pollination events leading to seed production in angiosperms.

ii) List the different types of pollination depending upon the source of pollen grain.
i) Post-pollination changes leading to seed production are:
a) Germination of pollen tube which will ultimately transfer two male gametes to the embryo sac.
b) Double fertilization: In this, one male gamete will fuse with the egg forming zygote (syngamy).
Male gamete (n) + Egg (n) → Zygote (2n)
Another male gamete will fuse with a central cell (2 polar nuclei) forming triploid primary
Endosperm Nucleus (PEN).
Male gamete (n) + Central cell (2n) → PEN (3 n) (Triple fusion)
c) Zygote will develop into an embryo while PEN give rise to endosperm.
d) Integuments get hard and form the seed coat.
e) Ovule is thus converted into a seed.
f) Seeds are the fertilized ovules that are developed inside a fruit.
ii) Depending on the source of pollen grains, pollination is of the following types:
a) Autogamy: Where pollen of a flower reaches the stigma of the same flower.
b) Geitonogamy: Pollen grain of the flower reaches the stigma of another flower of the same plant.
c) Cross pollination of Xenogamy: When pollen grain of a flower from one plant pollinates the
stigma of a flower on another plant.
9. Differentiate between:
a) hypocotyl and epicotyl b) coleoptile and coleorhiza
c) integument and testa
a) Differences between hypocotyl and epicotyl
S. No. Hypocotyl Epicotyl

i) The region of the embryonal axis that lies The region of the embryonal a.xis that
between the radicle and the point of lies between the plumule and cotyledons
attachment of cotyledons is called hypocotyl. is called epicotyl.
ii) Hypocotyl pushes the seed above the soil in Epicotyl pushes the plumule above the
epigeal germination. soil in hypogeal germination.
iii) It is an important component of embryonic It is an important component of
root system. embryonic shoot system.

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b) Differences between coleoptile and coleorhiza

S. No. Coleoptile Coleorhiza
i) The shoot ape.x and few leaf primordia are The radicle and root cap are situated at
enclosed in a hollow foliar structure in the lower end of embryonal axis are
epicotyl region in monocots and is called enclosed by undifferentiated sheath
coleoptile. called coleorhiza.
ii) It comes out of the soil. It remains inside the soil.
iii) It emerges from the soil, turns green and It remains in the soil and is non-green in
carries out photosynthesis. colour.
c) Differences between Integument and Testa

S. No. Integument Testa
i) It is the protective covering of the ovule
It is the protective covering of the seed.
(nucellus).
ii) It is thin and living. It is thick and dead.
iii) It is part of pre-fertilisation. It is part of post-fertilisation.
10. Differentiate between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. Which type of cell division occurs
during these events? Name the structures formed at the end of these two events.
Differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis
S. No. Microsporogenesis Megasporogenesis
i) In this process, haploid microspores are In this process, haploid megaspores are
formed from diploid microspore mother cell formed from diploid megaspore mother
or pollen mother cell (MMC or PMC). cell (MMC).
ii) It occurs inside the m.icrosporangia or It occurs inside the nucellus of ovule or
pollen sac of an anther. megasporangium.
iii) There are many microspore mother cells in a There is generally a single megaspore
microsporangium. mother cell in a megasporangium.
iv) The four microspores formed from a single The four megaspores formed from a
microspore mother cell are generally megaspore mother cell are arranged in the
arranged in a tetrahedral structure. form of a linear tetrad.
v) All the four microspores arranged in a Only one megaspore remain functional
tetrahedral tetrad are functional. while the other three degenerates.
vi) The microspores give rise to male The functional megaspore gives rise to
gametophyte. female gametophyte.
Meiosis occurs during micro- and megasporogenesis. Microspores (pollen grains) a.re formed at the end
of microsporogenesis and female gametophyte (embryo sac) are formed at the end of megasporogenesis.

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11. With a neat diagram and explain the 7-cellcd, 8-nucleate nature of the female gametophyte.
Female gametophyte or embryo sac is a small oval structure that contains a 3-celled egg apparatus, 3
antipodal cells and one binucleate central cell hence, it is 7-celled and 8-nucleate structure.
i) Egg apparatus: It consists of two synergids and an egg cell towards the micropylar end. The cells of
egg apparatus are uninucleate. Synergids towards its micropylar end have cellular thickenings called
filiform apparatus that helps in guiding pollen tube into the synergids.
ii) Antipodal cells: Chalazal end of embryo sac contain three cells of various shapes and sizes called
antipodal cells.
iii) Central cell: It is the single and largest cell which is bounded by a membrane of embryo sac. It
contains two polar nuclei which later fuse to form diploid secondary nucleus. After fertilisation the
central cell gets converted into triploid primary endosperm cell (PEC) which forms endosperm.
18. a) Name the organic material exine of the pollen grain is made up of. How is this material
advantageous to pollen grain?
b) Still it is observed that it does not form a continuous layer around the pollen grain. Give
reason.
c) How are ‘pollen banks’ useful?
a) Exine is the hard outer, protective covering of the pollen grain. It is made of sporopollenin.
Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic compounds, which can withstand high
temperature, strong acids and alkalies. It cannot be degraded by any of the known enzymes. Hence,
it acts as a shield and protects the pollen grain from getting damaged.
b) Exine does not form a continuous layer around the pollen grain. It is absent in certain sections
forming germ pores, where sporopollenin is absent. Germ pores, serves as an outlet for the
formation of a pollen tube.
c) Pollen grains can be stored for years in liquid nitrogen at – 196oC. After this treatment, they are
stored in pollen banks. Such conserved pollen grains can be later used in plant breeding programs.

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19. Describe the process of megasporogenesis, in an angiosperm.

Megasporogenesis is the process of formation of the four megaspores form the megaspore mother cell
(MMC) in the region of nucellus through meiosis. It occurs inside the ovule. Megaspore mother cell is
large and contains a dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus. The MMC undergoes meiotic divisions to
produce four megaspores.
In a majority of flowering plants, only one megaspore is functional while the other three degenerate.
The single functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte.
This method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed monosporic development.
20. a) Can a plant flowering in Mumbai be pollinated by pollen grains of the same species growing in
New Delhi? Provide explanations to your answer.
b) Draw the diagram of a pistil where pollination has successfully occurred. Label the parts
involved in reaching the male gametes to its desired destination.
a) It is possible by artificial hybridisation where the pollen grain of the flower is introduced artificially
on the stigma of another flower. But there should not be self-incompatibility.
For this, in one flower emasculation i.e., removal of anthers is done and then the flower is
bagged.
After some time, the bag is removed and then desired pollen grains are introduced on its stigma.
b) Diagram with following labeling Stigma, Pollen tube, Synergids/Filiform Apparatus, Micropyle.

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2. PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE OF VARIATION
2 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Differentiate between co-dominance and incomplete dominance by giving examples.
Co – dominance Incomplete dominance
1. If F1 generation resembles both parents 1. If F1 generation is in between both parents,
the condition is called co-dominance. the condition is called incomplete dominance
2. e.g : AB blood group in human beings. 2. e.g : Starch grain size in pea, flower colour in
dog flower.
snapdragon (or) Antirrhinum majus
2. i) What are multiple alleles?

ii) They can be found only when population studies are made. Explain it.
i) If there are more than two alleles governing the same character, the condition is called multiple
alleles e.g., ABO blood grouping.
ii) Since only two alleles can be present in an individual, multiple alleles can be found only when
population studies are made.
3. i) In what respect dihybrid crosses carried out by Morgan in Drosophila were different from
Mendel’s dihybrid crosses in pea?
ii) What criteria was used by Alfred Sturtevant to map the position of genes on the chromosome?
i) Morgan’s dihybrid crosses gave different results :
a) He observed that the two genes did not segregate independently of each other.
b) So, the F2 ratio deviated very significantly from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio, which is expected when the
two genes are independent.
ii) Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome
as a measure of the distance between genes and mapped their position on the chromosome.
4. Write down the Mendelian monohybrid phenotypic and genotypic ratios of F2 generation. How
can it be mathematically condensed to form a binomial expression that has the gametes bearing
genes T or t in equal frequency of 1/2 ?
i) In F2 generation, Mendelian monohybrid
Phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1
ii) It can be mathematically condensed to the form of binomial expression (ax + by)2, that has the
gametes bearing genes T or t in equal frequency of 1/2. The expression is expanded as given below

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5. In a Mendelian cross involving true breeding tall pea plants having violet flowers with short pea
plants having white flowers, derive the genotype and phenotype of the progeny in resulting
generation?
Phenotype of progeny = Tall plant with violet flowers

Genotype of progeny = TtWw → double heterozygous
6. A man of blood group A marries a woman with blood group B. The first child of the couple has O
blood group. What other blood groups are expected in their future children?
The first child has O blood group, so the genotype is (IoIo). Now, it is clear that both parents are
heterozygous for A and B blood groups.
Blood groups of future children
Future children can have any blood group i.e., AB, A, B or O.
7. i) State Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment.

ii) Mendel made this generalisation based on what type of cross?
i) The law states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of
characters is independent of the other pair of characters.
ii) It is based on the observations of dihybrid crosses i.e., crosses between plants differing in two traits
8. What is linkage? Explain tightly linked and loosely linked conditions of genes.
i) Physical association of genes on a chromosome is called linkage.
ii) Tightly linked genes show very low recombinations.
Example : Genes for white-eye colour and yellow body colour are very tightly linked and showed
only 1.3 percent recombination in Drosophila.
iii) Loosely linked genes show higher recombinations.
Example : Genes for white eye colour and miniature wing showed 37.2 percent recombination in
Drosophila.
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9. In Snapdragon (Antirrhinum) a cross between varieties with red and white flowers produces all
pink F1 progeny. Explain how it is a case of incomplete dominance and not of blending
inheritance?
In this case, F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents and was in between
the two.
When the F1 was self-pollinated, the F2 results in the ratio of 1 (Red) : 2 (Pink) : 1 (White).
It is not a case of blending as parental characters reappear in F2 generation.
In this case, ’R’ is not completely dominant over ‘r’ and this made it possible to distinguish Rr as
pink from RR (red) and rr (white).
10. Mention four reasons why Drosophila was chosen by Morgan for his experiments in genetics.
The four reasons for which Morgan has chosen Drosophila for his experiments in genetics are as
follows:
Drosophila has a very short life cycle i.e. of 2-weeks. (Reproductive life cycle)
It can be grown easily in the laboratory.
In single mating it produces a large number of flies.
Many hereditary variations have been shown by males and females.
It has only 4 pairs of chromosomes that are distinct in size and shape.
Drosophila shows clear distinction of sexes.
11. Give any two similarities between the behaviour of genes (Mendel’s factor) during inheritance and
chromosomes during cell division.
The two similarities between the behaviour of genes (Mendel’s factor) during inheritance and the
behaviour of chromosomes during cell division are as follows:
In diploid cells, the chromosomes are found in pairs like Mendelian factors.
The chromosomes of different homologous pairs are assorted independently into gametes during
meiosis. This is at random showing parallelism with mendelian factors.
12. Which law of Mendel is universally accepted? State the law?

Mendel’s law of segregation is universally accepted. The law states that – “The two alleles of a gene
remain separate and do not contaminate (not blended) each other in F1 or the hybrid. At the time of
gamete formation, two alleles get separated and enter into different gametes”.
13. How does distance between genes affect linkage and crossing over?
a) Closely situated genes shows more linkage and less crossing over
b) Distantly located gene shows more crossing over and less linkage.

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14. Differentiate between inheritance and variation?

Inheritance is the process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny, while variation is
the degree by which progeny differ from their parents.
15. A diploid organism is heterozygous for three loci, how many types of gametes can be produced?
Also write the genotypes of gametes? Fork line method
It can be calculated by using formula → 2 n
C – ABC
→23 = 8 A–B
c – ABc
C – AbC
A–b
c – Abc
C – aBC
a–B
c – aBc
C – abC
a–b
c – abc
16. Give any two reasons for the selection of pea plants by Mendel for his experiments?
The two reasons for the selection of pea plants by Mendel for his experiments are:
(i) Many varieties are present with contrasting forms of characters.
(ii) They can be easily cross-pollinated as well as self-pollinated.
(iii) It produces large number of offsprings.
17. A test is performed to know whether the given plant is homozygous dominant or heterozygous.
Name the test and phenotypic ratio of this test for a monohybrid cross?
A test cross is performed to know whether the given plant is homozygous dominant or heterozygous and
1:1 is the phenotypic ratio of the test cross for a monohybrid cross and confirms the genotype of
unknown organism is heterozygous.
18. What is a test cross?

A test cross is a cross in which offspring with a dominant phenotype is crossed with a homozygous
recessive individual to determine the offspring’s genotype for the specific trait.
Eg : Tt x tt → Tt, tt – progeny in the ratio 1 : 1.
19. What are the characteristic features of a true-breeding line?
A true-breeding line for a trait is one that has undergone continuous self-pollination, showing a stability
in the inheritance of the trait for several generations.
In order to obtain the F1 generation Mendel pollinated a true-breeding, say, tall plant with a true-
breeding dwarf plant. But for getting the F2 generation he simply self-pollinated the tall F1 plants. All
the F1 offsprings of the cross are heterozygous so allowing self-pollination is sufficient to raise F2
offspring. Also he intended to understand the inheritance of the selected trait over generations.
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20. By using Punnett square depict the genotypes and phenotypes of test crosses (where green pod
colour (G) is dominant over yellow pod colour (g) in Garden pea
Case I : All green coloured pod.

Case II : Phenotype : 50% green pod
50% yellow pod
21. Two independent monohybrid crosses were carried out involving a tall pea plant with a dwarf pea
plant. In the first cross, the offspring population had equal number of tall and dwarf plants,
whereas in the second cross it was different. Work out the crosses, and reasons for the difference
in the offspring populations.
[OR]
Work out a cross to find the genotype of a tall pea plant. Name the type of cross.
This type of cross called a test cross.
In the first cross the tall parent plant is homozygous for the trait, in second cross tall parent plant is
heterozygous for the trait, hence the respective observation.

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22. With the help of one example, explain the phenomena of co-dominance and multiple allelism in
human population.
ABO blood- group in human being is an example of multiple allelism and co-dominance. There are
three alleles for the gene I, i.e., IA, IB, and i, thus, exhibiting multiple allelism.
When IA and IB are present together the blood group is AB. Both A and B blood groups are expressed.
This is called co-dominance.
23. Who proposed chromosomal theory of inheritance? Point out any two similarities in the behaviour
of chromosomes and genes.
It was proposed by Sutton and Boveri.
Similarities:
i) Both genes and chromosomes occur in pairs in a diploid cell (2n).
ii) Both of them separate out during gametogenesis to enter into different gametes.
iii) Paired condition is again restored by fusion of gametes.
24. The map distance in certain organisms between gene A and B is 4 units, B and C is 2 units and
between C and D is 8 units which one of these gene pairs will show more recombination
frequency? Give reasons in support of your answer.
The recombination frequency is directly proportional to the distance between the genes. The distance
between C and D is more, i.e., 8 units in the above condition, so recombination frequency will be more
between them.
25. Study the figures given below and answer the question.
Identify in which of the crosses is the strength of linkage between the genes higher. Give reasons in
support of your answer.
In Cross A, because the genes are closely placed. Lesser the distance between genes greater is the
strength of linkage as lesser is the chance of crossing over between them.

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26. Linkage and crossing-over of genes are alternatives of each other. Justify with the help of an
example.
In Drosophila a yellow bodied white eyed female was crossed with brown bodied red eyed male. The F1
progeny produced, when intercrossed, it was observed that the F2 phenotypic ratio of Drosophila
deviated significantly from Mendel's 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. The genes for eye colour and body colour are closely
located on the 'X' chromosome, showing linkage and therefore, these are inherited together.
Recombinants were formed due to crossing over but at low percentage.
27. State a difference between a gene and an allele.

Gene contains information that is required to express a particular trait whereas alleles are alternating
forms of a gene and are the code for a pair of contrasting traits for e.g., for plant height has two alleles -
for tallness and dwarfness.
28. Name the respective pattern of inheritance where F1 phenotype

a) does not resemble either of the two parents and is in between the two.
b) resembles only one of the two parents.
a) Incomplete dominance b) Dominance
29. a) A geneticist interested in studying variations and patterns of inheritance in living beings
prefers to choose organisms for experiments with shorter life cycle. Provide a reason.
This is because many generations can be obtained (in a short time) and selection of character
becomes faster.
b) Write the percentage of F2 homozygous and heterozygous populations in a typical monohybrid
cross.
The ratio of a typical monohybrid cross is 1 : 2 : 1 where 50% are homozygous and 50% are
heterozygous populations. (25% homozygous dominant, 25% homozygous recessive).
30. a) When a tall pea plant was self-pollinated, one-fourth of the progeny were dwarf. Give the
genotype of the parent and dwarf progenies.
Genotype of parent is Tt and the genotype of dwarf progenies is tt.
b) How many type of gametes are produced by the individual with genotype AABBCCDD and
AaBbCcDd?
One type of gamete by individual (AABBCCDD) ABCD and sixteen (= 24 = 16) type of gametes by
individual AaBbCcDd.

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31. Why, in a test cross, did Mendel cross a tall pea plant with a dwarf pea plant only?
To determine the genotype of the tall plant, whether it is homozygous dominant or heterozygous, as
dwarfness is a recessive trait which is expressed only in homozygous condition and he was sure of
genotype of dwarf plant.
32. a) Name the stage of cell division where segregation of an independent pair of chromosomes
occurs.
Anaphase-I of Meiosis-I.
b) For the expression of traits, genes provide only the potentiality and the environment provides
the opportunity. Comment on the veractity of the statement.
Phenotype = Genotype + Environment
(Trait) (Potentiality) (Opportunity)
33. a) If the frequency of parental type is higher than 25% in a dihybrid test cross, what does that
indicate about the two genes involved?
It shows that the two genes are linked.
b) Who rediscovered Mendel laws of inheritance.
Three scientists - de vries, correns, Tschermak rediscovered Mendels work in 1900.
34. Write the 7 pairs of contrasting traits selected by Mendel.

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3 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. A woman with an ‘O’ blood group marries a man with an AB blood group
i) Work out all the possible phenotypes and genotypes of the progeny.
ii) Discuss the kind of dominance in the parents and the progeny in this case.
When a woman with an ‘O’ blood group marries a man with an AB blood group then
i) All the possible phenotypes of the progeny include blood groups A and B and genotypes of the
progeny will be IA and IB because blood group AB has alleles IA IB and blood group ‘O’ has ii.
Their progeny has both types of blood groups A and B, while the genotype of progeny will be IA Io
and IB Io.
Father’s genes: IA IB
Mother’s genes: ii
Therefore, the cross will be
ii) In the above-mentioned case, the kind of inheritance in the male parent is co-dominance because
both the alleles IA and IB are equally dominant. And female parent is having 2 recessive alleles, their
progeny has either A or B shows complete dominance.
In the case of multiple allelism, gene I exists in three allelic forms, IA, IB and i.
2. In Mendel's breeding experiment on garden peas, the offspring of the F2 generation are obtained
in the ratio of 25% pure yellow pod, 50% hybrid green pods and 25% green pods. State
i) Which pod colour is dominant?
Ans : Green pod colour is dominant.
ii) The Phenotypes of the individuals of the F1 generation.
Ans : Green pod colour is the phenotype of the individuals of the F1 generation.
iii) Workout the cross.
Ans : The cross will be shown as:
Phenotypic ratio - Green : Yellow

3 : 1
Genotypic ratio - GG : Gg : gg
1 : 2 : 1
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3. In Antirrhinum majus a plant with red flowers was crossed with a plant with white flowers. Work
out all the possible genotypes and phenotypes of F1 and F2 generations, comment on the pattern of
inheritance in this case?
When Antirrhinum majus, a plant with red flowers, was crossed with a plant with white flowers, the F1
hybrid was pink i.e. a middle colour between red and white will appear which indicates that both red and
white are incompletely dominant. When F1 individuals were self-pollinated, the F2 generation consists of
red, pink and white flowers that appear in the ratio of 1:2:1 respectively. The pattern of inheritance of
flower colour in Snapdragon or Antirrhinum majus is an example of incomplete dominance.

34
4. A red-eyed male fruit fly is crossed with a white-eyed female fruit fly. Work out the possible
genotype and phenotype of F1 and F2 generation. Comment on the pattern of inheritance in this
cross?
When a red-eyed male fruit fly is crossed with a white-eyed female fruit fly, the offspring will have both
white-eyed male & red-eyed female in the ratio of 1:1 in the F1 generation. In the F2 generation, 50%
females will be red-eyed and 50% will be white-eyed, similarly, in males 50% will be red-eyed and 50%
will be white-eyed.
5. In a cross made between a hybrid tall and red flower plant (TtRr) with dwarf & white flower
(ttrr). What will be the genotype of plants in their offsprings?
When a cross is made between a hybrid tall and red plant (TtRr) with dwarf and white flower (ttrr)
plants then TtRr, ttRr, ttRr, and ttRr will be the genotypes of the plants develop in the F1 generation.
Dihybrid
test cross

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6. A smooth seeded and red-flowered pea plant (SsRr) is crossed with a smooth seeded and white-
flowered pea plant (Ssrr). Determine the phenotypic and genotypic ratio in their F1 progeny, if the
follow law of independent assortment?
When a cross is done between smooth seeded and red-flowered pea plant (SsRr) along with a smooth
seeded and white-flowered pea plant (Ssrr) then 1:3:3:1 will be the phenotypic ratio in F1 progeny i.e.,
rough seed and red flower =1, smooth seed and red flower =3, smooth seed and white flower =3, and
rough seed and white flower =1. The genotypic ratio is F1 progeny will be 1:2:1:2:1:1 i.e., SSRr =1,
SsRr =2, SSrr =1, Ssrr =2, ssRr =1, and ssrr =1.
SR Sr sR sr
Sr SSRr SSrr SsRr Ssrr

sr SsRr Ssrr ssRr ssrr
7. Two heterozygous parents are crossed. If the three loci are linked completely what would be
genotypic ratio in F1 generation for a trihybrid cross?
(Heterozygous parents that have completely linked genes produce only 2 types of gametes.)

36
8. i) Define the terms genotypes, dominant allele and recessive allele.

ii) In what way the inheritance of blood group (ABO system) in man and height of stem in Pisum
sativum are different?
i) a) Genotypes is the genetic constitution of an organism e.g., TT and tt are called the genotypes.
b) Dominant allele : The allele which express in homozygous and heterozygous (F1) condition is
dominant.
c) Recessive allele : The allele which does not express in heterozygous (F1) and is expressed only in
homozygous condition is recessive.
ii)
Blood Group in Man Height of stem in Pisum sativum
(a) The gene for this trait shows multiple alleles. (a) The gene for this shows two alleles
(b) IA and IB together show co-dominance. (b) T is dominant and t is recessive.

Four phenotypes and six genotypes appear in Two phenotypes and three genotypes
(c) (c)
population. appear in population.
9. A dihybrid tall and yellow seeded pea plant was crossed with the double recessive plant.
i) What type of cross is this?
ii) Work out the genotype & phenotype of progeny
iii) What principle of Mendel is illustrated through the result of this cross?
i) When a dihybrid heterozygous tall and yellow pea plant was crossed with the double recessive plant
then, this type of cross is known as a test cross.
ii)
TY Ty tY ty
TtYy Ttyy ttYy ttyy

ty
tall & yellow tall & green dwarf & yellow dwarf & green
Ratio :- 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
iii) Through the result of testcross Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment is illustrated.
According to the principle, in the inheritance of contrasting characters when a dihybrid produces
gametes the factors of each pair of characters segregate independently of the factors of the other
pair of characters.
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10. A cross is made between different homozygous pea plants for contrasting flower positions.
a) Find out the position of flowers in F1 generation on the basis of genotypes,
b) Work out the cross upto F2 generation.
c) Compute the relative fraction of various genotypes in the F2 generation?
a) Axial position.
b)
25 1 50 1 25 1
c) AA = = , Aa = = , aa = =
100 4 100 2 100 4
11. How are dominance, co-dominance and incomplete dominance patterns of inheritance different
from each other?
Dominance: It is a phenomenon in which when two contrasting alleles are present together, one
expresses itself and is called dominant whereas the other which does not express itself is called recessive
e.g., Tt - 'T' is dominant over t (dwarfness).
Co-dominance: It is a phenomenon in which when two contrasting alleles are Present together, both the
alleles express themselves e.g., IA IB genotype gives blood group AB.
Incomplete dominance: It is a phenomenon in which when two contrasting alleles are present together
neither of the alleles is dominant over other and the phenotype formed is intermediate of the two alleles.
e.g.,
Red flower x White flower → Pink flower colour
RR x rr Rr

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4 MARK QUESTIONS (Case based questions) :
1. In 1911, while studying the chromosome theory of heredity, biologist ‘Thomas Hunt Morgan had a
major breakthrough. Morgan occasionally noticed that “linked” traits would separate. Meanwhile, other
traits on the same chromosome showed little detectable linkage. Morgan considered the evidence and
proposed that a process of crossing over, or recombination, might explain his results. Specifically, he
proposed that the two paired chromosomes could “cross over” to exchange information. When
proposing the idea of crossing over, Morgan also hypothesized that the frequency of recombination was
related to the distance between the genes on a chromosome, and that the interchange of genetic
information broke the linkage between genes. Morgan imagined that genes on chromosomes were
similar to pearls on a string; in other words, they were physical objects. The closer two genes were to
one another on a chromosome, the greater their chance of being inherited together. In contrast, genes
located farther away from one another on the same chromosome were more likely to be separated during
recombination. Therefore, Morgan correctly proposed that the strength of linkage between two genes
depends upon the distance between the genes on the chromosome. This proposition became the basis for
construction of the earliest maps of the human genome.
i) The traits which are found tightly linked in Morgan’s experiments were
a) Body colour and wing size b) Eye colour and wing size
c) Body colour and eye colour d) Body size and wing size
ii) How does the concept of linkage help in gene mapping?

a) Linked genes express the characters easily than non-linked genes.
b) Distance between the linked genes can be measured by frequency of recombination
c) Linked genes are larger in size
d) Position of linked genes can be observed in ultra-microscopy
iii) The linked genes behave differently in the way that

a) Linked genes assort easily and enter different gametes
b) Linked gene don’t segregate easily and inherit as a unit
c) Linked genes lead to high cross over and recombination
d) Linked genes segregate only at the time of cell division

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iv) In Morgan’s experimental crosses, the white eyed flies were all males. The clue that it
gives
a) White eye colour is X-linked dominant trait

b) White eye colour is Y-linked dominant trait
c) White eye colour is X-linked recessive trait
d) White eye colour is Y-linked dominant trait
Answers:
i) (c) ii) (b) iii) (b) iv) (c)
2. Read the following and answer any four questions from 2(1) to 2 (v) given below:
Prashant wanted to find the genotype of a pea plant bearing purple coloured flowers that were
growing in his kitchen garden. For this, he crossed purple flowered plant with white flowered
plant. As a result, all plants which were produced had purple flower only. Upon selfing the.se
plants, 75 purple flower plants and 25 white flower plants were produced. Now, he can determine
the genotype of a purple flowered plant by crossing it with a white flowered plant.
i) Which of the following cannot be derived from the crosses done by Prashant?
a) Mendel's law of segregation b) Mendel's law of dominance
c) Mendel's law of Independent assortment d) Both (a) and (b)
ii) To determine the genotype of a purple flowered plant, Prashant crossed this plant with a white
flowered plant. This cross represents a
a) test cross b) dihybrld cross c) reciprocal cross d) trihybrid cross.
iii) In white flowered plant, allele is expressed in
a) heterozygous condition only
b) homozygous condition only
c) F3 generation
d) both homozygous and heterozygous condition.

40
iv) The character, i.e., purple colour of the flowers that appeared in the first filial generation is
called
a) recessive character b) dominant character
c) holandric character d) lethal character.
v) Assertion : When a purple flower plant is crossed with a white flowered plant, the offsprings
are 50% purple and 50% white.
Reasons : Purple coloured flower plant might be heterozygous.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assert ion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion Is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason arc false.
Answers:
i) c) ii) a) iii) b) iv) b) v) a)
3. Read the following and answer any four questions from 3(i) to 3(v) given below:
In a plant species that follows Mendelian Inheritance, yellow flower colour is dominant over white
and round fruit shape is dominant over elongated. Crossing was performed between two
purelines-one having yellow flower and round fruit and another with while flower and elongated
fruit. About 20 plants survived in F1 progeny. Plants of F1 were allowed to self fertilise and about
960 plants survived in F2.
i) How many plants would have yellow flower and round fruit in FI generation?
a) 20 b) 10 c) 5 d) 0
ii) How many plants would have yellow flower and round fruit in F2 generation?
a) 960 b) 540 c) 180 d) 60
iii) Which of the following is correct for the condition when plant heterozygous for yellow flower
and round fruit is back crossed with the double recessive parent?
a) 9 : 3 ; 3; 1 ratio of phenotype only b) 9 : 3 : 3: 1 ratio of genotype only
c) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of phenotype only d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of phenotype and genotype
iv) When the plant heterozygous for yellow flower and round fruit are self crossed, then the plant
with yellow flower and elongated fruit will be represented by the genotype
a) YyRr, YyRR, YYRr b) Yyrr, YYrr, yyrr
c) yyRr, yyRR d) Yyrr, YYrr.

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v) The given Punnett's square represents the pattern of Inheritance in a dihybrid cross where
yellow flower and round fruit (R) condition is dominant over white flower (y) and elongated
fruit (r) condition.
YR Yr yR yr
YR A E I M
Yr B F J N
yR C G K O
yr D H L P
Plant 'C' will produce fruits with the genotype identical to fruits produced by the plant of
a) type H b) type E c) type K d) type I.
Answers:
i) a) ii) b) iii) d) iv) d) v) d)
4. Read the following and answer any four questions from 4(i) to 4(v) given below
ABO blood groups in human beings are controlled by the gene I. The gene I has three alleles. IA, IB
and I0, since there are three different alleles six different genotypes are possible. If two persons
with 'AB' blood group marry and have sufficient large number of children. there children could
be classified as 'A' blood group: 'AB' blood group : B blood group In 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern
technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both 'A′ and 'B' type proteins in 'AB'
blood group individuals.
i) How many types of phenotypes can occur in ABO blood group?
a) Six b) Two c) Three d) Four
ii) ABO blood grouping in human beings is the example of
a) incomplete dominance b) co-dominance
c) multiple allelism d) both (b) and (c) e) b, c and d
iii) The presence of both 'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group individuals is an example of
a) partial dominance b) Incomplete dominance
c) co-dominance d) complete dominance.
iv) If a man of A blood group marries a woman of AB blood group. Which type of progeny
indicates that man is heterozygous?
a) 0 b) B c) A d) AB

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v) Complete the given table regarding different possibilities and their corresponding blood
groups
Genotypes Blood group
IAIB (I)
IBi (II) B
(III) O
IA IB (IV) A
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
a) O IBIB IBi IAi
b) AB IAi IAIB IBi
c) AB IBIB ii IAIo
d) O IAIA ii IAi
Answers:
i) d) ii) e) iii) c) iv) b) v) c)
5. Read the given passages and answer the questions that follow.
Study the figures given below and answer the questions that follow.
i) In a dihybrid cross, when would the proportion of parental gene combinations be much higher
than non-paternal types, as experimentally shown by Morgan and his group?
ii) If two genes are located far apart from each other on a chromosome, how the frequency of
recombination will get affected?
iii) How distance between the genes is related to the frequency of recombination?
iv) What are ‘true breeding lines’ that are used to study inheritance pattern of traits in plants?
Answer :
i) When the genes are linked.
ii) Frequency of recombination will be higher.
iii) If the genes are located nearer on the chromosome then, the recombination frequency is less. If the
genes are located far apart from each other then, frequency of recombination will be higher.
iv) True breeding lines are plants which have undergone continuous self-pollination for several
generations. These are homozygous for traits.
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6. A homozygous tall pea plant with green seeds is crossed with a homozygous dwarf pea plant with
yellow seeds.
a) Write the possible phenotype and genotype of F1 generation.
b) State the laws of Mendel that are proved true by the F1 generation.
c) Mention the F2 phenotypic ratio along with their possible phenotypes.
d) Write the genotypes of the male and female gametes produced by F1 progeny.
a)
The phenotype of F1 progeny : Tall, yellow-seeded.

The genotype of F1 progeny : TtYy
b) Laws of Mendel
i) Law of Independent Assortment
It states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of factors
/ traits is independent of the other pair of factors / traits.
ii) Law of segregation
It states that the members of an allelic pair that remained together in the hybrid / parent segregate
during gamete formation and enter different gametes.
iii) Law of Dominance
It states that in a dissimilar pair of factors of a trait (heterozygous), one of them expresses itself
(dominant) and the other remains hidden (recessive).
c) The F2 phenotypic and their ratios are as follows :
Tall, yellow Tall, green Dwarf, yellow Dwarf, green
seeded plants seeded plants seeded plants seeded plants
9 3 3 1
d) The male and female gametes produced by F1 progeny are

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7. Observe the diagram of the fruitflies given below and answer the questions that follow.
a) Give the i) scientific name of this organism and ii) identify the male and female flies.
b) Why did Morgan select this organism for his experiments? Give four reasons.
c) Which one of the two is heterogametic? Justify your answer.
Answer :
a) i) Drosophila melanogaster ii) A – Male, B - Female
b) Reason for selecting Drosophila :
There is clear differentiation of the sexes, i.e., the male and female flies are easily
distinguishable.
It has many types of hereditary variations that are easily observable.
The fly completes its life cycle in about two weeks; hence, a number of generations can be raised
to study the inheritance pattern of a given trait.
A single mating produces a large number of progeny flies.
The flies could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory.
c) A is heterogametic; it has XY sex chromosome.
It produces two types of gametes with reference to sex chromosomes, 50% with X chromosome and
50% with Y-chromosome.

45
5 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Design a monohybrid cross and explain the Law of Dominance.
Law of Dominance
i) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
ii) Factors occur in pairs.
iii) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive).
Law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental traits in a monohybrid
cross in the F1 generation and the expression of both in the F2 generation. It also explains the proportion
of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2
Phenotypic ratio = 3 Tall : 1 Dwarf

Genotypic ratio = 1 TT : 2 Tt: 1 tt
2. i) Using Punnett square, explain a dihybrid cross between homozygous round yellow and
wrinkled green seed varieties of pea plant
ii) Give the F2 phenotypic ratio
iii) Identify the Mendel’s law which can be explained using this cross.
i)

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ii) Phenotypic ratio of F2 generation is :

Round yellow Round green : Wrinkled yellow Wrinkled green
9 : 3 : 3 : 1
iii) This cross explains Mendel’s law of Independent assortment.
3. Explain the concept of dominance. Why are some alleles dominant and some recessive?
Every gene contains information to express a particular trait.
In a diploid organism, there are two copies of each gene, i.e., as a pair of alleles.
The two alleles may be identical (homozygous) or different (heterozygous).
One of them may be different due to some changes that it has undergone which modifies the
information that particular allele contains.
If the modified allele produces a non-functional enzyme or no enzyme the phenotype will be
affected.
The unmodified (functioning) allele, which represents the original phenotype is dominant allele.
The modified allele is generally recessive allele.
The recessive trait is seen due to non-functional enzyme or because no enzyme is produced.
4. i) Name the gene which controls ABO blood groups in humans.

ii) How many alleles exists for this gene? What is the difference in their functioning?
iii) Why AB blood group shows co-dominance?
iv) Write down the possible genotypes for blood group B.
i) The gene I controls ABO blood groups.
ii) The gene I has three alleles IA, IB and i. Alleles IA and IB produce slightly different form of the
sugar while allele i does not produce any sugar.
iii) Organism with AB blood group possess both IA and IB and they express their own types of sugars
so this is co-dominance.
iv) IBIB, IBi (IBIO)

47
5. i) Describe an example of a condition where a single gene produces more than one effect.
ii) What does this explain about the property of the gene?
i) a) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene. It has two alleles B and b.
b) Starch is synthesised effectively by BB homozygotes and therefore, large starch grains are
produced.
c) ‘bb’ homozygotes have lesser efficiency in starch synthesis and produce smaller starch grains.
d) After maturation of the seeds, BB seeds are round and bb seeds are wrinkled. Heterozygotes
produce round seeds and so, B seems to be the dominant allele. But, the starch grains produced
are of intermediate size in Bb seeds.
e) So, if starch grain size is considered as the phenotype then from this observation we can say that B
allele shows incomplete dominance.
ii) This explains that dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has
information for. It depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular
phenotype from this product as it does on the particular phenotype that we choose to examine, when
more than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.
6. On the basis of Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance, find out the result of following crosses on Pisum
sativum.
i) A tall homozygous and dominant variety is crossed with a dwarf variety.
ii) Progeny of (i) is selfed.
iii) Progeny of (i) is crossed with tall parent.
iv) Progeny of (i) is crossed with dwarf parent.
v) What type of cross is attempted in (iv)?

48
(v) It is a test cross
7. How many F1 gametes (types), F2 genotypes and F2 phenotypes would be expected from the
following crosses:
i) AA × aa ii) AABB × aaBB

49
8. a) a garden pea plant bearing terminal, violet flowers, when crossed with another pea plant
bearing axial, violet flowers produced axial, violet flowers and axial, white flowers in the ratio
of 3:1
Work out the cross showing the genotypes of the parent pea plants and their progeny.
b) Name and state the law that can be derived from this cross and not from a monohybrid cross.
a) Dihybrid cross:
Since white flowers have appeared in the progeny, both the parents must be heterozygous for flower
colour, i.e. Vv.
Since all plants in the progeny have axial flowers, the parent with axial flowers, must be
homozygous for the trait, i.e., AA.
Genotypes of the parents are as follows.
Terminal, violet flowers : aaVv
Axial, violet flowers : AAVv
Parents Terminal Axial
Violet X Violet
Flowers Flowers
aaVv AAVv
Gametes: aV av AV Av

50
aV av
AV AaVV AaVv
Av AaVv Aavv
AaVV = Hybrid Axial, Pure violet flowers – 1

AaVv = Hybrid Axial, hybrid violet flower – 2
Aavv = Hybrid axial, white flower – 1
The phenotypic ratio:
3Axial, violet flowers: 1 axial, white flowers is justified
Genotypic ratio : 1 : 2 : 1
b) Law of Independent assortment
It states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of traits is
independent of the other pair of trait.
9. a) A true. breeding homozygous pea plant with green pods and axial flowers as dominant
characters, is crossed with a recessive homozygous pea plant with yellow pods and terminal
flowers. Work out the cross up to F2 generation giving the phenotypic ratios of F1 and F2
generation respectively.
b) State the Mendelian principle which can be derived from such a cross and not from
monohybrid cross.
a)

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b) From the above cross law of independent assortment can be derived which states that when two pairs
of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of character is independent of the other
pair of characters.
10. Differentiate between the following :

a) Dominance and recessiveness
b) Homozygous and heterozygous
c) Monohybrid and dihybrid
a) Difference between Dominance and recessiveness
S.No. Dominance Recessive
i) The phenomenon where one allele The phenomenon where an allele expresses
expresses itself even in the presence of itself in the absence of its dominant allele
other allele. but remains masked in its presence.
ii) Dominant allele forms a complete Recessive allele forms incomplete or
functional enzyme due to which defective, or non-functional polypeptide
complete polypeptide is formed to enzyme, due to which non-functional
express completely. polypeptide is formed and fails to express
completely.
b) Difference between Homozygous and heterozygous
S.No. Homozygous Heterozygous
i) When both alleles of a gene are similar, then When both alleles of a gene are
the individual is called homozygous. dissimilar, then the individual is called
heterozygous.
ii) The genotype is expressed as TT or tt, i.e., The genotype is expressed as Tt, i.e.,
they contain either both dominant alleles or they contain one dominant allele and
both recessive alleles. one recessive allele.
iii) They are true breeding, leading to pure lines. They are not true breeding.
iv) The gametes produced by them are similar in The gametes produced by them are of
genotype. two types, one with dominant allele and
other with recessive allele.
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c) Difference between Monohybrid and dihybrid

S.No. Monohybrid Dihybrid
i) It is the cross between two individuals It is the cross between two individuals
considering a single contrasting trait or taking two contrasting traits or
character at a time. characters at a time.
ii) It helps to study the inheritance of a pair of It helps to study the inheritance of two
allele. pairs of allele.
iii) The phenotypic ratio in F2 generation is 3 : 1. The phenotypic ratio in F2 generation is
9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
iv) The genotypic ratio in F2 generation is 1: 2 : 1 The genotypic ratio in F2 generation is
1: 2 : 2 : 4 ; 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1.
11. In shorthorn cattle, the coat colours red or white are controlled by a single pair of alleles. A calf
which receives the allele for red coat from its mother and the allele for white coat from its father is
called a ‘roan’. It has an equal number of red and white hairs in its coat.
a) Is this an example of codominance or of incomplete dominance?
b) Give a reason for your answer.
c) With the help of genetic cross explain what will be the consequent phenotype of the calf when
i) red is dominant over white ii) red is incompletely dominant
a) It is a case of codominance
b) Codominance refers to the condition, where two alleles of a gene/trait express themselves, when they
are together in an organism or a hybrid.
Since both red hair and white hair are present in the body of a roan, it is codominance.
If it were due to incomplete dominance, the calf will have hair with colour intermediate between red
and white and not red and white hair.
c) i) Red is dominant over white
ii) Red is incompletely dominant

53
12. What is the inheritance pattern observed in the size of starch grains and seed shape of Pisum
sativum? Work out the monohybrid cross showing the above traits. How does this pattern of
inheritance deviate from that of Mendelian law of dominance?
In Pisum sativum, a single gene controls two phenotypes:
i) the size of starch grains and ii) the seed-shape; such a phenomenon, is called pleiotropy.
Starch synthesis is controlled by a gene, which has two alleles, B and b.
Starch is synthesised effectively by homozygote BB and the starch grains are large.
Homozygotes bb, have lesser efficiency for starch synthesis and hence the starch grains produced
are small.
After maturation, BB seeds are round and bb seeds are wrinkled.
Heterozygotes, Bb, produce round seeds, i.e., round seed-shape is dominant over wrinkled seed
shape.
But the starch grains in them (Bb) are of intermediate size; this shows that the alleles show
incomplete dominance for the size of starch grains, though they show complete dominance
(round seeds) for seed shape.
The cross is as follows:
The phenotypic and genotypic ratios are the same and are as follows:
This has deviated from the Mendelian monohybrid phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1 due to incomplete
dominance of one of the traits controlled by the gene.

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3. MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

2 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. What is central dogma in molecular biology? Who proposed it?
“Central dogma” states that genetic information flows from DNA → RNA → Proteins
Francis Crick proposed central dogma.
2. a) What is transcription?
b) Write the segment of RNA transcribed from given DNA.
31 CAGTACTACGTAT 51 → Template strand
51 GTCATGATGCATA 31 → Coding strand
a) The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as
transcription.
b) 51GUCAUGAUGCAUA 31 ( During transcription A will pair with U)
3. i) What is nucleosome?
ii) Draw the nuclesome structure
i) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome.
ii)
4. What is the length of DNA in the following?

i) Ø x 174 ii) Bacteriophage lambda iii) E.coli iv) Human diploid cell
The length of DNA is usually defined as number of nucleotides (or) base pairs present in it.
i) Ø x 174 - 5386 nucleotides = 5386 x 0.34 nm = 1.83 x 10-3 mm
ii) Bacteriophage lambda - 48,502 bp = 48,502 x 0.34nm = 16.49x 10-3mm
iii) E.coli - 4.6 x 106 bp = 4.6 x 106 x 0.34nm = 1.564mm
iv) Human diploid cell - 6.6 x 109 bp = 6.6 x 109 x 0.34nm = 2.244m

55
5. Differentiate heterochromatin and Euchromatin.

Euchromatin Hetero chromatin
These are the regions where chromatin is These are the regions where chromatin is
loosely packed densely packed
It stains lighter It stains darker
It is transcriptionally active It is transceiptionally inactive
6. Differentiate between leading and lagging strands.

Leading Strand Lagging Strand
For synthesis of leading strand the polarity of For synthesis of lagging strand the polarity of
template strand is 3′ → 5′. template strand is 5′ → 3′.
The replication is discontinuous in the form
Replication occurs continuously towards the
of short okazaki fragments away from the
replication fork.
replication fork.
7. Define origin of replication.

Replication begins at a particular region of DNA which is called origin of replication (ORI).
Prokaryotes have single ORI site in their genome whereas many ORI sites are present in genome of
Eukaryotes.
8. Who proved semi conservative mode of DNA replication in Eukaryotes? Explain.

Taylor and his colleagues in 1958 performed an experiment on Vicia faba (faba beans) by using
radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly synthesized DNA in the chromosomal DNA
replication. This experiment proved that the DNA in chromosomes also replicate semiconservatively.
9. Define the terms exon and intron.

Exon - Coding or expressed sequences present in a cistron that appear in processed RNA
Intron - Non coding sequences present in cistron that does not appear in processed RNA.
10. Write the differences between monocistronic and polycistronic structural genes.
Monocistronic structural genes Polycistronic structural genes
Synthesizes only one type of protein Synthesizes different types of proteins
Present mostly in eukaryotes Present mostly in prokaryotes.
One structural gene is flanked by a Many structural genes are flanked by
promoter and a terminator common promoter and terminator

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11. Write a short note on different types of RNA polymerases in nucleus of eukaryotes and their
products.
There are 3 type of RNA polymerases in nucleus of eukaryotes those are
RNA polymerase I , II and III
RNA polymerase type Function
RNA polymerase - I 28s , 5.8s , 18 s r- RNA
RNA polymerase – II hn RNA (heterogeneous nuclear RNA)

RNA polymerase –III 5 s r- RNA, t- RNA, Sn RNA (small nuclear RNA)
12. What is point mutation? How does point mutation leads to sickle cell anaemia?
Point mutation – Change of single base pair in a gene
The point mutation in the gene for beta globin chain results in the change of amino acid residue
glutamate to valine. It results into a diseased condition called as sickle cell anemia
13. Explain the importance of ribosome in translation?

Ribosomes are protein factories. They bind to m – RNA for initiation of translation.
Peptide bond formation in between the 2 amino acids that are present inside the larger subunit of
ribosome occurs during polypeptide synthesis.
14. a) What is the anticodon of the t- RNA that brings Methionine?

b) Explain about Release factors in translation.
a) AUG – codes for methionine and anticodon in the t RNA that carries methionine is 3′ UAC 5′.
b) Release factors are proteins that bind to the stop codon and helps in termination of translation and
release of polypeptide from the ribosome.
15. What is the function of β-galactosidase and permease in Lac operon?

β-galactosidase enzyme breaks down Lactose into 2 monosaccharides galactose and glucose.
Permease : This enzyme is coded by Lac y-gene and it helps in transport of Lactose into the E.coli
cells by increasing permeability of cell membrane towards lactose.

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16. a) What is charging of t-RNA?

b) Draw a labelled diagram of Translation elongation.
a) Amino acid is activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their cognate t-RNA in the presence of
enzyme Amino acyl t-RNA synthetase. This charged t-RNA is useful for synthesis of proteins that
occur during Translation.
b)
17. Write the full form of SNPs, BAC and YAC.

SNPs – Single nucleotide polymorphisms
BAC – Bacterial artificial chromosome
YAC – Yeast artificial chromosome
UTRs – Untranslated regions
18. a) List the two methodologies involved in human genome project. Mention how they were used?
b) Expand “YAC” and mention for what it was used?
a) The two methodologies involved in human genome project are:
i) Expressed sequence Tags : Identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA
ii) Sequence Annotation : Sequencing the whole set of genome that contains both coding and
Non – coding sequences and later assigning different regions with functions.
b) “YAC” – stands for yeast artificial chromosomes. It is used as a cloning vector for cloning large
sequences of DNA.
19. Briefly describe “Bioinformatics”

The science which deals with handling and storing of huge information of genomics as data base and
using computer technology helps in analyzing, modelling and providing various aspects of biological
information, especially at molecular level connected with genomics and proteomics is called
Bioinformatics.

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20. Carefully examine structures A and B of pentose sugar given below. Which one of the two is more
reactive? Give reasons.
A is more reactive
2′ – OH group present in the pentose sugar makes it more labile, catalytic and easily degradable.
21. Although a prokaryotic cell has no defined nucleus, yet DNA is not scattered throughout the cell.
Explain.
In a prokaryotic cell, the DNA is not scattered throughout the cell but present in the form of a
membrane-less structure called the nucleoid. The prokaryotic cells uses a specific mechanism to pack
the genetic material tightly into this region.
The prokaryotic cells do take up a measure against this by folding the fibres and forming genophore.
22. Discuss the role of the enzyme DNA ligase plays during DNA replication.
The DNA ligase enzyme joins or seals the discontinuous fragments of DNA. It helps in joining the
DNA strands together by catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bond. It also plays an
important role in repairing the single-strand break in the DNA duplex. It also plays an important role in
joining the discontinuously synthesized fragments of the lagging strand (Okazaki fragments) of DNA.
23. A segment of DNA molecule comprises of 546 nucleotides. How many cytosine nucleotides would
be present in it if the number of adenine nucleotides is 96?
In a double stranded DNA,
Number of Adenine = Number of Thymine
Number of Guanine = Number of Cytosine
Given that, Number of Adenine = 96
Number of Thymine = 96
Total Number of Adenine and Thymine = 192
Total Number of Nucleotide = 546
Number of Cytosine and Guanine = 546 - 192 = 354
Number of Guanine = Number of Cytosine
Number of Cytosine = 354 / 2 = 177
24. State any four salient observations drawn from the human Genome Project.
Salient features of the human genome as drawn from the human genome project are 1. Human genome
consists of 3164.7 million nucleotides. 2. The average gene consists of 3000 bases. But the size of each
gene vary greatly. 3. Approximately 30,000 genes are present in human genome. 4. The functions of
over 50 per cent of the discovered genes are unknown. 5. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for
proteins. 6. A large part of the human genome is made up of repeated sequences. Repetitive sequences
are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times.

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25. State a functional difference between the following codons:

a) AUG and UAA
b) Specific and Degenerate
a) AUG acts as an initiator codon while UAA acts as a stop codon.
b) In genetic code, specific means one codon codes for only one specific amino acid whereas
degenerate means some amino acids are coded by more than one codon.
26. Given below is one of the strands of a DNA segment:

TACGTACGTACGTACG
3'  → 5'
a) Write its complementary strand.
b) Write a possible RNA strand that can be transcribed from the above DNA molecule formed.
a) Complementary DNA strand- 5' ATGCATGCATGCATGC 3'
b) RNA strand - 5′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC 3′
27. What is ‘Ori’? State its importance during cloning of a vector.

'Ori' or the origin of replication is the sequence where the replication starts in a plasmid. During cloning
of a vector, it is important because any sequence linked to 'ori' in a plamid vector will get replicated. Ori
controls the copy number of the linked DNA.
3 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. What is transforming principle in Griffith experiment, Explain?
In 1928, Frederick Griffith performed a series of experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae. He used
two strains of bacteria called S-strain (Virulent) and R-strain (Non-virulent). During the course of his
experiment, he noticed a living organism had changed in physical form.
In this experiment observations are as follows :
S Strain → inject into mice → Mice die
R Strain → inject into mice → Mice live
S Strain (heat killed) → inject into mice → Mice live
S Strain (heat killed)
+ inject into mice → Mice die
R Strain (live)
He observed that mixture of heat killed S-Strain & live R bacteria injected into mice leads to death of
mice. More over he recovered living S bacteria from the dead mice.
So Griffith concluded that the R Strain bacteria must have taken up something from heat killed S Strain
and he called it as “transforming principle”, which allowed the R strain to “transform” into S Strain.

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2. In 6 turns of ds DNA, if Adenine is 20% then calculate

i) No. of purines ii) No. of hydrogen bonds iii) No. of deoxy ribosesugars
1 turn of ds DNA = 10bp
So, 6 turns = 60bp = 120 bases
20
20% of 120 → x120 = 24 = Adenine
100
As per Chargaff’s rule → A + G = T + C
A = 24, T = 24
G = 36, C = 36
So No. of hydrogen bonds in 24 (A = T) 24 x 2 = 48
36 (G ≡ C) 36 x 3 = 108
= 156 hydrogen bonds
[ ∵ A and T pair with 2 hydrogen bonds & G and C pair with 3 hydrogen bonds]
i) No. of purines = A + G = 24 + 36 = 60
ii) No. of hydrogen bonds = 156
iii) No. of deoxyribose sugars = 120
[∵ No.of N2 bases = no.of sugars = no.of nucleotides]
3. i) What is the chemical name for Thymine?

ii) What is Chargaff’s rule?
iii) What is reverse transcription?
i) 5-Methyl uracil
ii) This rule states that there is a 1 : 1 ratio of purines (A + G) to pyrimidine (T + C). This is true
because always A binds with T and G binds with C in a dsDNA.
i.e., [A] = [T], [G] = [C] and [A + G] = [T + C]
iii) The flow of information from RNA to DNA is called reverse transcription and the enzyme involved
is reverse transcriptase. It is also called teminism. It occurs generally in retroviruses, that have RNA
as genetic material.
4. What is semi conservative DNA replication?

The formation of two daughter DNA molecules from a single parent DNA molecule is called replication.
After replication each DNA molecule would have one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.
This scheme was termed as semi conservative DNA replication.

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5. Differentiate between DNA and RNA

DNA RNA
Generally double stranded molecule Generally single stranded molecule
Thymine and cytosine are pyrimidines Uracil and cytosine are present as pyrimidines
Pentose sugar is deoxyribose Pentose sugar is ribose
More stable and less reactive More reactive and less stable
6. Enlist the enzymes and proteins involved in DNA replication.

The following enzymes and proteins are involved in DNA replication
DNA Helicase
DNA Gyrase
DNA polymerase I, II and III in prokaryotes
DNA polymerase α, β, γ, δ, ε in eukaryotes
DNA Ligase
DNA primase
Single stranded binding protein (SSBPs)
7. The replication of DNA and cell division cycle should be highly coordinated. Why?
In eukaryotes, the DNA replication takes place at S – phase of the cell cycle.
In prokaryotes, DNA replication occurs prior before binary fission.
The DNA replication and cell division cycle should be highly co-ordinated.
A failure in cell division after DNA replication results into polyploidy ( a chromosomal anamoly).
If karyokinesis occurs and cytokinesis is delayed, it leads to multinucleate condition.
8. Explain the processing of primary transcript in eukaryotes.

There are 3 stages in processing of primary transcript.
i) Capping
ii) Tailing
iii) Splicing
i) Capping
An unusual nucleotide called as 7′ Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to 51 end of hn RNA
in a template independent manner.
CAP is essential for forming m- RNA – ribosome complex during translation.
ii) Tailing
In tailing, adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3'-end of hn RNA in a template independent
manner.
iii) Splicing
The primary transcripts contain both the exons and the introns. Introns are non-functional, hence
it is subjected to a process called Splicing, where the introns are removed and exons are joined in
a defined order with help of Spliceosome (SnRNA + Proteins).

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9. Both the strands of DNA are not copied during transcription. Why?
There are two reasons why both the strands of DNA should not act as templates during
transcription.
i) First reason :
If both the strands of DNA act as template, they would code for RNA molecule with different
sequences and inturn if they code for proteins, the sequence of amino acids in the proteins would
be different.
Hence one segment of DNA would be coding for two different proteins
This will complicate the genetic information transfer machinery
ii) Second reason :
If both the strands of DNA act as template, the two RNA molecules produced simultaneously
would be complementary to each other, hence would form a double stranded RNA. This would
prevent RNA from being translated into protein.
10. a) Draw the schematic structure of a transcription unit

b) Write a short note on promoter and terminator.
a)
b) Promoter - It is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase
It is said to be located towards 51 end (upstream) of the structural gene
Presence of promoter in a transcription unit also defines template and coding strands.
Terminator - It is located towards 31 end of coding strand and it usually defines the end of the
transcription process.
11. What does the Lac operon consists of and What do they code for?
Lac operon consists of the following
a) Operator : Acts as a switch and is present between Promoter and Structural genes
b) Regulator gene : This is inhibitory gene that produces repressor protein.
c) Promoter : This is the site of binding of RNA polymerase.
d) Structural genes – z, y, a
z – gene – codes for β-galaclosidase
y – gene – codes for permease
a – gene – codes for transacetylase

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12. Mention various levels of regulation of gene expression in Eukaryotes.

The regulation of gene expression occurs in eukaryotes at four levels.
Transcriptional level or formation of primary transcript.
Post transcriptional level or processing of hn RNA to form mature RNA (m RNA)
Transport of m RNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
Translational level or synthesis of proteins
13. Write the applications and future challenges of HGP?

Complete sequence of Human genome when properly studied, will enable to develop radically
new approach to biological research.
It enables us to understand how enormous number of genes and proteins work together.
All genes in a genome and transcripts in a particular tissues, organ or tumour can be studied.
14. Write any four applications of DNA finger printing?

It is used as a tool in forensic tests to identify criminals and criminal investigations.
It is used to settle paternity disputes and maternity disputes.
It is used to determine population and genetic diversities to study evolution.
It is used in the study of evolutionary biology.
15. Why is the Human Genome project called a mega project?

Human Genome Project is called a mega project because of the following reasons :
Sequencing of more than 3 x 109 bp
Identification of all the genes present in human genome
High expenditure of more than 9 billion dollars.
Identification of all the alleles of genes and their functions.
Storage of data for sequencing would require space equal to 3300 books of 1000 pages each, if each
page contains 1000 letters.
16. A small stretch of DNA strand that codes for a polypeptide is shown below:
3′ . . . . CAT CAT AGA TGA AAC . . . .5′
a) Which type of mutation could have occurred in each type resulting in the following mistakes
during replication of the above original sequence?
i) 3′ . . . . . . . . . . . . CAT CAT AGA TGA ATC. . . . . . . . . 5′
ii) 3′ . . . . . . . . . . . . CAT ATA GAT GAA AC. . . . . . . . . 5′
b) How many amino acids will be translated from each of the above strands (i) and (ii)?
Answer :
a) i) Point mutation / single base substitution
ii) Point mutation / single base deletion
b) i) 4 amino acids
ii) 4 amino acids
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17. a) How does mutation occur?

b) Differentiate between point mutation and frame shift mutation.
Answer :
a) Loss (deletion) or gain (insertion / supplication / addition) or change in position of DNA segments /
chromosome.
b) Mutation due to change in a single base pair of DNA is point mutation.
Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion or
deletion called as frameshift mutations.
18. Explain the mechanism of translation that occurs in the ribosomes in a prokaryote.
Initiation
For initiation the ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG) that is recognized only by
initiator tRNA.
Elongation
In the elongation phase, amino acid with tRNA sequentially bind to the appropriate codon on mRNA
(forming complementary base pairs with tRNA anticodon), Ribosome moves from codon to codon along
the mRNA and amino acids are added one by one on the two sides of the large subunit joined by peptide
bond.
Termination
Termination occurs when a release factor binds to the stop codon and releases the complete polypeptide.
19. a) Explain VNTR and describe its role in DNA fingerprinting.

b) List any two applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer :
a) VNTR
i) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats.
ii) Used as a probe (because of its high degree of polymorphism).
b) Forensic science / criminal investigation (any point related to forensic science) / determine
population and genetic diversities / paternity testing / maternity testing / study of evolutionary
biology.

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20. “Use of heavy isotope of nitrogen by Meselson and Stahl demonstrated semi-conservative mode of
replication of a DNA molecule.” Explain how did they arrive at this conclusion.
The significance of heavy isotopes: • The heavy isotope of nitrogen is incorporated into the DNA of the
Escherichia coli. • It can be distinguished from the 14N DNA by centrifugation with cesium chloride. •
When the E.coli is then grown in medium containing 14N ammonium chloride,(14NH4CI), in the first
generation a single band is formed in between the lighter and heavy isotopes known as hybrid band. • In
the second generation two bands formed, one in the lighter side and the other in between the lighter and
heavier side. • This showed that the DNA is semiconservative.
21. Draw a polynucleotide chain (four nucleotides long) of DNA having four variable nitrogenous
base.
22. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a nucleosome. Name the two basic amino acid residues present
mainly in the nucleosome.
a)
b) Histones are made of basic amino acid arginines and lysines. Both amino acid residue carry positive
charges in their side chains. This gives Histones a positive charge.

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1. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and Ribonucleic acid (RNA) are the two types of Nucleic acids found
in the living systems. DNA acts as the genetic material in most of the organisms although RNA
also acts as a genetic material in some microbes.
a) Write about any two criteria a molecule must fulfil to act as a genetic material.
b) Give examples of two microbes that have RNA as genetic material.
c) Which nucleic acid was the first genetic material?
(or)
c) If a dsDNA segment has 20% Adenine. Calculate the percentage of Guanine present in the
dsDNA.
Answer:
a) A molecule that acts as a genetic material must fulfil the following criteria.
i) It should be able to generate its replica.
ii) It should be stable chemically and structurally.
iii) It should provide scope for slow changes that are required for evolution.
iv) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian characters.
b) TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus) and QB bacteriophage.
c) RNA was the first genetic material
(or)
c) If dsDNA has 20% Adenine.
Apply chargaff rule 50% purine = 50% pyrimidine
% of purine = % pyrimidine
A+G=T+C
20 + G = 20 + C
A + G = 50%
∴ G = 50% – 20% = 30%

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2. Translation refers to the process of polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide. Genetic
code is the set of N2 bases present in mRNA that is translated into amino acids to form a protein.
George Gamow suggested that in order to code amino acids, each codon should be made up of
three Nucleolides .
a) What is a sense Codon?
b) Three consecutive bases in the DNA molecule provide the code. What is the maximum number
of triplets that could occur?
c) What does AUG code for?
d) How many codons are Nonsense codons?
(or)
d) Explain code is degenerate.
Answer:
a) A codon is a set of 3 nucleotides in mRNA that codes for an amino acid
b) There are 4 nitrogen bases in a DNA (A, G, C, T), As code is triplet.
4 x 4 x 4 = 64 codons
c) AUG codes for the amino acid Methionine
d) Nonsense codons are stop codons that terminates translation, they are UAA, UAG, UGA
(or)
d) Code is degenerate as some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. (e.g) Serine is coded by
6 different codons.
3. DNA finger printing is a technique of determining nucleotide sequences of certain areas of DNA
which are unique to each individual. Each person has a unique DNA finger print and this finger
print is the same in every cell, tissue and organ of a person and DNA finger printing is the identity
of a person and is useful in paternity testing in case of disputes.
a) Who developed the technique of DNA finger printing?
b) Suggest a technique to a student who needs to separate DNA fragments
c) VNTR stands for?
d) How is a small amount of DNA sample collected is enough to identify the suspects?
(or)
d) What are the two plants that have been sequenced along with Human Genome Project?
Answer:
a) Alec Jeffreys developed DNA fingerprinting technique.
b) Gel electrophoresis is the technique used for separating DNA fragments.
c) VNTR stands for Variable Number of Tandem Repeats.
d) Small amount of DNA sample is enough as it can be amplified manifold by polymerase chain
reaction.
(or)
d) Rice, Arabidopsis

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4. DNA synthesises RNA through transcription and the enzyme required is generally called as RNA
polymerase, there are three major types of RNA such as mRNA, rRNA & tRNA synthesized from
DNA .
a) How many types of RNA polymerases are there in Eukaryotes?
b) What are split genes?
c) What is a primary transcript?
d) Explain capping and tailing.
(or)
d) Where does transcription occur in Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes?
Answer:
(a) In Eukaryotes there are 3 main types of RNA polymerases in Nucleus.
i) RNA polymerase I
ii) RNA polymerase II
iii) RNA polymerase III
and 4th RNA polymerase is found inside cell organelles such as Mitochondria and Chloroplast.
b) Split genes are found in Eukaryotes, it consist of Exons and Introns. Introns are intervening
sequences or non coding sequences and exons are expressing sequences or coding sequences.
c) In Eukaryotes the first formed hnRNA is primary transcript and it undergoes splicing to form
mature mRNA. During splicing introns are removed and exons are joined.
d) Capping : During post transcriptional changes an unusual nucleotide methyl guanosine triphosphate
is linked to 5’end of hnRNA
Tailing : Poly A tail is attached at 3’end of hnRNA.
(or)
d) In prokaryotes, transcription occurs in cytoplasm
In Eukaryotes, transcription occurs in Nucleus.
5. In a typical case of disputed parentage, the mother of the baby girl, claimed person ‘X’ to be the
father of her child. Person ‘X’ responded in a negative way. Feeling helpless, the mother took legal
advice and filed a case against the person ‘X’. At the start, the person remained firmed on his
words. While the case was progressing, that on one hearing, person ‘X’ pointed on another person
‘Y’ to be the culprit. Finding the situation to be taking a different turn, the court decided to take
help from medical side. Both the persons were forced to give their sample of tissue.
a) What was the reason of taking the sample of both the persons?
b) What could have been done next with the sample?
c) What do you think, only the given two samples were enough for the court to arrive at some
conclusion?
d) Mention the criteria that must have been considered as the base that led to conclude
something?

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Answer :
a) To obtain the DNA of both the persons from their samples.
b) The obtained DNA was used to get DNA specific finger print.
c) No. To conclude and find out the real parents of the child (father) DNA print of the mother and the
child is also required for comparison.
d) Comparison of VNTR’s of the child with mother and the suspects.
6. The DNA as a special molecule for genetic information is considered a safe, non -changeable set of
information. For further security, it is adjunct to proteins, embedded in a special karyoplasms and
may even be enclosed within a membrane. Whatever may be the reason, two more integral
reasons contribute to stability and they are deoxyribose sugar and methylated uracil. It also have
a mechanism to redo the mistakes that may occur anytime during life.
a) What is the other name of methylated uracil?
b) Why deoxyribose is considered a better alternative?
c) What ensures that mistakes could be identified and corrected?
d) Based on the information in ‘c’ how much of the parental information is conserved in the
daughter DNA?
Answer :
a) Thymine
b) Free oxygen is removed.
c) Complimentary pairing
d) 50%
7. Griffith in his experiments on mice and Pneumococcus bacteria, shortlisted his findings. What he
was able to observe was little astonishing as he was not able to pin point what actually converted
rough strain into smooth strain. Since the mice could die only in the presence of smooth strain, so
when he did not use living ‘S’ variety, how could the mice die. The solution of heat killed ‘S’ might
be having something that may be the cause of conversion of living ‘R’ into living ‘S’ strain. Three
more scientists worked on the basic concept led by Griffith. They used hydrolases to digest
proteins, RNA and DNA separately. To their surprise, they observed that use of protease or
ribonucleotidase(RNase) cannot protect the mice from dying. But when only
deoxyribonucleotidase (DNase) was used, then the mice did not die. They concluded that the
enzyme was capable to digest DNA (S-strain) in the solution, so no molecule is left to convert living
‘R’ strain into living ‘S’ strain. Hence they were able to indicate that it is the DNA which is the
transforming principle which Griffith was not able to conclude.

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a) What is the name of the three scientists involved in the experiment above?
b) Why DNA was called as transforming principle?
c) What was the role of enzymes mentioned above?
d) In one experiment, living ‘R’ was not able to kill the mice, but in another similar experiment
where living ‘R’ was used along with solution from heat killed ‘S’ the mice died. What this
indicates?
Answer :
a) Avery, Mac Leod, Mac Carty
b) Since DNA was able to modify the character of living ‘R’ strain.
c) Enzymes were used to digest the suspected molecules, one enzyme is used per experiment.
d) It proves that the genetic information of heat killed ‘S’ strain might have entered the living ‘R’
variety, then only transformation could occur.
8. It was Franklin & Wilkins, who were the first to get X-ray data on DNA. Watson & Crick
proposed the double helical structure of DNA based on the X-ray diffraction obtained by Franklin
and Wilkins. They were of the opinion that the two chains of polynucleotide are linked by H-bonds
formed between complementary base pairs. Chargaff, who after studying the data concluded that
the structure can be explained by base complementarily rule. The basic information that the
backbone of DNA made up of sugar and phosphate with N-bases projecting inside as rungs of
ladder. The two chain being anti-parallel in polarity i.e. one has the polarity 5’-3’ and other 3’-5’.
Since the two chains could be separated also by heating so the nucleotides on two strands must be
held by hydrogen bonds which was later found to be in the configuration as A=T and C ≡ G. Two
chain are coiled in a right handed fashion. The X-ray structure also depicted that the pitch of helix
in 3.4nm with 10 base pairs. The distance between two base pairs is 0.34nm.
a) What formed the base for the above data?
b) What resulted in the pairing of the two chains?
c) How can we conclude that DNA can replicate itself with great accuracy any number of times?
d) The two chains are separated by a gap of 2nm. What does this indicates?
Answer :
a) X-ray pattern of the DNA
b) Complementarity of base pairing ensures error free replication.
c) Enzyme DNA polymers have a proof reading function that checks for errors and correct them.
d) Anti Parallel arrangement of two chains and purines of one strand is complementary to pyrimidines
of another strand.

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5 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Explain “Hershey – Chase” experiment with the help of a diagram.
The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material from the Hershey and Chase experiment in
1952. They used bacteriophages which has the ability to infect E.coli.
They used two different kinds of culture media one with 35S & another with 32P to detect whether the
genetic material is DNA or protein.
Phages grown in 32P medium contained radioactive DNA because DNA contains phosphorous. And
phages grown in 35S medium contained radioactive protein but not radioactive DNA because DNA
does not contain sulphur.
The steps of the experiment include :
1. Infection : The radioactive phages are allowed to infect to E.coli separately
2. Blending : Blender was used in experiment to remove the empty phage capsids (or ghosts)
sticking to the surface of bacteria.
3. Centrifugation : Centrifuge was used to separate Virus particle from the bacteria.
Both supernatant and pellet were checked for radioactivity.
In culture with radioactive 35S it was found that pellet containing bacteria was not radioactive.
Instead radio activity was restricted to supernatant which was found to contain only capsid
(protein coat).
On the other hand, in the 2nd culture with 32P it was found that supernatant containing capsid was not
radioactive instead bacteria become labelled proving that only DNA of the phage entered the
bacteria.
So finally Hershey and Chase concluded that the genetic material is DNA but not the protein.

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2. Describe the salient features of double- helix structure of DNA with a neat diagram.
Watson and Crick proposed the double helix model of the structure of DNA in 1953.
The salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA are as follows:
It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate,
and the bases project inside.
The two chains have anti-parallel polarity. It means, if one chain has the polarity 5' → 3', the
other has 3' → 5' .
The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond (H-bonds) forming base pairs (bp).
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine from opposite strand and vice-versa.
Similarly, Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with three H-bonds. As a result, always a purine
comes opposite to a pyrimidine and they are complementary. This generates approximately
uniform distance between the two strands of the helix.
The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion. The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm
(a nanometre is one billionth of a metre, that is 10-9 m) and there are roughly 10 bp in each turn.
Consequently, the distance between a bp in a helix is approximately 0.34 nm.
Thus, in addition to H-bonds, the plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix
confers additional stability to the helical structure.
DNA double helix

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3. Explain the experimental proof of semi conservative mode of replication.

It is proven that DNA replicates semiconservatively. In prokaryotes like in Escherichia coli and
subsequently in higher organisms, such as plants and human cells. Mathew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
performed the following experiment in 1958 in E.coli.
They grew E. coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl (15N is the heavy isotope of nitrogen) as the only
nitrogen source for many generations. The result was that 15N was incorporated into newly
synthesised DNA (as well as other nitrogen containing compounds). This heavy DNA molecule
could be distinguished from the normal DNA by centrifugation in a Cesium chloride (CsCl) density
gradient (Please note that 15N is not a radioactive isotope, and it can be separated from 14N only
based on densities).
Then they transferred the cells into a medium with normal 14NH4Cl and took samples at various
definite time intervals as the cells multiplied, and extracted the DNA that remained as double-
stranded helices. The various samples were separated independently on CsCl gradients to measure
the densities of DNA
iii) Thus after 20minutes in growing 14N medium the DNA of E.coli is extracted and centrifuged. This
DNA has hybrid or intermediate density. DNA extracted from the culture after another generation [that
is after 40 minutes, II generation] was composed of equal amounts of this hybrid DNA and of light DNA
molecules.
4. Discuss the mechanism of DNA replication in E.Coli.

Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes. In addition to acting as substrates, they provide
energy for polymerization reaction (the two terminal phosphates in a deoxynucleoside triphosphates
are high-energy phosphates, same as in case of ATP).
In addition to DNA-dependent DNA polymerases, many additional enzymes are required to
complete the process of replication with high degree of accuracy.

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There is a definite region in E.coli DNA where the replication originates, such regions are termed as
origin of replication (ORI).
For long DNA molecules, since the two strands of DNA cannot be separated in its entire length (due
to very high energy requirement), the replication occur within a small opening of the DNA helix,
referred to as replication fork. The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only
in one direction, that is 5'→3'. This creates some additional complications at the replicating fork.
Consequently, on one strand (the template with polarity 3'→5'), the replication is continuous, while
on the other (the template with polarity 5'→3' ), it is discontinuous. The discontinuously synthesized
fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase.
The Process of DNA replication in E.coli (4.6 x 106bp) requires a set of catalysts.
The main enzyme is reffered to as DNA dependent DNA polymerase since it uses DNA template for
polymerization of deoxyribonucleotides.
The process of DNA replication in E.coli completes within 18 minutes.
5. Explain the process of transcription in prokaryotes with the help of diagram

a) Transcription in prokaryotes
It occurs in cytoplasm
The transcripting enzyme i.e. DNA dependent RNA polymerase is only of one type and
transcribe all types of RNA’s
All three types of RNA are needed to synthesize a protein in a cell.
The process of transcription completes in 3 steps
Initiation
It is catalyzed by sigma (σ) factor (or) initiation factor. It binds to promoter site of DNA and
confers specificity.
When RNA polymerase binds to promoter region of DNA the process of transcription begins

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Elongation
RNA polymerase is only capable of catalyzing the process of elongation
It uses nucleoside triphoshates as substrates and polymerizes in a template- dependent fashion
following rule of complementarity.
It also helps in opening of helix and continues elongation, only a short stretch of RNA attaches
to enzyme
Termination
Rho (ρ) factor is required for termination of transcription.
Once the polymerase reaches the terminator region, Rho factor attached to RNA polymerase, the
nascent RNA falls off and so also RNA polymerase falls off and it results into termination of
transcription
6. Write a note on salient features of genetic code.

i) Triplet code – Each codon is made of three adjacent nitrogen bases. As there are 4
types of bases 4 x 4 x 4 = 64 codons are possible.
61 codons code for 20 amino acids and 3 codons do not code for any
amino acids, hence they function as stop codons.
ii) Non - ambiguous – Each codon codes for specifically only one amino acid
iii) Degeneracy of code – Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code
is degenerate. Eg: Phenylalanine coded by UUU and UUC
iv) Commaless nature – The codon is read in m- RNA in contiguous fashion without any
punctuations or gaps.
v) Nearly Universal code – The code is nearly universal, Eg- UUU would code for phenyl alanine
in all organisms some exceptions found in mitochondria and some
Protozoans.

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vi) Initiation codon – AUG has dual function. It codes for aminoacid Methionine and it also
acts as initiator codon.
vii) Stop signals – UAA, UAG, UGA are stop codons (or) terminator codons (or)
Non –sense codons.
viii) Non – Over lapping – Each codon is independent and one codon does not overlap the next
codon and nitrogen bases of one codon are not again read in another
codon (exceptional cases are found in viruses)
7. Explain the process of Translation?

Translation is the synthesis of proteins from the coding information of m-RNA, it involves the
following steps
Activation of Amino acids
Amino acids are activated in the presence of ATP and enzyme Aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase
Charging of t-RNA
The activated amino acid binds with specific t-RNA to form Amino acylated t-RNA
Initiation of polypeptide chain
The smaller subunit binds to the m-RNA and then the initiator t-RNA binds to the m-RNA. The
larger sub unit gets associated and this requires initiation factors.
Elongation of polypeptide chain
Second activated t-RNA reaches the ‘A’ site and binds to m-RNA. Peptide bond is formed in
between 2 amino acids by ribozyme (23sr RNA in prokaryotes) and this also requires elongation
factors. The ribosome shifts to next codon and this is known as Translocation. The peptidyl site has 2
amino acids and A site is free for incoming activated t-RNA this will continue till the A site reaches
stop codon.
Termination:
When a termination codon (UAA, UAG or UGA) reaches at A site, translation termination occurs as
release factors bind to ribosome and release the polypeptide chain.

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8. Explain about an inducible operon that you have studied.

Lac operon is an inducible operon. If Lactose is present in the surrounding of E.coli. It acts as inducer.
a) Lactose enters the E.coli cell through permease protein present in the cell membrane.
b) The inducer binds to the repressor protein and modifies the protein. The repressor protein cannot
bind to the operator region.
c) The RNA polymerase binds with the promoter and transcription of structural genes proceed.
d) The z – gene codes for β-galactosidase that breaks down Lactose into Galactose and Glucose.
y – gene codes for permease that binds to cell membrane of bacterial cell and helps in transport
of lactose into the cell.
a – gene codes for Transacetylase enzyme.
e) The structural genes express in the presence of inducer Lactose and hence called inducible
operon.
f) In the absence of inducer, the repressor binds to operator and prevents RNA polymerase from
transcribing the Lac operon and hence Lac operon shows negative regulation.
9. A number of passengers were severely burnt beyond recognition during a train accident. Name
and describe a modern technique that can help hand over the dead to their relatives
DNA – Fingerprinting:
The steps / procedure in DNA- fingerprinting include the following:
Extraction: DNA is extracted from the cells in a high – speed, refrigerated centrifuge.
Amplification: Many copies of the extracted DNA are made by polymerase chain reaction.
Restriction Digestion: DNA is cut into fragments with restriction enzymes into precise
sequences.

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Separation of DNA sequences / restriction fragments: The cut DNA fragments are introduced
and passed through electrophoresis set-up containing agarose polymer gel; the separated
fragments can be visualized by staining them with a dye that shows fluorescence under
ultraviolet radiation.
Southern Blotting: The separated DNA sequences are transferred on to a nitrocellulose or nylon
membrane.
Hybridization: The nylon membrane is immersed in a bath and radioactive probes (DNA
segments of known sequence) are added; these probes target a specific nucleotide sequence that
is complementary to them. (especially VNTR probes)
Autoradiography: The nylon membrane is pressed on an X-ray film and dark bands develop at
the probe sites.
The bands form a characteristic pattern, which varies from individual to individual.
From the patterns developed by the samples A and B, it can be confirmed whether they belong to
one individual or two different individuals.
10. a) Describe the interaction of t-RNA, m-RNA and ribosomes during the events of translation.
Functions of RNAs6
1) Messenger RNA (mRNA)
It brings the genetic information of DNA transcribed on it, to ribosomes for protein
synthesis.
It decides the sequences of amino acids in a polypeptide chin.
2) Transfer RNA (tRNA)
It acts as an adapter molecule, that reads the code on mRNA on one hand and binds to
specific amino acid on the other hand.
By its anticodon, it recognizes the codon and leaves the amino acid coded by the mRNA at
the site of protein synthesis.
3) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
It forms the structure of ribosomes.
It also plays a catalytic role; 23SrRNA in bacteria is the enzyme, ribozyme that catalyses the
formation of peptide bond.
b) Explain the Goals and advantages of HGP?
Goals of HGP:
To identify the 20,000 – 25,000 genes in human DNA
To determine all the 3 billion chemical base pair sequences that make up human DNA.
To store the above information in data bases.
To improve the tools for data analysis
To transfer the technologies to other sectors such as industries.
To address the ethical, legal and social issues (ELSI) that may arise from the project.

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Advantages of HGP:
The effect of DNA variation can be studied among individuals which can lead to revolutionary new
ways to diagnose and treat many disorders (or) diseases.
Provides clues to understand human biology
More information can be obtained about non human organisms like Bacteria, Yeast Nematode.
Fruitfly, plants like Rice, Arabidopsis etc.,
11. a) Explain Griffith’s series of experiments where he witnessed transformation in bacteria he

worked with.
b) Name the scientists responsible for determining the biochemical nature of “transforming
principle” in Griffith’s experiments. What did they prove?
a) Frederick Griffith (1928) conducted experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae (bacterium
causing pneumonia). He observed two strains of this bacterium-one forming smooth shiny colonies
(S-type) with capsule, while other forming rough colonies (R-type) without capsule. When live S-
type cells were injected into mice, they died due to pneumonia. When live R-type cells were
injected into mice, they survived. When heat-killed S-type cells were injected into mice, they
survived and there were no symptoms of pneumonia. When heat-killed S-type cells were mixed with
live R-type cells and injected into mice, they died due to unexpected symptoms of pneumonia. He
concluded that heat-killed S-type bacteria caused a transformation of the R-type bacteria into S-type
bacteria but he was not able to understand the cause of this bacterial transformation.
b) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty repeated Griffith’s experiment in an in vitro
system in order to determine biochemical nature of transforming principle. They concluded that
DNA is the hereditary material.
12. Draw a labelled schematic structure of a transcription unit. Explain the function of each
component in the unit in the process of transcription.
Schematic structure of a transcription unit:
i) Promoter: It is the binding site for RNA polymerase for initiation of transcription.
ii) Structural gene: It codes for enzyme or protein for structural functions.
iii) Terminator: It is the region where transcription ends.

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13. Where do transcription and translation occur in bacteria and eukaryotes respectively? Explain
the complexities in transcription and translation in eukaryotes that are not seen in bacteria.
Transcription and translation in bacteria occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. Whereas in eukaryotes,
transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
Complexities in Transcription in Eukaryotes
i) The structural genes are monocistronic and split in eukaryotes.
ii) The genes of eukaryotic organisms having coding or expressed sequences are called exons that form
the part of mRNA and non-coding sequence are called introns, that do not for part of the mRNA and
are removed during RNA splicing.
iii) In eukaryotes, apart from the RNA polymerase found in the organelles, three types of RNA
polymerases are found in the nucleus.
iv) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S).
v) RNA polymerase II transcribes the precursor of mRNA (called as heterogeneous nuclear RNA
(hnRNA).
vi) RNA polymerase III helps in transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA, and snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs).
vii) The primary transcripts contain both the coding region exon and non-coding region intron in RNA
and are non-functional called hnRNA.
viii) The hnRNA undergoes two additional processes called capping and tailing.
ix) In capping, an unusual nucleotide methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5′-end of hnRNA.
x) In tailing, adenylate residues (about 200–300) are added at 3′-end in a template independent manner.
xi) Now the hnRNA undergoes a process where the introns are removed and exons are joined to form
mRNA called splicing.
Translation in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes is similar.
14. a) Explain the process of aminoacylation of tRNA. Mention its role in translation.
b) How do ribosomes in the cells act as factories for protein synthesis?
c) Describe ‘initiation’ and ‘termination’ phases of protein synthesis.
a) Aminoacylation is the process by which amino acids become activated by binding with its aminoacyl
tRNA synthetase in the presence of ATP. If two charged tRNAs come close during translation
process, the formation of peptide bond between them in energetically favourable.
b) The cellular factory responsible for synthesising proteins is the ribosome. The ribosome consists of
structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins. In its inactive state, it exists as two subunits: a large
subunit and a small subunit. When the small subunit encounters an mRNA, the process of translation
of the mRNA to protein begins. There are two sites in the large subunit, for subsequent amino acids
to bind to and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a peptide bond. The ribosome
also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme-ribozyme) for the formation of peptide
bond.

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c) Initiation:
i) In prokaryotes, initiation requires the large and small ribosome subunits, the mRNA, initiation
tRNA and three initiation factors (IFs).
ii) Amino acids become activated by binding with its aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase in the presence of
ATP.
amino acyl
AA + ATP AA-AMP-Enzyme complex + PP
t − RNA synthetase
iii) The AA-AMP-Enzyme complex formed react with specific tRNA to form amino acyl-tRNA
complex.
AA-AMP-Enzyme complex + tRNA → AA-tRNA + AMP + Enzyme
iv) The cap region of mRNA bind to the smaller subunit of ribosome.
v) The ribosome have two sites— A-site and P-site.
vi) The smaller subunit first binds the initiator tRNA and then attain to larger subunit so that
initiation codon (AUG) come on the P-site.
vii) The initiation tRNA, i.e., methionyl tRNA binds to the P-site.
Termination of polypeptide
i) When the A-site of ribosome reach a termination codon which does not code for any amino acid as a
result, no charged tRNA bind to A-site.
ii) Dissociation of polypeptide from ribosome takes place which is catalysed by a ‘release factor’.
iii) There are three termination codons namely UGA, UAG and UAA.

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ZOOLOGY
1. HUMAN REPRODUCTION
2 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Why are human testes located outside of the body? Name the pouch in which they are located.
Human body temperature is normally 37°C. This temperature is not suitable for the process of
spermatogenesis.
Testes are located in a pouch called scrotum. This scrotum provides the suitable temperature for
spermatogenesis i.e 2 - 2.5°C less than the internal body temperature.
2. Write the list of the male sex accessory ducts and write the function of urethra in males.
Male sex accessory ducts:
1. Rete testis 2. Vasa efferentia 3. Epididymis
4. Vasa deferentia 5. Ejaculatory ducts 6. Urethra
Function of urethra in males:
In males urethra helps in the passage of semen and Urine.
3. What is seminal plasma and write its components?

Seminal plasma:
The secretions of male sex accessory glands such as seminal vesicles, prostate gland and bulbourethral
glands is called seminal plasma.
Components of seminal plasma:
Seminal plasma is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
4. Write any four differences between vasa efferentia and vas deferens.
Vasa efferentia Vas deferens
Arise from rete testis Arise from epididymis
Conduct spermatozoa from rete testis to Conduct spermatozoa from epididymis to
epididymis. ejaculatory ducts.
Vary from 15-20 in number Only two in number
short tubes Long and coiled tubes
5. i) Name the layers of uterus. ii) Write the function of middle layer of uterus
i) Uterus wall contains 3 layers
outer perimetrium
middle myometrium
Inner endometrium
ii) Middle myometrium is made of thick layer of smooth muscles. It shows strong contractions during
parturition.

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6. When do spermatogenesis and oogenesis start in humans?

In male humans spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty.
In female humans oogenesis starts during foetal or embryonic stage.
7. What is the difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation?

Spermiogenesis Spermiation
The process of transformation of spermatids into The process of releasing of spermatozoa from
mature spermatozoa is called spermiogenesis the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation
8. Mention the fate of corpus luteum and its effect on the uterus in the absence of fertilization of the
ovum in human female.
In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates and gets converted into corpus albicans.
Progesterone is responsible for the maintenance of endometrium.
Due to the lack of progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum, endometrium will disintegrate
leading to menstruation and thus a new menstrual cycle starts.
9. Draw the diagram of human sperm and label the parts.
10. What is the role of cervix in the human female reproductive system.
Cervix is the lowest region of the uterus. It connects the uterus with vagina and provides a passage
between the vagina and uterine cavity.
Cervix helps in regulating the passage of sperms into the uterus and forms the birth canal to help
parturition.

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11. Write the various events of reproduction in order.

The events of reproduction.
1.Gametogenesis 2. Insemination 3. Fertilisation
4. Implantation 5. Gestation 6. Parturition
12. Give the names and functions of gonadotropins involved in the process of spermatogenesis.
The gonadotropins include LH and FSH
LH acts on Leydig cells to stimulate the secretion of androgens which in turn stimulate the
spermatogenesis.
FSH acts on sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion of some factors which help in spermiogenesis.
13. Why menstrual cycle does not occur during pregnancy?

Absence of menstrual cycle during pregnancy is because of the high levels of progesterone and
estrogen.
High levels of progesterone and estrogen suppress / inhibit anterior pituitary to stop the secretion of
gonadotropins which are required for the development of new ovarian follicles.
Therefore a new cycle cannot be initiated.
14. What is the importance of LH surge during menstrual cycle?

Increase in the levels of estrogen during follicular phase of menstrual cycle increases the levels of
LH from the anterior pituitary.
Due to the increased levels of LH, surge of LH occurs resulting in ovulation.
15. During gametogenesis the chromosome number (2n) decreases to half(n) in the gametes and again
the original number (2n) is restored in the offspring. What are the processes through which these
events take place?
During gametogenesis, the gamete mother cells undergo meiosis and resulting in formation (ovum
and sperm) haploid gametes.
During fertilization, when two haploid gametes fuse and the diploid condition is restored.
16. How does zona pellucida of ovum help in preventing polyspermy?

Zona pellucida is the thick transparent membrane surrounding a mammalian ovum.
The cortical granules present below the plasma membrane of the oocyte fuse with the plasma
membrane and release their enzymatic content between the plasma membrane and zona pellucida.
This process releases enzymes from vesicles that inactivate the sperm receptors and harden the zona
pellucida. Hence polyspermy is prevented.

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17. What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in parturition?

The process of delivery of the fully developed foetus at the end of the gestation is called parturition.
During parturition oxytocin, estrogen, cortisol, prostaglandins and relaxin are involved.
18. i) Which hormones are secreted by placenta during gestation? ii) Name any two hormones which
are secreted only in pregnant women?
i) Hormones secreted by placenta are
hCG : Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
hPL : Human Placental Lactogen
Estrogen
Progesterone
Relaxin
ii) Hormones secreted only in pregnant women are
1. hCG 2. hPL 3. Relaxin
19. Describe the structure of blastocyst.

The blastocyst consists of cells forming an outer trophoblast layer, an inner
cell mass and a fluid filled cavity
Trophoblast provides nutrients to the embryo and develops into a large part of
the placenta.
Inner cell mass is the source of true embryonic stem cells capable of forming
all types of cells within the embryo.
20. Why is breast feeding recommended during the initial period of an infant’s growth? Give reasons.
Mother’s milk is rich in antibodies like IgA. These antibodies provide protection to infant from
various diseases.
Breast milk is rich in nutrients like fat, milk protein casein, milk sugar lactose, various minerals and
vitamins. So milk provides a balanced nutrition which is essential for the healthy growth of baby.
21. Where are fimbriae present in a human female reproductive system? Give their function.
The fimbriae are the finger-like projections present on the edges of infundibulum (fallopian tubes). They
help in collection of ovum after ovulation.

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22. Why does corpus luteum secrete large amount of progesterone during luteal/secretory phase of the
menstrual cycle?
The hormone progesterone is essential for the maintenance of endometrium of the uterus. It maintains
the endometrial lining of uterus so that the foetus may get implanted in the uterus. So, corpus luteum
secretes large amounts of progesterone during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle.
23. Explain the events that follow up to fertilisation when the sperms come in contact with the ovum in
the fallopian tube of a human female.
The secretion of the acrosome help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm of ovum through zona
pellucida and the plasma membrane.
This induces the completion of second meiotic division of the secondary oocyte, forming second
polar body and a haploid ovum.
Soon the haploid nucleus of the sperm and that of the ovum fuse together to form a diploid zygote.
24. Differentiate between menarche and menopause.

Menarche is the beginning of menstrual cycle at puberty. It starts at the age of 13 – 15 years.
Menopause is the cessation of menstrual cycle. It happens around 50 years of age.
25. Explain the function of umbilical cord.

Umbilical cord transports nutrients and respiratory gases and metabolic wastes to and from mother and
foetus.
26. a) Mention the function of mitochondria in sperm.

Provide energy for the movement of sperm tail.
b) Name the important mammary gland secretions that help in resistance of the new born baby.
Antibodies in Colostrum
27. The path of sperm transport is given below. Provide the missing steps in blank boxes.
A – Vasa efferentia, B – Vas deferens.

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28. What are the major components of seminal plasma?

Seminal plasma is the mixture of secretions of male accessory glands which include paired seminal
vesicles, a prostate gland and a pair of bulbourethral glands.
29. Where is acrosome present in humans? Write its function.

Acrosome is present on the sperm head. It has enzymes to help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm of
ovum through zona pellucida and plasma membrane to facilitate entry of sperm nucleus for fertilisation.
3 MARK QUESTIONS :
30. Write the two major functions of testes and ovaries in humans.
Functions of testes:-
Testes are primary reproductive organs in male humans.
Testes produce male gametes called sperms by the process of spermatogenesis
Along with sperm cells testes produce male sex hormones called androgens and other testicular
hormones.
Functions of ovaries:-
Ovaries are the primary reproductive organs in females.
Ovaries produce oocytes or eggs for fertilization by the process of oogenesis.
Ovaries secrete primarily estrogen and progesterone which are important for normal reproductive
development and fertility.
31. Describe the structure of seminiferous tubule with a neat labeled diagram.
Each testicular lobule of testis contains one to three
highly coiled seminiferous tubules.
Wall of each seminiferous tubule is formed by
germinal epithelium.
The inner lining of germinal epithelium contains two
types of cells.
male germ cells (spermatogonia)
sertoli cells.
spermatogonia produce spermatozoa by the process of spermatogenesis.
Sertoli cells support developing germ cells and provide nutrients.
Sertoli cells secrete some factors which are essential for spermiogenesis.

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32. Mention the relationship between the Luteinising hormone and maintenance of endometrium in
the human uterus.
Luteinising hormone secreted from anterior pituitary gland stimulates Graafian follicle to release
secondary oocyte in mid cycle of menstruation resulting in release of ovum by a process called
ovulation.
After ovulation the LH helps in maintenance of corpus luteum from the ruptured Graafian follicle.
Corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland which secretes progesterone hormone that maintains
the endometrium.
33. Scientifically it is correct to say that the sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the
mother. Can you explain this?
All human beings contain 23 pairs of chromosomes in which 22 pairs of chromosomes are
autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes.
Human males contain both X and Y sex chromosomes, on the contrary human females have two X
chromosomes.
The sex of individual is determined by the type of the male gamete (X or Y) which fuses with the X-
chromosome of the female.
If the fertilizing sperm is with ‘X’ chromosome fuses with a female gamete then the baby will be a
girl child and if the fertilizing sperm is Y, then the baby will be a boy child.
34. What are the functions of placenta?

Placenta is a structural and functional unit between developing embryo and maternal body.
Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen,
progesterone etc.,
It facilitates the supply of O2 and nutrients to the embryo.
It also removes CO2 and excretory wastes produced by embryo
It also serves as a barrier and allows only important materials to pass into the foetal blood.
35. Describe the development of fertilized ovum upto implantation.

The fertilization in ampulla of fallopian tube results in formation of zygote.
Zygote moves through isthmus and undergoes repeated mitotic divisions called cleavage.
Cleavage occurs in zygote to form 2, 4, 8, 16…. daughter cells called blastomeres.
8- 16 blastomeres stage is called morula.
Morula continues to divide and transform into blastocyst, as it moves further into uterus.
Blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast which gets attached
to endometrium of uterus.
Inner group of cells in the blastocyst is called inner cell mass which gets differentiated into embryo
At this moment uterine cells divide rapidly and covers blastocyst. In this way blastocyst is
completely embedded in the uterine endometrium. This is called implantation.

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36. What is foetal ejection reflex? How does it lead to parturition?

After completion of gestation, the fully developed foetus and placenta create mild contractions in the
myometrium resulting in expulsion of the foetus outside the womb. This signal is called foetal
ejection reflex.
The foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles and causes stronger uterine contractions, which in turn
stimulate further secretion of oxytocin.
The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contractions and oxytocin secretion continues resulting in
increasingly stronger and stronger contractions.
This leads to expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through birth canal.
37. Why do doctors recommend breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth?
One aspect of post-natal care unique to mammals is lactaction (breast-feeding), the production and
ejection of milk from mammary glands.
The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during pregnancy and starts producing
milk towards the end of pregnancy.
This helps the mother in feeding the newborn.
The milk produced during initial few days of lactation is called colostrum, which contains several
antibodies (especially Ig-A) absolutely essential to protect the new-born babies from initial sources
of infections.
Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing up
a healthy baby.
38. Mention the changes taking place during the transition of a primary follicle to Graafian follicle.
The primary oocytes are surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells to form the primary follicles.
The primary follicles are encircled by more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca layer is formed
resulting in the formation of secondary follicles.
The theca is subdivided into theca externa and an inner theca interna which secretes estrogen.
The secondary follicle is then transformed into a tertiary follicle characterized by antrum, which is a
fluid filled cavity.
At this phase, the primary oocyte grows in size inside the tertiary follicle to complete the first
meiotic division.
The tertiary follicle finally develops to form the Graafian follicle.
The graafian follicle consists of secondary oocyte.

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39. Explain in detail the difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis.

Spermatogenesis is the process of production of sperms from the male germ cell whereas oogenesis
is the process of production of the eggs from oogonia in females.
Oogenesis Spermatogenesis
The production of eggs from oogonia The production of sperms from
spermatgonia
Takes place inside the ovary in females Takes place inside the testes in males.
Early stages are observed during the foetal A continuous process that is initiated from
period. puberty and lasts in old age too.
Rest of the stages are observed between
puberty and menopause
Lengthy growth phase in oogonia The growth phase of spermatogonia is
short.
Generates non-motile gametes Produces motile gametes
Each primary oocyte can produce only one Each primary spermatocyte can produce
ovum four sperms.
40. Name the hormones involved in the process of development of a secondary oocyte (ovum) in
human female from the embryonic stage upto its ovulation.
Hormones involved are:
LH (Luteinising hormone)
FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone)
Estrogen
41. When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans? State their function.
Chorionic villi appear after implantation on the trophoblast.
It becomes interdigitated with uterine tissue to form the placenta and increases the surface area for
exchange of materials between the mother and the embryo.
42. i) How is placenta formed in the human female?

ii) Name any two hormones which are secreted by it and are also present in a non-pregnant
woman.
i) The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a
structural and functional unit called placenta.
ii) Estrogen and progestogens.

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43. It is commonly observed that parents feel embarrassed to discuss freely with their adolescent
children about sexuality and reproduction. The result of this parental inhibition is that the
children go astray sometimes.
i) Explain the reasons that you feel are behind such embarrassment amongst some parents to
freely discuss such issues with their growing children.
ii) By taking one example of a local plant and animal, how would you help these parents to
overcome such inhibitions about reproduction and sexuality?
i) The reasons behind this embarrassment are illiteracy, their conservative attitude, misconceptions,
social myths and generation gap.
ii) It can be seen in animals such as honey bee and plants such as orchid ophrys flower that sexual
attraction is a natural phenomenon. The male honey bee assumes the petal of orchid as its female
partner and pseudocopulates with it. So, sexuality is a natural phenomenon and parents should speak
to their children about it.
44. Draw a labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle.
45. What role does pituitary gonadotropins play during follicular and ovulatory phases of menstrual
cycle and also explain the shift in steroidal secretions.
Menstrual cycle is regulated by hypothalamus through the pituitary gland. At the end of menstrual
phase, the pituitary FSH gradually increases resulting in follicular development within the ovaries. As
the follicles mature, estrogen secretion increases resulting in a surge in FSH and LH. The surge of LH is
responsible for ovulation and formation of corpus luteum that secretes progesterone which helps in
maintaining the endometrium for implantation.

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46. Differentiate between major structural changes in the human ovary during the follicular and
luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
Differences between follicular and luteal phases of menstrual cycle
S. No. Follicular phase Luteal phase

i) During this, primary follicles grow During this, remaining part of Graafian
to become fully mature Graafian follicle transforms into corpus luteum.
follicle.
ii) Endometrium regenerates through Endometrium further thickens secreting

proliferation. progesterone for implantation after
fertilisation.
If fertilisation does not occur, corpus luteum
degenerates.
4 MARK QUESTIONS :
47. Read the below passage and answer the following questions.
Reeta is a working woman, who gave birth to a baby three weeks ago. She has hectic schedule,
she requested her mother-in-law to feed the powdered milk to the baby. However, her mother-in-
law asked her to breast feed the baby.
i) Who is right, Reeta or her mother-in-law?
ii) Why is breast feeding important?
iii) If Reeta does not breast feed the baby what are the conditions Reeta can face?
i) Reeta’s mother-in-law is correct in this context.
ii) Mother’s milk is perfect food for infants. It also protects infant from infections. The milk
produced during initial few days of lactation is called colostrum, which contains several
antibodies (especially Ig-A) absolutely essential to protect the new-born babies from initial
sources of infections.
iii) Reeta can face problems such as
a) Hormonal imbalance in her body
b) Breast cancer may be caused in some conditions.
c) May get immediate pregnancy.

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48. A couple was unable to produce children. The woman’s mother in-law- often blame her for not
bearing the child. The couple decided to visit the doctor to know the reason. Doctor diagnosed the
abnormality in the semen of her husband.
A. What could be the abnormality in the semen?
B. Mention the features of the sperms of the human male ejaculate essential for normal
fertilization
C. Draw a neat labeled diagram of an ovum surrounded by few sperms.
A. The husband might have the less number of the sperm cells or absence of sperm cells or defect in the
structure of sperms.
B. 1. A human male ejaculates about 200-300 million sperms during coitus.
2. At least 60% sperms must have normal shape and size and at least 40% of them must show
vigorous motility for normal fertility
C.
5 MARK QUESTIONS :
49. With the help of a neat diagram of the female reproductive system, depict the following sites.
A. Production of gametes
B. Site of fertilization
C. Site of implantation
D. Birth canal
E. Collection of ovum after ovulation.

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50. Explain the organization of the mammary gland with the help of a diagram.
One of the characteristics of the female mammals is that they possess functional mammary glands.
They are paired structures, containing glandular tissue and variable amount of fat in various
individuals.
The glandular tissue is organized into 15-20 mammary lobes in each breast, which possess alveoli
which are a cluster of cells.
These alveolar cells secrete milk that is stored in the lumens or cavities of the alveoli.
The alveoli open into the mammary tubules.
Mammary tubules in each of the lobes combine to form the mammary duct.
Many such mammary ducts joins to from a mammary ampulla that is connected to the lactiferous
ducts.
Through lactiferous ducts, milk is sucked by the baby.
51. What is reproduction? Explain the various events of reproduction in order.

Reproduction is a biological process of producing young ones.
The reproductive events in humans include formation of gametes (gametogenesis), i.e., sperms in
males and ovum in females, transfer of sperms into the female genital tract (insemination) and fusion
of male and female gametes (fertilisation) leading to formation of zygote.
This is followed by formation and development of blastocyst and its attachment to the uterine wall
(implantation), embryonic development (gestation) and delivery of the baby (parturition).
Reproductive events occur after puberty. There are remarkable differences between the reproductive
events in the male and in the female, for example, sperm formation continues even in old men, but
formation of ovum ceases in women around the age of fifty years.

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52. Where does spermatogenesis occur in human testes? Describe the process of spermatogenesis upto
the formation of spermatozoa.
i) Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of sperm. It takes place in seminiferous tubule of testes.
ii) Spermatogenesis is the sequence of events by which spermatogonia are transformed into mature
sperms. This maturation process begins at puberty.
iii) After several mitotic divisions, the spermatogonia grow and undergo changes.
Spermatogonia undergoes mitotic differentiation into primary spermatocytes in the seminiferous
tubules.
Each primary spermatocyte subsequently undergoes first meiotic division ( reduction division) to
form two haploid secondary spermatocytes.
Secondary spermatocytes then undergo a second meiotic division to form four haploid spermatids.
The spermatids are gradually transformed into four mature sperms by a process known as
spermiogenesis.
53. What are the major features of embryonic development at various months of pregnancy?
The human pregnancy lasts 9 months.
In human beings, after one month of pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed. The first sign of
growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope.
By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of the major organ systems are formed, for example,
the limbs and external genital organs are well developed.
The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during the
fifth month.
By the end of about 24 weeks (end of second trimester), the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids
separate, and eyelashes are formed.
By the end of nine months of pregnancy, the foetus is fully developed and is ready for delivery.

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54. A) Explain about various phases in menstrual cycle.

B) A Proper understanding of menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning. Do you
agree with this statement? Provide reasons for your answers.
A. The various phases of menstrual cycle are.
1. Menstrual phase
2. Follicular / Proliferative phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Luteal / Secretory phase
1. Menstrual phase :-
The cycle starts with the menstrual phase, when menstrual flow occurs and it lasts for 3-5 days.
The menstrual flow results due to breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus and its blood
vessels which forms a fluid that come out through the vagina.
During menstrual phase progesterone and estrogen hormones levels get decreased.
2. Follicular / proliferative phase.
During this phase the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian
follicles and simultaneously the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation.
These changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of pituitary and
ovarian hormones.
The FSH and LH secretions are increased towards the end of the follicular phase, and stimulate
follicular development as well as secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.
3. Ovulatory phase.
In this phase both FSH and LH attain peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day)
Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle is called LH surge.
LH surge induces rupture of graafian follicle and there by the release of ovum. (the secondary
oocyte) called ovulation.
4. Luteal / secretory phase.
During this phase, the ruptured graafian follicle transforms into the corpus luteum.
The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for the maintenance
of the uterine endometrium and prepare for implanation.
Progesterone inhibits uterine contractions and further ovulation if fertilization occurs.
B.1. Yes, a proper understanding of menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning
2. Because one can take appropriate precautions between 10th to 17th of menstrual cycle when the
chances of fertilization are high.

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55. The graph given below shows the variations in the levels of ovarian hormones during various
phases of menstrual cycle.
a) Identify ‘1’ and ‘2’

b) Specify the source of the hormone marked in the diagram.
c) Reason out why. ‘1’ peaks before ‘2’.
d) Compare the role of ‘1’ and ‘2’.
e) Under which conditions will the level of 2 continue to remain high on the 28th day?
a) 1 = oestrogen 2= progesterone
b) Oestrogen is secreted by the growing follicles as well as the corpus luteum and progesterone is
secreted by the corpus luteum.
c) Oestrogen peaks before the progesterone because in the follicular phase, developing follicles release
oestrogen. Since corpus luteum forms after the rupture of graafian follicle progesterone is produced
after ovulation.
d) Estrogen is the hormone that regulates the menstrual cycle while progesterone is the hormone that
supports pregnancy. During pregnancy, these two hormones work together and are responsible for
the changes that take place during pregnancy.
e) If the released ovum is fertilised and gets implanted in the endometrium, then the progesterone level
remains high on the 28th day since corpus luteum is not degenerated and it is maintained by the
human chorionic gonadotropins.
56. a) Write the specific location and functions of the following cell in human males.
i) Leydig cells ii) Sertoli cells iii) Primary spermatocyte
b) Explain the role of any two accessory glands in human male reproductive system.
a) i) Leydig cells:Leydig cells are present in the testicular interstitial tissue, and their main function is
to produce testosterone for the spermatogenesis, extratesticular androgenic and anabolic functions.
ii) Sertoli cells:Sertoli cells are present in the seminiferous tubules of the male gonads, the
testes. A Sertoli cell is a "nurse" cell of the testicles that helps in providing nutrients during
spermatogenesis.
iii) Primary spermatocyte: Primary spermatocyte is a diploid cell that has derived from a
spermatogonium. It undergoes meiosis, to divide into two haploid cells. These haploid cells are
called secondary spermatocytes. Each secondary spermatocyte contains 23 chromosomes whereas
primary spermatocyte contains 46 chromosomes.
b) The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral
glands. Secretions of these glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium
and certain enzymes. The secretions of bulbourethral glands also help in the lubrication of the penis.

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57. Distinguish between a) Corona radiata and Zone pellucida, b) Blastula and Gastrula
a) Differences between corona radiata and zona pellucid
S. No. Corona radiate Zona pellucida

i) It consists of follicle cells. It is a single membrane.
It envelops the egg outside the zona It is above the vitelline membrane making
ii)
pellucida. the membrane thick.
The cells provide nourishment to the egg It protects the egg and shows changes that
iii)
at the time of release from the ovary. block entry of additional sperms.
b) Differences between blastula and gastrula
S. No. Blastula Gastrula

It is a hollow ball of cells with It is a three-layered embryo–3 germ layers
i)
trophoblast and inner mass. being ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
The cavity of the blastula is known as The cavity of the gastrula is known as
ii)
the blastocoels. archenteron.
It is formed from blastula due to the
iii) It results after the cleavage.
movement of cells into 3 germ layers.
58. Study the illustration given and answer the questions that follow:
i) Identify ‘a’ and ‘e’.
ii) Name and state the function of ‘c’.
iii) Identify ‘d’.
iv) Explain the role of hormones in the formation and release of ‘a’.
v) Draw a diagram of ‘b’ separately and label the parts:
P – That help its entry into ‘a’
Q – That carry genetic material
R – That help in its movement

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i) a – ovum and e – perivitelline space
ii) c – zona pellucida. It protects ovum and regulates interaction between ovum and sperms during
fertilisation.
iii) d – cells of corona radiata.
iv) Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulate follicular development. Luteinising hormone (LH)
ruptures Graafian folicle and thereby release ovum.
v)
59. Give the term/reason:

a) Mechanism responsible for parturition.
b) Role of oxytocin during expulsion of the bay out of uterus
c) Why does zona pellucida layer block the entry of additional sperms?
d) Sperm cannot reach ovum without seminal plasma.
e) All copulations do not lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
a) The complete neuro-endocrine mechanism.
b) Oxytocin acts on uterine muscle for stronger contraction.
c) To ensure the fusion of only one sperm with the ovum nucleus.
d) Seminal plasma is a liquid medium which helps the sperm to move and nourishes it.
e) All copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy because fertilisation can only occur of the
ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the ampullary-isthamic junction.

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2. REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
2 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. A mother of one year old daughter wanted to space for her second child. Her doctor suggested
Cu-T. Explain its contraceptive action.
CuT is a non hormone, copper releasing IUD. Its contraceptive action is as follow.,
a) Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of sperm
b) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus
2. After a successful invitro fertilization the fertilized egg begins to divide.

a) Where is the egg transferred in female reproductive tract before it reaches the 8 - cell stage?
b) What is the technique named?
a) After a successful invitro fertilization the egg / Zygote or early embryo is transferred in to the
fallopian tube ( with up to 8 blastomeres)
b) The technique is known as zygote intrafallopian transfer.
3. Our population which was approximately 350 million at the time of our independence, reached
close to the billion mark by 2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in may 2011. Mention the probable
reasons for this?
The probable reasons are :
Rapid decline in Death rate, maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate as well as an increase in
number of people in reproducible age and increased hospital facilities.
4. Mention any two events that are inhibited by the intake of oral contraceptive pills to prevent
pregnancy in humans?
The two events that are inhibited by oral contraceptive pills to prevent pregnancy
Inhibit ovulation.
Inhibit Implantation.
alter the quality of cervical mucus
retard entry of sperms
5. How do Implants act as an effective method of contraception in human females? Mention their
one advantage over contraceptive pills.
Implants are an effective contraceptive method as they
Alter quality of cervical mucus to retard entry of sperms .
Inhibit ovulation and Implantation.
Make the egg to move down the fallopian tube and uterus quickly before fertilization.
Advantage : Effective periods of contraception are much longer.

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6. What could be the complications of STDs, if timely detection and proper treatment is not done?
(or)
What are the conditions in which MTP can be legally performed?
Complications of STDs are
Pelvic Inflammatory diseases (PID),
Abortions.
Still births,
Ectopic pregnancies
Infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract
(or)
Conditions in which MTP can be legally performed are:
a) To get rid of unwanted pregnancy
Due to casual unprotected Intercourse
failure of contraceptive used during coitus or rapes
b) Continuation of pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal either to mother or to the fetus or both
7. Suggest some important steps that you would recommend to be taken to improve the reproductive
health standards in India?
Some important steps that are suggested to improve reproductive health are
Provide infrastructural facilities and professional expertise to attain reproductive health.
Educating people about birth control method care of pregnant mothers, importance of breast feeding
safe and hygienic sexual practices and safeguard against STD’s
Introduction of sex education in schools
Creating awareness through media about reproduction related aspects
Creating awareness about sexual abuse & sex related crimes.
Statutory ban on Amniocentesis to legally check female foeticides. (Any four can be written)
8. The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the fallopian tube. Can gametes
be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result? Explain.
The transfer of female gametes into the uterus will not give same result.
If directly transferred to uterus they will undergo degeneration or could be phagocytosed and hence
viable zygote would not be formed.

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9. How are the two Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs), Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
and Intrauterine insemination different? Explain.
Intracytoplasmic sperm Injection Intrauterine Insemination
Specialized procedure to form an embryo in the In this method semen collected either from the
laboratory in which one sperm is directly injected husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced
into the ovum into the uterus of the female.
Fertilization – occurs outside the body of female Fertilisation - Occurs inside the body of female
(In vitro) (In vivo)
10. Is sex education necessary in schools? Why?

(or)
Why is ‘Saheli’ a well- accepted contraceptive pill.
Necessary because
a) It provides proper information about reproductive organs, adolescence and related changes. Safe and
hygienic sexual practices, STDs, AIDS to adolescent age group, to lead a reproductively healthy life.
b) To provide right information to young so as to discourage children from believing in myths and
having misconceptions about sex related aspects.
(or)
Saheli a well accepted contraceptive pill for females because
It is a non steroidal preparation
Its usage has very few side effects
It has high contraceptive value
It is a ‘ once a week pill”
11. What is amniocentesis? How is it misused?

Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique used to determine sex and metabolic disorder of an
unborn foetus. This technique is often misused to kill an unborn normal female foetus.
12. Why there is a statutory ban on amniocentesis? Why is this technique so named?
There is a statutory ban on amniocentesis because it is being misused to kill unborn normal female
foetuses.
This technique is based on the principle that amniotic fluid contain cells from the skin of the foetus
and other sources
Therefore it can be used to determine its sex, chromosomal abnormalities, etc. hence named
amniocentesis.
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13. Name an IUD that you would recommend to promote the cervix hostility to the sperms.
Progestasert is a hormone releasing IUD (intrauterine contraceptive device) which makes the cervix
hostile to the sperms.
14. State one reason why breast-feeding the baby acts as a natural contraceptive for the mother.
During intense lactation as the prolactin levels are high and it suppresses the release of Gonadotropins
from anterior pituitary gland, ovulation and therefore menstrual cycle do not occur.
15. Why are copper containing intrauterine devices considered an ideal contraceptive for human
females?
Copper containing intrauterine devices (CuT, Cu7, etc) are considered an effective contraceptives for
human females as the Cu ions released by them suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of the
sperm. Hence, they act as effective birth control method.
16. What do oral pills contain and how do they act as effective contraceptives?
Oral pills contain either progestin (progestogen) alone or a combination of progestogen and estrogen
both.
Oral pills inhibit ovulation, motility and secretory activity of oviducts and changes the cervical
mucus that impairs transport of sperms
They also alter the uterine endometrium and makes it unsuitable for implantation. Hence, they act as
effective contraceptives for human females.
17. Why is "Saheli" considered an effective contraceptive for women to space children?
'Saheli' is an oral contraceptive pill containing non-steroidal preparation called centchroman.
It has high contraceptive value with very few side effects.
Saheli targets the estrogen receptors and modifies them in the uterus.
Estrogen cannot bind to the uterus and does not bring about any changes necessary for implanatation.
It prevents implantation and hence considered as effective contraceptive to space children.
18. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option why?

Removal of gonads cannot be a contraceptive option because it will lead to infertility and unavailability
of certain hormones that are required for Normal functioning of Accessory reproductive parts.
19. At the time of Independence, the population of India was 350 million, which exploded to over I
billion by May 2000. List any two reasons for this rise in population and any two steps taken by
the government to check this population explosion.
All round development in various fields and increased health facilities along with better living conditions
has significantly improved the quality of life of people and has resulted in explosive growth of the
population. Two major steps taken by the government to check to this population growth are
People are educated regarding the advantages of a small family try using various contraceptive
methods.
There is statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 18 years and of males to 21 years.
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20. Our government has intentionally imposed strict conditions for MTP in our country. Justify giving
a reason.
Government of India has imposed strict conditions for MTP because it is being misused for sex
determination and illegal abortions of female fetuses.
The other reason is due to female foeticides, male and female ratio may get disturbed, raising many
ethical, religious and social issues.
21. Name any two assisted reproductive technologies that help infertile couples to have children.
Two methods of assisted reproductive technology that help infertile couple to have children are test tube
baby and Artificial Insemination Technique (AIT).
22. Expand: GIFT and ICSI.

GIFT : Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
ICSI : Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.
23. Are contraceptives regular requirements for the maintenance of Reproductive health. Justify?
Contraceptives are not regular requirements for maintenance of reproductive health as
They are practiced against a Natural reproductive event i.e., conception / pregnancy.
One is forced to use the methods either to prevent pregnancy or delay or space pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
24. An infertile couple is advised to adopt test-tube baby programme. Describe two principle
procedures adopted for such technologies.
(or)
A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby programme. List only the basic steps the
procedure would involve to conceive the baby.
Two principle procedures adopted for test tube baby programme are ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian
Transfer) and IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer).
In this procedure fusion of ovum and sperm is done outside the body of a woman, in the laboratory to
form a zygote.
The zygote is then allowed to divide forming 8 blastomeres and is transferred into the Fallopian tube
(ZIFT - Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer).
If the embryo is with more than 8 blastomeres it is transferred into the uterus (IUT - Intra Uterine
Transfer) to complete its further development. Thus, this is in vitro fertilisation (IVF - fertilisation
outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body) followed by embryo transfer (ET).

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25. A couple where both husband and wife are producing functional gametes, but the wife is still
unable to conceive, is seeking medical aid. Describe any one method that you can suggest to this
couple to become happy parents.
In the given case, both the partners are producing normal gametes but female is unable to conceive.
This means that there is some problem with Fallopian tube or uterus or hormonal levels of the
female.
Thus, the method that we suggest to the couple is of surrogacy.
In this method the ova from the wife and sperms from the husband are induced to form zygote in the
laboratory.
The zygote is then allowed to divide to form embryo.
A developing embryo is then implanted in the uterus of another female (Surrogate mother). The
surrogate mother then gives birth to the child.
26. “Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection” and ‘Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer’ are two assisted
reproductive technologies. How is one different from other?
The differences between ICSI and GIFT are :
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
i) Spermatozoan / Sperm is directly injected Sperms and unfertilized ova both are
into the cytoplasm of the oocyte by transferred into the Fallopian tubes of the
puncturing zona pellucida. female where fertilisation takes place.
ii) It comes under invitro It comes under invivo
27. Why is ZIFT a boon to childless couples? Explain the procedure.

ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) is a boon to childless couples as it helps them to become
parents.
In this technique, ova from wife/donor female and sperms from husband/donor male are induced to
form zygote in laboratory.
Zygote is allowed to divide upto 8 blastomeres stage and it is at this stage, a zygote or early embryo
is transferred into the Fallopian tube.
Implantation takes place in the uterus where further development takes place.
28. State any four methods to overcome infertility in human couples.

Following are the four methods to overcome infertility problems in human couples :
Test tube baby programme : In this method, the fusion of ovum and sperm is done outside the body
of a woman (in vitro fertilisation), to form zygote which is allowed to divide to form embryo. The
embryo is then implanted in the uterus where it develops into a foetus and then into the child.
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) : In this technique, embryo is formed in the laboratory by
directly injecting the sperm into the ovum followed by embryo transfer.
Artificial Insemination Technique (AIT) : Semen (containing sperms) from husband or donor is
artificially introduced into vagina or uterus (IUI).
Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) : Sperm and unfertilized ova are transferred into the
Fallopian tube of the female to complete fertilisation and further development.
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3 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. a) Define Infertility?
b) Enlist the probable causes of infertility?
c) Mention the role of Infertility clinics?
a) Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is
called infertility.
b) The reasons for infertility could be physical, congenital, diseases, drugs. Immunological or even
psychological.
c) Specialized health care units could help in diagnosis and corrective treatment of some of these
disorders and enable the couples to have children.
2. Name and explain the surgical methods advised to human males and females as a means of birth
control. Mention its one advantage and one disadvantage.
Vasectomy – Male sterilization
Tubectomy - Female sterilization
Advantage: Devoid of ill effects of contraceptives like nausea, abdominal pain, breakthrough bleeding
irregular menstruation, breast cancer, highly effective
Disadvantage: Reversibility is poor.
3. a) List any four characteristics of an Ideal contraceptive.

b) Name two Intrauterine contraceptive devices that affect the motility of sperms.
a)
User friendly.
Easily available
Effective and reversible with no or least side effects
No way to interfere with sexual drive, desire/ sexual act of the user
b) Cu7,CuT, multiload 375 – affect the motility of sperms.
4. a) After a brief medical examination a healthy couple came to know that both of them are unable
to produce functional gametes and should look for an ART. Name the ART and the procedure
involved that you can suggest to them to help them bear a child.
b) Describe any three steps taken up by our government to check population growth rate.
a) Test tube baby programme should be preferred in the given condition – IVF/ ICSI embryo
transfer.
In this, sperms from husband /donor (male) and ova from the wife /donor (female) are collected
and induced to form zygote in the laboratory.
Zygote or early embryo’s can be transferred into the fallopian tube ( with up to 8 blastomeres) –
ZIFT
embryos with more than 8 blastomeres can be transferred into the uterus – IUT
b) Three steps taken up by our government to check population growth rate are
Motivate smaller families by using various contraceptive methods
Statutory rising of marriageable age of female to 18 years and that of males to 21 years.
Incentives given to couples with small families.
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5. a) Suggest any three reproduction related aspects in which counselling can be provided at the
school level.
b) Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive functions comment.
a)
Physical and physiological changes at puberty
Misconceptions about the reproductive system
STDs
Reproductive Health.
b) Reproductive health refers, not only to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions, but a total
well-being in all aspect of reproduction i,e physical, emotional , behavioral and social according to
world health organization (WHO)
6. a) Mention the problems that are taken care of by Reproduction and Child Health Care
Programme.
b) What is aminocentesis and why there is a statutory ban on it?
a)
Reproduction and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes cover wide range of reproduction - related
areas.
Creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects and providing facilities
and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under these
programmes.
b)
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique used to determine sex and metabolic disorder of an
unborn foetus. This technique is often misused to kill an unborn normal female foetus.
There is a statutory ban on amniocentesis because it is being misused to kill unborn normal female
foetuses.
This technique is based on the principle that amniotic fluid contains cells from the skin of the foetus
and other sources and therefore can be used to determine its sex, chromosomal abnormalities, etc.
hence named amniocentesis.
7. If implementation of better techniques and new strategies are required to provide more efficient
care and assistance to people, then why is there a statutory ban on amniocentesis? Write the use of
this technique and give reason to justify the ban.
Better techniques and new strategies provide more efficient care and assistance to people but these
are often misused by the people for their benefit. Best example of this is amniocentesis.
Amniocentesis is a prenatal sex and disorder determining test which can be used to determine any
chromosomal, biochemical and enzymatic abnormality in an unborn foetus.
This technique is often misused to kill the normal unborn female foetus therefore it is banned. Yes,
the ban is fully justified so as to prevent the growing number of female foeticides in the country.

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8. Name two hormones that are constituents of contraceptive pills. Why do they have high and
effective contraceptive value? Name a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill.
Two hormones that are constituents of contraceptive pills are progestogen (progesterone) and
estrogen.
Oral pills may contain either progestogen alone or a combination of both progestogen and estrogen.
Oral (contraceptive) pills have high and effective contraceptive value as they help to prevent
pregnancy by inhibiting body’s natural cyclical hormones.
They usually stop the body from ovulating, change cervical mucus to make it difficult for sperm to
go through cervix, and prevent implantation of the fertilized egg.
Pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by females.
‘Saheli’ is a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill.
9. a) Name any two copper releasing IUDs.

b) Explain how do they act as effective contraceptives in human female.
a) Two copper relasing IUDs are CuT and Multiload 375.
b) Copper containing intrauterine devices (CuT, Cu7, etc) are considered an effective contraceptives for
human females as the Cu ions released by them suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of
the sperm. Hence, they act as effective birth control method.
10. A woman has certain queries as listed below, before starting with contraceptive pills. Answer them
a) What do contraceptive pills contain and how do they act as contraceptives?
b) What schedule should be followed for taking these pills?
a)
estrogen.
b) Contraceptive pills have to be taken daily for 21 days starting within the first five days of menstrual
cycle and this has to be repeated after a gap of 7 days in the same pattern till the female desires to
prevent conception.

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11. Name and explain the surgical method advised to human males and females as a means of birth
control. Mention its one advantage and one disadvantage.
Surgical methods of birth control advised to human males and females are vasectomy and tubectomy
respectively.
In vasectomy a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small cut on the
scrotum
In tubectomy a small part of the Fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small cut in the
abdomen or through vagina.
Both vasectomy and tubectomy are permanent birth control methods with no side effects
One disadvantage of this procedure is that their reversibility is very poor.
One advantage of both the techniques is that they are highly effective.
12. Describe the lactational amenorrhea method of birth control.

Lactational amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) is a natural method of birth control and is based
on the fact that ovulation or the cycle does not occur during the period of intense lactation following
parturition.
As no medicines or devices are used in these methods, side effects are almost nil. However, this
method is effective up to maximum period of six months after parturition.
4 MARK QUESTIONS :
a) Explain the reasons that you feel are behind such embarrassment amongst some parents to
b) By taking one example of a local plant or animal, how would you help these parents to
a) The possible reasons that are behind the feeling of embarrassment amongst some parents who could
not discuss freely about reproduction and sexuality with their children are:
Some parents feel they do not have enough reliable source of accurate information.
Some parents believe that talking about sex will lead the adolescent child to experiment. In fact,
research shows that teens who have talked with their parents about sex are more likely to
postpone sex and use birth control measures when they do begin.
Sometimes the society is also responsible as it has set several barriers between parents and child
which do not allow them to talk regarding reproduction and sexuality.
Parents still living with orthodox mindsets find hard to initiate such talks with their children
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b) Example : 1
The parents can explain the process of reproduction and sexuality by taking the example of mango
tree.
Mango tree can be seen easily in our localities. It bears both male and female flowers.
The parents can help the child in distinguishing male part from female part in a flower. Further, they
can explain the child about the reproductive phenomena in the flower.
In flower, the pollen grains from male are transferred to the stigma of female part.
The pollen grain carry male gamete and the ovule present in female carry female gamete.
When pollen grains are transferred to the stigma, male gamete fuses with the female gametes and
brings about fertilisation.
Fertilisation results in the formation of zygote which later develops into new plant. And hence, we
may see a new mango plant growing near the existing tree.
Example : 2
In the same way, parents can explain their child about reproduction and sexuality by taking the
example of dogs that can easily be seen in the localities.
The male dog inseminate the female dog and transfers the male gamete (sperm) into the female dog
by copulation.
The two gametes i.e., sperm and egg fuse inside the body of the female dog. This is known as
internal fertilisation or internal syngamy.
It results in the formation of zygote, which develops inside the body of female dog into the embryo
and then into a fully formed fetus.
The time between conception till the birth of young one is called gestation period.
In dogs, it is of 60-63 days. After the completion of gestation period, female dog gives birth to the
young ones, i.e., puppies.
2. Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programmes are currently in operation. One of the
major tasks of these programmes is to create awareness amongst people about the wide range of
reproduction related aspects as this is important and essential for building a reproductively
healthy society.
a) "Providing sex education in schools is one of the ways to meet this goal, Give four points in
support of your opinion regarding this statement.
b) List any two 'indicators' that indicate a reproductively healthy society
a) Providing sex education is one of the most effective ways to create a reproductively healthy society
because
it will provide the pre-requisite knowledge to the curious adolescents, which will prevent them
from getting misguided.
it will create awareness about STDs (sexually transmitted diseases) and ways to prevent and cure
them.
it will teach methods of family planning and taking care of a female during pregnancy.
it will also create awareness about topics such as infertility and different methods of curing the
same.
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b) Two indicators of reproductively healthy society are :
Reproductively healthy society does not emphasise on a single sex. In such society, the female
and male sex ratio is maintained. Moreover, due to implementation of family planning measures,
the population size is under control.
A reproductively healthy society has fewer incidences of diseases related to reproductive system
and few cases of spread of sexually transmitted diseases. Incidences of death of pregnant women
or foeticide due to complicated pregnancies are much reduced due to availability of precise
health care for pregnant women.
3. A large number of married couples over the world are childless. It is shocking to know that in
India the female partner is often blamed for the couple being childless.
a) Why in your opinion the female partner is often blamed for such situations in India? Mention
any two values that you as a biology student can promote to check this social evil.
b) State advantages and disadvantages of hormonal contraceptive.
c) Suggest a technique that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with male
partner.
a)
There is a common myth prevailing in our society that inability of a couple to have child is due to the
infertility of female partner only, it is because female carries the child in her womb.
Being a biology student we should create awareness among people that both male and female
partners equally contribute for having a child.
This is because baby is formed from zygote that is formed by fusion of both male and female
gametes. Hence, infertility in either male or female can be responsible for inability to have child.
Infertility in both males and females can be easily cured as there are so many specialized infertility
clinics which provide treatments to childless couples.
In case treatment is not possible, the couples can be assisted to have children through certain special
techniques called the assisted reproductive technologies.
b) Advantages:
They do not disturb the normal sexual activity of the people. Have lesser side effects
Disadvantage:
Alter the menstrual cycle, long term usage may result in increased cholesterol and may cause
obesity. Other side effects include nausea, abdominal breakthrough bleeding, even breast cancer.
c)
If the problem is with a male partner then artificial insemination technique can be adopted.
In this technique the sperms collected either from the husband or a healthy donor are artificially
introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI-Intra-Uterine Insemination) of the female.

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5 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
Condoms are the barriers made of thin rubber or latex sheath, that are used to cover the penis in
the males and the vagina and cervix in females during coitus. Observe the diagram given below
and answer the questions that follow.
A B
a) What is the principle of birth control in the barrier methods
b) Identify the male and female contraceptive devices, A and B respectively.
c) How do they function as contraceptive?
d) Mention two advantages (other than contraception) that are provided by these to the user.
e) Name two reusable barriers used by females.
a) In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting the help of barriers.
b) Male contraceptive device is Nirodh (condom) female contraceptive device (B) is female condom
eg: femidom
Penis in male or vagina and cervix in the female are covered just before coitus so that ejaculated
semen would not enter female reproductive tract and there by prevent conception.
Provide additional benefit of protecting user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
Cervical caps, vaults
2. a) Name two of the medical grounds for termination of pregnancy when pregnancy is more than
12 weeks and fewer than 24 weeks.
b) Mention early symptoms of most of STD’s?
c) What schedule to be followed for taking the oral contraceptive pills.
d) Mention the advantages of Natural methods of contraception over artificial methods (any two)
a) If the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, two registered medical
practitioners must be of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the required ground exist. The
grounds for such termination of pregnancies are:
The continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of
grave injury physical or mental health
There is a substantial risk that of the child were born, it would suffer from such physical or
mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.

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b) Early symptoms of most of STD’s are minor and include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain,
swellings etc. in the genital region.
c) Pills have to be taken regularly for 21 days starting within the first five days of menstruation cycle to
be repeated after a gap of 7 days.
d) Natural methods are easy and demand no cost, No medicines, devices and surgeries
Do not have side effects.
3. Describe any 5 Birth control methods?

i) Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
a) Periodic abstinence is one such method in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from
day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected. As chances of fertilisation
are very high during this period, it is called the fertile period. Therefore, by abstaining from coitus
during this period, conception could be prevented.
b) Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is another method in which the male partner withdraws his penis
from the vagina just before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
ii) In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of
barriers. Such methods are available for both males and females.
a)
Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber / latex sheath
They are used to cover the penis in the male or vagina and cervix in the female, just before coitus
The ejaculated semen would not enter into the female reproductive tract. This can prevent
conception.
‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Use of condoms has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit of protecting the user from
contracting STIs and AIDS.
Both the male and the female condoms are disposable, can be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy
to the user.
b)
Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the
female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus.
They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.
They are reusable.
Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with these barriers to increase their
contraceptive efficiency

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iii) Another effective and popular method is the use of Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs). These devices are
inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These Intra Uterine Devices are
presently available as
a) the non-medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop),
b) copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375)
c) hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20).
Action of IUDs :
Increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm
motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms.
The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the
cervix hostile to the sperms.
IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children.
It is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
iv)
Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or progestogen–estrogen combinations
is another contraceptive method used by the females.
They are used in the form of tablets and hence are popularly called the pills.
Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days starting preferably within the first five days of
menstrual cycle.
After a gap of 7 days (during which menstruation occurs) it has to be repeated in the same pattern
till the female desires to prevent conception.
They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent/retard entry of sperms.
Pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the females.
Saheli –the new oral contraceptive for the females contains a non-steroidal preparation.
It is a ‘once a week’ pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
v)
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation, are generally advised for the male/female partner as a
terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.
Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent conception.
Sterilisation procedure in the male is called ‘vasectomy’ and that in the female, ‘tubectomy’. In
vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the
scrotum.
In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in
the abdomen or through vagina. These techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is
very poor.

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2 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. a) Name the group of viruses responsible for causing AIDS in humans. Why are these viruses so
named?
b) List any two ways of transmission of HIV infection in humans, other than sexual contact.
a) i) Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV) (Retro virus).
ii) It reduces the immunity against diseases.
b) i) Contaminated blood transfusion.
ii) Injective contaminated syringes.
2. Reproductive health refers only to healthy ' reproductive functions. Comment.

i) Reproductive health refers to the normal functioning of reproductive organs. According to WHO it
may be defined as the complete well-being in all aspects of reproduction, whether it is social,
behavioural, emotional or physical.
ii) Reproductively healthy persons may not only have physically and functionally normal reproductive
organs, but also have normal behavioural and emotional interactions amongst them in all sex
related aspects.
3. Comment on the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCHC) programme of the government to
improve the reproductive health of the people.
i) Improved programmes covering wider reproduction related areas are currently in operation under
the popular name ‘Reproductive and child healthcare programmes’.
ii) Creating public awareness regarding reproduction related aspects and providing facilities to build
up a healthy society with added emphasis on the child and mother health are the basic aims of the
RCHC programmes.
4. Mention two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method.

The two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method are as follows :
i) As no medicines are used in this method, side effects are almost nil.
ii) It does not require any insertion of any internal device at the time of sexual intercourse.
5. What is the significance of Progesterone-oestrogen combination as a contraceptive measure?

i) Progesterone-oestrogen combination plays an important role as a contraceptive measure. They are
used in the form of pills or tablets.
ii) These pills inhibit the Process of egg release from mature Graafian follicle (called ovulation) and
implantation. They also alter the quality of cervical mucous to prevent or retard the entry of
sperms.

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6. Our government has intentionally imposed strict conditions for MTP in our country. Justify
giving a reason.
i) Government of India has imposed strict conditions for MTP because it is being misused for sex
determination and illegal abortions of female fetuses.
ii) The other reason is due to female foeticides, male and female ratio may get disturbed, raising many
ethical, religious and social issues.
7. STDs can be considered as self-invited diseases. Comment.

i) STDs are those infections which are caused due to sexual intercourse. It can be considered as self-
invited diseases because their spread is mainly through the unprotected sex with multiple or
unknown partners.
ii) STD can be prevented by using condom during coitus, avoiding sex with multiple partners and
consulting a doctor for its early detection and treatment.
8. Mention the primary aim of the “Assisted Reproductive Technology” (ART) programme.
i) The primary aim of the “Assisted Reproductive Technology” (ART) programme is used to assist
infertile couple to have children through special techniques after the proper diagnosis and
providing correct treatment of the fertility problems.
ii) Various techniques of ART are IVF, ZIFT, GIFT and ICSI, etc.
9. Describe the chemical methods of birth control.

Chemical methods of birth control are as follows:
i) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are introduced in the vagina, they adhere to mucos
membrane, immobilize and kill sperms.
(Note : It may cause allergic reaction, has chances of failure)
ii) Pills are taken as oral contraceptives that inhibit ovulation, implantation and alter the quality of
cervical mucus.
10. Name three incurable and one curable sexually transmitted diseases and their causative
organisms.
Sexually transmitted disease Causal agent
i) Hepatitis-B Hepatitis-B virus
ii) Genital herpes Herpes simplex virus
iii) AIDS HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)
iv) Syphilis Treponema pallidum

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11. Identify the given diagram. What it is used for?
The diagram represents implants. These contain progestogens or progestogen - estrogen combination.
They are used for Inhibiting ovulation and implantation of embryo to the uterine wall.
12. Meenal's bhabhi is not allowed to enter the kitchen during the days of her menstrual cycle. -
Meenal's mother thinks that she is impure and dirty and the food prepared by her is also
unhygienic.
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
i) Do you think this traditional belief is true?
ii) What values are not exhibited bv Meenal,s mother?
Answer :
i) No, it is not true.
ii) Values:
Self awareness about body.
Compassion for others.
13. The alarming population growth is leading to scarcity of basic requirements. Suggest with reason,
any two population control measures other than contraception to address the situation.
The population control methods other than contraceptives are
i) Statutory raising of marriageable age to 21 years for males and 18 years for females. This will
delay new births.
ii) Government should provide some incentives to the couples having small families.
14. Mention the problems that are taken care by Reproduction and child Healthcare programme.
Reproduction and Child Healthcare (RCH) programmes cover wide range of reproduction related areas
They include
i) creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects
ii) support for building up a reproductively healthy society by providing increased medical facilities,
better postnatal care, better detection and cure of diseases like STDs, etc.

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15. Describe the lactational amenorrhea as a method of birth control.

Lactational amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation during the period of intense lactation
followed by parturition. It is a birth control method because
i) ovulation and other events of menstrual cycle are stopped at this time
ii) As long as the mother breastfeeds her child, chances of conception are nil because of the
suppressed gonadotropin activity.
However, this method is generally reliable up to only six months after delivery.
16. a) In case of an infertile couple. The male partner can inseminate normally, but the mobility of
sperms is below 40 per cent. Judge, which kind of ART is suitable in this situation to form an
embryo in the laboratory, without involving a donor.
In case of male infertility, which occurs due to low motility of sperm, the effective ART used is
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI).
b) State one reason :
Very often persons suffering from STDs do not go for timely detection and proper treatment.
Absence or less significant symptoms in the early stages of STDs and the social stigma attached
to the disease.
17. After a brief medical examination a healthy couple came to know that both of them are unable to
produce functional gametes and should look for an ‘ART’ (Assisted Reproductive Technique)
Name the 'ART' and the procedure involved that you can suggest to them to help them bear a
child.
The ART that would help the couple to bear a child is IVF-ET (In Vitro Fertilisation) or Test tube baby
programme.
In this process, ova from wife/donor female and sperms from the husband/donor male are collected and
fused to form zygote in the laboratory under same conditions as in the body This is in vitro fertilisation
(fertilisation outside the body).
Zygote or early embryo is transferred into Fallopian tube (or) uterus for further development. This is
called Embryo Transfer (ET). It can be Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) or Intra Uterine Transfer
(IUT).
18. Explain the Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer Technique (ZIFT). How is Intra Uterine Transfer
(IUT) Technique different from it?
ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) is the technique in which zygote or early embryo with up to 8
blastomeres is transferred into the Fallopian tube of female.
On the other hand in IUT, embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus. These are
the two principal procedures adopted for test tube baby programme.
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19. What are the advantages of natural methods of contraception over artificial methods?
i) Advantages of natural methods of contraception over artificial methods are following:
a) As no medicines or devices are used in these methods, side effects are almost nil.
b) There is no surgical intervention, so natural method is reversible in nature.
20. What are the consequences of population explosion?

Following are the consequences of population explosion:
i) It is causing an absolute scarcity of the basic requirements, i.e., food, clothing, fuel and shelter.
ii) There is greater demand for fossil fuels (oil, gas and coal).
iii) Eco-degradation.
21. Following table gives certain terms associated with (ARTS) Fill in the space a, b, c and d.
IVF and ET a
b Introduction of zygote/embryo with 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube
c Introduction of ova of a donor into the fallopian tube
d Introduction of semen from the husband or healthy donor into the uterus
a) Test tube baby programme
b) ZIFT (Zygote intra fallopian transfer)
c) GIFT (Gamete intra fallopian transfer)
d) IUI (Intra uterine insemination)
22. Are contraceptives regular requirements for the maintenance of Reproductive health. Justify?
Contraceptives are not regular requirements for maintenance of reproductive health as
They are practiced against a Natural reproductive event i.e., conception / pregnancy.
One is forced to use the methods either to prevent pregnancy or delay or space pregnancy due to
personal reasons.
23. Name and explain a surgical contraceptive method that can be adopted by the male partner of a
couple.
Males can adopt vasectomy.
In this method a small part of the vasdeferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on
the scrotum.
It is a terminal and permanent method which blocks the transport of sperms.
24. Comment on the essential features required for an ideal contraceptive.

An ideal contraceptive should be :
i) User friendly.
ii) Easily available and effective.
iii) Reversible with no or least side effects.
iv) Non-interfering with the sexual desire, drive and or the sexual act of the user.

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25. What are the measures one has to take to prevent from contracting STDs?
STD is a sexually transmitted disease which can be prevented by the following measures :
i) Avoiding sex with multiple or unknown partners.
ii) Always usage of condoms during intercourse.
iii) In case of doubt, go for medical professional for early detection and get complete treatment if
diagnosed with infection.
iv) Education and counseling of persons at risk on way to adopt safer sexual behaviour.
3 MARK QUESTIONS :
26. What do you think is the significance of reproductive health in a society?
i) Reproductive health may be defined as a condition of overall human well-being which includes
social, physical, emotional and behavioural aspects of reproduction.
ii) Reproductive health in a society is significant because the people can be aware of:
a) birth control methods and advantages of small family.
b) STDs and methods to avoid them.
c) importance of breast-feeding and Post-natal care of the mother and baby.
d) equal opportunities for the male and female children.
e) sex abuse and sex-related crimes, etc.
27. Suggest some important steps that you would recommend to be taken to improve the reproductive
health standards in India.
Important steps to be taken to improve the reproductive health standards in India are given below :
i) Introduction of sex education in schools to create awareness on sex-related issues.
ii) With the help of, audio-visual and the Print media, governmental and non-governmental agencies
have taken various steps to create awareness amongst the people about reproduction-related
aspects.
iii) Creating awareness amongst people about various reproduction-related aspects and providing
facilities and support for building up a reproductive healthy society are the major tasks under these
Programrnes.
iv) Parents, other close relatives, teachers and friends also have a major role in the dissemination of
the above information.
v) Educating people, especially fertile couples and those in marriageable age-group, about available
birth control options, care of pregnant mother, postnatal care of the mother and child, importance
of breast-feeding, equal opportunities for the male and the female child, etc., would address the
importance of bringing up socially conscious healthy families of desired size.

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28. Suggest the aspects of reproductive health which needs to be given special attention in the present
scenario.
The aspects of reproductive health, which needs to be given special attention in the present scenario, are
following:
i) Creating awareness amongst people about various reproduction-related aspects. It can be done
through government and non-government agencies, sex-education in the schools, parents and other
relatives, teachers, etc.
ii) Creating awareness on providing and improving existing medical facilities and attention to the
problems, like menstrual irregularities, pregnancy-related aspects, delivery, medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP), STDs, birth control and infertility.
iii) Post-natal child maternal management is another important aspects of the reproductive and child
health-care programme in present scenario.
29. What are the probable factors that contributed to population explosion in India? (or) What are
the suggested reasons for population explosion?
i) Population explosion may be defined as a sudden and rapid rise in population growth.
ii) Probable factors that contribute to population explosion in India are following:
a) A rapid decline in death rate.
b) Decline in MMR
c) Decline in IMR.
d) An increase in number of people in reproducible age.
30. Is the use of contraceptives justified? Give reasons.

i) Yes, the use of contraceptives is absolutely justified.
ii) Because,
a) It helps to overcome the population growth rate.
b) With the rapid spread of HIV / AIDS in the country, there is now a growing realization about
the need to know about contraception and condoms.
c) They are also helpful in preventing unwanted pregnancies which help in bringing down the
increased birth rate.
31. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option? Why?

i) Contraceptives devices (such as natural, barrier, oral and surgical methods) are used to prevent
unwanted pregnancies and spreading of STDs.
ii) Gonads (tests and ovary) are the reproductive organs of male and female respectively. They play
an important role in sexual reproduction, as they are responsible for the secretion of sex hormones
and production of gametes.
iii) Removal of gonads or its parts cannot be considered as a contraceptive option because it will lead
to permanent infertility and unavailability of certain hormones (essential sex hormones) that are
required for the normal functioning of the accessory reproductive parts/organs.
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32. Copper ions-releasing IUDs are more efficient than non-medicated methods. Why?
i) eg: CU-T Intra-uterine device is a small, T-shaped device that is inserted into a woman’s uterus to
prevent pregnancy.
Non medicated IUDs can increase phagocytosis of sperms where as Copper ions-releasing IUDs
a) Suppresses the sperm mobility and their fertilizing capacity.
b) Increases phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
33. What are the conditions in which medical termination of pregnancy is advised?
Medical termination of pregnancy is advised :
i) To get rid of unwanted pregnancies either due to casual unprotected intercourse or failure of the
contraceptive used during coitus or rapes.
ii) In certain cases where continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal either to the
mother or to the foetus of both.
iii) If baby is suffering from an incurable and congenital developmental defect.
34. The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the Fallopian tube. Can gametes
be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result? Explain.
i) The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the Fallopian tube.
ii) Gametes cannot be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result because the uterine
environment is not congenial for the survival of the gametes.
iii) If it is directly transferred to the uterus they will undergo degeneration or could be phagocytosed
and hence, viable zygote would not be formed.
35. Describe three manners in which fertilisation of human ovum by a sperm can be prevented.
Fertilisation of human ovum by a sperm can be prevented by the following methods:
a) Condoms act as barriers made of thin rubber or latex sheath. These are used to cover the penis in
the male or vagina and cervix in female.
b) Diaphragm, cervical caps and vaults are the barriers made of rubber that are introduced in the
female reproductive tract to cover cervix during coitus.
c) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with barriers to increase
contraceptive efficiency.

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36. Describe the technique by which genetic disorder in a developing foetus can be detected.
Amniocentesis is a technique by which genetic disorder in a developing foetus can be detected. This is
based on the chromosomal pattern in the cells found in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing
embryo. Amniotic fluid contains cells and molecules shed by the foetus. The chromosomes of foetal
cells can also be used to find out the sex of the foetus and abnormalities if any. So, if an abnormality is
found, the mother can get the foetus aborted. eg : Down syndrome, Haemophilia, Sickle cell anemia.
37. Classify the following contraceptive measures into different methods of birth control.
a) Saheli b) Tubectomy c) Vasectomy d) Condoms
e) Diaphragms f) Cervical caps.
Answer :
a) Oral pills b) Surgical method c) Surgical method d) Barrier method
e) Barrier method f) Barrier method
38. Do you think that reproductive health in our country has improved in the past 50 years? If yes,
mention some such areas of improvement.
Yes, reproductive health in our country has improved in the last 50 years Some areas of improvement
are:
i) Better awareness about sex-related matters.
ii) Increased number of medically assisted deliveries and better Post-natal care of child and mother
leading to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
iii) Increased number of couples with small families.
iv) Better detection and cure of STDs and overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related
problems.
39. A popular TV programme shows that in some villages, infant girls killed soon after their birth.
i) Do you approve such practice?
ii) What impact does it have on population?
iii) How can you help in stopping such practices?
Answer :
i) No, I do not approve of such practice as girls are equally important in the society.
ii) The sex ratio will decrease.
iii) a) By sensitising people and making them aware of the harm to population.
b) By organising seminars and rallies.
c) Through radio and newspapers.

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40. A married couple goes to the hospital for regular check-up of the lady who is pregnant. The man is
curious and asks the doctor to tell him the sex of the child. But the doctor refuses.
i) Did the doctor do the right thing? Which value is being promoted by the doctor?
ii) What is this process of determining the sex of the foetus called?
iii) What would be the result ifall the doctors do not act in the same manner as above mentioned?
Answer :
i) Yes. Prevention of female foeticide, obeying laws made by Government.
ii) Amniocentesis.
iii) The couples who do not want a female child will get the foetus aborted and this would result in low
female population.
41. Saurabh went to watch a movie with his friends. In it, the hero was a sperm donor. One of his
friends-Raman said that sperm donation is a means to only earn money. But Rahul contradicted
him saying that sperm donation can help infertile couples.
i) Which of them is right?
ii) In which type of infertility cases is sperm donation helpful?
iii) What values are being depicted in the movie?
i) Saurabh is right . Sperm donation helps infertile couples.
ii) It is helpful in following cases:
a) Inability of male partner to inseminate.
b) Very low sperm count.
iii) Values:
Courage
Believing that "other" can make a world of difference
Compassion for others
42. A person in your colony has recently been diagnosed with AIDS. People/residents in the colony
want him to leave the colony for the fear of spread of AIDS.
a) Write your view on the situation, giving reasons.
b) List the possible preventive measures that you would suggest to the residents of your locality in
a meeting organised by you so that they understand the situation.
c) Write the symptoms and the causative agent of AIDS.
a) The person should be allowed to stay. This is because AIDS is not contagious and does no spread
through touching, hugging or eating together.

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b) Educate the residents about the cause of spread of this disease emphasising that it is caused:
i) by sexual contacts with infected person
ii) through infected blood transfusions
iii) through infected needles, from infected mother to child
Therefore, the possible preventive measures would be to avoid multiple partners/use disposable
needles/use condoms
c) Causative agent: Human immune deficiency virus (retrovirus)
Symptoms: Bouts of fever, diarrhoea, weakness and tiredness.
43. i) Explain the mode of action of Cu++ releasing IUDs as a good contraceptive. How is hormone
releasing IUD different from it?
ii) Why is 'Saheli' a preferred contraceptive by women (any two reasons)?
i) Cu++ ions-releasing IUDs are more efficient methods of contraception because
a) Cu++ ions suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
b) Cu-releasing IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
c) it is one of the safest, long term, most effective, conyenient and least expensive reversible
contraceptives available.
d) It has no systemic effects and can be safely used by breastfeeding women.
The hormone releasing IUDs on the other hand make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and
the cervix hostile to sperms.
ii) Saheli is the most commonly prescribed new oral contraceptive pill for females. It contains a non-
steroidal preparation called centchroman. It is once a week pill with very few side effects and high
contraceptive value. It was developed by CDRI (Central Drug Research Institute). Lucknow.
44. Enumerate and describe any four reasons for introducing sex education to school going children.
(or) Is sex education necessary in schools? Why?
Yes, sex education is necessary in school.
Because,
i) It provides right information about sex-related problems and also protect them from the myths and
misconception sregarding sex-related issues.
ii) It also helps them to lead an important and healthy reproductive life by providing proper
information on reproductive organs, adolescence-related changes, sale and hygienic sexual
practices.
iii) At school level, children from age group of 12 years and above should be counselled about
reproductive system, processes and practices and importance of safe and responsible sex.
iv) It creates awareness on child sexuality whether it is valuable or detrimental the use of birth control,
such as condoms and hormonal contraception, and the impact of such use on Pregnancy, outside
marriage, teenage Pregnancy and the transmission of STDs and AIDS.

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45. Do you justify the statutory ban on amniocentesis in our country? Give reasons. (or)
Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our country. Is this ban necessary? Comment.
i) Yes, the statutory ban on amniocentesis in India is necessary.
ii) Amniocentesis is a surgical procedure, which is carried out to diagnose the sex and foetal defects,
in the early second trimester of pregnancy.
iii) In this procedure, amniotic fluid is removed from the uterus for testing or treatment. Amniotic
fluid is the fluid that surrounds and protects a baby during pregnancy. This fluid contains foetal
cells and various chemicals produced by the baby.
iv) Amniocentesis was developed to determine the kind of any genetic disorder but now-a-days it can
be used to detect the sex of the foetus before birth and the female foetus is then aborted. Therefore,
to prevent illegal termination of female foetus by using amniocentesis it is necessary to ban in
India.
46. Name two hormones that are constituents of contraceptive pills. Why do they have high and
effective contraceptive value? Name a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill.
estrogen.
Pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by females.
‘Saheli’ is a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill.
47. Expand the abbreviations given below, used for different modes of assisted reproductive
technologies.
i) a) ZIFT b) ICSI c) IUT d) GIFT
ii) Which one of them cannot be considered as a procedure of IVF? Give reasons in support of
your answer.
i) ZIFT – Zygote intra fallopian transfer
ICSI – Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
IUT – Intra uterine transfer
GIFT – Gamete intra fallopian transfer
ii) NO GIFT can not be considered as IVF technique because fertilization takes place in the
female body / invivo

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4 MARK QUESTIONS :
PASAGE BASED / CASE STUDY QUESTIONS / SOURCE BASED
48. A large number of married couples the world over are childless. It is shocking to know that in
India the female partner is often blamed for the couple being childless.
a) Why in your opinion the female partner is often blamed for such situations in India?
b) Mention any two values that you as a biology student can promote to check this social evil.
c) Define infertility and state any two reasons responsible for the cause of infertility.
d) Mention the possible ill-effects of contraceptives. (Any 2)
a) The females are often blamed for the couple being unable to reproduce as there is lack of awareness
among the people about the issue.
b) As a biology student I would promote the following two values among the people.
i) Either the partners could be responsible for the couple being childless.
ii) Never blame females for infertility without proper diagnosis.
c) Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation
The two reasons for infertility could be: Congenital diseases or drugs.
d) The possible ill effects include
i) Nausea ii) Break through bleeding iii) Abdominalpain
iv) Irregular menstrual bleeding v) Breast cancer
49. Consider the following graph showing the trend of sexually transmitted diseases in a country ‘X’
in both males and females.
i) What do you infer from the graph?

ii) a) Why females remain undetected for long incase of STI’s?
b) In which year highest number of males are affected with STD’s?
iii) a) Though all persons are vulnerable to STIs incidence of STIs are reported to be high in which age
group?
b) Mention the ways other than sexual contact STIs can be transmitted
iv) Which of the following is not a cause of rising case of STDs in men?
a) Unprotected sexual intercouses b) Not using femidoms
c) Intercourses with multiple partners d) Non-usage of condoms
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Answer :
i) As we observe from 2001 to 2010 there is increase in number of males and females infected by STDs
ii) a) females may be often asymptomatic b) 2010
iii) a) 15-24 years
b) Sharing of needles, surgical instruments, transfusion of blood, from infected mother to child.
iv) b) Not using femidoms
50. Read the following and answer the questions given below
During a temple visit, Neha came across her old friend. She learnt that her friend had been visiting
different temples and praying to get a child. Neha was astonished and told her friend about the
various techniques that assist the childless couples to conceive.
i) What is ART?
ii) How is ART helpful, if the male partner has low sperm count in ejaculate?
iii) Which ART is prescribed to woman who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment
for fertilisation?
iv) Mention the limitations of ART.
Answer :
i) Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART), that involves various techniques through which a couple
could be assisted to have children. ART help in increasing the chances of fertilisation.
ii) If a male partner has a low sperm count in the ejaculate, could be corrected by artificial insemination
(AI) technique. In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is
artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra-uterine insemination) of
the female.
iii) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT), in which an ovum is collected from a donor and transferred
into Fallopian tube of another female.
iv) a) Facilities are available in only few centres in country and it is quite expensive.
b) People are not aware of ARTs.
51. Given below is the diagram of CuT, a commonly used contraceptive method. Based on the
information answer the following questions:

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i) A mother of one year old daughter wanted to space her second child. Her doctor suggested CuT
Explain its contraceptive actions.
ii) Bring out one main difference between CuT and LNG-20.
iii) Write the names of Intra Uterine Devices along with their action?
iv) A newly married couple does not want to produce children at least for one year and also not to use
any contraceptives. Suggest a method to prevent pregnancy.
Answer :
i) CuT increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu2+ ions released suppress sperm
ii) CuT is copper releasing IUDs and LNG-20 is hormone releasing IUDs. Cu2+ ions released suppress
sperm motility and thus the fertilising capacity of sperms. While the hormone releasing IUDs make
the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms
iii) a) Non-medicated IUDS: Phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
b) Copper-releasing IUDS: It suppresses sperm motility & fertilizing capacity of sperms.
c) Hormone releasing IUDS: It makes uterus unsuitable for implantation.
iv) Periodic abstinence or coitus interruptus.
52. Study the diagram of the female reproductive system given below. Answer the questions based on
the diagram.
i) What does the diagram depict?

ii) At what stage zygote can be introduced in the fallopian tube in Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
(ZIFT)?
iii) At what stage embryo can be introduced into the uterus in Intra Uterine Transfer (IUT)?
iv) Mention any two events that are inhibited by the intake of oral contraceptive pills to pregnancy in
humans.
Answers :
i) The diagram depicts the process of vasectomy and tubectomy.
ii) upto 8 blastomeres stage
iii) Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres.
iv) Two events that are inhibited by the intake of oral contraceptive pills to prevent pregnancy in
humans are ovulation and implantation.

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a) Explain the reasons that you feel are behind such embarrassment amongst some parents to
b) By taking one example of a local plant or animal, how would you help these parents to
a) The possible reasons that are behind the feeling of embarrassment amongst some parents who could
not discuss freely about reproduction and sexuality with their children are:
Some parents feel they do not have enough reliable source of accurate information.
Some parents believe that talking about sex will lead the adolescent child to experiment. In fact,
research shows that teens who have talked with their parents about sex are more likely to
postpone sex and use birth control measures when they do begin.
Sometimes the society is also responsible as it has set several barriers between parents and child
which do not allow them to talk regarding reproduction and sexuality.
Parents still living with orthodox mindsets find hard to initiate such talks with their children
b) Example : 1
The parents can explain the process of reproduction and sexuality by taking the example of mango
tree.
Mango tree can be seen easily in our localities. It bears both male and female flowers.
The parents can help the child in distinguishing male part from female part in a flower. Further, they
can explain the child about the reproductive phenomena in the flower.
In flower, the pollen grains from male are transferred to the stigma of female part.
The pollen grain carry male gamete and the ovule present in female carry female gamete.
When pollen grains are transferred to the stigma, male gamete fuses with the female gametes and
brings about fertilisation.
Fertilisation results in the formation of zygote which later develops into new plant. And hence, we
may see a new mango plant growing near the existing tree.
Example : 2
In the same way, parents can explain their child about reproduction and sexuality by taking the
example of dogs that can easily be seen in the localities.
The male dog inseminate the female dog and transfers the male gamete (sperm) into the female dog
by copulation.
The two gametes i.e., sperm and egg fuse inside the body of the female dog. This is known as
internal fertilisation or internal syngamy.
It results in the formation of zygote, which develops inside the body of female dog into the embryo
and then into a fully formed fetus.
The time between conception till the birth of young one is called gestation period.
In dogs, it is of 60-63 days. After the completion of gestation period, female dog gives birth to the
young ones, i.e., puppies.
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5 MARK QUESTIONS :
54. A village health worker was taking a session with women. She tells the women that one has to be
very careful while using oral pills as method of birth control. Wrong usage can actually promote
conception.
a) Analyze the statement and compare the merits and demerits of using oral pills and surgical
methods of birth control.
b) Village women were confused as to how a thin metallic copper loop can provide protection
against pregnancy. Justify the use explaining the mode of action of IUDs.
Contraceptive pills Surgical method

Merits Pills are effective with lesser side Surgical intervention block gamete
effects and well accepted by females. transport.
Reversible method Highly effective
Demerits If not taken on right days they can Not Reversible
promote conception. Can affect health of a person if
Can have side effects if taken for a performed in unhygienic condition.
long time.
b) Mode of action of IUD’s
i) Increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus
ii) Cu++ released suppress sperms motility or fertilizing capacity of sperms
iii) Hormone releasing IUD’s make uterus unsuitable for implantation / cervix hostile to the sperms.
(Any two)
55. Discuss the mode of action and advantages / disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives.
i) Hormonal contraception refers to birth control methods that act on the endocrine system. These
contraceptives suppress the secretion of gonadotrophins follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and
luteinizing hormone (LH) through negative-feedback inhibition. Types of hormonal contraceptives
are : hormone-releasing IUDs, oral pills, hormonal implants and injections.
ii) Mode of action :
a) Hormone-releasing IUDs includes progestasert and LNG-20. they turn the cervix hostile to
sperm and bring changes in uterus making it unsuitable for implantation.
b) Oral contraceptive is popularly called the pills. Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) inhibit
ovulation and implantation as well as alter (change) the quality of cervical mucous to prevent
or retard entry of sperms. OCPS contain progestogens alone or progestogen - oestrogen. an
important component of oral contraceptives which are meant for checking ovulation.
c) Implants contains synthetic progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen which inhibit
ovulation, implantation and makes the cervix thick to prevent sperm transport.

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iii) Advantages :
a) Hormonal contraceptives are surer devices to prevent conception.
b) Hormonal pills or IUDs within 72 hours of coitus have been found to be very effective as
emergency contraceptives as they could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or
casual unprotected intercourse.
Effective periods of contraception are much longer by using implants.
c) They are completely reversible with lesser side effects, that is, pregnancy can be attempted by
discontinuing the use of contraceptives.
iv) Disadvantages :
a) They disturb the menstrual cycle so that level of menstrual flow can be either too low or high.
b) There is reduced secretion of pituitary hormones and hormonal balance is disturbed that may
lead to headache, blood pressure and fatigue, Nausea, Abdominal pain etc.
56. STDs are a threat to reproductive health. Describe any two such diseases and suggest preventive
measures.
i) Diseases or infections, which are transmitted through sexual intercourse, are called sexually
transmitted diseases. STDs are also called as VD (Venereal diseases) or RTIs (Reproductive tract
infections).
ii) Examples of STDs are following :
a) AIDS b) Hepatitis B c) Genital herpes d) Chlamydiasis e) Gonorrhoea f) Genital warts
iii) AIDS :
AIDS is a set of symptoms and illnesses that develop as a result of advanced HIV infection which
has destroyed the immune system.
iv) Hepatitis B :
Hepatitis refers to an inflammatory condition of the liver. It is caused by a hepatitis B virus. It is
transmitted through contact with infectious body fluids, such as blood, vaginal secretions, or
semen, containing the HBV.
v) Preventive Measures :
a) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
b) Always use condoms during coitus.
57. Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.

i) Infertility is the inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual
cohabitation. Specialised health-care units (Infertility Clinics) could help in diagnosis and
corrective treatment of some of these disorders and enable these couples to have children.
However, where such corrections are not possible, the couples could be assisted to have children
through certain special techniques commonly known as ART.

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ii) Methods to assists infertile couples are given below :
a) In vitro fertilisation:
It is a medical procedure whereby an egg is fertilised by sperm in a test tube or elsewhere outside
the body. IVF followed by ET is a method to treat infertility and commonly known as the ‘Test-
tube baby’ programme. In this procedure, eggs (ova) from a woman’s ovary are removed and are
fertilised with sperm in a laboratory procedure, and then the fertilised egg (embryo) is returned to
the woman’s uterus. The babies produced from this method are known as test-tube babies.
b) Zygote intra-Fallopian transfer:
The zygote or early embryos (up to 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into fallopian tube.
c) Intra-uterine transfer :
Embryos with more than eight blastomeres could be transferred into the uterus, to complete its
futher development. Embryos formed by In Vivo Fertilization (fusion of gametes within the
female) also could be used for such transfer to assist those females who cannot conceive.
d) GIFT :
Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube (GIFT – gamete intra fallopian
transfer) of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment for
fertilisation and further development.
e) Artificial insemination:
In this technique, the semen is collected either from husband or a healthy donor and is artificially
introduced either into the vagina or inside the uterus of the female (IUI). It is employed when the
male partner is not able to inseminate the female or have low sperm count.
f) Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection:
In this method, sperms and eggs are retrieved from both the parent. A single sperm is injected
directly into an egg, then the fertilised egg is implanted into the woman's uterus.
58. Given below are certain situations. Analyse the situation and suggest the name of suitable
contraceptive device along with mode of action.
Requirement of Name of
Situation Mode of action
contraceptive for contraceptive device
1 Blocking the entry of sperms
through cervix
2 Spacing between children
3 Effective emergency
contraceptive
4 Terminal method to prevent
any more pregnancy in female
5 Sterilization in male

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Answer :
Name of
Requirement of
Situation contraceptive Mode of action
contraceptive for
device
1 Blocking the entry of Diphragms / cervical Cover the cervix during coitus
sperms through caps / vaults
cervix
2 Spacing between Cu or hormone Cu ions from Cu containing IUDs
children releasing IUDs such increase phagocytosis of sperms within
as Cu uterus, suppress sperm motility and
T/Cu7/Multiload 375/ fertilizing capacity / hormone releasing
Progestasert/ LNG 20 IUDs make uterus unsuitable for
implantation
3 Effective emergency Pills containing Pills inhibit ovulation and implantation as
contraceptive Progestogens or well as alter the quality of cervical mucus
progestogen-oestrogen to prevent the entry of sperms / IUDs - Cu
combination or IUDs ions increase phagocytosis of sperms
within 72 hours of within uterus, suppress sperm motility
coitus and fertilizing capacity / hormone
releasing IUDs make uterus unsuitable for
implantation.
4 Terminal method to Tubectomy Block gamete transport and prevent
prevent any more conception.
pregnancy in female
5 Sterilization in male Vasetomy Blocks sperm transport.
59. Your school has been selected by the Department of Education to organise and host an interschool
seminar on 'Reproductive Health Problems and Practices'. However, many parents are reluctant
to permit their wards to attend it. Their argument is that the topic is 'too embarrassing'.
Put forth four arguments with apporpriate reasons and explanation to justify the topic to be very
essential and timely.
Parents should encourage their children to attend such seminar as they will get right information
regarding myths and misconceptions about sex related aspects. Following are the four points to justify
this topic to be essential

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i) Awareness of problems due to uncontrolled population growth, social evils like sex abuse and sex
related crimes, etc. need to be created so that children should think and take up necessary steps to
prevent them and thereby build up a reproductively healthy society.
ii) Large group of school students comprises of adolescents who have attained puberty. Therefore,
these seminars are necessary to provide medical help and care for reproduction related problems
like menstrual problems, infertility, pregnancy, delivery contraception, abortions, etc.
iii) Knowledge about Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) is essential as children should be aware
that unprotected sex with multiple partners results in the transmission of sex related problems.
iv) Increasing population is a major problem of India which is directly related with reproductive
health. Children should be aware of family planning programmes such as Reproductive and Child
Healthcare ( RCH ) programmes.
60. Placed below are case studies of some couples who were not able to have kids- These couples are
not ready for adoption or taking gametes from donors. After thoroughly examining the cases,
which Assisted Reproductive Technology will you suggest to these couples as a medical expert?
Explain briefly with justification of each case.
Couple Test reports of female partner Test reports of male partner

Couple 1 Normal reports Normal sperms in testes, Missing connection
in epididymis and Vas deferens
Couple 2 Blockage in the Fallopian tube Normal reports
Couple 3 Normal reports Poor semen parameters in terms of count,
motility and morphology
Couple 4 low ovarian reserve Normal reports
Couple 5 Cannot produce ovum provide Morphologically abnormal sperms
suitable environment for fertilisation
and further embryonic development
Couple 1
Normal reports of female, Normal sperms in testes, Missing connection in epididymis aud Vas deferens
in male.
Assisted Reproductive Technology
Semen will be devoid of sperms in this case. So, In vitro Fertilisation (IVF) by collecting the sperms
from epididymis or from doner, followed by ZIFT or IUT (Test Tube Baby) is suggested. ZIFT is the
transfer of zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres in Fallopian tube and IUT refers to transfer of
embryos with more than 8 blastomeres in uterus.

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Couple 2
Blockage in the Fallopian tube in the female, Normal reports of male.
Blockage of Fallopian tube will not allow the transfer of sperms to the site of fertilisation. In vitro
Fertilisation (IVF) followed by IUT (Test Tube Baby) is suggested. It would involve transfer of embryo
with more than 8 blastomeres in uterus
Couple 3
Normal reports of female, Poor semen parameters in terms of count, motility and morphology in male
partner.
Intracyoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in which sperm is directly injected into the ovum. Artificial
insemination procedure is used mainly when sperms have poor characteristic or low sperm count.
Couple 4
Low ovarian reserve in female, Normal reports in male
In vitro Fertilisalion (IVF) followed by Zygote intra-fallopian transfer involving transfer of zygote or
early embryos up to 8 blastomeres (ZIFT) or transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres in the
uterus (IUT) is suggested.
Couple 5
Can not produce ovum provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further embryonic
development, morphologically abnormal sperms in male partner.
GIFT : Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor in to the fallopian tube of recipient female.
ICSI intracytoplasmic sperm injection in which selected normal sperms will be injected into the selected
blastocyst. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) procedure is used mainly when sperms have poor
characteristic or low sperm count.
61. i) List any two reasons other than physical and congenital disorders for causing infertility in
couples.
ii) Explain how IVF as a technique helped childless couples in having children?
iii) Compare GIFT with ICSI.
i) Reason of infertility in couples (other than physical and congenital) are
a) Drugs, alcoholism suppress gametogenesis.
b) Immunological.
ii) In vitro fertilisation refers to reproductive procedure that is performed outside the organism’s body.
In this technique, egg cells are fertilized by sperms outside the woman’s womb in a test tube.
It is a major treatment for infertility in couples especially when other methods of achieving
conception have failed. The process involves removal or recovery of ova (eggs) from the woman’s
ovaries and their fusion with the sperms in a fluid medium. Once fertilisation has occurred, the
embryo is allowed to develop for 3 - 5 days. It is then transferred to the patient’s uterus.
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iii) Comparison between GIFT and ICSI are
GIFT ICSI
It is Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer. It is Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.
The technique is suitable for couples where woman is This technique is used to assist fertilisation of
unable to produce egg, but can provide suitable an egg.
conditions for fertilisation and further foetal
development.
Ovum is collected from donor and transferred to Sperm is injected into the cytoplasm of an egg
Fallopian tube of recipient female. with a microscopic needle to allow fertilisation
after which the embryo is placed in uterus of
female.
Invivo method Invitro method
62. i) Explain one application of each one of the following.

a) Amniocentesis b) Lactational amenorrhea c) ZIFT
ii) Prepare a poster for the school programme depicting the objectives of ‘Reproductive and
Child Healthcare Programme’.
i) a) Amniocentesis is often performed to diagnose chromosomal abnormalities and
developmental disorders of foetus.
b) Lactational amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during the period of intense lactation
following parturition. Since ovulation does not occur in this period, the chances of
conception are almost nil. It is a natural method to avoid unwanted pregnancy.
c) ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) is related to embryo transfer in the test tube
programme. In this technique, the zygote or embryo up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into
the Fallopian tube.
ii)

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63. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
Condoms are the barriers made of thin rubber or latex sheath, that are used to cover the penis in
the males and the vagina and cervix in females during coitus. Observe the diagram given below
and answer the questions that follow.
A B
a) What is the principle of birth control in the barrier methods
b) Identify the male and female contraceptive devices, A and B respectively.
c) How do they function as contraceptive?
d) Mention two advantages (other than contraception) that are provided by these to the user.
e) Name two reusable barriers used by females.
a) In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting the help of barriers.
b) Male contraceptive device (A) is Nirodh (condom) female contraceptive device (B) is female
condom
eg: femidom
c) Penis in male or vagina and cervix in the female are covered just before coitus so that ejaculated
semen would not enter female reproductive tract and there by prevent conception.
d) Provide additional benefit of protecting user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
e) Cervical caps, vaults
64. a) Name two of the medical grounds for termination of pregnancy when pregnancy is more than
12 weeks and fewer than 24 weeks.
b) Mention early symptoms of most of STD’s?
c) What schedule to be followed for taking the oral contraceptive pills.
d) Mention the advantages of Natural methods of contraception over artificial methods (any two)
a) If the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, two registered medical
practitioners must be of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the required ground exist. The
grounds for such termination of pregnancies are:
The continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of
grave injury physical or mental health
There is a substantial risk that of the child were born, it would suffer from such physical or
mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.

139
b) Early symptoms of most of STD’s are minor and include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain,
swellings etc. in the genital region.
c) Pills have to be taken regularly for 21 days starting within the first five days of menstruation cycle to
be repeated after a gap of 7 days.
d) Natural methods are easy and demand no cost, No medicines, devices and surgeries
Do not have side effects.
65. Describe any 5 Birth control methods?

i) Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
a) Periodic abstinence is one such method in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from
day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected. As chances of fertilisation
are very high during this period, it is called the fertile period. Therefore, by abstaining from coitus
during this period, conception could be prevented.
b) Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is another method in which the male partner withdraws his penis
from the vagina just before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
ii) In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of
barriers. Such methods are available for both males and females.
a)
Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber / latex sheath
They are used to cover the penis in the male or vagina and cervix in the female, just before coitus
The ejaculated semen would not enter into the female reproductive tract. This can prevent
conception.
‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Use of condoms has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit of protecting the user from
contracting STIs and AIDS.
Both the male and the female condoms are disposable, can be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy
to the user.
b)
Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the
female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus.
They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.
They are reusable.
Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with these barriers to increase their
contraceptive efficiency
iii) Another effective and popular method is the use of Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs). These devices are
inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These Intra Uterine Devices are
presently available as
a) the non-medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop),
b) copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375)
c) hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20).
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Action of IUDs :
Increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm
The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the
cervix hostile to the sperms.
IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children.
It is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
iv)
Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or progestogen–estrogen combinations
is another contraceptive method used by the females.
They are used in the form of tablets and hence are popularly called the pills.
Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days starting preferably within the first five days of
menstrual cycle.
After a gap of 7 days (during which menstruation occurs) it has to be repeated in the same pattern
till the female desires to prevent conception.
They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent/retard entry of sperms.
Pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the females.
Saheli –the new oral contraceptive for the females contains a non-steroidal preparation.
It is a ‘once a week’ pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
v)
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation, are generally advised for the male/female partner as a
terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.
Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent conception.
Sterilisation procedure in the male is called ‘vasectomy’ and that in the female, ‘tubectomy’. In
vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the
scrotum.
In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in
the abdomen or through vagina. These techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is
very poor.

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3. GENETICS
2 MARK QUESTIONS
1. a) State the fate of a pair of autosomes during gamete formation.
They segregate during gametogenesis and enter different gametes.
b) Give an example of a human disorder that is caused due to a single gene mutation.
Sickle-cell anaemia / Haemophilia.
2. Give an example of a gene responsible for multiple phenotypic expressions. What are such genes
called? State the cause that is responsible for such an effect.
Gene controlling the seed shape and the size of starch grains in garden pea and phenylketonuria
shows multiple phenotypic expressions.
Such genes are called pleiotropic genes.
It is caused due to the inter-relationship between different metabolic pathways.
3. a) Why do normal red blood cells become elongated sickle-shaped structure in a person
suffering from sickle-cell anaemia?
The RBCs of such patients contain mutant / defective haemoglobin.
The mutant haemoglobin undergoes polymerization under low oxygen tension and causes change in
the shape of RBCs from biconcave disc to elongated sickle-shaped structures.
b) Mention the type of allele that expresses itself only in homozygous state in an organism.
Recessive allele.
4. a) What is point mutation? Give one example.

Mutations arising due to change in single base pair of DNA is called point mutation. Eg., sickle cell
anaemia.
b) List any two characteristics of pattern of inheritance of human blood group ABO.
Codominance and Dominance.
5. a) Define mutagen.
Any physical / chemical factor that induces changes in DNA (mutations) is called mutagens.
b) Name 2 mutagens.
UV rays, Nitrous oxide, X - rays.

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6. a) What is Barr body?
Inactivated X chromosomes in females.
b) What is the cause of variation?
2) Mutation
3) Recombination
7. a) What is polyploidy?
Change in number of set of chromosome (3n, 4n, 6n) is called polyploidy. It is more prevalent in
plants. Common example is hexaploid wheat. It is caused due to failure of cytokinesis after
telophase stage of cell division.
b) Why haemophilia is called Royal disease?
Haemophilia is called royal disease because it was first observed in the royal family of Britain. The
family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a number of descendents suffering from haemophilia as she
was carrier.
8. Why are grasshopper and Drosophila said to show male heterogamety? Explain.
Drosophila exhibits XY type of sex determination. Males produce two types of sperms, one having X
chromosome and one having Y chromosome. Whereas females have only X-type of chromosomes.
Grasshoppers exhibit XO type of sex determination. Males produce two types of gametes, one with X
chromosome and other with no x-chromosome. Thus, both show male heterogamety.
9. Why is it that the chances of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases if the age of the
mother exceeds forty years?
The chances of having a child with Down’s syndrome increase with the age of the mother (+40) because
ova are present in females. Since their birth and therefore older cells are more prone to chromosomal
non-disjunction because of various physico-chemical exposures during the mother’s life-time.
10. a) Define genotype and phenotype.

Genotypes-Genetic constitution of an individual.
Phenotype-Observable morphological character of an organism.
b) What is meant by trisomic and monosomic condition?
A condition, when a particular chromosome is present in three copies in a diploid cell.
A condition, when a particular chromosome is present in only one copy in a diploid cell.

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11. Explain mechanism of sex determination in birds.
Birds exhibit ZW type of sex determination.
The females have ZW sex chromosomes, hence produce two types of gametes (female heterogamety)
while the males have ZZ sex chromosomes, hence produce only one type of gametes.
The sex of individual is determined by the type of ovum which is fertilized to produce offspring.
12. Differentiate between ZZ and XY type of sex determination mechanisms.

ZZ Type Mechanisms XY Type of Mechanism
i) ZZ type of sex chromosomes are found in i) XY type of sex chromosomes are found in
male birds. male humans and Drosophila.
ii) Such males produced only one type ii) Such males produce two types of sperms,
sperms, hence are homogametic. hence are heterogametic.
13. What did Henking observe in insects? What is it called now?

Henking observed a specific nuclear structure all through spermatogenesis in a few insects.
He observed that 50 per cent of the sperms received this structure, while the other did not receive it.
He named it as X-body.
Later Henking's X-body was found to be chromosome, hence now it is called X-chromosome.
14. Classify the following disorders into Mendelian/chromosomal disorders. Sickle cell anaemia,
Thalesemia, Down's syndrome, Cystic fibrosis, Turner’s syndrome.
Mendelian disorders-Sickle cell anaemia, Thalassemia, cystic fibrosis.
Chromosomal disorders-Down's syndrome, Turner's syndrome.
15. What happens when chromatids fail to segregate during cell division cycle? Explain your answer
with an example.
When chromatids fail to segregate during cell division, it leds to mutation or aneuploidy condition. This
can cause chromosomal disorder in humans. Like down’s syndrome (trisomy of 21st chromosome) and
Klinefelter’s syndrome (presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting in the karyotype of
47, XXY in males or XXX in females).
16. What is a karyotype? How is it useful?

A karyotype is an organized profile of a person’s chromosomes according to their shape, size and
number. It is useful to identify genetic problems as the cause of a disorder or disease.

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17. How does a chromosomal disorder differ from a Mendelian disorder?
Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in a single gene. These are
transmitted to next generation according to the principle of inheritance and can be studied with the help
of pedigree analysis. These can be dominant or recessive.
Chromosomal disorders are caused by the absence/Excess of one/more chromosomes, these are not
inherited.
18. About 8% of human male population suffers from colour blindness, whereas only about 0.4% of
human female population suffers from this disease. Write an explanation to show how it is
possible.
The colour blindness is a sex linked (X-chromosome linked) recessive disease.
It appear in human males in higher frequency, as they possess only one X chromosome, and Y
chromosome does not carry any gene for colour vision.
Hence, in males the disease will appear even in the presence of single recessive (defective) gene.
19. a) Mention the combinations(s) of sex chromosomes in a male and a female bird.
Male bird - ZZ
Female bird – ZW
20. State a difference between a gene and an allele.

A gene is a unit of inheritance, which contains information to express a particular trait in an
organism.
An allele is one of the alternate forms of the gene, that expresses one of the contrasting features of a
trait.
21. Why is the possibility of a human female suffering from haemophilia rare? Explain
The gene for haemophilia is present on the X-chromosome, i.e. it is sex linked.
The disorder is due to a recessive mutant allele, hence a female with XX chromosomes must be
homozygous recessive to show the disease.
A female suffers from haemophilia, if her father is haemophilic and mother also must be haemophilic
or at least a carrier (heterozygous, XXh) for the disease; hence, haemophilia is rare among female.

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22. Both Haemophilia and Thalassemia are blood related disorders in humans, Write their causes and
the difference between the two. Name the category of genetic disorder they both come under.
Haemophilia Thalassemia
The defective allele for haemophilia is The defective genes are present on the
present on the X-chromosome. autosomes 16 and 11.
One of the factors necessary for clotting of There is less synthesis of haemoglobin
blood is not synthesized and blood clotting is molecules and hence, there is anaemia.
impaired. It occurs in equal frequency among males
It appears more in males than in females and females.
23. A male honeybee has 16 chromosomes whereas its female has 32 chromosomes. Give one reason.
A male honeybee develops parthenogenetically, i.e., from a female gamete (ovum) without fertilization;
hence, it is haploid and has 16 chromosomes.
24. Differentiate between male and female heterogamety.

Male heterogamety Female heterogamety
It is the phenomenon in which the male It is the phenomenon in which the female
produces two types of sperms, with reference produces two types of ova, with reference to
to the sex-chromosomes. the sex-chromosomes.
The sex of the offspring is determined by the The sex of the offspring is determined by the
type of sperm fertilizing the ovum. type of ovum that is fertilized.
25. A relevant portion of β-chain of haemoglobin of a normal human is given below:
The codon for the sixth amino acid is GAG. The sixth codon GAG mutates to GAA as a result of
mutation ‘A’ and to GUG as a result of mutation ‘B’. Haemoglobin structure did not change as a
result of mutation ‘A’ whereas haemoglobin structure changed because of mutation ‘B’, leading to
sickle shaped RBCs. Explain giving reasons how could mutation ‘B’ change the haemoglobin
structure or bring down mutuation and not mutation ‘A’.
In mutation A, the change in the codon GAG to GAA does not change the amino acid coded, i.e.
both GAG and GAA code for amino acid glutamic acid; hence there is no change in the haemoglobin
structure.
In mutation B, the codon GAG is changed to GUG, where GUG codes for valine while the original
codon GAG codes for glutamic acid; hence, there is a change in the haemoglobin structure and it
leads to sickle-cell anaemia.

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26. If a father and son are both defective in red-green colour vision, is it likely that the son inherited
the trait from his father? Comment.
Gene for colour-blindness is X-chromosome linked and sons receive their X-chromosome from
mother, not from their father. Male to male inheritances is not possible for X-linked traits. In the
given case the mother of the child must be a carrier (heterozygous) for colour-blindness gene.
27. Name the symbols used in human pedigree analysis.
28. Why does the haploid drone bee not have a father and cannot have sons, but have a grandfather
and can have grandsons?
Drone bee is developed from an unfertilized egg (which comes from the queen bee). So it has a mother
and no father (because no sperm was involved in the formation of male honey bees).
However sperms was used to create its mother. So the male bee has a grandfather and if the male bee
sperm is used to create the next queen, then the unfertilized eggs that she lays will become his
grandsons.
3 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Study the given pedigree chart and answer the questions that follow:
a) Is the trait recessive or dominant?

b) Is the trait sex-linked or autosomal?
c) Give the genotypes of the parents in generation I and of their third and fourth child in generation II.

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a) Recessive trait.
b) Autosomal trait.
c) Genotypes of the parents in generation I is ‘Aa’ and ‘Aa’.
Genotypes in generation II of third child is ‘aa’ and fourth child is ‘Aa’.
2. a) Explain sex determination in humans.

b) How do human males with ‘XXY’ abnormality suffer?
a) During spermatogenesis, males produce two types of sperms-50% carrying X-chromosome and 50%
carrying Y-chromosome. However, females produce only one type of ovum carrying X-chromosome. If
the sperm with X-chromosome fuses the ovum, the zygote will develop into a female (XX) and if the
sperm carrying Y-chromosome fuses the ovum, the zygote develops into a male (XY).
b) The XXY individual is known as Klinefelter’s syndrome with gynaecomastia and under developed
testis
3. a) Explain the phenomenon of multiple allelism and co-dominance taking ABO blood group as an
example.
b) What is the phenotype of the following:
(i) IA i (ii) ii
a) Multiple allelism is the phenomenon of occurrence of a gene in more than two allelic forms on the
same locus. In ABO blood group in humans one gene I has three alleles IAIB and i.
Co-dominance is the phenomenon when the F1 generation resembles both the parents, and both the
parental characters are expressed simultaneously.
We inherit any two alleles for the blood group. When the genotype is IA IB the individual has AB blood
group since both IA and IB equally influence the formation of antigens A and B.
b) (i) IA i – A blood group.
(ii) ii – O blood group
4. Recently a girl baby has been reported to suffer from haemophilia. How is it possible? Explain
with the help of a cross.
Haemophilic girl can be born if a haemophilic man marry a carrier woman.

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5. During a medical investigation, an infant was found to possess an extra chromosome 21. Describe
the symptoms the child is likely to develop later in the life.
Refer 1(i) answer in 5 Marks.
6. What is polygenic inheritance? Explain with the help of a suitable example.

When a character is controlled by three or more genes and each gene contributes to the phenotype,
i.e. the phenotype is the additive effect of all the genes controlling that trait, it is called polygenic
trait and the pattern of inheritance, is called polygenic inheritance.
As example, human skin colour is believed to be controlled by three genes.
The alleles of the three genes show Mendelian pattern of inheritance.
Here, darkness of the skin is dominant over the fairness of the skin
An individual with the genotype, AABBCC has the darkest skin colour and the individual with the
genotype, aabbcc, has the lightest skin colour.
The F1 individual, heterozygous for all the three alleles has an intermediate skin colour; even
individuals with any three dominant alleles and three recessive alleles have the same intermediate
skin colour.
7. Give an example of an autosomal recessive trait in humans. Explain its pattern of inheritance with
the help of a cross.
Sickle-cell anaemia / Phenylketonuria
It is a recessive trait that can be transmitted to the offspring, when both the parents are carriers
(heterozygous) for the disease.
Of the three possible genotypes for sickle-cell anaemia, (HbAHbA, HbAHbS, HbSHbS), the
homozygous recessive individual is the sufferer.
8. In one family, the four children, each has a different blood group. Their mother has blood group
A and their father has blood group B. Work out a cross to explain how it is possible.
Since all the blood groups (including the recessive O group) have appeared in the progeny, father must
be heterozygous for B group and mother must also be heterozygous for A group.

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ABO blood group is under the control of a single gene, which exists in three allelic forms, IA, IB and
i, i.e. it shows multiple allelism.
IA is dominant over i and IB is also dominant over i.
IA and IB are equally dominant and exhibit co-dominance and produce blood group AB.
Six genotypes are possible with three alleles and they produce four phenotypes, i.e. blood groups A,
B, AB and O.
9. Study the given pedigree chart showing the pattern of blood group inheritance in a family.
a) Give the genotype of the following:

i) Parents ii) The individual ‘X’ in second generation.
b) State the possible blood groups of the individual ‘Y’ in the third generation.
c) How does the inheritance of this blood group explain codominance?
a) i) Father IAi and mother IBi
ii) IAIA or IAi or ii.
b) Y can be of blood group A or O.
c) The gene for blood group trait has three alleles, IA, IB and i.
IA and IB are not only dominant over i, but are also codominant, i.e. both of them express themselves
in the presence of the other, in producing the phenotype, blood group AB.

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10. Explain one autosomal recessive disease which is an example of pleiotrophy.
Phenylketonuria is an inborn autosomal, recessive metabolic disorder in which the homozygous
recessive individual lacks the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase needed to change phenylalanine
(amino acid) to tyrosine (animo acid) in liver. It result in hyper phenylalaninemia which is characterised
by accumulation and excretion of phenylalanine, phenyl pyruvic acid and related compounds. Lack of
the enzyme is due to the abnormal autosomal recessive gene is due to substitution. Affected babies are
normal at birth but within a few weeks there is rise (30-50 times) in plasma phenylalanine level which
impair brain development. Other symptoms are mental retardation decreased pigmentation of hair and
skin disorder like eczema.
11. Women are often blamed for producing female children. Consequently, they are ill-treated and
ostracised. How will you address this issue scientifically if you were to conduct an awareness
programme to highlight the values involved?
Women are never responsible for determination of the sex of a child. Moreover, it is not appropriate to
ill-treat a woman for giving birth to a girl child, as both males and females are equally important for the
balance of nature and continuity of our species.
All human-beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes. A human sperm (haploid) has 22 autosomes and one
of the two types of sex chromosomes, i.e. either X or Y. On the contrary, human females have 22
autosomes that are exactly same as males and contain two X chromosomes.
The sex of an individual is determined by the type of the sex chromosome (X or Y) contained by the
sperm that fuses with the ovum.
If the fertilising sperm has an X chromosome, then the baby would be a female and if a sperm with Y
chromosome fuses with the ovum, it will develop into a male child. Thus, it is evident that it is the
genetic makeup of the sperm that determines the sex of the child.
12. What is criss-cross inheritance? Name its different types. Give its importance.
Criss-cross inheritance is a type of sex-linked inheritance where a parent passes the sex-linked traits to
the grandchild of the same sex through offspring of opposite sex.
It is of two types:
i) Holandric : From father to son e.g. hypertrichosis, maleness.
ii) Hologenic : From mother to daughter.
Importance :
i) Traits showing criss-cross inheritance located on sex-chromosomes.
ii) It proved that genes are located in the chromosomes.
iii) Knowledge useful in knowing transmission of sex-linked disorders.

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13. Explain why the terms 'homozygous' and heterozygous with respect to X-linked trait are
applicable to human females but not to human males.
A human female has a pair of X-chromosome and a pair of alleles of a gene on the two
chromosomes.
These alleles may be similar (homozygous) or dissimilar (heterozygous) for the trait.
A human male has only one X-chromosome and the gene present on X-chromosome does not have
its corresponding allele on the Y-chromosome.
Hence, the terms homozygous and heterozygous are not applicable to a human male.
14. A cross between a normal couple resulted in a son who was haemophilic and a normal daughter.
In course of time, when the daughter was married to a normal man, to their surprise, the grandson
was also haemophilic.
a) Represent this cross in the form of pedigree chart. Give the genotype of the daughter and her
husband.
b) Write the conclusion you draw of the inheritance pattern of this disease.
a)
The daughter is a carrier and her genotype is XXh, and that of her husband is XY.
b) Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive disease, and the defective gene is present of X chromosome.
This trait exhibit criss-cross inheritance.
15. Differentiate between the following:

a) Dominance and recessive
a) Dominance and recessive
Dominance Recessive
i) It refers to the phenomenon in which a i) It refers to the phenomenon in which a
particular trait (form of a character) is particular trait (form of a character remain
expressed in heterozygous individual. unexpressed hidden in a heterozygous (hybrid)
individual.

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Homozygous Heterozygous
i) An individual having similar alleles for a i) An individual having dissimilar contrasting
character. alleles for a character.
ii) It produces only one type of gametes. ii) It produces two types of gametes.
iii) It breeds true, i.e., gives rise to parental type iii) It does not breed true, i.e., produces
of offspring on self breeding. offspring with different genotypes on self
breeding.
16. What is the cause of phenylketonuria? How does an affected person from this disorder?
Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism.
It is inherited as the autosomal recessive trait (i.e. defective gene is recessive and is present on
autosome).
The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the aminoacid phenylalanine into tyrosine.
Phenylalanine is accumulated and converted into phenyl pyruvic acid and other derivatives, which
results in mental retardation.
17. A child suffering from thalassemia is born to a normal couple. But the mother is being blamed by
the family for delivering a sick baby.
a) What is Thalassemia?
b) How would you counsel the family not to blame the mother for child suffering from this
disease? Explain.
a) Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive blood disease transmitted from parents to a child, when both
the parents are unaffected carriers for the defective gene (i.e. Heterozygous).
It is characterized by the reduced synthesis of one type of globin (either α or β polypeptide) in
haemoglobin, and excess synthesis of the other, leading to anaemia.
b) Since, the disease is a hereditary disease and caused by an autosomal recessive gene. The defective
genes must be contributed by both of the parents and only mother should not be blamed for
delivering sick baby.
18. How are Mendelian inheritance, polygenic inheritance and pleiotropy different from each other?
Mendelian inheritance is controlled by a single pair of contrasting genes (alleles), and produces two
distinct phenotypes that show discontinuous variation.
Polygenic inheritance is controlled by three or more genes (polygenes), and produces a wide range of
phenotypes. eg: Human skin colour, human height etc.
Pleiotropy, is the phenomenon in which single gene control the expression of many phenotypic
characters simultaneously. eg: PKU

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19. a) Can a child have blood group ‘O’ if his parents have blood group ‘A’ and ‘B’. Explain.
Yes a child can have blood group ‘O’ if his parents have blood group A (heterozygous IA i) and
group B (heterozygous IB i).
b) A man with blood group A married a woman with B group. They have a son with AB blood
group and a daughter with blood group O. Work out the cross and show the possibility of such
inheritance.
All four groups A, B, AB and O are possible for their children.
20. a) A woman with blood group O married a man with AB group. Show the possible blood groups
of the progeny. List the alleles involved in this inheritance.
Three alleles involved in this inheritance are IA, IB and i

b) A woman with B blood group married a man with A blood group. They had two sons and both
had O group. Show the possibility of such an inheritance. List the alleles involved in
determining the blood group.

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Since both children have blood group O both parents must be heterozygous with the genotypes IA i
and IB i. Alleles involved in determining the blood group in human beings are IA, IB, and i.
21. One of the twins born to parents having normal colour vision was colour blind, whereas the other
twin had normal vision. Work out the cross. Give two reasons how it is possible.
Since a colour blind child is born to parents with normal vision, the mother must be a carrier, i.e.
heterozygous with XXC genotype.
Progeny:
The males receive the X chromosome from the female parent; since males have only one X
chromosome, (and the Y chromosome does not have the alleles for the genes on X chromosome) the
recessive trait is expressed in males.
The male child who receives the X chromosome with defective allele from the mother is colour -
blind.
The other twin must be female (either homozygous XX or a carrier XXC) or a male, who has
inherited the X chromosome with normal allele from the mother.

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22. A couple with normal vision bear a colour blind child. Work out a cross to show how it is possible
and mention the sex of the affected child.
The gene for colour blindness is present on the X-chromosome.
Since male has only one X-chromosome, he is more often a victim than the females.
A female has two X-chromosomes and she can be a carrier (heterozygous) and pass on the disorder
to some of her male progeny.
23. How does the gene ‘I’ control ABO blood groups in humans? Write the effect the gene has on the
structure of red blood cells.
In humans, the ABO blood groups are controlled by gene called gene ‘I’. It has three alleles i.e. IA, IB
and i. A person possesses any too of the three alleles. IA and IB dominate over i. But with each other IA
and IB are codominant. These alleles help to determine the blood group of a person. The plasma
membrane of red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude out from its surface and the kind of sugar
is regulated by the gene ‘I’ of ABO blood group.
The alleles IA and IB produce enzymes that regulate A and B type of sugar on blood cells, while allele ‘i'
does not produce any sugar.
24. It is said, that the harmful alleles get eliminated from population over a period of time, yet sickle
cell anaemia is persisting in human population, Why?
i) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disease. It is caused by the mutation in the gene for
production of haemoglobin (an oxygen carrying protein in blood cells).
ii) In sickle cell anaemia the red blood cells become rigid and sticky and are shaped like sickles or
crescent moons. These irregularly shaped cells can get stuck in small blood vessels, which can slow
or block blood flow and oxygen to parts of the body.
iii) Despite the disease's lethal symptoms, it protects the carrier from a protozoan disease called malaria
which is caused by Plasmodium species.

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iv) Its allele is most common in the people of African descent (about 7% people of African descent carry
an allele) and some other areas where malaria in prevalent.
v) It provides the vital protection from malaria. Individuals with HbAHbS heterozygotes tend to survive
better than individuals with HbSHbS (homozygotes) as they are not exposed to the same severity of
risk.
25. i) Write the karyotype and the genetic disorder of an individual who has developed from a zygote
formed from an ‘XX’ egg fertilized by a ‘Y’ sperm.
ii) Mention any two symptoms of this genetic disorder.
iii) Write the possible reason that leads to the formation of this ‘XX’ egg.
i) 47, XXY - Klienfelter’s syndrome.
ii) Overall masculine development, feminine development, Gynaecomastia and Individuals are sterile.
iii) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell divison cycle result in the gain/loss of a
chromosome. (aneuploidy)
26. i) Name the figure A, B, C and D.

ii) Write the type of sex determination.
iii) A and B, C and D belongs to which type of sex determination and explain the type of sex
determination.
i) A – Male Drosophila, B – Female Drosophila, C – Male chicken (Cock), D – Female chicken (Hen)
ii) A and B – XX - XY type, C and D – ZW - ZZ type.
iii) Drosophila exhibits XY type of sex determination. Males produce two types of sperms, one having
X chromosome and one having Y chromosome. Whereas females have only X-type of
chromosomes.
C and D - refer Q.No: 11 Answer (2 Marks)

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1. The pedigree chart given below shows the inheritance of haemophilia in one family. Study the
pattern of inheritance and answer the questions given below.
a) Write the type of inheritance appeared in this disease.

b) Give all the possible genotypes of the members 4, 5 and 6 in the pedigree chart.
c) A blood test shows that the individual 14 is a carrier of haemophilia. The member numbered
15 has recently married the member numbered 14. What is the probability that their first child
will be haemophilic male?
(or)
c) Is the condition occurs only in males? Justify.
a) X-linked inheritance (criss - cross inheritance)
b) The allele for haemophilia is present on X-chromosome (Xh), while the chromosome Y does not bear
corresponding allele for this characters.
The males have only one X-chromosome, which they receive from their mother.
They are haemophilic, if their mother is carrier.
A female become haemophilic, when mother is a carrier and father is haemophilic.
Thus in the above case
The genotype of member 4 will be XX.
The genotype of member 5 will be XhY.
The genotype of member 6 will be XY.
c) The possibility of 1st child to be haemophilic male will be 1/4 = 25%.

(or)
c) No, haemophilia can affect the female too, but it is much rarer, because female have two
x-chromosomes.
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2. The graph given below shows the prevalence of Down’s syndrome in the children with respect to
age of mother.
a) What conclusion can you draw by observing the above graph?

b) Mothers of which age group are more likely to give birth to a baby having Down’s syndrome?
c) Explain the cause/ genetic basis of Down’s syndrome. Do males or females suffer more from
this disorder? Justify your answer.
(or)
c) Mention any four characteristic symptoms of a person suffering from Down’s syndrome.
Solution:
a) As age of mother is increasing the prevalence of Down’s syndrome in children is more.
b) More than 35 years age group.
c) Due to aneuploidy one extra autosome in 21st pair of chromosome leads to Down’s syndrome. Male
and female suffer from this disease equally because it is autosomal chromosomal disorder.
(or)
c) Symptoms of Down’s Syndrome:
Partially open mouth with furrowed tongue.
Broad, flat face.
Broad palm with characteristic palm crease.
Short-statured with small round head.
Many small loops on finger tips.
Congenital heart diseases.
Retardation of physical, psychomotor and mental developments.
3. ‘Like begets like’ is a popular proverb. It means that offsprings resemble their parents. A married
couple, both suffering from haemophilia, went to the doctor for consultation. They asked him if
their child will also suffer from haemophilia like them. The doctor did some tests and told them
that their child, either a girl or a boy, will suffer from haemophilia.

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a) How did the doctor find out that the child will be haemophilic?
b) Suppose the couple had a son who is haemophilic. What measures should the son undertake to
ensure that his child is not haemophilic?
c) What are the consequences faced by the haemophilic patient through a mild cut.
(or)
c) Why males are more affected with this disease than females?
Solution:
a) He did DNA tests followed by pedigree analysis.
b) He should marry a girl who is either not haemophilic nor even a carrier. In the former case, there is a
50% chance factor that his child will be haemophilic.
c) In an affected individual a simple cut will result in non - stop bleeding due to lack of single protein
that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood.
(or)
c) Males have one copy of gene on single X chromosome (males are hemizygous for this gene)
4. The cytological observations made in a number of insects led to the development of the concept of
genetic / chromosomal basis of sex - determination mechanism. Honeybee is an interesting
example to study the mechanism of sex - determination. Study the schematic cross between the
male and the female honey bees given below and answer the questions that follow:
a) Write the type of sex determination in honey bees and based on which character the sex of
honey bee is determine.
b) Name the types of honey bees and their number of chromosomes.
c) Identify the cell divisions ‘A’ and ‘B’ that lead to gamete formation in female and male
honeybees respectively.
(or)
c) Name the process ‘C’ that leads to the development of male honeybee (drone)

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Solution :
a) Haplo-diploidy method of sex determination.
sex of honey bee is determine by the number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives.
b) Queen, worker and drone honey bees.
Queen and workers are female bees and drones are male bees.
Females are diploid having 32 chromosomes and males are haploid having 16 chromosomes.
c) A – meiosis, B – mitosis
(or)
c) C – parthenogenesis.
5 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Explain the cause of chromosomal disorders in humans. Describe the effect of such disorders with
the help of an example each involving (i) autosomes, and (ii) sex chromosomes.
Chromosomal disorders are caused by the failure of segregation of chromatids of homologous pair(s)
of chromosomes during anaphase I of cell division cycle; this result in absence or excess or abnormal
arrangement of one or more chromosomes in the daughter cells.
(i) Autosomal disorder
Down’s syndrome is caused by trisomy of 21st chromosome, i.e. the presence of an additional
copy of 21st chromosome.
The affected individual has the following features/symptoms:
short statured with small round head.
furrowed tongue.
partially open mouth.
retarded mental and psychomotor development.
broad palm with characteristic palm crease.
(ii) Sex chromosomal disorder
Klinefelter’s syndrome is due to the presence of an extra copy of X-chromosome, making the
karyotype, 22 pairs of autosomes and XXY sex chromosomes.
Such an individual is a male with more feminine characters like enlarged breasts
(gynaecomastia); he is sterile.
2. a) Why is pedigree analysis done in the study of human genetics? State the conclusions that can be
drawn from it.
Pedigree analysis is the analysis of the distribution and movement of traits through a number of
generations in a family.
It is used in the study of human genetics because the controlled crosses, which can be performed in
plants and other organisms, cannot be carried out in case of humans. So, study of the family history
about inheritance of a particular trait, provides an alternative.

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In human genetics, pedigree analysis provides a strong tool to trace the inheritance of a specific trait,
disorder or abnormality.
Appearance of the disorder in the future generation can be predicted and genetic counselling can
prevent such an occurrence.
b) Identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’, ‘e’ and ‘f’ in the table given below:
Characteristics of Sex
No. Syndrome Cause
affected individuals Male/Female/Both
1. ‘a’ (i)
‘b’
Down’s Trisomy of 21 (ii)
2. Overall masculine
‘d’
‘c’ XXY development
3. ‘e’ (i)
Turner’s 45 with XO (ii)
‘f’
a. (i) Partially open mouth with furrowed tongue

(ii) broad palm with characteristic palm crease
b. Both males and females.
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
d. Male.
e. (i) Rudimentary ovaries
(ii) Lack of female-secondary sexual characters
f. Females.
3. a) Given below is the representation of amino acid composition of the relevant translated portion
of β-chain of haemoglobin, related to the shape of human red blood cells.
i) Is this representation indicating a normal human or a sufferer from certain related

genetic disease? Give reason in support of your answer.
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ii) What difference would be noticed in the phenotype of the normal and the sufferer
related to this gene?
iii) Who are likely to suffer more from the defect related to the gene represented the males,
the females or both males and females equally? And why?
i) The representation indicates a normal human; HbA is a normal peptide with glutamic acid at
the sixth position of beta globin chain.
ii) The normal individual has biconcave, disc-like RBCs, whereas, the victim has elongated
sickle-shaped RBCs.
iii) Both males and females suffer equally, because it is an autosomal recessive disorder.
b) Name the phenomenon that leads to situations like ‘XO’ abnormality in humans. How do
humans with ‘XO’ abnormality suffer? Explain.
Non-disjunction is responsible for chromosomal abnormalities.
Non-disjunction is the phenomenon of failure of segregation of chromatids of homologous pairs of
chromosomes.
XO-abnormality results from fertilization of an ovum with X-chromosome by a sperm carrying no
sex-chromosome.
The individual has under developed feminine characters.
Ovaries are rudimentary.
She is sterile.
4. a) List the three different allelic forms of gene ‘I’ in humans. Explain the different phenotypic
expressions, controlled by these three forms.
b) A woman with blood group ‘A’ marries a man with blood group ‘O’. Discuss the possibilities of
the inheritance of the blood groups in the following, starting with ‘yes’ or ‘no’ for each:
i) They produce children, some with blood group ‘A’only.
ii) They produce children, some with ‘O’ blood group and some with ‘A’ blood group.
a) Inheritance of human blood group character:
The gene for blood group character exists in three allelic forms, IA, IB and IO/i it is a case of
multiple allelism.
The phenotypes and genotypes of these alleles are as follows:
Blood group (Phenotypes) Genotype(s)
A IA IA or IA
B IB IB or IB i
AB IA IB
O ii
The alleles IA and IB are codominant and express themselves as blood group AB, when they are
together.
Blood group O is homozygous recessive.
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b) (i) Yes, when the woman is homozygous (IAIA) for blood group A, the children can be with only
blood group A
(Or)
No, when the woman is heterozygous (IAi) for blood group A, children will be of blood groups A
and O.
(i) Yes, when the woman is heterozygous (IAi) for blood group A, children can be with either blood
group A or O (as in the second cross of (i) above).
(Or)
A A
No, when the woman is homozygous (I I ) for blood group A, the children can be with only
blood group A(as in the first cross of (i) of this answer)
5. Haemophilia is a sex-linked inheritance condition in humans, where a simple cut causes non-stop
bleeding. Study the pedigree chart showing the inheritance of haemophilia in a family. Answer the
questions that follow:
Give reasons which explain that haemophilia is (i) sex-linked, and (ii) caused by ‘X’-linked gene.

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i) It appears in more frequencies among males than females.
It is transmitted from an unaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny.
The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is rare as her mother has to be at least a carrier
and father haemophilic.
ii) Since, the male receives his X-chromosome from the mother, it proves that the gene is present on the
X-chromosome.
So, a carrier female transmits it to her son.
Since, a male has only one X-chromosome, the disease appears more in males.
A female has two X-chromosomes (XX) and to be haemophilic, she must be homozygous
recessive (XhXh), i.e. her father must be haemophilic and the mother must be atleast a carrier.
6. Give brief account on any three Mendelian disorders.

Haemophilia
It is a sex-linked recessive disease, which is transmitted from an unaffected carrier female to some of the
male offsprings. Due to this, patient continues bleeding even to a minor injury because of defective
blood coagulation, thus also called bleeder’s disease The gene for haemophilia is located on X-
chromosome. In this disease, a single protein that is a part of cascade of proteins involved in blood
clotting is affected. The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because
mother of such a female has to be atleast carrier and father should be haemophilic, e.g. females suffer
from this disease only in homozygous condition, i.e. XCXC. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria (who
was a carrier of haemophilia) shows a number of haemophilic individuals.
Colour Blindness
It is a sex-linked recessive disorder, which results in defect in either red or green cone of eye. It does not
mean not seeing any colour at all, infact it leads to the failure in discrimination between red and green
colour. The gene for colour blindness is present on X-chromosome. It is present mostly in males (XCY)
because of the presence of only one X-chromosome as compared to two chromosomes in females. A
heterozygous female has normal vision, but is a carrier and passes on the disorder to some of her sons.
Note : Haemophilia and colour blindness show criss-cross inheritance pattern, where inheritance of sex-
linked character is transmitted from father to daughter or from mother to son.
Thalassemia
It is an autosomal recessive disease, which occurs due to mutation of genes, resulting in reduced rate of
synthesis of one of the globin chains of haemoglobin. Anaemia is the main feature of this disease.
There are two forms of thalassemia, i.e. α-thalassemia (production of affected α-globin chain which is
governed by genes on 16th chromosome) and β-thalassemia (production of affected β-chain which is
governed by a gene on 11th chromosome).

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4. EVOLUTION
2 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Explain with the help of an example the type of evolution homology is based on?
Homology is based on divergent evolution. These have similar anatomical structures but perform
different functions. It indicates common ancestry. Example : Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
Cucurbita/Forelimbs of human and horse.
2. How is genetic drift different from gene flow?

Genetic drift
Random changes in the allele frequencies of a population, occurring only by chance, constitute genetic
drift.
Gene flow
When migration of section of population to another place and population occurs, gene frequency change
in original as well as new population.
There would be gene flow if this gene migration happens multiple times.
3. How do Darwin’s finches illustrate adaptive Radiation?

Original stock of seed-eating finches migrated to different habitats (of Galapagos Islands), adapted to
different feeding methods by altered beak structure and evolved into different types of finches.
4. How do fossils help us in understanding the evolutionary history?

i) Fossils in different sedimentary layers indicate the period in which they existed.
ii) They show that life forms varied over time.
iii) New forms of life have arisen at different times in the history of earth.
5. What is speciation? List any two events that lead to speciation?

Speciation refers to the origin of new species or the phenomena of development of new species from
pre-existing one. The two factors which lead to speciation are – Genetic drift, mutation & natural
selection.
6. A chimpanzee can hold objects by its hand & an elephant by trunk. Are these organs Analogous
or homologous?
These organs are analogous organs as they are performing the same function of holding objects but are
originated from different parts.

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7. Name the first human like hominid. Mention his food habit and brain capacity.
Homo habilis was first human like hominid. He probably did not eat meat and their brain capacities were
between 650-800 c.c.
8. What does the comparison between the eyes of octopus and those of mammals say about their
ancestry and evolution?
Eyes of octopus and mammals are analogous organs, which represent convergent evolution, i.e.,
development of similar adaptive functional structures in unrelated group of organisms. These organs
have different structure but perform similar functions.
9. Name the scientist who influenced Darwin and how?

Darwin was influenced by a book “An Essay on the Principles of Populations” by Thomas Malthus. In
this, Malthus discussed that there are 'positive checks' that control growth of population. Darwin noticed
the conflict between resources of population and its continuing reproductive pressure. Darwin
considered that like humans, competition exist among all living things. Thus, work of T.R. Malthus on
human population growth influenced Darwin.
10. a) Which theory regarding origin of life did Miller and Urey support and write the gases mixture
in this experiment?
Chemical origin of life. CH4, NH3, H2O vapour and H2.
b) Name some reptiles from family tree of dinosaurs?
Stegosaurus, Brachiosaurus, Tyrannosaurus, Triceratops, Pteranodon.
11. a) What is convergent evolution?

When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area,
one can call this convergent evolution.
b) Which type of natural selection selects mean phenotypes?
Stabilizing selection in natural selection selects more individuals acquire mean character value.
12. Explain the theory of evolution given by Lamarck. With an example?

Lamarck was the first scientist who attempted to explain evolution through the theory proposed by him
called Lamarck’s Theory of Evolution/ Theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics or Use and
disuse theory.
According to Lamarckism, new needs due to environmental changes cause the development and
accumulation of acquired traits in a number of generations. The accumulation of acquired characters of a
number of previous generations causes the speciation.
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He also postulated that the use of organ strengthens it while the disuse weakens it and subsequently the
organ loses its functionality as a result of this. According to Lamarck, the long neck of a giraffe evolved
because its ancestors lengthened their necks by stretching them to obtain food and this change was
passed to their subsequent generations.
13. How does fitness of a population help in evolution?

Fitness, according to Darwin, refers ultimately only to reproductive fitness. Those who are better fit in
an environment would outbreed others and leave more progeny than others.
They will survive better and are selected by nature. He called it natural selection and implied it as a
mechanism of evolution.
14. How is artificial selection different from natural selection?

ARTIFICIAL SELECTION NATURAL SELECTION
It is selection by man Selection is through nature
Variants suited to human requirement are Variants are adapted to the environment are
selected by man. able to thrive better.
15. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey performed an experiment by recreating in the laboratory the
probable conditions of the atmosphere of the primitive earth.
i) What was the aim of the experiment?
To prove Oparin’s theory of origin of life
ii) In what forms was the energy supplied for chemical reactions to occur?
Electric discharge using electrodes
iii) Name the product/s formed.
Amino acids are formed
16. State and explain any two factors affecting allele frequency in populations.
Gene migration – it is the movement of alleles into a gene pool or out of a gene pool.
Genetic drift – If the movement of alleles into a gene pool or out of a gene pool takes place by chance
is called Genetic Drift.
Mutation – It is the large difference arising suddenly in a population, they are random and occur in all
directions.

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17. When does a species become founder to cause founder effect?
Founder effect occurs due to the change in allele frequency of a population. When the change in the
allele frequency is very different in the new sample of population, so that they become a different
species. The original drifted population becomes founder and the effect is called founder effect.
18. List the two main propositions of Oparin and Haldane.

Two main propositions of Oparin and Haldane were the primitive atmosphere was reducing, i.e., free
oxygen was absent. There was high temperature, methane, ammonia and hydrogen gas in the
atmosphere.
19. State the significance of biochemical similarities among diverse organisms in evolution.
Similarities in biochemicals such as DNA, help in deriving the line of evolution. Organisms with more
similar DNA sequences are considered close relatives that might have evolved from the same ancestor.
20. According to Darwinian Theory of natural selection the rate of appearance of new forms is linked
to the life-cycle or the life-span of an organism. Explain with the help of an example.
The individuals which have a short lifespan will show a high degree of variation over a fixed period of
time (even days in case of microbes) in comparison to the individuals with a long life cycle or life span.
In the case of microbes, which have the ability to multiply and become millions of individuals within
hours and in due course of time, this variant population outgrows the others and appears as a new
species within few days. The same event in fish or fowl would take million of years as the life spans of
these animals are in years.
21. Describe S.L.Miller’s experiment. Comment on the observations he made and his contribution
towards the origin of life on Earth.
Experiment was performed by S.L. Miller and H.C. Urey in 1953.
Experimental set-up:
In a closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C, electric discharge was created.
The conditions were similar to those in primitive atmosphere.
Observations:
After some days, they observed presence of amino acids and complex molecules like sugars, nitrogen
bases, pigments and fats in the collecting trap.
Conclusions:
It provides experimental evidence for the theory of chemical origin.

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22. What is ‘Saltation’ according to de Vries ?
According to de Vries, saltation means single-step large mutations arising suddenly in a population
causing evolution. saltation is a sudden change from one generation to the next, that is large, or very
large, in comparison with the usual variation of an organism.
23. Mention any three characteristics of Neanderthal man that lived in near East and Central Asia.
Characteristics of Neanderthal man:
They had a brain capacity of 1400 c.c.
They walked upright.
They used hides to protect their body and bury their dead.
24. Disruptive selection is rarest form of selection. Give reason.

Disruption: Large number of individuals acquires peripheral character value at both ends of the
distribution curve. It is rare in occurrence but important for evolutionary changes. Fluctuating
conditions within environment may favour this.
25. What are the periods in palaeozoic era and name the plant group that appeared in each of them?
The periods in palaeozoic era are
i) Silurian - Zosterophyllum. (Psilophyton, Rhynia type plants)
ii) Devonian - progymnosperms.
iii) Carboniferous - seed ferns.
iv) Permian - Arborescent lycopods.
26. Can we call human evolution as adaptive radiation?

i) No, we cannot call human evolution as adaptive radiation.
ii) Because, adaptive radiation is an evolutionary process that produces new species from a single,
rapidly diversifying lineage, which is not the case with human evolution.
iii) Human evolution is a gradual Process that took place slowly in time. It represents an example of
anagenesis.
27. Explain whether animals other than man have self-consciousness.

i) There are many animals other than humans, which have self-consciousness. An example of an
animal being self-conscious is dolphins.
ii) Dolphins are highly intelligent mammals. They have a sense of self and they also recognize others.
They communicate with each other by whistles, tail-slapping and other body movements.
iii) Not only dolphins, there are certain other animals such as crow, Parrot, chimpanzee, gorilla,
orangutan, etc., which exhibit self-consciousness' Apes, like the human beings, have well developed
facial muscles for showing facial gestures and also have property of self-consciousness.

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3 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. How does palaeontological evidence support the evolution of life on earth?
Fossils are the remains of hard parts of life forms preserved in the rock. The study of fossils is called
paleontology. Rock sediments of different ages contain fossils of different types. Early rocks contain
fossils of simple organisms while recent rocks contain fossils of complex organisms and some contain
extinct organisms. Study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in
which they existed and accordingly also indicate the evolutionary changes in the organisms. Hence, new
forms of life evolved at different geologic times in the history of earth
2. Describe one evidence that decisively prove that birds have evolved from reptiles?
The missing link between birds and reptiles is the evidence that proves that birds have evolved from
reptiles. Archaeopteryx showed that “Birds evolved from reptiles”. These are organisms that show
characteristics of both birds (such as the presence of wings, feathers in the body) as well as of reptiles
(jaws with identical teeth, etc)
3. What type of organs- eye of an Octopus and that of a human called ? Give another example from
the animal group and one from the plants of such organs. Name and explain the evolutionary
process they exhibit?
i) Analogous Organs :
Ex : Flippers of Penguins & Dolphins / Eye of octopus and mammals.
ii) Sweet potato (root modification) and potato (stem modification).
iii) They are anatomically dissimilar structures though they perform similar function, and hence
convergent evolution.
4. How does industrial melanism support Darwin’s theory of natural selection? Explain.
Natural selection is the process by which those organisms that are best suited to their environment and
are able to reproduce well in changed environmental conditions and survive. One of the most striking
examples, which demonstrate the action of natural selection in the wild, is the case of peppered moth,
Biston betularia that lives in all parts of England.
Due to industrial smoke and soot the pale tree trunks became more and more blackened. As a result, the
light moths stood out in contrast to its background increasing the possibility of being easily detected and
eaten by their predators (such as bird). Decrease in the number of light winged moths and increase in the
number of dark variety was the ultimate result. Therefore evolution favoured the dark winged / melanic
moths to reproduce more successfully for their adaptation in the polluted areas of England. Evolution of
darker forms in response to industrial pollution is known as industrial melanism.

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5. Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of
evolution. Explain each concept with the help of suitable example.
Branching descent : It refers to the process of evolving new species from a single common ancestor.
Ex : Darwin’s finches, where various new species had evolved with different traits adapting to their
geographical location.
Natural selection: It states that the organisms that are able to survive and reproduce with the
changing environmental conditions are selected by nature while the ones that cannot survive are
eliminated.
Ex : Dark winged (selected) and white winged (not selected) in England during post industrialization
period.
6. “Nature selects for fitness”. Explain with suitable example.

During the struggle for existence, only those individuals could survive which exhibit variations that
are more beneficial in facing the hardships and rigours of environment or which change to adapt
themselves to the changing environmental conditions.
Only the fittest organism survive in changed environmental condition and those unfit are destroyed.
During the evolution of reptiles, giant reptiles, dinosaurs, etc., appeared. Majority of them were
herbivorous, but due to certain climatic changes, the vegetation disappeared and, therefore, most of
them became extinct. However, small animals who could change their feeding habits from
herbivorous to carnivorous diet survived, because they could easily get adapted to the changed
environment. These, therefore, survived and reproduced successfully and hence were selected by
nature.
The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span. Microbes that divide
fast have the ability to multiply and become millions of individuals within hours.
7. Name the ancestors of man based on the features given below :

i) Human like, meat eater with 900 cc brain, lived in Java.
ii) More human like with brain size 1400 cc, lived in central Asia, used hides & buried their dead.
iii) Human like, vegetarian, with brain capacity between 650 cc & 800 cc.
iv) Man like primate, that existed about 15 mya.
i) Homo erectus
ii) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis - Neanderthal man
iii) Homo habilis
iv) Ramapithecus

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8. Describe the three different ways by which Natural selection can affect the frequency of heritable
traits in a population.
Stabilization, in which more individual acquire mean character value i.e., medium sized individuals.
Directional, more individuals acquire value other than the mean character value.
Disruptive, more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of distribution curve.
Consequently the original population is disrupted into two or more separate groups that later evolve
into new species
9. a) Name the primates that lived about 15 million years ago. List their characteristic features.
b) i) What is the cranial capacity of first human-like hominid?
ii) When did modern Homo sapiens appear on this planet?
a) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing about 15 million years ago. Ramapithecus was more
man like while Dryopithecus was more ape like.
b) i) Homo habilis were first human like hominid with brain capacities between 650-800cc.
ii) Modern Homo sapiens appeared about 75,000-10,000 years ago.
10. Select two pairs from the following which exhibit divergent evolution. Give reasons for your
answer.
a) Forelimbs of cheetah and human.
b) Flippers of dolphins and penguins.
c) Wings of butterflies and birds.
d) Forelimbs of whales and bat.
The organs which exhibit divergent evolution are:
a) Forelimbs of cheetah and human
d) Forelimbs of whales and bat
Whales, cheetah, bat and human (all mammals) share similarities in the pattern of bones of
forelimbs. Though these forelimbs perform different functions in these animals' they have similar
anatomical structure i.e. all of them have humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges
in their forelimbs. Hence in these animals, the same structure developed along different directions
due to adaptations to different needs. This is divergent evolution and these structures are
homologous.

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11. a) Explain the salient features of Hugo de Vries theory of mutation.
b) How is Darwin’s theory of natural selection different from it? Explain.
Hugo de Vries, on the basis of his experiment on Oenothera lamarckiana put forward mutation
theory to explain the mechanism of evolution. According to him, mutation causes species formation
(and hence called it saltation) and thus evolution. These mutations are random and directionless.
a) Salient features of the mutation theory are :
Mutations are discontinuous variations and the raw material of evolution.
Mutations appear all of a sudden. They become operational immediately.
All mutations are inheritable.
Mutations appear in all conceivable directions.
Useful mutations are selected by nature. Lethal mutations are eliminated.
Accumulation of variation produces new species. Sometimes a new species is produced from a
single mutation.
b) Darwinian variations are small and directional. Evolution for Darwin was gradual while de Vries
believed mutation caused speciation.
12. a) How does Hardy Weinberg equation explain the genetic equilibrium?
b) Describe how this equilibrium gets disturbed which may lead to founder effect.
a) Hardy-Weinberg Principle:
It states that the allele frequencies in a population are stable and remain constant for generation to
generation; it is called genetic equilibrium. The sum total of all the allelic frequencies is one.
b) Genetic drift:
Genetic drift refers to the changes in allele frequencies that occur only by chance events.
Sometimes the changes in allele frequency is so different in the new sample of population, that
they become a different species,
The originally drifted population becomes the founders and such an effect is called founder
effect.
13. You have studied the story of Pepper moths in England. Had the industries been removed, what
impact could it have on the moth population? Discuss.
The story of Pepper moths in England happened because, in the post industrialisation period, the lichens
did not survive due to increased pollution. Soot covered the tree trunks making them dark. Now, had the
industries been removed, the pollution level would have gone down, allowing lichen to grow back and
the number of white-winged moths would have gone up again.

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14. Classify the following as examples of homology and analogy–
i) Hearts of fish and crocodile
ii) Wings of butterfly and birds
iii) Eyes of Octopus and Mammals
iv) Tubers of potato and sweet potato
v) Thorns of Bougainvillea and spines of Opuntia
vi) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbits.
(i) Homology (ii) Analogy (iii) Analogy
(iv) Analogy (v) Analogy (vi) Homology
15. Evolution is the change of gene frequencies in a population in response to changes in environment
in the time scale of years and not centuries. Justify the statement with reference to DDT.
As the environment changes the organism which are better adapted to the changed environment could
survive better and reproduce.
- When DDT was used, initially most of the mosquitoes died, but a few survived.
-These few mosquitoes reproduce and their offsprings were also resistant to DDT.
- Today, the population of mosquitoes mostly contains DDT resistance mosquitoes.
- The DDT resistant mosquitoes have evolved in a timescale of years or months and not centuries.
So, evolution is not a direct process but stochastic process based on chance mutation and chance
events.
16. Study the diagram and comment upon the theory of evolution that is illustrated here.
The diagram illustrates the theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics, commonly referred to as
Lamarckism as it was suggested by the naturalist, Jean Lamarck. This idea states that modifications in
an individual are caused by its environment, or the use or disuse of a structure during its lifetime, and
that these changes can be inherited by its offspring, bringing about change in a species. According to
Lamarckism, the ancestors of giraffe had small neck and forelimbs. They were residing in places with
no surface vegetation; therefore, they had to stretch their neck and forelimbs to take the leaves for food.
The long necked giraffes evolved because of stretching of necks over many generations by short necked
giraffes.

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17. a) Identify the respective animal to which each of the following skulls, A, B and C belongs. Which
two among them resemble more closely?
b) Name the (i) ape-like and (ii) man-like primates that existed 15 million years ago.
A) B) C)
a) A - Skull of human, B - skull of baby chimpanzee, C - skull of adult chimpanzee

A and B resemble more closely
b) i) Dryopithecus
ii) Ramapithecus
18. With the help of an algebraic equation, how did Hardy-Weinberg explain that in a given
population the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is supposed to remain the same through
generations?
Hardy-Weinberg’s principle states that allele frequencies in a population are stable. They remain
constant from generation to generation. The gene pool also remains constant. This is called genetic
equilibrium. Thus, according to this principle, the sum of all the allelic frequencies in a population is
always 1. Suppose in a diploid individual, p and q represent the frequency of allele A and allele a,
respectively. The probability that an allele A with a frequency of P appears on both the chromosomes of
a diploid organism in the p². Similarly of aa is q², of Aa is 2pq. Hence, p² + 2pq + q² =1. The difference
measured in the expected values of frequencies, indicates the extent of evolutionary change.
19. Describe the experiment that helped Louis Pasteur to dismiss the theory of spontaneous
generation of life.
Theory of spontaneous generation states that the life originate from dead, decaying or rotting matters
like storm, dead animals, etc. Louis Pasteur rejected the theory of spontaneous generation and
demonstrated that life had evolved from pre-existing life. In his experiment, he kept killed yeast cells in
presterilized flask and in another flask open into air. The life did not evolve in the former, but new living
organisms evolved in another flask.

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20. Give the difference between embryological and biochemical evidence
Embryological evidences proposed by Ernst Haeckel. He observed that all vertebrate embryos have
some common features that are absent in adults. For E.g., all vertebrate embryos develop vestigial gill
slits just behind the head. But it is functional only in fish and not found in other adult vertebrates.
Biochemical evidence- Organisms show similarities in proteins, genes, other biomolecules &
metabolism. It indicates common ancestry.
21. (a) Identify any two marsupials from the list given below:
i) Lemur
ii) Spotted cuscus
iii) Flying phalanger
iv) Bobcat
v) Tasmanian wolf
vi) Mole
(b) “Australian marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation.” Justify the statement.
a) Marsupials : spotted cuscus, flying phalanger, Tasmanian wolf
b) Australian marsupials indeed demonstrate adaptive radiation, which refers to the diversification of
species from a common ancestor into a variety of forms that occupy different ecological niches. In
Australia, marsupials have undergone extensive adaptive radiation due to the continent’s unique
environmental conditions, including isolation, varied habitats, and evolutionary pressures. This has
led to the emergence of diverse marsupial species occupying a wide range of ecological niches, from
kangaroos and koalas to wombats and Tasmanian animals. The reduced number of placental
mammals in Australia allowed marsupials to exploit various ecological niches without direct
competition, leading to their remarkable diversification and adaptation.
22. Explain Darwinian theory of evolution and state the two key concepts of the theory.
Charles Darwin gave the theory of evolution in his book ‘Origin of species’. Adaptive radiation and
natural selection are two key concepts of this theory. The main points of this theory are as follows:
1) New forms keep on gradually evolving with time in the history.
2) There is always variation in characteristics of populations which help them to adapt better to the
surroundings.
3) Those organisms which adapt themselves better to the surroundings survive and reproduce while
others die. This is known as survival of fittest.
4) The organisms which adjust to the changing environments are selected by nature and thus can
survive. This is called as natural selection.
5) There is an inheritance of adaptability and the consequence of adaptability is fitness.
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Natural selection takes place due to the following reasons:
Limited natural resources
Variations in the characters of members of population
The inheritance of variations to next generation.
Two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of evolution are Branching descent and Natural selection.
23. Australian marsupials and placental mammals show remarkable similarity in their appearance.
What is the evolutionary significance of this similarity? Explain.
The diagram represents convergent evolution of Australian marsupials and Australian placentals. The
independent evolution of Australian marsupials is an example of adaptive radiation. Evolution of
Australian placentals also considered as an example for adaptive radiation. If more than one adaptive
radiation takes place in an isolated geographic area, it is considered as an example of convergent
evolution. Convergent evolution is the independent evolution of similar features or traits in unrelated
species to suit with similar environmental needs.
28. Gene flow occurs through generations. Gene flow can occur across language barriers in humans.
If we have a technique of measuring specific allele frequencies in different population of the
world, can we not predict human migratory patterns in pre-history and history? Do you agree or
disagree? Provide explanation to your answer.
i) Yes, we agree gene flow occurs through generations.
ii) As the gene flow occurs through geographical barriers over generations, by studying specific allelic
frequencies in various populations of the world, we can predict the human migratory patterns in pre-
historic and historic era.
iii) There have been projects undertaken such as human geographics project which uses data from
studies on specific genes/chromosomes/mitochondrial DNA to trace the evolutionary history and
migratory patterns of humans.

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29. Refer to the figure given below and answer the following questions.
i) Identify the process by which Tasmanian wolf came into evolution.

ii) Define the process identify in (i).
iii) Apart from marsupials this process was also observed in which other organism?
i) Adaptive radiation.
ii) Adaptive radiation: The process of evolution of different species starting from a point in a
geographical area and finally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called adaptive
radiation.
iii) Darwin’s finches is the best example for adaptive radiation.
30. State the modifications of forelimb in animals as an example of homology.

The forelimb of vertebrates consists of same bones humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and
phalanges, but differ in their function in different organisms.
The forelimbs of the following animals got modified as shown below
i) Whale is modified for swimming.
ii) Bat is modified for flying.
iii) Horse is modified for running.
iv) Man is modified for grasping.
This indicates common ancestry and homology based on divergent evolution.
31. “Migration may enhance or blur the effects of selection.” Comment.

i) Migration is the movement of individuals from one place to another. It can be the movement of
individuals to a different population or movement of individual into a particular population.
ii) It may cause enrichment of the gene pool of such alleles that are being selected for or blur the effects
of selection through replenishment of alleles that were selected against by nature.
iii) Similarly, emigration may lead to removal of such alleles that confer better adaptations and
immigration may also bring in those alleles which confer the traits that are not selected by nature
(i.e., blur the effects of selection).
Hence, it is justifiable to say that “Migration may enhance or blur the effects of selection.

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32. List 10 modern-day animals and link it to a corresponding ancient fossil. Name both.
The modern-day animals and their ancient fossils are listed in the following table.
S. No. Animal Fossils
(i) Man Ramapithecus
(ii) Horse Eohippus
(iii) Dog Leptocyon
(iv) Camel Protylopus
(v) Elephant Meorithers
(vi) Whale Protocetus
(vii) Fish Arandspis
(viii) Tetrapods Icthyostege
(ix) Bat Archaeonycteris
(x) Giraffe Palaeotragus
33. The scientists believe that evolution is gradual. But extinction, part of evolutionary story/ is
'sudden' and 'abrupt’ and also group-specific. Comment whether a natural disaster can be the
cause for extinction of species.
i) Yes, a natural disaster can be the cause for extinction of species.
ii) Sudden, abrupt and group extinctions have occurred in nature due to the following reasons :
a) Over-population of predators or competition from advanced descendants.
b) Genetic degeneration.
c) Changes in environment like excessive cooling or warming, drought or rains.
d) Natural calamities like floods, earthquakes, volcanoes, tsunamis, epidemics, etc.
4 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Figures given below are of Darwin’s finches

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180
(a) Mention the specific geographical area where these were found. What role does an
individual organism play as per Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
Galapagos Island.
An individual organism passes on the variations, mutations and adaptations from one generation
to another.
(b) Name and explain the phenomenon that has resulted in the evolution of such diverse species
in the region.
Adaptive radiation – The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area
starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats)is called
adaptive radiation.
(c) How did Darwin visit the particular geographical area?
Through sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S Beagle.
(d) What is “fitness of an individual” according to Darwin?
According to Darwin, “fitness of an individual” is the ability of an organism to survive and pass
on its genes to future generations.
2. On a visit to museum, Riya was stunned to see that forelimbs of humans and whale possess same
structure. She also found that wings of butterfly and birds are not anatomically similar. Being
confused, Riya asked the museum guide to comprehend this unusual fact to her.
i) What type of structure does forelimbs of human and whale called? How they are developed?
ii) Why wings of butterfly and birds are not similar?
iii) Give an example of structures in plants, similar to wings of butterfly and birds.
iv) Do plants contain structures similar to forelimbs of human and whale? If yes, give example.
i) Forelimbs of human and whale are homologous structures. These were developed due to the
divergent evolution.
ii) Wings of butterfly and birds are analogous structures. They are not anatomically similar though they
perform similar functions.
iii) Sweet potato (root modification) and potato (stem modification).
iv) Yes, plants contain homologous structures, e.g. thorns of Bougainrillea and tendrils of Cucurbita.
3. While studying an article on human evolution, Ram got to know about the common ancestors of
human and apes. He found that during the course of human evolution, the brain size had been
increased constantly.
i) Name the earliest man-like and ape-like fossils.
ii) Name the first ape man and the first hominid of human evolution.
iii) What was the brain capacity of first hominid and Homo erectus?
iv) When did modern Homo sapiens arose?
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181
i) Man-like fossil - Ramapithecus Ape-like fossil - Dryopithecus
ii) First ape man - Australopithecus First hominid - Homo habilis.
iii) First hominid - 650-800 cc Homo erectus - 900 cc
iv) During ice age between 75,000 - 10,000 years ago.
4. A student was simulating Miller and Urey's experiment to prove the origin of life. The set up used
by the student is shown below. He maintained the temperature of 80oC throughout 10 days.
i) Find out the reasons why he could not get desired results?
ii) What conclusion was drawn by Urey and Miller experiment?
iii) What was the conclusion drawn by the theory of spontaneous generation?
iv) Why did he use electrodes?
i) He could not get desired results because Co2 was used instead of H2 and temperature was maintained
at 80oC and not at 800oC.
ii) It was concluded that life could have come from pre-existing non living organic molecules and their
formation was preceded by chemical evolution.
iii) According to theory of spontaneous generation life has originated from non-living matter
automatically.
iv) He used electrodes to create spark discharge which imitates the lightening process.

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5 MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Diagrammatically represent the miller’s experiment.
2. How does the process of natural selection affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Explain.
Based upon different organism-environment relationships, following different kinds of natural selections
have been recognised.
i) Stabilising selection or Balancing selection:
It favours the average or normal phenotypes and eliminates the extreme variants that fail towards both
ends of the bell-shaped curve.
ii) Directional selection or progressive selection:
It favours the phenotype which is extreme and then pushes the distribution curve of the phenotype of the
population, in that direction.
iii) Disruptive selection or Diversifying selection: The extremes have more adaptable phenotypes than
the average ones. Consequently, the original population is disrupted into two more separate groups that
later evolve into new species.

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183
3. What are the factors that affect the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?
a) Genetic drift : It refers to the elimination of genes of certain traits when a section of population
migrates or dies of natural calamity. It alters the gene frequency of the remaining population.
b) Mutations : Gene mutation is a random change in the base sequence of a gene. It occurs by
substitution, addition or deletion of one or more bases. This ultimately affects the allele's frequency
in the population. The mutated gene may give rise to a new protein or may fail to produce any. This
may change the phenotype (trait).
c) Gene flow : The phenomenon of addition or removal of alleles when individuals enter or leave a
population is called gene flow.
d) Gene recombination : Genetic recombination is the exchange of genetic material between different
organisms which leads to production of offspring with combinations of traits.
4. Differentiate between
a) Homologous and analogous organs b) Divergent and convergent evolution
a) Homologous and analogous organs
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184
Homologous Organs Analogous Organs

These organs have the same basic structure and These organs are similar and carry out similar
developmental origin, but different functions functions but do not have same embryological
and appearance. origin or similar anatomy.
These organs develop in related organisms. These organs develop in unrelated organisms.
They show divergent evolution. They show convergent evolution.
These structures are indicative of a common These structures not inherited from common
ancestry . ancestors.
Eg: Forelimbs of Mammals, vertebrate Hearts, Eg: Sweet potato and potato eye of mammal
vertebrate Brains. and octopus.
b) Divergent and convergent evolution
Divergent Evolution Convergent Evolution
This involves the development of different This involves the development of similar
functional structures due to adaptations in adaptive functional structures due to adaptations
organisms from a common ancestral form. in organisms having different ancestors over a
period of time.
This type of evolution is shown by homologous This type of evolution is shown by analogous
organs. organs.
5. Explain the origin and evolution of human

1. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus - About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more
man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
2. Australopithecines - About two mya Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands.
They hunted with stone weapons, essentially ate the fruit.
3. Homo habilis - Brain capacities - 650-800cc. They probably did not eat meat.
4. Homo erectus - About 1.5 mya, Homo erectus arose. Brain capacity- 900cc. Homo erectus probably
ate meat.
5. Neanderthal man - Brain size- 1400cc. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
6. Homo sapiens - or modern man Arose in Africa During the ice age between 75,000-10,000 years
ago, Homo sapiens arose. Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago.
Evidence - Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. Agriculture came around
10,000 years back and human settlements started.

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185
6. Explain in detail the theories of origin of life.
1. Theory of spontaneous generation (Abiogenesis) - It states that life came out of decaying and
rotting matter like straw, mud, etc.
2. Theory of biogenesis - Proposed by Louis Pasteur. He demonstrated that life comes only from pre-
existing life.
3. Theory of Panspermia - It states that the units of life (spores) were transferred to different planets
including earth.
4. Theory of special creation - It states that living things were created by some supernatural power.
5. Theory of chemical evolution - Proposed by Oparin & Haldane. It states that the first form of life
originated from non-living inorganic & organic molecules. Harold Urey & Stanley Miller
Experiment They experimentally proved the theory of chemical evolution. They created a condition
like that of primitive earth (i.e. high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere with CH4,
NH3, H2O, H2, etc). When an electric discharge is produced in a closed flask containing CH4, NH3,
H2, and water vapor, at 8000 C biomolecules (amino acids) like present-day were formed
7. (a) Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection is widely accepted but some limitations have been
identified by modern biologists. Mention the limitations identified.
(b) Name and state the most accepted theory of evolution in modern times.
(c) Mention any two ways the limitations identified in Darwin’s theory of evolution are explained
in modern biology.
a) Darwin’s theory of evolution:
Natural variation takes place within the population.
The members of the same species compete for mate, shelter, and food.
The unfit organism cannot compete with the rest of the population.
The fit population show favorable variations and leave more progenies.
Limitation of Darwin’s theory of evolution:
The theory of evolution could not explain how and where variations have arisen.
It also could not explain how the variations are inherited.
b) Synthetic theory of evolution:
The most accepted theory of evolution is the synthetic theory of evolution or Neo-Darwinism,
also called the modern concept. It combines Darwin's theory of natural selection with Mendelian
genetics and modern understanding of population genetics.
According to this theory, the origin of new species is based on the interaction of genetic
variations and natural selection. It recognizes various factors like gene mutations, changes in
chromosome number and structures, genetic recombination, natural selection, and reproductive
isolation.

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186
This synthesis explains how genetic variation arises and is passed on through generations, how
natural selection acts on this variation, and how new species and adaptations emerge over time. It
integrates concepts such as genetic drift, gene flow, mutation, and speciation to provide a
comprehensive framework for understanding evolution.
c) Two ways modern biology addresses limitations in Darwin’s theory of evolution are through the
integration of genetics (modern synthesis) and the recognition of other mechanisms of
evolutionary change, such as genetic drift, gene flow etc
8. Using various resources such as your school library or the internet and discussions with your
teacher, trace the evolutionary stages of any one animal say horse.
i) The evolution of horse started with Eohippus during Eocence period. It involved the following
evolutionary stages:
a) Gradual increase in body size.
b) Elongation of head and neck region.
c) Increase in the length of limbs and feet.
d) Gradual reduction of lateral digits.
e) Enlargement of third functional toe.
f) Strengthening of the back.
g) Development of brain and sensory organs.
h) Increase in the complexity of teeth for feeding on grass.
ii) The evolution of horse is represented as follow:
Eohippus → Mesohippus → Merychippus → Pliohippus → Equus

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INTERNATIONAL SR.SEC.

3 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 54

2 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 100

2. What is perisperm? Give two examples for perispermic seeds?

3. In angiosperms, “Endosperm development precedes embryo-development”. Why?

4. Explain syncarpous and apocarpous ovaries with suitable examples.

6. Name the four post - fertilisation events.

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

7. Write the advantages provided by the seeds to angiosperms.

8. Why is apple called as false fruit?

9. Differentiate between Geitonogamy and Xenogamy.

10. Why pollen grains can remain well preserved as fossils?

15. What is apomixis? What is its importance?

16. List the advantages of pollination of angiospermic plants.

17. State the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.

18. How are the cells arranged in an Embryosac?

22. What is the function of germ pore?

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

31. What is apomixis and what is its importance?

33. Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.

35. What is bagging technique? How is it useful in a plant breeding programme?

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

40. What is meant by monosporic development of a female gamctophyte?

2. Write a short note on Artificial hybridisation.

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

4. Draw a neat labelled diagram of monocot embryo.

5. “Incompatibility is the natural barrier in fusion of gametes”. Justify this statement.

6. Describe the structure of a pollen grain.

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

7. What is double fertilization? Where does it occur?

9. Differentiate between cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers.

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

15. Describe Autogamy, Geitonogamy and Xenogamy.

16. Explain the development of PEN into endosperm.

i) Name the technique used by ATAL PARK gardener.

iii) What information is required for using this technique?

iv) What value is displayed by Ramesh?

ii) Commercial production of ornamental plants

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

5. Read the given passage and answer the questions:

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

6. Read the given passage and answer the questions:

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

2. Briefly describe the following:

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

5. a) Where does microsporogenesis occur in microsporogenesis.

Difference between 2-celled gametophyte and 3-celled gametophyte: In over 60% of

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

7. a) Explain the process of syngamy and triple fusion in angiosperms.

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

8. i) Explain the post-pollination events leading to seed production in angiosperms.

S. No. Hypocotyl Epicotyl

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]

b) Differences between coleoptile and coleorhiza

c) Differences between Integument and Testa

Hreen Qark, Okl Q & A [VOLUME - I]