Bilogy PASSIN Package 3

1.
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
I. One mark questions:
1. Define parthenogenesis.
The process of development of female gamete to form new organisms without
fertilisation is called parthenogenesis.
2. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in non-primates.

Oestrus cycle.
3. Name the plant which flowers once in 12 years.

Strobilanthus kunthiana.
4. Give an example of an organism that produce isogametes.

Cladophora.
5. What are meiocytes?

They are gamete mother cells which undergo meiosis to produce of haploid gametes.
6. Name the part of the flower which develops into the fruit after fertilization.
Ovary.
7. How many chromosomes are there in meiocytes of human beings?

46.
II. Two marks questions:

1. What is embryogenesis? Mention two important events that occur during
embryogenesis.
The process of development of embryo from the zygote is called embryogenesis.
Cell division and cell differentiation are the two important events that occur during
embryogenesis.
2. What are homogametes and heterogametes?

When male and female gametes are so similar in appearance that it is not possible to
categorise them is called homogametes.
When male and female gametes are morphologically different is called heterogametes.
3. Write one advantage and one disadvantage of external fertilization.

Advantage : large number of offspring are produced.
Disadvantage : the offspring are extremely vulnerable to predators threatening their
survival up to adulthood.
4. Differentiate between staminate flowers and pistillate flowers.

Staminate are unisexual male flower bearing stamens.
Pistillae are unisexual female flower bearing pistils.
5. Differentiate seasonal breeders from continuous breeders.
Many mammals, exhibit reproductive cycles only during favourable seasons in their
reproductive phase and are called seasonal breeders.
Many other mammals are reproductively active throughout their reproductive phase
and are called continuous breeders.
6. Differentiate between menstrual cycle and oestrus cycle.

The cyclical changes during reproduction seen in primates is called menstrual cycle.
The cyclical changes during reproduction seen in non-primate mammals is called
oestrus cycle.
III. Three marks questions:

1. What is parthenogenesis? Give two examples.
The process of development of female gamete to form new organisms without
fertilisation is called parthenogenesis.
Examples: rotifers, honeybees.
2. Classify animals based on the development of zygote. Mention an example for each
group.
i. Oviparous: the development of the zygote takes place outside the body of the
female parent. Ex- reptiles and birds.
ii. Viviparous: the development of the zygote into young one inside the body of
the female organism. Ex- majority of mammals.
2. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

1. How is bagging technique useful in plant breeding programme?
Bagging prevents contamination of stigma with unwanted pollen.
2. What is the function of tapetum?

Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
3. What is polyembryony?
Presence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony.
4. What is emasculation?
The process of removal of anthers from the flower bud is called emasculation.
5. ‘Wind pollinated flowers have to produce enormous amount of pollen’. Why?

Because they have to be transported in wind currents.
6. What is apomixes?
Some plants produce seeds without fertilization in their flowers, it is called apomixes.
7. Name the innermost wall layer of microsporangium.

Tapetum.
8. What are tassels?

Tassels are stigma and style which wave in the wind to trap pollen grain.
9. What are filiform apparatus?

Filiform apparatus are present at the micropylar end of the synergids and guides the entry
of pollen tube into the embryo sac.
10. Give an example for free-nuclear endosperm.

Coconut water from tender coconut.
11. What is meant by monosporic development of female gametophye?

The process of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is called monosporic
development.
12. What is heterostyly?

It is a outbreeding device in which the anther and stigma are placed at different positions
so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower.
13. Name the asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.

Apomixis.
14. Name the tallest flower.

Amorphophallus.
15. Name the homogenous tissue present in the young anther.
Sporogenous tissue.
16. Define microsporogenesis.

The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is
called microsporogenesis.
17. Name the male gametophyte of angiosperms.

Pollen grain.
18. Mention the chemical composition of exine.

Sporopollenin.
19. Name the component of pollen grain that forms pollen tube.
Vegetative cell.
20. Define megassporogenesis.

The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell is called
megasporogenesis.
21. Name the basal part of ovule.

Chalaza.
22. Name the triploid cell formed due to double fertilization.

Primary endosperm nucleus.

1. Name the four wall layers of microsporangium.
i. Epidermis, ii. Endothecium, iii. Middle layer and iv. Tapetum.
2. Mention the strategies evolved by flowering plants to attract insects for pollination.
Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
3. Mention one harmful and useful effects of pollen.

Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and respiratory disorders.
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and is sue as food supplement.
4. What is PEN? Mention its function.

Primary Endosperm Nucleus is a triploid cell formed by the union of a male gamete with
polar nuclei. It forms the endosperm and nourish the growing embryo.
5. Mention the sequential stages of embryogeny in angiosperms.

Proembryo, globular embryo, heart-shape embryo and mature embryo.
6. Differentiate perisperm and pericarp.
In some seeds lie black pepper remnants of nucellus is present. Such residual, persistent
nucellus is caller perisperm.
The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of fruit called pericarp.
7. Differentiate between albuminous and non-albuminous seeds with an example each.

Albuminous seeds retain a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo
development.
Ex- Castor.
Non-albuminous donot have any endosperm as it is completely used up during embryo
development.
Ex- Pea.
8. What are parthenocarpic fruits? Give example.

The fruits developed without fertilization are called parthenocarpic fruits.
Ex- Banana.
9. Name the four types of cells found in the embryo sac of angiosperms.
Antipodals, polar nuclei, egg cell and synergids.
10. Write a note on the pollination mechanism in Vallisneria.

In Vallisneria, the female flower reaches the surface of water by the long stalk and the
male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water.
They are carried passively by water currents, some of them eventually reach the female
flowers and the stigma.
11. Differentiate between hypocotyl and epicotyl.

The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at its
lover end in the radicle or root tip.
The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which
terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
III. Three marks question:

1. What is artificial hybridisation? By which technique is it achieved?
Artificial hybridisation is a crossing of plants in which it is important to make sure that
only the desired pollen grains are used for pollination and the stigma is protected from
contamination by unwanted pollen.
This is achieved by emasculation and bagging techniques.
2. Write a note on the structure of pollen grain.

Pollen grain has a prominent two-layered wall. The hard outer layer called exine is made
up of sporopollenin which is one of the most resistant organic material known. It has
apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is absent.
The inner wall is called intine made of cellulose and pectin.
The cytoplasm of pollen grain contains the vegetative cell and generative cell. The
vegetative cell is bigger and helps in the formation of pollen tube. The generative cell is
smaller which divides into two male gametes.
3. Explain triple fusion and double fertilisation in angiosperms.

After entering one of the synergids, the pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the
cytoplasm of the synergid. One of the male gametes moves towards the egg ell and fuses
with its nucleus thus completing the syngamy. This results in the formation of a diploid
cell, the zygote.
The other male gamete moves towards the two polar nuclei located in the central cell and
fuses with them to produce a triploid primary endosperm nucleus. As this involves the
fusion of three haploid nuclei it is called triple fusion.
Since two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion take place in an embryo sac the
phenomenon is called double fertilisation.
4. What is emasculation? When and why does a plant breeder employ this technique?
If the female parent plants bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers is called
emsasculation.
Emasculation is done in the bud condition to make sure that only the desired pollen grains
pollinated and the stigma is protected from unwanted pollen.
5. With reference to monocot seed define the following:

i. Scutellum, ii. Aleurone layer iii. Epicotyl.
i. The single large cotyledon of monocot seed is called scutellum
ii. The covering of the endosperm separating the embryo by a proteinous layer in monocot
seed is called aleurone layer.
iii. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum is called
epicotyl.
6. What is apomixes and what is its importance?

Few flowering plants such as some species of Asteraceae and grasses, have evolved a
special mechanism, to produce seeds without fertilisation, called apomixes.
If hybrid plants are made to produce seeds by apomixes, the farmers need not purchase the
seeds for every season and the progeny plants will not segregate and will be as their parent.
7. Define Autogamy. Write the two different kinds of flowers that exhibit autogamy.
Autogamy is the process of transfer of pollen grain from the anther to the stigma of the
same flower.
Cleistogamous flowers and Chasmogamous flowers are two kinds.
8. Write the characteristic features of insect pollinated flowers.

Majority of insect pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
When the flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to
make them conspicuous.
The pollen grains are sticky and get adhered to the insects and get carried to another flower.
9. Draw a neat labelled diagram of T.S. of young anther.
10. Draw a neat labelled diagram of monocot embryo.
11. Write three advantages offered by the seeds to angiosperms.

i. Since, reproductive process such as pollination and fertilisation are independent of
water, seed formation is more dependable.
ii. Also seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats and help the
species own.
iii. Hard seed coat provides protection to young embryo.
iv. Being products of sexual reproduction, they generate new genetic combinations
leading to variations. (any three points)
12. Answer the following:

i) Compare Geitonogamy with Xenogamy. (2)
ii) What are Chasmogamous flowers. (1)
i) Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another
flower of the same plant.
Xenogamy is transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant.
ii) Chasmogamous flowers are similar to flowers of other species with exposed
anthers and stigma. They are seen in Viola, Oxalis and Commelina.
IV. Five marks questions:

1. Explain the structure of megasporangium.
Or
Describe the structure of an anatropus ovule with the help of a neat labelled diagram.
The ovule is a small structure attached to the

placenta by means of a stalk called funicle.
The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the
region called hilum.
Each ovule has one or two protective evelopes
called integuments.
Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip
where a small opening called the micropyle .
Opposite the micropylar end, is the chalaza,
representing the basal part of the ovule.
Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of
cells called the nucellus.
Located in the nucellus is the embryo sac or
female gametophyte.
2. Explain outbreeding devices that prevent self-pollination.

Flowering plants have developed many devise to discourage self-pollination and to
encourage cross-pollination.
i) First device: In some species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not
synchronised. Either the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive or
stigma becomes receptive much before the release of pollen.
ii) Second device: In some species, the anther and stigma are placed at different
positions so that the pollen the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of
the same flower. This condition is called heterostyly.
iii) Third device: The third device to prevent inbreeding is self-incompatibility or self-
sterility. This is a genetic mechanism and prevents self pollen from fertilising the
ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
iv) Fourth device: To prevent self-pollination plant produces unisexual flowers.
3. Draw and describe the structure of a matured embryosac of angiosperms.
The embryosac is present in the ovule

surrounded between nucellus. The embryo sac
is 8-nucleate and 7-celled.
Three cells are at the chalazal end and are
called the antipodals.
The large central cell has two polar nuclei.
At the micropylar end an egg cell and two
synergids are grouped together as egg
apparatus.
4. What is megasporogenesis? Explain the development of eight nucleate embryosac in

flowering plants.
The process of formation of megaspores

from the megaspore mother cell is called
megasporogenesis.
Ovules generally differentiate a single
maegaspore mother cell (MMC) in the
micropylar region of the nucellus.
It is a large cell containing dense
cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
The MMC undergoes meiotic division.
Meiosis results in the production of four
megaspores.
One of the megaspores is functional
while the other three degenerate.
Functional megaspore develops into the
female gametophyte.
This method of embryo sac formation
from a single megaspore is called
monosporic development.
The nucleus of the functional megaspore
divides mitotically to form two nuclei which more to opposite poles, forming the 2-
nucleate embryo sac.
The two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of the 4-nucleate
and later the 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac.
3. HUMAN REPRODUCTION
1. Why testes are present in the scrotum?
Because scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of testes 2 to 2.5°C lower than
the normal internal body temperature necessary for spermatogenesis.
2. What is Menarche?
The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche.
3. What is hymen?
The opening of the vagina is often covered partially a membrane called hymen.
4. Define spermiation.
The release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
5. Name the first haploid cell formed during spermatogenesis.

Secondary spermatocyte.
6. Name the unpaired accessary gland in male reproductive system.

Prostate gland.
7. When does the oogenesis complete?

After fertilization.
8. Define ovulation.
The release of ovum from the graafian follicle is called ovulation.
9. Define menopause.
In human beings, menstrual cycle ceases around 50 years of age and is called menopause.
10. Name the enzyme containing part of sperm which helps in fertilization.
Acrosome.
11. Ovulation takes place on the 14th day of menstrual cycle. Why?
Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH surge
induces ovulation on 14th day of menstrual cycle.
12. Mention the site of fertilization.

Ampullary-isthmus junction of fallopian tube.
13. What is Colostrum?

The milk produced during the initial few day of lactation is called colostrum.
14. Name the hormone responsible for ovulation.

LH.
15. What is implantation?
The process of attachment of blastocyst in the endometrium of the uterus is called
implantation.
16. Name the hormone secreted by corpus luteum.

Progesterone.
17. Name the layer of the uterus that exhibits strong contractions during parturition.
Myometrium.
18. What is cleavage?

The mitotic division of the zygote is called cleavage.
19. What is Foetal Ejection Reflex?

The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta which
induce mild uterine contraction called foetal ejection reflex.
20. Define spermiogenesis.

The process of morphological change of spermatids into spermatozoa is called
spermiogenesis.
21. What is morula?

The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called morula.

1. Mention two layers present around ovum.
Zona pellucida and corona radiate.
2. Explain the role of oxytocin in parturition.

Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine contractions, which in turn
stimulates further secretion of oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine
contraction and oxytocin secretion continues resulting in stronger and stronger
contractions. This leads to expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal
– parturition.
3. Mention the functions of trophoblast and inner cell mass.
Trophoblast helps in implantation.
Inner cell mass forms the embryo.
4. Mention the two layers of human blastocyst.

Trophoblast and inner cell mass.
5. List the hormones produced in women only during pregnancy.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and human placental lactogen (hPL).
6. Write the accessory ducts found in male reproductive system.
Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.

1. i) Name the cells that secrete androgens. (1)
ii)List out the hormones secreted by placenta. (2)
i. Interstitial cells or Leydig cells.

ii. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogens,
progestogens.
2. What is parturition? Briefly explain the process of parturition.

The process of delivery of the foetus is called parturition.
Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for parturition
originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta which induce mild uterine
contractions called foetal ejection reflex. This triggers release of oxytocin from the
maternal pituitary. Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine
contractions, which in turn stimulates further secretion of oxytocin, the stimulatory reflex
between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues resulting in stronger and
stronger contracts. This leads to expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth
canal.
3. Explain the stage of menstrual cycle.

1. Menstrual phase: The cycle starts with the menstrual phase, when the menstrual flow
occurs and it lasts for 3-5 days. This is due to breakdown of endometrial lining of the
uterus and its blood vessels which forms liguid that comes out through vagina.
2. Follicular phase: the menstrual phase is followed by the follicular phase. During this
phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become fully mature Graafian follicle
and simultaneously the endometrium of uterus regenerates through proliferation.
3. Luteal phase: After ovulation luteal phase follows during which the corpus luteum
produce progesterone. This results in maintenance of endometrium.

1. Name the functions of the following:
a. Corpus luteum b. Endometrium c. Acrosome d. Sperm tail e.
Fimbriae.
a. Corpus luteum secrets progesterone.
b. Endometrium contracts during parturition and helps in expulsion of bady.
c. Acrosome helps in penetration of sperm into the ovum.
d. Sperm tail helps in the movement of sperm.
e. Fimbriae helps in collection of ova released by ovary.
2. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of sectional view of human female reproductive system.
3. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of human male reproductive system .
4. Draw a neat labelled diagram of sectional view of mammary gland.
5. a) Write the schematic representation of spermatogenesis. (3)

b) Write the two events that occur in the ovary and uterus during the follicular phase of
menstrual cycle. (2)
a)
b) During follicular phase, in the ovary follicles grow to become fully mature. The follicles
inturn produce estrogen.
In response to estrogen, the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation.
6. Explain the structure of sperm.
Sperm is a microscopic structure

composed of head, neck a middle piece
and a tail. A plasma membrane envelops
the whole body of sperm.
The sperm head contains an haploid
nucleus and the anterior portion is
covered by cap-like acrosome.
The middle piece contains numerous
mitochondria which provide energy for
the movement of tail that help sperm
motility.
4. REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
1. MTP are legally restricted in our country. Justify by giving reason.
To prevent female foeticides.
2. Name the once a week pill.

Saheli.
3. Why the amniocentesis is banned?

Because it was used for female foeticides.
4. Name the hormone producing IUD.

Progestasert.
5. Define lactational amenorrhea.

The absence of menstruation during the period of intense lactation is called lactational
amenorrhea.

1. There has been an enormous growth of human population in India after independence.
Give two reasons.
i) A rapid decline in death rate,
ii) Decline in maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate.
2. What is amniocentesis? Why is it banned?

The foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal pattern in the mniotic fluid
surrounding the developing embryo is called amniocentesis.
It is banned to legally check increasing female foeticides, massive child immunisation, etc.
3. Name the two hormone releasing I.U.Ds.

Progestasert and LNG -20.
4. List any two principles to be followed to prevent sexually transmitted infections.

i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/ multiple partners.
ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
5. Mention the reasons for infertility.

Infertility many be due to physical, congenital, diseases, drugs, immunological or even
psychological.
6. Write a note on Saheli.

It is new oral contracptive pill for the females. It contains a non-steroidal preparation.
It is once a week pill. It has very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
It was developed by scientists at CDRI (Central Drug Research Institute) in Lucknow.
1. List out the types of Intra Uterine Devices. Give an example for each.
Non-medicated IUDs, Ex- Lippes loop.
Cu releasing IUDs, Ex- Cu-T, Hormone releasing IUDs, Ex- Progestasert.
2. Define Infertility? Write two assisted reproductive technology to overcome infertility.

Inability to conceive or produce children even after two years of unprotected sexual
cohabitation is called infertility.
ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer),
IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer).
3. “To a user, the contraceptives must be ideal in all aspects”. Justify the statement by
mentioning the qualities of an ideal contraceptive.
i. User friendly,
ii. Easily available,
iii. Effective,
iv. Reversible,
v. No or least side-effects,
vi. Should not interfere with the sexual drive, desire or sexual act of the user. (any 3).
4. How can conception be prevented without the usage of contraceptives?

By natural methods such as – Periodic abstinence, Coitus interruptus and Lactational
amenorrhea.
5. What are STDs? Give two examples

Disease which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called sexually
transmitted diseases.
Ex- Gonorrhoea, syphilis.

1. What is infertility? How is infertility treated by assisted reproductive technologies GIFT
and ICSI?
Inability to conceive or produce children even after two years of unprotected sexual
GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) - Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into
the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one but can provide suitable
environment for fertilization and further development.
ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection) – It is a method in which embryo is formed in the
laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
2. i) What is infertility? (1)

ii) Explain two barrier methods and two surgical methods that prevent conception. (4)
i. Inability to conceive or produce children even after two years of unprotected sexual
ii. Barrier methods:
a. Condoms: Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/late sheath. They are used
to cover the penis in male or vagina an cervix in the female, just before coitus
so that the ejaculated semen would not enter into the female reproductive tract.
This can prevent conception.
b. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults: These are also barriers made of rubber
that are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during
coitus. They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the
cervix. They are reusable.
Surgical methods:
a. Vasectomy: It is sterilisation procedure in the male in which a small part of the

as deferens is remove and tied up through a small incision of the scrotum.
b. Tubectomy: It is sterilisation procedure in the female in which a part of
fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or
through vagina.
3. a) What are the features of an ideal contraceptive? (2)

b) Mention the natural methods of contraception. (3)
a. An ideal contraceptive should be-
i. User friendly, ii. Easily available, iii. Effective, iv. Reversible, iv. No or least side-
effects, v. Should not interfere with the sexual drive, desire or sexual act of the user.
b. Natural methods of contraception are- 1. Periodic abstinence, 2. Withdrawal or Coitus
interruptus and 3. Lactional amenorrhea.
3. What are contraceptives? Explain four different non-surgical contraceptive methods.
The birth control methods which deliberately prevent fertilization are referred to as
contraceptive methods. Contraceptive methods help to prevent unwanted pregnancies.
1. Natural methods: Natural method work on the principal of avoiding chances of ovum
and sperm meeting. There are three natural methods namely- Periodic abstinence,
Coitus interruptus and Lactational amenorrhea.
2. Barrier methods: In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically
meeting with the help of barrier. There are two types- Condoms and Diaphragms,
cervical caps and vaults.
3. IUDs: Intra uterine devices are inserted by doctors or expect nurses in the uterus
through vagina. IUDs are of three types- Non-medicated IUDs, Cu releasing IUDs and
Hormone releasing IUDs.
4. Oral contraceptives: Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or
proestogen-estrogen combinations is a contraceptive method used by the females.
5. PRINCIPLES OF INHERITENCE AND VARIATION
1. Define allele.
The different forms of the same gene is called allele.
2. Mention the genotypic ratio of inheritance of one gene.

1 : 2 : 1.
3. Name any one autosomal recessive disorder.

Sickle-cell anaemia OR Phenylketonuria.
4. State First law of inheritance.

The parental character which is expressed in F1 generation is called Law of Dominance.
5. Chromosomal theory of inheritance.

Sutton united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles and
called it the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
6. Define polygenic inheritance.

The traits are generally controlled by three or more genes is called polygenic inheritance
7. What is linkage?
The physical association of genes on a chromosome is called linkage.
8. Write the karyotype of Turner’s syndrome.

44A + XO.
9. Write the genotype of O blood group.

i i.
10. What are multiple allels?

When a single character is governed by more than two alleles, it is called multiple allels.
11. Give example for female heterogametic condition.

Many birds (fowls).
12. Define pedigree analysis.

An analysis of traits in a several of generations of a family is called pedigree analysis.
13. Name the syndrome resulted due to extra X chromosome.

Klinefelter’s syndrome.
14. What is aneuploidy?

Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of
chromosomes is called aneuploidy.

1. Mention two dominant traits of pea plant.
Tall height and violet colour of flowers.
2. Explain the law of dominance using a monohybrid cross.

The trait which express in F1 generation is called dominant character.
Mendel crossed tall pea plant with dwarf. All F1 plants where tall, hence dominant.
3. Define test cross. Mention its significance.

A cross between F2 plant with recessive parent type is called test cross.
It helps to determine the genotype of a plant.
4. Why has T. H. Morgan selected fruit flies for his genetical experiments?
1. They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory,
2. They complete their life cycle in about two weeks and a single mating could produce a
large number of progeny flies.
3. There was a clear differentiation of the sexes- the male a female flies are easily
distinguishable.
4. It has may types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscope.
(any two).
5. Distinguish between homozygous and heterozygous plants.

The plants with identical allelic pair of genes for a character are called homozygous.
The hybrids containing alleles which express contrasting traits are called heterozygous.
6. What is incomplete dominance? Give an example.

The F1 do not resemble either of the two parents as is between the two is incomplete
dominance.
Ex- Flower colours in snapdragon.
7. What are the conclusions drawn by T.H. Morgan from the crossing experiments in
Drosophila with respect to linkage?
Morgan attributed that due to the physical association or linkage of the two genes and
coined the term linkage and recombination to describe the generation of non-parental gene
combinations.
Morgan and his group found that even when genes were grouped on the same chromosome,
some genes were very tightly linked and showed very low recombination while others were
loosely linked showed higher recombination.
8. Mention the genotype of the parents when their children are with A,B,AB,O blood groups.
When one of the parent is heterozygous A and the other heterozygous B, the children will
be of all the four types.
iA i
B
i iAiB iBi
(AB) (B)
i iAi ii
(A) (O)
9. What are the two types of disorders of humans where the karyotype is 47?
Trisomy of 21st chromosome causes Down’s syndrome.
Extra X chromosome i.e., 44A + XXY causes Klinefelter’s syndrome.
10. Write the karyotype of Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome.

Down’s syndrome – trisomy of 21st chromosome.
Klinefelter’s syndrome- 44A + XXY.

1. Describe Haplodiploid sex determination system in honey bees.
The sex determination in honey bee is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an
individual receives.
An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg develops as a female (queen or
worker), and an unfertilized egg develops a a male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis.
This means that the males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female. The
females are diploid having 32 chromosomes and males are haploid having 16
chromosomes.
2. Write a note on phenylketonuria.

Phenylketonuria is inborn error of metabolism and is inherited as the autosomal recessive
trait.
The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into
tyrosine. As a result of this phenyalanine is accumulated and converted into pheylpyruvic
acid and other derivatives. This results in mental retardation.
3. Write the karyotype of the following syndromes:

i) Down’s syndrome
ii) Klinefelter’s syndrome
iii) Turner’a syndrome.
i. Down’s syndrome: Trisomy of 21st chromosome,
ii. Klinefelter’s syndrome: 44A + XXY,
iii. Truner’s syndrome: 44A + XO.
4. How is sex determined in human beings?

In human male is heterogametic (XY), and produce 50% gametes with X chromosome and
50% with Y chromosome.
While female is homogametic (XX) and produce gamete with only X chromosome.
If sperm with X chromosome unite with ova, boy child will be born.
If sperm with Y chromosome unite with ova, girl child will be born.
1. Explain the inheritance of one gene with reference to stem height of garden pea plant.
A cross between two parents differing from one character is called monohybrid cross.
Mendel did monohybrid cross considering height of the pea plants.
Parents:
Phenotype: Tall X Dwarf
Genotype: TT X tt
Gametes: T X t
F1 generation: Tt (Tall)
All F1 plants are tall because tall character is dominant over dwarf (Law of Dominance).
F1 X F1: Tt X Tt
Gametes: T t
F2 generation:
T t
TT Tt
T tall tall
Tt tt
t tall dwarf
Result:
Phenotype: 3 :1
Genotype: 1 : 2 : 1
Law of segregation: The alleles do not show any blending and that both the characters are
recovered as such in the F2 generation though one of these is not seen at the F1 stage.
2. a) What are multiple alleles? Give an example. (2)

b) Write the symptoms of Klinefelter’s syndrome. (3)
a. The process in which more than two, i.e., three alleles, governing the same character is
called multiple alleles.
Ex- ABO blood groups and skin colour in human
b. Development of breast, i.e., gynaecomastia, sterile male, feminised character.
3. Give a schematic representation of dihybrid cross.

4. i) Why T.H. Morgan selected Drosophila for his genetic experiments? (3)
ii) What is pleiotropism? Give an example. (2)
i. 1. They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory,
2. They complete their life cycle in about two weeks and a single mating could
produce a large number of progeny flies.
3. There was a clear differentiation of the sexes- the male a female flies are easily
distinguishable.
4. It has may types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power
microscope. (any three).
ii. Pleiotropism is a inheritance of a single gene which exhibit multiple phenotypic
expression.
An example of this is the disease phenylketonuria, which codes for the enzyme
phenyl alanine hydroxylase. This causes mental retardation and reduction in hair
and skin pigmentation.
5. Mention the cause and features of Down’s syndrome.

Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder caused due to trisomy of 21st chromosome.
The affected individual is short statured with small round head, furrowed tongue and
partially open mouth.
Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease.
Physical psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
6. i) Mention the possible genotypes of blood groups A and B. (2)

ii) Explain briefly cause and effects of sickle-cell anaemia. (3)
i. A blood group- IA IA or IA i.
B blood group- IB IB or IB i.
ii. Sickle-cell anaemia is a classical example of point mutation.
This is an autosome like recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to the
offspring when both the parents are carrier for the gene.
The disease is controlled by a single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Gene for normal
RBC is HbA while that of sickle cell RBC is HbS.
The defect is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid by Valine at the sixth
position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to the single base
substitution at the sixth position of the beta globin gene from GAG to GUG.
The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen
tension causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to
elongated sickle like structure.
7. Explain incomplete dominance with suitable example.

In complete dominance was studied in snapdragon or Antirrhinum species producing red
and white flowers.
The F1 plants produced pink flowers. When F1 plants were self-pollinated the F2 resulted
in the ratio 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White.
This is because neither red was dominant over white nor white over red, resulting in the
phenotype in between the two.
15. MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITENCE
1. Name the main enzyme required for replication.
DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
2. Why genetic code is called unambiguous?

One codon codes for only one amino acid hence called unambiguous.
3. Which chromosome of man has the least number of genes?

X chromosome.
4. Which chromosome of humans has the most number of genes?

First chromosome.
5. Name the inducer which regulates the switching on and off of the lac operon.
Lactose.
6. Which type of RNA polymerase enzyme transcribes precursor mRNA?

The RNA polymerase II.
7. Which RNA is also called adapter molecule?

t-RNA.
8. The base sequence of template strand on DNA is 3' ATGCATGCA 5'. Write the base
sequence of mRNA.
5' UACGUACGU 3'.
9. Name the codon which has dual function.

AUG.
10. Name the gene in Lac operon which codes for repressor protein.
Operator gene.
11. Define DNA polymorphism.

If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is called DNA
polymorphism.

1. Write the meaning of following terms: a) Euchromatin b) Cistron.
a. Euchromatin: The chromatin which is loosely pcked and stains light is called
euchromatin.
b. Cistron: The segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide is called cistron.
2. Define point mutation. Give an example for point mutation.

A change of single base pair in the gene which changes the amino acid residue is called
point mutation.
Ex- Sickle cell anemia.
3. Name the scientist who found out DNA and what was the name given by him?
Friedrich Meischer discovered DNA and named it as nuclein.
4. Write the two basic amino acid residues which are rich in histones.
Lysines and arginines are the two basic amino acid residue which are rich in histones.
5. Write the central dogma of molecular biology.

1. Give the schematic structure of a transcription unit.
2. DNA is the better genetic material than RNA. Justify the statement with three comparative
reasons.
i. It should be able to generate its replica.
ii. It should chemically and structurally be stable.
iii. It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
iv. It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian characters. (any three)
3. Mention the three regions of transcription unit in DNA.

i. A Promoter,
ii. The Structural gene
iii. A terminator.
4. “RNA polymerase in eukaryotes shows division of labour”. Substantiate the statement.

There are three RNA polymerase in the nucleus.
RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs,
RNA polymerase II transcribes of mRNA (hnRNA) and
RNA polymerase III transcribes of tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA.
5. Explain the process of RNA processing in eukaryotes.

In eukaryotes monocistronic gene is present.
The monocistronic structural genes have interrupted coding sequences called introns,
hence the genes in eukaryotes are split.
The coding sequences are called exons.
The heterogeneous mRNA has both introns and exons.
During processing introns are removed and exons are added by the process called RNA
splicing.
6. “DNA polymorphism is a very useful identification tool in forensic applications”. Mention

the steps involved in identification of polymorphism using DNA fingerprinting technique.
i. Isolation of DNA,
ii. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases,
iii. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis,
iv. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon,
v. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe, and
vi. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.

1. Describe the structure of nucleosome with the help of neat labelled diagram.
2. List out the salient features of double helix model of DNA.

i. DNA is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by
sugar-phosphate, and the bases project inside.
ii. The two chains have anti-parallel polarity. It means, if one chain has the polarity 5'
→ 3', the other 3' → 5'.
iii. The bases in the two strands are paired through hydrogen bond forming base pairs.
Adenine binds with Thymine with two hydrogen bonds. Guanine binds with
Cytosine with three hydrogen bonds.
iv. The two chains are coiled in right-handed fashion. The pitch of the helix is 3.4 mn
and there are 10 base pairs in each turn. Therefore, the distance between a bp is
0.34 nm.
v. The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This, in addition
to hydrogen bonds, confers stability of the helical structure.
3. Enumerate any five salient features of genetic code.

i. The codon is triplet. 61 codons code for amino acids and 3 codons do not code for
any amino acids, hence they function as stop codons.
ii. One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence, it is unambiguous and specific.
iii. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate.
iv. The code is universal: for example, from bacteria to human UUU codes for
pheylalanine.
v. AUG has dual functions. It codes for Methionine and it acts as initiator codon.
4. Enumerate the salient features of Human Genome Project (HGP).

i. The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
ii. The average gene consists of 3000 bases, the largest human gene is dystrohpin with
2.4 million bases.
iii. The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000- much lower than previous
estimates of 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. 99.9 % nucleotide bases are exactly the
same in all people.
iv. The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.
v. Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
5. Mention the steps involved in DNA finger printing technique.

i. Isolation of DNA,
ii. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases,
iii. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis,
iv. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon,
v. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe, and
vi. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
6. Explain the regulation of Lac operon in absence and presence of Lactose as an inducer.
Lac operon concept was proposed by Jacob and Monod.
The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene (i) and three structural genes- z,y and a.
Genes z, y and a codes for beta-galactosidase, permease and transacetylase respectively.
These three enzymes are essential for the metabolism of lactose.
I. In the absence of lactose:
The regulatory gene transcribes mRNA which in turn forms repressor protein. This
repressor binds to operator. This results in non-movement of RNA polymerase
present on promotor and structural genes do not transcribes.
The operon is switched off.
II. In the presence of lactose:
The lactose sugar acts as inducer. They bind to the repressor protein. This inhibits
the binding of repressor to the operator. In the absence of repressor, the RNA
polymerase moves on the structural genes.
This results in the formation polycistronic mRNA and formation of the three
enzymes which breaks lactose.
The operon is switched on.
7. Oswald Avery and others have continued Griffith’s transforming principle to prove DNA
as genetic material – Substantiate.
Fredrick Griffith, in a series of experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae witnessed s
miraculous transformation in the bacteria.
During the course of his experiment, a living organism had changed in physical form.
When Streptococcus pneumonia bacteria are grown on a culture plate, some produce
smooth shiny colonies (S) while others produce rough colonies (R).
This is because the S strain bacteria have a mucous coat, while R strain does not.
Prior to the work of Oswalf Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty, the genetic
material was thought to be a protein.
They woked to determine the biochemical nature of ‘transforming principle’ in Griffith
experiment.
They purified biochemical (Proteins, DNA, RNA,etc)from the heat-killed S cells to see
which ones could transform live R cells into S cells.
They discovered that DNA alone from S bacteria caused R bacteria to become transformed.
They also discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA-digesting
enzymes (RNases) did not affect transformation, so the transforming substance was not a
protein or RNA.
Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation suggesting that the DNA caused the
transformation.
They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material.
8. ‘ DNA replication is said to be semiconservative’. Why? Describe the experimental proof

of Messelson and Stahl to show DNA replication is semiconservative.
Matthew Messelson and Franklin Stahl performed the following experiment to proves
DNA replicates semiconservatively.
They grew E.coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl ( 15N is the heavy isotope of nitrogen)
as the only nitrogen source of many generations.
The result was that 15N incorporated into newly synthesised DNA.
This heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished form normal DNA by centrifugation in
a caesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient.
Then they transferred the cells into a medium with normal 14NH4Cl and took samples at
various definite time intervals as the cells multiplied, and extracted the DNA that remained
as double-stranded helices.
The various samples were separated independently on CsCl gradients to measure the
densities of DNA.
Thus, the DNA that was extracted from the culture one generation after the transfer from
15
N to 14N medium (i.e., after 20 minutes; E.colidivides in 20 minutes) had a hybrid or
intermediate density.
DNA extracted from the culture after another generation (i.e., after 40 minutes, II
generation) was composed of equal amounts of this hybrid DNA and of light DNA.
After third generation bacteria contain 25% hybrid and 75% light DNA in 1:3 ratio.
9. Explain the mechanism of DNA replication.

The process of doubling of DNA molecule to produce two identical daughter molecules is
called DNA replication.
During this process the two strands would separate and
act as a template for the synthesis of new
complementary strands.
After the completion of replication, each DNA
molecule would have one parental and one newly
synthesised Strand. This scheme is called
semiconservative DNA replication.
This process is energy dependent and involves the
activity of many enzymes.
For long DNA molecule, since the two strands of DNA
cannot be separated in its entire length, the replication
occur within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred
to as replication fork.
The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyse
polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5' → 3'.
This creates some additional complications at the replicating fork. Consequently, on one
strands the replication is continuous, while on the other it is discontinuous.
This discontinuously synthesised fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase
The DNA polymerases on their own cannot initiate the process of replication. Also the
replication does not initiate randomly at any place in DNA.
There is a definite region in DNA where the replication originates. Such regions are called
origin of replication.
7. HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
1. Name the pathogenic bacteria which infects small intestine through food and water.
Salmonella typhi.
2. Give an example for air borne disease.

Common cold / pheumonia.
3. Name the enzyme by which the HIV genome replicates in the host cell.
Reverse transcriptase.
4. Name the disease diagnosed by Widal test.

Typhoid.
5. Mention the role of interferons in providing immunity.

Interferon is secreted by virus infected cells which protects non-infected cells from further
viral infection.
6. Name the type of antibodies produced during allergy.

IgE.
7. Write the name of toxic substance responsible for fever and chill in Malaria.
Haemozoin.
8. Write the infection forms of Plasmodium which enter human body through mosquito bite.
Sporozoites.
9. Name the immunoglobulin present in colostrum.

IgA.
10. Cancer patients are treated with α- interferon. Give reason.

Because they activate the immune system and helps in destroying the tumor.
11. Name the most accurate technique for the detection of cancer.
MRI.
12. Name the disease showing the symptoms of constipation, headache, loss of appetite and
stomach pain.
Typhoid.
13. Name the antibody producing component of immune system.

B-lymphocytes.

1. Write the scientific name of organisms causing i) Pneumonia ii) Ring worm
i. Pneumonia : Streptococcus pneumonia.
ii. Ring worm: Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
2. Mention the cause and effects of typhoid.
Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid fever in human beings.
These pathogens generally enter the small intestine through food and water contaminated
with them and migrate to other organs through blood.
Sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite
are some of the common symptoms of this disease.
3. What is auto-immunity? Give an example.
Sometimes body attack on self-cells, due to genetic or other unknown reasons, and results
in damage of the body. This is called auto-immunity.
Ex- Rheumatoid arthritis.
4. Draw a neat labelled diagram of an antibody molecule.
5. What is Innate immunity? Mention any two types of innate immunity barriers.
Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence that is present at the time of birth.
i. Physical barriers ii. Physiological barriers.
6. What is allergy? Name the two chemicals released by mast cells in the body during allergy.
Exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in environment is
called allergy.
Histamine and serotonin are the two chemicals released by mast cells during allergy.
7. Distinguish between benign tumour an malignant tumour.

Benign tumours normally remain confined in their original location and do not spread to
other parts of the body and cause little damage.
Malignant tumours are a mass of proliferating cells called neoplastic or tumour cells. Cells
of malignant tumours spread in the body by the process called metastasis.

1. Write a note on pneumonia.
Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenza are responsible for the
disease pheumonia in humans which infects the alveoli of lungs.
As a result of infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in
respiration.
The symptoms of pneumonia are fever, chills, cough and headache. In severe cases, the
lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour.
A healthy person acquires the infection by inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an
infected person or even by sharing glasses and utensils with an infected person.
2. Differentiate active immunity from passive immunity.

Active immunity is produced after infection.
It is long lasting immunity.
It is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.
Passive immunity is by ready-made antibodies given directly to protect the body against
foreign agents.
It is short-lived.
It shows immediate response.
3. Mention any three characteristics of cancer cell.

The growth and differentiation in cancer cell is not regulated. They show uncontrolled
growth.
Cancer cells lost the property of contact inhibition. They show uncontrolled division.
They show metastasis.
4. What are carcinogens? Mention any two groups of carcinogens with one example for each.
Agents which causes cancer are called carcinogens.
Physical – ionising and non ionising radiations,
Chemical – Tobacco smoke.
Biological – Cellular oncogenes. (any two)
5. Name the diseases caused by the following organism:

a) Rhino virus
b) Wuchereria bancrofti
c) Haemophilius influenzae.
a. Rhino virus- common cold,
b. Wuchereria bancrofti- Elephantiasis,
c. Haemophilius influenza- Pneumonia.
6. With reference to malaria answer the following:

i) Name of the pathogen and vector
ii) Symptoms.
i. Malaria is caused Plasmodium using female Anopheles mosquito as vector.
ii. Chill and high fever recurring every three to four days.
7. Define immunity and name two different types of immunity.
Overall ability of host to fight the disease causing organisms, conferred by immune system
is called immunity.
Innate immunity and Acquired immunity are two types of immunity.
1. Explain the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium.
Plasmodium is a protozoan responsible for malaria.
Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of infected female
Anopheles mosquito.
The parasites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in
their rupture.
The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance, haemozoin, which is
responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four days.
When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the
mosquito’s body and undergo further development.
The parasites multiply within them to form sporozoites that are stored in their salivary
glands.
When these mosquitoes bite a human, the sporozoites are introduced into his/her body,
thereby initiating the events mentioned above.
2. i) Where are the opioid receptors located in human body? (2)

ii) Mention the techniques involved in cancer detection and diagnosis. (3)
i. Opioid receptors are present in CNS and GIT.
ii. Biopsy: A piece of suspected tissue cut into thin section is stained.
Histopathological studies: Stained section is examined under microscope.
Blood and Bone marrow test: for increased cell count for leukemia.
Radiography, CT and MRI are used to detect cancer of internal organs.
3. Give the schematic representation showing replication of retrovirus.
8. MICROBES AND HUMAN WELFARE

1. Mention the use of statin.
Statins are used as blood-cholesterol lowering agent.
2. Name the bacteria used in the production of Swiss chees.

Propionibacterium sharmanii.
3. During sewage treatment, a small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the
aeration tank. Why?
Because it serves as inoculum.
4. Mention the role of Methanobacterium in rumen of cattle.

They help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an important role in the nutrition of
cattle.
5. Write the scientific name of the source organism of citric acid.

Aspergillus niger.
6. Name the scientific name of the fungus which produce cyclosporine A.

Trichoderma polysporum.
7. Name the pathogenic virus which is used as biocontrol agent.

Nueleopolyhedrovirus.
8. Which bacteria is commonly found in the anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment?
Methanogens.
9. Define flocs.
Flocs are the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like
structures.
10. Name the bacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living in the soil.
Azotobactr.

1. Name any two bacteria used as biofertilizers.
Rhizobium, Azospirillum and Azotobacter. (any two)
2. How anaerobic bacteria are beneficial in secondary sewage treatment?

Anaerobic bacteria are used in anaerobic sludge digester in which they digest bacteria and
fungi present in the sludge.
During the process they produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide
and carbon dioxide which are used as biogas.
3. Name the bioactive molecules used as i) Clot buster ii) Blood cholesterol lowering agent.
i. Streptokinase.
ii. Statins.
4. Name two types of popular cheese.

Swiss cheese and Roquuefort cheese.
5. What is IPM? Name the organism used for it.
Integrated pest management programme is the process in which non-target insects are not
harmed during pest control.
Neuleophyhedrovirus.

1. Mention the uses of LAB.
i. LAB converts milk into curds.
ii. It improves the nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12.
iii. LAB checks the growth of disease causing microbes in stomach.
2. Write a note on Bt cotton.

Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) bacteria is an example of microbial biocontrol agents to control
butterfly caterpillers.
These are available in sachets as dried spores which are mixed with water and sprayed onto
vulnerable plants such as Braccisicas and fruit trees, where these are eaten by the insect
larvae.
In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the larva gets killed.
Due to advent of genetic engineering Bt toxin genes is introduced into plants. Such plants
are resistant to attack by the insect pests.

1. Explain the role of microbe in household products.
Microorganisms like Lactobacillus grow in milk and convert it into curd.
LAB also improves the nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12.
Dough, which is used for making dosa and idli is fermented by bacteria.
Saccharomyces cervisiae is used for fermenting dough during bread making.
Toddy is a traditional drink of South India is made by fermentation sap from palms.
Chees is one of the oldest food items in which microbes were used.
2. Mention five chemicals and the organisms used to produce them.

i. Citric acid: Aspergillus niger,
ii. Acetic acid: Acetobacter aceti,
iii. Butyric acid: Clostridim butylicum
iv. Lactic acid: Lactobacillus
v. Ethanol: Saccharomyces cervisiae.
3. Mention the source and function for each of the following:

i) Penicillin
ii) Streptokinase
iii) Cyclosporin A
iv) Statins
v) Lactic acid
i. Penicillin : Source- Fungi called Penicillium notatum
Function- Antibiotic.
ii. Streptokinase: Source- Bacteria called Streptococuss.
Function- Produce streptokinase used as clot buster.
iii. Cyclosporin A: Source- Fungus called Trichoderma polysporum.
Function- Immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients.
iv. Statins: Source- Fungus called Monascus purpureus.
Function- Blood-cholesterol lower agent.
v. Lactic acid: Source- Bacteria called Lactobacillus.
Function: Converts milk into curd.
4. Describe the structure of typical biogas plant with a labelled diagram.

The biogas plant consists of a
concrete tank (10-15 feet deep) in
which bio-wastes are collected and
a slurry of dung is fed. A floating
cover is placed over the slurry,
which keeps on rising as the gas is
produced in the tank due to the
microbial activity.
The biogas plant has an outlet,
which is connected to a pipe to
supply biogas to nearby houses.
The spent slurry is removed
through another outlet and may be
used as fertiliser.
5. Discuss the role of microbes as biofertilizers.

Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil.
In leguminous plants nodules on the foots formed by the symbiotic association of
Rhizobium. Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms which is used by the
plant as nutrient.
Fungi form symbiotic association with roots of higher plant called mycorrhiza. Many
members of genus Glomus form mycorrhiza which absorbs phosphorous from soil and
passes it to plants.
Nostoc, Anabaena and Oscillatoria are Blue green algae that can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
They also add organic matter to the soil and increase its fertility.
6. Describe the role of microbes in sewage treatment plant.

Microbes are used in secondary treatment of sewage.
The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated
mechanically and air pumped into it. This allows growth of useful aerobic microbes into
flocs.
Flocs are the masses of bacteria associated with fugal filaments to form mesh like structure.
While growing these microbes consume the major part of organic matter in the effluent.
This reduces the BOD of the effluent.
Once the BOD of sewage water is reduced the effluent is then passed into settling stank
where the bacterial flocs are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge.
A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into aeriation tank to serve as
inoculum.
The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anerobic sludge
digesters. In anaerobic sludge digester, anaerobic bacteria grow and digest the bacteria and
fungi in the sludge releasing biogas.
7. a) Explain the role of three organisms as biocontrol agents. (3)

b) What is the significance of BOD? (1)
c) Give an example for a fungus found in mycorrhiza. (1)
a. Trichoderma is used as biological control in the treatment of plant disease. They are fee
living fungi that are very common in root ecosystems.
Baculoviruses are used as species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal application.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a microbial biocontrol agent to control butterfly caterpillers.
b) BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water. The greater the BOD of
waste water, more is its polluting potential.
c) Glomus.
8. BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

1. Name the molecular scissors used in recombinant DNA teachnology.
Restriction enzymes.
2. Name the first restriction endonuclease isolated.

Hind-II.
3. Define palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA.

The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands
when orientation of reading in kept the same.
4. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards positive electrode. Give reason.
Because DNA are negatively charged molecules.
5. Write the restriction site of EcoRI enzyme.

5' ------GAATTC------3'
3'-------CTTAAG-----5'
6. What is elution?
During gel electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel
and extracted from the gel piece. This step is called elution.
7. Name the plasmid present in Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid.
8. What are bioreactors?

To produce large quantities of gene products bioreactors are used which provide optimum
growth condition like temperature, pH, substrate, slats, vitamins, oxygen.
9. Give an example for selectable marker.

Ampicillin resistance gene.

1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a typical agarose gel electrophoresis.
2. Write the methods to introduce alien DNA into host cells.

Microinjection for animals and Biolistic/gene gun for plants.
3. What is Taq polymerase? Mention its significance.

DNA polymerase isolated from a bacterium called Thermus aquaticus is called Taq
polymerase.
It is used for amplification of DNA segments without denaturation of DNA.
4. Write an example, explain the convention for naming restriction endonucleases

scientifically.
Eco RI.
First letter of the name comes from the genus.
Second letters comes from the species. Ex- Escherichia coli.
R is derived from the name of the strain.
Roman numbers following the name indicate the order in which the enzymes were isolated
from that strain of bacteria.

1. Mention three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism.
i. Identification of DNA with desirable genes’
ii. Introduction of the identified DNA into the host and
iii. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its
progeny.
2. Explain in brief the separation and isolation of DNA fragments.

The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These
fragments can be separated by a technique called gel electrophoresis. Since DNA
fragments are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to move
towards the anode under an electric field through a medium or matrix of agarose. The DNA
fragments separate according to their size through fragment size through sieving effect
provided by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with
ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation. The DNA bands appear bright
organge. They are cut out from the agarose gel which is called elution.
3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of plasmid pBR322.
4. Answer the following:

i) Differentiate between microinjection and biolistics. (2)
ii) Give an example for disarmed pathogen vector. (1)
i. Microinjection is the process in which rDNA is directly injected into the
nucleus of an animal cell.
Biolistics is the process in which the plant cells are bombarded with high
velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
ii. Retrovirus.
5. Draw a neat labelled diagram of simple stirred tank bioreactor.

6. a) Mention four tools required for recombinant DNA technology. (2)
b) With reference to gel electrophoresis, what is elution? (1)
a. Enzymes, Host cells, Cloning vector and Bioreactor are the tools required for
recombinant DNA technology.
b. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from gel
piece. This step is called elution.

1. “ In rDNA technology, unless the desired DNA is separated and isolated, it cannot be
introduced into a vector”. How separation is achieved using gel electrophoresis?
Electrophoresis is a technique of separation of molecules like DNA, RNA, proteins under
the influence of an electric field.
Since DNA are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by forcing them to
move towards the anode under the electric field through a medium.
The DNA fragment separates according to their size through sieving effect provided by
the agarose gel. Hence, smaller the fragments size, the farther it moves. The differential
mobility of DNA depends upon charge and size of DNA.
The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the ENA with a
compound known as Ethidium bromide followed by exposure of ultraviolet radiation
which makes the DNA strands appear bright orange.
The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from gel piece.
This step is called elution.
2. i) What are the methods to introduce alien DNA into host cells? (2)
ii) Write any three tools used in recombinant DNA technology. (3)
i. Method 1: This is done by treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent
cation, such as calcium, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the
bacterium through pores in its cell wall.
Recombinant DNA can then be forced into such cells by incubating the cell with
recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 42° (heat shock) and
then putting them back on ice. This enables the bacteria to take up the recombinant
DNA.
Method 2: rDNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell by
microinjection.
ii. Enzymes, vectors and the host organisms are the three tools used in recombinant
DNA technology.
Enzymes used are restriction enzymes, polymerase and ligases.
Vectors used are plasmids.
Host organisms are generally E.coli.
3. With reference to recombinant DNA technology, explain the following:

a) Polymerase chain reaction
b) Downstream processing.
a. Polymerase chain reaction is a process of obtaining multiple copies of the gene of
interest in vitro using two sets of primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase.
The enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction and the
genomic DNA as template. It involves three stages i.e., Denaturation, Annealing and
Extension.
b. Downstream processing: The process of separation and purification of product during

genetic engineering is called Downstream processing.
4. a) Differentiate Endonucleases and Exonucleases. (2)
b)Diagrammatically represent recombinant DNA technology. (3)
a. Endonucleases cuts the DNA at specific positions within it. Endonucleases remove
nucleotides from the ends of the DNA.
b.
10. BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
1. What are genetically modified organisms?
Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose gene have been altered by manipulation are
called GMO.
2. Mention a gene that codes for insecticidal protein in Bt cotton.

cry.
3. Name the organisation set up by Indian Government which make devisions on GM
research.
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee).
4. What are transposons?

Transposons are mobile genetic elements.
5. Name the nematode that infects the roots of tobacco plant.

Meloidegyne incognita.
6. What is RNAi (RNA interference)?

It is the method of silencing a specific mRNA due to the complementary dsDNA molecule
that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA.
7. How pro-hormone of insulin is different from mature form?

Pro-hormone has a C peptide between A and B chain which is removed during maturation.
8. Define biopiracy.
It is the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without
proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory
payment.

1. Explain how recombinant DNA technology was used to prepare mature human insulin
molecule.
DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin and introduced them
in plasmids of E.coli to produce insulin chains.
Chains A and B were produced sprarately, extracted and combined by creating disulphide
bonds to form human insulin.
2. Name the disease caused by ADA. What are the symptoms of that disease?
ADA deficiency causes SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency).
In SCID, B-lymphocyte and T-lympocytes are not formed which are needed for the
immune system to function.

1. Mention any three useful aspects of genetically modified plants in agriculture.
a) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops)
b) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat)
c) Enhanced nutritional value of food, ex- vitamin A enriched rice.
2. List three critical research areas of biotechnology.

a) Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved organism usually a microbe or
pure enzyme.
b) Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act.
c) Downstream processing technologies to purify the protein/organic compound.
3. Mention three options that can be thought for increasing food production.
1) Agro-chemical based agriculture,
2) Organic agriculture
3) Genetically engineered crop-base agriculture.
4. Name three techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis.

1. r-DNA technology, 2. PCR and 3. ELISA

1. a) What is Gene therapy? Give an example.(2)
b) Write a note on biopiracy with reference to Basmati rice. (3)
a) Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has
been diagnosed in a child/embryo. Here genes are inserted into a person’s cells and tissue
to treat a disease.
Gene therapy is done for ADA deficiency which causes SCID.
b) The use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisation without

proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory
payment.
In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
and Trade mark office. This allowed the company to sell a new variety of Basmati in the
US and abroad. This new variety of basmati had actually been derided from Indian farmer’s
varieties. Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf varieties and claimed as an
invention or a novelty.
2. GM plants have been useful in many ways. Justify the statement.

1. Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops),
2. Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat),
3. Enhanced nutritional value of food, ex- vitamin A enriched rice,
4. Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this prevents early exhaustion of
fertility of soil) and
5. Helped to reduce post-harvest losses.
3. Explain five benefit of creating transgenic animals.

1. Normal physiology and development : Transgenic animals can be specifically designed
to allow the study of how genes are regulated and how they affect the normal functions
of the body.
2. Study of Diseases: Many transgenic animals are designed to the understanding of how
genes contribute to the development of disease.
3. Biological products: Transgenic animals that produce useful biological products can
be created by the introduction of the portion of DNA which codes for a particular
product.
4. Vaccine safety: Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of
vaccines before they are use on humans.
5. Chemical safety testing: Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make
them more sensitive to toxic substances than non-tansgenic animals. They are exposed
to the toxic substances and the effects studied.
4. One of the applications of biotechnology is to get pest resistant plants – justify the
statement with reference to Bt cotton.
Production of pest resistant plants could reduce that amount of pesticides used. Bt toxin is
produced by a bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis.
Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to provide
resistance to insects without the need for insecticides, in effect created a biopesticide.
B-thuringiensis form protein crystals which are inactive form. Once an insect ingest the
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form to toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut
which solubilise the crystals.
The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create pores that
cause cell swelling and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect.
Specific Bt toxin genes named cry is incorporated into cotton plant to make it pest resistant.
5. “ For hereditary diseases, gene therapy is considered as the corrective therapy”. Justify by
explaining gene therapy for Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has
been diagnosed in a child/embryo.
Here genes are inserted into a person’s cells and tissue to treat a disease. Correction of a
genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into the individual or embryo to take
over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.
A first clinical gene therapy as given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with ADA (Adenosine
deaminase) deficiency.
ADA deficiency causes SCID (Severe Combined Immune Deficiency).
In SCID, B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes are not formed. ADA is crucial for the
immune system to function.
11. ORGANISMS AND POPULATION

1. Name the biome with maximum mean annual temperature and precipitation.
Tropical forest.
2. Define stenothermal organisms.

The organisms which restrict to narrow range of temperatures.
3. How do some species of insects and frogs avoid being detected easily by the predators?
They are cryptically-coloured (camouflaged).
4. State Allen’s Rule.

Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat
loss.
5. What are Eurythermal organisms?

The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures.
6. Give an example for animal which undergoes hibernation.

Bears.
7. Name the bird sanctuary which host migratory birds coming from Siberia.
Keolado National Park Bharatpur in Rajasthan.
8. Name the population interaction in which both the species are benefited.
Mutualism.
9. Write the equation for representing logistic growth.
𝑑𝑁 𝐾−𝑁
= 𝑟𝑁 ( )
𝑑𝑡 𝐾
10. Mammals from colder climate have shorter ears and limbs. Why?
To minimise heat loss.

1. Differentiate between euryhaline organisms with stenohaline organisms.
The organisms that are tolerant of a wide range of salinities are called euryhaline.
The organisms that are restricted to a narrow range of salinities are called stenohaline.
2. Define the following: a) Natality b) Immigration

a) Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are
added to the initial density.
b) Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the
habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
3. A prey develops defence against a predator. Justify the statement with two examples in
animals.
1. Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically-coloured to avoid being detected
easily by the predator.
2. The monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator because of special chemical
present in its body.
4. Mention any two mechanism how human body compensates low oxygen availability at
higher altitude.
1. Increasing RBC production.
2. Increasing breathing rate.
1. Mention three adaptions of desert plants.
1. They have a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces and have their stomata arranged deep
pits to minimise water loss through transpiration.
2. They have special photosynthetic pathway (CAM) that enables their stomata to remain
closed during day time.
3. Some desert plants like Opuntia, have no leaves.
2. State the benefits of predators in an ecosystem.

1. Predators acts a conduits for energy transfer across trophic levels.
2. They keep prey population under control.
3. Predators help in maintaining species diversity in a community by reducing the
intensity of competition among competing prey species.
3. State Gause’s Competitive Exclusion Principle with an example.

It states that tow closely related species competing for the same resources cannot coexist
indefinitely and the competitively inferior species will be eliminated eventually.
This may be true if resources are limiting but not otherwise.
Example- Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after
goats were introduced on the island, apparently due to the greater browsing efficiency of
the goats.
4. How endoparasites are successfully adapted for parasitic mode of life?

1. Loss of unnecessary sense organs,
2. Presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on to the host,
3. Loss of digestive system and high reproductive capacity.

1. a) What is adaptation? (1)
c) Write the causes and symptoms of altitude sickness. (2)
c) What is Brood Parasitism? Give an example.
a) Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological,
behavioural) that enable the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat.
b) Altitude sickness is due to low atmospheric pressure of high altitude and body does
not get enough oxygen.
Symptoms of altitude sickness are : Nausea, Fatigue, and Heart palpitations.
c) Brood parasitism is parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest
of its host and lets the host incubate them.
Ex- the cuckoo lays the egg in the nest of crow.
2. a) What are Ectoparasites and Endoparasites? (2)

b) List any three parasitic adaptations in animals. (3)
a) Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called ectoparasites.
Ex- lice on humans.
Parasites are those that live inside the host body are called endoparasites. Ex- Plasmodium.
b) Parasitic adaptations in animals:
1. Loss of unnecessary sense organs,
2. Presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on to the host,
3. Loss of digestive system and high reproductive capacity.
3. What is mutualism? Explain mutualism with reference to:

a) Mycorrhiza
b) Fig-Wasp interaction.
Mutualism is the interaction in which both the interacting species are benefitted.
Mycorrhiza is association between fungi the roots of higher plant. Fungi help the plant
in the absorption of essential nutrients like phosphate, sulphate and nitrogen from the
soil while the plant in turn provide the fungi with high energy yielding carbohydrates.
The female wasp uses the fruit not only as an oviposition (egg laying site) but uses the
developing seeds within the fruits for nourishing its larvae. The wasp pollinates the fig
inflorescence while searching for suitable egg-alying sities.
4. Mention the population interactions exist among the following:

a) Abingdon tortoise and goats in Galapagos islands.
b) Cuckoo lays eggs in crow’s nest.
c) Sea-anemone and clown fish.
d) Wasp laying eggs in fig fruit.
e) Orchid ophrys and bees.
a) Competition b) Parasitism c) Commensalism d) Mutualism e) Mutualism.
5. Name the population interactions involved in the following examples:
i) Animals eating on plants
ii) Visiting flamingos and resident fishes of a lake
iii) Human liverfluke and snail

iv) Orchid growing on a mango tree
v) Flower and its pollinating insect.
i. Predation, ii) Competition, iii) Parasitism, iv)

Commensalism
v) Mutualism.
6. What is commensalism? Mention any four interactions of organisms that represent
commensalism.
Commensalism is a population interaction in which one species benefits and the other is
neither harmed nor benefited.
1. An orchid growing as a epiphyte on mango branch,

2. Barnacles growing on the back of a whale,
3. Cattle egret and grazing cattle,
4. Sea anemone and the clown fish.
12.BIODEVERSITY AND CONSERVATION

1. Define endemism.
The species confined to a region and not found anywhere else.
2. Mention the pledge of World Summit.

The countries pledged to reduce in the current rate of biodiversity loss at global, regional
and local levels.
3. State the results of David Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiment.

David Tilman found that plots with more species showed less year-to-year variation in
total biomass.
4. Name lungs of the planet?
The Amazon rain forest.

1. Define biodiversity. Write any two types of biodiversity.
The variety living organisms present on the earth refer to biodiversity.
1. Genetic diversity 2. Species diversity.
2. What are the two factors which are responsible for uneven distribution of biodiversity.
1. Latitudinal gradients 2. Species-Area relationships.
3. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list.
1. Dodo 2. Quagga 3. Thylacine 4. Steller’s Sea Cow.
4. Name two biodiversity hotspots which cover India’s high biodiversity regions.
1. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
2. Indo-Burma and Himalaya.
5. Give two examples of species extinct due to over-exploitation.

1. Stellor’s sea cow,
2. Passenger’s pigion.

1. Mention components of biodiversity with an example for each.
1. Genetic diversity. Ex- Mango (1000 varieties)
2. Species diversity. Ex- Western Ghats have a greater amphibian diversity than
Eastern Ghats.
3. Ecological diversity. Ex- India has greater diversity than Norway.
2. ‘Tropical region has greater biodiversity than temperate region’. Justify the statement with
three reasons.
1. Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to
frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed
for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
2. Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more
constant and predictable.
3. There is more solar energy available in the turn might contribute indirectly to greater
diversity.
3. Explain Rivet Popper hypothesis.

Rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by Paul Ehrlich. He compared the ecosystem to a
airplane with thousands of rivets. Popping of rivets by passenger may not affect flight
safety in the beginning but the plane will become dangerously weak over a period of time.
Removal of a rivet of a critical part like wing (key species) cause serious threat to flight
safety than loss of a few rivets on the seats or window inside the plane.
4. Mention effect of loss of biodiversity.
1. Decline in plants productivity.
2. Lowered resistant to environmental effects like drought.
3. Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes such as plant productivity, water
sue and pest and disease cycle.
5. What are sacred groves? Give two examples.

In many cultures, tracts of forest are set aside of all the trees and wildlife within were
venerated and given total protection. These areas are called sacred groves.
1. Khasi and Jaintial hills in Meghalaya.
2. Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan.
6. Alien species invasion caused decline or extinction of indigenous species. Justify the
statement by giving three examples.
1. Nile Perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa led to extinction of more than
200 species of cichlid fishes.
2. Carrot grass, lantana and water hyacinth are invasive weeds that cause environment
damage.
3. Illegal introduction of the African catfish for aquaculture purposes posing a threat of
local cat fishes in our rivers.
7. Explain importance of species diversity to the ecosystem.
1. Stability: Ecologist believed that communities with more species generally tend to be
more stable than those with less species.
2. Productivity: David Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots
confirm that increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
3. Ecosystem health: Rich biodiversity is essential for maintenance of health of
ecosystem and survival of the human race.

1. a) Mention four ‘Evil Quartet’ which cause depletion of biodiversity. (2)
b) Differentiate between In-situ conservation and Ex-situ conservation. (2)
c) Among vertebrates, which group of animals has the highest number in global
biodiversity.(1)
a) 1. Habitat loss and fragmentation, 2. Over-exploitation,
3. Alien species invasions and 4. Co-extinctions.
b) Conservation of organisms in natural habitat, is called in-situ conservation. Example-

Biosphere reserves, national parks and sanctuaries.
Conservation of threatened animals and plants are taken out from natural habitat and
placed in special place where they can be protected and given special care is called ex-situ
conservation.
Example- Zoological parks and botanical garden.

c) Fishes.
2. Explain species-area relationships with a graphical representation.

German naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt while exploring the
wilderness of South American jungle observed that with in a regions species richness
increases with increasing explored area, but only up to a limit.
The relationship between species richness and area turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola
for wide variety of taxa (angiospermic plants, birds, bats, freshwater fishes).
[𝑆 = 𝐶𝐴𝑍 ]
On a logarithmic scale the relationship is a straight line.
log 𝑆 = log 𝐶 + 𝑍 log 𝐴
Where S= Species richness,
A = Area
Z = Slope of the line ( regression coefficient)
C = y- intercept.
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
FOR REDUCED SYLLABUS 2020-21
2ND YEAR PUC BIOLOGY (36)
TIME: 3 Hours 15 minutes Max Marks: 70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This question paper consists of four parts, A,B,C and D. Part D consist of two part,
section-I and section-II.
2. All the parts are compulsory.
3. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabelled diagrams or illustrations do not attract
any marks.
PART-A
Answer the following questions in one word or in one sentence each: 10 x 1 = 10
1. What is hypocotyl?
2. Name the first organ formed during embryonic development in human.
3. Why amniocentesis is banned?
4. Define metastasis.
5. Give an example for alien plant species which is invasive weed.
6. Name the inborn error of metabolism inherited as the autosomal recessive trait.
7. Mention the function of DNA dependent DNA polymerase.
8. Name the site of fertilization in human.
9. Why Swiss cheese has large holes?
10.What is mycorrhizae.
PART-B
Answer any five of the following questions in 3 to 5 sentences each, wherever
applicable: 5 x 2 = 10
11. Mention one advantage and harmful effect of pollen to human.
12. Write the function of : a) Statins b) Cyclosporin A.
13. Write the equation for logistic growth and describe the components.
14. Give an example for isogametes and heterogametes.
15. Define: a) Interferons b) Proto oncogenes.
16. Mention two factors responsible for patterns of biodiversity.
17. What is apomixes? Mention its significance.
18. Define in-situ conservation with an example.
PART-C
Answer any five of the following questions in about 40 to 80 words each, wherever
19. Mention the pathogen responsible for following disease:
a. Typhoid b. Pneumonia c. Amoebiasis.
20. What are sacred gorves? Give two examples.
21. Write a note on integrated pest management.
22.What PCR? Mention the steps involved in it.
23. Explain the process of parturition.
24. Write three adaptations of flowering plants to attract insects for pollination.
25. How hRNA is processed?
26. Write three natural methods of contraception.
PART-D
SECTION-I
Answer any four of the following questions in about 200-250 words each, wherever
27. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of anatropous ovule.
28. a) Define auto-immune disease with an example. (2)
b) Mention the source and effects of coca alkaloids. (3)
29. Draw a neat and labelled diagram showing the sectional view of female reproductive
system.
30. Explain the process of sewage treatment using microbes.
31. a) Mention four causes of losses of biodiversity. (2)
b) Mention three hotspots found in India. (3)
32. What is menarche? Explain the stages of menstrual cycle.
SECTION-II
Answer any three of the following questions in about 200-250 words each, wherever
33. Diagrammatically represent the replication of retrovirus.
34. Explain the structure of human sperm.
35. Write five properties of genetic code.
36. Explain Mendel’s experiment of inheritance of one with reference to height of pea
plant.
37. What is gel electrophoresis? Write a note on separation and isolation of DNA
fragments.

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1.

2. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in non-primates.

3. Name the plant which flowers once in 12 years.

4. Give an example of an organism that produce isogametes.

5. What are meiocytes?

7. How many chromosomes are there in meiocytes of human beings?

II. Two marks questions:

2. What are homogametes and heterogametes?

3. Write one advantage and one disadvantage of external fertilization.

4. Differentiate between staminate flowers and pistillate flowers.

6. Differentiate between menstrual cycle and oestrus cycle.

III. Three marks questions:

2. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

2. What is the function of tapetum?

5. ‘Wind pollinated flowers have to produce enormous amount of pollen’. Why?

7. Name the innermost wall layer of microsporangium.

8. What are tassels?

9. What are filiform apparatus?

10. Give an example for free-nuclear endosperm.

11. What is meant by monosporic development of female gametophye?

12. What is heterostyly?

13. Name the asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.

14. Name the tallest flower.

16. Define microsporogenesis.

17. Name the male gametophyte of angiosperms.

18. Mention the chemical composition of exine.

20. Define megassporogenesis.

21. Name the basal part of ovule.

22. Name the triploid cell formed due to double fertilization.

II. Two marks questions:

3. Mention one harmful and useful effects of pollen.

4. What is PEN? Mention its function.

5. Mention the sequential stages of embryogeny in angiosperms.

7. Differentiate between albuminous and non-albuminous seeds with an example each.

8. What are parthenocarpic fruits? Give example.

10. Write a note on the pollination mechanism in Vallisneria.

11. Differentiate between hypocotyl and epicotyl.

III. Three marks question:

2. Write a note on the structure of pollen grain.

3. Explain triple fusion and double fertilisation in angiosperms.

5. With reference to monocot seed define the following:

6. What is apomixes and what is its importance?

8. Write the characteristic features of insect pollinated flowers.

10. Draw a neat labelled diagram of monocot embryo.

11. Write three advantages offered by the seeds to angiosperms.

12. Answer the following:

IV. Five marks questions:

The ovule is a small structure attached to the

2. Explain outbreeding devices that prevent self-pollination.

The embryosac is present in the ovule

4. What is megasporogenesis? Explain the development of eight nucleate embryosac in

The process of formation of megaspores

5. Name the first haploid cell formed during spermatogenesis.

6. Name the unpaired accessary gland in male reproductive system.

7. When does the oogenesis complete?

12. Mention the site of fertilization.

13. What is Colostrum?

14. Name the hormone responsible for ovulation.

16. Name the hormone secreted by corpus luteum.

18. What is cleavage?