(Physics) 8 - On applying the load, the increment in length of a wire

(Section – A ) is 1mm. On applying the same load on another wire of

1 - In photoelectric effect work function of any metal is same length and material, but having half the radius, the
2.5 eV. Emitted electrons are stopped by the potential increment will be:
of -1.5 volt then a) 0.25 mm b) 4.0 mm
a) energy of incident photons is 4eV c) 0.5 mm d) 2.0 mm
b) energy of incident photons is 1eV
c) photoelectric current increases when we use 9 - Two satellites of same mass m are revolving round of
photons of high frequency earth (mass M) in the same orbit of radius r. Rotational
d) none of the above directions of the two are opposite therefore, they can
collide. Total mechanical energy of the system (both
2 - A mass M, attached to a spring, oscillates with a period satellites and earths) is (m << M):
of 2s. If the mass is increased by 4kg, the time period 𝐺𝑀𝑚 2 𝐺𝑀𝑚
a) − 𝑟 b) − 𝑟
increases by one second. Assuming that Hooke’s law is 𝐺𝑀𝑚
obeyed, the initial mass M was c) − 2𝑟
d) Zero
a) 3.2 kg b) 1 kg
c) 2 kg d) 8 kg 10 – Assertion (A) : In the motion of projectile the
horizontal component of velocity remains constant
3 - What will be velocity of a satellite revolving around the Reason (R) : The force on the projectile is the
earth at a height h above surface of earth if radius of gravitational force which acts only in the vertically
earth is R- downward direction.
𝑔 𝑔 a) A and R is the correct and R is the correct
a) R2 √𝑅 + ℎ b) 𝑅 (𝑅 +ℎ)2 explanation of A
𝑔 𝑅+ℎ b) A and R is the correct and R is the not correct
c) R √ d) R2 √ explanation of A
𝑅+ℎ 𝑔
c) A is true and R is false
4 - A coil of resistance 400Ώ is placed in a magnetic field. d) A is false and R is true
If the magnetic flux ∅ (wb) linked with the coil varies
with time t (sec) as ∅ = 50𝑡 2 + 4. The current in the 11 - The angular speed of a fly wheel making 120
coil at t = 2 sec is – revolutions / minute is
a) 0.5 A b) 0.1 A c) 2 A d) 1 A a) 2π rad / s b) 4π2 rad / s
c) π rad / s d) 4π rad / s
5 - The dimensional formula of permeability of free space
𝜇0 is- 12- For which of the following forces, the torque about the
a) MLT –2 A–2 b) M0L1 T origin is zero, if force is applied at 𝑟⃗ 8𝑖̂?
0 2 –1 2
c) M L T A d) none of these a) 16𝑖̂ N b) 16𝑗̂ N
̂
c) 8 𝑘 N d) 8𝑖̂ + 16𝑗̂ N
6 – A hypothetical screw gauge has a pith of 0.2 mm and
10 division on circular scale. The least count of screw 13 - Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists
gauge is – of :-
a) 0.1 mm b) 0.02 mm a) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons
c) 0.5 mm d) 0.06 mm b) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
7 - A metal plate gets heated, when cathode rays strike d) 11 protons and 13 electrons
against, it due to :-
a) Kinetic energy of cathode rays 14 - Assume that an electric field 𝐸⃗⃗ = 30𝑥 2 𝑖̂ exists in
b) Potential energy of cathode rays space. Then the potential difference VA – V0, where V0
c) Linear velocity of cathode rays is the potential at the origin and VA the potential at
d) Angular velocity of cathode rays x = 2 m is :

1
 a) – 80 V b) 80 V a) 𝛾-rays b) electrons
c) 120 V d) - 120 V c) protons d) helium nuclei

15- A string wave equation is given y = 0.002 sin ( 300t – 21 - Two similar and equal charges repal each other with
𝑘𝑔 force of 1.6 N, when placed 3m apart. Magnitude of
15x) and mass density is (𝜇 = 0.1 ). Then find the
𝑚 each charge is-
tension in the string-
a) 40 μC b) 20 μC c) 4 μC d) 2 μC
a) 30 N b) 20 N c) 40 N d) 45 N
22 - The dimensions of the product 𝜇0 𝜀0 are related to
16 – A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough inclined plane
those of velocity as :
making an angle of 300 with the horizontal. The
a) (velocity)2 b) velocity
coefficient of static friction between the block and the
c) 1/ velocity d) 1/ velocity2
plane is 0.7. The frictional force on the block is –
a) 9.8 N b) 0.7 x 9.8 x √3 N 23 - When a body moves with a constant speed along a
c) 9.8 x √3 N d) 0.7 x 9.8 N circle
a) No work is done on it
17 – Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 atm and b) No acceleration is produced in the body
1.02 atm, respectively. The ratio of their volume is – c) No force acts on the body
a) 4 : 1 b) 0.8 : 1 c) 8 : 1 d) 2 : 1 d) Its velocity remains constant

18 - An ideal Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40% 24 - Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and
receives heat at 500 K. If its efficiency is 50%, then B at the same temperature, the pressure of A being
the intake temperature for the same exhaust twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of
temperature is- A is found to be 1.5 times the density of B. The ratio
a) 600 K b) 700 K c) 800 K d) 900 K of molecular weight of A and B is :
2 3 1
a) b) 𝑐) 2 𝑑)
19 - Two pulses travel in mutually opposite directions in a 3 4 2
string at speed of 2.5 cm/s as shown in the figure.
Initially the pulses are 10 cm apart. What will be the 25 - Two electric lamps of 40 watt each are connected in
state of the string after two seconds ? parallel. The maximum power consumed by the
combination will be –
a) 20 watt b) 60 watt
c) 80 watt d) 100 watt

26 - Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are moving with

equal K.E. The ratio of their linear momentums is
a) 4 : 1 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) 1 : 4

27 – What is the value of linear velocity, if 𝑟⃗⃗⃗ = 5𝑖̂ − 6𝑗̂ +

6𝑘̂ and 𝜔
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 3𝑖̂ − 4𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ?
a) 6𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ − 3𝑘̂ b) −18𝑖̂ − 13𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂
c) 4𝑖̂ − 13𝑗̂ + 6𝑘̂ d) 6𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 8𝑘̂

28 - The efficiency of a cell when connected to a resistance

R is 60% . What will be its efficiency if the external
resistance is increased to six times.
a) 80% b) 90% c) 55% d) 95%

29 - Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is

20 - The particles not emitted by a radioactive substance
2 cm. Focal length of lens when immersed in liquid of
are –

2
 refractive index of 1.25 will be – a) A B C b) A B C
a) 10 cm b) 2.5 cm c) 5 cm d) 7.5 cm 0 0 1 0 0 0
1 0 0 1 0 0
30 - The capacitance of a capacitor with dielectric medium 0 1 1 0 1 1
is 8 F. On removing the dielectric medium, the 1 1 0 1 1 0
capacitance becomes 2 F. The dielectric constant of
the medium is c) A B C d) A B C
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
31- The Brewster's angle ib for an interface dividing 0 1 0 0 1 1
mediums of refractive index  = 1 and = √3 should 1 1 1 1 1 1
be (Light is incident from rarer to denser medium) – (Section – B)
a) 15° b) 45° c) 30° d) 60° 36- During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is
found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature.
32 - Yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s 𝐶𝑝
The ratio of for the gas is :
double slit experiment is replaced by monochromatic 𝐶𝑣
5 3 4
blue light of the same intensity- a) 2 b) 𝑐) 𝑑)
3 2 3
a) Fringe width will decrease
b) Fringe width will increase 37- A satellite in force free space sweeps stationary inter
c) Fringe width will remain unchanged 𝑑𝑀
d) Fringes will become less intense planetary dust at a 𝑑𝑡 = 𝛼𝑣 rate where M is the mass
and v is the velocity of the satellite and α is a constant.
33 - In a Young's experiment, two coherent sources are The deceleration of the satellite is :-
placed 0.90 mm apart and the fringes are observed one −2𝑎𝑣 2 −𝑎𝑣 2
a) b)
𝑀 𝑀
meter away. If it produces the second dark fringe at a −𝑎𝑣 2
distance of 1mm from the central fringe, the c) 2𝑀
d) αv2
wavelength of monochromatic light used would be −
a) 60 × 10-4 cm b) 10 × 10-4 cm 38- In a vessel, the gas is at pressure P. If the mass of all
-5
c) 10 × 10 cm d) 6 × 10-5 cm the molecules is halved and their speed is doubled, then
the resultant pressure will be
34 - The velocity time graph of a body moving in a straight a) 2P b) P c) P/2 d) 4P
line is shown in figure.
39- Zener breakdown in a semi-conductor diode occurs
when
a) forward current exceeds certain value
b) reverse bias voltage exceeds certain value
c) forward bias voltage exceeds certain value
d) potential barrier is reduced to zero

40- Two circuits have coefficient of mutual induction of

The ratio of displacement to distance travelled by the 0.09 henry. Average e.m.f. induced in the secondary by
body in time 0 to 10 s is : a change of current from 0 to 20 ampere in 0.006
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 3 d) 1 : 4 second in the primary will be –
a) 120 V b) 80 V
35 - For the logic circuit shown in the figure, the truth table c) 200 V d) 300 V
is –
𝑅
41- If for a gas, 𝐶 = 0.67, this gas is made up of molecules
𝑣
which are
a) diatomic

3
 b) mixture of diatomic and poplyatomic molecules a) √𝑚 b) Independent of m
c) monoatomic c) 1 / √𝑚 d) m
d) polyatomic
50- Two tuning forks A and B made of same material are
42 - A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 7
uniform magnetic field B moving right angles to the Hz. When B is slightly filed, the beat frequency
field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the increases to 9 Hz. If the frequency of A is 274 Hz, the
particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by original frequency of B was –
proton is 2 MeV , the energy acquired by the alpha a) 524 Hz b) 268 Hz
particle will be : c) 281 Hz d) 312 Hz
a) 2 MeV b) 4 MeV
c) 0. 5 MeV d) 1. 5 MeV (Chemistry)
(Section – A )
43- Kirchhoff's law of currents is related to the 51 – What will be the mass of one 12C atom in gram ?
conservation law of :- a) 2.227 x 10-23 g b) 1.9927 x 10-23 g
a) Energy b) momentum c) 2.227 x 10 g-20
d) 1.9927 x 10-19 g
c) Charge d) angular momentum
52 – Consider the following statements concerning the
44- The momentum carried by E-M waves in vacuum is P, quantum numbers,
then energy associated with the wave is equal to (c is I. Angular quantum number determines the
speed of light) three dimensional shape of the orbital.
𝑃𝑐
a) 𝑃 × 𝑐 𝑏) 2 II. The principal quantum number determines
𝑃2 𝑃 the orientation and energy of the orbital.
c) 𝑑) III. Magnetic quantum number determines the
2𝑐 𝑐
size of the orbital.
45- A car moves along a straight line whose equation of IV. Spin quantum number of electron determines
motion is given by s = 24t + 3t 4 – 2t3 , where s is in the orientation of the spin of electron relative
metre and t is in second. The velocity of the car at t = 0 to the chosen axis.
will be The correct set of statements are –
a) 7 m/s b) 9 m/s c) 12 m/s d) 24 m/s a) I and II b) I and IV
c) III and IV d) II, III and IV
46- In circuit at resonance conditions impedance will be-
a) Equal to R b) Less than R 53 –Assertion (A): Na+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic but the
c) Greater than r d) Zero ionic radii of Al3+ is smaller than Na+
Reason (R) : The nuclear attraction on the outermost
47- A liquid in a capillary, rises up to a height h when the shell electrons of Al3+ is greater than that of Na+.
capillary is vertical. If the capillary is inclined at angle a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct
45° with the vertical, then the length of liquid in explanation of A.
capillary will be b) Both A and R are correct; and R is not the correct
ℎ explanation of A.
a) h b) 2h c) √2 ℎ 𝑑)
√2 c) A is correct; R in incorrect
d) R is correct; A is incorrect.
48- Which of the phenomenon is not common to sound and
light waves ?
54– Which of the following shows correct molecules and
a) Interference b) Diffraction
shape ?
c) Coherence d) Polarisation
a) AB2 E, bent shape
b) AB2E2, bent shape
49- The kinetic energy acquired by a mass m in travelling
c) AB3E2 T – shape
a certain distance d starting from rest under the action
d) All of the above
of a constant force is directly proportional to

4
55– Which of the following diatomic molecular species Statement – II : The higher oxidation states for the
has only π-bonds according to molecular orbital group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier
theory ? members of the group due to ‘inert pair effect’.
a) N2 b) C2 c) Be2 d) O2 a) If both statement – I and statement – II are correct,
and statement – 2 is the correct explanation of the
56– Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from statement – 2.
a) H2 (g) b) N2 (g) b) If both statement – I and statement – II are correct,
c) CH4 (g) d) NH3 (g) and statement – 2 is not the correct explanation of
the statement – 1.
57– Assertion (A) : U is a state function. c) If statement – I is correct but statement – 2 is
Reason (R) : T is an intensive property. incorrect.
a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct d) If statement – 1 is incorrect but statement – 2 is
explanation of A. correct
b) Both A and R are correct; and R is not the correct
explanation of A. 64– The shape of carbocation is –
c) A is correct; R in incorrect a) Square planer b) trigonal planer
d) R is correct; A is incorrect. c) octahedral d) trigonal pyramidal

58– Production of ammonia according to the reaction, 65– Which of the following adsorbent is used in thin layer
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g); ∆H = - 92.38 kJ mol-1 chromatography ?
Is an exothermic process. At low temperature, the a) Silica gel b) Alumina
reaction shifts in c) Sodium benzoate d) Both (a) and (b)
a) Forward direction
b) Backward reaction 66– Which of the following is a termination step in
c) Either forward or backward direction halogenation ?
ℎ𝑣
d) None of these a) Cl – Cl → 𝐶̇ 𝑙 +̇ 𝐶𝑙̇
ℎ𝑣
59– What is the average oxidation number of carbon in b) CH4 + Cl → 𝐶̇ 𝐻3 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙
carbon suboxide which has the following structure, c) CH3Cl + 𝐶𝑙̇ → 𝐶̇ H2Cl + HCl
O=C=C=C=O? d) H3𝐶̇ + 𝐶̇ l → CH3Cl
4 10 2
a) + 3 𝑏) + 4 𝑐) + 2 𝑑) + 3
67– The rule which states that negative part of the
60– The method used to remove temporary hardness of addendum gets attached to that carbon atom which
water is – possesses less number of hydrogen atoms is called –
a) Clark’s method a) Saytzeff rule b) Hofmann rule
b) Ion – exchange method c) Markovnikov’s rule
c) Synthetic resins method d) Anti – Markovnikov’s addition
d) Calgon’s method
68– Classical smog is a mixture of –
61– Which of the following property of hydroxides of a) Smoke + SO2 b) smoke + H2O
alkaline earth metals increases from top to bottom ? c) Smoke + fog + H2O d) smoke + fog + SO2
a) Thermal stability b) Basic character
c) Solubility in water d) All of these 69– In which of the following structures coordination
number for cations and anions in the packed
62– Which one of the following elements is unable to structures will be same ?
from MF63- ion ? a) Cl- ions form fcc lattice and Na+ ions occupy all
a) B b) Al c) Ga d) In octahedral voids of the unit cell
b) Ca2+ ions form fcc lattice and F- ions occupy all
63– Statement–I : Pb+4 compounds are stronger oxidizing the eight tetrahedral voids of the unit cell
agents than Sn4+ compounds
5
 c) O2- ions form fcc lattice and Na+ ions occupy all
the eight tetrahedral voids of the unit cell 75– Consider the following reactions.
d) S2- ions from fcc lattice and Zn2+ ions go into 𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑠𝑡
2SO2 (g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
alternate tetrahedral voids of the unit cell Identify the catalyst from the options given below :
a) V2O5 b) CuCl2
70– Consider the following aqueous solutions and c) MnO2 d) Either (a) or (b)
assume 100% ionization in electrolytes
I. 0.1 M Urea II. 0.04 M Al2(SO4)3 76– Match the species given in Column – I with the shape
III. 0.05 M CaCl2 IV. 0.005 M NaCl given in Column – II and mark the correct option.
The correct statement regarding the above solution is Column – I Column – II
- A. SF4 1. Tetrahedral
a) Depression in freezing point will be lowest for B. BrF3 2. Pyramidal
solution I C. BrO3 -
3. Sea – saw shaped
b) Depression in freezing point will be highest for D. NH4+ 4. Bent T – shaped
solution IV Codes…
c) Elevation in boiling point will be highest for A B C D A B C D
solution IV a) 3 2 1 4 b) 3 4 2 1
d) Decrease in vapour pressure will be highest for c) 1 2 3 4 d) 1 4 3 2
solution II
77– Out of Ti𝐹62− , 𝐶𝑜𝐹63− , 𝐶𝑢2 𝐶𝑙2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙42− (at. No.
71 – For the given cell notation, M | M2+ || M2+ | M, if the
(0.01) (0.0001) of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29 and Ni = 28), the
0 colourless species are –
value of E cell is 4 volt (Given RT / F ln 10 = 0.06).
a) Ti𝐹62− 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝑜𝐹63− b) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42-
Then, the emf of the cell is –
a) 3.94 V b) 4.06 V c) TiF62- and Cu2Cl2 d) 𝐶𝑜𝐹63− and NiCl42
c) 2.03 V d) 8.18 V
78– The theory that can completely / properly explain the
72– For a first order reaction, nature of bonding in [Ni(Co)4] is :
𝑘 a) Werner’s theory b) crystal field theory
a) 𝑡1/2 = 𝑏) 𝑡3/4 = 2𝑡1/2 c) Valance bond theory
𝑎
0.693
c) 𝑡1/2 = d) 𝑡1/2 = 𝑘 × 0.693 d) Molecular orbital theory
2𝑘
𝑀𝑔/𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟 𝑖) 𝐶𝑂2 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻/𝐻 +
73– When an excess and a very dilute aqueous solution 79 – CH3 – Br → P
𝑖𝑖) 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 ∆
of KI is added to very dilute aqueous solution of
What is the product ‘P in the above reaction ?
silver nitrate. The colloidal particles of silver iodide
a) Methyl ethanoate b) Ethanoic acid
which are associated with the Helmholtz double layer
c) Propanal d) Methyl propanoate
in the form of –
a) AgI / Ag+ : I- b) AgI / K+ : NO3-
- + 80 - An unknown alcohol (X) is treated with the “Lucas
c) AgI / NO3 : Ag d) AgI / I- : K+
reagent” to determine whether the alcohol is primary,
secondary or tertiary. The type of alcohol that reacts
74– Assertion (A) : In the metallurgy of Al, purified
fastest with its mechanism is –
Al2O3 is mixed with Na3 AlF6 or CaF2.
a) Secondary alcohol by SN1
Reason (R) It lowers the melting point of the mixture
b) Tertiary alcohol by SN2
and brings conductivity.
c) Secondary alcohol by SN2
a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct
d) Tertiary alcohol by SN1
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are correct; and R is not the correct
81– I. F3C – COOH
explanation of A.
II. CH3COOH
c) A is correct; R in incorrect
III. C6H5COOH
d) R is correct; A is incorrect.
IV. CH3CH2COOH
6
 Correct order of pKa value is – 88 – The species in which bond is non – directional.
a) I > III > II > IV b) IV > II > III > I a) NCl3 b) RbCl c) BeCl2 d) BCl3
c) IV > III > II > I d) I > II > IV > III
89 – Given ,
82– The gas evolved when methylamine reacts with Cdiamond + O2 → CO2; ∆H = - 395.3 kJ/mol
nitrous acid is – Cgraphite + O2 → CO2; ∆H = - 393.4 kJ/mol
a) NH3 b) N2
c) H2 d) C2H6 The enthalpy change (∆H) for the reaction,
Cgraphite → Cdiamond in kJ/mol is –
83– Assertion (A) : Two sugar units are joined by 1, 2 – a) + 1.9 b) - 1.9
glycosidic bond in sucrose. c) + 3.8 d) - 3.8
Reason (R) : it contains C1 – glucose and C2 –
fructose glycosidic bond. 90 – pH of saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value
a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct of solubility product of Ksp of Ba(OH)2 is –
explanation of A. a) 3.3 x 10-7 b) 5.0 x 10-7
-4
b) Both A and R are correct; and R is not the correct c) 4.0 x 10 d) 5.0 x 106
explanation of A.
c) A is correct; R in incorrect 91 – Choose the correct statements from the following
d) R is correct; A is incorrect. regarding the properties of compounds of alkaline
earth metals.
84 – Match the following and choose the correct option I. Solubility of sulphates of Ca to Ba decreases
from the codes given below. progressively.
Column – I Column – II II. Solubility of carbonates in water increases
(Types of polymer) (Examples) top to bottom in the group.
A. Polyesters 1. Novalac III. Hydrate forming tendency of alkaline earth
B. Polyamide 2. Dacron metal decreases from top to bottom.
C. Phenol-formaldehyde 3. Nylon – 6 a) I and II are correct b) II and III are correct
Polymer c) I and III are correct d) all of these
D. Polyacrylonitrile 4. Orlon
Codes… 92 – Silicon has a strong tendency to form polymers, like
A B C D A B C D silicones. The chain length of silicon polymer can be
a) 1 2 4 3 b) 4 1 3 2 controlled by adding –
c) 3 4 2 1 d) 2 3 1 4 a) MeSiCl3 b) Me2SiCl2
c) Me3SiCl d) Me4Si
85– Molecular masses of drugs lie in range of
a) ~5 u – 10 u b) ~ 50 u – 60 u 93 – The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face
c) ~100 u – 500 u d) above 2000 u centred unit cell is –
(Section – B) a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12
86 – Which of the following does not represent ground
94 – If osmotic pressure of 4% (w/v) solution of sucrose
state electronic configuration of an atom ?
is same as 2% (w/v) solution of ‘X’ then the
a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2
molecular mass of X (g/mol) is –
b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s2
a) 171 b) 205.2
c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1
c) 570 d) None of these
d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
95 – The time required for the completion of the 2/3rd of
87 – The element having greatest difference between its
the reaction, if the rate is 4.3 × 10-4 s-1 will be –
first and second ionization energy is –
a) 0.0025 × 103 sec b) 0.25 × 103 sec
a) Ca b) Sc c) Ba d) K 3
c) 0.025 x 10 sec d) 2.5 × 103 sec

7
96 – A process of purification is represented by the c) I → 51% II → 47% III → 2%
following equation, In the acidic medium, aniline is protonated to
2500 𝐶 14000 𝐶 form the anilinium ion which is meta directing
Ti + 2I2 → TiI4 → Ti + 2I2
impure pure d) I → 50% II → 20% III → 20%
In acidic medium aniline is protonated to form
Correct name of the process is –
the anilinium ion which is ortho directing.
a) Van – Arkel b) Poling
c) zone refining d) cupellation (Biology)
(Section – A )
97– On heating lead nitrate, it forms oxides of nitrogen 101 – Read the following statements and select the correct
and lead. The oxides formed are – option.
a) N2O, PbO b) NO2, PbO Statement – 1: Reproduction cannot be considered
c) NO, PbO d) NO, PbO2 as defining property of living organisms.
Statement – 2: There are many living organisms
98 – Among the following metal carbonyls, the C – O which do not reproduce, e.g. mules, worker bees, etc.
bond order is lowest in – a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
a) [Mn(CO)6]+ b) [Fe(CO)6] b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
c) [Cr(CO)6] d) [V(CO)6]- incorrect
c) Statements 1 is incorrect but statements 2 is
99 – Match the following alcohols given in Colum – I with correct
the product formed during their reaction with Cu/573 d) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
K in Column – II and choose the correct option from
the codes given below. 102 – Match column – I with column – II and select the
Column – I Column – II correct option from the codes given below.
(Alcohol) (product) Column – I Column – II
A. 10 alcohol 1. Ketone A. Binomial nomenclature i) Hippocrates
B. 20 alcohol 2. Alkene B. The Darwin of the 20th ii) Ernst Mayr
C. 30 alcohol 3. Aldehyde century
Codes… C. Father of botany iii) Linnaeus
A B C A B C D. Father of medicine iv) Theopharastus
a) 3 1 2 b) 2 1 3 a) A – iii), B – ii), C – iv), D – i)
c) 2 3 1 d) 3 2 1 b) A – iii), B – ii), C – i), D – iv)
c) A – i), B – ii), C – iii), D – iv)
100 – d) A – ii), B – iii), C – iv), D – i)

103 – Match column – I with column – II and select the

correct option from the codes given below.
Column – I Column – II
A. Royal Botanical Garden, Kew i) Lucknow
B. Indian Botanical Garden ii) England
C. National Botanical Research iii) Howrah
Institute
Select the percentage in which these amine a) A – ii), B – iii), C – i) b) A – i), B – iii), C – ii)
derivatives are formed in the reaction mixture along c) A – iii), B – ii), C – i) d) A – i), B – ii), C – iii)
with the reason.
a) I → 2% II → 47% III → 51% 104 – Which of the following characters served as the
In acidic medium, aniline is protonated to form criteria for five kingdom system of classification as
the anilinium ion which is ortho directing used by R.H. Whittaker ?
b) I → 51% II → 2% III → 47% a) Cell structure and thallus organization
In the acidic medium, aniline is protonated to b) Mode of nutrition and reproduction
form the anilinium ion which is para directing
8
 c) Phylogenetic relationships b) Coelomates - Aschelminthes
d) All of these c) Metamerism - Molluscs
d) Triploblastic - Sponges
105 – Photosynthetic pigments of cyanobacteria( blue
green algae) include 112- Identify the given figures A, B and C and select the
a) Chlorophyll a b) carotenes correct option.
c) Xanthophylls d) all of these

106 – Select the pair that consist of plant or animals

bacterial diseases.
a) Cholera and typhoid
b) Citrus canker and crown gall
c) Malaria and dengue A B C
d) Both (a) and (b) a) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
b) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
107 – A prothallus is – c) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
a) A structure in pteridophytes formed before the d) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla
thallus develops
b) A sporophytic free living structure formed in 113- Identify the family which shows the following
pteridophytes diagnostic features.
c) A gametophytic free living structure formed in Flowers pentamerous, gynoecium-bicarpellary,
pteridophytes syncarpous, ovary placed obliquely, placentation
d) A primitive structure formed after fertilization in axile, placenta swollen.
peteridophytes. a) Solanaceae b) Leguminosae
c) Papilionaceae d) Liliaceae
108 – Plants of this group are diploid and well adapted to
extreme conditions. They grow bearing sporophylls 114- Endosperm, a product of double fertilization in
in compact structures called cones. The group in angiosperms is absent in the seeds of –
reference is – a) Coconut b) Orchids
a) Monocots b) dicots c) Maize d) Castor
c) pteridophytes d) gymnosperms.
115- Match the followings and choose correct option.
109 – If the diploid number of a flowering plants is 36, Group A Group B
what would be the chromosome number in its A. Aleurone layer i) Without fertilization
endosperm ? B. Parthenocarpic fruit ii) Nutrition
a) 36 b) 18 c) 54 d) 72 C. Ovule iii) Double fertilization
D. Endosperm iv) Seed
110 – Which of the following statements is incorrect Options :
regarding bilateral symmetry ? a) A – i), B – ii), C – iii), D – iv)
a) Body can be divided into two equal halves by a b) A – ii), B – i), C – iv), D – iii)
single plane only. c) A – iv), B – ii), C – i), D – iii)
b) The organism that show bilateral symmetry have d) A – ii), B – iv), C – i), D – iii)
paired body organs that occur on the two sides
of a central axis. 116- Match column – I with column – II and select the
c) It is found in all invertebrates and few correct option from the codes given below.
vertebrates Column – I Column – II
d) Spider and crab show bilateral symmetry A. Bulliform cells i) Regulate opening and
closing of stomata
111- Which of the following is correctly matched ? B. Guard cells ii) Aerating pores in the
a) Radial symmetry - Coelenterates bark of plant

9
 C. Lenticels iii) Rolling in and out of a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
leaves b) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
D. Subsidiary cells iv) Accessory cells c) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)
a) A – iii), B – i), C – ii), D – iv) d) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)
b) A – i), B – ii), C – iii), D – iv)
c) A – iv), B – iii), C – i), D – ii) 122- The chromosome in which centromere lies slightly
d) A – ii), B – iv), C – iii), D – i) away from the middle of the chromosome resulting
into one shorter arm and one longer arm, is called as
117- Match the following and choose the correct option a) Metacentric b) submetacentric
from below. c) acrocentric d) telocentric
A. Meristem i) Photosynthesis, storage
B. Parenchyma ii) Mechanical support 123- Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the
C. Collenchyma iii) Actively dividing cells following cells in an ascending order of their size and
D. Sclerenchyma iv) Stomata select the correct option.
E. Epidermal tissue v) Sclereids A. Mycoplasma B. Ostrich egg
Options : C. Human RBCs D. Bacteria
a) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (ii), E – (iv) a) A → D → C → B b) A → C → D → B
b) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (v), E – (iv) c) B → A → C → D d) C → B → A → D
c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (v), D – (i), E – (iii)
d) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (ii), E – (i) 124- What is a tonoplast ?
a) Outer membrane of mitochondria
118- Phellogen and phellem respectively denote b) Inner membrane of chloroplast
a) Cork and corm cambium c) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
b) Cork cambium and cork d) Cell membrane of a plant cell
c) Secondary cortex and cork
d) Cork and secondary cortex 125- Enzymes are most functional within the temperature
range of –
119- Which one of the following statements is true for a) 100 – 800C b) - 150 – - 250C
cockroaches ? c) 25 – 40 C
0 0
d) 500 – 500C
a) The number of ovarioles in each Ovary are ten
b) The larval stage is called caterpillar 126- Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is
c) Anal styles are absent in females. an example of –
d) They are ureotelic a) Non – competitive inhibition
b) Competitive inhibition
120- Match the following and choose the correct answer. c) Allosteric inhibition
A. Touch i) Nasal epithelium d) Negative feedback
B. Smell ii) Foramen magnum
C. Cranial nerves iii) Sensory papillae 127- Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups
D. Medulla oblongata iv) Peripheral nervous from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis,
system and addition of group to double bonds, are called
a) A – iii), B – i), C – ii), D – iv) a) Ligase b) lyases
b) A – ii), B – i), C – iv), D – iii) c) hydrolases d) dehydrogenases
c) A – iii), B – iv), C – ii), D – i)
d) A – iii), B – i), C – iv), D – ii) 128- In animals meiotic division occurs during gamete
formation. This gametic meiosis results in
121- Match the following and choose the correct option. a) Haplontic life cycle
A. Adipose tissue i) Nose b) Diplontic life cycle
B. Stratified epithelium ii) Blood c) Diplohaplontic life cycle
C. Hyaline cartilage iii) Skin d) None of these
D. Fluid connective tissue iv) Fat storage

10
129- Meiosis in diploid organisms results in b) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII,
a) Production of gametes ferredoxin
b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes c) PSI, ferrodoxin, PSII
c) Introduction of variation d) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII,
d) All of the above ferrodoxin

130- Mitosis is characterized by –

(Section – B)
a) Reduction division 136- The reaction that is responsible for the primary
b) Equal division fixation of CO2 is catalyzed by –
c) Both reduction and equal division a) RuBP carboxylase b) PEP carboxylase
d) Pairing of homologous chromosomes. c) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
d) PGA synthase
131- A girdled plant (upto bast may survive for some time
but it will eventually die, because – 137- Mitochondria are called power houses of the cell.
a) Water will not move downwards Which of the following observations supports this
b) Water will not move upwards statement ?
c) Sugars and other organic materials will not move a) Mitochondria synthesise ATP.
downwards b) Mitochondria have a double membrane
d) Sugars and other organic materials will not move c) The enzymes of the Krebs’ cycle and the
upwards cytochromes are found in mitochondria
d) Mitochondria are found in almost all plant and
132- Match the followings and choose the correct option. animal cells.
Column – I Column – II
A. Leaves i) Anti – transpirant 138- Match the following and choose the correct option
B. Seed ii) Transpiration from those given below :
C. Roots iii) Negative osmotic Column – I Column – II
potential A. Molecular oxygen i) α- ketoglutaric acid
D. Aspirin iv) Imbibition B. Electron acceptor ii) Hydrogen acceptor
E. Plasmolysed cell v) Absorption C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase iii) Cytochrome C
Option D. Decarboxylation iv) Acetyl Co A
a) A – ii), B – iv), C – v), D – i), E – iii) a) A – ii), B – iii), C – iv), D – i)
b) A – iii), B – ii), C – iv), D – i), E – v) b) A – iii), B – iv), C – ii), D – i)
c) A – i), B – ii), C – iii), D – iv), E – v) c) A – ii), B – i), C – iii), D – iv)
d) A – v), B – iv), C – iii), D – ii), E – i) d) A – iv), B – iii), c – i), D – ii)

133- _______ conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in 139- Match the following
the root nodule of a legume. A. IAA i) Herring sperm DNA
a) Aerobic ` b) Anaerobic B. ABA ii) Bolting
c) Acidic d) Alkaline C. Ethylene iii) Stomatal closure
D. GA iv) Weed – free lawns
134- Nodules in soybean plant export the fixed nitrogen in E. Cytokinins v) Ripening of fruits
the form of – a) A – iv), B – iii), C – v), D – ii), E – i)
a) Ureides b) Amides b) A – v), B – iii), C – iv), D – ii), E – i)
c) Amino acids d) both (b) and (c) c) A – iv), B – i), C – v), D – iii), E – ii)
d) A – v), B – iii), C – ii), D – i), E – iv)
135- The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light
reaction is – 140- The term synergistic action of hormones refers to –
a) PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSI, a) When two hormones act hormones but bring
ferredoxin about opposite effects.
b) When two hormones act together and contribute
to the same function.
11
 c) When one hormone affects more than one 147- Different types of excretory structures and animals
function. are given below. Match them appropriately and mark
d) When many hormones bring about any one the correct answer the among those given below.
function. Excretory structure/organ Animals
A. Protonephridia i) Prawn
141- Which of the following statement is incorrect ? B. Nephridia ii) Cockroaches
a) Faecal accumulation in the rectum initiates a C. Malpighian tubules iii) Earthworm
neural reflex causing an urge for its removal D. Green gland or Antennal gland iv) Flatworms
b) Irregular bowel movements cause constipation a) D – i), C – ii), B – iii) and A – iv)
c) In diarrhea absorption of food is increased b) B – i), D – ii), A – iii) and C – iv)
d) All of these c) D – i), C – ii), A – iii) and B – iv)
d) B – i), C – ii), A – iii) and D – iv)
142- Emaciation of the body, thinning of limbs, skin
becoming dry, thin and wrinkled, impairment of 148- Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
growth and development of brain and mental faculties a) Birds and land snails are uricotelic animals
in infants less than a year in age occurs in ______. b) Mammals and frogs are ureotelic animals
a) Kwashiorkor b) Marasmus c) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are
c) Constipation d) Jaundice ammonotelic animals
d) Birds and reptiles are ureotelic
143- Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialized
centres in the brain. One of the following listed 149- Which one of the following options is incorrect ?
centres can reduce the inspiratory duration upon a) Hinge joint – between humerus and pectoral
stimulation. girdle
a) Medullary inspiratory centre b) Pivot joint – between atlas and axis
b) Pneumotaxic centre c) Gliding joint – between the carpals
c) Apneustic centre d) Saddle joint – between carpal metacarpals of
d) Chemosensitive centre thumb

144- CO2 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when 150- Which one of the following statements is true ?
a) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low a) Head of humerus bone articulates with
b) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low acetabulum of pectoral girdle
c) pCO2 and pO2 are equal b) Head of humerus bond articulates with glenoid
d) none of the above cavity of pectoral girdle.
c) Head of humerus bond articulates with a cavity
145- ECG depicts the depolarization and repolarization called acetabulum of pelvic girdle.
processes during the cardiac cycle. In the ECG of a d) Head of humerus bond articulates with glenoid
normal healthy individual one of the following waves cavity of pelvic girdle.
is not represented.
a) Depolarization of atria
(Section – A)
b) Repolarization of atria 151- The balancing organ of ear is –
c) Depolarization of ventricles a) Lagena and sacculus
d) Repolarization of ventricles b) Semicircular canal and utriculus
c) Semicircular canal and ossicles
146- The cardiac impulse is initiated and conducted further d) Otolith and lagena
upto ventricle. The correct sequence of condition of
impulse is – 152- The part of internal ear responsible for hearing is –
a) SA node AV node Purkinje fibre AV bundle a) Cochlea b) semicircular canal
b) SA node Purkinje fibre AV node AV bundle c) utriculus d) sacculus
c) SA node AV node AV bundle Purkinje fibre
d) SA node Purkinje fibre AV bundle AV node

12
153- A hormone responsible for normal sleep-wake cycle c) Organs that have no function now, but had an
is – important function in ancestors
a) Epinephrine b) gastrin d) Organs appearing only in embryonic stages and
c) melatonin d) insulin disappearing later in the adult.

154- Choose the correct option among the following. 160- A person suffering from a disease caused by
Column – I Column – II Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at
A. Epinephrine i) stimulates in muscle the time when –
growth a) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being
B. Testosterone ii) Decrease in blood rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen
pressure b) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and
C. Glucagon iii) Breakdown of liver give out certain toxins
glycogen c) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside
D. Atrial natriuretic factor iv) Increases heartbeat RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter
a) A – ii), B – i), C – iii), D – iv) fresh RBCs
b) A – iv), B – i), C – iii), D – ii) d) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are
c) A – i), B – ii), C – iii), D – iv) being destroyed by the WBCs.
d) A – i), B – iv), C – ii), D – iii)
161- Number of histone proteins in each nucleosome core
155- For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA is –
to be bombarded from gene gun are made up of a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14
a) Silver or platinum b) platinum or zinc
c) silicon or platinum d) gold or tungsten 162- Sacred groves are specially useful in –
a) Generating environmental awareness
156- Depending upon the distance between any two genes b) Preventing soil erosion
which is inversely proportional to the strength of c) Year – round flow of water in rivers
linkage, cross overs will vary from d) Conserving rare and threatened species.
a) 50 – 100% b) 0 – 50%
c) 75 – 100% d) 100 – 150 % 163- Some important events in the human female
reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the
157- Sertoli cells are found in – events in a proper sequence.
a) Ovaries and secrete progesterone A – secretion of FSH, B – Growth of corpus luteum,
b) Adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline C – Growth of the follicle and oogenesis,
c) Seminiferous tubules and secrete nutrients for D – Ovulation, E – Sudden increase in the levels of LH
germ cells a) A – D – C – E – B b) B – A – C – D – E
d) Pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin. c) C – A – D – B – E d) A – C – E – D – B

158- Cu ions released from copper – releasing intra uterine 164- Given: 1 = Natural selection; 2 = Variation and their
devices (IUDs) inheritance; 3 = Survival of the fittest; 4 = Struggle
a) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation for existence
b) Increase phagocytosis of sperms According to Darwinism, which of the following
c) Suppress sperm motility represents the correct sequence of events in the origin
d) Prevent ovulation of new species ?
a) 3, 4, 1, 2 b) 2, 3, 1, 4
159- Which one of the following correctly describes the c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 4, 2, 3, 1
homologous structures ?
a) Organs with anatomical similarities, but 165- Heroin is extracted from –
performing different functions. a) Erythroxylum coca b) Cannabis sativa
b) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but c) Papaver somniferum d) Atropa belladonna
performing same function.

13
166- A mixture containing DNA fragments, A, B, C and D, a) I) and ii) b) i) and iii)
with molecular weights of A + B = C, A > B and D > c) i), ii) and iv) d) i) and iv)
C, was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The
positions of these fragments from cathode to anode 173- Match the following and select the correct
sides of the gel would be – combination from the given options.
a) D, C, A, B b) A, B, C, D Column – I Column – II
c) C, B, A, D d) B, A, D, C (population interaction) (Examples)
A. Mutualism i) Ticks on dogs
167- When domestic sewage mixes with river water B. Commensalism ii) Balanus and
a) Small animals like rats will die after drinking Chthamalus
river water. C. Parasitism iii) Sparrow and any seed
b) The increased microbial activity releases micro – D. Competition iv) Epiphyte on a mango
nutrients such as iron branch
c) The increased microbial activity uses up E. Predation v) Mycorrhiza
dissolved oxygen a) A – i), B – v), C – iv), D – iii), E – ii)
d) The river water is still suitable for drinking as b) A – ii), B – i), C – v), D – iv), E – iii)
impurities are only about 0.1% c) A – iii), B – ii), C – i), D – v), E – iv)
d) A – v), B – iv), C – i), D – ii), E – iii)
168- An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice
a) Does not require chemical fertilisers and growth 174- Read the following four statements (A – D).
hormones A. The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk
b) Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A which was human alpha – lactalbumin enriched.
c) Is completely resistant to all insect pests and B. Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA
diseases of paddy from other macromolecules
d) Gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma. C. Downstream processing is one of the steps of
rDNA technology
169- cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control D. Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in
a) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively transfer of rDNA into the host.
b) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively Which of the two statements have mistakes ?
c) Tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively a) B and C b) C and D
d) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively c) A and C d) A and B

170- In Mendelian dihybrid cross when heterozygous 175- Which one of the following bacteria is used for
Round Yellow are self crossed, Round Green production of transgenic plants ?
offsprings are represented by the genotype a) Escherichia coli b) Bacillus subtilis
a) RrYy, RrYY, RRYy b) Rryy, RRyy, rryy c) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Rryy, RRyy d) RrYy, rryy, Rryy d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

171- In a double stranded DNA, the sequence of 176- People administered with preformed antibodies get
nucleotides in one strand is 3′ ATTCGCTAT 5′. What a) Active immunity b) innate immunity
will be the complementary sequence on the other c) natural immunity d) passive immunity
strand ?
a) 3′ TAAGCGATA 5′ b) 5′ TAAGCGATA 3′ 177- In an organism, tall phenotype is dominant over
c) 5′ ATTCGCTAT 3′ d) 5′ TAAGCGTTA 3′ recessive dwarf phenotype, and the alleles are
designated as T and t, respectively. Upon crossing two
172- Which of the following statements are correct ? different individuals, total 250 offsprings were
i) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs. obtained, out of which 124 displayed tall phenotype
ii) RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNAs. and rest were dwarf. Thus, the genotype of the parents
iii) RNA polymerase III transcribes hnRNA were
iv) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA a) TT x TT b) TT x tt

14
 c) Tt x Tt d) Tt x tt c) Fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell and
the other male gametes with the synergid
178- 3′ AAA TGC GCG ATA 5′ is the sequence of d) Fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell and
nucleotides on a gene; after transcription the mRNA the other male gamete with secondary nucleus.
formed against it and the sequence of bases in the
corresponding binding anticodons will be – 183- A parasite that lives within a plant tissue is called as
a) UUU ACG CGC UAU and AAA UGC GCG AUA a) Ectophyte b) endophyte
b) UAU CGC GCA UUU and AUA GCG CGU AAA c) epiphyte d) hydrophyte
c) UUU ACC TUG UAU and AAA UGG UAC AUA
d) UAU GUT CCA UUU and AUA CAU GGU AAA 184- The number of autosomes in human females is –
a) 26 pairs b) 22 pairs
179- The biomass available for consumption to c) 24 pairs d) 21 pairs
heterotrophs and the rate of formation of new organic
matter by consumers are defined as 185- Select the correct statement.
a) Gross primary productivity and net primary a) hPL plays a major role in parturition
productivity respectively b) fetus shows movements first time in the 7th month
b) Net primary productivity and gross primary of pregnancy
productivity respectively c) Signal for parturition comes from fully developed
c) Gross primary productivity and secondary fetus and placenta
productivity respectively d) Embryo’s heart is formed by the 2nd month of
d) Net primary productivity and secondary pregnancy
productivity respectively
(Section – B)
180- The given figure is the diagrammatic representation 186- Match Column – I with column – II and select the
of the E. coli vector pBR322 . Which of these genes correct option from codes given below.
can act as selectable marker ? Column – I Column – II
A. Chemical methods i) Tubectomy and vasectomy
B. IUDs ii) Copper T and loop
C. Barriers iii) Condom and cervical cap
D. Sterilization iv) spermicidal jelly and foam
v) Coitus interruptus and
calendar method
a) A – iv), B – ii), C – iii), D – i)
b) A – iv), B – v), C – ii), D – iii)
c) A – i), B – iii), C – ii), D – v)
d) A – iv), B – ii), C – v), D – i)

a) Ori b) Hind III 187- Read the following statements and select the correct
c) ampR, tetR d) Eco RI option.
A. Increase in melanised moths after
181- Which of the following ways is most likely to industrialization in Great Britain is a proof for
decreases the genetic diversity in a population ? natural selection.
a) Gene mutation B. When more individuals of a population acquire a
b) Genetic recombination mean character value, it is called disruption.
c) Stabilizing natural selection C. Changes in allelic frequency in a population will
d) Immigration of individuals lead to Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium.
D. Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic
182- Double fertilization in an angiospermous plant means frequency in future generations.
a) Fusion of two egg cells with two male gametes a) B alone is correct
b) Fusion of egg cell twice with male gametes b) D alone is correct
c) A and D alone are correct
15
 d) B and D alone are correct b) Net secondary productivity
c) Gross secondary productivity
188- The extinct human ancestor, who ate only fruits and d) Gross primary productivity
hunted with stone weapons was –
a) Ramapithecus b) Australopithecus 194- Which of the following comparison of prokaryotic
c) Dryopithecus d) Homo erectus transcription and eukaryotic transcription is incorrect ?
Prokaryotic Eukaryotic
189- Which is correct for Turner’s syndrome ? Transcription Transcription
a) It is a case of monosomy. a) Transcriptional unit has Transcriptional unit has
b) It causes sterility in females only one gene one or more genes
c) It is characterized by the absence of Barr body. b) Occurs in the cytoplasm occurs in the nucleus
d) All of these c) A single RNA The RNA polymerase
Polymerase synthesizes I, II and III synthesis
190- Which one of the following correctly represents the All the three types of rRNA, mRNA and tRNA
manner of replication of DNA ? RNA respectively
d) Coupled transcription Coupled transcription
translation is the rule translation is not possible

195- Which of these interactions has negative effects ?

i) Predation ii) Mutualism
iii) Commensalism iv) Parasitism
a) (i) and (iii) b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii) d) (i) only

196 – If large quantities of domestic sewage is

191- Which of the following layers of the ovum undergoes continuously emptied into a small stream, it leads to
change to prevent polyspermy when sperm contact a) Depletion of oxygen content in stream water
with it ? b) Depletion of nutrients in the stream water
a) Corona radiata b) Plasma membrane c) Enrichment of oxygen content in stream water
c) Zona pellucida d) Tunica albuginea d) Increase in the total amount of life in the stream
water.
192- Which of the following is dioecious ?
197- Insect tolerant gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is
introduced using Ti plasmid of –
a) Escherichia coli
b) Haemophilus influenza
c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
d) Arabidopsis thaliana

198- Match column – I with column – II and select the

correct option from codes given below.
Column – I Column – II
A. Cleistogamy i) Insect pollination
B. Geitonogamy ii) Bud pollination
C. Entomophily iii) Pollination between
flowers in the same plant
193- The rate at which light energy is converted into D. Xenogamy iv) Wind pollination
chemical energy of organic molecules, is the v) Cross pollination
ecosystem’s a) A – iii), B – i), C – v), D – ii)
a) Net primary productivity b) A – i), B – v), C – ii), D – iii)

16
 c) A – ii), B – iii), C – i), D – v)
d) A – v), B – iv), C – iii), D – ii)

199- Which of the following is correct regarding genetic

code ?
a) UUU is the initiation codon which also cods for
phenylalanine
b) There are 64 triplet codons and only 20 amino
acids.
c) Three random nitrogen bases specify the
placement of one amino acid.
d) UAA is the nonsense codon which also codes for
methionine

200- Select the correct statement.

a) Acetobacter aceti produces citric acid
b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used as clot buster.
c) Penicillium notatum restricts the growth of
staphylococci
d) Methanogens are found in aerobic conditions.

17