LIVING WORLD

1. _______________ is called ‘The Darwin of the 20th century’.

2. The number and types of organisms present on earth represent

_______________ .
3. The process of standardising the name of living organisms is
called _______________ .

4. ICBN stands for _______________ whereas ICZN stands for

_______________ .
5. The system of providing a scientific name with two components
is called _______________ and was given by _______________ .

6. The two components of Binomial Nomenclature are

_______________ and _______________ .
7. Both the words in Biological name, when handwritten are
_______________ or printed in _______________ to indicate
_______________ origin.

8. There are many categories/ranks in classification and are

generally referred to as taxonomic categories or _______________
.
9. The title of Linnaeus’s publication is _______________ .

10. In classification; all the categories constitute _______________

.
11. The scientific names of Housefly, Wheat and Lion are
_______________ , _______________ and _______________
respectively.

12. Brinjal and potato belong to genus _______________ .

13. Lion, Leopard and tiger belong to genus _______________ .

14. Cats and dogs belong to families _______________ and

_______________ respectively.
15. Genera Solanum, Petunia, Datura are placed in family
_______________ .

16. Plant families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in

the order _______________ mainly based on _______________
characters.
17. Order Primata, Carnivora are included in class
_______________ .

18. Ascending order of hierarchial arrangement of taxonomic

categories is Species → Genus → ___________ → ___________ →
Class → ___________ → Kingdom
19. _______________ is a store house of collected plant specimens
that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.

20. Indian Botanical Garden is at ___________________ and

National Botanical Research Institute is at __________________ .
21. The Royal Botanical Garden is located at _______________ .

22. _______________ are tools that help in identification based on

characters.
23. The family, order and class of Homo sapiens is
__________________ , __________________ and
_______________ respectively.

24. The family, order and class of Mangifera indica

is_______________ , _______________ and _______________
respectively.
25. The family order & class of wheat is _______________ ,
_______________ and _______________ .
1. Ernst Mayr
2. Biodiversity
3. nomenclature
4. International Code for Botanical Nomenclature; International
Code for Zoological Nomenclature
5. Binomial Nomenclature; Carlous Linnaeus
6. generic name; specific epithet
7. seperately underlined; italics; Latin origin
8. taxa
9. Systema Naturae
10. taxonomic hierarchy
11. Musa domestica ; Triticum aestivum; Panthera leo
12. Solanum
13. Panthera
14. Felidae ; canidae
15. Solanaceae
16. Polymoniales; floral
17. Mammalia
18. Family; Order; Phylum
19. Herbarium
20. Howrah; Lucknow
21. Kew
22. Taxonomic keys
23. Hominidae; Primata; Mammalia
24. Anacardiaceae; Sapindales; Dicotyledonae
25. Poaceae; Poales; Monocotyledonae
 BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
1. ___________was the earliest scientist to attempt a more
scientific basis for classification. He used simple morphological
characters to classify plants into ___________, ___________and
___________.
2. ___________have chitin in their walls while green plants have
___________in cell wall.

3. According to five kingdom of classification, the unicellular

eukaryotic organisms were placed in kingdom ___________.
4. The classification system is not only based on morphological,
physiological and reproductive similarities, but is also
___________i.e. is based on evolutionary relationships.
5. ___________are present in the gut of several ruminant animals
such as cows and buffaloes and they are responsible for the
production of methane from the dung of these animals.

6. In Nostoc, site of nitrogen fixation is ___________.

7. Cholera, tetanus, citrus canker are well known diseases of plants
caused by different ___________.

8. ___________reproduce mainly by fission.

9. The ___________are organisms that completely lack a cell wall.
They are smallest living cells known and can survive without
___________.
10. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids and Slime moulds belong to kingdom
___________.

11. ___________group includes diatoms and desmids.

12. In ___________, a member of Chrysophytes, the cell wall form two thin
overlapping shells, that fit together as in a soap box.

13. Diatoms leave behind large amount of ___________deposits in their habitat; this
accumulation over billions of years is referred to as ‘diatomaceous earth’.
14. ___________are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans.

15. Dinoflagellates organisms are mostly ___________and

photosynthetic.
16. Euglenoids are ___________organism found in stagnant water.
Instead of a cell wall, they have a protein rich layer called
___________which makes their body flexible.

17. Slime moulds are saprophytic ___________.

18. Under suitable conditions, slime moulds form an aggregation
called ___________which may grow and spread over several feet.

19. There are ___________major groups of protozoans.

20. Sleeping sickness is caused by a flagellated protozoan
___________.

21. Fungi can live as symbionts in association with algae as

___________and with roots of higher plants as ___________.
22. Albugo is a parasitic fungi on ___________.

23. Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic in ___________.

24. Ascomycetes growing on cattle dung are called ___________.

25. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile

gametes is called ___________.
26. In phycomycetes, asexual reproduction takes place by
___________and ___________.

27. ___________are commonly known as sac-fungi.

28. Albugo, Mucor belong to ___________group of fungi.

29. In phycomycetes asexual reproduction take place by motile

spore called ___________or by non-motile spores called
___________.
30. Asexual spores called ___________are produced in
ascomycetes.

31. Neurospora and Claviceps belong to ___________.

32. In ___________, asexual spores are generally not found, but
vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common.
33. In basidiomycetes, sex organ are absent but plasmogamy is
brought about fusion of two ___________or ___________cells of
different strains or genotypes.

34. The basidiospores are ___________produced on the basidium.

35. Deuteromycetes are commonly known as ___________fungi
because only the ___________or vegetative phases of these fungi
are known.
36. The deuteromycetes reproduce only by asexual spores known
as ___________.

37. Ascomycetes and Basidomycetes show ___________

reproduction.
38. Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of ___________plants
and Cuscuta is a ___________.

39. The ___________are non-cellular organism that are characterized by

having an inert crystalline structure outside the living cell.
40. The name ___________that means venom or poisonous fluid
was given by Pasteur. ___________showed that viruses could be
crystallized and crystals consist largely of proteins.

41. Viruses are ___________parasites.

42. In general, viruses that infect plants have
___________stranded ___________ and viruses that infect
animals have either single or double stranded ___________or
double stranded ___________.
43. Bacterial viruses or bactriophages are usually
___________stranded ___________virus.

44. ___________are smaller than viruses and caused potato

spindle tuber disease.
45. The ___________component is known as phycobiont and
___________component as mycobiont in lichens.
1. Aristotle ; trees ; shrubs ; herbs
2. Fungi ;cellulose
3. Protista
4. Phylogenetic
5. Methanogens
6. Heterocysts
7. Bacteria
8. Bacteria
9. Mycoplasma ; oxygen
10. Protista
11. Chrysophytes
12. Diatoms
13. Cell wall
14. Diatoms
15. Marine
16. Fresh water ; pellicle
17. Protists
18. Plasmodium
19. Four
20. Trypanosome
21. Lichens ; mycorrhiza
22. Mustard
23. Phycomycetes
24. Coprophilous
25. Plasmogamy
26. Zoospores ; aplanospores
27. Ascomycetes
28. Phycomycetes
29. Zoospores ; aplanospores
30. Conidia
31. Ascomycetes
32. Basidiomycetes
33. Vegetative ; somatic
34. Exogenously
35. Imperfect ; asexual
36. Conidia
37. Sexual
38. Insectivorous ; parasite
39. Viruses
40. Virus ; W.M.Stanley
41. Obligate
42. Single ; RNA ;RNA ;DNA
43. Double ; DNA
44. Viroids
45. Algal ; fungal
 PLANT KINGDOM

1. At present phylogenetic classification systems based on

___________relationships between the various organisms are
acceptable.
2. ___________taxonomy is carried out using computers and is
based on all observable characteristics.

3. ___________taxonomy is based on cytological information like

chromosome number, structure and behaviour.
4. ___________are chlorophyll-bearing, simple, thalloid, autotropic and
largely aquatic organisms.

5. In algae asexual reproduction occurs by the production of different types

of spores, the most common being the ___________.
6. Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size, as in some species of
Chalmydomonas is termed as ___________.

7. Fusion between one large, non-motile female gamete and a smaller,

motile male gamete is termed ___________,e.g., Volvox, Fucus.
8. Algin is obtained from ___________algae but carrageen is obtained from
___________algae.
9. At least a half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out
by ___________through photosynthesis.
10. Agar, one of the commercial products obtained from ___________and
___________, are used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice creams
and jellies.
11. ___________a unicellular algae, rich in proteins is used as food
supplement even by space travellers.
12. Pyrenoids contain ___________besides starch.

13. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of
___________and an outer layer of ___________.
14. Volvox, Ulothrix and Chara are examples of ___________.

15. The members of phaeophyceae are found primarily in

___________habitats.
16. Brown algae vary in colour from olive green to various shades of brown
depending upon the amount of the xanthophyll pigment and
___________present in them.
17. In phaeophyceae food is stored as complex carbohydrates, which may
be in the form of ___________and ___________.
18. The vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall usually covered on the outside by a
gelatinous coating of ___________ in brown algae.

19. In brown algae, the plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a
___________, and has a stalk, the stipe and leaf like photosynthetic organ-the
___________.
20. Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is by ___________zoospores
that are pear-shaped and have ___________unequal laterally attached
flagella.
21. Majority of the red algae are ___________with greater concentration
found in the warmer areas.
22. The food is stored as ___________in rhodophycea.

23. The algae having major pigment chlorophyll a and c are ___________.

24. ___________and ___________ are the example of red algae.

25. The main plant body of the bryophyte is ___________.

26. The sex organs in bryophyte are ___________.

27. The female sex organ called archegonium is ___________-shaped in bryophyte and produces a
___________egg.
28. Species of ___________, a moss, provide peat that have long been used
as fuel and as packing material for trans-shipment of living material
because of their capacity to hold water.
29. ___________along with lichens are the first organism to colonize rocks
and hence are of great ecological importance.
30. Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by fragmentation of
thalli, or by the formation of specialized structures called ___________.

31. Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds, which develop in small
receptacles called ___________located on the thalli in liverworts.
32. In liverworts, sporophyte is differentiated into a ___________, seta and
___________.

33. The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the

___________which consists of two stages.
34. The first stage is the ___________stage, which develops directly from a
spore in mosses.

35. The second stage is the leafy stage, which develops from the
___________as a lateral bud in mosses.
36. Vegetative reproduction in mosses is by fragmentation and budding in
the ___________protonema.

37. The ___________in mosses is more elaborate than that in liverworts.

38. In bryophytes the dominant phase in the life cycle is the
___________plant body.

39. The sporophytes bear sporangia that are subtended by leaf-like

appendages in pteridophytes called ___________.
40. In pteridophytes, multicellular, free living, mostly photosynthetic
thalloid gametophytes is called ___________.

41. Zygote produces a multicellular well- differentiated sporophyte which is

the ___________phase of the pteridophytes.
42. The development of the zygotes into young embryos take place within
the female gametophytes. This event is a precursor to the
___________considered an important step in evolution.
43. The pteridophytes are classified into four classes: ___________;
Lycopsida; ___________ and Pteropsida.

44. The ___________are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed by any
ovary wall and remain exposed both before and after fertilization.
45. One of the gymnosperms, ___________is one of the tallest tree
species.

46. The roots of gymnosperm are generally ___________roots.

47. In Cycas, small specialized roots called ___________roots are
associated with nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria.

48. In pteridophytes genera like ___________and ___________are

heterosporous.
49. Majority of pteridophytes are ___________sporous.

50. In gymnosperms, two kinds of spores produced within sporangia that

are borne on sporophylls are arranged spirally along an axis to form lax or
compact ___________or ___________.
51. In gymnosperms the cones bearing megasporophylls with ovules or
megasporangia are called macrosporangiate or ___________.

52. The megaspore mother cell is differentiated from one of the cells of the
___________in gymnosperms.
53. The ___________ are an exceptionally large group of plants occurring in
wide range of habitats.

54. The male gamete fuses with diploid ___________to produce the
triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) in angiosperm.
55. The ___________develop into seeds and the ___________develop into
fruit after fertilization.
56. The diploid sporophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic, independent
phase of the plant. The gametophytic phase is represented by single to
few-celled haploid gametophyte. This kind of life cycle is termed as
___________.
57. Meiosis in zygote results in the formation of haploid spores in
___________life cycle.

58. In bryophytes multicellular ___________is totally/partially dependent

on ___________for anchorage and nutrition.
59. Most algal genera are haplontic, some of them such as Ectocarpus,
Polysiphonia, kelps are ___________. Fucus, an alga is ___________.

60. All pteridophytes show ___________life cycle.

1. Evolutionary
2. Numerical
3. Cyto
4. Algae
5. Zoospores
6. Anisogamous
7. Oogamous
8. Brown ; red
9. Algae
10. Gelidium ; Gracilaria
11. Chlorella
12. Protein
13. Cellulose ; pectose
14. Chlorophyceae (green algae)
15. Marine
16. Fucoxanthin
17. Laminarin ; mannitol
18. Algin
19. Holdfast ; frond
20. Biflagellate ; two
21. Marine
22. Floridean starch
23. Phaeophyceae
24. Poltsiphonia ; porphyra
25. Bryophyte
26. Multicellular
27. Flask ; single
28. Sphagnum
29. Mosses
30. Gemmae
31. Gemma cups
32. Foot; capsule
33. Gametophyte
34. Protonema
35. Secondary protonema
36. Secondary
37. Sporophyte
38. Gametophytic
39. Sporophylls
40. Prothallus
41. Dominant
42. Seed habit
43. Psilopsida ; sphenopsida
44. Gymnosperms
45. Sequoia
46. Tap
47. Coralloid
48. Selaginella ; salvinia
49. Homo
50. Strobili ; cones
51. Female strobili
52. Nucellus
53. Angiosperms
54. Secondary nucleus
55. Ovules ; ovaries
56. Diplontic
57. Haplontic
58. Sporophyte ; gametophyte
59. Haplo-diplontic ; diplontic
60. Haplo-diplontic
 Animal Kingdom
1. Sponges exhibit ___________level of organization while
coelenterates exhibit ___________level of organization.
2. In ___________type of circulatory system the blood is pumped
out of the heart and the cells and tissues are directly bathed in it.
3. When any plane passing through the central axis of the body
divides the organism into identical halves, it is called
___________symmetry and when only one plane can divide body
into identical left and right halves, it is called
___________symmetry.
4. Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, an
external ___________and an internal ___________, are called diploblastic
animals.
5. In triploblastic animals, the extra germinal layer present in middle is
called ___________and members of phylum ___________to chordates are
triploblastic organisms.
6. The body cavity which is lined by mesoderm is called
___________and animals possessing that are called ___________.

7. In pseudocoelomates the mesoderm is present as

___________in between the ectoderm and endoderm.
8. The animals in which the body cavity is absent are called ___________.

9. The phenomenon in which the body of animal is externally and internally

divided into segments with a serial repetition of at least some organs is
known as ___________.
10. Notochord is ___________derived and rod-like structure
formed on the ___________side during embryonic development in
some animals.
11. Members of the phylum porifera are commonly known as
___________.
12. Sponges have water transport system which is called as
___________.
13. In porifera, water enters through minute pores in the body wall
into a central cavity, ___________, from where it goes out through
the ___________.
14. ___________or collar cells line the spongocoel and the canals.

15. The body of sponges is supported by a skeleton made up of

___________or ___________.
16. The fertilisation in porifera is ___________and development is
___________.

17. In coelenterata, ___________are used for anchorage, defence

and for capture of prey.
18. Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms called
___________(sessile and cylindrical form) and ___________(free-
swimming and umbrella shaped).
19. The phenomenon exhibited by some cinidarians in which both
forms exhibit alternation of generation is termed as ___________.
20. Polyps produce medusae by ___________and meduase forms
polys by ___________reproduction.
21. ___________ is known as Portuguese man-of-war;
___________as Sea anemone; ___________as Sea pen;
___________as Sea fan and ___________as Brain coral.
22. Ctenophores are commonly known as ___________or
___________.
23. Ctenophores are exclusively ___________and body bears eight
external rows of ciliated ___________that help in locomotion.
24. ___________is the property of living organism to emit light and
is well marked by ctenophores.
25. Reproduction in ctenophore takes place by
___________means. Fertilisation is ___________with
___________development.
26. ___________and ___________are present in parasitic form of
members of platyhelminthes.

27. Specialized cells called ___________cells help in

osmoregulation and excretion in platyhelminthes.
28. In platyhelminthes, fertilization is ___________with
___________development.

29. Some members of platyhelminthes like ___________possess

high regeneration capacity.
30. ___________,a member of phylum platyhelminthes is
commonly called tapeworm and ___________is commonly called
as liver fluke.
31. The alimentary canal in members of aschelminthes is complete
with a well-developed ___________.
32. The females are___________than males in members of
aschelminthes.
33. The members of aschelminthes are ___________as sexes are
separate. Fertilisation is ___________and development is
___________.
34. ___________, a member of phylum aschelminthes are
commonly known as round worms; ___________ as filarial worm
and ___________as hookworms.
35. Annelids posssess longitudinal and circular muscles which helps
in ___________.
36. Nereis possess lateral appendages, ___________that help in
swimming.
37. ___________helps in osmoregulation and excretion in
annelids.
38. Neural system of annelids consists of paired ganglia connected
by lateral nerves to a ___________nerve cord.
39. ___________is the largest phylum of animalia and over
___________of all named species on earth are member of this
phylum.
40. The body of arthropods is covered by
___________exoskeleton.

41. ___________are present as balance organs in arthropods.

42. Excretion takes place in arthropods through ___________.

43. Fertilisation is ___________ in arthropods.

44. In phylum arthropod, ___________member is gregarious pest
and ___________is a living fossil.

45. ___________is the second largest animal phylum. The body of

member of this phylum is covered by ___________shell.
46. In mollusca, a soft and ___________layer of skin forms
___________over the visceral hump. The space between hump
and the ___________is called mantle cavity.
47. The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called
___________in mollusca.
48. ___________is commonly known as pearl oyster and
___________ as apple snail.

49. ___________is commonly known as cuttlefish and

___________as devil fish.
50. Digestive system is complete in echinodermata with mouth on
the ___________side and anus on ___________side of body.

51. The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of

___________system.
52. Fertilisation is ___________with ___________development in
echinoderms.

53. Echinus is commonly known as ___________; Antedon as

___________;and Cucumaria as ___________.
54. ___________is commonly called star fish and ___________as
brittle fish.

55. The body of hemichordate is cylindrical and composed of

anterior___________, a collar and a long___________.
56. In hemichordate respiration takes place through
___________and excretory organ is___________.

57. Fertilisation is ___________with ___________development in

hemichordates.
58. Chordates are fundamentally characterized by the presence of
a ___________, a dorsal hollow nerve cord and paired pharyngeal
gill slits.
59. Subphyla urochordata and cephalochordata are often referred
to as___________ and is exclusive marine.
60. In urochordata, notochord is present only in___________.

61. The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony

___________in the adult of vertebrata.
62. Cyclostomata are ___________on some fishes. They have an elongated
body bearing ___________ pairs of gill slits for respiration.

63. Cyclostomes have sucking and circular mouth without___________.

Their body is devoid of ___________ and ___________ fins.
64. Cranium and vertebral column are ___________ in
cyclostomes. After ___________, within few days they die.
65. The mouth of chondrichthyes is located ___________ and
teeth are modified ___________ scales which are backwardly
directed.
66. Due to the absence of ___________ chondrichthyes have to
swim constantly to avoid sinking.

67. Gill cover is known as ___________, which are ___________ in

chondrichthyes.
68. In some species of chondrichthyes like ___________ have
electric organ and ___________ have poison string.

69. In chondrichthyes, male bears claspers in ___________ fins.

70. In osteichthyes, mouth is ___________.

71. Osteichthyes bears ___________ pairs of gills which are

covered by ___________.
72. Fertilisation is ___________with ___________ development in
osteichthyes.

73. ___________ is commonly known as fighting fish; ___________

as angel fish and ___________ as flying fish.
74. ___________ represent the ear in amphibian and ___________
is common chamber for alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive
tract.

75. ___________ is the common limbless amphibian.

76. In Reptilia, fertilisation is ___________ and development is
___________.
77. Chameleon is commonly known as ___________ lizard;
Hemidactylus as ___________ lizard and Calotes as ___________
lizard.
78. In members of aves, skin is dry without glands except the
___________ gland at the base of ___________.

79. The digestive tract of birds has additional chamber

___________ and ___________.
80. ___________ are connected to lungs and supplement
respiration in birds.

81. ___________ is known as vulture; Struthio as ___________;

___________ as parrot and ___________ as peacock.
82. In aves, fertilisation is ___________ and development is
___________.

83. The most unique feature of mammalian characteristic is the

presence of milk producing glands called ___________.
84. The skin of mammals is unique in possessing ___________.

85. External ears or ___________ are present in mammals.

1. Cellular; tissue
2. Open type
3. Radial ; bilateral
4. Ectoderm ; endoderm
5. Mesoderm ; platyhelminthes
6. Coelom ; coelomates
7. Scattered pouches
8. Acoelomates
9. Metamerism
10. Mesodermally ; dorsal
11. Sponges
12. Canal system
13. Spongocoel ; osculum
14. Choanocytes
15. Spicules ; sponging
16. Internal ; indirect
17. Cnidoblast
18. Polyp ; medusa
19. Metagenesis
20. Asexually ; sexually
21. Physalia ; Adamsia ;
Pennatula ; Gorgonia ;
Meandrina
22. Seawalnuts ; comb jellies
23. Marine ; comb plates
24. Bioluminescence
25. Sexual; external; indirect
26. Hooks ; sucker
27. Flame
28. Internal ; indirect
29. Planaria
30. Taenia ; Fasciola
31. Muscular pharynx
32. Longer
33. Dioecious ; internal; direct
34. Ascaris; Wuchereria;
Ancyclostoma
35. Locomotion
36. Parapodia
37. Nephridia
38. Double ventral
39. Arthropods ; 2/3rd
40. Chitinous
41. Statocysts
42. Malpighian tubules
43. Internal
44. Locusta ; Limulus
45. Mollusca ; calcareous
46. Spongy ; mantle; mantle
47. Radula
48. Pinctada ; Pila
49. Sepia ; Octopus
50. Ventral ; dorsal
51. Water vascular
52. External ; indirect
53. Sea urchin; sea lily ; sea cucumber
54. Asterias; Ophiura
55. Proboscis ; trunk
56. Gills ; proboscis gland
57. External ; indirect
58. Notochord
59. Protochordates
60. Larval tail
61. Vertebral column
62. Ectoparasites ; 6-15
63. Jaws; scales ; paired
64. Cartilaginous ; spawning
65. Ventrally ; placoid
66. Air bladder
67. Operculum ; absent
68. Torpedo ; Trygon
69. Pelvic
70. Terminal
71. 4 ; operculum
72. External ; direct
73. Betta ; Pterophyllum ; Exocoetus
74. Tympanum ; cloaca
75. Icthyophis
76. Internal ; direct
77. Tree ; wall ; garden
78. Oil ; tail
79. Crop ; gizzard
80. Air sacs
81. Neophron ; ostrich ; Psittacula; Pavo
82. Internal ; direct
83. Mammary glands
84. Hairs
85. Pinnae
 Morphology of Flowering Plants

1. In major of the dicotyledonous plants, the direct elongation of

the radical leads to the formation of ___________ which grows
inside the soil.
2. In ___________ plants, the primary root is short lived and is
replaced by a large number of roots.
3. In some plants like grass, Monstera and banyan tree, roots arises
from parts of the plant other than the ___________ and are called
adventitious roots.
4. Roots hairs are present in region of ___________.

5. The zone proximal to region of elongation is called the region of

___________.
6. ___________ roots of carrot, turnip and ___________ roots of
sweet potato, get swollen and store food.

7. Hanging structure that support a banyan tree are called

___________ roots.
8. The stems of maize and sugarcane have supporting roots coming
out of the lower nodes of the stem are called ___________ roots.
9. In some plants such as Rhizophora growing in swampy areas,
many roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards.
Such roots are called ___________ and help to get oxygen for
respiration.
10. The regions of the stem where leaves are born are called
___________.

11. Underground ___________ of Zaminkand, Colocasia are

modified to store food in them.
12. Stem tendrils which develop from ___________ buds, are
slender and spirally coiled and help plants to climb.
13. A lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a
rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in aquatic plants like
___________ and ___________.
14. Leaves originate from shoot ___________ and are arranged in
an ___________ order.

15. A typical leaf consists of three main parts: leaf base,

___________ and ___________.
16. In ___________, the leaf base expands into a sheath covering
the stem partially or wholly.

17. In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen,
which is called the ___________.
18. ___________ provide rigidity to the leaf blade and act as
channels of transport for water, minerals and food materials.

19. The arrangement of veins and veinlets in the ___________ of

leaf is termed as ___________.
20. Leaves of ___________ plants generally possess reticulate venation,
while parallel venation is the characteristic of most ___________.

21. When the incision of the lamina reach up to the midrib breaking it into
a number of leaflets, the leaf is called ___________.
22. In pinnately compound leaf a number of leaflets are present on a
common axis, the ___________, which represent the midrib of leaf.

23. In ___________ compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a

common point, i.e., at the tip of petiole, as in silk cotton.
24. ___________ is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the
stem or branch.

25. In ___________ type of inflorescence the main axis terminates

in a flower.
26. The flowers are borne in a ___________ order in cymose
inflorescence.

27. In lily, the calyx and corolla are not distinct and are termed as
___________.
28. When a flower can be divided into two equal halves in any
radial plane passing through the centre, it is said to be
___________.
29. Based on symmetry, flower of Cassia and glumohar are
___________.
30. In racemose inflorescence flowers are borne in an
___________ succession.

31. In the hypogynous flower the ___________ occupies the

highest position while the other parts are situated below it
32. In epigynous flowers, the margin of ___________ grows
upwards enclosing the ovary completely and getting fused with it,
the other parts of flower arise above the ovary.
33. In hypogynous flower ovary is said to be ___________.
34. In plum, rose and peach; flower is ___________ and ovary is
said to be ___________.
35. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with
respect to the other members of the same whorl is known as
___________.
36. When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin,
without overlapping as in Calotropis, it is said to be ___________.
37. If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any
particular direction as in Cassia and gulmohur, the aestivation is called
___________.
38. A sterile stamen is called ___________.
39. When stamens are attached to the petals, they are
___________ as in brinjal, or ___________ when attached to the
perianth as in the flowers of lily.
40. The stamens may be united into one bunch or one bundle
called ___________ as in china rose.

41. A carpel consists of three parts namely ___________,

___________ and ___________.
42. The stigma is usually at the tip of the ___________ and is the
receptive surface for pollen grains.

43. Each ovary bears one or more ovulse attached to a flattened,

cushion-like ___________.
44. When more than one carpel is present, they may be free and
are called ___________.

45. After fertilization, the ovules develop into ___________ and

the ovary matures into a ___________.
46. The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as
___________
47. In marginal placentation the placenta forms a ridge along the
___________ surface of the ovary and the ovules are borne on this
ridge forming two rows as in pea.
48. When the placenta is axial and the ovules are attached to it in a
multiocular ovary, the placentation is said to be ___________, as in
china rose, tomato and lemon.
49. When the ovules are borne on central axis and septa are
absent as in Dianthus and Primrose the placentation is called
___________.
50. In sunflower and marigold, the placentation is ___________.
51. Fruit is a mature or ripened ___________, developed after
fertilization

52. If a fruit is formed without fertilization of the ovary, it is called

a ___________ fruit.
53. In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as a ___________
which develop from monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one
seeded.

54. In coconut which is drupe, the ___________ is fibrous.

55. A seed is made up of a ___________ and an ___________.

56. The seed coat has two layers, the outer ___________ and inner
___________.
57. The ___________ is a scar on the seed coat through which the
developing seeds were attached to the fruit.

58. At the two ends of the embryonal axis are present

___________ and ___________.
59. In some seeds such as castor the ___________ formed as a
result of double fertilization, is a food storing tissue.

60. The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a

proteinous layer called ___________ layer.
61. The plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are
called ___________ and ___________ respectively in monocot.

62. In the floral formula, Br stands for bracteate, K stands for

___________; and % for ___________ nature of flower.
63. The position of the mother axis with respect to the
___________ is represented by a dot on the top of the floral
diagram.
64. ___________ family was earlier called Papilionoideace, a
subfamily of family Leguminosae.
65. In Fabaceae, a posterior petal is called ___________, two
lateral ___________ and two anterior forming ___________.

66. Moong, Cesbania and soyabean belong to family ___________.

67. Solanaceae commonly called as the ___________ family.

68. Floral family of Solanaceae is ___________ .

69. In Fabaceae family petals shows ___________ aestivation.

70. Ashwagandha and Petunia belong to ___________ family.

71. ___________ is floral formula of liliaceae.

72. Liliaceae family show ___________ placentation.

73. Liliaceae family belong to ___________ plants.

74. Asparagus and Colchicum belong to ___________ family.

Anatomy of Flowering plants
1. In plants, tissues are classified into two main groups, namely,
meristematic and ___________ tissues based on whether the cells
being formed are capable of ___________ or not.
2. Growth in plants is largely restricted to specialized regions of
active cell division called ___________ .
3. During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some
cells ‘left behind’ from shoot apical meristem, constitute the
___________.
4. The meristem which occurs between mature tissues is known as
___________ meristem.
5. The meristem that occurs in the mature regions of roots and
shoots of many plants, particularly those that produce woody axis
and appear later than primary meristem is called ___________ or
___________ meristem.
6. Fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicular cambium and cork-
cambium are examples of ___________ meristems.
7. During the formation of the primary plant body, specific regions
of the ___________ meristem produce dermal tissues, ground
tissues and ___________ tissues.
8. ___________ tissues having many different types of cells are
called complex tissues.

9. The ___________ occurs in layers below the epidermis in

dicotyledonous plants.
10. ___________ consists of long, narrow cells with thick and
lignified cell walls having a few or numerous pits.
11. ___________ are commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts;
pulp of fruits like guava, pear and sapota; seed coats of legumes
and leaves of tea.
12. Gymnosperms lack ___________ in their xylem.

13. The presence of vessels is a characteristic feature of

___________.
14. In flowering plants, ___________ and ___________ are the
main water transporting element.

15. The first formed primary xylem elements are called

___________.
16. In roots, the ___________ xylem lies towards periphery and
___________xylem lies toward the centre. Such arrangement of
primary xylem is called ___________.
17. Phloem in angiosperms is composed of ___________ elements,
___________, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibers.
18. The functions of sieve tubes are controlled by the nucleus of
___________.

19. The companion cells are specialized ___________ cells, which

are closely associated with sieve tube elements.
20. The sieve tube elements and companion cells are connected by
___________ present between their common longitudinal walls.

21. The companion cells help in maintaining the pressure gradient

in the ___________.
22. Phloem ___________ is absent in most of the monocotyledons.

23. Phloem fibres are made up of ___________ cells.

24. The first formed primary phloem consists of narrow sieve tubes
and is referred to as ___________.
25. The outside of the epidermis is often covered with a waxy thick
layer called ___________ which prevents the loss of water. Cuticle
is absent in ___________.
26. Each stoma is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as
___________ cells. In grasses, those cells are ___________ shaped.

27. The ___________ walls of guard cells are thin and the
___________ walls are highly thickened.
28. The stomatal aperture, guard cells and the surroundings
subsidiary cells are together called ___________.

29. Epidermal hairs on the stem are called ___________.

30. All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles constitute
the ___________ tissues.

31. In leaves, the ground tissue consists of thin-walled chloroplast

containing cells and is called ___________.
32. The ___________ and ___________ together constitute
vascular bundles.

33. Vascular bundles having ___________ that possess the ability

to form secondary xylem and phloem.
34. In the monocotyledons, the vascular bundles have no cambium
present in them. Hence, since they do not form secondary tissue
they are referred as ___________.
35. In ___________ type of vascular bundles, the xylem and
phloem are situated at the same radius of vascular bundles.
36. The ___________ vascular bundles usually have the phloem
located only on the outer side of xylem.

37. ___________ is a single layer of barrel-shaped cells without

any intercellular spaces in cortex in roots.
38. The tangential as well as radial walls of the endodermal cells in
cortex have a deposition of water impermeable, waxy material
suberin in the form of ___________.
39. The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and
phloem are called ___________ tissue.
40. Dicot root usually have___________ xylem and phloem
patches.

41. All tissues on the inner side of the endodermis such as

pericycle, vascular bundles and pith constitute the ___________.
42. There are usually more than ___________ xylem bundles in the
monocot root.
43. The outer hypodermis consists of few layers of ___________
cells just below the epidermis, which provide mechanical strength
to the young stem.
44. The cells of the endodermis are rich in ___________ grains and
the layer is also referred to as the ___________.
45. A large number of vascular bundles are arranged in a ring; the
‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of
___________ stem.
46. The monocot stem has a ___________ hypodermis and a large
number of ___________ vascular bundles.

47. The ___________ epidermis generally bears more stomata

than the ___________ epidermis.
48. The sizes of the vascular bundles are dependent on the size of
the ___________.
49. In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins
modify themselves into large, empty, colourless cells. These are
called ___________ cells.
50. The tissues involved in secondary growth are the two
___________meristem: vascular cambium and cork cambium.

51. In dicot ___________, the cells of cambium present between

primary xylem and primary phloem is the ___________ cambium.
52. The cells of medullary rays adjoining intrafascicular cambium
become meristematic and form the ___________.

53. The cambium is generally more active on the ___________ side

than on the ___________.
54. In the ___________ season, cambium is very active and
produces a large of xylarly elements having vessels with wider
cavities.
55. The ___________ wood is lighter in colour and has a lower
density.
56. The two kinds of woods that appear as alternate concentric
rings, constitute an ___________.

57. In old trees, the greater part of ___________ xylem is dark

brown due to deposition of organic like tannins, resins, oils, gums.
58. In old trees, the region comprising dead elements with highly
lignified walls and is called ___________wood.

59. The peripheral region of the secondary xylem is lighter in

colour and is known as the ___________wood.
60. The ___________ is impervious to water due to suberin
deposition on the cell wall.

61. ___________, phellem, and ___________ are collectively

known as periderm.
62. ___________ is a non-technical term that refers to all tissues
exterior to the vascular cambium. When it is formed early in the
season, it is called ___________ or ___________ bark.
63. In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is completely
___________ in origin.
64. The ground tissue system forms the main bulk of the plant. It is
divided into three zones- ___________, pericycle and
___________.
65. The wood is actually a secondary ___________.
Structural organisation in animals
1. _______________ epithelium is found in wall of blood vessels
and air sacs of lungs.

2. _______________ epithelium is found in ducts of glands and

tubular part of nephrons.
3. _______________ epithelium lines the inner surface of stomach
and intestine.
4. The columnar or cuboidal cells bearing cilia on their surface are
called _______________ epithelium and are present in inner
surface of hollow organs like _______________ and
_______________ .
5. The goblet cells of alimentary canal has _______________ type of glandular
epithelium whereas salivary gland has _______________ type.

6. _______________ epithelium covers the dry surface of the skin, moist surface of
buccal cavity, pharynx, innerlining of duct of salivary glands and of pancreatic duct.
7. _______________ junctions help to stop substances from
leaking across a tissue whereas _______________ junction
facilitate cells to communicate with each other by connecting the
cytoplasms of adjoining cells.
8. _______________ junctions performs cementing to keep
neighbouring cells together.

9. In all connective tissue except, _______________ the cells

secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
10. _______________ attach skeletal muscles to bones and
_______________ attach one bone to another and both are
example of _______________ type of connective tissue.
11. The cells of cartilage called _______________ are enclosed in
small cavities within matrix secreted by them.
12. The cells of bone called _______________ are present in the
spaces called lacunae.

13. The _______________ in some bone is the site of production of

blood cells.
14. The fibres of muscle tissue are composed of numerous fine
fibrils, called _______________ .

15. The _______________ muscle fibres taper at both ends

(fusiform) and do not show striation.
16. The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach
and intestine contains _______________ muscle tissue.
17. _______________ muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present
in heart only and contain communication junctions called
_______________ at some fusion points to allow cell to contract as
a unit.
18. _______________ is the unit of neural system and are
exictable cells.

19. _______________ makes up more than one-half the volume of

neural tissue in our body.
20. _______________ refers to study of externally visible feature
of organism.

21. _______________ term is used for the study of morphology of

internal organs in the animals.
22. The common Indian earthworms are _______________ and
_______________ .
23. The faecal deposit of earthworm is called _______________
and the process of increasing the fertility of soil by earthworm is
called _______________ .
24. In earthworm, _______________ is a lobe which serves as a
covering for the mouth.
25. In earthworm, the first body segment is called
_______________ which contain mouth.

26. In earthworm, segment 14-16 are covered by a prominent dark

band of glandular tissue called _______________ .
27. In earthworm, a single female genital pore is present in mid-
ventral line of _______________ segment and a pair of male
genital pores are present on ventro-lateral sides of
_______________ segment.
28. _______________ can be extended or retracted and play
principle role in locomotion in pheretima.

29. The body wall of earthworm is covered externally by a thin

non-cellular _______________ layer.
30. A small narrow tube, oesophagus continues into a muscular
_______________ which helps in grinding in earthworm.

31. _______________ gland is present in stomach of earthworm to

neutralise the humic acid present in humus.
32. In earthworm, after _______________ segment there is
presence of internal median fold of dorsal wall called
_______________ that increase effective area of absorption.
33. Blood glands in earthworm are present in _______________
segments.
34. The excretory organs present in earthworm is called
_______________ .

35. _______________ nephridia forms forests of nephridia in

clitellar region.
36. There are _______________ pair of heart in earthworm.

37. There are _______________ pair of testis in earthworm which

are present in _______________ segments.
38. _______________ receive and store spermatozoa during
copulation in female earthworm.

39. Fertilisation in earthworm occur within the _______________

and development is _______________ .
40. On an average, each cocoon produces _______________ baby
earthworm.

41. The scientific name of common cockroach is _______________

.
42. In each segment of cockroach, exoskeleton has hardened
plates called _______________ .
43. Dorsally, sclerite is called _______________ and ventrally it is
called _______________ and are joined to each other by
_______________ membrane.
44. The mouth part of cockroach is _______________ type.

45. The first pair of wings arises from _______________ and

second pair from _______________ in cockroach.
46. Mesothoracic wing in cockroach is also called as
_______________ .

47. Male cockroach bear a pair of short, thread like

_______________, which are absent in female.
48. In both sexes in cockroach, the 10th segment bears a pair of
jointed filamentous structures called _______________ .
49. In cockroach _______________ is present at junction of midgut
and hindgut which help in removal of excretory products from
haemolymph.
50. A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called _______________ is present
at junction of foregut and midgut in cockroach.
51. In cockroach _______________ is present at junction of midgut
and hindgut which help in removal of excretory products from
haemolymph.
52. Blood from sinuses enter heart through _______________ and
is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again in cockroach.
53. The respiratory system consists of a network of trachea, that
open through _______________ pair of small holes called
_______________ .
54. Cockroach converts nitrogenous waste product into
_______________ and hence is called _______________ organism.

55. In cockroach, _______________ ganglia lie in the thorax, and

_______________ in the abdomen.
56. Each eye in cockroach consists of about 2000 hexagonal
_______________ and gives _______________ vision.

57. The chitinous asymmetrical strcuture surrounding the

gonopore is called _______________ in cockroach.
58. In male cockroach, _______________ gland act as reproductive
gland.

59. In female cockroach, each ovary is formed of a group of

_______________ ovarioles.
60. The fertilized eggs are encased in capsules called
_______________ in cockroach.

61. On an average, female cockroach produce _______________

oothecae, each containing _______________ eggs.
62. In cockroach, nymph grows by moulting about
_______________ times to reach adult form.

63. The most common species of frog found in India is

_______________ .
64. Summer sleep is called _______________ whereas winter sleep
is called _______________ in animals such as frog.

65. _______________ protects eyes of frog in water.

66. In frog, hind limbs end in _______________ digits whereas fore
limbs end in _______________ digits. The copulatory pad is
present on the _______________ digit of _______________ limb
in male.
67. The length of intestine is reduced in frog as frogs are
_______________ organism.

68. During aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange take

place through _______________ in frog.
69. Frog has _______________ chambered heart containing
_______________ atria and _______________ ventricle.

70. The ventricle of heart in frog opens into a sac-like conus

arteriosus on _______________ side of heart.
71. Frog excretes _______________ as nitrogenous waste, thus is a
_______________ animal.

72. In frog there are _______________ pair of cranial nerves

arising from the brain.
73. Male reproductive organs in frog are found adhered to upper
part of kidney by a double fold of peritoneum called
_______________. Vasa efferentia enter the kidney and opens into
_______________ .
74. In frog _______________ is a small, median chamber that is
used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperm to the exterior.
75. A mature female frog can lay _______________ ova at a time.
Fertilisation is _______________ and development involves a
larval stage called _______________ .
MORPHOLOGY
1. Primary root
2. Monocotyledonous
3. Radical
4. Maturation
5. Maturation
6. Tap ; adventitious
7. Prop
8. Stilt
9. Pneumatophores
10. Nodes
11. Stems
12. Axillary
13. Pistia ; Eichhornia
14. Apical meristems ; acropetal
15. Petiole ; lamina
16. Monocotyledons
17. Pulvinus
18. Veins
19. Lamina
20. Dicotyledonous ;
monocotyledons
21. Compound
22. Rachis
23. Palmately
24. Phyllotaxy
25. Cymose
26. Basipetal
27. Perianth
28. Actinomorphic
29. Zygomorphic
30. Acropetal
31. Gynoecium
32. Thalamus
33. Superior
34. Perigymous ; half inferior
35. Aestivation
36. Valvate
37. Imbricate
38. Staminode
39. Epipetalous ; epiphyllous
40. Monoadelphous
41. Stigma ; style ; ovary
42. Style
43. Placenta
44. Apocarpous
45. Seeds ; Fruit
46. Placentation
47. Ventral
48. Axile
49. Free central
50. Basal
51. Ovary
52. Parthenocarpic
53. Drupe
54. Mesocarp
55. Seed coat ; embryo
56. Testa ; tegmen
57. Hilum
58. Radicle ; plumule
59. Endosperm
60. Aleurone
61. Coleoptiles ; coleorhizae
62. Calyx ; zygomorphic
63. Flower
64. Fabaceae
65. Standard ; wings ;keel
66. Fabaceae
67. Potato

68.
69. Vexillary
70. Solanaceae
71.
72. Axile
73. Monocotyledonous
74. Liliaceae
ANATOMY
1. Permanent ; dividing
2. Meristem
3. Axillary bud
4. Intercalary
5. Secondary ; lateral
6. Lateral
7. Apical ; vascular
8. Permanent
9. Collenchymas
10. Sclerenchyma
11. Sclerids
12. Vessels
13. Angiosperms
14. Tracheids ; vessels
15. Protoxylem
16. Proto ; meta ; exarch
17. Sieve tube ; companion cells
18. Companion cells
19. Parenchymatous
20. Pit fields
21. Sieve tubes
22. Parenchyma
23. Sclerenchymatous
24. Protophloem
25. Cuticle ; roots
26. Guard ; dumb-bell
27. Outer ; inner
28. Stomatal apparatus
29. Trichomes
30. Ground
31. Mesophyll
32. Xylem ; phloem
33. Open vascular bundles
34. Closed
35. Conjoint
36. Conjoint
37. Endodermis
38. Casparian strips
39. Conjuctive
40. 2-4
41. Stele
42. Six
43. Collenchymatous
44. Starch ; starch sheath
45. Dicot
46. Sclerenchymatous, scattered
47. Abaxial ; adaxial
48. Veins
49. Buliform
50. Lateral meristems
51. Stems ; intrafascicular
52. Interfascicular cambium
53. Inner; outer
54. Spring
55. Spring
56. Annual ring
57. Secondary
58. Heart
59. Sap
60. Cork
61. Phellogen ; phelloderm
62. Bark ; early; soft
63. secondary
64. Cortex ; pith
65. Xylem
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
1. squamous
2. cuboidal
3. columnar
4. ciliated; bronchioles; fallopian tubes
5. unicellular; multicellular
6. compound
7. Tight ; Gap
8. Adhering
9. blood
10. tendon; ligament; dense regular
11. chondrochytes
12. osteocytes
13. bone-marrow
14. myofibrils
15. smooth
16. smooth
17. cardiac; intercalated discs
18. Neurons
19. Neuroglia
20. Morphology
21. Anatomy
22. Pheretima ; Lumbricus
23. worm castings; vermicomposting
24. prostomium
25. peristomium
26. clitellum
27. 14th ; 18th
28. setae
29. cuticle
30. gizzard
31. calciferous
32. 26th; typhlosole
33. 4th, 5th & 6th
34. nephridia
35. integumentary
36. 2
37. 2; 10th & 11th
38. spermathecae
39. cocoon; direct
40. 4
41. Periplaneta americana
42. sclerites
43. tergites; sternites; arthrodial
44. biting and chewing
45. mesothorax; metathorax
46. tegmina
47. anal styles
48. anal cerci
49. crop
50. hepatic caecae
51. Malphigian tubules
52. ostia
53. 10; spiracles
54. uric acid; uricotelic
55. 3 ; 6
56. ommatidia; mosaic
57. phallomere/gonapophysis
58. mushroom
59. eight
60. oothecae
61. 9-10; 14-16
62. 13
63. Rana tigrina
64. aestivation; hibernation
65. nictitating membrane
66. 5; 4; 1st; fore
67. carnivores
68. skin
69. 3; 2; 1
70. ventral
71. urea; ureotelic
72. 10
73. mesorchium; Bidder’s canal
74. cloaca
75. 2500-3000; external; tadpole
Cell : The unit of life
1. _______________ is the fundamental strcutural and functional
unit of all living organism.

2. _______________ first saw and described a live cell and

_______________ discovered the nucleus.
3. _______________ and _______________ together formulated
the cell theory.

4. ‘Omnis cellula-e-cellula’ was explained by _______________ .

5. Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called
_______________ whereas cells that lack a membrane bound
nucleus are called _______________ .
6. _______________ are non-membrane bound organelles found
in ALL cells.
7. The smallest cell is _______________ of _____μm in length.

8. The four basic shapes of bacteria are bacillus (rod like), coccus
(spherical), _______________ (comma shaped) and
_______________ (spiral).
9. A typical eukaryotic cell is of 10-20μm, PPLO _____μm and that
of viruses is _____μm.

10. Many bacteria have small circular DNA in addition to genomic

DNA and is called _______________ .
11. In bacteria, the infolding of cell membrane is called
_______________, which is the charateristic of prokaryotes.

12. The cell envelope of prokaryotic cell consist of three layer -

_______________ , _______________ and _______________ .
13. In some prokaryotes, glycocalyx could be loose sheath called
_______________ and in sometime it may be thick and tough
called _______________ .
14. In bacteria, _______________ determines the shape of cell and
provides structural support.
15. In cyanobacteria, the membranous extensions into cytoplasm
called _______________ contains pigments.
16. Motile bacteria have thin filamentous extension from their cell
wall called _______________ , which is composed of three parts
_______________ , _______________ and basal body.
_______________ is the
longest portion and extend from cell surface to the outside.
17. Surface structure present in bacteria are flagella,
_______________ and _______________ .
18. Ribosome are about _______________ size and are made up of
two subunits- _______________ and _______________, which
form _______________ prokaryotic ribosome.
19. Several ribosome may attach to a single mRNA and form a
chain called _______________ .
20. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in cytoplasm in
the form of _______________ .

21. The cell membrane is composed of _______________ that are

arranged in a _______________ .
22. In humans, the membrane of the erythrocyte has
approximately _________% protein and _________% lipids.
23. According to _______________ model, the quasi-fluid nature
of lipid enables lateral movement of protein within the overall
bilayer. This model was given by _______________ and
_______________ in _______________ .
24. Movement of water by diffusion across plasma membrane is
called _______________ .

25. Na+/K+ pump is example of _______________ transport.

26. In cell wall of plant cell, _______________ wall is capable of
growth and _______________ wall is formed on inner side of cell.
27. The middle lamella is a layer made up of _______________
pectate which glues neighbouring cells together and
_______________ connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.
28. The endomembrane system include cell organelles such as
_______________ , _______________ and _______________ .

29. The ER bearing _______________ on their surface is called

RER.
30. The SER is the major site of synthesis of _______________ .

31. The Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the

nucleus with distinct convex cis called _______________ face and
concave trans called _______________ face.
32. The vesicles from the ER fuse with _______________ face of
golgi apparatus and move towards _______________ face.

33. Gogli apparatus is the important site of formation of

_______________ and _______________ .
34. The lysosomal vesicles are rich in ______________ enzymes
that are optimally active in _____________ pH.

35. The vacuole is bound by a _______________ membrane called

_______________ .
36. In Amoeba, the _______________ vacuole is important for
excretion and in protists cell, _______________ vacuole are
formed by engulfing the food particles .
37. Mitochondria and Chloroplast are _______________
membrane-bound structures.
38. The inner compartment of mitochondria is called
_______________ and possesses _______________ DNA
molecules.
39. _______________ organelle is site of aerobic respiration and it
divide by a fission.
40. Plastid are classified based on _______________ into
chloroplasts, _______________ and _______________.
41. _______________ type of leucoplast stores carbohydrates,
_______________ store oils and fats whereas _______________
store proteins.
42. Chlamydomonas, a green algae has _______________
chloroplast per cell.

43. The space limited by inner membrane of chloroplast is called

_______________ .
44. Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like the piles of coin called
_______________ and are connected to other thylakoid of
different stacks by membranous tubules called _______________ .
45. The ribosome of chloroplast and mitochondria are of
_______________ unit.
46. Ribosome are composed of _______________ and
_______________ .

47. Eukaryotic ribosome are 80S. Here ‘S’ is _______________

which stands for the _______________ .
48. The core of flagella is called _______________ which consist of
_______________ pairs of doublets of radially arranged peripheral
microtubules and _______________ pair of centrally located
microtubules.
49. The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in flagella is
referred to as _______________ array.
50. In flagella, the central tubules are connected by bridges and is
enclosed by _______________ , which is connected to one of each
peripheral doublets by _______________ .
51. The cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole-like structure
called the _______________ .
52. Centriole is made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of
_______________ protein.
53. The central part of the proximal region of the centriole is called
_______________ , which is connected with tubules of peripheral
triplets by _______________ .
54. The space between two parallel membranes of nuclear
envelope is called _______________ .

55. The nuclear matrix is called as _______________ , which

contain _______________ and chromatin.
56. Nucleolus is a site for _______________ RNA synthesis.

57. The interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network of

nucleoprotein fibres called _______________, which contains DNA
and some basic protein called _______________ .
58. Based on position of _______________ , chromosome are
submetacentric, _______________ and _______________ .
59. The primary constriction in a structure of chromosome is
_______________ and the secondary constriction give small
fragment called _______________ .
60. The _______________ in the plastid is the site of light reactions
and the _______________ of dark reaction.
Biomolecules
1. All the carbon compounds that we get from living tissues can be
called as ___________.

2. In amino acid, all the substituent are on the same α-carbon and
hence they are called as ___________.
3. The R-group is ___________ in glycine; methyl group in
___________ amino acid ; and ___________ group in serine.
4. Palmitic acid has ___________ carbon atoms including carboxy
carbon and arachidonic acid has ___________ carbon atoms
including carboxy carbon.
5. Simple lipid glycerol is actually ___________.

6. Fatty acids are called as fats and oils based on ___________.

7. Oils have ___________ melting point and hence remain as oil in
winters.

8. ___________ is one of phospholipid present in the cell

membrane.
9. When nitrogenous bases are attached to a sugar, they are called
___________. When phosphate group also gets attached it is
called ___________.
10. The molecular weight of all compound found in acid soluble
pool ranges from ___________ to ___________daltons
approximately.
11. The compound in acid insoluble fraction except ___________
has molecular weight above 10000Da. And these compounds are
called ___________.
12. Each protein is made up of amino acids. As there are
___________ types of amino acid , protein is ___________
polymer.
13. ___________ is the most abundant protein in animal world and
___________ in the whole biosphere.
14. Cellulose is a ___________polymer.

15. Inulin is a polymer of ___________.

16. In polysaccharides chain, the ___________end is called
reducing end and ___________end is called nonreducing end.

17. The starch-I2 is ___________ in colour.

18. Plant cell walls are made of ___________ polysaccharide.

19. Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fibre contains
___________ polysaccharide mainly.
20. ___________ and ___________ nitrogenous bases constitute
purines.

21. A nucleic acid containing ___________ is called DNA while that

which contain ___________ is called RNA.
22. ___________ structure of protein is the sequence of amino
acids in it.
23. In protein, the first amino acid is also called as ___________-
terminal amino acid and last amino acid is called the ___________-
terminal amino acid.
24. In proteins, only ___________ handed helices are observed.

25. ___________ structure gives the 3-Dimensional view of

protein.
26. ___________ structure of protein is absolutely necessary for
many biological activities of proteins.

27. The adult Hb shows ___________ structure of protein and it

consists of ___________ subunits.
28. The two subunits of Hb molecule consist of ___________ type
and two subunits of ___________ type.

29. In a polypeptide or protein, amino acids are linked by a

___________ bond.
30. In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharide are linked
by ___________ bond.
31. In a nucleic acid, a phosphate moiety links the ___________-
carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the ___________-carbon
of the sugar of the succeeding nucleotide.
32. In nucleic acid, the bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl
group of sugar is ___________ bond. As there is one such bond on
either side, it is called ___________ bond.
33. The backbone of nucleic acid is formed by ___________ chain.
34. The nitrogen bases are projected ___________ to the
backbone of nucleic acid.

35. There are ___________ hydrogen bonds between A and T and

___________ hydrogen bonds between G and C.
36. In B-DNA, at each step of ascent the strand turns ___________
and rise per base pair would be ___________ Å.
37. ___________ of biomolecules means that biomolecules are
constantly being changed into some other biomolecules and also
made from other biomolecules.
38. Together all the chemical reactions involving breaking and
making, taking place in organism is called as ___________.

39. The proteins with catalytic power are named as ___________.

40. Metabolic pathways that lead to a more complex structure
from a simpler structure are called as ___________ pathway.

41. Metabolic pathways that lead to simpler structure from a

complex structure are called as ___________ pathway.
42. The metabolic pathway from glucose to pyruvate occurs in
___________ metabolic steps and process is called ___________.

43. The most important form of energy currency in living systems is

the bond energy in a chemical called ___________.
44. The blood concentration of glucose in a normal healthy
individual is ___________mM.

45. The living state is a ___________steady state to be able to

perform work.
46. Almost all enzymes are ___________ but there are some
___________ that behave like enzymes and are called
___________
47. Rate of reaction refers to the amount of product formed
___________ and is expressed as ___________
48. A general rule of thumb is that rate doubles or decreases by
half for every ___________°C change in either direction.
49. The formation of carbonic acid by CO2 and H2O without
enzyme produces ___________molecules of H2CO3 per hour; and
with enzyme called ___________ produces ___________molecules
of H2CO3 per second.
50. Low temperature preserves the enzymes in a temporarily
___________ state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic
activity because protein are ___________ by heat.
51. When the binding of the chemical shuts off enzyme activity,
the process is called ___________ and the chemical is called an
___________.
52. ___________inhibitors are used in the control of bacterial
pathogens.
53. When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its
molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is
known as ___________ inhibitor.
54. Enzymes are divided into ___________ classes each with 4-13
subclasses and named accordingly by a ___________-digit number.
58. The protein portion of the enzymes is called ___________ and
non-proteinous constituent called ___________.

59. Coenzyme NAD and NADP contain the vitamin ___________.

60. ___________ is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase.
Cell cycle and cell division
1. Any sexually reproducing organism starts its life cycle from a
single-celled _______________

2. The stages through which a cell passed from one division to the
next is called _______________ .
3. Yeast progresses through the cell cycle in _______________
minute.
4. The cell cycle is divided into two phase _______________ and
_______________ .
5. Nuclear division is known as _______________ while cytoplasm
division is known as _______________ .
6. In cell cycle, the resting phase during which cell is preparing for
cell division is called _______________ .
7. _______________ phase of interphase is period when cell grows
and carries out normal metabolism.
8. During _______________ phase of interphase, amount of DNA
per cell doubles.
9. If the cell has 2n number of chromosome at G1, then number of
chromosome after S phase will be _______________ .

10. G0 phase of cell cycle is called _______________ stage.

11. During _______________ phase of M-phase of cell cycle,
duplicated centriole begins to move towards opposite pole of cell.

12. _______________ structure on surface of centromere serve as

the sites of attachment of spindle fibres to the chromosome.
13. The plane of alignment of chromosome at metaphase is
referred to as the _______________ .

14. _______________ stage of M-phase is characterised by

splitting of centromeres and seperation of chromatids.
15. Nuclear envelope assembles around chromosome cluster in
_______________ stage of M-phase.
16. During cytokinesis in plant cell, formation of cell plate occur
that represent _______________ between the walls of two
adjacent cells.
17. During _______________ stage of Prophase I, chromosome
start pairing together. This process of association is called
_______________ .
18. During zygotene stage, the complex formed by a pair of
synapsed Homologous chromosome is called a _______________ .
19. Crossing over occur during _______________ stage of
Prophase I and is enzyme-mediated process and enzyme involved
is called _______________ .
20. The site of crossover is X-shaped strcuture called
_______________ in diplotene stage.
21. Mitosis is also called _______________ whereas meiosis is
called _______________ .

22. Number of daughter cell form after mitosis is

_______________ and after meiosis is _______________ .
23. Crossing-over occurs between _______________ chromatids of
homologous chromosome.
Cell : The Unit of life
1. cell
2. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek; Robert Brown
3. Schleiden; Schwann
4. Rudolf Virchow
5. eukaryotic; prokaryotic
6. Ribosome
7. Mycoplasma; 0.3
8. vibrio; spirillum
9. 0.1; 0.02-0.2
10. plasmid
11. mesosome
12. glycocalyx; cellwall; plasma membrane
13. slime layer; capsule
14. cell wall
15. chromatophores
16. flagella; filament; hook; filament
17. pili; fimbriae
18. 15-20 nm; 50S; 30S; 70S
19. polyribosomes (or) polysome
20. inclusion bodies
21. lipids; bilayer
22. 52; 40
23. fluid mosaic model; Singer; Nicolson; 1972
24. osmosis
25. active
26. primary; secondary
27. calcium pectate; plasmodesmata
28. ER, golgi complex; lysosome
29. ribosome
30. lipid
31. forming; maturing
32. cis; maturing
33. glycoproteins; glycolipid
34. hydrolytic; acidic
35. single; tonoplast
36. contractile; food
37. double
38. matrix; circular
39. Mitochondria
40. pigment; chromoplast; leucoplast
41. amyloplast; elaioplasts; aleuroplasts
42. one
43. stroma
44. grana; stroma lamellae
45. 70
46. ribonucleic acid; protein
47. svedberg’s unit ;sedimentation coefficient
48. axoneme; nine; one
49. 9+2 array
50. central sheath; radial spoke
51. basal bodies
52. tubulin
53. centriole
54. perinuclear space
55. nucleoplasm; nucleolus
56. ribosomal
57. chromatin; histones
58. centromere; acrocentric; telocentric
59. centromere; satellite
60. grana; stroma
Cell : Biomolecules
1. Biomolecules
2. Á-amino acid
3. Hydrogen ; alanine ; serine
4. 16 ; 20
5. Trihydroxy propane
6. Melting point
7. Lower
8. Lecithin
9. Nucleoside ; nucleotides
10. 18 ; 800
11. Lipids ; biomacromolecules
12. 20 ; hetero
13. Collagen ; RuBisCo
14. Homo
15. Fructose
16. Right ; left
17. Blue
18. Cellulose
19. Cellulose
20. Adenine ; guanine
21. Deoxyribose ;ribose
22. Primary
23. N; C
24. Right
25. Tertiary
26. Tertiary
27. Quaternary ; 4
28. alpha ; bita
29. peptide
30. glycosidic
31. 3’ ; 5’
32. Ester ; phosphodiester
33. Sugar-phosphate-sugar
34. Perpendicular
35. 2 ;3
36. 36p ; 3.4
37. Turn over
38. Metabolism
39. Enzymes
40. Anabolic
41. catabolic
42. 10; glycolysis
43. ATP
44. 4.5-5.0mM
45. Non-equilibrium
46. Protein ; nucleic acid ; ribozyme
47. Per unit time ;
48. 10oC
49. 200 ; carbonic anhydrase ; 600,000
50. Inactive ; denatured
51. Inhibition ; inhibitor
52. Competitive
53. Competitive
54. 6 ; 4
55. Oxidized ; reduced
56. S ; S’-G
57. X-Y ; C C
58. Apoenzyme ; cofactor
59. Niacin
60. Zn
Cell cycle & Cell division
1. Zygote
2. cell cycle
3. 90
4. Interphase; M-Phase
5. Karyokinesis; Cytokinesis
6. interphase
7. G1
8. S
9. 2n
10. quiescent
11. prophase
12. kinetochores
13. metaphase plate
14. anaphase
15. telophase
16. middle lamellae
17. zygotene; synapsis
18. bivalent
19. pachytene; recombinase
20. chiasmata
21. equatorial; reductional
22. 2; 4
23. non-sister
 Transport in Plants
1. Transport over longer distances proceeds through the vascular
system which is called ___________.
2. Transport in xylem is essentially ___________, however in
phloem it is ___________.

3. In diffusion, substance move from regions of ___________

concentration to regions of ___________ concentration.
4. ___________ is very important to plants since it is the only
means for gaseous movements within the plant body.
5. The diffusion of any substance across a membrane also depends
on its solubility in ___________, the major constituent of the
membrane.
6. In ___________ diffusion special proteins help move substance
across membranes without expenditure of ATP energy.
7. The ___________ are proteins that form huge pores in the outer
membranes of the plastids, mitochondria and some bacteria
allowing molecules up to the size of small proteins to pass through.
8. Water channels are made up ___________ different types of
___________ .
9. In a ___________, both molecules cross the membrane in the
same direction; and in an ___________ they move in opposite
direction.
10. ___________ are proteins that use energy to carry substance
across the cell membrane in active transport.
11. A watermelon has over ___________% water and most
herbaceous plants have only about ___________% of its fresh
weight as dry matter.
12. Terrestrial plants take up huge amount water but most of it is
lost to the air through evaporation from the leaves due to
___________.
13. ___________ and ___________ are the two main components
that determine water potential.
14. Water potential is denoted by the Greek symbol Psi or Ψ and is
expressed in pressure units such as ___________.

15. For a solution at atmospheric pressure, Ψw=___________.

16. ___________ is the term used to refer specifically to the
diffusion of water across a differentially- or semi-permeable
membrane.
17. The net direction and rate of osmosis depends on both the
___________ and ___________ gradient.
18. More the ___________ concentration, greater will be the
osmotic pressure required to prevent water from diffusing in.
19. Numerically osmotic pressure is equivalent to the
___________, but the sign is opposite.
20. Osmotic pressure is the ___________ pressure applied, while
osmotic potential is ___________.

21. If the external solution balances the osmotic pressure of the

cytoplasm, it is said to be ___________.
22. Cells swell in ___________ solution and shrinks in
___________ solution.

23. ___________ occurs when water moves out of the cell and cell
membrane of a plant cell shrinks away from its cell wall.
24. When water flows into the cell and out of the cell and are in
equilibrium, the cells are said to be ___________.

25. Water diffuses into the cell causing the cytoplasm to build up a
pressure against the wall, which is called ___________.
26. The ___________ pressure is ultimately responsible for
enlargement and extension of growth of cells.
27. ___________ is a special type of diffusion when water is
absorbed by solids-colloids-causing them to enormously increase
in volume.
28. Absorption of water by seeds and dry wood are examples of
___________.

29. The movement of a molecule across a typical plant cell takes

approximately ___________.
30. The movement of water exclusively through the intercellular
spaces and the walls of cells occur through ___________ pathway.
31. During symplastic movement, the water travels through the
cells- their cytoplasm; intercellular movement of water is through
the ___________.
32. Symplastic movement may be aided by ___________.

33. Most of the water flow in the roots occurs via the
___________.
34. The endodermis is impervious to water because of a band of
suberised matrix called the ___________

35. A ___________ is a symbiotic association of fungus with a root

system.
36. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the presence of
___________.
37. Various ions from the soil are actively transported into the vascular
tissue of the roots, water follows and increases the pressure inside the
xylem, this positive pressure is called ___________.
38. Water loss in its liquid phase from plants in known as
___________.

39. Root pressure does not account for the majority of water
transport; most plants meet their need by ___________.
40. Water is mainly pulled through the plant, and that the driving
force for this process is transpiration from the leaves, this is
referred to as ___________ model for water transport.
41. The evaporative losses of water by plants occur mainly through
the ___________ in the leaves.
42. The opening of the stomata is also aided due to the orientation
of the ___________ in the cell walls of the guard cells.

43. ___________ microfibrils are oriented radially rather than

longitudinally making it easier for the stoma to open.
44. Usually the lower surface of a ___________ leaf has greater
number of stomata while in an ___________ leaf they are about
equal on both surfaces.
45. Attraction of water molecules to polar surface such as the
surface of tracheary elements is called ___________.
46. Measurements reveals that the forces generated by
transpiration can create pressure sufficient to lift a xylem sized
column of water over ___________ meters high.
47. Most minerals enter the root by ___________ absorption into
the cytoplasm of epidermal cells
48. Transport proteins of ___________ cells are control points,
where a plant adjusts the quantity and types of solutes that reach
the xylem.
49. The root of endodermis, because of the layer of ___________ , has the
ability to actively transport ions in one direction only.
50. Food, primarily sucrose, is transported by the vascular tissue phloem
from a ___________ to a ___________. Usually the ___________ is
understood to be that part of the plant which synthesizes the food, i.e., the
leaf, and ___________, the part that stores the food.
51. The accepted mechanism used for the translocation of sugars
from sucrose to sink is called the ___________ hypothesis.
52. The sugar moved in the form of ___________ into the
companion cell and then into the living phloem sieve tube cells by
active transport.
53. Elements most readily mobilized are P, S, ___________ and
___________.

54. C4 plants are ___________ as efficient as C3 plants in terms of

fixing carbon.
55. The inner cell wall of each guard cell, towards the stomatal
aperture is ___________ and ___________.
 Mineral Nutrition
1. The technique of growing plants in a nutrient solution is known
as ___________.
2. Macronutrients are generally present in plant tissues in large
amounts i.e., in excess of ___________ mmol kg-1 of dry matter.

3. C, H and O are macronutrients that are mainly obtained from

___________ and ___________.
4. Micronutrient or trace elements are needed in very small
amounts less than ___________ mmol kg-1 of dry matter.

5. C, H, O, N are essential elements that are component of

biomolecules and hence ___________ elements.
6. Mg of chlorophyll and P in ATP are essential elements that are
component of ___________ chemical compounds in plants.

7. ___________ is an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase and

___________ of nitrogenase during nitrogen metabolism.
8. ___________ is the essential element nutrient required by
plants in the greatest amount.

9. Phosphorous is absorbed by plants from soil in the form of

phosphate ions either as ___________ or ___________.
10. ___________ essential nutrient helps to maintain the ribosome
structure.

11. ___________ element is present in vitamins like thiamine,

biotin, coenzyme A.
12. ___________ element activates catalase enzyme and is
essential for the formation of chlorophyll.

13. ___________ element is required for uptake and utilization of

Ca2+, pollen germination and carbohydrate translocation.
14. ___________ is the loss of chlorophyll leading to yellowing in
leaves.
15. ___________ competes with Fe and Mg for uptake and with
Mg for binding with enzymes and also inhibit calcium translocation
in shoot apex.
16. The movement of ions into the apoplast is ___________
process and usually occurs through ___________.

17. The entry and exit of ions to and from the symplast is
___________ process.
18. The process of conversion of nitrogen to ammonia is termed as
___________.

19. Decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants and animals

into ammonia is called ___________.
20. Ammonia is oxidized to nitrite by the bacteria ___________
and ___________.

21. Nitrite is converted into nitrate by bacteria ___________.

22. Nitrate in soil is reduced to nitrogen by the process of
___________ which is carried by bacteria ___________ and
___________.
23. Reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living organism is called
___________.
24. Azobacter and Beijernicka are example of ___________
nitrogen-fixing ___________ microbes.

25. Rhodospirillium is example of free-living nitrogen fixing

___________ microbe.
26. ___________ bacteria has symbiotic association with roots of
legumes such as alfalfa, lentils, garden pea, etc.
27. ___________ microbe produces nitrogen-fixing nodules on the
roots of non-leguminous plants.
28. Initiation of nodule formation occurs in ___________ of root
when an infection thread is produced carrying the bacteria into
root.
29. The enzyme ____________ is a Mo-Fe protein and catalyze
conversion to atmospheric nitrogen to ___________.
30. To protect nitrogenase enzyme from oxygen, the nodule
contains an oxygen scavenger called ___________.
31. ___________ ATP are used for formation of one molecule of
ammonia in biological nitrogen fixation.
32. In reductive amination, ammonia reacts with α-ketoglutaric
acid and forms ___________.
33. α-ketoglutaric acid + _________ + NADPH glutamate +
H2O +NADP
34. The two most important amides ___________ and
___________ found in plants are structural part of proteins.
35. Along with the transpiration stream, the nodules of some
plants e.g. soyabean export the fixed nitrogen as ___________.
 Photosynthesis in higher plants
1. ___________ in 1770 performed a series of experiments that
revealed the essential role of air in the growth of green plants.
2. O2 evolved by the green plant comes from ___________.

3. The ___________cells in the leaves have a large numbers of

chloroplasts.
4. The membrane system is responsible for trapping the light
energy and also for the synthesis of ___________ and
___________ in chloroplast.
5. The wavelength at which there is maximum absorption by
chlorophyll-a , i.e. in the ___________ and ___________ region
shows higher rate of photosynthesis.
6. Chlorophyll- ___________ is the chief pigment associated with
photosynthesis.
7. Thylakoid pigments like ___________, xanthophylls and
___________ are accessory pigments that absorb light and transfer
the energy to chlorophyll-a.
8. The single ___________ molecule forms the reaction centre.
9. In PS-I, the reaction centre chlorophyll-a have an absorption
peak at ___________nm, hence is called___________, while in PS-
II it has absorption maxima at ___________nm, and is called
___________.
10. The splitting of water is associated with the PS-___________.
11. The process through which ATP is synthesized by cells is named
as ___________.
12. When the two photosystem work in a series, first PS-II and then
PS-I, a process called ___________phosphorylation occurs.
13. The membrane or lamellae of the grana have both PS-I and PS-
II and the ___________ membrane lack PSII as well as NADP
reductase enzyme.
14. Cyclic photophosphorylation occur when light of wavelength
beyond ___________nm are available for excitation.
15. ___________synthesis is linked to development of a proton
gradient across a membrane.

16. In respiration, protons accumulate in the ___________of

mitochondria when electrons move through the ETS.
17. The ___________ enzyme is located on the stroma side of the
membrane.
18. Within the chloroplast, protons in the ___________ decreases
in number, while in the lumen there is accumulation of protons.
19. The ___________ enzyme consists of two part: one called the
___________ is embedded in the membrane and forms a transmembrane
channel that carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the
membrane. The other portion is called ___________ and protrudes on the
outer surface of the thylakoid membrane.
20. Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a ___________pump, a
proton gradient and ___________.

21. The products of light reaction are ___________, NADPH and

___________.
22. The acceptor molecule of CO2 in dark reaction is a 5-C
___________ sugar- ___________.
23. The fixations of ___________ molecules of CO2 and
___________ turns of the cycle are required for the
removal of one molecule of glucose from the Calvin cycle pathway.
24. For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle, ___________
molecules of ATP and ___________ of NADPH are required.
25. ___________plants have a special type of leaf anatomy,
tolerate higher temperatures and lack a process of
photorespiration and have greater productivity of biomass.
26. Large cells around the vascular bundles of the C4 pathway
plants are called ___________ cells and the leaves which have such
anatomy are said to have ___________ anatomy.
27. ‘Kranz’ means ___________ and is a reflection of the
arrangement of cells.
28. C4 pathway has been named ___________ pathway.

29. In C4 plants, the primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-C molecule

___________ and is present in the mesophyll cells.
30. In C4 plants, mesophyll cells lack ___________ enzymes. The
C4 acid ___________ is formed in mesophyll cells

31. 4-C compounds like ___________ or ___________ formed in

mesophyll cell of C4 plants are transported to the bundle sheath.
32. The bundle sheath cells are rich in an enzyme ___________ but
lacks ___________.

33. ___________ pathway is common to C3 and C4 plants.

34. The active site of RuBisCO has both ___________ and
___________ binding sites. It has greater affinity for ___________.

35. PGA binds with O2 to form one molecule of ___________ and

___________ in a pathway called photorespiration.
36. C4 acid from the mesophyll is broken down in the bundle
sheath cells to release ___________- this results in increasing the
concentration of ___________.

37. ___________ is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis.

38. Increase in concentration upto ___________% can cause an
increase in CO2 fixation rates; beyond this the level can become
damaging over longer periods.
39. C4 plants show saturation at about ___________ μlL-1 while C3
responds to increased CO2 concentration and saturation is seen only beyond
___________ μlL-1 .
Respiration in plants
1. The breaking of C-C bonds of complex compounds through
oxidation within the cells, leading to release of considerable
amount of energy is called _______________ . The compounds
that are oxidised during this process are known as
_______________ .
2. _______________ acts as the energy currency of the cells.

3. Plants have no specialized organs for gaseous exchange but they

have _______________ and _______________ for this purpose.
4. The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid is called
_______________ .
5. The scheme of glycolysis was given by _______________ ,
_______________ and _______________ and is often referred to
as the EMP pathway.
6. Glycolysis occurs in _______________ of cell whereas citric acid
cycle occurs in _______________ .

7. In plants, glucose is derived from _______________ which is end

product of photosynthesis.
8. In glycolysis, a chain of _______________ reaction occurs.

9. Glycolysis starts with one molecule of six-carbon compound

glucose and ends in formation of _______________ molecules of
_______________ - Carbon compound pyruvic acid.
10. In muscle cells of animals, when oxygen is inadequate, pyruvic
acid is converted to _______________ by enzyme
_______________ .
11.pyruvic acid+CoA +NAD → AcetylCoA +CO2 +NADH+H
Above reaction is catalyzed by enzyme _______________ , which
requires presence of __________ion.
12. During the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic acid in citric
acid cycle, a molecule of _______________ is synthesised. This is a
_______________ phosphorylation.
13. In Mitochondrial matrix, _______________ mol of NADH
_______________ mol of FADH2 and _______________ mol of
ATP is synthesized from 1 mol of pyruvate.
14. Citric acid cycle takes place in _______________ part and E.T.S
in _______________ part of mitochondria.
15. The metabolic pathway through which the electron passes
from one carrier to another is called _______________ .
16. Complex-IV of E.T.S refers to cytochrome oxidase complex
containing cytochromes _______________ and _______________
and _______________ copper centres.
17. ATP synthase is complex - _______________ of E.T.S.

18. Oxidation of one molecule of NADH give rise to

_______________ molecules of ATP, while that of one molecules
of FADH2 produces _______________ molecules of ATP.
19. _______________ acts as the final hydrogen acceptor in E.T.S.
20. For each ATP produced in E.T.S, _______________ passes
through F0 (part of complex V) from intermembrane space to the
matrix _______________ the electrochemical gradient.
21. There can be a net gain of _______________ ATP molecules
during aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose.
22. The NADH synthesized in glycolysis is transferred into the
mitochondria and undergoes _______________ phosphorylation.
23. In fermentation there is a net gain of only _______________
molecules of ATP for each molecule of glucose degraded to pyruvic
acid.
24. If fatty acids were used as substrate for respiration, they would
first be degraded to _______________ and if glycerol, then would
be converted to _______________ and then enter the pathway.
25. Respiratory pathway is an _______________ pathway as it
involves both catabolism and anabolism.
26. The ratio of the volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of O2
consumed in respiration is called _______________. For
carbohydrate, it is _______________ and for protein it is
_______________ .
 Plant growth and Development
1. The growth of plants is due to the presence of ___________ at
certain locations in their body.
2. Growth wherein new cells are always being added to the plant
body by the activity of the meristem is called the ___________
form of growth.
3. In dicotyledonous plants and gymnosperms, the lateral
meristems, vascular cambium and cork-cambium appear later in
life. There are the meristems that causes increase in the
___________ of the organs in which they are active. This is known
as ___________ growth of plant.
4. Growth, at cellular level, is principally a consequence of increase
in the amount of ___________.
5. The period of growth is generally divided into 3 phases, namely,
___________, elongation and ___________. The constantly
dividing cells, both at the root apex and shoot apex, represent the
___________ phase of growth.
6. Arithmetic growth is mathematically expressed as Lt = Lo + rt
where ‘r’ is ___________.

7. The exponential growth can be expressed as W1 = ___________.

8. Measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time is
called the ___________ growth rate.

9. ___________ provides the medium for enzymatic activities

needed for growth.
10. Cells derived from root apical and shoot-apical meristem and
cambium differentiate and mature to perform specific functions.
This act leading to maturation is termed as ___________.
11. During differentiation, cells undergo few major structural
changes both in their ___________ and ___________.
12. The living differentiated cells which have lost the capacity to
divide can regain the capacity of division under certain conditions.
This phenomenon is termed as ___________.
13. Formation of meristems- interfascicular cambium and cork-
cambium from fully differentiated parenchyma cells are the
example of ___________.
14. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or
phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is
called ___________.
15. Plant hormone which is derivative of carotenoids are
___________.
16. The ___________ of canary grass responded to unilateral
illumination by growing towards the light source.

17. Auxin was isolated by F.W.Went from tips of coleoptiles of

___________ seedlings.
18. The ‘bakane’ disease of rice seedlings was caused by a fungal
pathogen ___________.

19. Skoog and Miller crystallized the cytokinesis promoting active

substance that they termed as ___________.
20. Inhibitor-B and dormin were proved to be chemically identical
and was named ___________

21. Auxin was first isolated from ___________.

22. NAA and 2,4-D are ___________ auxins.

23. In most of the higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the
growth of the lateral buds , a phenomenon called ___________.
24. Decapitation usually results in growth of ___________.

25. 2,4-D is widely used to kill ___________ weeds, does not affect
mature ___________ plants.
26. ___________ controls xylem differentiation and helps in cell
division.
27. ___________ was one of the first gibberellins to be discovered
and remains the most intensively studied form.
28. ___________ cause fruits like apple to elongate and improve
its shape.

29. ___________ is used to speed up the malting process in

brewing industry.
30. Gibberellin promotes ___________ in beet, cabbages and
many plants with rosette habit.
31. Cytokinins have specific effects on cytokinesis, and were
discovered as ___________ from the autoclaved ___________
DNA.
32. ___________ help to overcome the apical dominance.
33. Influence of ___________ on the plants includes horizontal
growth of seedlings, swelling of the axis and apical hook formation
in dicot seedlings.
34. ___________ promotes senescence and abscission of plant
organs especially of leaves and flowers.
35. The rise in rate of respiration during ripening of fruits is called
as respiratory ___________.
36. ___________ regulates many physiological processes so it is
the one of the most widely used PGR in agriculture
37. The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is
___________.
38. Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples and
accelerates ___________ in flowers and fruits.

39. ___________ is general plant growth inhibitor and an inhibitor

of plant metabolism.
40. ___________ stimulates the closure of stomata in the
epidermis and increase the tolerance of plants to various kinds of
stresses. It is also called the ___________ hormone.
41. ___________ helps seeds to withstand desiccation and other
factors unfavorable for growth. In most situations, it acts as an
antagonist to ___________.
42. The response of plants to periods of day/night is termed
___________.
43. The sites of perception of light/dark duration are the
___________ in plants.
44. The hormonal substance migrates from ___________ to ___________
apices for inducing flowering only when the plants are exposed to the
necessary inductive photoperiod.
45. There are plants for which flowering is either quantitatively or
qualitatively dependent on exposure to low temperature. This
phenomenon is termed ___________.
Transport in plants
1. Translocation
2. Unidirectional ; multidirectional
3. Higher ; lower
4. Diffusion
5. Lipids
6. Facilitated
7. Porins
8. Eight ;Aquaporins
9. Symport ; antiport
10. Pumps
11. 92 ; 10-15
12. Transpiration
13. Solute potential ; pressure potential
14. Pascals (Pa)
15. Solute potential (Øs)
16. Osmosis
17. Pressure ; concentration
18. Solute
19. Osmotic potential
20. Positive ; negative
21. Isotonic
22. Hypotonic ; hypertonic
23. Plamolysis
24. Flaccid
25. Turgor pressure
26. Turgor
27. Imbibitions
28. Imbibitions
29. 2.5
30. Apoplast
31. Plasmodesmata
32. Cytoplasmic streaming
33. Apoplast
34. Casparian strip
35. Mycorrhiza
36. Mycorrhizae
37. Root pressure
38. Guttation
39. Transpiratory pull
40. Cohesion-tension-transpiration pull
41. Stomata
42. Microfibrils
43. Cellulose
44. Dorsiventral ; isobilateral
45. Adhesion
46. 130
47. Active
48. Endodermal
49. Suberin
50. Sources ; sink; source ; sink
51. Pressure flow
52. Sucrose
53. N ; K
54. Twice Thick ; elastic
Mineral nutrition
1. Hydroponics
2. 10
3. CO2 ; H2O
4. 10
5. Structural
6. Energy-related
7. Zn+2 ; Mo
8. N
9. H2PO-4 ; HPO-4
10. Mg
11. S
12. Fe
13. Boron
14. Chlorosis
15. Mn
16. Passive ; ion channels
17. Active
18. Nitrogen fixation
19. Ammonification
20. Nitrosomonas ; Nitrococcus
21. Nitrobacter
22. Denitrification ; Pseudomonas ; Thiobacillus
23. Biological nitrogen fixation
24. Free-living ; aerobic
25. Anaerobic
26. Rhizobium
27. Frankia
28. Cortex
29. Nitrogenase ; ammonia
30. Leg-haemoglobin
31. 8
32. Glutamic acid
33. NH4 + ;Glutamate dehydrogenase
34. Asparagines ; glutamine Ureides
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
1. Joseph Priestley
2. H2O
3. Mesophyll
4. ATP ; NADPH
5. Blue ; red
6. Chlorophyll a
7. Chlorophyll b ; carotenoids
8. Chlorophyll a
9. 700 ; P700 ; 680 ; P680
10. II
11. Phosphorylation
12. Non-cyclic photo
13. Stroma lamellae
14. 680
15. ATP
16. Intermembrane space
17. NADPH reductase
18. Stroma
19. ATPase ; F0 ; F-1
20. Proton ; ATPase
21. ATP ; O2
22. Ketose ; RuBP
23. 6 ;6
24. 3 ; 2
25. C4
26. Bundle sheath ; Kranz
27. Wreath
28. Hatch and Slack
29. PEP
30. RuBisCO ; OAA
31. Malic acid ; aspartic acid
32. RuBisCO ; PEPcase
33. Calvin
34. O2 ; CO2
35. Phosphoglycerate ; phosphoglycolate
36. CO2 ; CO2
37. CO2
38. 0.05
39. 360 ; 450
Respiration in plants
1. respiration; respiratory substrate
2. ATP
3. stomata; lenticles
4. glycolysis
5. Embden; Meyerhof; Parnas
6. cytoplasm; mitochondria
7. sucrose
8. 10
9. 2; 3
10. lactic acid; lactate dehydrogenase
11. pyruvate dehydrogenase; Mg ++
12. GTP; substrate-level
13. 4; 1; 1
14. matrix; inner membrane
15. electron transport system (E.T.S)
16. a; a3 ; 2
17. V
18. 3; 2
19. oxygen
20. 2H+; down
21. 36
22. oxidative
23. 2
24. acetyl CoA; PGAL
25. amphibolic
26. respiratory quotient (RQ);1;0.9
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
1. Joseph Priestley
2. H2O
3. Mesophyll
4. ATP ; NADPH
5. Blue ; red
6. Chlorophyll a
7. Chlorophyll b ; carotenoids
8. Chlorophyll a
9. 700 ; P700 ; 680 ; P680
10. II
11. Phosphorylation
12. Non-cyclic photo
13. Stroma lamellae
14. 680
15. ATP
16. Intermembrane space
17. NADPH reductase
18. Stroma
19. ATPase ; F0 ; F-1
20. Proton ; ATPase
21. ATP ; O2
22. Ketose ; RuBP
23. 6 ;6
24. 3 ; 2
25. C4
26. Bundle sheath ; Kranz
27. Wreath
28. Hatch and Slack
29. PEP
30. RuBisCO ; OAA
31. Malic acid ; aspartic acid
32. RuBisCO ; PEPcase
33. Calvin
34. O2 ; CO2
35. Phosphoglycerate ; phosphoglycolate
36. CO2 ; CO2
37. CO2
38. 0.05
39. 360 ; 450
Plant growth and Development
1. Meristem
2. Open
3. Girth ; secondary
4. Protoplasm
5. Meristematic ; maturation;
meristematic
6. Growth rate
7. W0ert
8. Absolute
9. Water
10. Differentiation
11. Cell walls ; protoplasm
12. Dedifferentiation
13. Dedifferentiation
14. Plasticity
15. ABA
16. Coleoptiles
17. Oat
18. Gibberella fujikuroi
19. Kinetin
20. ABA
21. Human urine
22. Synthetic
23. Apical dominance
24. Lateral buds
25. Dicotyledonous ; monocotyledonous
26. Auxin
27. GA3
28. Gibberellins
29. GA3
30. Bolting
31. Kinetin ; herring sperm
32. Cytokinins
33. Ethylene
34. Ethylene
35. Climatic
36. Ethylene
37. Ethephon
38. Abscission
39. ABA
40. ABA
41. ABA ; GAs
42. Photoperiodism
43. Leaves
44. Leaves ; shoot Vernalisation
Digestion and Absorption
1. The process of conversion of complex food substances to simple
absorbable forms is called _______________ and is carried out by
our digestive system by _______________ and _______________
methods.
2. The human digestive system consists of _______________ and
associated _______________ .

3. When tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone, the

attachment is called _______________ .
4. Temporary milk teeth is also called _______________ teeth.

5. The type of dentition in which set of temporary milk teeth is

replaced by permanent teeth is called _______________ .
6. Dental formula of human is _______________ .

7. The hard chewing surface of the teeth, made up of

_______________ , helps in mastication of food.
8. The tongue is a freely movable muscular organ attached to the
floor of the oral cavity by the _______________.

9. The upper surface of tongue has small projection called

_______________ , some of which bear taste buds.
10. The oesophagus leads to _______________ shaped bag like
structure called stomach.

11. A muscular sphincter that regulates the opening of oesophagus

into stomach is _______________ sphincter.
12. The oesophagus opens into _______________ portion of
stomach.

13. _______________ portion of stomach opens into the first part

of small intestine.
14. Small intestine is distinguishable into three region, a ‘C’ shaped
_______________ , a long coiled middle portion _______________
and a highly coiled _______________ .
15. The opening of stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the
_______________ sphincter.
16. Large intestine consist of _______________ ,
_______________ and _______________ .

17. _______________ is a small blind sac which host some

symbiotic micro-organism in large intestine.
18. _______________ is a vestigial organ in human that arises from
caecum.

19. The _______________ part of large intestine is divided into

ascending, transverse and descending part.
20. _______________ is the outermost layer of wall of alimentary
canal and is made up of a thin _______________.
21. Muscularis, a layer of wall of alimentary canal, is formed by
_______________ muscle usually arranged into an inner
_______________ and an outer _______________ layer.
22. In duodenum, _______________ glands are present in
_______________ layer.
23. Mucosa layer forms irregular folds called _______________ in
the stomach and small finger-like foldings called _______________
in the small intestine.
24. The innermost layer lining the lumen of the alimentary canal is
the _______________ .
25. Villi are supplied with a network of capillaries and a large
lymph vessel called _______________ .
26. The cell lining the vill produces numerous microscopic
projections called _______________ giving a _______________
appearance.
27. _______________ layer of wall of alimentary canal forms
gastric glands in stomach and forms _______________ in between
the bases of villi in the intestine.
28. _______________ is the largest gland of body and has
_______________ number of lobes
29. _______________ are the structural and functional units of
liver containing hepatic cells arranged in the form of
_______________ .
30. Each lobule of liver is covered by thin connective tissue sheath
called _______________ .
31. The duct of gall bladder is called _______________ .
32. The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into a
duodenum as _______________ which is guarded by a sphincter
called _______________ .
33. The exocrine portion of pancreas secretes _______________
and endocrine portion secretes _______________ .

34. In buccal cavity, the adhered masticated food particles are

called _______________ .
35. Swallowing the bolus is also called _______________ .

36. _______________ is the successive waves of muscular

contraction that helps in movement of bolus in oesophagus.
37. The saliva secreted into oral cavity contains _______________
and enzymes : salivary amylase and _______________ .
38. About ______% of starch is hydrolysed in buccal cavity of
salivary amylase into a disaccharide - _______________ .
39.
40. Peptic cells or _______________ cells of gastric gland secrete
proenzyme _______________ that gets converted into active
enzyme _______________ in the presence of _______________ .
41. Parietal cells of gastric gland also called as _______________
cells secrete HCl and _______________ .

42. _______________ factor is essential for absorption of Vit B12

and is secreted by _______________ gland.
43. The stomach stores food for _______________ hours.

44. In stomach, the food mixes throughly with the acidic gastric
juice and is called _______________ .
45. HCl provides acidic pH of _______________ , optimal for
pepsins.
46. _______________ is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice
of infants which helps in the digestion of _______________
proteins.
47. _______________ , _______________ and _______________
are secretions into small intestine from gall bladder, pancreas and
small intestine respectively.
48. Trypsinogen is secreted by _______________ and is activated
by an enzyme _______________ , which is secreted by intestinal
mucosa.
49. The bile released into duodenum contains bile pigments, bile
salts, _______________ and _______________ but no enzymes.
50. Bile helps in _______________ of fats and also activate enzyme
_______________ .
51. The secretion of the brush border cells of mucosa along with
secretion of the goblet cells constitute intestinal juice called as
_______________ .
52. The _______________ secreted from pancreas provides
alkaline pH of _______________ in small intestine.

53. Nucleotides Nucleoside nucleosidase -------------- + -------

-------
54. The fats are converted into _______________ and
_______________ after digestion.
55. The undigested, unabsorbed food called _______________
enters into the caecum of large intestine
throughn_______________ valve.
56. The activities of gastro-intestinal tract are under
_______________ and _______________ control for proper
coordination of different parts.
57. In cells of intestinal mucosa micelles are reformed into very
small protein coated fat globules called _______________ which
are transported into lymph vessels called _______________ in the
villi.
58. Maximum absorption occurs in _______________ part of
alimentary canal.

59. Absorption of some amount of water, simple sugar and alcohol,

etc takes place in _______________ .
60. Faeces in the rectum initiate _______________ causing an urge
or desire for its removal.

61. Defaecation is a _______________ process and it is carried out

by a mass peristaltic movement.
62. In jaundice, _______________ organ is affected and skin and
eyes turn yellow due to deposition of _______________ .

63. Vomiting is the reflex action controlled by the vomit centre in

the _______________ part of brain.
64. In constipation, faeces are retained within _______________
as bowel movements occur irregularly.

65. Bile pigments present in bile are _______________ and

_______________ .
Breathing and Exchange of gases
1. The process of exchange of _______________ from the
_______________ with _______________ produced by cells is
called breathing.
2. Mechanisms of breathing vary among different groups of
animals depending mainly on their _______________ and level of
organisation.
3. Earthworm use their _______________ for breathing.
4. The nasal chamber opens into the _______________ , a portion
of which is common passage for food and air.
5. _______________ is a cartilaginous box which helps in sound
production and hence called _______________.
6. During swallowing, _______________ can be converted into a
thin cartilaginous flap called _______________ to prevent entry of
food into _______________ .
7. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the mid-thoracic
cavity, which divides at the level of _______________ thoracic
vertebra into right and left _______________ .
8. Humans have two lungs which are covered by a double layered
_______________ , with _______________ fluid between them.
9. The part starting with external nostrils up to _______________
constitute conducting part whereas the _______________ and
their ducts form respiratory or exchange part of respiratory
system.
10. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral
column, ventrally by the _______________ , laterally by the
_______________ and on the lower side by dome-shaped
_______________ .
11. Respiration in total involves _______________ steps.
12. The movement of air into and out of lungs is carried out by
creating _______________ gradient between _______________
and the atmosphere.
13. Inspiration occur if the pressure within the lungs is
_______________ than the atmospheric pressure.
14. Expiration takes place when intra-pulmonary pressure is
_______________ than atmospheric pressure.
15. Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm which
increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the _______________
axis.
16. During inspiration, contraction of _______________ muscle
lifts the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of
thoracic chamber in _______________ axis.
17. Humans have the ability to increase the strength of inspiration
and expiration with the help of additional muscle in the
_______________ .
18. On an average, a healthy human breathe _______________
times/minute.
19. The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be
estimated by using a _______________ which helps in clinical
assessment of pulmonary functions.
20. Approximately ______ml of air is inspired or expired during
normal respiration and a healthy man can inspire or expire
approximately _______________ ml of air per minute.
21. Inspiratory Reserve Volume averages _______________ ml
whereas ERV averages ______________ .
22. Volume of air remaining in lungs after _______________
expiration is called _______________ volume. It averages 1100 to
1200ml.
23. _______________ = T.V + I.R.V
24. Functional Residual capacity is total volume of air that will
remain in lungs after _______________ expiration. This includes
_______________ , E.R.V and _______________ .
25. Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air a person can
breath out after a _______________ inspiration. This includes
_______________ , T.V and _______________ .
26. _______________ are the primary sites of exchage of gases.
27. Expiratory capacity is total volume of air a person can
_______________ after normal _______________ .
28. Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases
is called _______________ pressure and is represented as
_______________ for oxygen and _______________ for CO2 .
29. pO2 of deoxygenated blood is _______________ mmHg and
pCO2 in oxygenated blood is _______________ mmHg.
30. The soulubility of CO2 is _______________ times higher than
that of O2 in blood.
31. The diffusion membrane is made up of three major layer -
_______________ epithelium of alveoli, _______________ of
alveolar capillaries and _______________ in between them.
32. Total thickness of diffusion membrane is _______________ .

33. Alveolar wall of alveoli is _______________ celled thick wall.

34. About _______________ % of O2 and _______________ % of
CO2 is transported by Hb in the blood.
35. _______________ % of O2 and _______________ % of CO2 is
carried in a dissolved state through plasma of blood.
36. O2 bind with Hb in _______________ manner to form
_______________ . Each Hb molecule can carry a maximum of
_______________ molecules of O2 .
37. A _______________ curve is obtained by plotting percentage
saturation of Hb with O2 against pO2 . This curve is called
_______________ curve.
38. For the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the alveoli, favourable
factors are - high pO2 , low CO2 , _______________ H+
concentration and _______________ temperature.
39. Every 100ml of oxygenated blood can deliver
_______________ ml of O2 to the tissue under normal
physiological conditions.
40. CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as _______________ .
41. CO2 +H2O H2CO3
The above reaction is catalyzed by enzyme _______________ ,
which is present in higher concentration in _______________ and
in minute concentration in _______________ of blood.
42. Every 100ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately
_______________ ml of CO2 in alveoli.
43. Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the alveoli and tissues occur by
_______________ .
44. Respiratory rhythm is maintained bu the respiratory centre in
_______________ region of brain.
45. A _______________ centre in pons region of brain and
chemosensitive area in the medulla can alter respiratory
mechanism.
46. The chemosensitive area in medulla is sensitive to
_______________ and _______________ .
47. Receptors associated with aortic arch and _______________
recognize changes in CO2 and H+ concentration.
48. _______________ is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing
due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
49. Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which _______________
are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased.
50. Long exposure to dust, in industries involving grinding or stone-
breaking, can lead to inflammation leading to _______________
and thus cause serious lung damage.
Body fluid and circulation
1. Blood is a ___________ tissues consisting of a ___________
matrix, plasma, and formed elements.
2. Plasma is a ___________ coloured, viscous fluid constituting
nearly ___________% of the blood.
3. ___________% of plasma is water and proteins contribute
___________ % of it.
4. ___________, globulins and ___________ are the major
proteins in plasma.
5. ___________ protein in plasma are needed for clotting;
___________ for defense mechanism of body and ___________
helps in osmotic balance.
6. Formed elements constitute nearly ___________ % of the blood.
7. A healthy adult man has on an average ___________ millions of
RBCs mm-3 of blood. In mammals RBC are devoid of nucleus and
are ___________ in shape.
8. A healthy individual has ___________ gms of Hb in every 100ml
of blood. RBCs have an average life span of ___________ days
after which they are destroyed in the ___________.
9. Plasma without clotting factors is called ___________.
10. The number of WBCs in adult man is ___________ mm-3 of
blood. The two main categories of WBCs are ___________ and
___________.
11. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are different types of
___________ WBCs while lymphocytes and monocytes are the
___________.
12. ___________ and ___________ leucocytes are phagocytic cell;
___________ are involved in inflammatory reactions; and
___________ are associated with allergic reaction.
13. Lymphocytes are of two major types - ___________ and
___________ forms. They are responsible for ___________
response of the body.
14. Platelets are also called ___________ and are cell fragments
produced from ___________. Blood normally contains
___________ platelets mm-3.
15. Person with ___________ blood groups are called as ‘universal
donor’ and person with ___________ blood groups are ‘universal
recipients’.
16. A condition in which Rh-ve mother has successive pregnancy
with Rh+ve foetus is called ___________, which can be fatal to
foetus due to production of Rh antibodies by mother. This can be
avoided by administering ___________ to the mother immediately
after the delivery of first child.
17. Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive ___________
in plasma by the enzyme ___________.

18. Prothrombin are converted into thrombins by enzyme complex

___________.
19. ___________ ions plays important role in clotting of blood.

20. The fluid present in the lymphatic system is called

___________. It help in absorption of fats by ___________ present
in the ___________.
21. Fishes has ___________ chambered heart; amphibians have
___________ and mammals have ___________ chambered heart.

22. Heart is ___________ in origin.

23. Heart is protected by a double walled membranous bag,
___________ enclosing the ___________ fluid.
24. The atrium and the ventricle of same side of heart are
separated by thick fibrous tissue called ___________ septum.
25. The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is
guarded by a valve formed by ___________ muscular flaps or cups,
the ___________ valve.
26. Bicuspid valve also called ___________ valve guard the
opening between the ___________ atrium and ___________
ventricle of heart.
27. The openings of the right and left ventricles into the pulmonary
artery and the aorta respectively are provided with ___________
valves.
28. A specialized cardiac musculature called ___________ tissue is
distributed in the heart. A patch of this tissue present in right
upper corner of right atrium is called ___________ and that
present in lower left corner of right atrium is called ___________.
29. The SAN can generate the maximum number of action
potential, i.e., ___________ min-1, and is responsible for initiating
and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of heart.
Therefore it is called the ___________.
30. The average heart beat per minute is ___________.
31. The action potential generated by SAN which stimulate atrial
systole, increase the flow of blood into ventricles by about
___________ %.
32. During ventricular diastole, the ventricular pressure falls
causing the closure of ___________ valves which prevents the
backflow of blood into the ventricle.
33. The sequential event in the heart which is cyclically repeated is
called ___________.
34. The duration of cardiac cycle is ___________ seconds. During
cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately
___________mL of blood, which is called the ___________
volume.
35. The stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate gives the
___________, which averages ___________litres in healthy
individual.
36. The cardiac output of athlete will be ___________ than of on
ordinary man.
37. During cardiac cycle, two heart sounds are produced which can
be easily heard through instrument ___________.
38. The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of
___________ valves and the second heart sound (dub) is
associated with closure of ___________ valves.
39. ECG is a graphical representation of ___________ activity of
the heart during cardiac cycle.
40. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the
machine with ___________ electrical leads. One to each
___________ and one to ___________.
41. The P-wave in ECG represents excitation or ___________ of the
___________.

42. The QRS complex of electrocardiogram represents the

___________ of the ___________.
43. The T-wave of electrocardiogram represents ___________ and
end of T-wave marks the end of ___________.
44. Blood pumped by left ventricle enter the ___________
whereas blood pumped by right ventricle enters ___________.
45. A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract
and liver called ___________ system. The ___________ carries
blood from intestine to the liver before it is delivered to the
systemic circulation.
46. The normal activities of human heart is auto regulated by
specialized nodal tissue, hence the heart is called ___________.
47. Neural signal through ___________ nerves can increase the
heart beat whereas signal form ___________ nerves can decrease
it.
48. Adrenal medullary hormones can ___________ the cardiac
output.
49. The normal blood pressure is ___________mmHg and blood
pressure of ___________ or above indicates hypertension.
50. In measurement of blood pressure, 120mmHg in the pressure
during ___________ phase of cardiac cycle and 80mmHg during
___________ phase.
51. Coronary Artery Disease is often referred to as ___________.
52. Atherosclerosis affects the vessels that supply blood to
___________ muscles and is caused by deposits of ___________
ion, fat, ___________ and fibrous tissues that makes the lumen
narrower.
53. In angina, a symptom of ___________ appears when no
enough oxygen is reaching heart muscle.
54. ___________ means the state of heart when it is not pumping
blood effectively enough to meet the need of body.
55. Heart failure is sometimes called ___________ because
congestion of lungs is the one of the main symptoms of this
disease.
Excretory Product and their Elimination
1. ___________, ___________ and___________ are the major
forms of nitrogenous waste excreted by the animals.
2. ___________ form of nitrogenous wastes is the most toxic form
and requires large amount of water for its elimination whereas
___________ is the least toxic forms and can be removed with
minimum loss of water.
3. The process of excreting ammonia is ___________ and animals
excreting ammonia are called ___________.

4. The animals excreting urea are called ___________ and those

that excrete uric acid are called ___________.
5. ___________ are excretory structure in platyhelminthes.

6. ___________ are the tubular excretory structure of earthworm

and other annelids.
7. ___________ are the excretory structures of most of the insects.

8. ___________ are also called green glands perform excretory

function in crustaceans like prawns.
9. Kidneys are ___________ colour, bean shaped organs situated
between the levels of ___________ thoracic and ___________
lumbar vertebra close to the ___________ inner wall of the
abdominal cavity.
10. Towards the centre of the inner concave surface of the kidney
is a notch called ___________ through which ureter, blood vessels
and nerves enter.
11. Inner to the hilum is a broad funnel shaped space called the
___________ with projections called ___________.
12. Inside the kidney there are two zones, an outer ___________
and an inner ___________.

13. The medulla of kidney is divided into a few conical masses

called ___________ projecting into calyx.
14. The cortex of kidney extends in between the medullary
pyramids as renal columns called ___________.

15. The functional unit of kidney is ___________. It has two parts

___________ and ___________.
16. Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called
___________ or ___________.

17. In ___________ nephron, loop of Henle is short and extends

only very little into the medulla.
18. In ___________ nephron, loop of Henle is long and runs deep
into the medulla.
19. The efferent arteriole emerging from the glomerulus forms a
fine capillary network around the renal tubule called the
___________.
20. A minute vessel of peritubular capillaries that runs parallel to
Henle’s loop forms ‘U’ shaped ___________.

21. Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in ___________

nephrons.
22. The first step of urine formation is ___________.
23. On an average ___________ ml of blood is filtered by the
kidneys per minute which constitute roughly ___________of the
blood pumped out by each ventricle of heart per minute.
24. The epithelial cell of Bowman’s capsule called ___________ are
arranged in an intricate manner so as to leave some minute spaces called
___________.
25. Glomerular filtration is considered as process of ___________ as almost
all the constituents of plasma except protein pass onto lumen of Bowman’s
capsule.
26. The amount of filtrate formed by the kidneys per minute is
called ___________. In a healthy individual it is approximately
___________ ml/minute, i.e., ___________ litres/day.
27. ___________ in GFR can activate the JG cells to release
___________ which can stimulate the glomerular blood flow and
thereby the GFR back to normal.
28. The volume of filtrate formed per day is 180L and amount of
urine released per day is ___________L, suggesting that nearly
___________% of filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules by the
process of ___________.
29. During urine formation, tubular cell secrete ___________,
___________ and ___________ into the filtrate.
30. Tubular secretion is the important step in urine formation as it
helps in the maintenance of ___________ and ___________
balance of body fluids.
31. PCT is lined by simple ___________ epithelium which increases
the surface area for reabsorption.
32. Nearly ___________% of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed in PCT.
33. The descending loop of Henle is permeable to ___________
and almost impermeable to ___________.
34. Conditional reabsorption of ___________ and water occur in
___________ segment.
35. The flow of filtrate in two limbs of Henle and flow of blood in
two limbs of ___________ forms ___________ pattern of flow.
36. The osmolarity in cortex is about ___________ mOsmolL-1 and
in inner medulla is about ___________ mOsmolL-1.
37. In counter current mechanism, NaCl is transported by the
___________ limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with
___________ limb of vasa recta.
38. Small amount of urea enter the thin segment of ___________
limb of Henle’s loop which is transported back to interstitium by
the ___________ in counter current mechanism.
39. Human kidneys can produce urine nearly ___________ times
concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.
40. An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate these
receptors which stimulate the hypothalamus to release
___________ .
41. Renin converts ___________ in blood to ___________ and
further to ___________.
42. Angiotensis II activates the adrenal cortex to release
___________.
43. Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the
___________ parts of the tubule.
44. An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the
release of ___________.
45. ___________ mechanism acts as a check on the rennin-
angiotensin mechanism.
46. The signal for micturition is initiated by the stretching of
urinary bladder as it gets filled with urine. In response, the
___________ on the walls of bladder sends signals to the
___________.
47. The neural mechanisms causing micturition is called
___________.

48. On an average, ___________ gm of urea is excreted out per

day.
49. Presence of ___________ and ___________ in urine is
indicative of diabetes mellitus.
50. Sweat produced by sweat glands is a watery fluid containing
NaCl, small amount of mainly ___________ and ___________.
51. Sebaceous glands eliminate certain substance like
___________, ___________ and ___________ through sebum.
52. The condition in which there is accumulation of urea in blood is
called ___________ and may lead to kidney failure. In such
patients urea can be removed by a process called ___________.
53. The dialyzing fluid used in hemodialysis has the same
composition as that of plasma except the ___________.

54. ___________ is condition in which a stone or insoluble mass of

crystallized salts formed within the kidney.
55. ___________ is inflammation of glomeruli of kidney.
Digestion & Absorption
1. digestion; mechanical; biochemical
2. alimentary canal; glands
3. the codont
4. deciduous
5. diphyodont
6. 2123 / 2123
7. enamel
8. frenulum
9. papillae
10. J
11. gastro-oesophageal
12. cardiac
13. pyloric
14. duodenum; jejunum; ileum
15. pyloric
16. caecum; colon; rectum
17. caecum
18. vermiform appendix
19. colon
20. Serosa; mesothelium
21. smooth; circular; longitudnal
22. Brunner; submucosa
23. rugae; villi
24. mucosa
25. lacteal
26. microvilli; brush border
27. Mucosa; crypts of Lieberkuhn
28. Liver; two
29. hepatic lobules; cords
30. Glisson’s capsule
31. cystic duct
32. hepato-pancreatic duct; sphincter of Oddi
33. pancreatic juice; hormones
34. bolus
35. degulgition
36. peristalsis
37. electrolytes; lysozyme
38. 30%; maltose
39. 6.8
40. chief; pepsinogen; pepsin; HCl
41. oxyntic; intrinsic factor
42. intrinsic; gastric
43. 4-5
44. chyme
45. 1.8
46. Rennin; milk
47. bile; pancreatic juice; intestinal juice
48. pancreas; enterokinase
49. cholestrol; phospholipids
50. emulsification; Lipase
51. succus entericus
52. bicarbonates; 7.8
53. Nucleotidase; sugars + base
54. fatty acid; glycerol
55. faeces; ileo-caecal
56. neural; hormonal
57. chylomicrons; lacteals
58. small intestine
59. stomach
60. neural reflex
61. voluntary
62. liver; bile pigment
63. medulla
64. rectum
65. bilirubin; biliverdin
Breathing & Exchange of gases
1. O2 ; atmosphere; CO2
2. habitat
3. moist cuticle
4. pharynx
5. Larynx; sound box
6. glottis; epiglottis; larynx
7. 5th ; primary bronchi
8. pleura; pleura
9. terminal bronchioles ; alveoli
10. sternum; ribs; diaphragm
11. 5
12. pressure; lungs
13. less
14. higher
15. antero-posterior
16. external inter-costal; dorsoventral
17. abdomen
18. 12-16
19. spirometer
20. 500; 6000-8000
21. 2500-3000; 1000-1100
22. Forcible; residual
23. I.C
24. normal; R.V
25. Forced ; ERV ; IRV
26. alveoli
27. expire; inspiration
28. partial; pO2 ; pCO2
29. 40; 40
30. 20-25
31. squamous; endothelium; basement substance
32. less than millimeter
33. one
34. 97; 20-25
35. 3; 7
36. reversible; oxyhaemoglobin ; 4
37. sigmoid; oxygen dissociation
38. lesser; lower
39. 5
40. carbamino-haemoglobin
41. carbonic anhydrase; RBC’s ; plasma
42. 4
43. diffusion
44. medulla
45. pneumotaxic
46. CO2 ; H+ ions
47. carotid artery
48. asthma
49. alveolar walls
50. fibrosis
Body fluids and Circulation
1. Special connective ; fluid
2. Straw; 55
3. 90-95 ; 6-8
4. Fibrinogen ; albumins
5. Fibrinogen ; globulins ; albumins
6. 45
7. 5-5.5 ; biconcave
8. 12-16; 120 ; spleen
9. Serum
10. 6000-8000 ; granulocytes ; agranulocytes
11. Granulocytes ; agranulocytes
12. Neutrophils ; monocytes ; basophils ; eosinophils
13. B ; T ; immune
14. Thrombocytes ; megakaryocytes ; 1,500,00- 3,500,00
15. O ; AB
16. Erythroblastosis foetalis ; anti- Rh antibodies
17. Fibrinogens ; thrombin
18. Thrombokinase
19. Calcium
20. Lymph ; lacteals ; intestinal villi
21. 2 ;3;4
22. Mesodermal
23. Pericardium; pericardial
24. Atrio-ventricular
25. 3 ; tricuspid
26. Mitral ; left ; left
27. Semilunar
28. Nodal ; SAN ; AVN
29. 70-75 ; pacemaker
30. 72
31. 30
32. Semilunar
33. Cardiac cycle
34. 0.8sec ; 70ml ; stroke
35. Cardiac output ; 5
36. Higher
37. Stethoscope
38. Tricuspid and bicuspid ; semilunar
39. Electrical
40. 3 ; wrist ; left
41. Depolarization ; atria
42. Depolarization ; ventricle
43. Repolarization ; systole
44. Aorta ; pulmonary artery
45. Hepatic portal ; hepatic portal vein
46. Myogenic
47. Sympathetic; parasympathetic
48. Increase
49. 120/80 ; 140/90
50. Systole ; diastole
51. Atherosclerosis
52. Heart ; calcium ; cholesterol
53. Acute chest pain
54. Heart failure Congestive heart failure
Excretory products and their Elimination
1. Ammonia ; urea ; uric acid
2. Ammonia ; uric acid
3. Ammonotelism ; ammonotelic
4. Ureotelic ; uricotelic
5. Flame cell
6. Nephridia
7. Malpighian tubules
8. Antennal
9. Reddish brown ; last ; third ; dorsal
10. Hilum
11. Renal pelvis ; calyces
12. Cortex ; medulla
13. Medullary pyramids
14. Columns of Bertini
15. Nephron ; glomerulus ; renal tubule
16. Malpighian body ; renal corpuscle
17. Cortical
18. Juxta medullary
19. Peritubular capillaries
20. Vasa recta
21. Cortical
22. Glomerular filtration
23. 1100-1200 ; 1/5th
24. Podocytes ; filtration silts/silts pore
25. Ultra filtration
26. Glomerular filtration rate; 125 ; 180
27. Decrease ; rennin
28. 1.5 ; 99 ; reabsorption
29. H+ ; K+ ; ammonia
30. pH ; ionic
31. cuboidal brush border
32. 70-80
33. Water ; electrolytes
34. Na+ ; DCT
35. Vasa recta ; counter current
36. 300 ; 1200
37. Ascending ; descending
38. Ascending ; collecting tubule
39. 4
40. ADH/vasopressin
41. Angiotensinogen;angiotensin I ; angiotensin II
42. Aldosterone
43. Distal
44. ANF
45. ANF
46. Stretch receptor ; CNS
47. Micturition reflex
48. 25-30
49. Glucose ; ketone bodies
50. Urea ; lactic acid
51. Sterol ; hydrocarbon ; waxes
52. Uremia ; hemodialysis
53. Nitrogenous waste
54. Renal calculi Glomerulonephritis
 Locomotion and Movement
1. ___________ of protoplasm in unicellular organisms like
Amoeba is a simple form of movements.
2. Cytoskeletal elements like microfilament are involved in
___________ movements.
3. Muscle is a specialized tissue of ___________ origin and about
___________% of body weight of human is contributed by
muscles.
4. Many muscle bundles in skeletal muscle is held together by a
common collagenous connective tissue layer called ___________.

5. The plasma membrane of muscle fibre is called ___________.

6. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is the store house of
___________ ion.

7. The light band of sarcomere contains ___________ protein and

is called ___________ band.
8. ___________ bisects the I-band

9. A-band is held together in the middle by thin fibrous membrane

called ___________.
10. The function unit of contraction in muscle is ___________.

11. The central part of thick filament not overlapped by thin

filament is called ___________.
12. In the resting state, a subunit of ___________ mask the active
binding sites for myosin on the actin filament.

13. Many monomeric proteins called ___________ constitute one

thick filament.
14. The head and short arm of Heavy Meromyosin projects
outwards at regular distance and angle from each other from the
surface of a polymerized myosin filament is known as
___________.
15. Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by
___________ theory.

16. A motor neuron alongwith the muscle fibres connected to it

constitute a ___________.
17. Neuromuscular junction is also called ___________.

18. A neural signal reaching neuromuscular junction releases a

neurotransmitter ___________ which generates an action
potential in the ___________.
19. Repeated activation of the muscle can lead to accumulation of
lactic acid due to ___________ breakdown of glycogen in them
causing fatigue.
20. Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called
___________.
21. Number of mitochondria is ___________ in white fibres
compare to red fibres and number of sarcoplasmic reticulum is
___________in white fibres than in red fibres.
22. In humans, skeletal system is made up of ___________ bones.
The axial skeleton is made up of ___________ bones.
23. The skull is composed of two sets of bones: ___________
bones that are 8 in number and ___________ bones that are
___________ in number.
24. A single U-shaped bone called ___________ is present at the
base of buccal cavity and is included in skull.
25. Each middle ear contains three tiny bones- ___________,
___________ and stapes, collectively called ___________.
26. The skull region articulates with the superior region of the
vertebral column with the help of two ___________.
27. First vertebra is ___________ and it articulates with occipital
condyles.
28. The numbers of cervical vertebrae are ___________ in almost
all mammals.
29. There are ___________ pairs of ribs and has two articulation
surfaces on its dorsal end hence called ___________.

30. Each limb is made up of ___________ bones.

31. A cup shaped bone called ___________ cover the knee
ventrally.
32. ___________ and ___________ gridle bones help in the
articulation of the upper and lower limbs respectively with the
axial skeleton.
33. The dorsal, flat, triangular body of scapula has a slightly
elevated ridge called spine which projects as a flat, expanded
process called the ___________.
34. Below the acromion is a depression called ___________ cavity
which articulates with the head of humerus to form the shoulder
joint.
35. Each clavicle is a long slender bone with two curvatures. This
bone is commonly called the ___________ bone.
36. At the point of fusion of three bones of coxal bone of pelvic
girdle is a cavity called ___________ to which thigh bone
articulates.
37. The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the
___________ containing ___________ cartilage.
38. ___________ joints do not allow any movement.

39. The joint between the adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral

column is ___________ joint.
40. ___________ joint is present between humerus and pectoral
gridle.

41. Knee joint is ___________ joint.

42. The joint between atlas and axis is ___________.

43. The joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb is

___________.
44. ___________ is the rapid spasms in muscle due to low
___________ in body fluid.

45. Gout is inflammation of joints due to accumulation of

___________ crystals.
 Neural Control and Coordination
1. The ___________ system provides an organized network of
point-to-point connections for quick coordination. The
___________ system provides chemical integration through
hormones.
2. The CNS includes the ___________ and ___________ and is the
site of information processing and control.
3. The ___________ nerve fibres transmit impulses from
tissues/organs to the CNS and the ___________ fibres transmit
regulatory impulses from the CNS to the concerned tissue.
4. The PNS is divided into two division called ___________ and
___________ neural system.

5. The autonomic neural system is classified into ___________ and

___________ neural system.
6. The cyton of neurons contain certain granular bodies called
___________ granules.

7. ___________ type of neurons are found in retina of eye which

contain one axon and one dendrite.
8. ___________ nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does
not form a myelin sheath around the axon.

9. The gap between two adjacent myelin sheaths is called

___________.
10. At resting state, axonal membrane is comparatively more
permeable to ___________ ions and nearly impermeable to
___________ ions.
11. The sodium-potassium pump transport ___________ outwards
and ___________ into the cell.
12. The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma
membrane is called as the ___________.
13. The electrical potential difference across the plasma
membrane at depolarized state is called the ___________, which is
also termed as ___________.
14. A ___________ is formed by the membranes of a pre-synaptic
neuron and a post-synaptic neuron, which may or may not be
separated by a gap called___________.
15. Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always
___________ than that across a chemical synapse.
16. ___________ synapses are rare in our system.

17. The axon terminals contain vesicles filled with ___________.

18. Brain is covered by cranial meninges consisting of an outer
layer ___________ ; middle layer ___________ and inner layer
___________.
19. A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into halves
which are termed as left and right ___________.
20. The two cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of
nerve fibres called ___________.
21. The ___________ contains a number of centres which control
body temperature, urge of eating and drinking.
22. The region called as the ___________ are responsible for
complex function like intersensory associations, memory and
communication.
23. A canal called the ___________ passes through the midbrain.
24. The ___________ portion of the midbrain consists mainly of
four lobes called ___________.
25. The part of hind brain that contains center which control
respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions is
___________ .
26. Our paired eyes are located in sockets of the skull called
___________.
27. The external layer of eye ball is composed of a dense
connective tissue and is called the ___________.
28. The middle layer of eye ball, ___________, contains many
blood vessels and is bluish in colour.
29. The choroid layer is thin over the ___________ of the eyeball,
but it becomes thick in the ___________ part to form the
___________.
30. The eyeball contains a transparent crystalline lens which is held
in place by ___________ attached to ___________.
31. Retina contains three layers of neural cells- from inside to
outside- ___________, ___________ and ___________ cells.
32. The two types of photoreceptor cells are ___________ and
___________.

33. The day light vision also called as ___________ vision is

function of ___________ cells.
34. The twilight vision also called as ___________ vision is function
of ___________ cells

35. The rods contain a purplish-red protein called ___________

which contain a derivative of vitamin___________.
36. Photoreceptor cells are not present in eye in the region called
___________.
37. At the posterior pole of the eye, lateral to the blind spot, there
is a yellowish pigmented spot called ___________ with a central
pit called the ___________.
38. ___________ is the point where the visual acuity is the
greatest.
39. The space between cornea and lens is called ___________
chamber and contain a thin watery fluid called ___________.
40. The space between lens and retina is called ___________
chamber and is filled with transparent gel called ___________.
41. The photopigments in human eye are composed of
___________, a protein and ___________, an aldehyde of vitamin
A.
42. The action potentials are transmitted by the optic nerve to the
___________ area of the brain, where the neural impulses are
analyzed and the image is formed on the retina.
43. The canal of outer ear is called ___________.
44. ___________ collects the vibrations in the air which produce
sound.

45. Tympanic membrane is commonly known as ___________.

46. The very fine hairs and wax-secreting glands are present in the
skin of ___________ and ___________ part of ear.
47. The tympanic membrane is composed of ___________ tissues
covered with skin outside and with ___________ membrane
inside.
48. The ___________ ossicle is attached to tympanic membrane
and ___________ ossicle is attached to oval window of cochlea.

49. ___________ connects middle ear cavity with the pharynx.

50. The fluid filled inner ear is called ___________.

51. Membranous labyrinth is surrounded by ___________ fluid and

it is filled with ___________ fluid.
52. At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibule ends at the
___________ window, while the scala tympani terminate at the
___________ window.
53. ___________ is a structure located on the basilar membrane
which contains hair cells
54. ___________ cells act as auditory receptors.

55. A large number of processes called ___________ are projected

from the apical part of each cell.
56. Above the rows of the hair cells is a thin elastic membrane
called ___________ membrane.

57. The vestibular apparatus is composed of three ___________

and ___________.
58. The ___________ and ___________ are the specific receptors
of the vestibular apparatus responsible for maintenance of balance
of the body and posture.
59. The movements of ___________ membrane bend the hair cells
pressing them against ___________ membrane, which result in
generation of nerve impulse.
 Chemical Coordination & Integration
1. The secretions of endocrine glands are called _______________
.
2. Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act as
_______________ messengers and are produced in
_______________ amount.
3. The hypothalamic hormones are called _______________ which
stimulates the pituitary to synthesis and release gonadotrophins.
4. _______________ hormone from the hyphothalamus inhibits
the release of growth hormone from pituitary.
5. The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called
_______________ and is attached to hypothalamus by a stalk.
6. _______________ part of pituitary consists of two portion, pars
distalis and pars intermedia.
7. Pars _______________ , portion of pituitary secretes only one
hormone called melanocyte stimulating hormone.
8. The posterior part of pituitary gland is pars nervosa, which is
also called _______________ .
9. Neurohypophysis of pituitary stores and releases two hormones
_______________ and _______________.
10. Over-secretion of GH by pituitary leads to _______________
and low-secretion to _______________ .
11. ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steriod
hormones called _______________ from adrenal cortex.
12. The gonadotrophins release by pituitary gland are
_______________ & _______________ .
13. _______________ regulates the growth of mammary gland and
formation of milk whereas _______________ stimulates milk
ejection from them.
14. Vasopressin is also known as _______________ hormone.

15. The pineal gland is located on _______________ side of

forebrain and secretes _______________ hormone.
16. The two lobes of thyroid gland are interconnected with a thin
flap of connective tissue called _______________.
17. Deficiency of iodine in our diet results in _______________
thyroidism and enlargement of the thyroid gland is called
_______________ .
18. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective
development and maturation of the growing baby leading to
stunted growth called _______________ .
19. Hormones of _______________ gland play an important role in
the regulation of the basal metabolic rate.
20. Thyroid glands secretes a protein hormone called
_______________, which regulates the blood calcium levels.
21. The number of parathyroid gland present in human is
_______________ .
22. Parathyroid hormone _______________ the Ca2+ levels in the
blood and so its called _______________ hormone.
23. Thymus glands secretes the peptide hormones called
_______________ .
24. Adrenaline and nonadrenaline hormones are commonly called
_______________, secreted by _______________ part of adrenal
gland and are called emergency hormones.
25. The adrenal cortex can be divided into three layers called zona
reticularis (inner layer); zona _______________ (middle layer) and
zona _______________ (outer layer). It secretes many hormones
commonly called as
_______________ .
26. The corticoids involved in carbohydrate metabolism are called
_______________ .

27. In our body, _______________ is the main glucocorticoid.

28. _______________ is the main mineralcorticoid in our body.

29. In pancreas, the cells secrete a hormone called

_______________ , while cells secrete ______________.
30. Glucagon is peptide hormone, which _______________ blood
sugar level and so called _______________ hormone.

31. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to disorder called

_______________ .
32. Interstitial cells of testis is also called as _______________
cells, which produces group of hormones called androgens mainly
_______________ .
33. _______________ is androgen hormones that produces anabolic
(synthetic) effects on protein and carbohydrate metabolism.
34. The _______________ is synthesized and secreted mainly by the
growing ovarian follicles. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted
to a structure called _______________ , which secretes mainly
_______________ .
35. The _______________ hormone secreted by ovary supports
pregnancy.

36. The atrial wall of our heart secretes peptide hormone called
_______________ , which _______________ blood pressure.
37. The juxtaglomerular cells of a kidney produces a peptide
hormone called _______________ , which stimulates formation of
RBC.
38. The gastro-intestinal tract secrete peptide hormone _______________ ,
which acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of HCl and
pepsinogen. Also it secretes _______________, which acts on pancreas and
gall bladder and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile
juice respectively.
39. Hormones produces their effects on target tissues by binding to
specific protein called _______________ located in the target
tissues only and forms _______________ .
40. Cyclic AMP, IP3 , Ca++ etc act as _______________ in the
mechanism of hormone action to regulate cellular metabolism.
Locomotion and Movement
1. Streaming
2. Amoeboid
3. Mesodermal ; 40-50
4. Fascia
5. Sarcolemma
6. Calcium
7. Actin ; isotropic/I
8. Z-line
9. M-line
10. Sarcomere
11. H-zone
12. Troponin
13. Meromyosin
14. Cross arm
15. Sliding filament
16. Motor unit
17. Motor-end plate
18. Acetyl choline ; sarcolemma
19. Anaerobic
20. Myoglobin
21. Low ; high
22. 206 ; 80
23. Cranial ; facial ; 14
24. Hyoid
25. Malleus ; incus ; ear ossicles
26. Occipital condyle
27. Atlas
28. 7
29. 12 ; bicephalic
30. 30
31. Patella
32. Pectoral ; pelvic
33. Acromion
34. Glenoid
35. Collar
36. Acetabulum
37. Pubic symphysis ; fibrous
38. Fibrous
39. Cartilaginous
40. Ball and socket
41. Hinge
42. Pivot
43. Saddle
44. Tetany ; Ca++ Uric acid
Neural control and coordination
1. Neural ; endocrine
2. Brain ; spinal cord
3. Afferent ; efferent
4. Somatic ; autonomic
5. Sympathetic ; parasympathetic
6. Nissl’s
7. Bipolar
8. Unmyelinated
9. Nodes of Ranvier
10. Na+ ; K+
11. 3 Na+ ; 2K+
12. Resting potential
13. Action potential ; nerve impulse
14. Synapse ; synaptic cleft
15. Electrical
16. Electrical
17. Neurotransmitter
18. Dura mater ; arachnoid ; pia mater
19. Cerebral hemispheres
20. Corpus callosum
21. Hypothalamus
22. Association area
23. Cerebral aqueduct
24. Dorsal ; corpora quadrigemina
25. Medulla
26. Orbits
27. Sclera
28. Choroid
29. Posterior 2/3rd ; anterior ; ciliary body
30. Ligaments ; ciliary body
31. Ganglion ; bipolar ; photoreceptor
32. Cons ; rods
33. Photopic ; cones
34. Scotopic ; rods
35. Rhodopsin ; A
36. Blind spot
37. Macula lutea ; fovea
38. Fovea
39. Aqueous ; aqueous humor
40. Vitreous ; vitreous chamber
41. Opsin ; retinal
42. Visual cortex
43. External auditory meatus
44. Pinna
45. Ear drum
46. Pinna ; meatue
47. Connective ; mucus
48. Malleus ; stapes
49. Eustachian tube
50. Labyrinth
51. Perilymph ; endolymph
52. Oval ; round
53. Organ of corti
54. Hair cells
55. Stereo cilia
56. Tectoral membrane
57. Semi-circular canal ; otolith
58. Crista ; macula
59. Basilar ; tectorial Auditory ; auditory cortex
Chemical coordination & Integration
1. hormones
2. intercellular; trace
3. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH)
4. somatostatin
5. sella tursica
6. Adenohyphosis
7. nervosa
8. neurohypophysis
9. oxytocin; vasopressin
10. gigantism; pituitary dwarfism
11. glucocorticoids
12. LH; FSH
13. Prolactin; oxytocin
14. anti-diuretic
15. dorsal; melatonin
16. isthmus
17. hypothyroidism; goitre
18. cretinism
19. thyroid
20. thyrocalcitonin
21. four
22. increases; hypercalcemic
23. thymosins
24. catecholamines; medulla
25. fasciculata; glomerulosa; corticoids
26. glucocorticoid
27. cortisol
28. Aldosterone
29. glucagon; insulin
30. increase; hyperglycemic
31. diabetes mellitus
32. leydig; testosterone
33. Androgen
34. estrogen; corpus luteum; progesterone
35. progesterone
36. atrial natriuretic factor (ANF); decreases
Reproduction in Organisms
1. The period from birth to the natural death of an organism
represents its _______________ .
2. _______________ is defined as biological process in which an
organism give rise to offspring.
3. When offspring is produced by single parent or without the
involvement of gamete formation, the reproduction is
_______________ .
4. When offspring is produced by involvement of two parents and
also fusion of male and female gamete the reproduction is
_______________ .
5. The term _______________ is used for morphologically and
genetically similar individuals.
6. Many single-celled organisms reproduce by _______________ .

7. In yeast, the division is _______________ and small

_______________ is produced that remain attached initially to
parent cell.
8. The asexual reproductive structures in Penicillium is
_______________ ; in Hydra buds and in Sponge is
_______________ .
9. In plants, the structures such as runner, rhizome, sucker, tuber,
offset, bulb are capable of giving rise to new offspring and these
structures are called _______________ .
10. Adventitious buds arises from the notches present at margins
of leaves of _______________ .
11. The period of growth in life of organisms before they can
reproduce sexually is called _______________ in animal and
_______________ in plants.
12. In non-primate female mammals, cyclical changes during
reproductive life are called _______________ whereas in primates,
it is called _______________ .
13. In sexual reproduction, two main prefertilization events are
_______________ and _______________.
14. _______________ refers to the process of formation of two
types gamete - male and female.
15. In sexually reproducing organism, if two gametes are similar in
appearance, then gametes are called ______________and when
gametes produced are morphologically distinct, it is called
_______________.
16. In several fungi and plants, terms such as _______________
and _______________ are used to denote bisexual condition and
term _______________ and _______________ are used to
describe unisexual condition.
17. In flowering plants, the unisexual male flower is
_______________ i.e. bearing stamens, while the female is
_______________ i.e. bearing pistils.
18. In diploid organism specialised cell, gamete mother cell called
_______________ undergo meiosis.
19. In plants, specialised event called _______________ facilitates
transfer of pollen grains to the stigma.
20. The process of fusion of gametes is called _______________
and results in formation of diploid _______________ . The whole
process is also called as _______________ .
21. In _______________ , the female gamete undergoes
development to form new organism without fertilization.
22. _______________ refers to the process of development of
embryo from the zygote. During this process, zygote undergoes
_______________ and _______________ .
23. Animals are categorised into _______________ and
_______________ based on whether the development of zygote
takes place outside or inside the body of female.
24. In flowering plants, _______________ develops into embryo
and _______________ develops into seeds.
25. In plants, _______________ develops fruit which develops a
thick wall called _______________ that is protective in function.
26. Under favourable condition the Amoeba withdraws its
pseudopodia and secretes a _______________ layered hard
covering or cyst around itself.
27. The phenomenon _______________ occurs during
unfavourable condition in Amoeba.
28. After encystation when favourable condition return, the
encysted Amoeba divides by ______________.
29. In _______________ phenomenon in Amoeba the cyst wall burst out
and spores are liberated in surrounding medium to grow up into many
amoebae.
30. In Hydra, the mode of asexual reproduction in which the body breaks
into distinct pieces and each piece grows into adult is known as
_______________ .
Sexual reproduction in Flowering plants
1. Androecium consists of a whorl of _______________
representing the male reproductive organ and the gynoecium
represents the female reproductive organ.
2. The two parts of a typical stamen are the long and slender stalk
called _______________ , and the terminal generally bilobed
structure called the _______________ .
3. The proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the
_______________ or the _______________ of the flower.
4. The bilobed anther consist of four _______________ located at
the corners. They develop further and become _______________ .
5. In microsporangium, cells of the _______________ possess
dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
6. When anther is young, a group of compactly arranged
homogenous cells called _______________ tissue occupies the
centre of each microsporangium.
7. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother
cell through meiosis is called _______________ .
8. The _______________ represent the male gametophytes.

9. The hard outer layer of pollen grain called _______________ is

made up of _______________ .
10. Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called
_______________ where sporopollenin is absent.
Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because of presence of
_______________ .
11. The inner wall of the pollen grains is called _______________ .
It is a thin and continous layer made up of _______________ and
_______________ .
12. When the pollen grain is mature it contains two cells, the
_______________ cell and _______________ cell.
13. In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at
_______________ -celled stage.
14. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species
for years in a liquid nitrogen at _______________ oC.
15. Each pistil has three parts _______________ ,
_______________ and _______________ . _______________
serve as a landing platform for pollen grains.
16. The _______________ is elongated slender part beneath the
stigma. The basal bulged part of the pistil is the _______________ .
17. Arising from the _______________ are the megasporangia
commonly called ovules.
18. The body of the ovule fuses with _______________ in the
region called hilum.
19. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called
_______________ .
20. Opposite the micropylar end, is the _______________ ,
representing the basal part of the ovule.
21. Enclosed within the integuments in a mass of cells is called the
_______________ .
22. An ovule generally has a single embryo sac formed from a
_______________ .
23. Ovules generally differentiate into a single megaspore mother
cell in the _______________ region.
24. The method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore
is termed _______________ development.
25. The two nuclei in embryo sac called polar nuclei are situated
below the egg apparatus in the large _______________ .
26. Three cells are grouped together at the _______________ end
and constitute egg apparatus.
27. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the
micropylar tip called _______________ apparatus.
28. Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called
_______________ .
29. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity, though
_______________ nucleate is _______________ celled.
30. Some plants such as Viola, Oxalis and Commelina produce two
types of flowers- _______________ flower which are similar to
flowers of other species with exposed anther and stigma and
_______________ flowers which do not open at all.
31. The _______________ flowers are invariably autogamous as
there is no chance of cross-pollen landing on stigma.
32. _______________ is transfer of pollen grains from the anther
to the stigma of another flower of the same plant.
33. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants and is
limited to about 30 genera, mostly _______________ .
34. In _______________ , the female flower reach the surface of
water by the long stalk and the male flowers or pollen grains are
released onto the surface of water.
35. In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are
protected from wetting by _______________ covering.
36. To sustain animal visits, the flowers provide rewards to animal,
_______________ and _______________ are the usual floral
rewards.
37. In some species floral rewards are in providing safe places to
lay eggs; an example for this is tallest flower of _______________ .

38. Continued self-pollination result in _______________ .

39. If both male and female flowers are present on the same plant
such as castor and maize, it prevents _______________ , but not
_______________ .
40. The _______________ has the ability to recognise the pollen,
whether it is compatible or incompatible.
41. The pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen
tube through one of the _______________.
42. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary enters the ovule through
the _______________ and the enters one of the _______________
through the filiform apparatus.
43. All the events- from pollen deposition on the stigma until
pollen tubes enter the ovule-are together referred to as
_______________ interaction.
44. If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers
from the flower bud is necessary, before the anther dehisces. It is
done by using a pair of forceps. This step is referred to as
_______________ .
45. After entering one of the _______________ , pollen tube
releases two male gametes into the cytoplasm of
_______________ .
46. The male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei located in the
central cell produce a triploid _______________.
47. The formation of PEN involves fusion of 3 haploid nuclei, which
is termed _______________ .
48. The central cell after triple fusion becomes _______________
and develops into _______________ .
49. The coconut water from tender coconut is _______________
endosperm and the surrounding white kernel is _______________
endosperm.
50. Embryo develops at the _______________ end of the embryo
sac where zygote is situated.
51. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is
the _______________ , which terminates with the
_______________ or shoot tip.
52. In the grass family, the cotyledon is called _______________
that is situated towards one side of the embryonal axis.
53. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in
a hollow foliar structure the ______________.
54. In some seeds such as black pepper and beet, the residual
persistent nucellus is _________________ .
55. As the seed mature, it becomes relatively dry and contain
_______________ % moisture by mass.
56. The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of fruit called
_______________ .
57. In a species like apple, cashew etc the _______________
contributes to fruit formation which are false fruits.
58. The oldest viable seed is that of Lupinus arcticus excavated
from _______________ .
59. A 2000 years old viable seed Phoenix dactylifera was
discovered at King Herod’s palace near _______________ .
60. _______________ is a form of asexual reproduction that
mimics sexual reproduction.
Human Reproduction
1. The male reproductive system is located in the
_______________ region in human.
2. The testes are situated outside the male abdominal cavity within
a pouch called _______________ which maintain the temperature
of testes _______________ 0C lower than the normal body
temperature necessary for process called _______________ .
3. Each testes has about _______________ compartments called
_______________ .Each compartment contains _______________
highly coiled _______________ in which sperms are produced.
4. In testes, each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two
types of cells called _______________ and _______________ .
5. In testes, _______________ cells provide nutrition to the germ
cells.
6. The region outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial
spaces, contain small blood vessels and are known as
_______________ .
7. The male sex accessory ducts include _______________ ,
_______________ , _______________ and vas deferens.
8. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into
_______________ located along the _______________ surface of
each testis.
9. In male, the urethra originates from the urinary bladder and
extends through the penis to its external opening called
_______________ .
10. The enlarged end of penis is called _______________ which is
covered by a loose fold of skin called _______________ .
11. The male accessory gland include paired _______________ ,
paired _______________ and a _______________ gland.
12. The secretion of male accessory glands constitute seminal
plasma which is rich in _______________, _______________ and
certain enzymes. The secretion of _______________ glands also
helps in the lubrication of penis.
13. In female, each ovary is about _______________ cm in length
and is connected to _______________ and _______________ by
ligaments.
14. In each ovary, ovarian stroma is divided into two zones
_______________ and _______________ .
15. Each fallopian tube is about _______________ cm long. It has
three parts, funnel-shaped ______________, wider part
_______________ and last part _______________ .
16. The shape of the uterus is like _______________ .
17. The cavity of cervix is called _______________ , which along
with _______________ forms birth canal.
18. The three layer of tissues in wall of uterus are
_______________ , _______________ and _______________.
19. _______________ is a part of female external genitalia which is
a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair.
20. _______________ is a part of female external genitalia which
are paired folds of tissue under the labia majora.
21. _______________ is a part of female external genitalia which
are fleshy folds of tissue, which extend down from mons pubis and
surround vaginal opening.
22. The opening of vagina is often covered partially by a membrane
called _______________ .
23. _______________ is a tiny finger-like structure which lies at
the upper junction of two labia minora above urethral opening.
24. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
_______________ mammary lobes containing clusters of cells
called _______________ which secrete milk and store in its
cavities.
25. In mammary glands, mammary tubules of each mammary lobes
join to form ______________which further joins to form wider
mammary ampulla which is connected to_______________
through which milk is sucked out.
26. The process of spermatogenesis begins at _______________
due to significant increase in _______________ hormone.
27. The spermatogonia is a _______________ cell containing
_______________ chromosome.
28. During spermatogenesis, the secondary spermatocytes
undergo the second meiotic division to produce four equal haploid
_______________ which are transformed into spermatozoa by the
process, called _______________ .
29. The process in which sperms are finally released from
seminiferous tubules is known as _______________.
30. In male, LH acts on _______________ and stimulate synthesis
and secretion of _______________ , whereas FSH acts on
_______________ and stimulate secretion of factors which help in
process of _______________ .
31. The sperm head contains an elongated _______________ nucleus, the anterior
portion of which is covered by a cap-like structure _______________ .
32. The human male ejaculates about _______________ million sperms during a
coitus of which, for normal fertility, at least _______% sperms must have normal
shape and size and at least _______% of them must show vigorous motility.
33. The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitute
_______________ .
34. The process of formation of a mature female gamete is called
_______________ .
35. Oogonia cells start division and gets temporarily arrested at
_______________ stage of meiotic division and are called
_______________ .
36. At puberty, _______________ primary follicles are left in each
ovary in female.
37. The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of
granulosa cells and a new theca and are called _______________ .
38. During oogenesis, the tertiary follicle is characterized by a fluid
filled cavity called _______________ .
39. During oogenesis, the secondary oocyte forms a new
membrane called _______________ surrounding it. After this,
Graafian follicle ruptures to release secondary oocyte from ovary
by the process called
_______________ .
40. The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called
_______________ and it ceases around _______________ years of
age which is termed as _______________ .
41. During follicular phase of menstrual cycle, the
_______________ follicles in the ovary grows to become a fully
mature _______________ follicle and simultaneously
endometrium of uterus regenerates through proliferation.
42. During follicular phase of menstrual cycle, the secretion of
gonadotropins increases gradually and stimulates follicular
development as well as secretion of _______________ by growing
follicles. Both LH and FSH attain a peak in the _______________ of
cycle at about _______________ day in 28 day cycle.
43. In the middle of menstrual cycle, _______________ induces
rupture of graafian follicle and thereby the release of ovum, a
process called _______________ .
44. _______________ secretes large amount of progesterone
which is essential for maintaince of endometrium.
45. The normal reproductive phase in female extends between
_______________ and _______________ .
46. The process of release of sperm by penis into the vagina is
called _______________ .
47. In _______________ region of fallopian tube, fertilization takes
place.
48. During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact with the
_______________ layer of ovum and induces changes in it and
block the entry of additional sperms.
49. The zygote carrying _______________ sex chromosomes
would develop into a female baby and _______________ would
form a male.
50. The 1st mitotic division of zygote is called _______________
and starts as zygote moves towards uterus and forms 2, 4, 8, 16,
daughter cells called _______________ .
51. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called
_______________ which continue to divide and transforms into
_______________ .
52. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer
layer called _______________ and an inner group of cells attached
to it called _______________ .
53. _______________ is the process in which blastocyst become
embedded in endometrium of the uterus and leads to pregnancy.
54. After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the
trophoblast called _______________ which are surrounded by the
uterine tissue and maternal blood.
55. _______________ facilitates the supply of oxygen and
nutrients and removal of CO2 and excretory material produced by
embryo. It is connected through _______________ to the embryo.
56. Placenta acts as endocrine tissue as it produces hormones like
_______________ , hPL, _______________, progestogens, etc.
57. In later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called
_______________ is also secreted by ovary.
58. After implantation, the inner cell mass differentiates into an
outer layer _______________ , inner layer _______________ and
middle layer _______________ .
59. The inner cell mass contains certain cells called
_______________ cells which have the potency to give rise to all
the tissues and organs.
60. By the end of _______________ month, foetus develops limbs
and digit and by end of _______________ trimester, most of major
organ systems are formed.
61. The first movement of the foetus and the appearance of hair
on the head are usually observed during _______________ month
of pregnancy.
62. The average duration of human pregnancy is about
_______________ months which is called _______________
period.
63. Parturition is induced by a complex _______________
mechanism. The signals for parturition originate from
_________________ and __________________ which induces
mild uterine contraction called _______________ reflex.
64. _______________ hormone acts on the uterine muscle and
causes stronger uterine contraction.
65. The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is
called _______________ which contains several antibodies.
Reproductive Health
1. The programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive
health as a social goal are called _______________ and were
initiated in India in _______________ .
2. _______________ is a new oral contraceptive for the females
once a week pill developed by scientist at _______________ in
Lucknow, India.
3. The population of India was approximately _______________
million during time of independence and crossed 1 billion in
_______________ . It means every _______ person in the world is
an Indian.
4. According to the 2001 census report, the population growth rate
in India was around _________% .
5. The marriageable age of the female is ______ years and that of
males is ______ years in India.
6. _______________ is the natural method of contraceptive in
which couples avoid coitus from day _____ to _____ of the
menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected.
7. _______________ method of contraceptive is based on the fact
that ovulation and therefore the menstrual cycle do not occur
during the period of intense lactation following parturition.
8. Condoms are barriers made of _______________ that are used
to cover penis in male or vagina and cervix in female.
_______________ is a popular brand of condom for male.
9. _______________ , _______________ and _______________
are the physical barriers of contraceptive made up of rubber that
are used by female.
10. The method of contraceptive which uses Lippes loop are
included under _______________ IUDs; Multiload 375 under
_______________ IUDs and LNG-20 under _______________ IUDs.
11. IUDs increase _______________ of sperms within uterus and
Cu ions released suppress _______________ and fertilizing
capacity of sperm.
12. _______________ are ideal contraceptives for female who
want to delay pregnancy and/or space children and is one of most
widely accepted method of contraception in India.
13. Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or
_______________ combination is one of the contraceptive method
used by female.
14. The pills have to be taken daily for a period of
_______________ days by female, starting preferably within
_______________ days of menstrual cycle.
15. _______________ inhibits ovulation and implantation as well
as alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of
sperms.
16. _______________ is the new oral contraceptive for the
females containing a non-steroidal preparation and it has to be
taken _______________ in a week.
17. Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen
combination or IUDs within _______________ hours of coitus acts
as emergency contraceptives.
18. Sterilization procedure in male is called _______________ and
in female it is callled ______________ .
19. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full
term is called _______________ or induced abortion.
20. Nearly _______________ million MTPs are performed in a year
all over world which accounts to _______________ of total
number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
21. Government of India legalised MTP in _______________ with
some strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
22. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the
_______________ trimester i.e. upto _______________ weeks of
pregnancy.
23. Sexually transmitted diseases(STDs) are also called
_______________ or _______________ .
24. _______________ techniques assist infertile couple to have
children .
25. In-vitro fertilization followed by embryo transfer are commonly
known as _______________ .
26. After IVF, the embryo upto 8 blastomeres is transfered into
_______________ and technique is known as _______________ .
27. After IVF, the embryo more than 8 blastomeres is transfered
into _______________ and technique is known as
_______________ .
28. The ART _______________ is used for female who cannot
produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for
fertilization and development.
29. _______________ is a specialised procedure to form an
embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into
the ovum.
30. In _______________ technique the semen collected either
from husband or a healthy donor is artifi cially introduced into
vagina. When semen is artificially introduced into uterus of female
it is called
Chapter 1: Reproduction in Organism
1. life span
2. reproduction
3. asexual
4. sexual
5. clone
6. binary fission
7. unequal; buds
8. conidia; gemmules
9. vegetative propagules
10. Bryophyllum
11. juvenile phase; vegetative phase
12. oestrus cycle; menstrual cycle
13. gametogenesis; gamete transfer
14. gametogenesis
15. homogametes (isogametes); heterogametes
16. homothallic; monoecious; heterothallic; dioecious
17. staminate, pistillate
18. meiocytes
19. Pollination
20. syngamy; zygote; fertilisation
21. parthenogenesis
22. embryogenesis; cell division; cell differentiation
23. oviparous; viviparous
24. zygote; ovules
25. ovary; pericap
26. 3
27. encystation
28. multiple fission
29. sporulation
30. fragmentation
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering plants
1. stamens
2. filament; anther
3. thalamus; petal
4. microsporangia; pollen sacs
5. tapetum
6. sporogenous
7. microsporogenesis
8. pollen grains
9. exine; sopopollenin
10. germ pores; sporopollenin
11. intine; cellulose; pectin
12. vegetative; generative
13. 2
14. -1960C
15. stigma; style; ovary; stigma
16. style; ovary
17. placenta
18. funicle
19. integuments
20. chalaza
21. nucellus
22. megaspore
23. micropylar
24. monosporic
25. central cell
26. micropylar
27. filiform
28. antipodals
29. 8; 7
30. chasmogamous; cleistogamous
31. cliestogamous
32. geitonogamy
33. monocotyledons
34. Vallisneria
35. mucilaginous
36. Nectar; pollen grains
37. Amorphophallus
38. inbreeding depression
39. autogamy; geitonogamy
40. pistil
41. germ pore
42. micropyle; synergids
43. pollen-pistil
44. emasculation
45. synergids; synergid
46. primary endosperm nucleus
47. triple fusion
48. PEC; endosperm
49. free-nuclear; nuclear
50. micropylar
51. epicotyl; plumule
52. scutellum
53. coleoptile
54. perisperm
55. 10-15
56. pericarp
57. thalamus
58. Arctic Tundra
59. Dead Sea
60. apomixis
Chapter 3: Human Reproduction
1. pelvis
2. scrotum; 2-25; spermatogenesis
3. 250; testicular lobules; 1-3; seminiferous tubules
4. male germ cell (spermatogonia); sertoli cell
5. sertoli cell
6. Leydig cell
7. rete testis; vasa efferntia; epididymis
8. epidydymis; posterior
9. urethral meatus
10. glans penis; foreskin
11. seminal vesicle; bulbourethral; prostate
12. fructose; calcium; bulbourethral
13. 2-4; pelvic wall; uterus
14. peripheral cortex; inner medulla
15. 10-12; infundibulum; ampulla; isthmus
16. inverted pear
17. cervical canal; vagina
18. perimetrium; myometrium; endometrium
19. mons pubis
20. labia minora
21. labia majora
22. hymen
23. clitoris
24. 15-20 ; alveoli
25. mammary duct; lactiferous duct
26. puberty; gonadotrophin releasing hormone(GnRH)
27. diploid; 46
28. spermatid; spermiogenesis
29. spermiation
30. Leydig cell; androgen; Sertoli cell;spermiogenesis
31. hapliod; acrosome
32. 200-300; 60; 40
33. semen
34. oogenesis
35. prophase-1; primary oocytes
36. 60000-80000
37. secondary follicles
38. antrum
39. zona pellucida; ovulation
40. menarche; 50; menopause
41. primary; graafian
42. estrogen; middle; 14th
43. LH surge; ovulation
44. corpus luteum
45. menarche; menopause
46. insemination
47. ampullary
48. zona pellucida
49. XX ; XY
50. cleavage; blasotmere
51. morula; blastocyst
52. trophoblast; inner cell mass
53. implantation
54. chorionic villi
55. placenta; umbilical cord
56. hCG; estrogen
57. relaxin
58. ectoderm; endoderm; mesoderm
59. stem
60. 2nd ; 1st
61. 5th
62. 9; gestation period
63. neuroendocrine; fully developed foetus; placenta ; foetal-ejection
64. oxytocin
65. colostrum
Chapter 4: Reproductive health
1. Family planning; 1951
2. Saheli; Central Drug Research Institute
3. 350; May 2000; 6th
4. 1.7
5. 18 ; 21
6. periodic abstinence; 10; 17
7. Lactational amenorrhea
8. thin rubber/latex sheath; Nirodh
9. Diaphragms; cervical caps; vaults
10. non-medicated; copper releasing; hormone releasing
11. phagocytosis; sperm motility
12. IUDs
13. progestogen-estrogen
14. 21; first-five
15. Pills
16. Saheli; one
17. 72
18. Vasectomy; tubectomy
19. Medical termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
20. 45 to 50 ; 1/5th
21. 1971
22. first; 12
23. veneral diseases; reproductive tract infections
24. Assisted Reproductive Technologies(ART)
25. test tube baby programme
26. fallopian tube; ZIFT
27. uterus; IUT
28. GIFT
29. ICSI
30. AI; IUI
Principles of Inheritance and Variation
1. _______________ is the process by which characters are passed
on from parents to progeny.
2. _______________ conducted hybridisation experiment on
garden peas for seven years and proposed the laws of inheritance
in living organisms.
3. The first hybrid generation is also called _______________
progeny or F1.
4. In a monohybrid cross, the phenotypic and genotypic ratio in F2
generation is _______________ and _______________
respectively.
5. According to Mendel, characters are controlled by discrete units
called _______________ and now we call them _______________
.
6. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as
_______________ .
7. For a character like height, TT and tt are called
_______________ of organism while descriptive terms tall and
dwarf are _______________ .
8. Both the alleles can be similar in case of _______________ (eg.
TT or tt) or can be dissimilar as in the case of _______________
(eg. Tt) for a particular trait (eg. height).
9. During the process of meiosis, the segregation of alleles is a
random process and so there is a _______________ % chance of a
gamete containing either allele.
10. The symbols _______________ and _______________ are
used to denote female (egg) and male (pollen) respectively.
11. For a trait height, the genotype of Tt has the phenotypic
character _______________ .
12. When an organism showing a dominant phenotype is crossed
with the recessive parent instead of selfcrossing, then the cross is
called _______________ .
13. If the result of test cross shows half of the progeny with
dominant trait and half recessive trait, then the unknown genotype
of parent is interpreted to be _______________ .
14. In _______________ , the F1 had a phenotype that did not
resemble either of the two parents and is between the two.
15. In incomplete dominance, the phenotypic ratio is
_______________ and the genotypic ratio is _______________ .
16. The study on plant Antirrhinum sp. is good example of
_______________ dominance and that on ABO blood group in
human being is an example of _______________ dominance.
17. In case of _______________ , F1 generation resembles both
parents.

18. The phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cross is _______________ .

19. In 1900, three scientist _______________ , _______________
and Von Tschermak independently discovered Mendel’s result on
the inheritance of character.
20. _______________ united the knowledge of chromosomal
segregation with Mendelian principle and called it the
chromosomal theory of inheritance.
21. Morgan coined the term _______________ to describe physical
association of genes on a chromosome and the term
_______________ to describe the generation of non-parental gene
combination.
22. The chromosomes involved in the determination of sex is
designated as _______________ and the rest of chromosomes is
called _______________ .
23. Grasshopper is an example of _______________ type of sex
determination in which males have only X-chromosome besides
autosomes, whereas female have a pair of X-chromosome.
24. In mammals including man, _______________ type of sex
determination is seen where both male and female have same
number of chromosome.
25. The XO and XY sex determination mechanism are designated to
be example of _______________ heterogamety whereas ZW sex
determination mechanism are designated to be example of
_______________ heterogamety.
26. In birds the female have _______________ chromosome
whereas males have _______________ chromosome besides
autosomes.
27. The mutation arising due to change in a single base pair of DNA
is known as _______________ mutation.
28. The chemical and physical factors that induce mutation are
reffered to as _______________ .
29. An analysis of traits in a several generation of a family is called
_______________ analysis.
30.

31. Sickle-cell anaemia and phenylketonuria are example of

_______________ trait.
32. Myotonic dystrophy is example of _______________ trait.
33. Haemophilia is _______________ disease in which
heterozygous female may transmit the diseases to
_______________ .
34. Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of
_______________ by _______________ at 6th position of the
_______________ globin chain of Haemoglobin.
35. In phenylketonuria, the individual lacks an enzyme that
converts the amino acid phenylamine into _______________ .
36. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle
results in the gain or loss of a chromosome called
_______________ .
37. In _______________ , there is an increase in a whole set of
chromosome in an organism.
38. Down’s syndrome is genetic disorder because of presence of an
additional copy of chromosome number _______________ .
39. In _______________ syndrome, there is an additional copy of
X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY.
40. In _______________ syndrome, there is an absence of one of
the X-chromosome, i.e. 45 with XO.
41. The traits that are generally controlled by 3 or more genes are
called _______________ traits.
42. When single gene exhibit multiple phenotypic expression, it is
called _______________ gene.
43. In honey bee, females are _______________ having
_______________ chromosome and males are _______________
having 16 chromosome. This is called _______________ sex-
determination system.
44. Colour blindness is _______________-linked _______________
disorder. This defect is due to mutation in certain genes present in
_______________ chromosome.
45. Thalassemia is _______________-linked _______________
disease. It is controlled by two closely linked genes
_______________ and _______________ on chromosome
_______________ of each parent.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
1. A bacteriophage φ174 has 5386 nucleotides, bacteriophage
lambda has _______________ bp, Escherichia coli has
_______________ bp and haploid content of human DNA is
_______________ bp.
2. _______________ nitrogenous base is present in RNA at the
place of _______________ .
3. A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a
_______________ linkage to form a _______________ .
4. In nucleotide, a phosphate group is linked to 5’-OH of a
nucleotide through _______________ linkage.

5. The backbone of polynucleotide chain is formed due to

_______________ and _______________ .
6. 5-methyl uracil is another chemical name for _______________ .
7. _______________ and _______________ proposed Double
Helix model for the structure of DNA based on the
_______________ data produced by Wilkins and Franklin.
8. Adenine forms _______________ hydrogen bonds with Thymine
and Guanine forms _______________ hydrogen bonds with
cytosine.
9. The two chains of DNA are coiled in a _______________ handed
fashion. The pitch of helix is _______________nm and there are
roughly _______________ bp in each turn.
10. Francis Crick proposed the central dogma, which states that
genetic information flows from DNA _______________
_______________ .
11. In prokaryotes, DNA being _______________ charged is held
with some protein that have _______________ charges in a region
termed as _______________ .
12. In eukaryotes, DNA is held with set of positively charged, basic
proteins called _______________ .They are organised to form a
unit of eight molecules called _______________ .
13. The DNA is wrapped around histome octamer to form structure
called _______________ . It contains _______________ bp of DNA
helix.
14. Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in
nucleus called _______________ . They are seen as
_______________ structure when viewed under electron
microscope.
15. The chromatin fibres, coiled and condensed at
_______________ stage of cell division to form chromosome. The
packaging of chromatin at higher level requires proteins called
_______________ proteins.
16. In nucleus, region of chromatin that are loosely packed and
stains light are reffered as _______________ and chromatin that is
densely packed and stains dark are called _______________.
17. _______________ chromatin is transcriptionally active and
_______________ chromatin is inactive.
18. In Griffith’s experiment, _______________ bacteria was used.
S-stain of bacteria produces smooth colonies because it has
_______________ coat that was absent in R-stain.
19. In Griffith’s experiment, mice infected with _______________
strain die from pneumonia infection.
20. _______________ and _______________ worked together to
discover the nature of transforming principle. They grew virus on
medium containing radioactive _______________ and some on
medium containing radioactive _______________ .
21. In Hershey-Chase experiment, the sequence of stages was
infection, blending and centrifugation. At the end radioactive
_______________ was detected in supernatant and radioactive
_______________ was detected in cell.
22. _______________ group present at every nucleotide in RNA is
a reactive group and makes RNA liable and easily degradable.
23. _______________ nucleic acid is preferred for storage of
genetic information and _______________ nucleic acid for
transmission.
24. _______________ nucleic acid was the 1st genetic material.
25. The replication of DNA is _______________ as each DNA
molecule have one parental and one newly synthesized strand.
26. In 1958, _______________ and _______________ had prove
that DNA replicates semiconservatively.
27. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiments, the heavy DNA molecule
was distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation in
_______________ density gradient.
28. The main enzyme for replication of DNA is _______________-
dependent _______________ polymerase.
29. In E.coli, the average rate of polymerisation is
_______________ bp per second.
30. The replication of DNA occur within a small opening of DNA
helix, referred to as _______________ . The polymerisation occur
in one direction that is _______________
31. The DNA replication in the template with 5'-3' polarity is
discontinuous and the discontinously synthesized fragment are
joined by enzyme _______________ .
32. The process of copying genetic information from one strand of
the DNA into RNA is termed as _______________ .
33. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions
in DNA : _______________ , structural gene and _______________
.
34. During transcription, the DNA strand having polarity
_______________ is reffered to as template strand.
35. _______________ strand of DNA is used as reference point
while defining transcription and its polarity is _______________ .
36. _______________ is a DNA sequence that provides binding site
for RNA polymerase and is located _______________ stream of
structural gene.
37. _______________ is a DNA sequence that defines the end of
the process of transcription and is located _______________
stream of coding strand.
38. In eukaryotes, the coding sequence are called
_______________ that appears in mature RNA. They are
interrupted by _______________ .
39. In bacteria, during transpiration _______________ facilitates
opening of the helix and continues elongation.
40.
41. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase _______________ transcribes
rRNAs ; RNA polymerase ______________ transcribes tRNA,
5srRNA and snRNAs ; and RNA polymerase _______________
transcribes mRNA.
42. _______________ is the process where introns are removed and exons
are joined in a defined order.
43. In capping an unusual nucleotide _______________ is added to the
_______________ end of hnRNA and in tailing, _______________ residues
are added at _______________ end in template independent manner.
44. _______________ , a physicist, suggested that in order, to code
for all the 20 amino acid, the code is should be made up of 3
nucleotide.
45. The codon for amino acid is _______________ . The number of
codons that code for amino acid is _______________ and
_______________ codons code for stop codons.
46. One codon codes only for one amino acid, hence it is
_______________ and specific. Some amino acids are coded by
more than one codon, hence the code is _______________ .
47. _______________ code has dual function i.e. codes for
Methionine and also acts as initiator codon.
48. Insertion or deletion of one or two bases in a gene changes the
reading frame. Such mutation are referred to as _______________
insertion.
49. _______________ RNA acts as an adapter molecule.
50. There are _______________ tRNA for stop codons.
51. The secondary structure of tRNA looks like a _______________
but in actual structure the tRNA is a compact molecule which looks
like _______________ .
52. The process of charging of tRNA is also called
_______________ of tRNA.
53. The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing proteins is
_______________ . It consists of structural RNAs and about
_______________ different proteins.
54. 23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme called _______________ .
55. Some additional sequence in mRNA that are not translated are
referred as _______________ .
56. For initiation of translation, the ribosome binds to the mRNA at
the start codon that is recognised only by the _______________ .
57. At the end of translation, _______________ binds to stop
codon, terminating translation and releasing the complete
polypeptide from the ribosome.
58. The accessibility of promoter region of prokaryotic DNA is
regulated by the interaction of proteins with DNA sequence
termed _______________ .
59. In bacteria, the arrangement of DNA sequence in which
polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter
and regulatory genes is called _______________ .
60. The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene - i gene, where
‘i’ refer to _______________ .
61. In lac operon, ‘z’ gene codes for _______________ , ‘y’ gene
codes for _______________ and ‘a’ gene codes for
_______________ .
62. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as
_______________ regulation.
63. Human Genome Project was launched in year
_______________ and completed in year ______________.
64. The genes that are expressed as RNA is referred to as
_______________ .
65. Assigning different regions in the DNA sequence with function
is called _______________ .
66. In Human Genome Project, the fragments were sequenced
using automated DNA sequences that work on the principle of a
method developed by _______________ .
67. In human genome, less than _______________ % of genome
codes for proteins. The chromosome _______________ has most
genes (2968) and chromosome _______________ has the fewest
(231).
68. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some
specific regions in DNA sequence called as _______________ .
69. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high
frequency, it is referred to as _______________.
70. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by
_______________ . In this, a satellite DNA used as probe shows
very high degree of polymorphism refer to as _______________.
Its size varies from _______________ to _______________ kb.
Evolution
1. Stellar distances are measured in _______________ .
2. The universe is _______________ billion years old.
3. _______________ theory explain origin of universe.
4. The earth was supposed to have been formed about
_______________ billion years back.
5. Life on earth appeared about _______________ billion years
back.
6. According to _______________ theory, life came out of
decaying and rotting matter.
7. _______________ demonstrated that life comes only from pre-
existing life.
8. _______________ of Russia and _______________ of England
proposed that formation of life was preceded by chemical
evolution.
9. Miller in his experiment observed the formation of
_______________ .
10. According to _______________ theory, earth is about 4000
years old.
11. In Miller’s experiment _______________ were used as energy
source and temperature inside spark chamber was ______0C.
12. _______________ gave the idea of natural selection based on
his observations made during a sea voyage in a sail ship called
_______________ .
13. According to Darwin, fitness of individual or population
ultimately refers to _______________ fitness.
14. Alfred Wallace who worked in _______________ had also
come to similar conclusion as drawn by Darwin.
15. _______________ evidence show that different-aged rock
sediment contain fossils of different life form.
16. One of the main method of determining the age of the fossils is
_______________ .
17. Homology is based on _______________ evolution.
18. _______________ structures indicates common ancestry.
19. The pattern of bones of forelimbs of whales, bats , cheetah and
human have the same structure developed along different
direction due to adaptations to different needs. This is
_______________ evolution.
20. Wings of butterfly and birds show _______________ evolution
whereas eye of octopus and of mammals show _______________
evolution.
21. In 1920, i.e. post industrialization period population of
_______________ winged moth increases because the predators
can easily spot a moth against a contrasting background.
22. _______________ does not grow in polluted area, so can be
used as industrial pollution indicator.
23. During his journey Darwin visited _______________ islands
and observed amazing diversity of creatures.
24. The process of evolution of different species in a given
geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to
other areas of geography (habitats) is called _______________ .
25. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have
occured in an isolated geographical area, it can be called as
_______________ evolution.
26. _______________ evolution is shown by Bobcat, a placental
mammal and _______________ , an australian marpusial.
27. _______________ and _______________ are two key concepts
of Darwinian Theory of Evolution.
28. _______________ gave the concept that evolution is driven by
use and disuse of organ by taking example of Giraffe.
29. The work of _______________ on population had influenced
Darwin.
30. The work of _______________ was based on evening primrose
and gave idea of mutation.
31. Single step large mutation is called _______________ which
caused speciation.
32. _______________ principle states the concept that frequency
of occurence of alleles of a gene in a population remains constant
from generation to generation .
33. The total genes and their alleles in a population constitute
_______________ .
34. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, sum total of all the
allelic frequencies is _______________ .
35. If in a diploid organism, p and q represent the frequency of
allele A and a, then probability that allele ‘A’ will appear on one
chromosome and allele ‘a’ on another chromosome is
_______________ .
36. The five factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are
gene migration, genetic drift, _______________,
_______________ and _______________ .
37. When original drifted population becomes founders by any
chance event, then effect is called _______________ .
38. When natural selection causes more individuals to acquire
value other than mean character value it is called
_______________ and when it causes more individuals to acquire
peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve, it
is called _______________ .
39. Jawless fish probably evolved around _______________ mya.

40. The first organisms to invade land were _______________ .

41. The sequence of periods in geological time sequence :
42. Around 200 mya, some of land reptiles e.g. _______________
went back into water to evolve into fish like reptiles.
43. The biggest dinosaur was _______________ which was about
20 feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth.
44. Due to _______________ pouched mammals of Australia
survived because of lack of competition from any other mammals.
45. About 15 mya, primates called _______________ (which was
more ape-like) and _______________ (which was more man-like)
were existing.
46. Around 2 mya, primates called _______________ lived in East
African grasslands, ate fruit and hunted with stone weapon.
47. The first human-like being the hominid was called
_______________ , whose brain capacity was _______________
cc.
48. The _______________ with brain size of 1400cc lived in near
East and Central Asia between 1,00,000 - 40,000 years back. They
used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
49. Homo sapiens arose in _______________ and moved across
continents and developed into distinct races.
50. Agriculture came around _______________ years back and
human settlements started.
Principles of Inheritance and Variation
1. Inheritance
2. Mendel
3. Filial
4. 3:1; 1:2:1
5. Factors; genes
6. alleles
7. genotype; phenotype
8. homozygotes;
heterozygote
9. 50%

10.
11. tall
12. test cross
13. heterozygous
14. incomplete dominance
15. 1:2:1 ; 1:2:1
16. incomplete; Co
17. Co-dominance
18. 9:3:3:1
19. de Vries; Correns
20. Sutton
21. linkage; recombination
22. sex chromosome; autosome
23. XO
24. XY
25. Male; Female
26. ZW; ZZ
27. point
28. mutagens
29. pedigree
30. affected individuals; consanguineous mating
31. autosomal recessive
32. autosomal dominant
33. sex-linked recessive; sons
34. glutamic acid; valine; beta( )
35. tyrosine
36. aneuploidy
37. Polyploidy
38. 21
39. Klinefelter’s
40. Turner’s
41. polygenic
42. pleiotropic
43. diploid; 32; haploid; haplodiploid
44. sex; recessive; X
45. autosome; recessive; HBA1; HBA2 ; 16
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
1. 48502; 4.6 X 106 ; 3.3 x 109
2. uracil; thymine
3. N-glycosidic; nucleoside
4. phosphoester
5. sugar; phosphate
6. thymine
7. Watson; Crick; X-ray diffraction
8. 2 ; 3
9. right; 3.4; 10
10. RNA; protein
11. negatively; positively; nucleoid
12. histones; histone octamer
13. nucleosome; 200
14. chromatin; beads-on-string
15. metaphase; non-histone chromosomal (NHC)
16. euchromatin; heterochromatin
17. eu; hetero
18. Streptococcus pneumoniae; mucous(polysaccharide)
19. S
20. Hershey; Chase; Phosphorous; Sulphur
21. sulphur; phosphorous
22. 2’-OH
23. DNA; RNA
24. RNA
25. semiconservative
26. Meselson; Stal
27. cesium chloride(CsCl)
28. DNA; DNA
29. 2000
30. replication fork; 5’ --> 3’
31. DNA ligase
32. transcription
33. promoter; terminator
34. 3’ --> 5’
35. coding ; 5’ --> 3’
36.. Promoter; up-
37. Terminator; down
38. exons; introns
39. RNA polymerase
40. inititation; termination
41. I , III , II
42. splicing
43. methyl guanosine triphosphate; 5’ ; adenylate ; 3’
44. George Gamow
45. triplet; 61; 3
46. unambiguous; degenerate
47. AUG
48. frameshift
49. t-RNa
50. no
51. clover-leaf; inverted-L
52. aminoacylation
53. ribosome; 80
54. ribozyme
55. untranslated regions (UTR)
56. initiator tRNA
57. release factor
58. operators
59. operon
60. inhibitor
61. beta-galactosidase; permease; transacetylase
62. negative
63. 1990; 2003
64. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs)
65. Sequence Annotation
66. Frederick Sanger
67. 2% ; 1 ; Y
68. repetitive DNA
69. DNA polymorphism
70. Alec Jeffreys; VNTR; 0.1 ; 20
Evolution
1. Light year
2. 20
3. Big Bang
4. 4.5
5. 4
6. Spontaneous generation
7. Louis Pasteur
8. Oparin ; Haldane
9. amino-acid
10. special creation
11. electrodes; 8000C
12. Charles Darwin; H.M.S Beagle
13. reproductive
14. Malay Archipelago
15. paleontological
16. radioactive-dating
17. divergent
18. Homologous
19. divergent
20. divergent; convergent
21. dark
22. lichens
23. Galapagos
24. adaptive radiation
25. convergent
26. convergent; Tasmanian tiger cat
27. Branching descent; natural selection
28. Lamarck
29. Thomas Malthus
30. Hugo de Vries
31. Saltation
32. Hardy-Weinberg
33. gene pool
34. one
35. 2pq
36. mutation; genetic recombination; natural selection
37. founder effect
38. directional change; disruptive
39. 350
40. plants
41. permian; jurassic; tertiary
42. Ichthyosaurs
43. Tyrannosaurus rex
44. continental drift
45. Dryopithecus ; Ramapithecus
46. Australopithecines
47. Homo habilis ; 650-800
48. Neanderthal man
49. Africa
50. 10,000
Human Health & Disease
1. _______________ discovered blood circulation and disproved
_______________ hypothesis of health.

2. _______________ is defined as a state of complete physical,

mental and social well-being.
3. Disease causing organisms are called _______________ .

4. _______________ bacterium causes typhoid fever in humans.

5. Sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
headache and loss of appetite are common symptom of
_______________ disease.
6. Typhoid fever is confirmed by _______________ test.
7. A classical case in medicine in spread of typhoid by a female
named _______________ nicknamed Typhoid Mary has been
reported.
8. Bacteria like _______________ and _______________ are
responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans infects
_______________ .
9. Rhino viruses cause most common infectious human ailments
_______________ , which usually last for _______________ days.
10. Different species of Plasmodium : _______________ ,
_______________ and _______________ are responsible for
causing malaria. Malignant malaria is caused by _______________ .
11. Plasmodium enters human body as _______________ through
bite of infected female _______________ mosquito.

12. During malaria, the rupture of RBCs is associated with release of

toxic subastance ______________.
13. In malaria the Plasmodium parasite reproduces asexually in
_______________ and forms gametocytes (sexual stage) in
_______________ in humans.
14. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite in large intestine of
human which causes _______________ and _______________ act
as mechanical carriers for spread of this disease.
15. _______________ and _______________ causes elephantiasis
or filariasis.
16. Many fungi belong to genera _______________ ,
_______________ and _______________ are responsible for
ringworms. _______________ and _______________ conditions
help these fungi to grow in groin or between toes.
17. Fishes like _______________ feed on the mosquito larvae in
ponds.
18. The overall ability of host to fight the disease is called
_______________ .
19. In cellular barriers of innate immunity, certain types of WBC of our
body like _______________ and _______________ and
_______________ in body as well as macrophages in tissue can
phagocytose and destroy microbe.
20. The response produce by body when it encounter pathogen for
the first time is called _______________.
21. The secondary response due to encounter with same pathogen is
called _______________ .

22. Two types of lymphocyte present in our body are

_______________ and _______________ lymphocyte.
23. _______________ lymphocyte produces army of protein in
response to pathogen called _______________.

24. Each antibody molecule has _______________ peptide chains.

25. Antibody molecule has _______________ light chains and
_______________ heavy chains and hence antibody is represented
as _______________ .

26. The immune response mediated byB-lymphocyte is called

_______________ and by T-lymphocyte is called _______________.
27. The _______________ immune response is responsible for graft
rejection.
28. When immunity develops in host due to exposure to antigen, it is
called _______________ and when immunity develops due to
administration of ready-made antibodies, it is called
_______________ .
29. The yellowish fluid _______________ secreted by mother during
initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies _______________ to
protect infant.
30. The principle of vaccination is based on the property of
_______________ of immune system.
31. Using recombinant DNA technology, hepatitis B vaccine is
produced from _______________ .
32. The exaggerated response of immune system to certain antigens
called _______________ in the environment is known as
_______________ . The antibody produced in such response are
_______________ type.
33. Allergy is due to release of chemicals like _______________ and
_______________ from the mast cells.
34. The use of drug like anti-histamine, _______________ and
_______________ quickly reduces symptoms of allergy.
35. Memory based acquired immunity is evolved in
_______________ .

36. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of _______________ immune

response.
37. The primary lymphoid organs in our body are _______________
and _______________ .

38. After maturation, the lymphocyte migrates to _______________

organs where interaction of lymphocyte with antigen occur.
39. _______________ organ has a large reservoir of erthrocytes.

40. The lymphoid tissue located within the lining of major tracts in
body is called _______________ and constitute _______________
% of lymphoid tissue in human body.
41. AIDS stands for _______________ and it was first reported in
_______________ (year).

42. AIDS is caused by HIV, a member of a group of viruses called

_______________ that has _______________ genome.
43. The incubation period for AIDS is _______________ years.

44. Once HIV gets inside body, virus enters _______________

where RNA genome replicates to form viral DNA with help of enzyme
_______________ .
45. _______________ in our body act as HIV factory.

46. HIV attacks _______________ lymphocyte.

47. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is _______________ .

48. NACO stands for _______________ .

49. Normal cell shows a property of _______________ by virtue of

which contact with other cells inhibit their uncontrolled growth.
50. _______________ tumors normally remain confined to original
location and causes little damage.

51. Malignant tumors are mass of proliferating cells called

_______________ or tumor cells.
52. The _______________ is property of malignant tumors by which
it reach different sites of the body.

53. Cancer causing agents are called _______________ and cancer

causing viruses are called _______________ which have genes
called _______________ .
54. _______________ or _______________ genes present in
normal cells when activated under certain conditions lead to
oncogenic transformation of cells.
55. In treatment of cancer, patients are given substances called
biological response modifier such as _______________ which
activates their immune system & helps in destroying tumor.
56. Heroin commonly called _______________ is chemically
_______________ which is obtained from morphine by
_______________ reaction and is extracted from latex of poppy plant
_______________ (Scientific name).
57. Cannabinoids are obtained from the infloroscence of the plant
_______________. They are known for their effects on
_______________ system of body.
58. Cocaine is obtanied from coca plant _______________ native to
_______________ . It interferes with transport of neuro-transmitter
_______________ .
59. Morphine is very effective _______________ and
_______________ and is very useful in patients who have
undergone surgery.
60. _______________ is a chemical substance in tobacco that
stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline
into blood.
61. Adolescence means both _______________ and
_______________ during which a child becomes mature. The period
between _______________ and _______________ years of age is
adolescence period.
62. Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a
characteristic and unpleasant _______________ syndrome.
63. Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death due to
respiratory failure, heart failure or _______________ .

64. The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous system
and _______________ .
65. The damage to liver due to excessive use of drugs and alcohol is
called _______________ .
Strategies for Enchancement in Food Production
1. -------------is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising
livestock.

2. It is estimated than more than _______% of the world livestock

population is in India and China.
3. Milk yield is primarily dependent upon the _______________ in the
farm.

4. _______________ is the class of the domesticated fowl used for

food or for their eggs.
5. When breeding is between animals of the same breed it is called
_______________ , while cross
between different breeds is called _______________ .

6. _______________ breeding increases homozygosity.

7. _______________ breeding exposes harmful recessive genes that
are eliminated by selection.

8. _______________ is caused due to continued inbreeding that

reduces fertility and even productivity.
9. Outbreeding may be breeding between individual of same breed
but having no common ancestors for
_______________ generation.

10. _______________ is the practice of mating the animals within the

same breed, but having no common ancestors for 4-6 generation on
either side of their pedigree .
11. In _______________ method,superior males of one breed are
mated with superior females of another
breed.

12. _______________ is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab

by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino
rams.
13. Controlled breeding experiments are carried out using
_______________ .

14. The fertilized eggs at _______________ cell stages are

recovered non-surgically and transferred to surrogate mothers in
MOET.
15. Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering period increases
_______________ efficiency and improves yield.

16. _______________ revolution is for increasing productivity in

fishes.
17. The recorded evidence of plant breeding dates back to
_______________ years ago.

18. _______________ variability is the root of any breeding

programme.
19. The entire collection of plants/seeds having all the diverse alleles
for all genes in a given crop is called _______________ .

20. Agricultural accounts for approximately ______% of India’s GDP

and employs nearly ______% of the populations.
21. During the period 1960-2000, wheat production increased from
11 million tonnes to _______________ million tonnes while rice
production went from ______________ million tonnes to 89.5 million
tonnes.
22. Nornam. E. Borlaug, at International Centre for Wheat and Maize
Improvement in _______________ , developed semi-dwarf wheat.

23. In 1963, several wheat varieties such as _______________ and

_______________ , which were high yielding and disease resistant
were introduced all over wheat growing belt of India.
24. Semi-dwarf rice varieties were derived from _______________
and _______________ .

25. Better-yielding semidwarf varieties of rice _______________ and

_______________ were developed in India.
26. Saccharum barberi was originally grown in _______________
India, but had poor sugar content and yield.

27. Tropical canes grown in _______________ India Saccharum

officinarum had thicker stems and higher sugar content.
28. Brown rust of wheat, red rot of sugarcane, late blight of potato are
caused by _______________ .

29. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery

mildew were induced by _______________.
30. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in Abelmoschus esculentus
was transferred from wild species and resulted in a new variety called
_______________ .

31. Pusa komal is the variety of _______________ crop.

32. _______________ variety of wheat is resistant to leaf and stripe
rust.

33. Brassica resistant to white rust is _______________ .

34. Hairy leaves in several plants are associated with resistant to
insects pests, eg. resistance to _______________ in cotton and
_______________ in wheat.

35. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content in maize leads
to resistance to maize _______________.
36. Pusa sawani and pusa A-4 are variety of _______________ crop.

37. Brassica resistant to _______________ is Pusa Gaurav.

38. In 2000, maize hybrid developed have twice the amount of amino
acid _______________ and _______________ compare to existing
maize hybrid.
39. Wheat variety, _______________ , having a high protein content
has been used as donor for improving cultivated wheat.

40. The shift from grain to meat diets also creates more demands for
cereals as it takes _____kg of grain to produce 1kg of meat by animal
farming.
41. More than ________% of human population is suffering from
hunger and malnutrition.

42. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/plant is

called _______________ .
43. The methods of producing thousands of plants through tissue
culture is called _______________ .

44. _______________ part of plant is free of virus even if plant is

infected with virus.
45. Somatic hybridisation of potato and tomato results in formation of
_______________ .
Microbes in Human Welfare
1. Microorganism such as ___________ and others commonly called
___________ grow in milk and convert it to curd.

2. In the dough used for making dosa and idli, the puffed-up
appearance of it is due to the production of ___________
3. The dough used for making bread is fermented using
___________

4. The scientific name of Baker’s yeast is ___________

5. ___________ is a traditional drink in some parts of southern India
that is made by fermenting sap from palms.

6. The large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of large

amount of ___________ by a bacterium named ___________
7. The ‘Rouefort cheese’ is ripened by growing specific ___________
on them which gives them a particular flavor.

8. The alcoholic drink ___________ and beer are produced without

distillation whereas ___________, ___________ and rum are
produced by distillation of fermented broth.
9. ___________ was the first antibiotic to be discovered by
___________.

10. Alexander Fleming while working on ___________ observed that

the mould named ___________ growing in unwashed plate produced
penicillin because of which bacteria was not able to grow around
mould.
11. Fill the correct acid producer of respective acid: citric acid by
___________ , acetic acid by ___________, butyric acid by
___________ , and lactic acid by ___________ .

12. ___________ enzymes are used in detergent formulations and

are helpful in removing oily stains from the laundry.
13. Streptokinase is produced by bacterium ___________.

14. Cyclosporin A is used as immunosuppressive agent in organ

transplant patients is produced by fungus ___________.

15. ___________ produced by the yeast ___________ have been

commercialized as blood-cholesterol lowering agents.
16. In primary treatment of waste water, all the solids that settle form
the ___________, and the supernatant forms effluent.

17. Secondary treatment of waste water is also known as

___________.
18. The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form
mesh like structures in secondary treatment of waste water is called
___________.

19. ___________is the measure of organic matter present in water.

The more it is, ___________is its polluting potential of waste water.
20. In biological treatment of waste water, a small part of
___________is pumped back into aeration tank to serve as inoculum
and remaining part is pumped into larger tanks called ___________.

21. During the digestion in anaerobic sludge digester, bacteria

produce a mixture of gases such as ___________, hydrogen
sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases forms ___________.
22. The Ministry of Environment and Forests has initiated
___________and ___________to save the major rivers of our
country from pollution.

23. The technology of biogas production was developed in India

mainly due to efforts of ___________and Khadi and ___________.
24. The microbial biocontrol agents used to control butterfly
caterpillars is the bacteria ___________. When insect eats spore of
this bacterium, the toxin is released in ___________of larvae and
larva is killed.
25. ___________are pathogens that attack insects and other
arthropods. The majority of them used as
biological control agents are in the genus ___________.
26. In paddy fields, ___________serve as an important biofertilizer.

27. The nodules on the roots of leguminous plants are formed by the
symbiotic association of ___________.

28. Microbes can also be used to kill harmful pests, a process called
as ___________.
29. The symbiotic association form between some fungi and plants
are called ___________.

30. Many members of the genus ___________form mycorrhiza.

Human health & Disease
1. William Harvey ;‘good humor’
2. Health
3. pathogen
4. Salmonella typhi
5. typhoid
6. Widal
7. Mary Mallon
8. Streptococcus pneumoniae ; Haemophilus influenzae ; lungs
9. common cold
10. P. vivax ; P.malaria ; P.falciparum ; P.falciparum
11. sporozoites; Anopheles
12. haemozoin
13. liver cells; RBCs
14. amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery); houseflies
15. Wuchereria bancrofti ;W.malayi
16. Microsporum ; Trichophyton ; Epidermophyton; Heat; Mositure
17. Gambusia
18. immunity
19. polymorpho-nuclear leukocyte; monocytes; natural killer
20. primary response
21. anamestic
22. B- ; T-
23. B-; antibodies
24. 4
25. 2; 2; H2L2
26.humoral immune response; cell-mediated response
27. cell-mediated
28. active immunity; passive immunity
29. colostrum; IgA
30. memory
31. yeast
32. allergens; allergy; IgE
33. histamine; serotonin
34. adrenalin; steroids
35. vertebrate
36. auto
37. bone marrow, thymus
38. secondary lymphoid
39. spleen
40. mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT); 50
41. Acquired immuno Deficiency Syndrome; 1981
42. retrovirus; RNA
43. 5-10
44. macrophage; reverse transcriptase
45. macrophage
46. helper T-
47. ELISA
48. National AIDS Control Organization
49. contact inhibition
50. Benign
51. neoplastic
52. metastatis
53. carcinogens; oncogenic viruses; viral oncogenes
54. cellular oncogenes; proto
oncogenes
55. alpha interferon
56. smack; diacetylmorphine; acetylation; Papaver somniferum
57. Cannabis sativa; cardiovascular
58. Erythroxylum coca ; dopamine
59. sedative; painkiller
60. Nicotine
61. period; process; 12; 18
62. withdrawal
63. cerebral hemorrhage
64. liver
65. cirrhosis
Strategies for enhancement in food production
1. Animal husbandry
2. 70
3. quality of breeds
4. Poultry
5. inbreeding; outbreeding
6. Inbreeding
7. Inbreeding
8. Inbreeding depression
9. 4-6
10. out-crossing
11. cross-breeding
12. Hisardale
13. artificial insemination
14. 8-32
15. pollination
16. Blue
17. 9000-11000
18. Genetic
19. germplasm collection
20. 33; 62
21. 75; 35
22. Mexico
23. Sonalika ; Kalyan Sona
24. IR-8 ; Taichung Native - 1
25. Jaya; Ratna
26. north
27. south
28. fungi
29. mutation
30. Parbhani Kranti
31. cowpea
32. Himgiri
33. Pusa swarnim
34. jassids; cereal leaf beetle
35. stem borers
36. okra
37. aphids
38. lysine; tryptophan
39. Atlas 66
40. 3-10
41. 25
42. totipotency
43. micro-propogation
44. meristem
45. pomato
Microbes in human welfare
1. Lactobacillus ; Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB)
2. CO2 gas
3. Baker’s yeast
4. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
5. Toddy
6. CO2; Propinobacterium sharmanii
7. Fungi
8. Wine ; whisky ; brandy
9. Penicillin ; Alexander Fleming
10. Staphylococci ; Penicillium notatum
11. Aspergillus niger; Acetobacter aceti ; Clostridium butylicum ; Lactobacillus
12. Liapase
13. Streptococcus
14. Trichoderma polysporum
15. Statins ; Monascus purpureus
16. Primary sludge
17. Biological treatment
18. Flocs
19. BOD ; more
20. Activated sludge ; anaerobic sludge digester
21. Methane ; biogas
22. Ganga Action Plan ; Yamuna Action Plan
23. Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) ; Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
24. Bacillus thuringiensis ; gut
25. Baculoviruses ; Nucleopolyhedrovirus
26. Cynobacteria
27. Rhizobium
28. Biocontrol
29. Mycorrhiza
30. Glomus
Biotechnology : Principles & Processes
1. _______________ deals with techniques of using live organisms
or enzymes from organisms to produce products and processes
useful to humans.
2. _______________ has given a definition of biotechnology that
encompasses both traditional view and modern molecular
biotechnology.
3. The techniques of genetic engineering include creation of
_______________ DNA molecule, by use of gene cloning and gene
transfer.
4. Making multiple identical copies of any template DNA is called
_______________ .
5. The autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA in
bacteria is _______________ .

6. The first recombinant DNA was made by linking gene encoding

antibiotic resistance with native plasmid of _______________ .
7. _______________ and _______________ made first recombinant
DNA molecule in _______________ .

8. Molecular scissors in rDNA technology are the enzyme

_______________ .
9. _______________ enzyme acts on cut DNA molecules and join
their ends.

10. The two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of

bactriophage in E.coli are _______________ and _______________
.
11. The first restriction endonuclease was _______________ .

12. Today more than _______________ restriction enzymes that has

been isolated from over _______________ strains of bacteria.
13. Restriction enzyme belongs to larger class of enzymes called
_______________ . These are of two kind; _______________ and
_______________ .
14. _______________ enzymes remove nucleotide from ends of
DNA whereas _______________ make cut at specific points within
DNA.
15. Restriction endonuclease cut each of two DNA strands of double
helix at specific points in their _______________ .
16. Each restriction enzyme recognises specific _______________
sequence in DNA.

17. When restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA away from
centre of palindrome sites, it produces overhanging stretches known
as _______________ .
18. The DNA fragments can be separated by technique known as
_______________ based on _______________ .

19. DNA fragments being _______________ charged move towards

_______________ under electric field through matrix in gel
electrophoresis.
20. The most common used matrix in gel electrophoresis is
_______________ , which is natural polymer extracted from
_______________ .
21. The separated DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis can be
visualed after staining the DNA with compound _______________
followed by exposure to _______________ . It is seen as
_______________ coloured band.
22. The process wherein the separated bands of DNA in gel
electrophoresis are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the
gel piece is called _______________ .
23. _______________ is a sequence from where replication starts
and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to
replicate within the host cell.
24. _______________ is a procedure through which a piece of DNA
is introduced in a host bacterium.
25. When pBR322 vector is used for transforming recombinant DNA
molecule using Bam HI as restriction enzyme, then recombinant cell
will grow on _______________ antibiotic containing medium, but not
on medium containing _______________ .
26. When a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence
of an enzymeβ - galactosidase , it results into inactivation of enzyme,
which is referred to as ______________ .
27. In insertional inactivation of coding sequence of β - galactosidase
, the presence of chromogenic substrate gives ______________
coloured colonies if the plasmid in bacteria does not have an insert.
28. ______________ , a pathogen of several dicot plants is able to
deliver a piece of DNA called ______________ to transform normal
plant cells into a ______________ .

29. Since DNA is ______________ molecule, it cannot pass through

cell membranes.
30. Bacterial cells can be made to take recombinant DNA by
incubating it with DNA on ice, followed by ______________ at
_____0C and then again putting them on ice.

31. In ______________ method, recombinant DNA is directly injected

into the nucleus of an animal cell.
32. In biolistics method, the cells are bombarded with high velocity
micro-particles of ______________ or ______________ coated with
DNA.
33. ______________ can be used to break bacterial cell;
______________ to break plant cell and ______________ to break
fungal cell.
34. PCR stands for ______________ .

35. Primers used in PCR are small chemically synthesized

______________ that are complementary to the regions of DNA.
36. The thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR is isolated from
bacteria ______________ .

37. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host,

it is called ______________ protein.
38. In a continuous culture system, the used medium is drained out
from one side while fresh medium is added from the other to maintain
cells in ______________ phase.

39. ______________ are used for large volumes (100-1000 litres) of

culture and provide optimal conditions for achieving desired product.
40. The most commonly used bioreactors are ______________ .

41. The strirer in stirred-tank reactor facilitates even mixing and

______________ throughout the bioreactor.
42. In sparged stirred-tank reactor, sterile air bubbles increases area
for ______________ .

43. The bioreactors have ______________ so that small volumes of

the culture can be withdrawn periodically.
44. After the biosynthetic stage of fermentation, further process
includes separation and purification, which are collectively referred to
as ______________ .

45. The palindromic sequence of EcoRI is ______________ .

Biotechnology and its Application
1. ___________Revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply.

2. Organisms (plants, animal, bacteria) whose genes have been

altered by manipulation are called ___________.
3. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called ___________.

4. Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce protein that kills

certain insects such as lepidopterans, ___________and
___________.
5. Once Bt toxin is ingested by insect, the protoxins is converted into
active form due to ___________pH of gut and binds to
___________cells and create pores.

6. The Bt toxin is coded by a gene named ___________.

7. The Bt toxin protein encoded by genes ___________and
___________controls cotton bollworms, and that of
___________controls corn borer.

8. A nematode ___________infects the roots of tobacco plants and

causes a great reduction in yield.
9. ___________method involves silencing of specific mRNA due to
complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents
translation of the mRNA.
10. Using ___________vectors, nematode-specific genes were
introduced into the host plant tobacco.
11. At present, about ___________recombinant therapeutics have
been approved for human-use world over. In India, ___________of
these are presently being marketed.

12. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from

___________of slaughtered cattle and ___________.
13. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains ___________and
___________, that are linked together by ___________.

14. In humans, the pro-hormone of insulin contains an extra stretch

called ___________and so needs to be processed before it becomes
a fully mature and functional hormone.
15. In 1983,___________an American company prepared two DNA
sequences corresponding to chainA and chainB of human insulin and
introduced them in plasmid of bacterium ___________to produce
insulin chains.
16. The first clinical gene therapy was given in ___________ to a 4-
year old girl with ___________deficiency.
17. In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by
___________transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme
replacement therapy.
18. In gene therapy for ADA deficiency, a functional ADA cDNA using
a ___________vector is introduced in lymphocytes.
19. In ADA deficiency, if the gene isolated from marrow cells
producing ADA is introduced into cells at ___________stages, it
could be a permanent cure.
20. Some important techniques that serve the purpose of early
diagnosis of disease are recombinant DNA technology,
___________and ___________.
21. A single stranded RNA or DNA molecule tagged with a
radioactive molecule is called ___________.

22. ELISA is based on the principle of ___________interaction.

23. ___________protein is used to treat emphysema.

24. In 1997, first transgenic cow, ___________, produced human

protein-enriched milk. The milk contained the human
___________and was nutritionally a more balanced product for
human babies than natural cow-milk.
25. Transgenic ___________ are being developed for use in testing
the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans.
26. The Indian government has set up organization, ___________,
which makes decision regarding the validity of GM research and
safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services.
27. There are an estimated ___________varieties of rice in India
alone and ___________documented varieties of Basmati are grown
in India.
28. In 1997, ___________ Company got patent rights on Basmati
rice through the US Patent and Trademark Office.
29. ___________is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources
by multinational companies and other organizations without proper
authorization from the countries and people concerned without
compensatory payment.
30. The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the ___________of
Indian Patents Bill, that takes biopiracy issues into consideration
including patent term emergency provisions and research and
development initiative.
Biotechnology : Principles & Processes
1. Biotechnology
2. EFB
3. recombinant
4. cloning
5. plasmid
6. Salmonella typhimurium
7. Stanley Cohen; Herbert Boyer; 1972
8. restriction enzymes
9. DNA ligase
10. restriction endonuclease; methylase enzyme
11. Hind II
12. 900; 230
13. nucleases; exonucleases; endonucleases
14. exonuclease; endonuclease
15. sugar-phosphate backbone
16. palindromic nucleotide
17. sticky ends
18. gel elctrophoresis; size
19. negatively; anode
20. agarose; sea weeds
21. ethidium bromide; UV radiation; orange
22. elution
23. origin of replication(ori)
24. Transformation
25. ampicillin; tetracycline
26. insertional inactivation
27. blue
28. Agrobacterium tumifaciens ; T-DNA; tumor
29. hydrophilic
30. heat shock; 42
31. micro-injection
32. gold; tungsten
33. lysozyme; cellulase; chitinase
34. Polymerase chain reaction
35. oligonucleotide
36. Thermus aquaticus
37. recombinant
38. log/exponential phase
39. Bioreactors
40. Stirred-tank
41. oxygen availability
42. oxygen transfer
43. sampling ports
44. downstreaming processing
45. 5’ - - - - - - - - - -GAATTC- - - - - - - - - -3’
3’ - - - - - - - - - -CTTAAG- - - - - - - - - -5’
Biotechnology & its Application
1. Green
2. Genetically Modified Organism (GMO)
3. Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Coleopterans ; dipterans
5. Alkaline ; midgut epithelial
6. Cry
7. cryIAc ; cryIIAb ; cryIAb
8. Meloidegyne incognitia
9. RNA interference
10. Agrobacterium
11. 30 ; 12
12. Pancreas ; pigs
13. chainA ; chainB ; disulphide bridges
14. C peptide
15. Eli lilly ; E.coli
16. 1990 ; adenosine deaminase (ADA)
17. Bone marrow
18. Retroviral
19. Early embryonic
20. PCR ; ELISA
21. Probe
22. Antigen-antibody
23. α-1-antitrypsin
24. Rosie ; α-lactalbumin
25. Mice
26. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)
27. 200,000 ; 27
28. American
29. Biopiracy
30. Second amendment
Organisms and Populations
1. _______________ is revered as Father of Ecology in India.

2. The key elements that lead to variatiom in the physical and

chemical conditions of different habitats are temperature,
_______________ , _______________ and _______________ .
3. The organisms that can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of
temperature are called _______________ and those that are
restricted to a narrow range of temperature are called
_______________ .
4. The salinity in parts per thousand is _______________ in inland
water, _______________ in the sea and > 100 in some hypersaline
lagoons.
5. The organisms that are tolerant of a wide range of salinities are
called _______________ and those that are restricted to a narrow
range are called _______________ .
6. The process by which some organisms try to maintain the
constancy of its internal environment is _______________ .
7. The aquatic organism whose osmotic concentration of body fluids
change with that of ambient water osmotic concentration are referred
as _______________ .
8. Every winter the famous _______________ National park in
Rajasthan host thousands of migratory birds coming from
_______________ and other extremely cold northern regions.
9. Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes
and ponds are known to enter _______________ a stage of
suspended development.
10. _______________ is any attribute of of the organism that enables
the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat.
11. Many desert plants have a photosynthetic pathway,
_______________ that enables their stomata to remain close during
day time.
12. According to _______________ rule, mammals from colder
climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimize hear loss.
13. The thick layer of fat called _______________ in aquatic
mammals like seal below their skin acts as an insulator.
14. _______________ refers to the number of birth during a given
period in population and _______________ refers to the number of
death.
15. _______________ is the number of individuals of same species
that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period
under consideration and _______________ is the number of
individuals who left the habitat.

16. When resources are unlimited, the growth is usually

_______________ but when resources become progressively
limiting, the growth pattern turns _______________ .
17. In any growth pattern, growth is ultimately limited by the
_______________ of the environment.
18. The _______________ is a measure of the inherent potential of a
population to grow.
19. A plot of N in relation to time(t) results in a sigmoid curve. This
type of population growth is called _______________ Logistic
growth.
20. The mathematical equation describing the increase or decrease
in N during time(t) is _______________ in exponential growth &
_______________ in Logistic growth.
21. Both the species benefit in _______________ and both lose in
_______________ in their interaction with each other.
22. The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is
neither benefitted nor harmed is _______________ and when one is
harmed & other is unaffected is _______________ .
23. The interactions in which interacting species live closely together
are _______________ , _______________ and commensalism.

24. The animals that feed on plant sap and other parts of plants are
_______________ .
25. The common weed in abandoned field is _______________ .
Cattle never browsed on this plant because it produces highly
poisonous _______________ .
26. The fitness of one species is measured in terms of its
_______________ .
27. _______________ Principle state that two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinetly and
competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
28. In _______________ , two species competing for the same
resources avoid competition by choosing different times for feeding or
different foraging period.
29. Parasites that feed on the external surface of host organism are
called _______________ and that those live inside host body are
called _______________ .
30. An example of commensalism is the interaction between sea
anemone that has stinging tentacles and _______________ that lives
among them.
31. Lichens represent mutualistic relationship between a
_______________ and autotrophic _______________ .
32. Mycorrhizae are association between _______________ and
roots of higher plants.
33. The Mediterranean orchid _______________ employs ‘sexual
deceit’ to get pollination done by a species of bee.

34. _______________ is the study of relationships of organisms with

abiotic and biotic components of their environment.
35. _______________ is a group of individuals of a given species
sharing or competing for similiar resources
in a defined geographical area.
Ecosystem
1. _______________ is a functional unit of nature and comprises
abiotic and biotic components.

2. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is

called _______________ . In forest, _______________ occupy top
vertical part, _______________ the second and herbs and grasses
occupy the bottom layer.
3. There is _______________ movement of energy.

4. _______________ is defined as the amount of biomass or organic

matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during
phosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of _______________ or
_______________ .
5. The rate of biomass production is called _______________ . It is
expressed in terms of _______________ or _______________ .

6. _______________ productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of

production of organic matter during photosynthesis.
7. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R) is the
_______________ productivity (NPP).

8. _______________ productivity is defened as the rate of formation

of new organic matter by consumers.
9. The annual net primary productivity of whole biosphere is
approximately _______________ billion tons of organic matter.

10. The important steps in the process of decomposition are

fragmentation, leaching _______________ , _______________ and
_______________ .
11. By the process of _______________ , water-soluble inorganic
nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipated as
unavailable salts.

12. _______________ leads to accumulation of a dark coloured

amourphous substance called _______________ that is highly
resistant to microbial action and increases fertility of soil.
13. Plants capture only _______________ % of PAR.

14. Animals are heterotrophs and also _______________ as they

depend directly or indirectly on plants for food. If they feed only on
producer they are called _______________ and if they eat other
animals, they are called _______________ .
15. The natural interconnection of food chain makes
_______________ .

16. Decomposers are also known as _______________ .

17. Producers belong to _______________ trophic levels, herbivores
to _______________ and carnivores to _______________ .

18. The amount of energy _______________ at successive trophic

levels.
19. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a
particular time called as _______________.

20. Only _______________ % of the energy is transferred to each

trophic level from the lower trophic level.
21. The pyramid of biomass in sea is _______________ because the
biomass of fishes _______________ that of phytoplankton.

22. Pyramid of _______________ is always upright.

23. _______________ are not given place in ecological pyramids
even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.

24. The community that is in near equillibrium with the environment is

called _______________ community.
25. The gradual and predictable change in the species composition of
a given area is called _______________ community.

26. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in

a given area are called _____________.
27. The ecological succession in a place where there no living
organism ever existed is called _______________ succession and in
a place which lost all living organism that existed there is called
_______________ succession.
28. _______________ succession takes place in wetter areas and
_______________ succession in dry areas. Both succession lead to
medium water condition called _______________ .
29. The species that invade a bare area are called
_______________ species. In primary succession on rocks these are
usually _______________ and in water these are usually
_______________ .

30. The amount of nutrients present in the soil at any given time is
reffered to as _______________ .
31. Another name of nutrient cyclic is _______________ cycles.

32. The reservoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle is

_______________ and for the sedimentary cycle is
_______________ .
33. Carbon constitutes _______________ % of dry weight of
organism.

34. The products of ecosystem processes are named as

_______________ .
35. _______________ and his colleagues have tried to put price tags
on nature life-support services and is estimated to be
_______________ a year.
Biodiversity and Conservation
1. ______________ refers to the sum total of diversity that exists at
all levels of biological organisation.

2. Of the named species, > 70% are animals of which

_______________ % are insects.
3. Species diversity decreases as we move away from
_______________ towards _______________ region of earth.

4. The graph showing relation between species richness and area for
a wide variety of taxa gives _______________ curve.
5. Dodo from Mauritius, quagga from _______________ , thylacine
from _______________ , _______________ from Russia and three
subspecies (Bali , Java, _______________ ) of tiger are example of
recent extinct organism.

6. Since the origin and diversification of life on earth, there were

_______________ episodes of massextinction of species.
7. _______________ is the sobriquet used to describe the four major
causes of accelerated rates of species extinction.

8. The amazon rain forest is so huge that it is called

_______________ of the planet.
9. The _______________ introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa
led eventually to the extinction of more than 200 species of
_______________ fish in the lake.

10. The illegal introduction of African catfish _______________ for

aquaculture purpose is a posing threat to the indigenous catfishes in
our rivers.
11. _______________ is exploring molecular, genetic and species-
level diversity for product of economic importance.

12. In _______________ conservation, the endangered species are

protected in their natural habitat so that the entire ecosystem is
protected.
13. _______________ conservation is desireable approach when an
animal or plant is threatened and needs urgent measures to save it
from extinction.
14. The species that are confined to one region and not found
anyhwhere else is called _______________ species.
15. The total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world is
_______________ .
16. India has _______________ biosphere, _______________
national parks and _______________ wildlife sanctuaries.
17. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity
_______________ held in Rio De Janerio in 1992, called upon all
nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity
& sustainable utilization of its benefits.

18. _______________ convention on sustainable Development in

2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa, 190 countries pledged their
commitment to achieve by 2010.
19. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species
associated with it in an obligatory way also become extinct. This is
termed as _______________ .
20. A proper perspective to question ‘does it really matter to us if a
few species become extinct ? ’ can be explain through analogy i.e.
_______________ hyphothesis by Stanford ecologist
_______________ .
Environmental Issues
1. ______________ is any undesireable change in physical, chemical
or biological characteristic of air, land, water or soil. Agents that bring
about such an undesireable change are called as ______________.
2. In order to control environmental pollution, the Government of India
has passed ______________ in ______________ to protect and
improve the quality of our environment.
3. The most widely used method to remove particulate matter is
______________ which can remove ______________% particulate
matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.

4. CPCB stands for ______________. According to CPCB,

particulate size ______________ micrometre are responsible for
causing greatest harm to human health.
5. Noise of level ______________ dB or more can damage ear
drums thus permanently impairing hearing quality.

6. According to Euro III norms, concentration of sulphur

______________ ppm in diesel and ______________ ppm in petrol.
Aromatic hydrocarbon is ______________% of concerned fuel.
7. The Government of India has passed the ______________ Act in
______________ to safeguard our water resources.

8. The amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water can

be estimated by measuring ___________.
9. Presence of large amount of nutrients in water causes excessive
growth of______________ , called an ______________ which
imparts a distinct colour to the water bodies.

10. The plant of water hyacinth ______________ is the world’s most

problematic aquatic weed, also called ‘Terror of Bengal’.
11. ______________ refers to increase in concentration of the
toxicant at successive trophic level because the toxic substance gets
accumulated by an organism as it cannot be metabolized or excreted.

12. ______________ is the natural ageing of a lake by nutrient

enrichment of its water.
13. Eutrophication due to pollutants from man’s activities like
effluents from industries and homes is called ______________
eutrophication.

14. In Integrated Waste Water Treatment project initiated in town of

Arcata, California; the biologist developed a series of
______________ connected marshes over 60 hectares of marshland
and citizen group called ______________ are responsible for the
upkeep & safeguarding of this project.
15. In ______________ ,wastes are dumped in a depression or
trench after compaction and covered with dirt everyday.

16. Irreparable computers and other electronic goods are known as

______________ wastes.
17. ______________ produced polyblend, a fine powder of recycled
modified plastic. He proved that blend of polyblend and bitumen
enhanced bitumen’s ______________ repellant properties.

18. ______________ created the Haryana Kisan Welfare Club, with a

current membership of ______________ farmers.
19. The storage of nuclear waste, after pre-treatment in shielded
containers is done about ______m deep below the earth’s surface.

20. Without greenhouse effect the average temperature of surface of

earth would be _____0C rather than the present average of
______0C.
21. ______________ effect means odd climatic changes due to rise
in temperature.

22. The upper part of atmosphere called ______________ contain

ozone layer that absorbs UV radiation from the sun.
23. The thickness of ozone in a column of air from the ground to the
top of atmosphere is measured in terms of ______________ units.

24. High dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea, called

______________ .
25. An international treaty ______________ was signed at Montreal,
Canada in ______________ to control the emission of ozone
depleting substance.
26. In India, the forest cover was ______________ % of land in
beginning of 20th century and shrunk to ______________ % by end
of century. According to National Forest Policy, forest cover for plain
should be ______________ % and for hill its ______________ %.

27. Slash and burn agriculture is commonly called ______________ .

28. The Government of India instituted ______________ Award for
individuals or communities from rural areas that shows extraordinary
courage and dedication in protecting wildlife.
29. In 1974, ______________ of Garhwal Himalayas started in which
local women hug trees for protecting them from axe of contractor.
30. The Government of India in 1980s introduced the concept of
______________ so as to work closely with local communities for
protecting and managing forests.
Organism & Populations
1. Ramdeo misra
2. water; light; soil
3. eurythermal; stenothermal
4. < 5; 30-35
5. euryhaline; stenohaline
6. homeostatis
7. conformers
8. Keolada; Siberia
9. diapause
10. adaptation
11. CAM
12. Allen’s
13. blubber
14. Natality; mortality
15. Immigration; Emigration
16. exponential; logistic
17. carrying capacity
18. intrinsic rate of natural
increase
19. Verhulst-Pearl
20.
21. mutualism; competition
22. commensalism; amensalism
23. predation; parasitism
24. phytophagous
25. Calotropis ; cardiac glycosides
26. ‘r’ (intrinsic rate of increase)
27. Gause’s competitive exclusion
28. Resource partitioning
29. ectoparasite; endoparasites
30. clown fish
31. fungus; algae
32. fungi
33. Ophrys
34. Ecology
35. Population
Ecosystem
1. Ecosystem
2. stratification; trees ; shrubs
3. unidirectional
4. primary production; weight(g- 2); energy(kcal m-2)
5. productivity; g-2 yr-1; kcal m-2 yr-1
6. gross primary
7. net primary
8. second
9. 170
10. catabolism; humification; mineralisation
11. leaching
12. humification; humus
13. 2-10
14. consumers; primary consumers; secondary consumer
15. food web
16. saprotrophs
17. 1st ; 2nd ; 3rd
18. decreases
19. standing crop
20. 10
21. inverted; exceeds
22. energy
23. saprophytes
24. climax
25. ecological succession
26. sere
27. primary; secondary
28. Hydrach; xerarch ; mesic
29. pioneer; lichens; phytoplanktons
30. standing state
31. biogeochemical
32. atmosphere; earth’s crust
33. 49
34. ecosystem services
35. Robert Constanza; US$ 33trillion
Biodiversity and Conservation
1. Biodiversity
2. 70
3. equator; pole
4. rectangular hyperbola
5. Africa; Australia; Steller’s Sea Cow; Caspian
6. 5
7. The Evil Quartet
8. lungs
9. Nile perch; cichlid
10. Clarias gariepinus
11. bioprospecting
12. insitu
13. exsitu
14. endemic
15. 34
16. 14; 90; 448
17. The Earth Summit
18. World Summit
19. Co-extinction
20. rivet-popper; Paul Ehrlich
Environmental Issues
1. Pollution; pollutants
2. Environment(protection) Act; 1986
3. Electrostatic precipitator; 99
4. Central Pollution Control Board; 2.5
5. 150
6. 350; 150; 42
7. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution); 1974
8. BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand)
9. planktonic algae; algal bloom
10. Eichhornia crassipes
11. Biomagnification
12. Eutrophication
13. Cultural or Accelerated
14. Six; FOAM (Friends of the Arcata Marsh)
15. sanitary landfill
16. electronic (e)
17. Ahmed khan; water
18. Ramesh Chandra Dagar; 5000
19. 500
20. -18; 15
21. El Nino
22. Stratoshphere
23. Dobson
24. snow-blindness
25. Montreal Protocol; 1987
26. 30; 19.4; 33; 67
27. Jhum cultivation
28. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection
29. Chipko Movement
30. Joint Forest Management (JFM)