FVST-10 (Question) - 30.04.2024

1 Think NEET Think TORQUE
FULL VST - 10
PHYSICS
(SECTION - A)
01. The respective speeds of five molecules are 1,
2, 3, 4 and 5 km/s. The ratio of their rms velocity
and the average velocity will be
(a) 11 : 3 (b) 3 : 11
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 4
02. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of
(a) 1 (b) 2
side 0.02 m is suspended from its vertex, such
that it is hanging in a vertical plane between the (c) 3 (d) 4
pole pieces of permanent magnet producing a 07. The two statements are given below
uniform field of 5 x 10-2 T. If a current of 0.1 A Statement I When unpolarised light is incident
is passed through the coil, what is the couple
on the polariser, the intensity of the transmitted
acting ?
polarised light remains unchanged.
(a) 5 3  107 N  m
Statement II Polarisation is convincing proof
(b) 5 3  1010 N  m of transverse nature of light wave.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
3
(c)  107 N  m correct
5
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(d) None of these
incorrect
03. A lift of mass 1000 kg is supported by thick
steel ropes. If maximum upward acceleration of (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
the lift be 1.2 ms-2 and the breaking stress for incorrect
the ropes be 1.4 x 108 Nm-2, what should be the (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
minimum diameter of rope ? correct
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm 08. Let F be the force acting on a particle having
(c) 3 cm (d) 4 cm position vector r and  is the torque of this force
04. A tuning fork of frequency 520 Hz is used in an about origin, then
experiment for measuring speed of sound (v) in
(a)  .F  0 and  .r  0
air by resonance tube method. Resonance is
observed to occur at two successive lengths of (b)  .F  0 and  .r  0
air column, l1 = 30 cm and l2 = 70 cm. Then, v is
equal to (c)  .F  0 and  .r  0
(a) 385 m/s (b) 395 m/s (d)  .F  0 and  .r  0
(c) 416 m/s (d) 428 m/s 09. Figure shows current in a part of electrical circuit,
05. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 then value of current i is
and 1.0073 amu, respectively. If neutrons and
protons combine to form helium nucleus of mass
4.0015 amu, the binding energy of the helium
nucleus will be
(a) 28.4 MeV (b) 20.8 MeV
(c) 27.3 MeV (d) 14.2 MeV
06. Calculate the work done by a gas as it is taken
(a) 6A
from 1 to 2, 2 to 3 and 3 to 1 as shown in the
figure. The work done in cyclic process (b) 3A
1 2  3  1 is found to be - np0V0, the value (c) 2A
of n is (d) Insufficient information
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10. An  - particle is accelerated by V volt, 17. The displacement of body along X-axis depends
experiences a force F, when it enters in a uniform on time as x  t  1 , then the velocity of body
magnetic field. When  -particle is accelerated
by 3V, in same magnetic field, then force (a) Increases with time
experienced by  -particle is (b) decreases with time
(a) 3F (b) 2F (c) independent of time
F F (d) None of the above

(c) (d) 18. Identify the logic gates marked X and Y in the
3 2
11. The ratio of the energy required to move a following figure.
satellite upto a height h above the earth’s surface
of radius R to that the kinetic energy of satellite
into that orbit is given by
(a) R : 2h (b) R : h (a) OR, NAND (b) NAND, OR
(c) h : 2R (d) 2h : R
(c) NOT, OR (d) AND, NOR
12. For an ideal gas of n moles, the temperature is
19. The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel
increased from temperature T to 4T at pressure
to
p = aT-1, where a is a constant. What will be the
work done by the gas ? (a) B x E (b) E
(a) 2nRT (b) nRT (c) E x B (d) B
(c) 4nRT (d) 6nRT 20. If number of turns per unit length of a coil of
13. A pure conductor of 25 mH is connected to an solenoid is doubled, the self-inductance of the
AC source of 220 V and the frequency of the solenoid will
source is 50 Hz, the rms current in the circuit is (a) be halved (b) remain unchange
(a) 42 A (b) 28 A (c) be doubled (d) become four times
(c) 14 A (d) 7 A 21. In n equal resistors are used to produce a total
14. A block of mass 10 kg is moving horizontally resistance in circuit, the ratio of maximum to the
with a speed of 1.5 ms-1 on a smooth plane. If a minimum resistance is
constant vertical force of 10 N acts on it, then (a) 1 : n2 (b) n2 : 1
the displacement of the block from the point of
application of the force at the end of 4s is (c) 1 : 1 (d) None of these
(a) 5 m (b) 20 m 22. The bob A of simple pendulum is released, then
(c) 12 m (d) 10 m the string makes an angle of 450 with the vertical.
It hits another bob B of the same material and
15. A satellite is revolving around the earth, close to same mass kept at rest on the table. If the
its surface with a kinetic energy E, then the collision is elastic, then
energy required to be given to it, so that it escape
from the earth is
E
(a) 2E (b)
2
(c) E (d) 3E
4 3
16. If and are the refractive indices of water
3 2
and glass, respectively. A ray of light travelling
in water is incident on the water-glass interface (a) Both A and B rise of the same height
at 300. The angle of refraction is given by (b) Both A and B come to rest at B
1  4  1  3  (c) Both A and B move with the same velocity
(a) sin   (b) sin  
9  2 of A.
1  18  1  4 
(d) A comes to rest and B moves with the
(c) sin   (d) sin   velocity of A
8  3
23. Power dissipated across the 8 resistor in the 28. A thief is running away on a straight road in a
circuit shown here is 2W. The power dissipated jeep moving with a speed of 9 ms-1. A policeman
chases him on a motor cycle moving at a speed
in watt units across the 3 resistor is
of 10 ms-1 . If the instantaneous separation of
the jeep from the motorcycles is 100 m, how
long will it take for the police man to catch the
thief ?
(a) 100 s (b) 90 s
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 19 s (d) 1 s
(c) 2.0 (d) 3.0 29. Two waves each of amplitude a and frequency
24. Given below are two statements 
f have a phase difference
. The amplitude and
Statement I In slide wire bridge, the value of 2
known resistance is so selected that the null point frequency of resultant wave due to their
is obtained at the middle of the wire. superposition will be
Statement II The wire of meter bridge is made a f a
up of copper or aluminium. (a) , (b) ,f
2 2 2
In the above statement, choose the most
appropriate answer from the option given below. f
(c) 2a, (d) 2 a, f
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 2
correct 30. The work functions of three metals A, B and C
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is are 1.92 eV, 2 eV and 5 eV, respectively. Which
incorrect metals will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are 0
correct wavelength 4100 A ?

(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are (a) A only (b) B only
incorrect (c) Both A and B (d) C only
25. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom 31. In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance
is its first to second excited state is between two slits is 0.8 mm and the fringes are
9 observed 1m away. If it produces the second
(a) (b) 4 dark fringe at a distance of 1.5 mm from the
4
middle position of central bright fringe, the
1 4
(c) (d) wavelength of the monochromatic source of light
4 9 used is
26. Positive and negative charges of equal magnitude
(a) 600 nm (b) 500 nm
 
are kept at A 0, 0, a and B 0, 0,  a   (c) 450 nm (d) 480 nm
respectively. The work done by the electric field 32. If potential energy of first excited state of
when another positive point charge is moved hydrogen atom is taken zero, then kinetic energy
from (- 2a, 0, 0) to (0, 2a, 0) is of ground state electron in the hydrogen atom is
(a) zero (a) 13.6 eV (b) 20.4 eV
(b) positive (c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV
(c) negative
33. In an experiment, the measurement of diameter
(d) charges are not given so data insufficient of a wire of length 5.0 cm with help of screw
27. A motor of power P0 is used to deliver water at gauge, the main scale reads 1 mm and 48th
a certain rate through a given horizontal pipe. To division on circular scale coincides with the
increase the rate of flow of water through the reference line. There are 100 divisions are on
same pipe n times, the power of the motor is circular scale. If the pitch of the screw gauge is
increased to P1. The ratio of P1 to P0 is 1 mm, then volume of the wire is
(a) n : 1 (b) n2 : 1 (a) 0.019 cm3 (b) 0.026 cm3
(c) n3 : 1 (d) n4 : 1 (c) 0.086 cm3 (d) 0.046 cm3
34. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is

surrounded by an uncharged concentric
conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the
potential difference between the surface of solid
sphere and that of the outer surface of hollow
shell be V. What will be the new potential
difference between the same two surfaces, if 3
(a) (b) 3
the shell is given a charge - 3Q ? 2
Q  r1 r2  Q 1 1 3
(a) 4  r  r  (b) 4  r  r  (c) 2 (d)
0  2 1  0  1 2 
2
39. Two identical short bar magnets are placed at
Q 1 1 Q r 1 1200 C as shown in the figure. The magnetic
(c) 4  r  r  (d) 4  r  r  moment of each magnet is M. Then the magnetic
0  2 1  0  1 2 
field at the point P on the angle bisector is given
35. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal by
to 15 V is used in a voltage regulator circuit
shown in figure. The current through the diode
is
(a) 20 mA (b) 5 mA 0 M 0 2M
(a) . (b) .
(c) 10 mA (d) 15 mA 4 d3 4 d 3
(SECTION - B) 0 2 2M
(c) . (d) Zero
36. Calculate the current I in the following circuit, if 4 d 3
all the diodes are ideal. All resistances are of
40. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle
200
of charge 2C in a magnetic field of 2T acting
in y direction, when the particle velocity is
 2iˆ  3jˆ   10 6
ms 1 , is
(a) 8 N in z direction (b) 8 N in - z direction

(c) 4 N in z direction (d) 8 N in y direction
41. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the
work done on moving a charge of 0.2 C through
(a) Zero (b) 1 A a distance of 2m along a line making an angle
(c) 2 A (d) 4 A 600 with x-axis is 4J, then what is the value of
E?
37. For a telescope in normal adjustment, the length
of telescope is found to be 27 cm. If the (a) 5 N/C (b) 20 N/C
magnifying power of telescope, at normal (c) 3 N/C (d) 4 N/C
adjustment is 8, the focal lengths of objective
and eye piece are respectively 42. Electric charge Q, Q and -2Q respectively are
placed at the three corners of an equilateral
(a) 24 cm, 3 cm (b) 27 cm, 8 cm
triangle of side a. Magnitude of the electric dipole
(c) 12 cm, 6 cm (d) 27 cm, 9 cm moment of the system is
38. In the diagram the ray passing through prism is
parallel to the base. Refractive index of material (a) 2 Qa (b) 3 Qa
of prism is (c) Qa (d) 2Qa
43. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes

 d  d1
is formed between two atoms having a distance (a) Mg 1  2  (b) Mg
0
1.21A between them. The wavelength of the  d1  d2
standing wave is (c) mg (d1 - d2) (d) mgd1 d2

0 0
(a) 6.05A (b) 2.42 A 49. A metal plate of area 103 cm2 rests on a layer of
0 0
oil 6 mm thick. A tantential force 10-2 N is applied
(c) 1.21A (d) 3.63A on it to move it, with a constant velocity of 6
44. A sinusoidal wave of frequency 500 Hz has a cms-1. The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid
speed of 350 m/s. The phase difference between is
two displacements at a certain point at times 1m
(a) 0.1 poise (b) 0.5 poise
apart is
(c) 0.7 poise (d) 0.9 poise
 
(a) (b) 50. The time period of oscillations of a second’s
4 2
pendulum on the surface of a planet having mass
3 and radius double those of earth is
(c)  (d)
2 (a) 4s (b) 1s
45. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of
period T and the equation of motion is given by (c) 2s (d) 2 2 s
  CHEMISTRY
x  a sin  t   . After the elapse of what
 6 (SECTION - A)
fraction of the time period the velocity of the
point will be equal to half of its maximum 51. Which will not form precipitation after addition
velocity ? of (NH4)2CO3 in presence of NH4Cl ?
T T (a) Mg (b) Ba
(a) (b) (c) Sn (d) Sr
12 8
52. A factory produces 40 kg of calcium in two hours
T T
(c) (d) by electrolysis. How much aluminium can be
6 3
produced by same currect in 2 hourse if current
46. A simple pendulum with a metallic bob has a efficiency is 50% ?
time period T. The bob is now immersed in a
non-viscous liquid and oscillated. If the density (a) 22 kg (b) 18 kg
of the liquid is 1/4 that of metal, the time period (c) 9 kg (d) 27 kg
of the same pendulum will be 53. The dipole moment is minimum in
T 2T
(a) (b) (a) NH3 (b) NF 3
3 3
(c) SO2 (d) BF 3
4 2
(c) T (d) T 54. At 600 and 1 atm, N2O4 is 50% dissociated into
3 3
NO2 then Kp is
47. Eight equal drops of water are falling through
air with a steady velocity of 10 cms-1. If the drops (a) 1.33 atm (b) 2 atm
combine to form a single drop big in size, then (c) 2.67 atm (d) 3 atm
the terminal velocity of this big drop is
55. MnO3 in an acidic medium dissociates into
(a) 80 cms-1 (b) 30 cms-1
(c) 10 cms-1 (d) 40 cms-1 (a) MnO2 and Mn O 4 (b) MnO and Mn O 4
48. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density (c) MnO2 and MnO (d) MnO2 and MnO3
d1 when dropped in a container filled with 56. Magnetic moment of Cr2+ is nearest to
glycerine becomes constant after some time. If
(a) Fe2+ (b) Mn2+
the density of glycerine is d2, the viscous force
acting on the ball is (c) Co2+ (d) Ni2+
57. Statement-I: The gas phase reaction PCl3(g) + 65. AT equilibrium which is correct ?
Cl2 (g)  PCl5 (g) shifts to the right on (a) G = 0 (b) S = 0
increasing pressure. (c) H = 0 (d) G0 = 0
Statement-II: When pressure increases, 66. Threshold frequency of a metal is 51023 s-1 upon
quilibrium shifts towards more number of moles. which 1  1014 s-1 frequency light is focused.
(a) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; Then the maximum kinetic energy of emitted
statement-2 is a correct explanation for electron is
statement-1 (a) 3.3  1021 (b) 3.3 1020
(b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; (c) 6.6 10-21 (d) 6.6 10-20
statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
67. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic
statement-1
function ?
(c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false (a) Internal energy (b) Work done
(d) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true (c) Enthalpy (d) Entropy
1 68. Which of the following is intensive property ?
58. If t 1/2 us is a straight line graph then
a2 (a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy
determine the order of reaction. (c) Specific heat (d) Volume
(a) zero order (b) first order 69. For a first order gas phase reaction
(c) second order (d) third order A(g)2A(g)+C (g)
59. 2+ 0
For Zn |Zn, E =-0.76V then EMF of the cell P0 be initial pressure of A and Pt the total pressure
ZN/Zn2+ (1M)|2H+|H2(1atm) will be at time ‘t’. Integrated rate equation is
(a) –0.76 V (b) 0.76 V  P0 
2.303
(c) 0.38 V (d) –0.38 V (a) log  
t  P0  Pt 
60. Which of the following is the correct statement
for PH3 ?
2.303  2P0 
(a) It is less poisonous than NH3 (b) log  
(b) It is less basic than NH3
t  3P0  Pt 
(c) Electronegativity of PH3 > NH3
2.303  P0 
(d) It does not show reducing properties (c) log  
61. Which has the highest pH ?
t  2P0  Pt 
(a) CH3 COOK (b) Na 2CO 3 2.303  2P0 
(d) log  
(c) NH4Cl (d) NaNO 3 t  2P0  Pt 
62. Bond dissociation energy of CH4 is 360 kJ/mol 70. How much amount of CuSO4.5H2O is required
and C2H6 is 620 kJ/mol. Then bond dissociation for liberation of 2.54 g of I2 when titrated with
energy of C-C bond is KI ?
(a) 170 kJ/mol (b) 50 kJ/mol (a) 2.5 g (b) 4.99 g
(c) 80 kJ/mol (d) 220 kJ/mol (c) 2.4 g (d) 1.2 g
71. Which of the following compounds is achiral?
nh
63. In Bohr’s orbit, indicates Br H
2 (a)
Cl D
(a) Momentum Me H
(b)
(b) Kinetic energy Et
(c) Potential energy Cl H3 C
(d) Angular momentum
64. Which is not stable under ambient condition ? (c)
(a) TiO2, Ti+4 (b) VO, V+4 COOH NO2
(c) VO2, V+5 (d) Cu2O, Cu+2 (d) None of these
72. What is the relationship between the following 76. During Kjeldahl’s method, ammonia evolved
compounds? from 0.7 g of organic compound is neutralised
C2H5 C 2 H5 by 20 mL of 1 M H2SO4. Percentage of nitrogen
Cl H H Cl in the compound is
Cl H Cl H (a) 80% (b) 25.5%
C2H5 C 2 H5
(c) 25.1% (d) 27.32%
(a) Diastereoisomers
77. Order of rate of reaction in following reactions
(b) Enantiomers
is
(c) Constitutional isomers
(d) Conformational isomers I. CH4  F2 
 CH3 F  HF
73. Compare the stability of carbocation which are
II. CH4  Cl2 
 CH3Cl  HCl
formed when they react with AgNO 3 and
choose the correct order. III. CH4  Br2 
 CH3 Br  HBr
Br Br
IV. CH4  I 2 
 CH3 I  HI
I. II.
(a) I > II > IV > III (b) IV > III > II > I
(c) IV > I > II > III (d) I > II > III > IV
Br
78. Consider the compounds of carboxylic acid,
III. aldehyde, ketone and alcohol having similar molar
masses. Choose the correct statements
N
regarding their boiling points.
H
(a) Boiling point of carboxylic acid is more than
(a) III > II > I (b) III > I > II aldehyde
(c) II > I > III (d) II > III > I
(b) Boiling point of carboxylic acid is more than
74. Correct order of acidic strength is ketone
(c) Boiling point of carboxylic acid is more than
I. II. alcohol
(d) All of the above
III. 79. Carboxylic acid is soluble in water due to

(a) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding
(a) I > II > III (b) III > II > I
(c) II > I > III (d) III > I > II (b) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
75. Assertion (A): The IUPAC name of (c) Ionic bond
OCH3 (d) Covalent bond

H3C HC HC COOH is 2-ethoxy-3- 80. Which of the following will form an aldehyde as
OC2H5 a product?
methoxybutanoic acid. (i) O3

CH3 C C CH3
(ii) Zn, H2O
Reason (R): Alphabetical order is followed first (a)
CH3 CH3
for substituent in marking their position.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (i) B2H6/THF
(b) (ii) H2O2, OH–
the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (i) PdCl/H2O
(c) (ii) CuCl2, O2
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the H2O
correct explanation of (A). (d) Hg2+, H+
81. Given below are two statements. (SECTION - B)

Statement I: Acetone is miscible with water.
86. Statement I Benzene has 6  electrons in
Statement II: Acetone can form hydrogen conjugation
bonding with water.
Statement II -bonds are formed by pure p-
In the light of the above questions, choose the orbital perpendicular to the benzene ring
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
incorrect.
incorrect. (b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. (c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
correct. 87. Statement I: Nitrating mixture used for carrying
82. Compare the solubility of following ether in out nitration of benzene.
water. Statement II: In presence of H2SO4, HNO3
1. O 2. O acts as a base and produces NO2 ions in the
3. O 4. O nitration of benzene.
(a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (b) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(c) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 (d) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 incorrect.
83. Statement I: Methoxy ethane has lower boiling (b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
point than propanal. incorrect.
Statement II: Attractive forces are more in (c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
methoxy ethane than propanal. correct.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. correct.
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 88. Which of the following reaction does not form
incorrect. alkyl halide?
OH
correct. ZnCl2
(a) + HCl
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct. (b) + HCl
+
tert-ButOK
84. OH
Cl (c) + SOCl2
Which of the following is true about the major
product? (d) OH + NaCl
(a) Saytzeff rule is followed by major product
89. The best reagent for converting alcohol into the
(b) Hofmann rule is followed by major product corresponding chloride is
(c) Major product show geometrical isomerism
(a) Lucas reagent (b) PCl5
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) PCl3 (d) SOCl2
Cl
Zn 90. Gas liberated, when phenol reacts with sodium
85. Product
Cl metal is
Which of the following is true about the product?
1
(a) cis-Product is formed (a) 1 mole of NH3 (b) mole of O2
2
(b) trans-Product is formed
(c) No geometrical isomerism in product 1
(c) 1 mole of O2 (d) mole of H2
(d) None of these 2
91. Statement-I: [Fe(CN)6]4–  Fe3+ + CO2 + NO3–, 99. A compl ex PtCl 4 , 5NH 3 shows a molar
the equivalent weight of reactant is 3.74. conductance of 402 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1 in water
Statement-II: Equivalent weight of reactant = and precipitates three moles of AgCl with AgNO3
Mol. wt. solution. The formula of the complex is
. (a) [Pt(NH3 )6]Cl4 (b) [Pt(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl2
61
(a) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; (c) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl
statement-2 is a correct explanation for 100. Statement-I: Elevation in boiling point will be
statement-1 high if the molal elevation constant of the liquid
(b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; is high.
statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement-II: Elevation in boiling point is a
statement-1
colligative property.
(c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(a) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
(d) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true statement-2 is a correct explanation for
92. Smallest wavelength occurs for statement-1
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
(c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
93. Kspof CaSO4.5H2 O is 910-6, find the volume statement-1
for 1 g of CaSO4 (M.wt.=136). (c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(a) 2.45 litre (b) 5.1 litre
(d) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true
(c) 4.52 litre (d) 3.2 litre
94. The wavelength of light absorbed is highest in BOTANY
(a) [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]2+
(SECTION - A)
(b) [Co(NH3 )5H 2O] 3+
101. Cellulose does not form blue colour with iodine
(c) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+
because
(d) [Co(en)3]3++
(a) It is a disaccharide
95. Decreasing order of bond angle is
(b) It is a helical molecule
(a) BeCl2 >NO2>SO2 (b) BeCl2 >SO2>NO2
(c) SO2>BeCl2>NO2 (d) SO2>NO2>BeCl2 (c) It does not contain complex helices and
hence cannot hold iodine molecules
96. The enthalpy of formation of CO(g), CO2(g),N2O(g)
and N2O5(g) is –110, –393, +811 and 10 kJ/mol (d) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it
respectively. For the reaction. 102. Match the protein in column I with its function
N2 O4(g)+3CO (g)N 2 O(g)+3CO 2(g).H r(kJ/mol) given in column II and choose the right option.
is Column I Column II
(a) –212 (b) +212 A. Collagen I. Glucose transport
(c) +48 (d) –48
B. Trypsin II. Hormone
97. The standard half-cell reduction potential for
Ag +|Ag is 0.7991 V at 25 0 C. Given the C. Insulin III. Intercellular
experimental value Ksp =1.5610-10 for AgCl, ground substance
calculate the standard half-cell reduction D. GLUT-4 IV. Enzyme
potential for the Ag|AgCl electrode.
(a) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
(a) 0.2192 V (b) –0.2192 V
(b) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
(c) –1.2192 V (d) 1.2192 V
98. The shape and hybridisation of some xenon (c) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
oxyfluorides are given. Choose the wrong set. (d) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
(a) XeOF 2-T-shape-sp3 d 103. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in
(b) XeOF4-Square pyramidal-sp3d2 liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(c) XeO2F2-Distorted trigonal bipyramidal-sp3d (a) –1200 C (b) –800 C
(d) XeO3F 2-Octahedral-sp3 d (c) –1600 C (d) –1960 C
104. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob ? 109. Statement I : Sickle-Cell anaemia is an
(a) To attract insects autosome linked recessive trait that can be
transmitted from parents.
(b) To trap pollen grains
(c) To disperse pollen grains Statement II :The disease is controlled by single
pair of allele.
(d) To product seeds
105. Which of the following ‘suffixes’used for units
incorrect
of classification in plants indicates a taxonomic
category of ‘family’ ? (b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(a) –Ales (b) –Onae
(c) –Aceae (d) –Ae
correct
106. Which of the following class of fungi is being
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are
described by the given statements ?
correct
(i) They are found in aquatic habitats and on
110. In a cross between a male and female, both
decaying wood in moist and damp places.
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
(ii) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?
(iii) Asexual reproduction takes place by (a) 100% (b) 50%
zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores(non-
motile) (c) 75% (d) 25%
(iv) Some common examples are Mucor, 111. Which of the following is a recessive autosomal
Rhizopus and Albugo. disorder
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Phycomycetes (a) Sickle-cell anaemia
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes (b) Haemophilla
107. Match the column I and II (c) Thalassemia
Column I Column II (d) Both(a) and (c)
A. Potato spindle I. Virus 112. The structure in chromatin seen as ‘breads-on
B. Cr-Jacob disease II. Viroid string when viewed under electron microscope
are called
(CJD)
(a) nucleotides (b) nucleosides
C. Cholera III. Prion
(c) histone octamer (d) nucleosomes
D. Leaf rolling IV. Bacteria
113. Identify the incorrect statement about RNA
and curling
(a) RNA was the first genetic material to evolve
(a) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
in the living systems.
(b) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
(b) Apart from being a genetic material, it is
(c) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
also a catalyst,
(d) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
(c) DNA evolved from RNA with chemical
108. Which of the following statement(s) is/are modifications.
correct about mosses ?
(d) RNA being a catalyst is non-reactive and
(a) The predominant stage of its life cycle is stable.
gametophyte which consists of two stages
114. Determination of one amino acid by more than
- protonema and leafy stages.
one codon is due to
(b) Leafy stage are attached to the soil through
(a) degeneracy of genetic code.
multicellular and branched rhizoids.
(b) continuous nature of genetic code
(c) Sex organs-antheridia and archegonia are
produced at the apex of the leafy shoots. (c) punctuation in genetic code
(d) All of the above (d) universal nature of genetic code
115. Assertion: Lactose is the substrate for the 120. Match the following with respect to meiosis
enzyme beta-galactosidase and it regulate Column I Column II
switching on and off of the operon, hence it is (A) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
temed as inducer.
(B) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
Reason: The repressor of the operon is
(C) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
synthesised from the i gene and repressor protein
(D) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
binds to the operator region of the operon and
prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the Select the correct option from the following:
operon. (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) Both(A) and (R) are correct but(R) is not
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) .
(d) Both(A) and(R) are correct and (R) is the
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
correct explanation of (A).
121. PEP is primary CO2 acceptor in :
116. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
(a) C4 plants
(a) 5 -end (b) 3 -end
(b) C3plants
(c) anti codon site (d) DHU loop
(c) C2 plants
117. It is a proteinous layer and the outer covering of (d) both C3 and C4 plants
endosperm which separates the embryo. Identify
122. In the electron transport system, the final
the layer.
acceptor of electron is :
(a) Tegmen (b) Scutellum (a) cytochrome b
(c) Hyaline layer (d) Aleurone layer (b) ubiquinone(substance A)
118. Statement I : Companion cells maintain the (c) Oxygen
pressure gradient in the sieve tubes. (d) cytochrome a3
Statement II : The functions of sieve tubes are 123. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) does not
controlled by the nucleus of companion cells. show
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are (a) host specificity
incorrect (b) narrow spectrum applications
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (c) effects on non-target pathogens
incorrect (d) utility in IPM programme
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 124. Match the following columns :
correct Column I Column II
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are A. Lady bird i. Methanobacterium
correct
B. Mycorhiza ii. Trichoderma
119. A student was given a tissue to observe under C. Biological control iii. Aphids
the microscpe. He observes the tissue and
D. Biogas iv. Glomus
conclues that the tissue is a type of simple plant
tissue and provides mechanical support to young (A) (B) (C) (D)
stem and petiole of leaf. Idenfity the tissue.
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(a) Parenchyma
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma (c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) Xylem parenchyma (d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
125. Match the following list of microbes and their (a) A-III; B-I; C--II; D-IV
importance. (b) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
Column I Column II (c) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
A. Saccharomyces I. Production of (d) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
cerevisiae immunosuppressive 129. Which of the following statements of incorrect ?
agents (a) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce
B. Monascus II. Ripening of swiss proton gradient in respiration.
purpureus cheese (b) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen
is limited to the terminal stage.
C. Trichoderma III. Commercial
(c) In ETC(Electron Transport Chain), One
Polysporum production of
molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2
ethanol ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise
D. Propionibacterium IV. Production of to 3 ATP molecules
sharamanii blood cholestrol (d) ATP is synthesized through complex V
lowering agents 130. Initial step of TCA cycle to yield citric acid starts
(a) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I with the condensation of :
(b) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III (a) acetyl group with OAA & H2O & catalyzed
by the enzyme citrate synthase.
(c) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
(b) acetyl group with pyruvate & H 2 O &
(d) A-III; B-IV;C-I; D-II
catalysed by the enzyme citrates synthase.
126. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of
(c) acetyl group with OAA & H 2 O & in
biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with :
independent of the enzyme.
(a) Isopropanol (d) none of the above.
(b) Chilled ethanol 131. Genetically engineered bacteria have been
(c) Methanol at room temperature successfully used in the commercial production
(d) Chilled chloroform of
127. Given below are two statements : One is labelled (a) human insulin (b) testosterone
as Assertion and the other is labelled as (c) thyroxine (d) melatonin
Reason. 132. GEAC stands for
Assertion: Polymerase chain reaction is used (a) Genome Engineering Action Committee
in DNA amplification. (b) Ground Environment Action Committee
Reason: The ampicillin resistant gene is used (c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
as a selectable market to check transformation. (d) Genetic and Environment Approval
In the light of the above statements, choose the Committee
correct answer from the options given below: 133. Match the following column and select the
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct option;
the correct explanation of (A) Column I Column II
(b) (A) is not correct but (R) is not correct (A) Bt cotton I. Gene therapy
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (B) Adenosine II. Cellular defence
(d) Both(A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the deaminase
correct explanation of (A). deficiency
128. Match column I with column II and select the (C) RNAi III. Detection of HIV
correct combination from the option given below: infection
Column I Column II (D) PCR IV. Bacillus
A. Competent I. Thermus aquaticus thuringiensis
B. Taq DNA II. Antibiotic (a) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
polymerase (b) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
C. Ampicillin III. Micro-injection (c) A-I; B-II; B-III; D-IV
D. Ethidium bromide IV. DNA staining (d) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
134. Spraying of which of the following phytohormone Choose the correct answer from the options given
on juvenile conifers helps hastening the maturity below :
period, that leads early seed production ? (a) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
(b) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
(a) Indole-3-butyric-Acid
(c) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
(b) Gibberellic Acid (d) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
(c) Zeatin 138. Approximately how much of the solar energy
(d) Abscisic Acid that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to
chemical energy by photosynthesis ?
135. Which one of the following phytohormones is (a) Less than 1% (b) 2-10%
produced under water deficient condition and (c) 30% (d) 50%
plays an important role in the tolerance response 139. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living
of plants to drought ? material at a particular time is known as
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Cytokinin (a) catabolism
(b) standing crop
(c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellin
(c) humification
(SECTION - B) (d) primary productivity
140. The Red data Book, which lists endangered
136. Natality refers to species of animals, is maintained by :
(a) Death rate (a) WWF (b) UNO
(b) Birth rate (c) WHO (d) IUCN
(c) Number of individuals entering a habitat 141. In your opinion, which is the most effective way
to conserve the plant diversity of an area ?
(d) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(a) By developing seed bank
137. Match List I with List II (b) by tissue culture method
List I List II (c) by creating botanical garden
A. Logistic growth I. Unlimited (d) by creating biosphere reserve
142. Which of the following is the most important
resource
cause of animals and plants being driven to
availability extinction ?
condition (a) Over-exploitation
B. Exponential II. Limited resource (b) Alien-species invasion
(c) Habitat loss and fragmentation
growth availability
(d) Co-extinctions
condition 143. Match the following and then choose the correct
C. Expanding age III. The percent option:
pyramid individuals of pre Column I Column II
A. Endemism I. Khasi and Jaintia
reproductive age
hill Meghalaya
is largest followed B. Hotspot of India II. Advance ex-situ
by reproductive conservation
and post C. Sacred groove III. Species found in
reproductive age a particular area
only
groups D. Cryopreservation IV. Zoological park
D. Stable age IV. The percent and Botanical
pyramid individuals of gardens
pre-reproducitves V. Western Ghats
(a) A-III; B-V; C-I; D-II
and reproductive
(b) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
age group are (c) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-V
same (d) A-V; B-I; C-IV; D-II
144. Genetic code is ZOOLOGY

(a) triplet, universal, ambiguous and degenerate (SECTION - A)
(b) triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and non-
151. Which of the following structure of a sperm is
degenerate
not correctly matched with their particular
(c) triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and feature/function ?
degenerate
(a) Acrosome - Filled with enzymes that help
(d) triplet, universal, ambiguous and non-
fertilise the ovum
degenerate.
(b) Middle piece - possesses numerous
145. Which of the following statements(events) is/are
correct for mitotic telophase ? mitochondria, produce energy for the
movement of tail
(a) Arrival of chromosomes cluster at opposite
poles and loss of their identity as discrete (c) Tail - Facilitate sperm motility
elements (d) Head - contains an elongated diploid nucleus
(b) Nuclear membrane assembles around each 152. Given below are two statements; one is labelled
chromosomes clusters. as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(c) Nucleolus, GB and ER form Reason (R).
(d) All of the above Assertion (A): The signals for parturition
146. Find out incorrect match originate from the fully developed foetus and the
(a) Primary metabolite - Ribose placenta which induce mild uterine contractions
called foetal ejection reflex.
(b) Secondary metabolite - Anthocyanins
(c) Chitin - Polysaccharide Reason (R) :Oxytocin acts on the uterine
muscle and causes stronger uterine contractions,
(d) Cellulose - Heteropolymer
which in turn stimulates further secretion of
147. Basal bodies are associated with the formation oxytocin In the light of the above statements,
of choose the correct answer form the options given
(a) phragmoplast below
(b) cilia and flagella (a) A is false, but R is true
(c) cell phate
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(d) kinetochore correct explanation of A
148. Fungi show asexual reproduction by all of the (c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
following kinds of spores except. explanation of A
(a) conidia (b) oospores
(d) A is true, but R is false
(c) sporangiospores (d) zoospores
153. The ovulation phase is followed by the luteal
149. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ? phase during which the remaining parts of the
(a) Saccharomyces Graafian follicle transform into corpus luteum,
(b) Mycobacterium which secretes large amounts of
(c) Oscillatoria (a) leutinizing hormone which is essential for
(d) Nostoc maintenance of the endometrium
150. Protonema (b) oestrogen hormone which is essential for
(a) is a stage of gametophytic generation disintegration of endometrium
(b) is a creeping green, branched and develops (c) human chorionic gonadotropin which
directly from a spore. proliferates the endometrium
(c) Filamentous stage. (d) progesterone which is essential for
(d) All of the above maintenance of endometrium
154. Given below are two statements; one is labelled 158. Given below are two statements.
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Statement I Hemichordata was earlier
Reason (R). considered under the phylum chordata, but now
Assertion (A) The primary and secondary in is placed in separate phylum under non-
immune responses are carried out with the help chordata due to the presence of a rudimentary
of B and T lymphocytes, present in our blood. structure in the collar region called stomochord,
Reason (R) During the secondary immune similar to notochord.
response, the immune system can eliminate the Statement II Hemichordata consists of a small
antigen, which has been encountered by the group of worm like marine animals which are
individual during primary invasion, more rapidly triploblastic, radially symmetrical and coelomate,
excretory system is absent.
and efficiently
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
correct answer form the options given below. (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
(a) A is false, but R is true correct
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (b) Both statement I and statement II are
explanation of A correct
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (c) Both statement I and statement II are
correct explanation of A incorrect
(d) A is true, but R is false (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
155. Which of the following is not the characteristics incorrect
of an Intra uterine device ? 159. Which of the following types of joints are found
(a) It increases phagocytosis of sperms within between humerus and pectoral girdle and
the uterus between the adjacent vertebrae the vertebral
(b) It suppresses sperm motility and the column ?
fertilising capacity of sperms. (a) Cartilaginous joint and synovial joint
(c) It makes the uterus unsuitable for (b) Fibrous joints and hinge joint
implantation (c) Synovial joint and cartilaginous joint
(d) It suppresses the formation of egg and (d) Cartilaginous joint and saddle joint
changes the quality of Fallopian tube 160. Which of the following statements is correct
156. Given below are two statements. about human excretory system ?
Statement I Lactational amenorrhea method is I. The tubule begins with a double walled cup-
based on the fact that ovulation and therefore like structure called Bowman’s capsule,
the menstrual cycle do not occur during the period which encloses the glomerulus, the
of intense lactation following parturition. glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule
is called the Malpighian body or renal
Statement II Breastfeeding is accompanied by
corpuscle.
high levels of LH which remain higher than
II. A hairpin shaped Henle’s loop is the next
normal until the frequency and duration of daily part the tubule which has descending and
sucking decreases and thus, disrupts the an ascending limb, the descending limb
menstrural cycle. continues as another highly coiled tubular
In the light of the above statements, choose the region, DCT.
correct answer from the options given below. III. The Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT
(a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is of the nephron are situated in the medulla
correct region of the kidney where as the loop of
(b) Both statement I and statement II are Henle dips into the cortical region.
correct IV. The distal convoluted tubule of many
(c) Both statement I and statement II are nephrons open into a straight tube called
incorrect collecting duct, many of which converge and
(d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is open into the renal pelvis through medullary
incorrect pyramids in the calyces.
157. Which of the following group of animals have V. The peritubular capillaries are a fine capillary
modified placoid teeth, absence of air bladder, network around the renal tubule formed from
heart is two chambered and lack capacity to efferent arteriole which emerges from
regulate their body temperature ? column of Bertini.
(a) Ichthyophis and Rana Choose the correct answer from the options
(b) Labeo and Clarias given below.
(c) Scoliodon and Trygon (a) II, IV and V (b) I and IV
(d) Lamprey and Hagfish (c) II, III and IV (d) II, III, IV and V
161. Synovial joints are characterised by the presence 165. Which of the following event causes the
of a fluid filled synovial cavity. It includes ventricular muscles to contract?
I. Hinge joint (a) The action potential is conducted to the
II. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb ventricular side by the AVN and AV bundle
III. Between atlas and axis from where the bundle of His transmits it
IV. Accumulation of uric acid between joints through the entire ventricular musculature
V. Joints of vertebral column. (b) The ventricular pressure falls causing the
Choose the correct option from the following. closure of semilunar valves, prevents the
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, IV and V back flow of blood into the ventricle
(c) IV and V only (d) II, IV and V (c) The SAN generates an action potential,
162. In test tube method, ova from wife and sperms stimulates both the atria and ventricle
from the husband are collected and are induced (d) The opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
to form zygote under simulated conditions in the allows the blood to move freely in the
laboratory. The zygote or early embryos upto 8 ventricle
blastomeres could be transferred into the 166. Given below are two statements; one is labelled
(a) Fallopian tube (b) uterus as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(c) vagina (d) cervix Reason (R).
163. Given below are two statements. Assertion (A) Parathyroid hormone is a
Statement I Each muscle fibre is lined by the hypercalcemic hormone as it increases the blood
sarcolemma enclosing the sarcoplasm, which is calcium levels in body and works antagonistic to
syncitium as it contains many nuclei and calcitonin.
sarcoplasmic reticulum in the store house of Reason (R) Parathyroid hormone acts on bones
calcium ions. and stimulates the process of bone resorption by
Statement II Myofibril has alternate dark and dissolution and demineralsation.
light bands, the dark bands contain actin and is
called isotropic band whereas light band is called
correct answer form the options given below.
anisotropic that contains myosin.
(a) A is false, but R is true
correct answer from the options given below. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct explanation of A
correct (c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) Both statement I and statement II are explanation of A
correct (d) A is true, but R is false
(c) Both statement I and statement II are 167. Choose the incorrect statement about frog.
incorrect (a) The most common species of frog found in
(d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is India is Rana tigrina
incorrect (b) During aestivation and hibernation gaseous
164. The sequential event in the heart which is exchange takes place through skin
cyclically repeated is called cardiac cycle. (c) Heart have 2 chambers, one atria and one
Consider the steps involved in cardiac cycle and ventricle
arrange them in proper order.
(d) The frog is a ureotelic animal
I. SAN generates action potential.
168. Which of the following process helps in the
II. All four chambers of the heart are in relaxed
formation of concentrated urine ?
state.
III. Ventricles relax and ventricular pressure (a) Suppression of ADH and vasopressin from
falls causing closure of semilunar valves. the hypothalamus and neurohypophysis,
IV. Ventricular systole causes closure of respectively
tricuspid and bicuspid valves. (b) NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the
Choose the correct answer from the options ascending portion of vasa recta
given below. (c) Suppression of release of aldosterone from
(a) I  III  II  IV (b) II  1  III  IV adrenal cortex
(c) IV  I  III  II (d) II  I  IV  III (d) The administration of vasodilating agents
169. Anabolic steroids are a group of synthetic drugs 173. Arrange the following stages in the life cycle of
that are used as performance and image Plasmodium in correct order from human to
enhancing drug. Consider the following mosquito.
statements about the side effects of these drugs. I. Parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs
I. Anabolic steroids cause increase in
II. Sporozoites reach the liver
masculinisation.
III. Fertilisation in the mosquito intestine
II. Menstrual cycle in females is disturbed.
III. Liver cirrhosis IV. Gametocytes develop in RBCs
IV. These drugs cause damage to the nervous Choose the answer from the options given below,
system. (a) I  III  IV  II
V. A decreased sperm production is observed (b) II  I  IV  III
in males by their intake. (c) II  IV  III  I
Choose the correct answer from the options (d) III  I  IV  II
given below.
174. Match List I with List II.
(a) I, II and V (b) III and V
List I List II
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) II and IV
170. Given below are two statements; one is labelled A. Autoimmune 1. Muscular
as Assertion (A) and the other one labelled as disorder affecting dystrophy
Reason (A). neuromuscular
Assertion (A) Divergent evolution represents junction leading
the evolutionary pattern in which species sharing
to fatigue
a common ancestry become more distinct due
to differential selection pressure. B. Progressive 2. Osteoporosis
Reason (R) Divergent evolution gradually leads degeneration of
to speciation over an evolutionary time period. skeletal muscle
In the light of the above statements, choose the C. Rapid spasms is 3. Myasthenia
correct answer form the options given below.
muscle due to gravis
low calcium ions
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A in body fluid
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the D. Decresed levels 4. Tetany
correct explanation of A of oestrogen
(d) A is true, but R is false Choose the correct answer from the options
171. Which of the following statement is incorrect? given below:
(a) The pulmonary trunk with left and right A B C D A B C D
arteries is part of pulmonary circulation
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 2 1 3
(b) The aorta is a part of systemic circulation
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) The aorta receives blood from left ventricle
175. Exchange of gases is found to occur between
(d) Pulmonary vein collects deoxygenated blood
blood and tissues. Identify the statement that does
from body and pour it into right atrium
not relate to gaseous exchange in humans.
172. Which of the following pair of microorganisms
is used to produce streptokinase and cyclosporin (a) Alveoli are the major or primary sites in
A, respectively? exchange of gases where gaseous exchange
(a) Monascus purpureus and Trichoderma occurs by facilitated diffusion.
polysporum (b) Pressure contributed by an individual gas in
(b) Streptococcus and Trichoderma a mixture of gases is pX where X denotes
polysporum the gas.
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisia and (c) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 45 mm
Streptococcus Hg in tissues.
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisia and Monasus (d) Solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than
purpureus that of O2.
176. The oviducts, uterus and vagina constitute the (c) Pleurobrachia—They exhibit metagenesis
female accessory ducts. Each Fallopian tube is (d) Nereis—Blood vascular system is closed
about 10-12 cm long and extends from the type
periphery of each ovary to the uterus, the part 181. Given below are two statements.
closer to the ovary is the funnel-shaped known Statement I In molluscs, body is covered by
as calcareous shell and is unsegmented with a
(a) fimbriae (b) ampulla distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump.
(c) uterine fundus (d) infundibulum Statement II Excretion in molluscs takes place
177. Which of the following set of hormones is through Malpighian tubules.
released only during pregnancy in women? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(a) Oestrogens, hCG and relaxin correct answer from the options given below.
(b) Human placental lactogen, oestrogens and (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
progestogens correct
(c) Human placental lactogen, human chorionic (b) Both statement I and statement II are
gonadotropin and relaxin correct
(d) Prolactin, thyroxine and human placental (c) Both statement I and statement II are
lactogen incorrect
178. Which of the following steps is not involved in (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
respiration? incorrect
(a) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for anabolic 182. Given below are two statements.
reactions and release of CO2 Statement I Osteichthyes have to swim
(b) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and constantly to avoid sinking due to absence of air
tissues bladder.
(c) Transport of gases by the blood in whole Statement II Osteichthyes have four pairs of
body gills, which are covered by an operculum on each
(d) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric side.
air is drawn in and CO2 rich air is released In the light of the above statements, choose the
out correct answer from the options given below.
179. Given below are two statements. (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
Statement I In Urochordata, notochord is correct
present only in larval tail, while in (b) Both statement I and statement II are
cephalochordata, it extends from head to tail correct
region and is persistent throughout their life. (c) Both statement I and statement II are
Statement II The vertebrate possess notochord incorrect
during the embryonic period which is replaced (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in incorrect
the adult. 183. Arrange the following events of menstrual cycle
In the light of the above statements, choose the from beginning to end of the cycle.
correct answer from the options given below. I. Ovulation is controlled by the increased level
(a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is of LH in the blood.
correct II. The level of progesterone in the blood
(b) Both statement I and statement II are declines.
correct III. Corpus luteum begins to secrete hormone
(c) Both statement I and statement II are called progesterone.
incorrect IV. FSH stimulates the change of a primary
(d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is follicle of the ovary into a Graafian follicle.
incorrect Choose the correct answer from the options
180. Which of the following matching pairs is given below.
incorrect? (a) IV  I  III  II
(a) Antedon—Endoskeleton is made up of (b) I  IV  III  II
calcareous ossicles
(c) I  III  IV  II
(b) Corals—Endoskeleton is composed of
calcium carbonate (d) IV  III  I  II
184. Which of the following process is not involved in 188. Find the correctly matched pair.
the coagulation of blood? (a) Birds - Oxygenated and
(a) Thrombokinase is an enzyme complex, dexygenated blood
which initiate the blood coagulation gets mixed up in
(b) A dark reddish brown scum formed at the the single ventricle
site of a cut
(b) Mammals - Blood flows in
(c) Fibrins are formed by the conversion of
inactive fibrinogens in the plasma by the two pathways
enzyme thrombin (c) Single - Blood flows at
(d) Heparin stimulate the cellular cascade of circulation a high pressure
blood clot and release thrombin (d) Crocodile - Incomplete
185. When a person encounters HIV, the person double circulation
becomes so immuno deficient that he/she would
189. Identify the correct statements related to
be unable to protect herself/himself against
malignant tumours.
various infections. The person’s immunity is
deficient due to I. These are mass of proliferating cells.
(a) decrease in the number of helper T- II. Such tumours have the capability to actively
lymphocytes divide.
(b) increase in the amount of interferons III. These remain confined to their original
(c) decrease in the number of macrophage cells location.
(d) increase in the certain types of leukocytes IV. They make the normal cell starve.
V. These are non-cancerous.
SECTION - B
Choose the correct answer from the options
186. Match List I with List II. given below.
List I List II (a) I and II only (b) I, II and IV only
A. ANF(Atrial 1. It activates the JG (c) III, IV and V (d) II and IV only
Natriuretic factor) cells to release 190. The human evolved from Homo habilis about
renin. 1.5 mya in the Pleistocene, who made more
B. GFR(Glomerular 2. Impermeable to elaborate tools and had a brain volume around is
Filtration Rate) electrolytes 900 cc is
C. Proximal 3. It maintain the pH (a) Homo erectus
convoluted (b) Homo neanderthalensis
tubule (c) Homo sapiens
D. Henle’s loop 4. Vasodilation (d) Cro-Magnon man
Choose the correct answer from the options 191. Given below are two statements; one is labelled
given below: as Assertion (A) and other one is labelled as
A B C D A B C D Reason (R).
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 Assertion (A) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 2 4 1 formed by the afferent arteriole.
187. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue is located Reason (R) Blood from the glomerulus is carried
within the lining of the major tracts, i.e. away by an afferent arteriole.
respiratory, digestive and urogenital tracts. It In the light of the above statements, choose the
(a) provides micro-environments for the correct answer from the options given below.
development and maturation of T-
lymphocytes
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) acts as filter of the blood by trapping blood
explanation of A
borne microorganisms
(c) is a large reservoir of lymphocytes (c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(d) constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue
in human body (d) A is true, but R is false
192. Given below are two statements; one is labelled A B

as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (a) Computed MRI
(R).
tomography
Assertion (A) Chewing tobacco increases the
(b) X-ray CT
heart rate and may lead to cancer of oral cavity.
(c) CT Autoradiography
Reason (R) It increases CO content in blood
and reduce the concentration of haem bound (d) Biopsy CT
oxygen. 196. Which of the following pair of animal correctly
In the light of the above statements, choose the represent bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic,
correct answer from the options given below. acoelomate, organ level of organisation and flame
(a) A is false, but R is true cells help in osmoregulation and excretion?
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Taenia and Fasciola
explanation of A (b) Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (c) Adamsia and Taenia
correct explanation of A (d) Schistosoma and Ascaris
(d) A is true, but R is false 197. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
193. Given below are two statements; one is labelled (a) The spermatids are transformed into
as Assertion (A) and other one is labelled as spermatozoa by the process of
Reason (R). spermiogenesis
Assertion (A) Saheli is the oral contraceptive (b) The phenomenon of spermiation is the trans
for the females contains a non-steroidal formationn of spermatids into sertili cells
preparation.
(c) The spermatogonia is present on the inner
Reason (R) It has to be taken daily for a period wall of seminiferous tubules.
of 21 days starting preferably within the first five
(d) Each spermatogonium is diploid and contain
days of menstrual cycle.
46 chromosomes.
198. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
correct answer from the options given below.
(a) A is false, but R is true I. The shoulder girdle and pelvis provide
connection points between the appendicular
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct skeleton and the axial skeleton to where
explanation of A mechanical loads transfer.
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the II. Out of 206 bones in the adult human body, a
correct explanation of A total of 126 bones form the appendicular
(d) A is true, but R is false skeleton.
194. Thyrotropin releasing hormone from the III. The sternum of the axial skeleton articulates
hypothalamus causes the anterior pituitary to with the clavicle of the appendicular skeleton
release thyrotropin which stimulates thyroid gland with the help of sternoclavicular joint.
to release IV. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone
(a) T3 and T4 situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
(b) ADH and T4 between the third and the sixth ribs.
(c) thyrocalcitonin and ADH V. In human 12 pairs of ribs are found, each
rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to
(d) thyrocalcitonin and T3
the sternum and ventrally to the vertebral
195. ...A... uses X-rays to generate a three- column.
dimensional image of the internals of an object
Choose the correct answer from the options
whereas ...B... uses strong magnetic field and
given below.
non-ionising radiations to accurately detect
pathological and physiological changes in the (a) IV and V (b) II and V
living tissue. Identify A and B from the following. (c) I, III and V (d) II, III and IV
199. The flippers of penguins and dolphins and bones C. The first clinical 3. PCR
of forelimbs of bats and human are the examples gene therapy was
of
given in 1990 to
(a) homologous and divergent evolution,
a 4 year old girl
respectively
D. A single-stranded 4. ELISA
(b) divergent evolution and adaptive radiation,
respectively DNA or RNA,
(c) convergent evolution and divergent evolution tagged with
respectively a radioactive
(d) divergent evolution and convergent evolution, molecule
respectively Choose the correct answer from the options
200. Match List I with List II given
List I List II A B C D A B C D
A. It is used to detect 1. Adenosine (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 4 1 2
low concentration deaminase (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 1 3 2
of pathogen deficiency
B. It detects the 2. Probe
antibodies
synthesised
against the
pathogen


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1 Think NEET Think TORQUE

F F (d) None of the above

correct wavelength 4100 A ?

34. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is

(a) 8 N in z direction (b) 8 N in - z direction

43. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes

standing wave is (c) mg (d1 - d2) (d) mgd1 d2

III. 79. Carboxylic acid is soluble in water due to

OCH3 (d) Covalent bond

methoxybutanoic acid. (i) O3

81. Given below are two statements. (SECTION - B)

144. Genetic code is ZOOLOGY

192. Given below are two statements; one is labelled A B

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