College of Natural and Applied Science

Department of Geology

Exit Exam Model Questions [100%]

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 1. Difference between the highest and lowest elevations is
A) Gradient
B) Land mark
C) Relief
D) None
2. The distance between contour lines on a topo map is called the
A) Index contour
B) Map scale.
C) Minor contour.
D) Contour interval.
3. How would a sink hole be identified on a topo map?
A) Closely spaced linear contours
B) A set of circular contours hachured on the down-hill side
C) A set of circular contours hachured on the up-hill side
D) Widely space linear contours
4. The size and shape of Earth’s surface features is known as
A) Topography
B) Geoid
C) Landform
D) Parcel
5. On a geological map, an association of layers of a given type and age range is termed as
A) Layer
B) Geologic structure
C) Geologic map unit

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 D) Rock type
6. How are litho-stratigraphic units arranged on a legend of geological map?
A) Depends on the cartographer’s choice
B) Youngest on the top and the oldest at the bottom
C) Oldest at the top and younger at the bottom
D) With no systematic order
7. What is the order of description of map units in a proper geological report?
A) From the oldest to the youngest
B) From the youngest to the oldest
C) Random order
D) A and C
8. On a geologic map, what does a geologic contact parallel to contour line indicates?
A) Dyke
B) Tectonic structure
C) Unconformity
D) Horizontal strata
9. On a geologic map, what does a geologic contact perpendicular to contour line indicates?
A) Inclined strata.
B) Fault.
C) Vertically dipping strata.
D) Angular unconformity.
10. Map making is both an art and science and relates to the field of __ allied to ___.
A) Geography, Geoscience.
B) Cartography, Geography.
C) Geology, Architecture
D) None
11. How do you determine metric distance on a map?
A) Projected coordinate grids and compass direction
B) Compass direction and Scale bar
C) Scale bar and projected coordinate grids
D) None

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 12. How are streams indicated on a topographic map?
A) By contour lines that form U's downhill
B) By contour lines that form V's which point downstream
C) By contour lines that form V's which point upstream.
D) None.
13. On a topographic map, the closer the contour lines the
A) Flatter the land surface
B) Steeper the slope
C) Lower the elevation
D) Higher the elevation
14. Description of metamorphic rocks in the field do not include
A) Identification of minerals.
B) Measurement of attitudes of secondary structures.
C) Assessment of the relationship of topographic and contact patterns
D) None.
15. The width of inclined bed on the earth’s surface is related to
A) The nature of topography.
B) The amount of dip
C) The strike direction
D) Both the amount of dip and topography
16. Geologic cross-section may show subsurface lithology distribution from
A) Borehole data alone
B) Field vertical section log.
C) Both field and bore hole lithologic data.
D) Spectral data.
17. Bedrock geologic maps show
A) Only exposed rocks
B) Only surficial materials
C) Both exposures as well as interpretation of geology in between
D) None
18. The description of volcanic rock in the field involve

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 A) Determine the color
B) Identify the texture
C) Measure primary and secondary structures.
D) All
19. In reconnaissance mapping a geologist can use
A) Google Image, Pacing, GPS.
B) GPS, compass, Topomap, Landsat image.
C) Meter tape, plan table.
D) Compass, Previous geologic map.
20. Field geologic unit names can be modified after
A) Interpretation of digital images alone.
B) Only geochemical analysis.
C) Petrographic study of thin sections and consultation of previous formation names.
D) None
21. The orientation and geometric arrangement of new in equant metamorphic minerals is
largely controlled by
A) Isotropic force
B) Geotherms
C) Lithology
D) Anisotropic stress field.
22. Which one of the following forms most ehuhedral crystals?
A) Quartz-Feldspar
B) Garnet-staurolite
C) Mica-chlorite
D) Calcite-corderite
23. Serated grain boundaries produced by differential stress is called
A) Bimodal texture
B) Decusate texture
C) Pressure solution
D) None

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 24. A network of eye-like large granoblastic quartz and feldspars clusters surrounded by mica
and fine granular quartz-feldspar mass refers to
A) Gneissic texture
B) Phyllite
C) Schistocity
D) Slaty cleavage.
25. Variations in metamorphic mineral assemblages result from differences in
A) Bulk composition
B) Chemical reaction
C) Intensive variables
D) A and C
26. Euhedral faces of porphyroblasts is related to
A) Rock composition
B) Higher nucleation energy
C) Pressure and temperature
D) Chemical reaction.
27. Pokiloblastic texture refers to porphyroblast containing
A) Inclusion of other mineral species
B) Minerals in reaction
C) Inclusion of protolith minerals
D) A and C.
28. Mineral assemblage is defined by
A) Index minerals only
B) Rock association
C) Minerals in mutual grain contact
D) Mineral inclusions.
29. A penetrative planar structural feature in a metamorphic rock is
A) Structure
B) Foliation
C) Fabric
D) Lineation.

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 30. Hydrogen is converted to helium in the sun this nuclear reaction produces
A) Solar radiation
B) Potential energy
C) Kinetic energy
D) Radiation energy
31. ----- provides information on how closely individual measurements agree with one another
A) Accuracy
B) Precision
C) A and B
D) Probability
32. What are the two branches of isotope geochemistry?
A) Trace and major element
B) Proton and neutron
C) Stable and radiogenic isotope
D) Alkaline and tholeiite
33. --------elements that are not volatized under moderately reducing conditions, offer superior
heat resistance and very high melting points
A) Volatile element
B) Oxidized element
C) Refractory elements
D) Compatible elements
34. The processes leading to the formation of elements
A) Solar system
B) Nucleosynthesis
C) Universe
D) Metamorphism
35. The compositional range of volcanic rocks may be regarded as a consequence of two
fundamental processes
A) partial melting and fractional crystallization
B) fractional crystallization and radioactivity
C) melting and crystallization

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 D) none
36. What is the cause of the correlations or trends in Harker diagram?
A) Fractional crystallization and erosion
B) Partial melting, fractional crystallization, magma mixing or crustal contamination, either
individually or in combination
C) Magma mixing and physical weathering
D) Chemical and physical weathering
37. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with its optical property?
A) Sillimanite – Isotropic
B) Orthoclase – High relief
C) Pyroxene – Nearly orthogonal cleavage
D) Garnet – Lamellar twinning
38. Which of the following minerals display one direction of well-developed cleavage?
A) Quartz
B) Calcite
C) Galena
D) Biotite
39. A laboratory creation with essentially the same chemical composition and structure as its
natural counterpart is a
A) Simulant
B) Synthetic
C) Treated gem
D) Glass construction.
40. Which of the following minerals are built from the single chain silicate structure?
A) Olivine ((Mg, Fe)2 SiO4)
B) Pyroxene ((Mg, Fe) Si2O6)
C) Amphibole (NaCa2 (Mg, Fe, Al) 5 (Si, Al) 9) O22 (OH)2)
D) Biotite (K (Mg, Fe) 3(AlSi3 O10) (OH) 2
41. How would you describe the luster of galena, pyrite, silver, and gold?
A) Metallic
B) Non-metallic

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 C) A and B
D) None
42. When drops of hydrochloric acid are placed on the surface of a mineral and fizzing occurs
this indicates the mineral is a:
A) Oxide
B) Carbonate
C) Native element
D) Silicate
43. The silicates are all based on a specific arrangement of silicon and oxygen atoms called:
A) A crystal
B) A tetrahedron
C) A cubic form
D) A rhombic form
44. The tendency for variations in current velocity to segregate sediments on the basis of
particle size is called _____.
A) Lithification
B) Compaction
C) Metamorphism
D) Sorting
45. With time, sediment transported by a fluvial system ___________.
A) Becomes rounded
B) Becomes smaller
C) Becomes rounded and smaller
D) None of these
46. Ripples occur:
A) On sand beneath the waves at beaches
B) On underwater sandbars in streams
C) On the surface of windswept dunes
D) All
47. Sedimentary rocks provide clues about
A) Earth surface conditions at the time the sediment was deposited

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 B) Temperate climate
C) Tropical climates
D) Polar climates
48. Graded beds are the result of deposition by
A) Rivers
B) Blowing wind
C) Moving ice
D) Turbidity currents
49. Which of the following is not a type of sandstone?
A) Arkose
B) Greywacke
C) Orthoquartzite
D) All of these are types of sandstone
50. Sedimentary rocks of organic origin would most likely be formed from
A) Particles removed from the atmosphere by precipitation
B) Shells of marine animals
C) Materials deposited by glaciers
D) Sediments eroded by running water
51. Which of the following statements is false?
A) Mafic magmas are more viscous than felsic magmas
B) Mafic magmas are hotter than felsic magmas
C) Mafic magmas contain more calcium than felsic magmas
D) Mafic magmas contain less silicon than felsic magmas
52. An intrusive igneous rock composed of crystals that are large enough to see with the naked
eye is said to exhibit a ______________________ texture.
A) Aphanitic
B) Phaneritic
C) Porphyritic
D) Aphyric
53. When a basaltic liquid first starts to crystallize the first mineral in the Discontinuous
Reaction Series to form is:

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 A) Ca-rich plagioclase
B) Amphibole
C) Pyroxene
D) Olivine
54. What are the two conditions believed to be required for the formation of igneous rocks?
A) Low temperature and molten state
B) Molten state and very high temperature
C) Molten state and moderate temperature
D) Crystallized state and moderate temperature
55. Which of the following best describes a granite?
A) A light-colored, fine-grained igneous rock rich in silica
B) A light-colored, fine-grained igneous rock poor in silica
C) A light-colored, coarse-grained igneous rock rich in silica
D) A light-colored, coarse-grained igneous rock poor in silica
56. During crystallization of a magma the plagioclase feldspar __________.
A) Is replaced by quartz
B) Is replaced by pyroxene
C) Becomes richer in calcium
D) Becomes richer in sodium
57. The best groundwater reservoirs have __________.?
A) Low permeability and low porosity
B) Low permeability and high porosity
C) High permeability and low porosity
D) High permeability and high porosity
58. What is an artesian well?
A) A well that is drilled into a non-porous rock layer
B) A well that is used for irrigation purposes only
C) A well that flows under natural pressure without the need for a pump
D) A well that is specifically used for groundwater monitoring
59. Darcy's law states that:
A) Discharge is directly proportional to the loss of head

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 B) Discharge is directly proportional to the length flow path
C) Discharge is directly proportional to the loss of head and length of the flow path
D) Discharge is inversely proportional to the loss of head and length of the flow path.
60. The duration of pumping test depends on:
A) The potential boundary conditions
B) The degree of accuracy desired to determine the aquifer parameters
C) Budget available for the test
D) All
61. Identify the correct major anion evolution
A) HCO3- > SO42- > Cl-
B) SO42- > HCO3- > Cl-
C) SO42- > Cl-> HCO3-
D) Cl- > SO42- > HCO3-
62. Groundwater flows:
A) From low elevations to high elevations
B) From the zone of saturation into the zone of aeration
C) From areas of high hydraulic pressure to areas of low hydraulic pressure
D) From areas of low hydraulic pressure to areas of high hydraulic pressure
63. Which of the following is driving forces of hydrological cycle
A) Gravity
B) Sun energy
C) Wind speed
D) All
64. ___________ a detailed geophysical survey used for petroleum and natural gas
investigation
A) Seismic reflection
B) Seismic refraction
C) Geomagnetic methods
D) Electromagnetic methods
65. Except _________, the following are major geophysical methods?
A) Gravity method

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 B) Solar radiation method
C) Magnetic method
D) Seismic method
66. The gravity method can be used to estimate the depth of:
A) Bedrock
B) Subsurface structures
C) Ore deposits
D) All of the above
67. Which geophysical method uses variations in Earth’s magnetic field to detect subsurface
structures and mineral deposits?
A) Gravity survey
B) Magnetic survey
C) Seismic reflection
D) Electrical resistivity
68. The resistivity log helps in determining:
A) Fluid type (oil, water, gas)
B) Rock hardness
C) Magnetic properties
D) Thermal conductivity
69. Which of the following components is a part of the full cost of mining a mineral deposit?
A) Grade of the deposit
B) Mineral reflectance
C) Transportation and infrastructure
D) Geological age of the host rocks
70. What type of analysis focuses on the assessment of the economic viability of a mineral
deposit?
A) Petrological analysis
B) Mineralogical analysis
C) Economic feasibility analysis
D) Geochemical analysis
71. What type of non-metallic deposit is often associated with salt, trona, and potash minerals?

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 A) Placer deposits
B) Laterite deposits
C) Evaporite deposits
D) Phosphate nodules
72. What tectonic setting is often associated with the formation of porphyry copper deposits?
A) Transform plate boundaries
B) Divergent plate boundaries
C) Convergent plate boundaries
D) Hot spots
73. What type of ore deposit is often associated with submarine hydrothermal vents?
A) Banded iron formations
B) Massive sulfide deposits
C) Kimberlite diamond pipes
D) Laterite nickel deposits
74. The rank of Ethiopia’s coal is dominantly falls in the range of
A) Lignaite to submitumnus
B) Anthracite
C) Bitumnus
D) None
75. Basaltic and trachytic lavas that prevail along the Tana Graben belong to
A) Quaternary plateau basalt
B) Quaternary rift basalt
C) Quaternary Afar basalt
D) All
76. Representative Sedimentary stratigraphic sequence of the Blue Nile Basin from bottom to
top is
A) Adigrat sandstone, Gohastion Formation, Antalo limestone, Mugher mudstone,
Debrelibanos sandstone
B) Adigrat sandstone, Antalo limestone, Gohastion Formation, Mugher mudstone,
Debrelibanos sanstone
C) Adigrat sandstone, Antalo limestone, Gohastion Formation, Debrelibanos sanstone

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 D) None
77. One of the followings is correct statement about the metamorphic rocks of the Adola belt
A) Five high grade gneissic domains are separated by two low-grade domains
B) There are five N-S trending litho-tectonic domains bounded by shear zones
C) Zembaba domain the eastern high grade gneissic domain
D) None
78. One of the followings is not true about the blocks of gneissic terranes of Ethiopia
A) They are comparable with the lower, middle and upper complexes
B) They are generally older than the volcano-sedimentary belts they enclose
C) They comprise high grade heterogeneous ortho and paragneisses
D) Their metamorphic grade ranges between upper amphibolite to granulite facies
79. Which of the following is not true about soils?
A) Soils are formed by the physical and chemical weathering of rocks.
B) Rock chemistry plays a role for the type of soil produced.
C) Many of the physical properties of soils are dictated by the size, shape and chemical
composition of mineral grains.
D) The soils formed from basalt and granite are sandy and clay soils respectively.
80. Which of the following properties of a foundation material is suitable for emplacing civil
structures?
A) A foundation with high resistivity and high seismic velocity
B) A foundation with low resistivity and high seismic velocity
C) A foundation with high resistivity and low seismic velocity
D) A foundation with low resistivity and low seismic velocity
81. Which of the following situations is least likely to result in slope instability?
A) A steep slope
B) A slope with loose material saturated with water
C) A slope with abundant vegetation
D) A slope consisting of fractured and deformed rock
82. Which of the following is not true about arch dam?
A) It transmits most of the horizontal thrust of water load to the arched dam itself.
B) It imposes high stresses upon narrow zones.

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 C) The rock mass at the abutments and immediately down valley of the dam must be strong.
D) The favorable site is a narrow gorge.
83. What is the effect of subsurface water on engineering structures?
A) It erodes the foundation of structures
B) Lubricates the contacts between weak layers.
C) Reduces the strength and bearing capacity of rocks
D) All
84. Stratigraphy can be considered as a powerful tool for the following purposes, except:
A) Understanding how forms of life have changed through time.
B) Testing ideas on how varying combinations of processes affect the planets through time.
C) Understanding the physical and chemical change of sediments.
D) Predicting future climate change
85. Stratigraphic measurements can be conducted to obtain the following data, except:
A) Lithology thickness
B) Sedimentary structures
C) Stratigraphic position of fossils
D) Mineral composition.
86. Identify the correct statement.
A) Because living things have undergone evolutionary changes over geologic time,
particular kinds of organisms are characteristic of particular parts of the geologic record.
B) The relative geologic time scale developed from the fossil record has been numerically
quantified by means of relative dating methods.
C) Geologic time extends from about 4.6 million years ago (corresponding to the age of
Earth’s formation) to the present day.
D) The geologic time scale is not considered as a calendar for events in Earth history.
87. Which one of the following statement is correct?
A) Brachiopods shell consists of two valves that are equal.
B) Brachiopods new classification is mainly based on morphology and composition of the
shell.
C) Bivalves do not have head or radula.
D) Belemnites belong to Subclass or groupings of Cephalopods.

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 88. Identify the incorrect statement
A) Palaeontology is the study of ANCIENT life
B) Paleontology is a historical study of life and their relationship with each other and the
environment
C) Palaeontology is a branch of geology that studies about only invertebrate fossils
D) Paleontology is the study of fossils, their age, methods of formation and evolutionary
significance
89. Which of the following processes is primarily responsible for the formation of
hydrothermal ore deposits?
A) Erosion and sedimentation
B) Magmatic intrusions
C) Weathering and oxidation
D) Hydrothermal fluid circulation
90. What is the primary bonding mechanism in the mineral pyrite (FeS2)?
A) Covalent bonding
B) Metallic bonding
C) Ionic bonding
D) Van der Waals forces
91. In the pharmaceutical industry, how is crystallography utilized for drug formulation and
manufacturing?
A) Optimization of crystal lattice for controlled release mechanisms
B) Development of glass for medication packaging
C) Fabrication of synthetic gemstone capsules
D) Improvement of polymer structural integrity for drug delivery systems

92. Which crystal system is known for demonstrating the highest symmetry, having three
mutually perpendicular axes of equal length?
A) Orthorhombic
B) Isometric (or cubic)
C) Hexagonal
D) Triclinic
93. What term describes the tendency for ions or atoms in a mineral to pack together in a
specific manner?
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 A) Polymerization
B) Coordination
C) Crystal lattice
D) Packing geometry
94. Stereographic projections are commonly used to represent:
A) Crystal lattices in irregular shapes
B) Three-dimensional crystal structures on a two-dimensional surface
C) The internal arrangement of a crystal's atoms
D) Plastic deformation in crystalline materials
95. How is twofold rotational symmetry represented in crystallography?
A) By the presence of mirror planes
B) By a rotation of 90 degrees
C) By a rotation of 180 degrees
D) By a rotation of 45 degrees
96. What type of stress occurs when tectonic forces stretch a rock mass, causing it to lengthen in
the direction of the applied stress?
A) Compressional stress
B) Shear stress
C) Tensional stress
D) Gravitational stress
97. In a syncline, the oldest rocks will be found:
A) on the limbs of the fold.
B) near the axis of the fold.
C) at the bottom of the fold
D) none of these.
98. In the field of petroleum geology, how is the understanding of structural geology used to
identify potential hydrocarbon reservoirs?
A) By analyzing the composition of rock formations
B) By determining the age of sedimentary layers
C) By locating areas of potential structural traps and anticlines
D) By assessing the regional metamorphic history
99. How can structural geology principles be applied in the field of geotechnical engineering?
A) By analyzing the depth of the water table in a given area

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 B) By assessing the mechanical properties and stability of rock masses for construction
purposes
C) By determining the potential for karst formation in limestone regions
D) By locating areas with a high potential for volcanic eruptions
100. When rocks deform under ductile conditions, what term is used to describe the resulting
texture characterized by the preferred orientation of mineral grains?
A) Foliation
B) Jointing
C) Faulting
D) Cleavage

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