SET-A

End Term Exam-IBM 311 (Autumn 2023)

Duration: From 10:00 am to 01:00 pm. Maximum Marks: 74.

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 Response Sheet
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Fill in the correct option for each question.

Section 1 Section 1
Q. No. Options Q. No. Section4
1a b c d 34 a b c d Q. No. Options
2a b c d 35 a b c d 1a b c d
3a b c d 36 a b c d 2a b c d
4a b c d 37 a b c d 3a b c d
5a b c d 38 a b c d 4a b c d
6a b c d 39 a b c d 5a b c d
7a b c d 40 a b c d
8a b c d 41 a b c d Section 5
9a b c d 42 a b c d Q. No. Options
10 a b c d 43 a b c d 1a b c d
11 a b c d 44 a b c d 2a b c d
12 a b c d 45 a b c d 3a b c d
13 a b c d 46 a b c d 4a b c d
14 a b c d 47 a b c d 5a b c d
15 a b c d 48 a b c d
16 a b c d 49 a b c d Section 6
17 a b c d Q. No. Options
18 a b c d Section 2 1a b c d
19 a b c d Q. No. Options 2a b c d
20 a b c d 1a b c d 3a b c d
21 a b c d 2a b c d 4a b c d
22 a b c d 3a b c d 5a b c d
23 a b c d 4a b c d 6a b c d
24 a b c d 7a b c d
25 a b c d
26 a b c d Section 3
27 a b c d Q. No. Options
28 a b c d 1a b c d
29 a b c d 2a b c d
30 a b c d 3a b c d
31 a b c d 4a b c d
32 a b c d
33 a b c d
Section 1: General
Q 1 What is the correct hierarchy of the planning activities in descending order of planning
horizon:
a) Capacity Expansion, Aggregate Production Planning, Capacity Requirement
Planning, Scheduling
b) Aggregate Production Planning, Capacity Expansion, Capacity Requirement
Planning, Scheduling
c) Capacity Requirement Planning, Capacity Expansion, Aggregate Production
Planning, Scheduling
d) Scheduling, Capacity Expansion, Aggregate Production Planning, Capacity
Requirement Planning,

Q 2 Item master file is in input to the Capacity Requirement Planning?

a) True b) False

Q 3 Load profile is an output of the Material Requirement Planning?

a) True b) False

Q 4 Which of the following statement is incorrect:

a) Efficiency and utilization are the same thing.
b) Efficiency is the ratio of output and input.
c) Scheduling aims to maximize the utilization.
d) Load leveling is done to even out the utilization.

Q 5 POQ in MRP stands for

a) Periodic Order Quantity b) Production Order Quantity
b) c) Period outstanding Quantity d) Perfect Order Quantity

Q 6 The number of I’s required for each A is

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 6.
d. 12.

7. The ______________ is a lot sizing technique that orders for multiple

demand periods is referred to as
a. Lot-for-lot (L4L)
b. Periodic order quantity (POQ)
c. Economic order quantity (EOQ)
d. Multiple order quantity (MOQ)

8. Which of the following statements are not true about variation in business
processes:
a) Variation in demand is structural
b) Common cause variation is said to be prevalent when an attributable cause
can be identified.
c) Random variation and common cause variation refer to same phenomena.
d) Special cause variation is same as Assignable cause variation.

9. The scheduling rule that minimizes the makespan time for a set of jobs that
must be processed through a two-step system where every job follows the
same sequence through the two processes is
a. the shortest processing time
b. Johnson’s Rule.
c. the assignment method.
d. the minimal slack rule.

10. Which of the following is an output of MRP

a) Master production schedule
b) Item master file
c) Product structure file
d) Planned order releases

11. Which of the following topics related to O&SCM was not covered in the
course in detail:
a. MRP
b. SPC
c. Production Planning
d. QFD

12. Which of the following is not the correct expansion of the acronym:
a) CRP: Capacity Requirement Planning
b) MRP: Material Requirement Planning
c) ERP: Enterprise Resource Procurement
d) EOQ: Economic Order Quantity

13. Which of the following is the last stage of planning before production starts:
a) CRP b) MRP c) APP d) Scheduling

14. Which of the following statements is correct:

a) Slack rule is the optimal rule for sequencing
b) SPT will always yield the lowest mean completion time
 c) DDATE does not yield the minimum tardiness.
d) FIFO is the optimal rule for sequencing

15. BWE manifests as distortions in ___________of the demand signal as it

propagates upstream:
a) Amplitude
b) Phase Angle
c) Both
d) None

16. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) Red bead experiment demonstrates importance of quality intervention by top
level management.
b) Funnel experiment relates with the flow of jobs on the shop floor.
c) Leverage principle applies to the Quality Costs.
d) Pareto effect can be seen in

17. Which of the following topics was not covered in the course:
a) Production Flow Analysis
b) Material Requirement Planning
c) Johnson’s algorithm
d) Generalized Linear Programming

18. Which of the following is not true:

a) Quality is inversely proportional to variability
b) Quality can be expressed as the ratio of Expectation and Performance
c) Quality costs more than pay for themselves
d) Quality has various dimensions.

19. Which of the following statement is correct?

i) The four primary functional areas of a firm are marketing, finance,
operations, and legal.
ii) Operations management designs, operates, and improves marketing
systems.
iii) An operations manager benefits from an integrated view of business
organizations.
iv) The systematic analysis of work methods is known as operations
research.
a) Option (1) and Option (2) only
b) Option (2) and Option (3) only
c) Option (3) only
d) Option (2) and Option (3) only

20. A measurement has a mean value of 0.5 meters with a standard deviation of
0.002 meters. If sample of size 5 are drawn from this population, what is the
probability that the sample mean will be greater than 0.0501 m?
a) Approximately 23%
b) Approximately 3%
c) Approximately 13%
d) Approximately 33%

21. A measurement has a mean value of 0.5 meters with a standard deviation of
0.002 meters. If sample of size 5 are drawn from this population, 95% of the
means of these samples are expected to be in the interval:
a) 0.4961 to 0.5039
b) 0.4961 to 0.6039
c) 0.3961 to 0.6039
d) 0.3961 to 0.5039

22. The ______________ is a lot sizing technique that orders for multiple
demand periods is referred to as
a. Lot-for-lot (L4L)
b. Periodic order quantity (POQ)
c. Economic order quantity(EOQ)
d. Multiple order quantity (MOQ)

23. Which of the following statements are not true about variation in business
processes:
a) Variation in demand is structural
b) Common cause variation is said to be prevalent when an attributable cause
can be identified.
c) Random variation and common cause variation refer to same phenomena.
d) Special cause variation is same as Assignable cause variation.

24. ___________failure costs include scrap, rework, and downtime

a) External
b) Internal
c) Process
d) System

25. Which of the following is not quantitative technique for quality

management?
a) Acceptance Sampling
b) Designed Experiments
c) ISO
d) Statistical Process Control

26. Which of the following statements describing characteristic of a control

chart are false:
a) The centerline is determined by using special cause variations
b) The upper and lower control limits are based on special cause variation
c) The Centerline is determined by using the target value
d) All the above.

27. A value below the lower control limit on R chart is i)

Statistically out of control and ii) non-desirable
a) Both i) and ii) are correct
b) Only i) is correct
c) Only ii) is correct
d) None of i) and ii) are correct

28. Which of the following expressions must always be correct for a process
which is capable and is in control?
a) Tolerance> Process Variability > Control Limits
b) Process Variability > Tolerance > Control Limits
c) Tolerance> Control limits > Process Variability
d) Process Variability > Control Limits > Tolerance
e) Process Variability < Tolerance < Control Limits

29. 6 sigma in its popular sense (allowing 1.5sigma movement of mean) implies
___________defects per million.
a) 3.4
b) 2700
c) .002
d) 27000

30. 6 sigma in its true sense (fixed mean, with deviation of 6 sigma on either
side) implies ___________defects per million.
a) 3.4
b) 2700
c) .002
d) 27000

31. 6 sigma such that deviation on each side of fixed mean is 3 sigma
implies____________defects per million.
a) 3.4
b) 2700
c) .002
d) 27000

32. For a process which is in control and has the control limits as 3 sigma from
the mean value, after how many samples on an average can the organization
expect a false alarm from the control chart, e.g., a sample mean plotting
outside the 3 sigma control limits?
a) 370
b) 270
c) 290
d) 390

33. For a process which is in control and has the control limits such that
probability of getting a sample mean outside the control limits on one side of
the chart is .001. After how many samples on an average can the
organization expect a false alarm from the control chart, e.g., a sample mean
plotting outside the control limits?
a) 500
b) 400
 c) 370
d) 300

34. The mean contents of coffee cans filled on a particular production line are
being studied. Standards specify that the mean contents must be 16 units,
and from past experience it is known that the standard deviation of the can
contents is 0.1 units. A random sample of nine cans is to be used and the
control limits on the control chart set with a probability of 0.0025 on one
side of the center line. If the true mean of the process has shifted from 16 to
16.1 units, what is the probability that control chart will not detect this shift?
The decision rule for detection is any sample mean falling outside the
control limits.
a) 0.1492
b) 0.2492
c) 0.0492
d) 0.3492

35. A phantom bill of material is used

a. to group small, loose parts together.
b. when the product is manufactured in major subassemblies.
c. for subassemblies that are immediately consumed in the next stage of
production.
d. when due dates have not been calculated.

36. The extent to which the firm will produce the inputs and control the outputs
of each stage of the production process is known as:
a) vertical integration b) process flexibility c) process planning d) capital intensity.

37. Which of the following statements are correct:

i) Quality and Lean are complimentary set of ideas.
ii) Quality is directly proportional to the level of inventory.
iii) Inventory and Quality are contrasting set of ideas.
iv) Inventory and lean are contrasting set of ideas.

a) i only b) i, ii and iii c) i, ii, iii & iv d) i, ii, & iv e) ii only

38. The scheduling rule that minimizes the makespan time for a set of jobs that
must be processed through a two-step system where every job follows the
same sequence through the two processes is
a. the shortest processing time
b. Johnson’s Rule.
c. the assignment method.
d. the minimal slack rule.

39. Which of the following is an output of MRP

a) Master production schedule
b) Item master file
c) Product structure file
d) Planned order releases

40. Which of the following statements about Red Bead Experiment is not true:
a) Developed by Deming
b) Systemic variability can be corrected by worker efforts.
c) Variability in the underlying process can led to a flawed system of short
term incentives/penalties to employees
d) Systemic variability can be corrected by the intervention from the
management

41. Which of the following statements about the Funnel experiment are not true:
a) Process tempering is a desirable thing.
b) System of profound knowledge should be built around the process.
c) It demonstrates the oscillations in the process from one undesirable state to
another.
d) It demonstrates the natural variability present in all processes.

42. The underlying distribution for c-chart is

a. Poisson
b. Uniform
c. Normal
d. Binomial

43. The underlying distribution for p-chart is

a. Poisson
b. Uniform
c. Normal
d. Binomial

44. Which of the following topics related to O&SCM was not covered in the
course in detail:
a. MRP
b. SPC
c. Production Planning
d. QFD

45. Fundamental problem of O&SCM is

a) Demand and supply are not collocated
b) Demand and supply are coincidental in time
c) Demand and supply are not coincidental in time
d) Demand and supply are not relevant

i) All of the above

 ii) a) & c)
iii) b) & d)
iv) c) & d)

46. Generally, which of the following O&SC processes add the highest value
a) Marketing and Branding
b) Manufacturing
c) Design
d) Assembly

i) a and b ii) c and a iii) d iv) b

47. Which of the following statements is not correct:

a) Tracking signal is used to monitor forecasts
b) Control chart is used for monitoring of forecasts
c) Upper and lower limits on the control chart are fixed numbers and not
multiples of standard deviation of the error.
d) Upper and lower limits on the tracking signal chart are fixed numbers and
not multiples of its standard deviation.

48. When we incorrectly label a forecast out of control while it is actually in control, it
is called as type II error.
a) True
b) False

49. When we incorrectly label a forecast in control while it is out of control it is called
as Type II error.
a) True
b) False

Section 2: Sequencing 1

Process Process
Job 1 2
A 12 9
B 8 11
C 7 6
D 10 14
E 5 8

The following set of jobs must be processed serially through a two-step system. If
Johnson’s Rule is used to sequence the jobs
1. Then the order in which the jobs would be performed is
a. A-B-C-D-E
b. C-B-E-D-A
c. E-B-D-A-C
d. D-E-B-A-C
2. Then the make span time (in hours) for all jobs is
a. 42 hours.
b. 53 hours.
c. 90 hours.
d. 95 hours.

3. then Job C would start processing on operation 2 at

a. hour 13.
b. hour 26.
c. hour 47.
d. hour 53

4. Then Job A would complete processing on operation 2 at

a. hour 21.
b. hour 35.
c. hour 38.
d. hour 47.

Section 3: MRP

ITEM: D Period
Lot Size: Min 100 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
LT: 2
Gross Requirements 60 90 150 150 180 270 120
Schedule Receipts 150
Project on Hand
120
Net Requirements
Planned Order
Receipts
Planned Order
Releases

Q 1 The planned order release for period 3 is

a. 100.
b. 160.
c. 270.
d. 300.

Q 2 The planned order release for period 5 is

a. 100.
b. 120.
c. 160.
d. 270.

Difficulty: Hard

Q3: The planned order receipt for period 6 is

a. 100.
 b. 120.
c. 160.
d. 270.

Q4 The projected-on hand quantity at the end of period 3 is

a. 0.
b. 20.
c. 60.
d. 70.

Section 4: Scheduling

Machine
Product A B C D
1 10 9 16 12
2 8 14 17 5
3 19 20 11 7
4 8 18 5 10

Four products (1, 2, 3, and 4) must be processed on one of four machines (A, B,
C, and D). The times required in minutes for each product on each machine are
shown below.

1. If management wishes to assign products to machines so that the total time

to complete all the products is minimized, then Product 1 is assigned to

a. machine A.
b. machine B.
c. machine C.
d. machine D.

2. If management wishes to assign products to machines so that the total time

to complete all the products is minimized, then Product 3 is assigned to
a. machine A.
b. machine B.
c. machine C.
d. machine D.

3. If management wishes to assign products to machines so that the total time

to complete all the products is minimized, then Product 4 is assigned to
a. machine A.
b. machine B.
c. machine C.
d. machine D.

4. If management assigns products to machines so that the total time to

complete all jobs is minimized, then the time to complete Product 1 is
a. 10 minutes.
b. 9 minutes.
c. 16 minutes.
d. 12 minutes
 5. The minimum time required to complete all the products is
a. 29 minutes.
b. 27 minutes.
c. 33 minutes.
d. 36 minutes.

Section 5 Sequencing 2

Processing Due
Job Time (days) Date
A 8 12
B 6 15
C 11 17
D 7 10
E 3 8

1. If these jobs are sequenced according to the SLACK rule

a. Then the mean completion time (in days) for all jobs is (assume zero for
today’s date) 35 days.
b. 20.8 days.
c. 18.4 days.
d. 7 days.

2. Then the mean tardiness (in days) for all jobs is

a. 11.25 days.
b. 9 days.
c. 20 days.
d. 12.5 days.

3. Then the maximum job tardiness (in days) is

a. 20 days.
b. 12 days.
c. 10 days.
d. 7 days

4. Then the total number of jobs that would be late is

a. 1 job.
b. 2 jobs.
c. 3 jobs
d. 4 jobs

5. Then job A would be completed on day

a. 8.
b. 7.
c. 15.
d. 12.
Section 6: Process Capability Analysis
Kripa’s Salsa company is considering using a new container for its salsa. According
to their research, the glass containers for the salsa should have a strength between
185 and 325 psi. Kripa’s vendor has provided the following data for evaluation. For
sample size 5, A2 = 0.577, D4 = 2.115, D3 = 0 and d2 = 2.326.

1. Is there evidence that the process is in control?

a) Yes b) No

2. Is it capable of producing jars with a breaking strength between 185 and 325
psi?
a) Yes b) No

3. Estimate the two-sided process capability ratio

a) 0.7 b) 0.79 c) 0.3 d) 0.61

4. Estimate the process capability ratio for upper specification limit

a) 0.7 b) 0.79 c) 0.3 d) 0.61

5. Estimate the process capability ratio for the lower specification limit
a) 0.7 b) 0.79 c) 0.3 d) 0.61

6. Estimate the Process capability index

a) 0.7 b) 0.79 c) 0.3 d) 0.61

7. Give an estimate of non-conformance rate (in ppm).

a) 33,220 b) 11, 669 c) 44,129 d) 44,129