Upper Level ISEE Practice Test

Upper Level ISEE
Practice Test
Upper Level Practice Test
Be sure each mark completely fills the answer space.
SECTION 1
1 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 33 A B C D E
SECTION 2
4 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 36 A B C D
6 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 30 A B C D E
SECTION 3
SECTION 4
VR
Section 1
Verbal Reasoning
40 Questions Time: 20 Minutes
This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have
completed Part One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer
you select, fill in the corresponding circle on your answer document.
Part One – Synonyms
Each question in Part One consists of a word in capital letters followed by four answer choices. Select the
one word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.
SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer

GENERIC: A B C D
(A) effortless
(B) general
(C) strong
(D) thoughtful
Go on to the next page.
554 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

VR
Part Two – Sentence Completion
Each question in Part Two is made up of a sentence with one or two blanks. One blank indicates that a
word is missing. Two blanks indicate that two words are missing. Each sentence is followed by four answer
choices. Select the one word or pair of words that best completes the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS: Sample Answer

Always ------, Edgar’s late arrival surprised A B C D
his friends.
(A) entertaining
(B) lazy
(C) punctual
(D) sincere
After training for months, the runner felt ------ Sample Answer
that she would win the race, quite different A B C D
from her ------ attitude initially.

(A) confident . . . excited
(B) indifferent . . . concern
(C) secure . . . apprehensive
(D) worried . . . excited
STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.
18. Upper Level ISEE Practice Test | 555

VR
Part One – Synonyms
Directions: Select the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.
1. GRAVE: 6. DEBUNK:
(A) deadly (A) build
(B) final (B) discredit
(C) open (C) impress
(D) solemn (D) justify
2. FOMENT: 7. DISDAIN:
(A) articulate (A) annoy
(B) dissemble (B) contempt
(C) instigate (C) find
(D) praise (D) hope
3. INARTICULATE: 8. RETICENT:
(A) creative (A) anxious
(B) friendly (B) aware
(C) overly sensitive (C) informed
(D) tongue-tied (D) reserved
4. AMELIORATE: 9. PREVALENT:
(A) enjoy (A) fascinating
(B) hinder (B) minority
(C) improve (C) old-fashioned
(D) restrain (D) predominant
5. THESIS: 10. SATIATE:

(A) belief (A) deny
(B) paper (B) fill
(C) report (C) serve
(D) study (D) starve

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11. CANDID: 16. METICULOUS:
(A) defiant (A) favorable
(B) dejected (B) finicky
(C) frank (C) gigantic
(D) stingy (D) maddening
12. EMULATE: 17. JUXTAPOSE:

(A) brush off (A) keep away
(B) imitate (B) place side by side
(C) perplex (C) put behind
(D) permit (D) question
13. TAINT: 18. CONGENIAL:

(A) annoy (A) friendly
(B) handle (B) impressive
(C) infect (C) inborn
(D) master (D) magical
14. ENIGMA: 19. MITIGATE:

(A) effort (A) bend
(B) mystery (B) ease
(C) struggle (C) harden
(D) tantrum (D) untangle
15. DETRIMENTAL: 20. ELUSIVE:

(A) considerate (A) real
(B) desolate (B) slippery
(C) emphatic (C) treacherous
(D) injurious (D) unhappy

VR
Part Two – Sentence Completion
Directions: Select the word or word pair that best completes the sentence.
21. Jane felt ------- about whether to go to the 25. Thomas Jefferson was a man of -------
party or not; on one hand it seemed like talents: he was known for his skills as a
fun, but on the other, she was very tired. writer, a musician, an architect, and an
inventor as well as a politician.
(A) ambivalent
(B) apathetic (A) abundant
(C) happy (B) frugal
(D) irritated (C) mundane
(D) overblown
22. Like the more famous Susan B. Anthony,
M. Carey Thomas ------- feminism and 26. Monica could remain ------- no longer;
women’s rights. the injustices she witnessed moved her to
speak up.
(A) championed
(B) defaced (A) active
(C) found (B) furious
(D) gained (C) helpful
(D) reticent
23. Morality is not -------; cultures around
the world have different ideas about how 27. Louisa May Alcott’s Little Women is
people should be treated. really quite -------; much of the story
is based on her experiences as a young
(A) debatable
woman growing up in Concord,
(B) helpful
Massachusetts.
(C) realistic
(D) universal (A) autobiographical
(B) fictional
24. Although Ms. Sanchez ------ the student (C) moving
that he needed a good grade on the final (D) visual
exam, he did not study at all.
(A) admonished
(B) congratulated
(C) criticized
(D) ridiculed

VR
28. Though his lectures could be monotonous, 32. Although she was the daughter of a
Mr. Cutler was actually quite ------- when wealthy slaveholder, Angelina Grimke
he spoke to students in small, informal ------- slavery and ------- her whole life for
groups. the cause of abolition.
(A) amiable (A) desired . . . picketed
(B) pious (B) detested . . . dedicated
(C) prosaic (C) hated . . . wasted
(D) vapid (D) represented . . . fought
29. Craig had ------- that the day would not go 33. Rhubarb is actually quite -------, requiring
well, and just as he’d thought, he had two a large amount of sugar to make it -------.
pop quizzes.
(A) bitter . . . palatable
(A) an antidote (B) flavorful . . . fattening
(B) an interest (C) nutritious . . . sickening
(C) a premonition (D) unpopular . . . sticky
(D) a report
34. Because Martha was naturally -------, she
30. Far from shedding light on the mystery, would see the bright side of any situation,
Jason’s ------- response left people unsure. but Jack had a ------- personality and
always waited for something bad to
(A) impartial
happen.
(B) opaque
(C) risky (A) cheerful . . . upbeat
(D) systematic (B) frightened . . . mawkish
(C) optimistic . . . dreary
31. Although Marie was a talented and (D) realistic . . . unreasonable
------- performer, her gifts were often
------- because she didn’t know how to 35. Although Edgar was not telling the truth,
promote herself. his ------ succeeded: it ------- the crowd
to demand that Edgar’s competitor be
(A) faithful . . . supported
rejected.
(B) insulting . . . overlooked
(C) promising . . . satisfied (A) antipathy . . . questioned
(D) versatile . . . ignored (B) condone . . . encouraged
(C) fallacy . . . incited
(D) lie . . . permitted

VR
36. Even though the critics praised the 39. Always -------, Mr. Sanford refused to
author’s ------- use of words, they found spend any money on anything unnecessary;
the text ------- at a mere 100 pages. to him, even a meal at a restaurant was a
------- excess.
(A) hackneyed . . . threadbare
(B) improper . . . laconic (A) parsimonious . . . gratuitous
(C) precise . . . short (B) penurious . . . useful
(D) sure . . . banal (C) spendthrift . . . respectable
(D) stingy . . . selective
37. Erica’s mother could not ------- why Erica
would study a subject as ------- as the cul- 40. To her -------, Margie was given the unfair
ture of 13th century French winemakers. label of -------, even though her love of
the arts was far from superficial.
(A) fathom . . . esoteric
(B) intend . . . bizarre (A) chagrin . . . dilettante
(C) respond . . . gruesome (B) frustration . . . adversary
(D) understand . . . interesting (C) irritation . . . performer
(D) surprise . . . mentor
38. The threat of the storm did not -------
Ernie’s excitement for the race; he had
no ------- running in even the most
unpleasant of weather.
(A) diminish . . . reservations about
(B) improve . . . concerns about
(C) lessen . . . inclination to go
(D) understate . . . abilities for
STOP. If there is time,

you may check your
work in this section only.

QR
Section 2
Quantitative Reasoning
This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have
completed Part One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer
you select, remember to fill in the corresponding circle on your answer document.
Any figures that accompany the questions in this section may be assumed to be drawn as accurately as pos-
sible EXCEPT when it is stated that a particular figure is not drawn to scale. Letters such as x, y, and n stand
for real numbers.
Part One – Word Problems
Each question in Part One consists of a word problem followed by four answer choices. You may write in
your test booklet; however, you may be able to solve many of these problems in your head. Next, look at the
four answer choices given and select the best answer.
EXAMPLE 1: Sample Answer

What is the value of the expression A B C D
5 + 3 ´ (10 – 2) ¸ 4 ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 11
(D) 16
The correct answer is 11, so circle C is darkened.

QR
Part Two – Quantitative Comparisons
All questions in Part Two are quantitative comparisons between the quantities shown in Column A and
Column B. Using the information given in each question, compare the quantity in Column A to the quantity
in Column B, and chose one of these four answer choices:
(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.

(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.
(C) The two quantities are equal.
(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
EXAMPLE 2:
Column A Column B Sample Answer
50% of 40 20% of 100 A B C D
The quantity in Column A (20) is the same as the

quantity in Column B (20), so circle C is dark-
ened.
y is any real non-zero number

EXAMPLE 3: Sample Answer
Column A Column B A B C D

y 1
y
Since y can be any real number (including an

integer or a fraction), there is not enough informa-
tion given to determine the relationship, so circle
D is darkened.
STOP. Do not go on

QR
Part One – Word Problems
Directions: Choose the best answer from the four choices given.
1. Which of the following is greatest? Questions 4-5 refer to the following chart.
(A) 0.0100 Clothing Close-out
(B) 0.0099
Dresses Originally $120 Now $90
(C) 0.1900
(D) 0.0199 Coats Originally $250 Now $180
Shoes Originally $60 Now $40

Hats Originally $40 Now $20
2. Which of the following is NOT the prod-
uct of two prime numbers?
(A) 33
(B) 35 4. Which of the items for sale has the great-
(C) 45 est percent discount?
(D) 91 (A) Dresses
(B) Coats
(C) Shoes
3. If x, y, and z are consecutive even inte- (D) Hats
gers, then what is the difference between
x and z ?
(A) 0 5. Purchasing which item will save the buyer
(B) 1 the most dollars?
(C) 2 (A) Dresses
(D) 4 (B) Coats
(C) Shoes
(D) Hats

QR
6. Amy is three years older than Beth and 9. Find the maximum value of y when y =
five years younger than Jo. If Beth is b 3x2 + 2 and –3 ≤ x ≤ 2.
years old, how old is Jo, in terms of b ?
(A) 2
(A) 2b + 3 (B) 14
(B) 2b – 3 (C) 29
(C) b + 4 (D) 50
(D) b + 8
10. If b is a positive integer and (x + 5)2 = x2 +

7. If x is divided by 5, the remainder is 4. If bx + 25, then b is equal to what value?
y is divided by 5, the remainder is 1. What
is the remainder when (x + y) is divided (A) 5
by 5 ? (B) 10
(C) 20
(A) 0 (D) 25
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3 11. J is a whole number divisible by 4. J is
also divisible by 3. Which of the follow-
ing is NOT a possible value for J ?
8. If x is a factor of p and y is a factor of q,
then which of the following is true? (A) 12
(B) 24
(A) pq is a factor of xy. (C) 30
(B) pq is a multiple of x. (D) 36
(C) p is a factor of xy.
(D) p is a multiple of xy.
12. The product of 0.48 and 100 is approxi-
mately
(A) 0.5
(B) 4.8
(C) 5
(D) 50

QR
13. If the length of a rectangle is increased 15. If, in triangle ABC, the measure of angle
by 20% and the width of the rectangle is B is greater than 90°, and AB = BC, what
decreased by 10%, what is the percent is a possible measure for angle C in
increase of the area of the rectangle? degrees?
(A) 8% (A) 35
(B) 9% (B) 45
(C) 10% (C) 60
(D) 12% (D) It cannot be determined from the
information given.
A B C
16. Chumway Motors discounts the cost of a

I
H D car by 10% and then runs another special
one-day deal offering an additional 20%
off the discounted price. What discount
G F E does this represent from the original price
of the car?
14. Square ACEG shown above is composed (A) 28%
of 4 squares with sides of 1 meter each. (B) 30%
Traveling only on the lines of the squares, (C) 40%
how many different routes from A to D (D) 72%
that are exactly 3 meters long are
possible?
(A) 2 17. David scored 82, 84, and 95 on his first
(B) 3 three math tests. What score does he need
(C) 4 on his fourth test to bring his average up
(D) 5 to a 90 ?
(A) 90
(B) 92
(C) 96
(D) 99

QR
18. Howard has a coin jar filled with only 20. The ratio of yellow paint to red paint
quarters and nickels. If he has a total of to white paint needed to make a perfect
23 coins that equal $2.15, which of the mixture of orange paint is 3 to 2 to 1. If
following could be the number of nickels 36 gallons of orange paint are needed to
Howard has in the jar? paint a cottage, how many gallons of red
paint will be needed?
(A) 5
(B) 10 (A) 2
(C) 18 (B) 6
(D) 20 (C) 12
(D) 15
19. If p2 + q2 = 25 and 2pq = 10, what is the

value of (p – q)2 ?
(A) 250
(B) 100
(C) 50
(D) 15

QR
Part Two – Quantitative Comparisons
Directions: Using all information given in each question, compare the quantity in Column A to the quantity
in Column B. All questions in Part Two have these answer choices:

Column A Column B 360 is the product of 4 consecutive

integers.
21. 25% of 50 50% of 25
Column A Column B
23. The greatest of 6

the 4 consecutive
integers
A piggy bank is filled with nickels and

pennies, totaling $2.10, and the number
of pennies is double the number of Column A Column B
nickels. (Note: 1 nickel = $0.05 and 24. x2 x3
1 penny = $0.01.)
Column A Column B
22. The total value of $1.75

the nickels
Column A Column B
25. 8 – 20 ÷ 2 × 5 + 3 20

QR
Answer choices for all questions on this page.
(x + 2)(x – 2) = 0 x+2 x
=
y+2 y
Column A Column B
Column A Column B
26. x 2
30. x y+2
Column A Column B
Column A Column B
27. 36 + 16 52
31. The sum of the The sum of the
integers from 1 to even integers from
100, inclusive 1 to 200, inclusive
Column A Column B
28. 312 96
x
4 = 1.5
Column A Column B
The volume of a solid cube is 27. 32. x 5
Column A Column B
29. The height of the 3

cube

QR
Answer choices for all questions on this page.
Column A Column B A box contains 4 cookies, 5 brownies,

and 6 doughnuts. Two items are re-
1
 1
−
2  1
4 moved from the bag.
   
33. 5 5 Column A Column B
36. The probability The probability

that both items that one item is
A card is drawn from a standard deck are brownies a cookie and
and a 6-sided number cube, numbered 1 the other is a
to 6, is rolled. doughnut
Column A Column B
34. If a king is drawn If a spade is drawn

from the deck, from the deck, the
the probability of probability of roll-
A triangle has two sides measuring 4
rolling an even ing a number less
and 6, respectively.
number. than 4
Column A Column B
37. The greatest 12

When they are in season, a farmer sells possible area of
turnips for $1.80 per bunch. At the the triangle
beginning of the off-season, this farmer
increases the price per bunch by 10%;
however, at the end of the off-season,
the farmer decreases by 10% the price
of turnips per bunch.
Column A Column B
35. The price of tur- $1.80

nips per bunch at
the end of the off-
season STOP. If there is time,
you may check your

RC
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
This section contains six short reading passages. Each passage is followed by six questions based on its con-
tent. Answer the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You may write in the test booklet.
STOP. Do not go on

RC
Questions 1–6
Line
1 New Orleans was the site of the last 31 Had the combatants in New Orleans
2 major battle during the War of 1812, 32 known of the treaty, they might have
3 a lengthy conflict between British and 33 avoided a tough battle, especially the
4 American troops. The Battle of New 34 British. In the battle, a force of about 4,000
5 Orleans in January 1815 was one of the 35 American troops decisively defeated an
6 greatest victories in American military 36 enemy of nearly twice its size. At stake for
7 history. However, the great success of this 37 the soldiers was control of the waterways of
8 battle did not actually bring about the end of 38 the Mississippi, and the fighting was fierce.
9 the war. Surprisingly, the Treaty of Ghent, 39 A combination of tactical mistakes and bad
10 which declared the end of the war, had 40 weather doomed the British attack, costing
11 already been signed by both sides a month 41 them nearly 2,000 soldiers injured or killed.
12 earlier. 42 The Americans lost fewer than 200. But
13 How was that possible? There were two 43 was the terrible battle all for nothing? Some
14 major reasons. The first is that New Orleans 44 historians suggest that victory that day was
15 was relatively isolated and communication 45 crucial for the American military in order
16 in the growing United States was not as 46 to enforce and help quickly ratify the peace
17 simple as it is today. Thus, it is possible that 47 treaty. Potentially, with an American loss in
18 the British commanders and the American 48 New Orleans, the British could have found
19 general, Andrew Jackson, did not realize a 49 hope to continue the conflict.
20 treaty had been signed before they started
21 their battle. A second reason is that there is
22 a difference between a signed treaty and a
23 ratified treaty. Even if all soldiers fighting in
24 and around New Orleans had known of the
25 treaty, it had not yet been ratified by the U.S.
26 Senate. Thus, though the Treaty of Ghent
27 took place in December prior to the Battle of
28 New Orleans, the war did not officially end
29 until February 1815, when the Senate ratified
30 the treaty.

RC
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to 4. According to the passage, New Orleans
was a strategic battle site because
(A) blame the British for fighting an
unnecessary war (A) it was the only location where
(B) celebrate the tactical military American forces were better sup-
maneuvers of Andrew Jackson plied than the British forces
(C) convince readers that peace treaties (B) the American forces would be
are often worthless trapped in the swamplands if they
(D) provide greater details about the lost
end of a historical conflict (C) the British were attempting to
defeat a more numerous force
2. The passage suggests that all of the fol- (D) the Mississippi River was nearby
lowing occurred near the end of the War and control of it was important
of 1812 EXCEPT
5. After which of the following was the War
(A) Andrew Jackson ignored the orders
of 1812 officially at an end?
of President Madison
(B) Communication with the battle line (A) Both armies signing the Treaty of
commanders was slow Ghent
(C) The Treaty of Ghent was signed (B) British retreat from the Mississippi
(D) Weather conditions hurt the efforts (C) The Battle of New Orleans
of the British soldiers (D) The Senate’s ratification of the
Treaty of Ghent
3. Which of the following is implied by the
passage? 6. According to the passage, a treaty
(A) Andrew Jackson did not know the (A) cannot be signed by the president
difference between a signed treaty without the consent of the Senate
and a ratified treaty. (B) has sometimes been ignored by
(B) President Madison did not realize those in battle
the Battle of New Orleans was pos- (C) is always used to end a war
sible. (D) is not effective until it is ratified by
(C) The British may have had a chance the Senate
for victory with better conditions
and preparation.
(D) The British troops knew of the
treaty but attacked anyway.

RC
Questions 7–12
Line
1 According to game maker Hasbro, 25 Darrow had marginal success selling
2 approximately 750 million people have 26 his games in various parts of the country.
3 played the well-known game Monopoly 27 Several Philadelphia area stores were
4 since it was invented in the 1930s. Charles 28 the first to carry his game and sell it in
5 Darrow is typically credited as the inventor 29 large quantities. Despite this, Darrow had
6 of the world’s most famous board game. 30 difficulty selling his game to the major
7 However, he likely derived his version of 31 game manufacturer of the time, Parker
8 Monopoly from one of several other games 32 Brothers. He was told that his game was
9 similarly involving realty buying and selling 33 too complex and had fundamental errors
10 that were already in existence prior to the 34 in its design that would limit its appeal.
11 1930s when he got his patent for the game. 35 Ultimately, the continued sales he managed
12 A probable reason that Darrow’s 36 on his own forced Parker Brothers to
13 Monopoly became the hugely successful 37 reassess the worth of his game. Eventually,
14 game that still exists today is that he took 38 the company agreed to produce the game
15 a diligent approach to producing it. Other 39 and shortly thereafter it became the
16 similar games existed, but some of them 40 bestselling game in the country.
17 had no board or regulation pieces. With 41 That success turned Charles Darrow
18 help from his wife and son who adorned the 42 into a millionaire, which is the ultimate
19 sets with detail, Darrow personally created 43 irony. Darrow initially began work on
20 the pieces and boards that became the first 44 Monopoly to help support himself and his
21 Monopoly game sets. His extra work in 45 family following the financial troubles tied
22 creating the entire environment that players 46 to the stock market crash of 1929.
23 needed gave his game something extra that 47 Thus, Charles Darrow became a
24 other variations did not have. 48 millionaire by producing a game that allows
49 “regular” people to feel like they are buying
50 and selling homes and real estate like
51 millionaires.

RC
7. The best title for this passage would be 10. With which of the following would the
author be LEAST likely to agree?
(A) “A Comparison of Several Early
Real Estate Board Games” (A) Charles Darrow chose to continue
(B) “How Hasbro Introduced Monopoly to sell his game despite criticisms.
to the World” (B) Charles Darrow is not the first
(C) “The Early History of Charles person to conceive of a board-based
Darrow’s Monopoly” real estate game.
(D) “Two Views of Charles Darrow’s (C) Charles Darrow preferred to
Life” achieve his goals without the help
of others.
8. It is suggested by the passage that (D) Some of the things Darrow chose to
(A) Darrow decided to make his game do helped make his game sell better
less complex after initially meeting than other games.
with Parker Brothers
11. Which of the following was NOT men-
(B) Darrow had no other skills to use
tioned by the author as contributing to the
after the stock market crash of 1929
ultimate success of Monopoly?
(C) Parker Brothers probably doubted
that a complex game could sell well (A) Darrow’s efforts to initially sell the
(D) Philadelphia was the only major game on his own
city where he could sell his game (B) The addition of specific pieces and
a playing board in each set
9. As used in line 49, “regular” refers to (C) The adjustments Parker Brothers
people who made to the game
(A) rent rather than own property (D) The enjoyment people get in pre-
(B) are in the top 1% of wealthiest tending to be millionaires
people
12. The author suggests in the third paragraph
(C) love to play board games
that
(D) are in a lower economic class than
millionaires (A) certain errors in Monopoly served to
limit its appeal
(B) Charles Darrow sold his game in
Philadelphia because he knew it
would be popular there
(C) Monopoly was initially too complex
to be popular
(D) some people doubted that
Monopoly would be popular

RC
Questions 13–18
Line
1 Every year, hundreds of hopeful 32 Clearly, the 90 years of the National
2 students arrive in Washington, D.C., in 33 Spelling Bee’s existence attests to the
3 order to compete in the National Spelling 34 importance of spelling in the English
4 Bee. This competition has been held 35 language. However, struggles with spelling
5 annually since 1925 and is sponsored by 36 English words goes back much more than
6 E.W. Scripps Company. The sponsors 37 80 years. The captivating thing about
7 provide both a trophy and a monetary award 38 spelling correctly in English is that it is in
8 to the champion speller. In the competition, 39 many ways without rules. English language
9 students under 16 years of age take turns 40 has a powerful capacity to absorb new
10 attempting to properly spell words as 41 words from other languages and in doing so
11 provided by the moderator. The champion 42 make them “English” words. As a result of
12 is the sole remaining student who does not 43 this ability to borrow from other languages,
13 make a mistake. 44 the sheer number of words in English is
14 Most American students are familiar 45 much higher than any other language. Thus,
15 with the concept of a spelling bee because 46 spelling in many other languages involves
16 it is practiced in many schools throughout 47 fewer words, fewer rules, and fewer odd
17 the country. The National Spelling Bee, 48 exceptions to those rules. It turns out that a
18 however, is a much bigger setting and 49 spelling bee in most other languages would
19 showcases only the best spellers from all 50 be a waste of time. Why is that? Well,
20 parts of the nation. Students who appear 51 without the myriad exceptions to common
21 at the National Spelling Bee have already 52 vocabulary, there would be very few words
22 won competitions at local and state levels. 53 that everyone didn’t already know.
23 Winning the competition nowadays requires
24 the ability to perform under intense pressure
25 against very talented students in front
26 of a large audience. A student who wins
27 the event in the twenty-first century will
28 experience a much different challenge than
29 the first winner, Frank Neuhauser, did in
30 1925 when he defeated only nine other
31 competitors.

RC
13. The author mentions “other languages” in 16. Which of the following can be inferred
line 41 in order to point out that from the passage?
(A) English-language spelling bees are (A) A competitor at the National Spell-
unnecessarily complex ing Bee has already won at least
(B) one challenge in English-language one smaller spelling bee.
spelling bees is the number of (B) E.W. Scripps Company desires to
words that can be tested eliminate poor spelling in America.
(C) spelling bees are at least 90 years (C) Frank Neuhauser would not do well
old in today’s competition.
(D) words are harder to spell in English (D) The competition has grown too
than in any other language large.
14. According to the passage, what is a major 17. The author of the passage intends to
difference between the first National
(A) compare the presentation of the cur-
Spelling Bee and today’s competition?
rent National Spelling Bee with the
(A) Spellers in the past did not expect structure in the past
the competition to grow so large. (B) contrast the English language with
(B) The competition no longer focuses other languages
on only English words. (C) investigate the role that vocabulary
(C) There are more competitors. plays in our lives
(D) The words used today are signifi- (D) review the history and current form
cantly harder. of the National Spelling Bee
15. In line 51, the word “myriad” most nearly 18. The author’s attitude toward winners of
means the National Spelling Bee is
(A) confusing (A) admiring
(B) dangerous (B) critical
(C) linguistic (C) indifferent
(D) numerous (D) questioning

RC
Questions 19–24
Line
1 The idea of black holes was developed 24 If the star is bigger and heavier, it will
2 by Karl Schwarzschild in 1916. Since then, 25 collapse very quickly in an implosion. If the
3 many different scientists have added to the 26 matter that remains is not much heavier than
4 theory of black holes in space. A black hole 27 our sun, it will eventually become a very
5 is usually defined as a very dense celestial 28 dense neutron star. However, if the matter
6 body from which nothing, not even light, 29 that remains is more than 1.7 times the mass
7 can escape. But from what do black holes 30 of our sun, there will not be enough outward
8 originate? 31 pressure to resist the force of gravity, and
9 A black hole begins as a star. A star 32 the collapse will continue. The result is a
10 burns hydrogen, and this process, called 33 black hole.
11 fusion, releases energy. The energy released 34 The black hole will have a boundary
12 outward works against the star’s own 35 around it called the horizon. Light and
13 gravity pulling inward and prevents the star 36 matter can pass over this boundary to enter,
14 from collapsing. After millions of years 37 but they cannot pass back out again—this is
15 of burning hydrogen, the star eventually 38 why the hole appears black. The gravity and
16 runs out of fuel. At this point, the star’s 39 density of the black hole prevent anything
17 own gravity and weight cause it to start 40 from escaping.
18 contracting. 41 Scientists are still adding to the black
19 If the star is small and not very heavy, 42 hole theory. They think they may have
20 it will shrink just a little and become a white 43 found black holes in several different
21 dwarf when it runs out of fuel. White dwarf 44 galaxies, and as they learn more about them,
22 stars do not emit much energy, so they are 45 scientists will be able to understand more
23 usually not visible without a telescope. 46 about how black holes are formed and what
47 happens as the holes change.

RC
19. The purpose of the question in the first 22. According to the passage, which of the
paragraph is to following is an effect of the process of
fusion?
(A) illustrate how little we know about
black holes (A) The star does not immediately
(B) indicate the source of the facts collapse.
quoted in the passage (B) The star generates hydrogen.
(C) interest the reader in the topic of the (C) The star survives millions of years
passage longer than average.
(D) set a goal for independent research (D) The white dwarf fails to produce
light.
20. According to the passage, which of the
following causes a collapsing star to be- 23. Black holes appear black because
come a neutron star?
(A) only a little energy escapes them
(A) Mass greater than 1.7 times that of (B) only one galaxy contains them
our sun (C) they are extraordinarily large
(B) Mass less than 1.7 times that of our (D) they do not eject light they have
sun absorbed
(C) Remaining fuel that can be used in
fusion 24. Which of the following best describes the
(D) Slow, brief shrinkage process organization of the passage?
(A) It discusses the biggest, heaviest
21. The passage suggests that if we were to
celestial bodies before moving on
send a satellite to the horizon of a black
to the smaller, lighter ones.
hole, it would probably
(B) It introduces the topic and then nar-
(A) begin spinning uncontrollably and rates chronologically the process by
fly apart which stars become black holes.
(B) be immediately repelled from the (C) It uses a personal story to introduce
black hole the topic, and then compares and
(C) be pulled into the black hole and contrasts black holes.
not come back out (D) It uses the example of one specific
(D) enter, and then immediately exit, black hole in order to generalize.
the black hole

RC
Questions 25–30
Line
1 The midterm elections of 2014 had 32 picketed, and it was done so in an orderly
2 the lowest voter turnout of any American 33 and peaceful fashion. After months of
3 election cycle since World War II, with only 34 nonviolent protest, police arrested over 200
4 36.4 percent of the eligible voting public 35 women for blocking a public sidewalk in
5 casting a ballot. What is most disturbing 36 July 1917.
6 about this number is that it was less than 37 Paul and many of her followers
7 100 years ago that 200 women marched on 38 underwent a hunger strike during their
8 the White House, incurring public scorn, 39 incarceration to protest the deplorable
9 arrest, and even torture, to secure the vote 40 conditions of the prison, which resulted
10 for half the American public. 41 in many women being force-fed and Paul
11 Women’s Suffrage, the movement 42 herself being moved to the psychiatric
12 dedicated to securing women’s right to 43 ward of the hospital. The rest were sent
13 vote in the United States, began in earnest 44 to the Occoquan Workhouse. It was at
14 in the 1840s. Several Women’s Rights 45 this workhouse that the most terrible and
15 Conventions were held throughout the 19th 46 significant event of the Women’s Suffrage
16 century, beginning with the Seneca Falls 47 movement would occur. Dubbed the “Night
17 Convention of 1848, during which attendees 48 of Terror,” 44 guards armed with clubs
18 officially passed a resolution in favor of 49 attacked 33 women protesters as they
19 Women’s Suffrage. Over the next 70 years, 50 returned to the house. They were brutally
20 many brave women fought for the cause of 51 beaten, choked, and one was stabbed to
21 basic gender equality. 52 death. These events infuriated the nation
22 This fight came to a head in 1917, 53 when they were exposed, and within two
23 when members of the National Women’s 54 weeks a judge had ordered the prisoners
24 Party, led by Alice Paul, picketed outside 55 released and cleared of all charges.
25 the White House in order to influence 56 Due to the widespread gain of support
26 President Wilson and Congress to pass 57 these women earned through their peaceful
27 an amendment to the United States 58 protest and physical endurance, as well as
28 Constitution that would enfranchise women 59 the work of countless men and women of
29 and guarantee their voting rights. This 60 the previous 70 years, the 19th Amendment
30 was the first time in the history of the 61 was added to the Constitution three years
31 United States that the White House was 62 later, on August 20, 1920.

RC
25. The main purpose of the passage is to 28. According to the author, the most prob-
able legacy of the Night of Terror is
(A) portray Alice Paul as an integral
figure of the Women’s Suffrage (A) President Wilson’s pardon of the
movement protestors
(B) attribute the adoption of the 19th (B) the imprisonment of the 44 guards
Amendment solely to the Night of who attacked the protesters
Terror (C) the desired delay of the 19th
(C) describe the actions taken by part of amendment for several years
the American public to secure equal (D) the right to vote for women
voting rights
(D) demonstrate the terrible actions 29. Which of the following does the passage
of guards against women’s rights imply was a reason for the protestor’s
protestors hunger strike?
(A) They were attempting to improve
26. The word “exposed” as used in line 53
the environment of their captivity.
most closely means
(B) They were resisting being force-fed
(A) unprotected at the prison.
(B) bare (C) They wanted to be able to use the
(C) revealed sidewalk for peaceful protest.
(D) buried (D) They were unable to eat after being
choked during the Night of Terror.
27. Which of the following best expresses the
author’s attitude toward the percentage of 30. The author believes that the National
voter turnout mentioned in the first para- Women’s Party’s tactics are best de-
graph? scribed as
(A) Shock (A) calm but pointless
(B) Reassurance (B) disorderly but successful
(C) Pessimism (C) violent and immediate
(D) Terror (D) nonviolent and effective

RC
Questions 31–36
Line
1 He is one of the greatest living 31 meant that he was eventually going to lose
2 scientists of this age. In fact, he is perhaps 32 control of his muscles and spend his life in
3 one of the greatest scientists of any age. 33 a wheelchair. Surprisingly though, Hawking
4 Yet he owes much of his success not to 34 credits this event with making his outlook
5 mathematics or physics or any other science 35 on life strong again. He claims that until
6 but to a disease. He is Stephen Hawking. 36 then, he was often bored by life. For a man
7 Born in 1942, three hundred years after 37 with such a powerful mind, that makes
8 the death of Galileo, Stephen Hawking 38 sense. He was talented, but he saw little use
9 had an unimpressive start to his scholarly 39 for his talent and felt no pressure to work
10 pursuits. At his revered English primary 40 hard. His diagnosis and impending physical
11 school, St. Albans, he was considered by 41 problems forced him to start living life to
12 his teachers a good, but not exceptional, 42 the fullest.
13 student. It was not evident at the time that 43 Most of Stephen Hawking’s
14 he would become internationally acclaimed 44 contributions to science have come after
15 as a leader in several scientific fields. 45 learning of his disease. His work in the
16 He continued this moderately successful 46 field of physics has influenced the greatest
17 academic trend at University College in 47 scientists alive. If the technology ever
18 Oxford. Again, his professors thought him 48 becomes possible, he plans a trip into
19 to be intelligent, but not extraordinary in 49 space with the help of influential friends.
20 his efforts. Both his cleverness and lack 50 Though he now moves only with a special
21 of diligence were noticed by some of his 51 wheelchair and speaks only with the help
22 instructors. 52 of a computerized speech enhancer, he still
23 After graduating from Oxford, he 53 has the ability to contribute to the world. He
24 continued to Cambridge, another excellent 54 credits his disease with forcing him to face
25 school. Clearly, Hawking was moving 55 the limited time available in one lifetime.
26 forward into a good science career. 56 Stephen Hawking has made a crippling
27 However, it was at this time that he 57 disease the source of one of the greatest
28 encountered a life-changing challenge. He 58 scientific careers the world has known.
29 was diagnosed with a disease that affects 59 Through his misfortune, he learned to reach
30 and damages the nervous system. That 60 his greatest potential.

RC
31. The author’s tone is best described as 35. The passage does all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) nostalgic
(B) admiring (A) demonstrate a connection between
(C) pitying Stephen Hawking’s disease and his
(D) scornful success as a physicist
(B) describe a goal Hawking hopes to
32. The purpose of the last line of the first achieve
paragraph (“He is Stephen Hawking”) (C) note particular theories developed
is to by Hawking
(A) reveal an answer to a riddle (D) set forth educational institutions
(B) specify a subject who has already attended by Hawking
been introduced
36. The passage can best be described as
(C) answer a question the author asked
focusing primarily on
earlier
(D) name the greatest living scientist (A) biographical details
(B) medical diagnoses
33. Which of the following describes Stephen (C) scientific discoveries
Hawking’s attitude toward his disease? (D) technological advancements
(A) Actively nonchalant
(B) Bitterly irate
(C) Ironically appreciative
(D) Unreservedly giddy
34. According to the second paragraph,

Stephen Hawking was seen by some as
(A) often disrespectful
(B) particularly brilliant
(C) somewhat lazy
(D) uniquely energetic

you may check your

MA
Section 4
Mathematics Achievement
Each question is followed by four suggested answers. Read each question and then decide which one of the
four suggested answers is best.
Find the row of spaces on your answer document that has the same number as the question. In this row,
mark the space having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. You may write in your test booklet.
SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer

A B C D
What is the perimeter of an isosceles triangle

with two sides of 4 cm and one side of 6 cm?
(A) 10 cm
(B) 14 cm
(C) 16 cm
(D) 24 cm
The correct answer is 14 cm, so circle B is darkened.
STOP. Do not go on

MA
1. Which of the following pairs of numbers
are the two different prime factors of 36 ?
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 3 and 4 b° b°
(C) 3 and 12 a° b°
(D) 4 and 9
4. The four angles in the figure above share a
2. For what nonzero value of x will the common vertex on a straight line. What is
x − 3 the value of b when a equals 42° ?
expression 4 x be equal to 0 ?
(A) 38°
(A) –3 (B) 40°
(B) –2 (C) 42°
(C) 1 (D) 46°
(D) 3
5. What is 85% of 50 ?
3. Two positive whole numbers are in a ratio
of 3 to 4. If the smaller of the two num- (A) 150.75
bers is 9, what is the average of the two (B) 135
numbers? (C) 42.5
(D) 39
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 10.5 6. A set of three positive integers has a sum
(D) 12 of 11 and a product of 36. If the smallest
of the three numbers is 2, what is the
largest?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 9

MA
7. What is two-thirds of one-half? 2.7 × 107
10. Find the value of .
3.0 × 10−3
1 (A) 9.0 × 1010
(A)
3 (B) 9.0 × 109
(C) 9.0 × 104
(B) 7
6 (D) 9.0 × 103
1 11. MegaMusic decides to decrease the price

(C)
2 of a digital song from $1.60 to $1.20. The
percent decrease for this digital song is
(D) 2
3 (A) 20%
8. If the distance around an oval-shaped (B) 25%
track is 400 meters, how many laps does a (C)
1
33 %
runner have to run to cover a distance of 3
4 kilometers? (D) 40%
(1 kilometer = 1,000 meters)
(A) 4
(B) 10 12. There are x students in Mrs. Sproul’s
(C) 15 class, 4 fewer than twice as many as are in
Mrs. Puccio’s class. If there are y students
(D) 1,000
in Mrs. Puccio’s class, then what is the
value of y in terms of x ?
B
x
(A) 2+ 2
13 (B) 2x + 4
(C) 2x – 4
x
(D) – 4
A 12 C
2
9. In triangle ABC shown above, the length

of side AB is
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 11
(D) 14

MA
Questions 13–14 refer to the following
definition.
For all real numbers x, y°

#x = x2 if x is negative;
#x = 2x if x is positive. x°
13. #(–6) – #(6) =

(A) –24
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 30 15. In the figure above, what is the value of x
in terms of y ?
14. What is the value of #[#x – #y] when (A) y
x = 3 and y = –4 ? (B) 90 – y
(A) –10 (C) 90 + y
(B) 12 (D) 180 – y
(C) 32
(D) 100
16. 4 a3 b5 c2 =
4 6 3
2a b c
2ac
(A) b
ac
(B)
b
2b
(C)
c
(D) 2abc

MA
1 19. In a group of 100 children, there are 34
17. In Mr. Johanessen’s class, of the stu-
4 more girls than there are boys. How many
dents failed the final exam. Of the remain- boys are in the group?
1
ing students in the class, scored an A.
3 (A) 33
What fraction of the whole class passed (B) 37
the test but scored below an A? (C) 67
(D) 68
1
(A) 20. Samantha made a chart of her students’
4
favorite types of books.
5
(B) FAVORITE TYPE OF BOOK
12
Type of Book Number of Students
(C) 1
Mystery 8
2
Fantasy 20
7 Sci-Fi 10
(D)
12 Other 2
18. When buying new clothes for school, A circle graph is made using the data.
Rena spends $20 more than Karen and What is the central angle of the portion of
$50 more than Lynn does. If Rena spends the graph representing Sci-Fi?
r dollars, then what is the cost of all three
of their purchases in terms of r ? (A) 10°
(B) 25°
(C) 45°
(A) r + 70
(D) 90°
r + 70
(B)
3
(C) 3r – 70
(D) r + 210

MA
21. At Nicholas’s Computer World, 24. 150% of 40 is
computers usually sold for $1,500 are
(A) 30
now being sold for $1,200. What fraction
(B) 40
of the original price is the new price?
(C) 50
1 (D) 60
(A)
10
25. Jane studied for her math exam for 4
1
(B) 3
5 hours last night. If she studied
as long
4
3
(C) 4 for her English exam, how many hours
4 did she study all together?

(D) 5
(A) 3
3 y 3
22. If x = 4 , then (B) 4
4
(C) 6
(A) xy = 12
(D) 7
(B) 3y = 4x
x 4
(C) y = 3 0.966
26. =
(D) 3x = 4y 0.42
(A) 0.23
23. The ratio of boys to girls at Delaware (B) 2.3
Township School is 3 to 2. If there is a (C) 23
total of 600 students at the school, how (D) 230
many are girls?
(A) 120
(B) 240
(C) 360
(D) 400

MA
27. Nicole was able to type 35 words per 29. Sophia recorded the number of siblings
minute. If she increased her speed to 42 each student in her class has in the table
words per minute, what was the percent below.
increase in her typing speed?
SIBLINGS OF EACH STUDENT
2
(A) 16 %
3 Number of Number of Students with
(B) 20% Siblings that Number of Siblings
0 6
(C) 70% 1 10
(D) 71% 2 8
3 6
28. The first term in a series of numbers is 50. 4 1
Each subsequent term is one-half the term 5 1
before it if the term is even, or one-half
rounded up to the next whole number if What is the mode of the data?
the term is odd. What is the third term in (A) 1
this sequence? (B) 2
(A) 13 (C) 6
(B) 24 (D) 10
(C) 30
(D) 40
A B C D
30. On the number line shown above, if seg-
ment BD has a length of 18, segment AB
has a length of 5, and segment CD has
a length of 12, then segment AC has a
length of
(A) 6
(B) 11
(C) 17
(D) 23

MA
31. The decimal representation of 2 + 40 + 35. James buys one halibut steak and two
1 salmon steaks for $30.00. Dave buys two
is halibut steaks and four salmon steaks
100
for $60.00. If halibut steaks cost x dol-
(A) 24.1 lars each and salmon steaks cost y dollars
(B) 24.01 each, what is the value of x ?
(C) 42.1
(D) 42.01 (A) $5.00
(B) $8.00
32. What is the least possible integer divisible (C) $10.00
by 2, 3, 4, and 5 ? (D) It cannot be determined from the
information given.
(A) 30
(B) 40 Question 36 refers to the following definition.
(C) 60
(D) 90
For all positive integer values of x,
33. If a car travels at x miles per hour, in (x) = 1 x if x is even;
terms of x and y, how long does it take it 2
to travel y miles? (x) = 2x if x is odd.
2x 36. (1 + 5) =
(A) y
(A) 2
(B) 3
(B) xy
(C) 4
y (D) 6
(C) x
x 37. Which of the following equals 2(4z + 1) ?
(D) y (A) 2z + 1
2
(B) 2z + 1
34. Triangles ABC and PQR are similar. The
length of BC is 4 and the length of QR (C) 4z + 2
is 12. If the area of ABC is 6, what is the
area of PQR ? (D) 8z + 2
(A) 54
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 15

MA
38. The stem-and-leaf plot shown represents 41. What is the solution set to the inequality
the length, in minutes, of movies that 3− 2 x > 9 ?
Janet watched over the summer.
(A) –3 < x < 6
Stem Leaf (B) –6 < x < 3
10 8 9 (C) x < –3 or x > 6
11 1 2 2 5 5 6 7 (D) x < –6 or x > 3
12 0 3 4 8
13 2 4 6 6 7 7 9
14 2 3 3 8 9 9 42. l00xy is what percent of xy ?
15 7
(A) 10
What is the median length, in minutes, of (B) 100
the movies Janet watched? (C) 1,000
(D) 10,000
(A) 130
(B) 132
(C) 133 43. If Matt’s home is four miles from school
(D) 136 and Laura’s home is eight miles from
school, then the distance from Matt’s
39. Zoo A has 3 monkeys. Zoo B has 8 mon- home to Laura’s home is
keys. Zoo C has 16 monkeys. What is the
(A) 4 miles
average number of monkeys at the three
(B) 8 miles
zoos?
(C) 12 miles
(A) 3 (D) It cannot be determined from the
(B) 7 information given.
(C) 9
(D) 27 44. Two partners divide a profit of $2,000
40. A steak costs $4 more than a hamburger, so that the difference between the two
and a hamburger costs $4 more than a grilled amounts is half of their average. What
cheese sandwich. If six grilled cheese sand- is the ratio of the larger to the smaller
wiches cost 2x dollars, how much will 4 amount?
steaks and 2 hamburgers cost? (A) 6:1
(A) 2x + 40 (B) 5:3
(B) 2x + 48 (C) 4:1
(C) 6x + 34 (D) 2:1
(D) 12x + 40

MA
45. What is the total value, in cents, of j coins 47. The formula for the volume of a cone is
worth 10 cents each and j + 5 coins worth 1 2
25 cents each? ≠πr h, where r is the radius of the circu-
3
(A) 35j + 125 lar base and h is the height of the cone.
(B) 35j + 5
What is the radius of a cone with a vol-
(C) 10j + 130
(D) 2j + 5 ume of 12π and a height of 4 ?
(A) 3
46. A box of coins has 6 pennies, 3 nickels, (B) 4
4 dimes, and 5 quarters. If two coins are (C) 8
selected at random, what is the probabil- (D) 9
ity that the first coin is a penny and the
second coin is a quarter?
11
(A)
18
17
(B)
18
6×5
(C)
18 18
6×5
(D)
18 17

you may check your

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page. Do not write on another topic. An essay on another topic is not acceptable.
The essay is designed to give you an opportunity to show how well you can write. You should try
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You will probably want to write more than a short paragraph. You should also be aware that a copy
of your essay will be sent to each school that will be receiving your test results. You are to write
only in the appropriate section of the answer sheet. Please write or print so that your writing may
be read by someone who is not familiar with your handwriting.
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to copy the final form on to your answer sheet. You must copy the essay topic onto your answer
sheet, on page 3, in the box provided.
Please remember to write only the final draft of the essay on pages 3 and 4 of your answer sheet
and to write it in blue or black pen. Again, you may use cursive writing or you may print. Only
pages 3 and 4 will be sent to the schools.
Directions continue on next page.

REMINDER: Please write this essay topic on the first few lines of page 3 of your answer sheet.
Essay Topic
If you could change one thing about your country, what would you change
and why?
• Only write on this essay question

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NOTES
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ISEE UL ISEE UL
ISEE UL Verbal 1 ISEE UL Math 4
Quantitative 2 Reading 3
1. D 1. C 1. D 1. A
2. C 2. C 2. A 2. D
3. D 3. D 3. C 3. C
4. C 4. D 4. D 4. D
5. A 5. B 5. D 5. C
6. B 6. D 6. D 6. C
7. B 7. A 7. C 7. A
8. D 8. B 8. C 8. B
9. D 9. C 9. D 9. A
10. B 10. B 10. C 10. B
11. C 11. C 11. C 11. B
12. B 12. D 12. D 12. A
13. C 13. A 13. B 13. C
14. B 14. B 14. C 14. D
15. D 15. A 15. D 15. B
16. B 16. A 16. A 16. D
17. B 17. D 17. D 17. C
18. A 18. C 18. A 18. C
19. B 19. D 19. C 19. A
20. B 20. C 20. B 20. D
21. A 21. C 21. C 21. D
22. A 22. B 22. A 22. A
23. D 23. C 23. D 23. B
24. A 24. D 24. B 24. D
25. A 25. B 25. C 25. D
26. D 26. D 26. C 26. B
27. A 27. A 27. C 27. B
28. A 28. C 28. D 28. A
29. C 29. C 29. A 29. A
30. B 30. B 30. D 30. B
31. D 31. B 31. B 31. D
32. B 32. A 32. B 32. C
33. A 33. A 33. C 33. C
34. C 34. C 34. C 34. A
35. C 35. B 35. C 35. D
36. C 36. B 36. A 36. B
37. A 37. C 37. D
38. A 38. B
39. A 39. C
40. A 40. A
41. C
42. D
43. D
44. B
45. A
46. D
47. A

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Upper Level ISEE

40 Questions Time: 20 Minutes

SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer

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554 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

SAMPLE QUESTIONS: Sample Answer

from her ------ attitude initially.

18. Upper Level ISEE Practice Test | 555

5. THESIS: 10. SATIATE:

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556 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

12. EMULATE: 17. JUXTAPOSE:

13. TAINT: 18. CONGENIAL:

14. ENIGMA: 19. MITIGATE:

15. DETRIMENTAL: 20. ELUSIVE:

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18. Upper Level ISEE Practice Test | 557

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558 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

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18. Upper Level ISEE Practice Test | 559

STOP. If there is time,

560 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

37 Questions Time: 35 Minutes

EXAMPLE 1: Sample Answer

The correct answer is 11, so circle C is darkened.

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18. Upper Level ISEE Practice Test | 561

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.

The quantity in Column A (20) is the same as the

y is any real non-zero number

Since y can be any real number (including an

562 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

Shoes Originally $60 Now $40

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564 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

10. If b is a positive integer and (x + 5)2 = x2 +

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18. Upper Level ISEE Practice Test | 565

16. Chumway Motors discounts the cost of a

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566 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

19. If p2 + q2 = 25 and 2pq = 10, what is the

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18. Upper Level ISEE Practice Test | 567

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.

Column A Column B 360 is the product of 4 consecutive

23. The greatest of 6

A piggy bank is filled with nickels and

22. The total value of $1.75

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568 | Cracking the SSAT & ISEE

The volume of a solid cube is 27. 32. x 5

29. The height of the 3

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18. Upper Level ISEE Practice Test | 569

Column A Column B A box contains 4 cookies, 5 brownies,

36. The probability The probability

34. If a king is drawn If a spade is drawn

37. The greatest 12