MANA3010 - Ch9 - Final Exam Hint

Organizational Behavior, 19e (Robbins/Judge)
Chapter 9 Foundations of Group Behavior
1) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a
part of is the territory of the ________ theory.
A) social exchange
B) expectancy
C) social identity
D) reinforcement
E) equity
Explanation: Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group
is the territory of social identity theory.
LO: 9.1: Distinguish between the different types of groups.
AACSB: Interpersonal relations and teamwork
Difficulty: Moderate
Quest. Category: Concept
2) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?
A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the
group in the event of any offenses or failures.
B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group
because their self-esteem is tied into the group's performance.
C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more
defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how
members of an ingroup view members of an out-group.
E) It proposes that members of an ingroup are viewed as being homogeneous, while members of
an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.
Explanation: Social identity theory proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure
or success of their group because their self-esteem gets tied into the group's performance.
3) At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural
background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal
compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company's day-to-day
functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner's
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cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing
from different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.
A) social loafing
B) ingroup favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange
Explanation: We tend to "play favorites" or see our ingroup as better than other people. For
example, some research suggests that favoritism and not hostility might cause most
discriminatory behaviors. By playing favorites with their own ingroup (e.g., people of the same
race/ethnicity, gender identity, etc.), employees and managers alike may be complicit in
discrimination. People fall into the dangerous trap of believing that those who belong to different
outgroups are "all the same," contributing to the polarization of people.
AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments
Quest. Category: Application
4) In which stage of an alternative model to the punctuated equilibrium model do members begin
to work collaboratively?
A) Forming
B) Reforming
C) Storming
D) Performing
E) Norming
Explanation: Alternative models suggest that teams progress through a formation stage, a
conflict resolution or "storming" stage, a "norming" stage where members agree on roles and
make decisions, and a "performing" stage where members begin to work collaboratively. The
forming, storming, norming, and performing stages may occur at phase one of the punctuated-
equilibrium model, while a second performing and conforming stage may occur in the second
phase, following a short period of reforming group norms and expectations.
LO: 9.2: Describe the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development.
5) Explain the punctuated-equilibrium model.

Answer: Temporary groups with deadlines do not seem to follow the usual five-stage model. An
alternative model to explain the growth of temporary groups is the punctuated-equilibrium
model. The punctuated-equilibrium model characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of
inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered primarily by members' awareness
of time and deadlines. Under this model, group development occurs along the following stages:
(1) their first meeting sets the group's direction, (2) this first phase of group activity is one of
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inertia, (3) a transition takes place exactly when the group has used up half its allotted time, (4)
this transition initiates major changes, (5) a second phase of inertia follows the transition, and (6)
the group's last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity.
LO: 9.2: Describe the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development.
6) Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His
manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael
would like the promotion but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In
this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________.
A) role conflict
B) social loafing
C) groupthink
D) role fuzziness
E) groupshift
Explanation: When compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with
another, the result is role conflict. Michael is experiencing conflict between his role as a church
member and his role as an employee.
LO: 9.3: Show how role requirements change in different situations.
AACSB: Analytical thinking
Employability Skills: Knowledge Application and Analysis
7) What is the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.

Answer: When compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with
another, the result is role conflict. Since most employees are simultaneously in occupations,
work groups, divisions, and demographic groups, these different identities can come into conflict
when the expectations of one clash with the expectations of another. In such situations, they
conform to the norms and expectations of important groups to which they belong or hope to
belong. These important groups are reference groups, in which a person is aware of other
members, defines himself or herself as a member or would like to be a member, and feels group
members are significant to him or her.
LO: 9.3: Show how role requirements change in different situations.
Quest. Category: Synthesis
8) ________ refer(s) to the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the
group's members.
A) Status
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B) Norms
C) Dyads
D) Goals
E) Cliques
Explanation: Norms represent the acceptable standards of behavior shared by group members
that express what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances.
LO: 9.4: Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.
Difficulty: Easy
9) How can norms be used to reduce deviant workplace behavior?

Answer: Deviant workplace behavior (also called antisocial behavior or workplace incivility) is
voluntary behavior that violates significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threatens the
well-being of the organization or its members. Norms are the acceptable standards of behavior
shared by their members that express what they ought and ought not to do under certain
circumstances. Like norms in general, individual employees' antisocial actions are shaped by the
group context within which they work. Evidence demonstrates that antisocial behavior exhibited
by a work group is a significant predictor of an individual's antisocial behavior at work. In other
words, deviant workplace behavior is likely to flourish where it's supported by group norms.
Managers must observe the various aspects of group norms keenly. If and when deviant
workplace norms surface, they must anticipate negative changes in employee cooperation,
commitment, and motivation and take remedial steps. Further, establishing norms that have clear
demarcations as to what constitutes deviant workplace behavior and its implications is likely to
reduce such acts in the workplace.
Employability Skills: Critical Thinking
10) Within the context of group decision making, explain effectiveness and efficiency.
Answer: Whether groups are more effective than individuals depends on how you define
effectiveness. Group decisions are generally more accurate than the decisions of the average
individual in a group, but they are less accurate than the judgments of the most accurate person.
In terms of speed, individuals are superior. If creativity is important, groups tend to be more
effective. And if effectiveness means the degree of acceptance of achievable solutions, groups
are superior.
11) Chris Bradford thrives in his position as senior analyst for a major electric power project.
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Despite the high pressure and tight deadlines that shape his day, Chris finds his work fulfilling
and meaningful. Chris recently assigned several of his best team members to work together on an
important and urgent task and was happy to see the team meeting. Chris was in a state of
disbelief however, when, at the halfway point on the project, he checked on the team's progress
only to find that the team was far behind schedule. This scenario reflects ________.
A) groupthink
B) collective efficacy
C) social loafing
D) groupshift
E) ingroup favoritism
Explanation: Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working in
a group than when working individually. Group performance increases with group size, but the
addition of new members has diminishing returns on productivity.
LO: 9.5: Show how status and size differences affect group performance.
12) A contributing factor with regard to social loafing is ________.

A) difficult task assignments
B) high collective efficacy
C) severe time constraints
D) diffusion of responsibility
E) heavy workload
Explanation: Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working in
a group than when working individually. One explanation for social loafing is the diffusion of
responsibility. Because group results cannot be attributed to any single person, the relationship
between an individual's input and the group's output is clouded. Individuals may then be tempted
to become free riders and coast on the group's efforts.
LO: 9.5: Show how status and size differences affect group performance.
Difficulty: Easy
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13) If norms for output and cooperation with outsiders is ________, a cohesive group ________
productive.
A) high; will be
B) low; will be
C) strong; won't be
D) weak; won't be
E) turbulent; will be
Explanation: If norms for output and cooperation with outsiders is high, a cohesive group will
be productive. Conversely, when cohesion is low and performance norms are high, productivity
will be only moderate.
LO: 9.6: Describe how cohesion is related to group effectiveness.
14) What is the relationship between performance norms, cohesiveness, and group productivity?
Answer: Cohesiveness increases group productivity, and this relationship between cohesiveness
and productivity depends on the group's performance-related norms.
If norms for quality, output, and cooperation with outsiders, for instance, are high, a
cohesive group will be more productive than will a less cohesive group.
However, if cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be
low.
If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity increases, but less
than in the high-cohesiveness/ high-norms situation. When cohesiveness and performance-
related norms are both low, productivity tends to fall into the low-to-moderate range.
LO: 9.6: Describe how cohesion is related to group effectiveness.
80) Increased ________ is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual
decision making.
A) ambiguous responsibility
B) conformity pressures
C) diversity of views
D) dispersion of accountability
E) pace of decision making
Explanation: By aggregating the resources of several individuals, groups bring more input as
well as heterogeneity into the decision process. They offer increased diversity of views. This
opens up the opportunity to consider more approaches and alternatives.
LO: 9.7: Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.
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15) Sonia Soans is a corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to
present a case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst
each other. Using the results of the activity, she understands the baseline measures of the group's
functioning. During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus
very quickly. However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too
confident and appeared to be under an illusion of unanimity. From this scenario, we can say that
this group experienced ________.
A) diversity
B) groupshift
C) role conflict
D) groupthink
E) social loafing
Explanation: Groupthink relates to norms and describes situations in which group pressures for
conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.
16) For seven years, Bonnie Patterson has been a manager at Wayne and Watson, a legal
consultancy firm. A good part of her workday involves holding meetings, and she likes to follow
a well-defined schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the
beginning of the meeting, followed by some time to contemplate the issue at hand individually.
Subsequently, the team members present their ideas one after the other, the group discusses them
together, and lastly, a ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the
________ approach of group decision making.
A) interacting
B) reference group
C) brainstorming
D) nominal group
E) groupthink
Explanation: The nominal group technique restricts discussion or interpersonal communication

during the decision-making process, hence the term nominal. Group members are all physically
present, as in a traditional committee meeting, but they operate independently.
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17) What is the nominal group technique?
Answer: The nominal group technique restricts discussion or interpersonal communication
during the decision-making process. Group members are all physically present, as in a traditional
committee meeting, but they operate independently. Specifically, a problem is presented and
then the group takes the following steps:
1. Members meet as a group, but before any discussion takes place, each independently writes
down ideas on the problem.
2. After this silent period, each member presents one idea to the group. No discussion takes place
until all ideas have been presented and recorded.
3. The group discusses the ideas for clarity and evaluates them.
4. Each group member silently and independently rank-orders the ideas. The idea with the
highest aggregate ranking determines the final decision.
AACSB: Reflective thinking
18) What are the advantages and disadvantages of group decisions as compared to individual
decisions?
Answer: As compared to individuals, groups generate more complete information and
knowledge. By aggregating the resources of several individuals, groups bring more input as well
as heterogeneity into the decision process. They offer increased diversity of views. This opens up
the opportunity to consider more approaches and alternatives. Finally, groups lead to increased
acceptance of a solution. Group members who participate in making a decision are more likely to
support it enthusiastically and to encourage others to accept it later. However, group decisions
are time-consuming because groups typically take more time to reach a solution. There are
conformity pressures. The desire by group members to be accepted and considered an asset to the
group can squash any overt disagreement. Group discussion can be dominated by one or a few
members. If they're low-and medium-ability members, the group's overall effectiveness will
suffer. Finally, group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility. In an individual decision,
it's clear who is accountable for the final outcome. In a group decision, the responsibility of any
single member is diluted.
19) Explain the impact of brainstorming on the possibility of groupthink.

Answer: Groupthink is related to norms. It represents a phenomenon that occurs when the norm
for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses and the full expression of
deviant, minority, or unpopular views. Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity
that dampen creativity by encouraging any and all alternatives while withholding criticism. The
norm for consensus is the cause of groupthink, while brainstorming is focused on unhampered
generation of ideas.
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20) What is group polarization?
Answer: We can view group polarization as a special case of groupthink. The group's decision
reflects the dominant decision-making norm – toward greater caution or more risk – that
develops during discussion. The shift toward polarization has several explanations. It's been
argued that discussion makes the members more comfortable with each other and thus more
willing to express extreme versions of their original positions. Another argument is that the
group diffuses responsibility. Group decisions free any single member from accountability from
the group's final choice, so a more extreme position can be taken. It's also likely that people take
extreme positions because they want to demonstrate how different they are from the outgroup.

Chapter 11 Communication
1) Which of the following statements is true with regard to communication?

A) Communication cannot be used to motivate and control employees in an organization.
B) Communication involves the transfer and understanding of meaning.
C) Communication involves the mere imparting of meaning to another person or group.
D) Perfect communication is not dependent on a channel and its richness.
E) Perfect communication results in dissimilar mental models.
Explanation: Communication must include both the transfer and the understanding of meaning.
In ideal communication, if it existed, a thought would be perfectly understood by the person
receiving the message exactly how the sender would have intended.
LO: 11.1: Describe the types of interpersonal communication.
AACSB: Written and oral communication
2) ________ refers to the idea that both the sender and receiver are present, aware, and focused
on the communication exchange.
A) Conversation
B) Speech exchange
C) Discussion
D) Synchronicity
E) Listening
Explanation: Synchronicity refers to the idea that both the sender and receiver are present,
aware, and focused on the communication exchange.
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3) Advantages to synchronous communication are speed, feedback, and ________.

A) discussion
B) filtering
C) emotional expression
D) control
E) exchange
Explanation: The advantages of synchronous communication are speed, feedback, and

exchange.
Difficulty: Easy
4) Which of the following is an example of asynchronous communication?

A) Filtering
B) Voicemail
C) Emotional expression
D) In-person discussions
E) Zoom meetings
Explanation: Whenever you check your voicemail, you are engaging in asynchronous oral
communication. Asynchronous communication involves verbal messages being sent and
received outside a physically or psychologically present communication exchange.
Difficulty: Hard
5) How can employees better manage the information overload associated with e-mail?
Answer: Researchers and practitioners have a number of suggestions to manage your inbox
effectively if you are struggling from e-mail overload:
• Turn off notifications.
• Check your e-mail at regular intervals (exact times during the day–for instance, every three
hours).
• Immediately move your e-mail out of your inbox after reading.
• Use the search functionality and e-mail filters to find e-mails.
• Use shortcuts to archive e-mails in a small number of categorized folders.
• Single out important e-mails individually; process and treat less important e-mails in groups
or batches.
• Use "reply all" thoughtfully and only when all people need to receive your response (to avoid
clogging their inboxes).
• Do not treat e-mail like an in-person dialogue.
• Avoid the temptation to skim or skip e-mails.
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• Think before you send.
6) Explain how contact and touch act as a form of nonverbal communication.

Answer: Touch can help provide support during times of loss and need, communicate warmth
and welcoming, and even lead to improved team performance through increases in cooperative
intent. Handshaking during job interviews is important for molding and managing impressions.
Touch in the workplace is, well, a touchy subject, but it is more common than one would think.
Some touch and contact are required in specific occupations (e.g., doctors, personal trainers, hair
stylists), and others are normatively appropriate (e.g., tapping someone on the shoulder to ask
them a question). However, touching and physical contact at work have become the subject of
great scrutiny, with the #MeToo movement highlighting inappropriate touching in the workplace
and the COVID-19 pandemic bringing to surface the health risks of physical contact between co-
workers. This scrutiny led to the question of whether contact that communicates warmth or
intimacy (e.g., hugging) is appropriate in the workplace. Employees and managers need to learn
and respect one another's boundaries, and when there is physical contact involved, keep a light
brief touch. Moreover, in the wake of the pandemic, other forms of physical contact to replace
hugs and handshakes have become more popular (e.g., fist or elbow bumps).
7) Which of the following is true of information overload?

A) Most people dislike being overloaded with information.
B) The number of people who like "so much information" increased between 2006 and 2016.
C) Between 2006 and 2016 the number of people who felt information overload increased
substantially.
D) Smart phones have made it more difficult than ever for people to manage information.
E) Socioeconomic status has no impact on information overload.
Explanation: Research over the past several decades suggests that most people actually like
being overloaded with information on a daily basis. Between 2006 and 2016, for instance, the
number of people who felt information overload decreased from 27 to 20 percent. On the other
hand, the number of people who like "so much information" increased from 67 to 77 percent.
The comfort with information overload is primarily attributable to the rise in smart gadgets and
devices that people use to manage large amounts of information. These devices enable them to
keep up with demands, determine what information to trust more quickly, and have control over
their lives. Some research suggests that the differences in perceptions of information overload
might be attributable to socioeconomic status. Not everyone has access to smart technology (e.g.,
smartphones, smarthomes, digital assistants, tablets, and broadband Internet).
LO: 11.2: Evaluate how to choose communication methods and handle barriers to effective
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communication.
8) Which of the following communication channels provides the highest information richness?
A) e-mail
B) in-person conversations
C) online group discussions
D) voice mail
E) memos and letters
Explanation: Rich communication channels can (1) handle multiple cues simultaneously, (2)
facilitate rapid feedback, and (3) be very personal. In-person conversation scores highest in
channel richness because it transmits the most information per communication episode.
LO: 11.3: Discuss the various forms of virtual communication used in modern organizations.
Difficulty: Easy
9) When the middle-level manager of the production department at Wilson Works was laid off,
many employees who worked under him became apprehensive about their job security. They
were aware of the current trend toward laying off employees in the economy. The termination of
their manager combined with the fact that their division had performed only moderately well in
the last two quarters led the employees to believe that they were at a high risk of losing their jobs
as well. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument that the production manager
should hold face-to-face meetings to assure the employees in the production division?
A) The employees have serious concerns over job security.
B) Rumors had spread about impending layoffs at Wilson Works.
C) The middle-level manager supervised over five hundred employees.
D) Wilson Works has a strong formal communication network in place.
E) The company has no fixed policy with regard to rightsizing employees.
Explanation: The fact that the employees have serious concerns over job security strengthens the
argument that the production manager should hold face-to-face meetings to assure the employees
in the production division. The fact that rumors had spread about impending layoffs at Wilson
Works also strengthens the argument that the production manager should hold face-to-face
meetings to assure the employees in the production division. The fact that the middle-level
manager supervised over five hundred employees weakens the argument that the production
manager should hold face-to-face meetings to assure the employees in the production division as
it is not feasible. The fact that Wilson Works has a strong formal communication network in
place does not strengthen or weaken the argument presented here. The fact that the company has
no fixed policy with regard to rightsizing employees does not strengthen or weaken the argument
presented here.
LO: 11.3: Discuss the various forms of virtual communication used in modern organizations.
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Difficulty: Hard
Quest. Category: Critical Thinking
10) Discuss the major implications of social media on explicit persona and relational outcomes.
Answer: First, social media can be a double-edged sword for people. It can be a good thing for
employees' happiness and well-being when it enables them to make meaningful connections but
a bad thing when it leads to comparing themselves with other people or makes them feel
alienated. Second, research has demonstrated that social media can lead employees to engage in
constructive dialogue with managers and co-workers, but only when they feel they have a sense
of autonomy in what they can say online (e.g., a psychologically safe online space) and identify
with their organization. Furthermore, social media can lead employees to develop and build
relationships with others who can help them in their careers, a benefit particularly enjoyed by
those with extroverted personality traits. However, the relational benefits of social media can be
completely undermined if employees become caught up in competition and social comparison.
Finally, in the team context, social media can help develop shared cognition among members by
enabling members to manage and expand their teams' network, by integrating content they can
use to better perform their jobs, and by making thoughts and decisions more accessible for use in
later team taskwork (e.g., recorded discussions on a Facebook group news feed). Social media
can also facilitate the sharing of knowledge among team members as it can lead employees to
develop a collective sense of trust and curiosity.
LO: 11.4: Analyze the issues surrounding smartphones, social media, and cybersecurity
confronting modern organizations.
11) How can companies help employees who are being cyberbullied?
Answer: (1) Organizations must recognize the harm that online harassment can cause. Creating
an environment in which employees feel comfortable, supported, and protected when reporting
online abuse is essential. Many individuals who experience online harassment may have also
been marginalized in other situations. As such, they may feel uneasy about potentially being
dismissed, mocked, or even reprimanded. (2) Survey employees to determine the extent to which
they face online harassment and how they are handling it. The survey should investigate how
often employees are facing abuse and on what platforms. Also important is assessing the
emotional, psychological, and professional impact of the harassment. (3) Develop protocols and
training. These can help ensure that employees know the concrete steps they can take to protect
themselves in case of online abuse. (4) Promote peer support networks. Online abuse can
potentially lead those who experience it to feel isolated and alone. Peer support networks can
give employees a space to find community, share experiences, and exchange strategies. (5)
Managers can play a crucial role by reaching out and listening to employees. Due to their
identities or life experiences, some employees may not feel comfortable sharing their situations
publicly, so being discreet might be best.
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LO: 11.4: Analyze the issues surrounding smartphones, social media, and cybersecurity
confronting modern organizations.
AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning
Employability Skills: Business Ethics and Social Responsibility
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12) ________ is an example of a high-context culture.
A) Kenya
B) Australia
C) Denmark
D) Germany
E) United States
Explanation: In high-context culture such as Japan, Kenya, Saudi Arabia, and India, people rely
heavily on nonverbal and subtle cues in communicating with others, and a person's official
status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight. What is not said may be more
significant than what is said. In contrast, people from low-context cultures such as the United
States, Australia, Germany, and Denmark rely essentially on spoken and written words to convey
meaning; body language and formal titles are secondary.
LO: 11.5: Recognize how to engage in effective cross-cultural communication in organizations.
Difficulty: Easy
13) People from ________ share a low context culture.

A) Scandinavia
B) Saudi Arabia
C) Greece
D) South Korea
E) China
Explanation: In high-context culture such as Japan, Kenya, Saudi Arabia, and India, people rely
heavily on nonverbal and subtle cues in communicating with others, and a person's official
status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight. What is not said may be more
significant than what is said. In contrast, people from low-context cultures such as the United
States, Australia, Germany, and Denmark rely essentially on spoken and written words to convey
meaning; body language and formal titles are secondary.
Difficulty: Easy
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14) Eleanor is preparing for a meeting with a new client. In doing her research, Eleanor has
discovered that when it comes to communication, she should expect that the client will be
focused on spoken and written words rather than body language and formal titles. Eleanor's
client is most likely from ________.
A) China
B) Japan
C) Denmark
D) Saudi Arabia
E) Greece
Explanation: Eleanor's client is most likely from Denmark, a low context culture. People from
low context cultures rely essentially on spoken and written words to convey meaning; body
language and titles are secondary.
15) Harry has decided to acknowledge his colleague's culture and disregard his own when he
meets her next week. Harry plans to engage in ________.
A) imposing
B) avoiding
C) embracing
D) synergizing
E) compromising
Explanation: The five approaches to cross-cultural interaction are: avoiding (putting aside
cultural preferences, values, practices, or customs often for tactical or strategic reasons);
imposing (asserting one's own cultural preferences, values, practices, and customs without
acknowledging others' cultural approaches); embracing (putting aside one's own cultural
preferences, values, practices, and customs in order to acknowledge or embrace others' cultural
approaches); synergizing (celebrating both interaction partners' cultural preferences, values,
practices, and customs, often in an improvisational or flexible way); compromising (treating the
cultural interaction as a give-and-take, recognizing when cultural preferences, values, practices,
and customs conflict and embracing some and putting aside others in order to reduce conflict).
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16) A manager who celebrates both interaction partners' cultural preferences is engaging in
________ interaction.
A) synergizing
B) embracing
C) avoiding
D) imposing
E) compromising
Explanation: The five approaches to cross-cultural interaction are: avoiding (putting aside
cultural preferences, values, practices, or customs often for tactical or strategic reasons);
imposing (asserting one's own cultural preferences, values, practices, and customs without
acknowledging others' cultural approaches); embracing (putting aside one's own cultural
preferences, values, practices, and customs in order to acknowledge or embrace others' cultural
approaches); synergizing (celebrating both interaction partners' cultural preferences, values,
practices, and customs, often in an improvisational or flexible way); compromising (treating the
cultural interaction as a give-and-take, recognizing when cultural preferences, values, practices,
and customs conflict and embracing some and putting aside others in order to reduce conflict).

Chapter 13 Power and Politics
1) According to the text, the most important aspect of power is probably that it is a function of
________.
A) goal congruency
B) realization
C) inheritance
D) dependence
E) altruism
Explanation: Probably the most important aspect of power is that it is a function of dependence.
Power does not require goal compatibility, just dependence. Leadership, on the other hand,
requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led. For a power
situation to exist, one person or group needs to have control over resources the other person or
group values.
LO: 13.1: Contrast leadership and power.
2) Which of the following statements is true regarding power?

A) A is said to have power over B if B controls something that A desires.
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B) The greater A's dependence on B, the greater A's power in the relationship.
C) The more B and C rely on A, the more powerful A becomes.
D) A can have power over B only if A is B's leader.
E) A can have power over B only when A and B have similar goals.
Explanation: The more people rely or depend upon the powerful person (who controls
something the others rely on or want), the more powerful that person becomes. When people
begin to have more alternatives and options or begin to rely on themselves or different people,
the powerful person loses power.
3) Compare and contrast leadership and power.

Answer: Power does not require goal compatibility, just dependence. Leadership, on the other
hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led. A second
difference relates to the direction of influence. Power focuses more on the downward influence
on followers. It minimizes the importance of lateral and upward relationships, which are
important in leadership. For a third difference, leadership often emphasizes style. It seeks
answers to questions such as "How supportive should a leader be?" and "How much decision
making should be shared with followers?" In contrast, power focuses on tactics for securing
compliance.
4) Joanna Mills has recently been promoted to the position of a project manager at Palmer Inc., a
software development firm. As a project manager, she now has the authority to delegate work,
provide supervision and feedback, and monitor employee performance. Ever since her
promotion, she has been preparing herself to guide her subordinates in different project activities.
However, she feels that the employees do not proactively approach her for help. Which of the
following, if true, would best explain this situation?
A) Joanna has several years of experience in working on software programs.
B) The sole criterion for Joanna's promotion was her effectiveness in meeting individual targets.
C) Employees identify with Joanna because she successfully rose from the position of a
programmer to that of a manager.
D) The managers who promoted her believed that her approachable nature would be a key factor
in improving team performance.
E) The company follows a 360-degree performance evaluation system.
Explanation: The fact that Joanna has several years of experience in working on software
programs does not explain why her team members do not approach her for help. The fact that the
sole criterion for Joanna's promotion was her effectiveness in meeting individual targets does
explain why her team members do not proactively approach her for help. While the promotion
provided her with legitimate power, she does not enjoy referent power, which would encourage
19
team members to reach out to her for help. The fact that the employees identify with Joanna
because she successfully rose from the position of a programmer to that of a manager does not
explain the current situation. The fact that the managers who promoted her believed that her
approachable nature would be a key factor in improving team performance does not explain why
her team does not approach her for help. The fact that the company follows a 360-degree
performance evaluation system does not explain why her team does not approach her for help.
LO: 13.2: Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.
Difficulty: Hard
Quest. Category: Critical Thinking
5) Which of the following types of power is most likely to be negatively related to employee
satisfaction and commitment?
A) Expert power
B) Reward power
C) Legitimate power
D) Coercive power
E) Referent power
Explanation: The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to
comply. It is negatively related to employee satisfaction and commitment. When subordinates
are being abused by supervisors, coercive power is often the main force that keeps them from
retaliating.
6) Describe the bases of formal power.

Answer: Formal power can come from the ability to coerce or reward, from formal authority, or
from control of information.
a) Coercive power: The coercive power base is dependent on fear. One reacts to this power out
of fear of the negative results that might occur if one failed to comply. A has coercive power
over B if A can dismiss, suspend, or demote B, assuming that B values his or her job.
b) Reward power: The opposite of coercive power is reward power. People comply with the
wishes or directives of another because doing so produces positive benefits. Therefore, one who
can distribute rewards that others view as valuable will have power over those others. These
rewards can be either financial or nonfinancial.
c) Legitimate power: In formal groups and organizations, probably the most common access to
one or more of the power bases is through legitimate power. It represents the formal authority to
control and use organizational resources based on structural position in the organization.
20
7) Discuss expert power as it relates to the dimensions of importance, scarcity, and non-
substitutability.
Answer: Expert power is influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skill, or knowledge.
As jobs become more specialized, we become increasingly dependent on experts to achieve
goals. It is generally acknowledged that physicians have expertise and hence expert power.
Expert power arises from the fact that:
a) experts have specialized knowledge that others seek to use. In organizations, experts are
people who can absorb uncertainty and are believed to be controlling an important resource.
b) the expertise, special skill, and knowledge that experts have is not abundantly available and
this factor makes expertise a very important determinant of personal power.
c) until others in the organization learn and amass enough experience, the experts are a group of
people who have no substitutes. The fewer viable substitutes for a resource, the more power
control over that resource provides.
LO: 13.3: Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.
21
8) Explain the various power tactics employees use to translate their power bases into specific
actions.
Answer: Research has identified nine distinct tactics of political influence.
1. Legitimacy involves relying on one's authority position or stressing that a request is in
accordance with organizational policies or rules.
2. Rational persuasion involves presenting logical arguments and factual evidence to demonstrate
that a request is reasonable.
3. Inspirational appeals involve developing emotional commitment by appealing to a target's
values, needs, hopes, and aspirations.
4. Consultation involves increasing a target's motivation and support by involving him or her in
deciding how a plan or change will be implemented.
5. Exchange involves rewarding targets with benefits or favors in exchange for following a
request.
6. Personal appeals involve asking for compliance based on friendship or loyalty.
7. Ingratiation involves using flattery, praise, or friendly behavior prior to making a request.
8. Pressure involves using warnings, repeated demands, and threats.
9. Finally, coalitions involve enlisting the aid of other people to persuade a target or using the
support of others as a reason for the target to agree.
LO: 13.4: Identify influence tactics and their contingencies.
9) Define political behavior and explain its features.

Answer: Political behavior in organizations consists of activities that are not required as part of
an individual's formal role but that influence, or attempt to influence, the distribution of
advantages and disadvantages within the organization. Political behavior is outside specified job
requirements. It requires some attempt to use power bases. It includes efforts to influence the
goals, criteria, or processes used for decision making. Political behavior may include varied
behaviors such as withholding key information from decision makers, joining a coalition,
whistleblowing, spreading rumors, leaking confidential information to the media, exchanging
favors with others in the organization for mutual benefit, and lobbying on behalf of or against a
particular individual or decision alternative.
LO: 13.6: Describe how politics work in organizations.
10) Study the following figures and chart
22
Criteria Networks Wheel
Chain All-Channel
Speed Moderate Fast Fast
Accuracy High High Moderate
Emergence of a Moderate High None

leader
Member satisfaction Moderate Low High
23
89) Recently, Curtis Gibson had an interview for the position of a senior manager at a transit
service. At the interview, the interviewer made a passing remark about how policies can make or
break the best economy in the world. Immediately, Curtis launched into a discussion of how true
the interviewer was, substantiating his claim with stories from real economies around the world.
Similarly, when the interviewer suggested that Curtis work the earlier shift because, if selected,
he would have a long commute to reach work, Curtis vehemently agreed, saying, "You couldn't
be more right." Which of the following impression management techniques is Curtis using?
A) Favors
B) Exemplification
C) Enhancement
D) Self-promotion
E) Conformity
Explanation: Conformity, which involves agreeing with someone else's opinion to gain his or
her approval, is a form of ingratiation.
LO: 13.7: Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.
90) ________ is an individual factor that influences political behavior.

A) Reallocation of resources
B) Unclear performance evaluation system
C) High performance pressures
D) Perceived job alternatives
E) Zero-sum reward practice
Explanation: An individual's investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and

expectations of success influence the degree to which he or she will pursue illegitimate means of
political action.
Difficulty: Easy
24
91) If an individual ________, then he or she is less likely to engage in illegitimate political
behavior.
A) has invested a lot in the organization in terms of time and efforts
B) possesses a scarce skill or knowledge
C) has influential contacts outside the organization
D) does not expect any future benefits from the organization
E) has an external locus of control
Explanation: An individual's investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and

expectations of success influence the degree to which he or she will pursue illegitimate means of
political action. The more a person expects increased future benefits from the organization, the
more that person has to lose if forced out and the less likely he or she is to use illegitimate
means.
92) An organizational factor that increases illegitimate political behavior is ________.

A) internal locus of control
B) low expectations of success
C) high trust
D) low organizational investment
E) zero-sum reward practice
Explanation: Cultures characterized by low trust, role ambiguity, unclear performance

evaluation systems, zero-sum reward allocation practices, democratic decision making, high
pressures for performance, and self-serving senior managers will also create breeding grounds
for politicking.
Difficulty: Easy
25
93) Winston Mayer is a sales manager for a large company producing beverages and ready-to-eat
meals. Winston is often seen working late and on weekends although the company stipulates a
five-day workweek. Winston justifies his working extra by claiming that "in sales, one cannot
afford to waste a minute" and he is often condescending when subordinates take their allotted
time off. He frequently speaks to his manager about the deals he finalizes when he is working
beyond the normal working hours to prove his point. From the information provided, we can say
that Winston is using ________ as an impression management technique here.
A) flattery
B) exemplification
C) favors
D) apologies
E) conformity
Explanation: Exemplification is an impression management technique that involves an

individual doing more than he or she needs to in an effort to show how dedicated and hard-
working he or she is.
Difficulty: Hard
94) In the last month, Stacey, an intelligent and astute employee, has finished only half the work
she was scheduled to complete. In addition, she has been taking frequent leaves, citing her ill
health as the reason, but her manager suspects she has been playing truant. When the manager
confronted her about her pending work, Stacey gave excuses: the work was time consuming, she
was unwell, and it was not a high-priority project in the first place. In this scenario, Stacey is
using a(n) ________ impression management technique.
A) self-focused
B) assertive
C) aggressive
D) defensive
E) ingratiation
Explanation: When one provides explanations of a predicament-creating event aimed at

minimizing the apparent severity of the predicament, it represents a defensive IM technique.
Difficulty: Hard
26
95) Which of the following can be used to understand how power and politics in an organization
can help you achieve your career goals?
A) Counseling
B) Constructing your power base relationships
C) Mapping your own political career
D) Alleviating your own power struggles
E) Positioning your own power system
Explanation: A political map can help you sketch out your relationships with the people upon
whom your career depends.
96) Victor Ortiz was a successful and popular manager at the marketing division of a consumer
goods company. Many attributed the company's immense success in the last two years to Victor's
highly creative marketing plans, which cost the company very little but increased the visibility of
its products. He also effectively tied up with new retail chains so the demand for their products
grows as the new retail chains grow. Recently, a subordinate alleged that Victor had sexually
harassed her, and stories of similar allegations made against him in the past resurfaced. The
situation was laid to rest when Victor made an appearance with the victim by his side claiming
that the allegations were baseless as he was romantically involved with her. Though this
announcement did not convince people, the allegations against Victor were withdrawn. From the
information provided in this scenario, this outcome can be explained by the fact that ________.
A) Victor has a high degree of referent power
B) Victor has enough power to get away with his misdeeds
C) Victor has abided by the standards of equity and justice
D) Victor has used a defensive impression management technique
E) Victor has used scapegoating to free himself from the charges
Explanation: Immoral people can justify almost any behavior. Those who are powerful,
articulate, and persuasive are most vulnerable to ethical lapses because they are likely to be able
to get away with unethical practices successfully.
Difficulty: Hard
97) The low self-monitor is more sensitive to social cues, exhibits higher levels of social
conformity, and is more likely to be skilled in political behavior than the high self-monitor.
Answer:
Explanation: The high self-monitor is more sensitive to social cues, exhibits higher levels of
social conformity, and is more likely to be skilled in political behavior than the low self-monitor.
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98) The Machiavellian personality trait is characterized by the will to manipulate and the desire
for power.
Answer:
Explanation: The Machiavellian personality is characterized by the will to manipulate and the
desire for power and is comfortable using politics as a means to further his or her self-interest.
99) Typically, the grapevine and gossip are viewed positively by most people.
Answer:
Explanation: Typically, the grapevine and gossip are viewed negatively by most people.
100) When the production manager at CalTrack was asked to provide reasons for the delay in the
last batch of stock to be produced for the month, he clearly stated that this was the result of one
of his front-level managers taking two days off and that the fault was not his. The manager is
using buffing as a defensive behavior here.
Answer:
Explanation: The manager is using buck passing as a defensive behavior here. Buck passing
involves transferring responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone else, while
buffing involves the practice of rigorously documenting activity to project an image of
competence and thoroughness.
101) Interviewers are easily able to detect when an individual is engaging in impression
management.
Answer:
Explanation: Interviewers are rarely able to detect when an individual is engaging in impression
management, especially when applicants are using deception to engage in impression
management.
28
102) Self-promotion works well as an impression management technique for interviews as well
as performance evaluations.
Answer:
Explanation: Ingratiating always works because everyone—both interviewers and supervisors—
likes to be treated nicely. However, self-promotion may work only in interviews and backfire on
the job because, whereas the interviewer has little idea about one's accomplishments, the
supervisor knows because it is his or her job to observe the employee's work.
103) Ingratiation is negatively related to performance ratings.

Answer:
Explanation: Ingratiation is positively related to performance ratings, meaning those who
ingratiate themselves with their supervisors get higher performance evaluations.
104) The more effort applicants put into highlighting their skills, motivation, and admiration for
the organization, the more likely they are to be hired.
Answer:
Explanation: The more effort applicants put into highlighting their skills, motivation, and
admiration for the organization, the more likely they are to be hired. A study examined this
relationship, finding that interviewers saw applicants who talked confidently about their
qualifications as a better fit for the job, and applicants who said positive things about the
organization as a better fit for the organization.
105) One of the best ways to influence people is indirectly.

Answer:
Explanation: One of the best ways to influence people is indirectly.
29
106) If you work hard at your job, advancement should come easy.
Answer:
Explanation: You may think that if you work hard, advancement should come easy. However,
there is a different way to think about this, as Professor Bud Bilanich of the University of Denver
notes: "Working hard … isn't going to be enough because your competition is also working hard
and making contributions." "To me, I think that hard work … is kind of like the price of
admission."
107) Discuss the various individual factors that make a person more likely to engage in political
behavior.
Answer: At the individual level, researchers have identified certain personality traits, needs, and
other factors likely to be related to political behavior. In terms of traits, employees who are high
self-monitors, possess an internal locus of control, and have a high need for power are more
likely to engage in political behavior. The high self-monitor is more sensitive to social cues,
exhibits higher levels of social conformity, and is more likely to be skilled in political behavior
than the low self-monitor. Because they believe they can control their environment, individuals
with an internal locus of control are more prone to take a proactive stance and attempt to
manipulate situations in their favor. Not surprisingly, the Machiavellian personality,
characterized by the will to manipulate and the desire for power, is comfortable using politics as
a means to further his or her self-interest.
108) What are defensive behaviors? Provide three examples of defensive behaviors and explain
why an employee would engage in the behavior.
Answer: Defensive behaviors occur when people perceive politics as a threat rather than an
opportunity. They respond with reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame, or
change. Defensive behaviors are often associated with negative feelings toward the job and work
environment. In the short run, employees may find that defensiveness protects their self-interest.
But in the long run, it is the only way they know how to behave. At that point, they lose the trust
and support of their peers, bosses, employees, and clients.
Buck passing is transferring responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone
else. Employees engage in buck passing with the goal of avoiding action.
Playing safe is evading situations that may reflect unfavorably. It includes taking on only
projects with a high probability of success, having risky decisions approved by superiors,
qualifying expressions of judgment, and taking neutral positions in conflicts. Employees engage
in playing it safe with the goal of avoiding blame.
Self-protection is acting in ways to protect one's self-interest during change by guarding
information or other resources. Employees engage in self-protection in order to avoid change.
30
109) Explain impression management and describe who is most likely to engage in it.
Answer: The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of
them is called impression management. High self-monitors are more likely to engage in
impression management. Low self-monitors tend to present images of themselves that are
consistent with their personalities, regardless of the beneficial or detrimental effects for them. In
contrast, high self-monitors are good at reading situations and molding their appearances and
behavior to fit each situation.
110) What is impression management and which techniques are most effective in an interview?
Answer: The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of
them is called impression management (IM). Some IM techniques work better in interviews than
others. Researchers have compared applicants whose IM techniques focused on promoting their
accomplishments (self-promotion) to those who focused on complimenting the interviewer and
finding areas of agreement (ingratiation). In general, applicants appear to use self-promotion
more than ingratiation. What's more, self-promotion tactics may be more important to interview
success. Applicants who work to create an appearance of competence by enhancing their
accomplishments, taking credit for successes, and explaining away failures do better in
interviews. These effects reach beyond the interview: applicants who use more self-promotion
tactics also seem to get more follow-up job-site visits, even after adjusting for grade-point
average, gender, and job type. Ingratiation also works well in interviews: applicants who
compliment the interviewer, agree with his or her opinions, and emphasize areas of fit do better
than those who don't.

Chapter 14 Conflict and Negotiation
1) Which of the following is false about views of conflict?

A) There is no consensus over the role of conflict in groups and organizations.
B) The notion that conflict is good or bad is somewhat outdated.
C) Contemporary perspectives differentiate types of conflict based on their good or bad effects.
D) The idea that conflict is good or bad can be viewed as simplistic.
E) Contemporary perspectives differentiate types of conflict based on their effects.
Answer:
Explanation: Contemporary perspectives differentiate types of conflict based on their effects,
not on the notion of conflict being good or bad.
LO: 14.1: Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.
31
2) When your work group disagrees, the disagreements usually concern how the group's work
should be accomplished. The type of conflict experienced by your group is known as a ________
conflict.
A) task
B) relationship
C) process
D) traditional
E) reactive
Answer:
Explanation: Process conflict relates to how the work gets done.
3) Scholars generally agree that task and process conflicts are functional.
Answer:
Explanation: While scholars agree that relationship conflict is dysfunctional, there is
considerably less agreement about whether task and process conflicts are functional. Early
research suggested that task conflict within groups correlated to higher group performance, but a
review of 116 studies found that generalized task conflict was essentially unrelated to group
performance. However, there were factors of the conflict that could create a relationship between
conflict and performance.
4) Why are relationship conflicts in work settings almost always dysfunctional?

Answer: It appears that the friction and interpersonal hostilities inherent in relationship conflicts
increase personality clashes and decrease mutual understanding, which hinders the completion of
organizational tasks. Of the three types, relationship conflicts also appear to be the most
psychologically exhausting to individuals. Because they tend to revolve around personalities,
you can see how relationship conflicts can become destructive.
5) Describe a functional conflict and dysfunctional conflict that could exist because of structure.
Answer: Some conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance; these are
functional, constructive forms of conflict. Additionally, there are conflicts that hinder group
performance; these are dysfunctional or destructive forms of conflict. Structural conflict includes
32
variables such as size, degree of specialization in the tasks assigned to group members,
jurisdictional clarity, member-goal compatibility, leadership styles, reward systems, and the
degree of dependence between groups. A functional-structural conflict that could exist in a long-
term situation would be that of a salesperson and a credit manager who are in constant conflict
because they have differing goals; the salesperson wishing to make the highest number of sales,
and the credit manager needing to ensure that all the sales will be paid. Although there is
conflict, it is functional because it is supportive of the overall group performance. A
dysfunctional-structural conflict could exist, for example, because tasks are not adequately
defined in a work group. The group would always be at odds and would not be advancing the
goals set and the tasks would be hindered.
Difficulty: Hard
6) Identify the three basic types of conflict from the perspective of where the conflict occurs and
discuss why it is important to understand the loci of conflict in order to address conflict in the
workplace.
Answer: The three basic types of conflict are dyadic (conflict between two people), intragroup
(conflict within a group or team), and intergroup (conflict between groups or teams). It is
important to recognize the loci of conflict in an organization in order to better understand why
the conflict is taking place and its impact on the organization.
Quest. Category: Analytical
33
7) Using examples, compare and contrast intergroup conflict and intragroup conflict.
Answer: Intragroup conflict is conflict within a group or work team, whereas intergroup conflict
is conflict between groups or teams. Intragroup conflict is the focus of much of the research on
conflict in the workplace and the groups and teams that exist to perform a particular task. In this
type of group, it is important that a supportive climate exists if conflict is to have a positive
influence. Within an NFL team, for example, team members may be motivated to improve when
team members are supportive. The intergroup conflict that exists between members of one team
and those of another is a very different type of conflict, however, and one that may have little
bearing on conflict within a group.
Quest. Category: Analytical
8) Describe the various causes of conflict.

Answer: The three general categories of conditions that may be the sources of conflict are
communication, structure, and personal variables.
a) Communication represents those opposing forces that arise from semantic difficulties,
misunderstandings, and "noise" in the communication channels. Differing word connotations,
jargon, insufficient exchange of information, and noise in the communication channel are all
barriers to communication and potential antecedent conditions to conflict. The potential for
conflict increases when either too little or too much communication takes place.
b) Structure includes variables such as size, degree of specialization in the tasks assigned to
group members, jurisdictional clarity, member-goal compatibility, leadership styles, reward
systems, and the degree of dependence between groups.
c) Personal variables include individual value systems that each person has and the personality
characteristics that account for individual idiosyncrasies and differences.
LO: 14.2: Outline the conflict process.
9) What are the five conflict-handling intentions that are based on the dimensions of
cooperativeness and assertiveness?
Answer: The five conflict-handling intentions that are based on the dimensions of
cooperativeness and assertiveness are:
a) Competing: When one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests, regardless of the impact
on the other parties to the conflict, that person is competing.
b) Collaborating: In collaborating, the intention of the parties is to solve the problem by
clarifying differences rather than by accommodating various points of view.
c) Avoiding: In avoiding, a person may recognize that a conflict exists and want to withdraw
from it or suppress it.
d) Accommodating: A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the
opponent's interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to
this conflict-handling intention as accommodating.
e) Compromising: In compromising, there is no clear winner or loser. Rather, there is a
34
willingness to ration the object of the conflict and accept a solution that provides incomplete
satisfaction of both parties' concerns.
10) Identify and explain the five stages of the conflict process.
Answer: The conflict process can be seen as comprising five stages: potential opposition or
incompatibility, cognition and personalization, intentions, behavior, and outcomes.
a) The first step in the conflict process is the presence of conditions that create opportunities for
conflict to arise. They need not lead directly to conflict, but one of these conditions is necessary
if conflict is to surface. These conditions are communication, structure, and personal variables. If
the conditions related to these variables negatively affect something that one party cares about,
then the potential for opposition or incompatibility becomes actualized in the second stage. The
antecedent conditions can only lead to conflict when one or more of the parties are affected by,
and aware of, the conflict.
b) "Stage II" is cognition and personalization. This is where conflict issues tend to be defined.
c) In "Stage III," intentions intervene between people's perceptions and emotions and their overt
behavior. These intentions are decisions to act in a certain way. This is "Stage III" of the conflict
process.
d) When most people think of conflict situations, they tend to focus on "behavior" because this is
where conflicts become visible. The behavior stage includes statements, actions, and reactions
made by the conflicting parties. This is "Stage IV" of the conflict process.
e) The action-reaction interplay between the conflicting parties results in consequences. These
outcomes in "Stage V" may be functional in that the conflict results in an improvement in the
group's performance, or dysfunctional in that it hinders group performance.
Difficulty: Hard

Chapter 15 Foundations of Organization Structure
1) The term ________ is used to describe the degree to which tasks in an organization are
subdivided into separate jobs.
A) social clustering
B) bureaucracy
C) work specialization
D) centralization
E) departmentalization
Answer:
Explanation: We use the term work specialization, or division of labor, to describe the degree to
which activities in the organization are subdivided into separate jobs. The essence of work
specialization is to divide a job into a number of steps, each completed by a separate individual.
35
LO: 15.1: Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.
Difficulty: Easy
2) Which of the following statements is true regarding work specialization?

A) Work specialization indicates to what degree will there be rules and formalized regulations to
direct employees and managers.
B) Work specialization decreases the time spent in changing tasks.
C) Work specialization increases the cost of finding and training workers to do specific and
repetitive tasks.
D) Work specialization decreases efficiency and productivity.
E) Work specialization hinders efficient use of employee skills.
Answer:
Explanation: Work specialization indicates the degree to which activities in the organization are
subdivided into separate jobs. Work specialization makes the most efficient use of employees'
skills. Less time is spent in changing tasks, putting away tools and equipment from a prior step,
and getting ready for another.
36
3) Work specialization ________.
A) is always a means of encouraging employee satisfaction
B) is an effective solution to too much recentralization
C) increases efficiency and productivity by encouraging the creation of customized inventions
and machinery
D) is difficult to implement without automation technology
E) is a frustrating cause of reduced efficiency
Answer:
Explanation: Work specialization increases efficiency and productivity by encouraging the
creation of customized inventions and machinery.
4) ________ refers to the basis by which jobs are grouped.

A) Social clustering
B) Span of control
C) Work specialization
D) Centralization
E) Departmentalization
Answer:
Explanation: The basis by which jobs are grouped is called departmentalization.
Difficulty: Easy
5) A plant manager organizes a plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing,

personnel, and purchasing into departments. The plant is departmentalized on the basis of
________.
A) target customer
B) product
C) function
D) geography
E) service
Answer:
Explanation: One of the most popular ways to group activities is by functions performed. A
manufacturing manager might organize a plant into engineering, accounting, manufacturing,
personnel, and supply specialists departments.
37
6) AgriProducers has customers all over the United States that need their soil and crops tested in
their labs. The crops and soil are different in the various large areas of the nation, such as the
West Coast and the Midwest. Which type of departmentalization would be best for
AgriProducers?
A) Functional
B) Process
C) Product
D) Geographic
E) Temporal
Answer:
Explanation: AgriProducers' needs would best be served by departmentalizing on the basis of
geography. This form is valuable when an organization's customers are scattered over a large
geographic area and have similar needs based on their location.
Difficulty: Hard
7) Procter & Gamble has separate departments for Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles. This is
an example of departmentalization by ________.
A) function
B) process
C) geography
D) product
E) interest
Answer:
Explanation: Firms can departmentalize jobs by the type of product or service the organization
produces. For example, Procter & Gamble places each major product, such as Tide, Pampers,
Charmin, and Pringles, under an executive who has complete global responsibility for it.
38
8) E-GO, a company specializing in electric vehicle production, has separate departments for
government contracts, commercial fleet contracts, and personal use contracts. E-Go is
departmentalizing on the basis of ________.
A) differences in product lines
B) differences in the type of function being used
C) geographic market differences
D) the particular type of customer the organization is trying to reach
E) service differences
Answer:
Explanation: A firm can departmentalize based on the particular type of customer the
organization seeks to reach. Microsoft, for example, is organized around four customer markets:
consumers, large corporations, software developers, and small businesses. Customers in each
department have a common set of problems and needs best met by having specialists for each. E-
GO. is departmentalized to meet different customer needs.
9) ________ refers to the unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization
to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom.
A) Chain of command
B) Path of power
C) Span of control
D) Line of responsibility
E) Web of authority
Answer:
Explanation: The chain of command is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top
of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom. It answers questions
such as to whom do I go if I have a problem and to whom am I responsible?
Difficulty: Easy
39
10) Chain of command is a key element of an organization's structure. Which of the following
key questions is addressed by this element?
A) How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?
B) To whom do individuals and groups report?
C) On what basis will jobs be grouped together?
D) To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?
E) To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?
Answer:
Explanation: The chain of command is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top
of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom. It answers questions
such as to whom do I go if I have a problem and to whom am I responsible?
11) Span of control is a key element of an organization's structure. Which of the following key
questions is addressed by this element?
A) On what basis will jobs be grouped together?
B) To whom do individuals and groups report?
C) To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?
D) How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?
E) To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?
Answer:
Explanation: Span of control determines the number of levels and managers an organization has.
All things being equal, the wider or larger the span, the more efficient the organization.
12) The term ________ refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and
expect them to be obeyed.
A) chain of command
B) authority
C) power
D) span of control
E) leadership
Answer:
Explanation: Chain of command can't be discussed without also discussing authority. Authority
refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect them to be obeyed.
To facilitate coordination, each managerial position is given a place in the chain of command,
and each manager is given a degree of authority in order to meet his or her responsibilities.
Difficulty: Easy
40
13) Compare and contrast the three common organizational designs: simple structure,
bureaucracy, and matrix structure.
Answer: a) The simple structure is said to be characterized most by what it is not rather than
what it is. The simple structure is not elaborate. It has a low degree of departmentalization, wide
spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization. The simple
structure is a "flat" organization; it usually has only two or three vertical levels, a loose body of
employees, and one individual in whom the decision-making authority is centralized.
b) Standardization is the key concept that underlies the bureaucracy. It is characterized by highly
routine operating tasks achieved through specialization, very formalized rules and regulations,
tasks that are grouped into functional departments, centralized authority, narrow spans of control,
and decision making that follows the chain of command.
c) The matrix combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product. It breaks the
unity-of-command concept. Employees in the matrix have two bosses—their functional
department managers and their product managers. Therefore, the matrix has a dual chain of
command.
LO: 15.2: Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, the bureaucracy, and the matrix
structure.
14) Explain the essence of the virtual structure and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer: The virtual structure is sometimes called the network structure. Typically, a small, core
organization outsources major business functions. In structural terms, the virtual organization is
highly centralized, with little or no departmentalization. The core of the organization is a small
group of executives whose job is to oversee directly any activities done in house and to
coordinate relationships with the other organizations that manufacture, distribute, and perform
other crucial functions for the virtual organization. The major advantage of the virtual structure
is its flexibility, which allows individuals with an innovative idea and little money to
successfully compete against larger, more established organizations. The structure also saves a
great deal of money by eliminating permanent offices and hierarchical roles for outsourced
functions. The drawbacks have become increasingly clear as popularity has grown. Virtual
organizations are in a state of perpetual flux and reorganization, which means roles, goals, and
responsibilities are unclear, setting the stage for increased political behavior.
LO: 15.3: Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular
structure.
41
15) Compare and contrast the mechanistic model and the organic model of organizational
structure.
Answer: A mechanistic model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy in that it has
extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network (mostly
downward communication), and little participation by low-level members in decision making. At
the other extreme is an organic model.
The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more organic a structure
should be. The more abundant, stable, and simple the environment, the more the
mechanistic structure will be preferred.
LO: 15.5: Contrast the reasons for using mechanistic versus organic structural models.
16) Employees from high-power distance cultures are much more accepting of mechanistic
structures than are employees from low power-distance countries.
Answer:
Explanation: Organizations that operate with people from high-power-distance cultures such as
Greece, France, and most of Latin America, often find their employees are much more accepting
of mechanistic structures than are employees from low-power-distance countries. So consider
cultural differences along with individual differences when predicting how structure will affect
employee performance and satisfaction.
LO: 15.6: Analyze the behavioral implications of different organizational designs.

Chapter 16 Organizational Culture and Change
1) A(n) ________ culture is best aligned with customer-oriented outcomes.

A) adhocracy
B) team
C) clan
D) low outcome orientation
E) innovation
Answer:
Explanation: A clan or market culture is best aligned with customer-oriented outcomes.
LO: 16.1: Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.
2) The ________ category of the Organizational Culture Inventory groups cultures that value
affiliation, encouragement, and achievement.
A) supportiveness
B) constructive
42
C) passive-defensive
D) aggressive-defensive
E) team-orientation
Answer:
Explanation: The Organizational Culture Inventory groups cultures into three categories: (1)
constructive cultures that value affiliation, encouragement, and achievement; (2) passive-
defensive cultures that avoid accountability, seek validation and approval from others, and are
conventional; and (3) aggressive-defensive cultures that are competitive, perfectionist, and
power-oriented.
43
3) Which of the following categories in the Organizational Culture Inventory groups cultures that
are competitive, perfectionist, and power-oriented?
A) Accountability
B) Outcome orientation
C) Team orientation
D) Aggressive-defensive
E) Stability
Answer:
Explanation: The Organizational Culture Inventory groups cultures into three categories: (1)
constructive cultures that value affiliation, encouragement, and achievement; (2) passive-
defensive cultures that avoid accountability, seek validation and approval from others, and are
conventional; and (3) aggressive-defensive cultures that are competitive, perfectionist, and
power-oriented.
4) Which of the following is not an outcome of a strong organizational culture?

A) Cohesiveness
B) Loyalty
C) Organizational commitment
D) Resistance
E) Meaning
Answer:
Explanation: A strong culture should more directly affect organizational outcomes because it
demonstrates high agreement about what the organization represents. Such unanimity of purpose
builds cohesiveness, loyalty, meaning, and organizational commitment.
5) A(n) ________ culture is best for innovation.

A) assertiveness
B) market
C) adhocracy
D) hierarchy
E) clan
Answer:
Explanation: A clan culture is best for innovation. The clan culture is based on human affiliation
whereby employees value attachment, collaboration, trust, and support.
44
6) What is the difference between dominant culture and subculture?
Answer: Organizational culture represents a common perception the organization's members
hold. A dominant culture expresses the core values shared by a majority of the organization's
members. Subcultures tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems,
situations, or experiences faced by groups of members in the same department or location.
Subcultures include the core values of the dominant culture plus additional values unique to
members of the respective department. If organizations were composed only of numerous
subcultures, organizational culture as an independent variable would be significantly less
powerful. It is the "shared meaning" aspect of culture that makes it such a potent device for
guiding and shaping behavior.
7) What are the characteristics of a strong culture?

Answer: A strong culture should more directly affect organizational outcomes because it
demonstrates high agreement about what the organization represents. Such unanimity of purpose
builds cohesiveness, loyalty, meaning, and organizational commitment. For example, with high
cultural consensus and intensity surrounding the adaptability dimension of culture, organizations
in one study experienced gains in net income, revenue, and operating cash flow. A study of
nearly 90,000 employees from 137 organizations found that culture strength or consistency was
related to numerous financial outcomes when there was a strong sense of mission and high
employee involvement.
8) Compare and contrast the clan, the adhocracy, the market, and the hierarchy.
Answer: A common culture framework groups organizations into one of four types, each with
has its own assumptions, beliefs, values, artifacts, and even criteria for effectiveness:
1. "The Clan." A culture based on human affiliation. Employees value attachment,
collaboration, trust, and support.
2. "The Adhocracy." A culture based on change. Employees value growth, variety, attention to
detail, stimulation, and autonomy.
3. "The Market." A culture based on achievement. Employees value communication,
competence, and competition.
4. "The Hierarchy." A culture based on stability. Employees value communication,
formalization, and routine.
31) Narratives about the organization's founders, rule breaking, and reactions to past mistakes are
45
called ________.
A) stories
B) material symbols
C) rituals
D) organizational charts
E) corporate chants
Answer:
Explanation: Stories circulate through organizations. They typically contain narratives about the
organization's founders, rule breaking, rags-to-riches successes, reductions in the workforce,
relocation of employees, reactions to past mistakes, and organizational coping.
LO: 16.2: Show how culture is transmitted to employees.
Difficulty: Easy
9) How can organizational culture be transmitted to employees?

Answer: Culture is transmitted to employees in a number of forms, the most potent being
stories, rituals, material symbols, and language.
a) Stories: Stories contain a narrative of events about the organization's founders, rule breaking,
rags-to-riches successes, reductions in the workforce, relocation of employees, reactions to past
mistakes, and organizational coping. These stories anchor the present in the past and provide
explanations and legitimacy for current practices.
b) Rituals: Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values
of the organization, what goals are most important, which people are important, and which are
expendable.
c) Material symbols: The layout of corporate headquarters, the types of automobiles top
executives are given, and the presence or absence of corporate aircraft are a few examples of
material symbols. These material symbols convey to employees who is important, the degree of
egalitarianism desired by top management, and the kinds of behavior that are appropriate.
d) Language: Many organizations and units within organizations use language as a way to
identify members of a culture or subculture. By learning this language, members attest to their
acceptance of the culture and, in doing so, help to preserve it. Organizations, over time, often
develop unique terms to describe equipment, offices, key personnel, suppliers, customers, or
products that relate to its business. New employees are frequently overwhelmed with acronyms
and jargon, that, once assimilated, act as a common denominator that unites members of a given
culture or subculture.
46
10) Using an example, explain how a company can use material symbols to transmit culture.
Answer: One example of the intentional use of material symbols is Texas electric company
Dynegy. Dynegy's headquarters doesn't look like a typical operation. There are few individual
offices, even for senior executives. The space is essentially made up of cubicles, common areas,
and meeting rooms. This informality conveys to employees that Dynegy values openness,
equality, creativity, and flexibility. While some organizations provide their top executives with
chauffeur-driven limousines and a corporate jet, other CEOs drive the company car themselves
and travel in airlines' economy section. At some firms, like Chicago shirtmaker Threadless, an
"anything goes" atmosphere helps emphasize a creative culture. At Threadless, meetings are held
in an Airstream camper parked inside the company's converted FedEx warehouse, while
employees in shorts and flip-flops work in bullpens featuring disco balls and garish decorations
chosen by each team.
47

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Organizational Behavior, 19e (Robbins/Judge)

Chapter 9 Foundations of Group Behavior

5) Explain the punctuated-equilibrium model.

7) What is the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.

9) How can norms be used to reduce deviant workplace behavior?

12) A contributing factor with regard to social loafing is ________.

Explanation: The nominal group technique restricts discussion or interpersonal communication

19) Explain the impact of brainstorming on the possibility of groupthink.

Organizational Behavior, 19e (Robbins/Judge)

1) Which of the following statements is true with regard to communication?

3) Advantages to synchronous communication are speed, feedback, and ________.

Explanation: The advantages of synchronous communication are speed, feedback, and

4) Which of the following is an example of asynchronous communication?

6) Explain how contact and touch act as a form of nonverbal communication.

7) Which of the following is true of information overload?

13) People from ________ share a low context culture.

Organizational Behavior, 19e (Robbins/Judge)

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding power?

3) Compare and contrast leadership and power.

6) Describe the bases of formal power.

9) Define political behavior and explain its features.

10) Study the following figures and chart

Accuracy High High Moderate

Emergence of a Moderate High None

90) ________ is an individual factor that influences political behavior.

Explanation: An individual's investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and

Explanation: An individual's investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and

92) An organizational factor that increases illegitimate political behavior is ________.

Explanation: Cultures characterized by low trust, role ambiguity, unclear performance

Explanation: Exemplification is an impression management technique that involves an

Explanation: When one provides explanations of a predicament-creating event aimed at

103) Ingratiation is negatively related to performance ratings.

105) One of the best ways to influence people is indirectly.

Organizational Behavior, 19e (Robbins/Judge)

1) Which of the following is false about views of conflict?

4) Why are relationship conflicts in work settings almost always dysfunctional?

8) Describe the various causes of conflict.

Organizational Behavior, 19e (Robbins/Judge)

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding work specialization?

4) ________ refers to the basis by which jobs are grouped.

5) A plant manager organizes a plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing,

Organizational Behavior, 19e (Robbins/Judge)

1) A(n) ________ culture is best aligned with customer-oriented outcomes.

4) Which of the following is not an outcome of a strong organizational culture?

5) A(n) ________ culture is best for innovation.

7) What are the characteristics of a strong culture?

9) How can organizational culture be transmitted to employees?

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