اسئلة امتحان البرومترك للتمريض

2020‫‏‬
500 important questions for the

Nursing Diploma
Prepared by: MOHAMMED MOEN ALHOUR
t.me/nursega
2020
1.The average weight for an infant at birth is...............
a. 2.5 kg b. 4.5 kg
c. 5 kg d. 3.5 kg
2.Umbilical cord contains.......................
a.Two arteries and one vein b. Two veins and one arteries
c.One artery and one vein d.One vein and two arteries
3.connects between umbilical vein and
inferior vena cava
a. Foramen ovale b. Ductus venosus
c. Ductus arteriosus d. Atrial septal defects
4.‫ ‏‬All of the following are predisposing factors that
increase the risk for Preterm infant to development
of hypothermia except:
a. Small body surface area b. Inability to shiver
c. Little subcutaneous fat tissue d. Thin skin
5………….is an irregular areas of blue
pigmentation that characterize the skin of newborn
a. Mongolian spots b. Vernix caseosa
c. Milia d. Lanugo hair
1 ‫الصفحة‬ Prepared by: MOHAMMED MOEN ALHOUR

.6‫‏‬All of the followings are factors that predispose newborn to
development of jaundice except:
a. Polycythemia b. Poor feeding
c. Short lifespan of red blood cells d. Immature spleen
7. Which of the following is true about cystic fibrosis?
a. Affects mainly exocrine glands b. Diagnosed by ultrasound
image
c. Infectious disease d. Affects male more than femal
8‫‏‬.Elevated BP in the upper limb in comparison with lower limbs is
indicative for............‫‏‬
a. Coarctation of aorta b. Atrial septal defect
c. RDS d. None of above
9‫‏‬.When performing a physical assessment for child with
Acute glomerulonephritis, the nurse should expect to find:
a. Anorexia, hematuria, proteinuria, and decreased blood
pressure
b. Normal blood pressure, anorexia, proteinuria, and
glycosuria
c. Lowered blood pressure, periorbital edema, proteinuria,
and decreased specific gravity
d. Moderately elevated blood pressure, periorbital edema,
proteinuria & increased specific gravity

10.For a child with meningitis, to monitor him for
Hydrocephalus you should:
a. Measure head circumference b. Monitor convulsions
c. Assess the pupil size d. Watch for vomiting
11.Thalasemia major may be treated by all of the following Except:
a. Desferal b. Blood transfusion
c. High iron diet d. Splenectomy
12 .A 10-year-old with glomerulonephritis reports a headache
and blurred vision. The nurse should immediately:
a. Put the client to bed. b. Obtain the child’s BP
c. Notify the physician. d. Administer acetaminophen
13.Which of following drugs used as antidote for Parathion
poisoning:
a. Atropine b. Adrenaline
c. Aspirin d. Vitamin K
‫‏‬14‫‏‏‬.Which of the following is not a major sign of rheumatic
fever?
a. Carditis b. Chorea
c. Erythema Marginatum d. Arthralgia

15 .Which of the following is cyanotic heart disease?
a. Dextracardia b. Tricuspid atresia
c. Ventricular septal defect d. pulmonary stenosis
16.The primary sign of Hirshsprung disease is.................
a. Malnutrition. b. Vomiting.
c. Constipation. d. Abdominal distension.
17.Health education for mother of child with iron deficiency
anemia include all of the following information Except:
a. Provide liquid iron through a straw.
b. Administer iron before meal with citrus juice.
c. Don’t give iron with milk products.
d. Inform her that her child’s stool will turn white with iron
therapy.
‫‏‬18.The suitable position for lumbar puncture is.................
a. Prone position. b. Supine position.
c. Sitting with head leaning forward. d. Knee chest position.
19.Which of the following congenital heart diseases is
characterized by cyanosis at birth?
a. VSD b. PDA c. TGA d. COA

20. Is a common finding in most children with
congenital heart disease
a. Mental retardation. b. Delayed physical growth.
c. Clubbing of fingers. d. Cyanosis
21.Which of the following best describes acute glomerulonephritis?
a. Occurs after a urinary tract infection.
b. Occurs after a previous streptococcal infection.
c. Associated with vascular disorders.
d. Associated with structural anomalies of genitourinary tract.
‫‏‬22.Principles of primary health care include.......................‫‏‬
a. Health care services should be highly costs.
b. Health care services should be inappropriate to technology.
c. Health care services should be focus on curative rather than
promotion services.
d. Health care services should be equally accessible to all people
23.Which of the following is considered an example of secondary
prevention?
a. Immunization b. Breast self-examination
c. Post mastectomy exercise d. Safe water supply
24 .refers to all of the people occupying an area who don’t
Necessarily have a common interest

a. Community b. Population c. Social system d. Community of
solution
25.aims to reduce the exposure of person at risk for developing a

specific disease
a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention d. Screening
26.involves efforts, which seek to reduce
disabilities, as much as possible, and restore functions.
a. Primary prevention b. Curative services
c. Health promotion d. Rehabilitation
27.is the art and science of prolonging life promoting health and
preventing disease through organization of community efforts.
a. Community health nursing b. Public health
c. Nursing d. Medicine
‫‏‬28.All of the following are the ultimate goals of epidemiology
except:
a. Determine the extent of disease in a population
b. Identify the causes of disease
c. Identify patterns and trends in disease occurrence
d. Identify the pathophysiology of disease

29.refers to a disease occurrence that clearly exceeds
the normal or expected frequency in a community or
region.
a. Endemic b. Epidemic c. Pandemic d. Demographic
30.Is a mode of transmission in which the
infectious agent is transported via contaminated
inanimate materials.
a. Direct transmission b. Vector transmission
c. Vehicle transmission d. Airborne transmission
31.‫‏‬Which of the following statements is true about BCG vaccine?
a. Killed vaccine
b. Should be given intradermally with a dose of 0. 5 ml in the deltoid
area for newborn
c. Should be given after negative Mantoux test result for infants less
than 3 months age
d. BCG vaccine must be given intradermally with a dose of 0.05 ml

for
newborn
31.‫‏‬Which of the following manifestation is characteristic for
patient with diphtheria?
a. High grade fever b. Whooping cough c. Neck rigidity d. A false

membrane in the throat

32.Haemophilus influenza type “b” causes all of the following
infection
except:
a. Epiglottitis b. Pneumonia c. Meningitis d. Gastroenteritis
33.‫‏‬Which of the following statements is true about poliomyelitis?
a. There are more than 5 types of polio virus
b. Is usually transmitted by vector
c. Causes destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and
the brain stem.
d. There are many available drug therapies for the treatment of
poliomyelitis.
34.Which of the following is an example for artificial passive
immunity?
a. Antibodies from mother to fetus
b. Tetanus toxoid vaccine
c. Post infection antibodies
d. Anti-tetanus antibodies
35.All of the following are live attenuated vaccines except:
a. Measles b. Tetanus c. BCG d. Sabin
36.‫‏‬Which of the following risk factors is non-modifiable?
a. Smoking b. Gender c. Unhealthy diet d. Stress

37.‫‏‬Which of the following family stages is characterized by leaving of
family members out the family?
a. Launching b. Childbearing c. Preschool-age d. Middle-aged

parents
38.is a diagram of the connections between a family and the other

systems in its environment
a. Genogram b. Eco-map c. Family tree d. Family cycle
39.‫‏‬Home visit has 4 stages, the nurse should perform all of following
in the pre-visit phase except:
a. Initiate contact with family and introduce yourself.
b. Determine when a visit would be convenient for the family and the
nurse.
c. Plan with the family for the next visit.
d. Prepare all supplies needed for visit
40.‫‏‬All of the followings are indicators for MCH services except:
a. Infant mortality rate b. Crude death rate
c. Maternal mortality rate d. Peri-natal mortality rate
41.‫‏‬On the first home visit, it is important for community health
nurse to:
a. Conduct complete assessment of the family and client.

b. Perform several nursing care measures to convince the family that
he knows what he is doing.
c. Begin building a trust relationship.
d. Arrange for several more visits.
42.is the total number of stillbirths plus the number
of deaths under one week old, per 1000 birth
a. Infant mortality rate b. Perinatal mortality rate
c. Neonatal mortality rate d. Post-neonal mortality rate
43.All of the following are normally present in urine result EXCEPT:
a) Urea.
b) Createnin.
c) Albumin.
d) Sodium.
44. All of the following are etiologic factors of fluid volume deficit
except:
a) Vomiting
b) Diarrhea
c) Renal failure
d) Excessive sweating
45. All of the following are most common complications

postoperatively except:
a) Hemorrhage
b) Tonsillitis

c) Wound infection
d) Pain
46. All of the following are clinical manifestations of fluid volume

excess except:
a) Edema
b) Oligurea
c) Distended neck veins
d) Increased CVP
47. Apnea is medical term means:
a) Rapid pulse
b) Increase body temperature
c) Stop breathing
d) Low blood pressure
48. All of the following are nursing actions during preoperative

nursing care except:
a) Observe incisional site
b) Remove hairpins and hairpieces
c) Remove jewelry and prostheses
d) Assess all vital signs
49. Signs and symptoms of Hypovolemic shock are all of the

following except:
a) Tachycardia
b) Hypertension
c) Pallor and cyanosis
d) Tachypnea

50. Normal Saline 0.9% solution is considered as which of the
following:
a) Isotonic solution
b) Hypotonic solution
c) Hypertonic solution
d) Non of the above
51. When blood sugar level is above normal range, this means that
patient has:
a) Hypotension
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Bradycardia
52. The most important thing should be done after any nursing
action is:
a) Documentation
b) Nursing diagnosis
c) Planning
d) All of the above
53. All of the following are assessment sites for body temperature
except:
a) Oral Site.
b) Rectal Site.
c) Axillary Site.
d) Apical

54. Mr. Ashraf aged 35 years old, his pulse rate is found to be 120
bpm. His heart rate could be
described as:
a) Tachypnea.
b) Tachycardia.
c) Bradypnea
d) Bradycardia.
55. Which of the following factors are affecting body temperature:
a) Food intake.
b) Age and Gender
c) Climate.
d) All of the above
56. The condition in which a person is aware of his or her own heart
beats is called:
a) Palpitation.
b) Dysrhythmia.
c) Pulse rhythm.
d) Arrhythmia.
57. The condition in which the body temperature is above the

average normal is called:
a) Bradypnea
b) Fever.
c) Hypertension.
d) Hypothermia.
58. Which of the following best describes the technique of palpation:

a) The use of the sense of hearing to listen for sounds.
b) The use of tapping on a particular part of the body to produce

sounds.
c) The use of the senses to evaluate general appearance of the patient.
d) The sense of touch to feel the body by slight or deep pressure.
59. Inhalation or inspiration means:
a) Stop breathing.
b) Difficult breathing.
c) Breathing out.
d) Breathing in.
60. Normal body temperature is ranging from:
a) 35.8 – 37.4 C
b) 34.5 – 36.5 C
c) 35.0 – 38.0 C
d) 36.5 – 38.5 C
61. Pulse pressure is defined as which of the following:
a) Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
b) Expansion of the artery as blood moves through it.
c) Difference between arterial and venous pressure.
d) Difference between venous and systolic pressure.
62. Sleep is defined as:
a) A state of arousable unconsciousness.
b) A state of emotional rest and excessive sleepiness.
c) A state of drowsiness and decreased activity.
d) A state of decreased activity and mental stimulation.

63. Unoccupied bed making means:
a) Changing linen when the patient remains in the bed.
b) Changing linen when the bed empty.
c) State in which a person is relieved of distress.
d) None of the above.
64. The advantage of use head to toe approach when you assess the
patient:
a) It is difficult to detect the disease or problem.
b) It helps to prevent overlooking some aspect of data collection.
c) It increase the number of position changes.
d) It takes more time.
65. The most accurate time for measuring pulse rate is:
a) 30 seconds.
b) 15 seconds.
c) 60 seconds.
d) 45 seconds.
66. Normal respiratory rate at rest per minute in adults is ranging

from:
a) 10-14.
b) 12-20.
c) 20-25.
d) 20-30.
67. Practices that promote health through personal cleanliness is

called:
a) General appearance.

b) Self image.
c) Insomnia.
d) Hygiene.
68. All of the following are therapeutic bathes except:
a) Shampooing bath.
b) Whirlpool bath,
c) Medicated bath.
d) Sitz bath.
69. Orthopnea is defined as:
a) Breathing facilitated by sitting or standing up.
b) Absence of breathing.
c) Rapid breathing.
d) Difficult breathing.
70. Which of the following is a form of radiograhpy:
a) Fluoroscopy.
b) Contrast medium.
c) C.T. Scan
d) All of the above
71. The examination that indicates physical inspection of the vagina

and cervix with palpation of uterus and ovaries is called:
a) A Pap test.
b) Electrocardiography.
c) Pelvic examination.
d) Paracentesis.

72. Procedure that involves the insertion of a needle between lumber
vertebra in the spine but below
the spinal cord itself is called:
a) Lumber puncture.
b) Paracentesis.
c) Pelvic Examination.
d) Electromyography.
73. Which of the following is considered as a benefit of bathing:
a) Improving self image.
b) Eliminating body odor.
c) Stimulating circulation.
D)All of the above.
74. The patient is reclining on back with the feet elevated in metal
support, this position is called:
a) Knee-Chest position.
b) Lithotomy position.
c) Modified Standing position.
d) Sims position.
75. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide when taking air in and
out of the chest is:
a) Respiration.
b) Circulation.
c) Blood pressure.

76. Ventilation means:
a) Movement of air in and out of the chest.
b) Movement of air out of the chest.
c) Movement of air in the chest.
d) Non of the above.
77. All of the following are common factors that invalidated

examination or test results except:
a) Inadequate specimen volume.
b) Failure to send the specimen in a timely manner.
c) Correct diet preparation.
d) Insufficient bowel cleansing.
78. All of the following are physical assessment techniques except:
a) Inspection.
b) Percussion.
c) Puncturing.
d) Palpation
79. All of the following are post procedural nursing responsibilities

except:
a) The nurse has to attend the patient for comfort and rest.
b) Care of specimens.
c) Assist the examiner.
d) Record and report of information.
80. A patient is prepared for hemodialysis. He receives heparin

before therapy before primarily to help:
a) Relieve discomfort

b) Prevent blood clotting
c) Maintain blood pressure
d) Stimulate the production of urine
81. Another name for a stone in the urinary tract is:
a) Calix
b) Calculus
c) Calcemia
d) Calcitonin
82. Urine that remains in pt's bladder after he voids is called:
a) Reflux urine
b) Over flow urine
c) Retention urine
d) Residual urine
83. For a normal person the urine specific gravity is ranged between:
a) 1.000 and 1.010
b) 1.015 and 1.025
c) 1.025 and 1.050
d) 1.050 and 1.070
84. Which of the following conditions does not predispose the

development of renal failure:
a) Mismatched blood transfusion
b) Sever dehydration
c) Septicemia
d) Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

85. Which of the following terms is used to indicate total urine out
put of less than 50 ml in 24 hours:
a) Anuria
b) Oliguria
c) Dysuria
d) Polyuria
86. Which of the following terms refers to a disorder characterized

by proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminuria, and hyperlipidemia.
a) Pyelonephritis
b) Interstitial cystitis
c) Nephrotic syndrome
d) Glomerulonephritis
87. The name of the procedure for the removal of urinary bladder
stone is:
a) Cystolithiasis
b) Cystolithectomy
c) Cystometry
d) Cystoextraction
88. Patients who are receiving hemodialysis for ESRD (end stage
renal failure), are especially prone to develop:
a) Peritonitis
b) Renal calculi
c) Bladder infection
d) Serum hepatitis
89. After the IVP, the nurse should anticipate incorporating which of
the following measures into the client plan of care:

a) Maintaining bed rest.
b) Encouraging adequate fluid intake.
c) Assessing for hematuria.
d) Administering laxatives.
90. The nurse should instruct the female to reduce the recurrent UTI
as the following:
a) Cleanse around the perineum with front to back cleansing.
b) Wash genitalia in tub bath.
c) Drink alittle amount of fluid.
91. Acetyl calsilic acid (Aspirin) contraindicated to be given in:
a) Pt. with hemorrhage .
b) Severe headack.
c) Heart disease
d) Rheumatic fever
92. Gentamicin is:
a) Broad spectrum antibiotics .
b) Antimetabolite .
c) Aminoglycocides
d) A and c
93. Paracetamole is:
a) Analgesic .

b) Antipyretic .
c) Antibiotic
d) A and B
94. All of the following are analgesics except:
a) Diclofin
b) Flagyl
c) Acamol
d) Aspirin
95. Pt. with head trauma should have all the following treatment
except:
a) IV line catheter
b) IV fluid
c) Sedatives
d) Oxygen
96. You should instruct the Pt. when taking Prothiasin:
a) To take it after 2 hours of meal
b) To void after 2 hours
c) Not to drive his care
d) Don’t worry about vomiting
97. Diclofin is:
a) Antipyretic
b) Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
c) a and b
d) Non of the above

98. Insertion of a tube through the nose into the stomach called:
a) Orogastric intubation.
b) Nasogastric intubation.
c) Nasointestinal intubation.
d) Transabdominal tube.
99. Lavage is:
a) Giving nourishment by tube.
b) Surgical opening in the stomach.
c) Removing substances from the stomach.
100. Normal color of urine is:
a) Urine has no color.
b) Bright red color.
c) Light yellow.
d) Light green.
101. Urinary elimination process means:
a) The process of re-absorption of water and minerals in the kidney.
b) The process of urine collection in the human bladder.
c) The process of releasing excess fluid and metabolic wastes.
d) The process of urine assessment by the lab technicians.

102. Measurement of the NGT as:
a) From neck to nose to epigastric region.
b) From shoulder to nose to zephoid process.
c) From ear to nose to zephoid process.
d) From mouth to nose to zephoid process.
103. Substances associated with childhood poisoning include all of the

following except:
a) Drugs.
b) Cleansing agents.
c) Fresh food.
d) Cosmetics.
104. For all the following poisoning situation induce vomiting and
gastric lavage recommended except:
a) Food poisoning.
b) Drug poisoning .
c) Caustic and corrosive poisoning .
d) Plant poisoning.
105. Pain transmition begins by stimulation of:
a) Nerve plexus.
b) Nerve receptors.
c) Spinal cord.
d) Skin.

106. Blood pH normal range:
a) 7.25 – 7.30
b) 6.40 – 7.00
c) 7.75 – 8.00
d) 7.35 – 7.45
107. Promotion of oxygenation could be occur by:
a) Maintain air way open
b) Positioning (sitting or fowler)
c) Oxygen supply.
d) Breathing techniques.
e) All of the above.
f) Non of the above.
108. Peri-operative period means:
a) Total period before surgery
b) Total period after surgery
c) Total period of (before, during and after surgery)
d) Non of the above
109. All the following factors are considered when selecting a syringe
and needle except:
a) Depth of the tissue
b) Family history

c) Type of the drug
d) Size of the patient
110. All the following routs of administration considered parenteral

routs except:
a) Intradermal
b) IV
c) SC
d) Otic
e) Intra-joint
f) Ophthalmic
g) Both d and f
111. IV bolus administration means:
a) Given drug IV in short period
b) Given drug IV in along period
c) Given drug IV by infusion
d) Given drug IV quickly without dilution
112. Z-Tract technique used in:
a) Deep intramuscular injection
b) Irritant drugs
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

113. All the following IM injection sights except:
a) Dorsogluteal
b) Forearm
c) Ventrogluteal
d) Vastus lateralis
e) Deltoid
114. In case of meningitis, the CSF examination will be :
a) Low protein level.
b) Low glucose level.
c) Clear appearance.
d) Decrease CSF pressure.
115. All the following are potential complication of meningitis

Except:
a) Seizures.
b) Cerebral infarction or abscess.
c) Myocardial infarction.
d) Subdural effusion.
116. All the following is clinical manifestation of a cute

glomerulonephritis Except :
a) Brown colored urine
b) Weight loss.
c) Malaise.

d) Hypertension
117. All of the following are considered congenital a cyanotic heart

disease Except:
a) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
b) Tricuspid atresia.
c) Coarctation of aorta
d) Patent ductus arterioses.
118. Tetorolgy of fallot is characterized by all of the following

Except:
a) Right ventricular hypertrophy.
b) Pulmonary stenosis
c) Ventricular septal defect.
d) Atrial septal defect.
119. Kerning's sign is manifestation for:
a) Wiliam's tumor Encephalitis
b) Acute Rheumatic Fever.
c) Encephalitis
d) Meningitis
120. All of the following are cardinal signs of nephrotic syndrome

Except:
a) Hypoalbuminemia

b) Proteinuria
c) Hypocholesterolemia
d) Edema
121. A full-term pregnancy normally ranges between:
a) 37-40
b) 38-42
c) 38-44
d) 36-40
122. Morning sickness is caused by:
a) Vitamin deficiency
b) Exhaustion
c) Pregnancy Hormones
d) Twins pregnancy
123. During what phase of the menstrual cycle is an egg (ovum)

released?
a) Ovulation
b) Gestation
c) Luteal
d) Mittelschmerz
e) Incubation
124. What does amenorrhea mean?
a) Painful menstruation

b) Menstrual cycle where ovulation does not occur
c) Absence of menstrual period
d) Heavy bleeding during menstruation
125. When the fetus is growing inside the uterus it needs nutrients.
What provides these nutrients?
a) Placenta
b) Amniotic sac
c) Uterus
d) Oviduct
126. Why is breast milk important to a newly born baby?
a) It is the right temperature for the baby
b) It is made by its own mother so it is matched to its needs
c) It contains antibodies that protect against common

microorganisms
d) It tastes better than bottle milk
127. HCG is an acronym for what?
a) Human cloning gene
b) Human cell gamete
c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
d) Human corpus growth

128. The family structure consisting of parents and their dependent
children living together is known as a(n):
a) Binuclear family
b) Reconstituted family
c) Nuclear family
d) Extended family
129. Adolescents are at a greater risk for injury from:
a) Poisoning and child abduction.
b) Automobile accidents, suicide, and substance abuse.
c) Home accidents.
d) Physiological changes of aging.
130. The patient lying face down is called:
a) Supine
b) Prone
c) Fowler's
d) Lateral
131. Which of the following has had the greatest impact on reducing
infant mortality in the United States?
a) Improvements in perinatal care
b) Decreased incidence of congenital abnormalities
c) Better maternal nutrition
d) Improved funding for health care

132. Which of the following is FALSE concerning gestational
diabetes in mothers-to-be?
a. The diabetes usually disappears after birth
b. Their babies may experience hypo-glycemia after birth
c. Their babies are commonly born with breathing difficulties
d. Their newborns tend to be underweight
133. What is polyhydramnios?
a. Excessive vomiting during pregnancy
b. Excessive maternal hair growth
c. Excessive maternal swelling
d. Excessive fluid around the fetus
134. Preeclampsia is another possible complication of pregnancy.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of preeclampsia?
a. protein in the urine
b. high blood pressure
c. vaginal bleeding
d. swelling
135. Pregnancy Lasts on average
a. 280 days from last period
b. 37 weeks
c. 42 weeks

d. 40 weeks
e. a & d
136. Which nutrient has been proven to prevent birth defects?
a. Folic acid
b. Pantothenic acid
c. Manganese
d. b. Riboflavin
137. Which of the following vitamins helps the body absorb iron?
a. Vitamin C
b. Riboflavin
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin A
138. When will the baby first recognize his mother visually?
a. From birth
b. 3 to 4 weeks
c. 3 to 4 months
d. 6 to 8 months
139. Antibodies in milk protect the baby against problems with:
a. Vision
b. Gastrointestinal tract

c. Respiratory system
d. B and C
140. You're most fertile when one of your ovaries releases a mature
egg. This process, called ovulation occurs:
a. Halfway through your menstrual cycle
b. 12 to 16 days before your next period starts
c. Right before you get your period
141. The Nurse Midwife is an advanced practice nurse who:
a. Provides care to child-bearing women during preconception,

prenatal, labor and delivery, and postpartum periods.
b. Transports and cares for sick and injured patients in emergency

situations and during the transport of
patients from one patient care facility to another.
c. Performs pharmaceutical, medical, and nursing research.
d. Helps create public health policies.
142. A newborn loses heat through:
a. Evaporation
b. Conduction
c. convection
d. radiation
e. insensible water loss through skin, feces, urine, respiration
f. all of the above

143.Premature separation of the normally implanted placenta is
a. placenta accrete
b. placenta previa
c. placenta percreta
d. none of the above
144. Treatment with hormone replacement therapy
a. Should always include a progestagen.
b. Reduces the incidence of cardiovascular disease in post-

menopausal women.
c. Is not beneficial unless given within one year of the menopause.
d. Should not result in vaginal bleeding.
e. Is of no benefit unless given for longer than ten years.
145. Immediate post-partum hemorrhage is associated with
a. Retained placenta.
b. lacerations or tears of the cervix.
c. Ritodrine administration.
d. Uterine atony.
146. Placenta previa is:
a. Premature separation of the normally implanted placenta before

the birth of the fetus.
b. The abnormal implantation of the placenta in the lower uterine

segment, partially or completely

c. A placenta that attaches itself too deeply and too firmly into the
wall of the uterus.
d. Placenta that bleeds all the pregnancy period
147. Dyspnea is defined as:
a. Pallor b. Absence of breathing
c. Cyanosis d. Difficult respiration
148. Mrs Ahmed age 53, her pulse rate is found to be 52 per minute.
Her heart rate could be described as:
a.Tachypnea b. Tachycardia
c.Bradypnea d. Bradycardia
149. When you assess the respiratory rate for the patient, you should
do all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Instruct the patient to breath in and out from his mouth.
b) Count each inspiration followed by expiration as one breath.
c) Make sure that the patient is not aware that you are counting his
respiratory rate.
d) Count the respiratory rate for one minute.
150. The process of feeding the patient through gastric intubation is

called:
a) Gastric Lavage
b) Gastric Decompression
c) Gastric Gavage

d) Gastric Tamponade
151. Which of the following is considered as objective data?
a) Anxiety
b) Skin color
c) Abdominal colic
d) Headach
152. Discharge planning for hospitalized patient begins:
a) When the treating Dr. gives discharge order
b) When all of the specific needs of the patient have been identified
c) When the patient begins to ask about his discharge plans
d) From the first day of admission
153. Abnormal skin color which indicates yellowish color is called:
a) Erythema b) Ecchymosis
c) Jaundice d) Pallor
154. Which of the following is considered as subjective data?
a) Anxiety b) Skin color
c) Height d) Temperature
155. The physician has ordered an indwelling urinary catheter

inserted in a hospitalized patient, the nurse is aware that:
a) The procedure requires surgical asepsis

b) Lubricant not needed for catheter insertion
c) Smaller catheters are used for male catheter
d) Normally a clean technique is required for catheter insertion
156. Diarrhea is best described by its:
a) Amount b) Consistency
c) Frequency d) Odor
157. Medication injected between the skin & the muscle and
used to administer Heparin.
a) Intravenous b) Intramuscular
c) Intradermal d) Subcutaneous
158. The angle of the syringe and needle for intramuscular injections
is:
a) 90 degrees b) 45 degrees
c) 15 degrees d) 10 degrees
160. Is the term used to administered undiluted medication quickly

into a vein:
a) Bolus b) Secondary infusion
c) Intermittent d) Continuous
161. A primary concern when giving heparin subcutaneously to

prevent bleeding is:
a) Don’t make massage on the injection site

b) To make massage on the injection site
c) Use the smallest gauge needle that is appropriate
d) Use Z technique
162. To ensure that medications are prepared and administered

correctly, the nurse should:
a) Give the medication without question
b) Use the patient rights
c) Give the medication only when requested
d) Give according to SIX rights
163. All of the following conditions are used Central Venous

Catheter, EXCEPT:
a) Clients require long term IV medication
b) IV medications are irritating to peripheral veins
c) Clients require short term IV medication
d) Difficult to insert peripheral catheter
164. A pre-operative check list form that should be completed before

surgery, it should be including which of the following?
a) The surgical consent form b) All laboratory test
c) Vital Signs d) All of above
165. The process of removing poisonous substance through gastric

intubation is called:
a) Gastric Lavage b) Gastric Gavage
c) Gastric Decompression d) Gastric Tamponade

166. Of the following, which is the earliest signs of excessive pressure
on the skin:
a) Pale appearance of the skin
b) Reddened appearance of the skin
c) Ulcer formation on the skin
d) Dark or cyanotic color to the skin
167. To prevent the formation of thrombi in the postoperative

patient, the nurse should
a) Teach foot and leg exercises
b) Have the patient lie still
c) Place pillows under the knee
d) Lie in lateral position
168. Which of the following is used to determine the activity of the

brain:
a) Electrocardiography b) Electromyography
c) Electroencephalography d) Echocardiography
169. An infection that the patient acquires in the hospital is called:
a) A local infection b) An endogenous infection
c) A nosocomial infection d) A secondary infection

170. The nursing activity most likely to prevent the clogging or
obstruction of a nasogastric feeding tube is:
a) Attaching the tubing to suction after each feeding
b) Clamping the tubing after formula feeding
c) Flushing the tubing with water and clamping it after each feeding
d) Aspirate as much as possible from the tubing using a 50 ml syringe
171. When an order reads that a drug be administered q.i.d, how

often should this drug be given?
a) Every three hours b) Three times a day
c) Four times a day d) Every other day
172. Which action is believed to be the most useful in preventing

wound infections?:
a) Using sterial dressing supplies b) Performing careful hand

hygiene
c) Suggesting dietary supplements d) All of the above
173. The single most effective way to prevent nosocomial infections is

to:
a) Isolate patients with infections b) Cover the mouth and nose

when coughing
c) Wash all equipment detergents d) Practice continuous hand

washing

174. Vitamin K. 10 mg given IM, is ordered. Vitamin K is available
as 5 mg/ml. How much would the nurse administer?
a) 2 ml b) 6 ml
c) 4 ml d) 8 ml
175. Nonverbal communication includes all of the following Except?
a) Facial expression b) Grooming and crying
c) Posture and mode of dress d) Speaking in low voice
176. A major risk for anticoagulants and thrombolytic drugs is:
a) Hemorrhage b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypotension d) All of the mentioned above
177. the most common symptoms of ulcerative colitis are:
a) Rectal bleeding with diarrhea
b) Nausea and vomiting.
c) Abdominal cramps followed by the desire to defecate.
d) Obstruction and ileus.
178.Aspirin is classified as;
a) Antipyretic b) Analgesic
c) Anti-inflammatory d) All of the mentioned above
179.What is the main route of transmission of this hepatitis B virus?

a) Sputum b) Feces
c) Blood d) Urine
180.A nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis must be
especially alert for complications such as pulmonary embolism.
Which findings suggest pulmonary embolism?
a) Nonproductive cough and abdominal pain b) Hypertension and

lack of fever
c) Bradypnea and bradycardia d) Chest pain and dyspnea
181.All of the following may induce angina pectoris EXCEPT:
a) Light meal b) Exposed for cold
c) Stress or emotion upset d) Physical exercise
182.Evaluation of the effectiveness of cardiac nitrates is based on:
a) Relief of angina pain b) Decrease in blood pressure
c) Improved cardiac output d) Dilation of superficial blood vessels
183.All of the following is considered as a clinical manifestation of

hypovolemia, EXCEPT:
a) Decrease skin turgor b) Hypotension
c) Oliquria d) Strong, rapid pulse
184.After patient return from barium swallow X-ray the nursing

action include:
a) Increase fluid in take b) Keep pt. N.P.O until pass stool

c) Complete bed rest d) Assess the level of consciousness
185.The nurse teaches the newly diagnosed patient with diabetes

mellitus that which of that which of the following guidelines will
decrease the body need for insulin?
a) Sleep b) Exercise
c) Stress d) Low-fat diet
186.Before a gastroscopy the nurses should inform the patient that:
a) He must fast for 6 to 8 hours before the exam
b) After gastroscopy, he will not be given anything to eat or drink

until his gag reflex results
c) His throat will be sprayed with a local anesthetic
d) All of the above will be necessary
187. A patient is prepared for hemodialysis. He receives heparin

before therapy before primarily to help:
a) Relieve discomfort
b) Prevent blood clotting
c) Maintain blood pressure
d) Stimulate the production of urine
188.A 73-year-old male patient has a urethral obstruction related to

prostatic enlargement.The nurse is aware this may result in:
a) Urinary tract infection b) Enuresis
c) Polyuria d) Proteinuria

189.A patient has asked the nurse what test the physician has
ordered to measure the effectiveness of his or her renal function.
Which is the appropriate response?
a) Urine-specific gravity b) Urine osmolality
c) Serum creatinine d) Blood urea nitrogen to creatinine ratio
190.Paralysis of one limb occurs with spinal cord injury is:
a- Hemiplegia. b- Monoplegia.
c- Paraplegia. d- Quadriplegia.
191. Patient with appendicitis well feel the pain in:
a- Right hypochondria. c- Left hypochondria.
b- Left iliac fossa. d- Right iliac
192.Hypertension is defined as persistent blood pressure levels in

which the systolic and diastolic above
a) 110/60 mmHg b) 130/80 mmHg
c) 120/70 mmHg d) 140/90 mmHg
193.In a 75-year-old woman with a diagnosis of a CVA, which of the

following nursing assessments is indicative of a CVA?
a) Facial droop
b) Facial edema
c) Increase in blood pressure
d) Noncompliance with the treatment regimen

194.The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to take when a
patient develops chest pain related to angina is:
a) To discontinue the oxygen if in use
b) To have the patient walk to see if pain is relieved with activity
c) To have the patient sit or rest immediately
d) To remove the nitroglycerin patch immediately
195.An emergency treatment of a fracture should include:
a) Covering the area of a fracture with a clean dressing if the

fracture is open.
b) Immobilized the affected site
c) Splinting the injured limb
d) Do all of the above
196.Which of the following clinical manifestation would be an early

and most sensitive indicator of deterioration in the client neurologic
status?
a) Widening pulse pressure b) Decrease in the pulse pressure
c) Otorrhea and rihnorrehea d) Decrease in level of

consciousness
197.The clinical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome include
a) Hematuria, proteinuria, weight gain b) Hematuria,

albuminuria, fever
c) Hypertension, proteinuria, weight loss d) Proteinuria,

hypoalbuminemia, edema

198.A child with epilepsy suddenly start to convulse, your first action
will be
a) Notify the physician b) Put the child on his side
c) Administer oxygen d) Administer anticonvulsant
199.When caring for the child with cystic fibrosis the nurse should:
a) perform postural drainage b) encourage active exercise
c) prevent coughing d) provide small frequent feedings
200.All of the following may be side effect of phototherapy EXCEPT:
a) skin rash b) dehydration
c) decreased temperature d) lethargy
201.The nursing care of child having bronchiolitis will include the use
of:
a) suctioning, increased fluid intake and administration of

medication
b) careful administration of fluids and medications
c) suctioning and increase fluid intake
d) careful observation , charting and suctioning
202. Juvenile D.M. in children can be treated by?
a. Insulin
b. Diet
c. Oral hypoglycemic agents

d. All of the above
203. The first and the most common symptom of esophageal

problems is:
a- dysphagia b- dysphasia
c- polyphagia. D- laryngitis
204.All of the following congenital cause of intestinal obstruction

EXCEPT
a) Pyloric stenosis b) Hirschprng disease
c) Intussusceptions d) Imperforated anus
205.The main cause of respiratory distress syndrome is:
a) Unknown b) In adequate amount of surfactant
c) Diabetes d) Fetal stress
206.The most dangerous complication of hyperbilirubinemia in

newborn is?
a. Lethargy
b. poor feeding
c. Kernicterus
d. Jaundice in the eyes
207. In bacterial meningitis all the following may be observed during

CSF analysis results EXCEPT:
a) high cells count b) high sugar

c) high protein d) turbidity
208.The main cause of physiologic jaundice in neonates is:
a) viral hepatitis b) drug-induced hepatitis
c) immaturity of liver d) ABO incompatibility
209. The nursing care for cardiac disease child should include?
a. Bed rest
b. Provision of oxygen as needed
c. Passive stimulation
d. All of the above
210. The respiratory disease which is not caused by microorganism

infection is?
a. Tonsillitis
b. Laryngitis
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Croup
211.Paranoid personality disorder is example of:
a) Cluster A personality disorder b) Cluster B personality

disorder
c) Cluster C personality disorder d) Cluster D personality

disorder

212.All of the following are clinical symptoms occur during anorexia
nervosa ECEXPT.
a) Behavioral symptoms b) Physical symptoms
c) Psychological symptoms d) Endocrine symptoms
213.All of the following are indication to Electro-Convulsive Therapy

(ECT) EXCEPT
a) Severe depression b) Catatonic schizophrenia
c) Hyperactivity manic patients d) Epilepsy
214.Chlorpromazine (Largactil) is :
a) Antipsychotic b) Anti anxiety
c) Anti depressant d) Anti Parkinsonism
215.Which of the following phrases most accurately defines the term

phobia:
a) Persistent, irrational fear of an objectively non-threatening object

or situation
b) Repetitive, persistent, intrusive ideas, thoughts, images or

impulses
c) A specified set of rules governing the performance of ritual like

behaviors
d) A tendency to exhibit an exaggerated startle response even in non-

threatening situations
216.An individual experience chronic anxiety that is: uncomfortable

an intense, along with tension and somatic manifestation this person

eventually seeks treatment, which of the following diagnosis most
likely applied to him:
a) Panic attack b) Panic disorder
c) Generalized anxiety d) Depression
217.Hallucination is the following phrase EXCEPT :
a) Occur only in mentally
b) Is misinterpretation of external stimuli
c) Auditory hallucination associated with schizophrenia
d) Visual hallucination suggests organic cause
218.All of these etiology for schizophrenia EXCEPT:
a) Increase dopamine level in the brain b) Family theory (double

bind) c) Genetic d) Stress life style
219.A 40 years old man is brought to the psychiatric emergency

room. He is speaking very rapidly, jumping from one thought to
another, hyperactive and wake all night with no signs of exhaustion.
Associated findings consistent with this patients diagnosis are?
a) Major depression b) Schizophrenia
c) Anxiety d) Mania
220.Danger to suicide is specially when the patient is a situation of:
a) A beginning remission from severe depression
b) In grief state
c) Schizophrenia
d) Anxiety

221.The main goal for management of ectopic pregnancy:
a) To remove ectopic pregnancy and preserve productive function of

the tube
b) To restore fetus life
c) To restore mother life
d) To decrease mother pain
222.An Ultra sound is done to confirm that the client has an ectopic
Pregnancy. The nurse explains that in an ectopic implantation of the
fertilized ovum most commonly occurs in the.
a) Intro uterine lining b) Ovary
c) Fallopian tube d) Peritoneal cavity
223.Which of the following is true about the function of the amniotic

fluid:
a) It allows for growth and free movement of the fetus.
b) It equalizes pressure and protects the fetus.
c) It maintains a constant temperature for the fetus.
d) All of the above
224.The following are true about the umbilical cord EXCEPT:
a) It extends from the fetus to the placenta and transmits the

umbilical vessels.
b) It has two arteries and one vein.
c) It has two veins and one artery.
d) It is protected by Wharton’s Jelly.

225.All the following are true about pre-eclampsia EXCEPT:
a) It occurs at multigravida and over 35 years old.
b) It is associated with hydatiform mole, multiple pregnancy and

maternal diabetics.
c) The pathology is well known.
d) It is a disease of theories.
226.How many chromosomes do the mature ovum contain:
a) 23 pairs b) 23 single chromosome
c) 46 pair d) 46 single chromosome
227.During the first 3 months, which of the following hormones is

responsible for maintaining pregnancy?
a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) b) Progesterone
c) Estrogen d) Relaxin
228.Which of the following symptoms are considered positive signs of

pregnancy:
a) Amenorrhea
b) Frequency of urination
c) Heaviness and tingling in breasts
d) Ultra sound
229.A client is pregnant for the 6th time, she has 3 male children and
one female, she also aborted once at 16 weeks gestation. Which one of
the following is correct method of recording her obstetric status:

a) Gravida 6 para 4 abortion 1.
b) Gravida 6 para 3 abortion 1.
c) Gravida 5 para 4 abortion 0.
d) Gravida 6 para 5 abortion 0.
230.Labor is divided into how many stages?
a) Five b) Three
c) Two d) Four
231. Which of the following considered example of secondary

prevention
a. Immunization b. c- open heart surgery
c. Screening of any disease d.health education programs
232.Which of the following are primary causes of death among infant

stage
a) congenital anomalies b) sudden infant death syndrome
c) respiratory distress syndrome d) all of the above
233. All of the following are setting or places that community health
nursing can work except ?
a) health centers or clinics c. schools
b) hospital departments d. factories

234.A female client undergoes yearly mammography. This is a type
of what level of prevention?
a) primary b) secondary
c) tertiary d) none of above
235.Which of the following best defines community health nursing?
a) A field of nursing combine nursing science with public health

science to formulate a community based population
b) The concept of focusing nursing services on community wide rang

group
c) A collection of people who interact with each other and whose

common
d) A collection of people who come together to solve a problem that

affect all of them
236. Which risk factors related to lifestyle and health habits can be
controlled and modified can increase the span of a healthy life?
a) Hereditary heart disease.
b) family
c) Genetic endowment.
d) Smoking.
237.What is the core characteristic of services provided through

community health nursing?
a) A focus on health promotion and illness prevention.
b) Provision of care to individuals, families, and groups of people.
c) A focus on the health of populations.

d) Responsibility for the core functions of public health.
238.A mother her first day of last menstrual period was on 5/3/2008
what is her expected date of delivery:
a) 12 August 2008
b) 12 July 2008.
c) 12 December 2008.
d) 12 September 2008.
239.School health nursing focuses on the health of:
a. Student only.
b. Students and their families only.
c. Students and teachers and their families.
d. Students and teachers only.
240.The infant mortality rate in any given community is influenced

by:
a. Use of parental care.
b. Birth weight of the infant.
c. Nutritional pattern.
d. All of the above.
241- The primary reason for using the Z-track technique when giving
an intramuscular medication is to help:
a-Avoid striking a major nerve.
b-Hasten the absorption of the medication.

c-Seal off the medication in the muscle.
d-Decrease the discomfort of the injection.
242- Child with Hemophilia should be encouraged to?
a. Increase his weight
b. Avoid contact and strong sport
c. Use protective measures
d.Take Aspirin for joint pain
243- All of the following usually are members of an in-patient

psychiatric team EXCEPT:
a) Nursing personnel. b) Psychiatric social workers.
c) the patient and his family. d) patients work friends
244.All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing Process

Except.
a) Within the legal scope.
b) Based on knowledge.
c) Planned organized and systemic.
d) Static and limited clinical practice.
245. Which of the following is not considered as a unique nursing

skills for giving advice:
a) Assessment skills.
b) Caring skills.
c) Counseling skills.

d) Treating skills.
246. Discharging a client from one unit or agency and admitting him
or her to another without going home is :
a) Admission
b) Discharge
c) Transfer
d) Referral
247. All of the following are Nursing Admission Activities except:
a) Helping the client leave the agency
b) Preparing the client’s room
c) Welcoming the client
d) Orienting the client
248. The nurse recognize that an order that is carried out until
cancelled by another order is:
a) PRN order
b) Stat order
c) Standing order
d) None of the above
249. An adult client is to have a sputum for culture. When is the best
time for the nurse to collect the specimen?
a) In the morning right after he awakens
b) Immediately after breakfast

c) Two hours after eating
d) Shortly before he retires for the evening
250. Hypertonic saline (fleet) enema works by:
a) Distending the rectum. b) Irritating the rectum.
c) Lubricating and softening stool. d) Moistening stool.
251. Which is an example of an adaptation to a physiologic stressor?
a) A sunburn after being outside all day
b) Diarrhea after eating contaminated food
c) Shortness of breath when walking up a hill
d) A rapid heart rate during a final examination
252. The nurse understands that the word that best describes concept
of adaptive capacity is:
a) Role b) Cope
c) Stimuli d) Energy
253. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory, the nurse

identifies that the level of need that should be met just before self-
esteem needs can be met is:
a) Safety b) Belonging
c) Physiologic d) Self-actualization

254. The nurse is collecting subjective data associated with a patient’s
anxiety. Which assessment method should be used to collect this
information?
a) Observing b) Inspecting
c) Auscultation d) Interviewing
255. All of the following are principles of medical asepsis ,EXCEPT :
a) Microorganisms exist everywhere except on clean equipment
b) A clean environment reduces microorganisms.
c) Blood, body fluids, cells, and tissues are considered major

reservoirs of microorganisms.
d) Personal protective equipment consider as a barrier to microbial

transmission.
256. A _____ pulse is a strong and forceful heartbeat felt over one of
the arteries.
a) Bounding b) Thready
c) Strong d) Normal
257. The procedures for establishing a sterile field are given by:
a) Obtain the necessary equipment that required for the procedure,

which will be within the sterile field must be sterile.
b) Perform patient care hand wash.
c) Locate a suitable surface, set up the field on a surface that is clean,

flat, dry, and free from drafts.
d) All of the above

258. Which oxygen delivery device would the nurse expect to use to
provide the highest concentration of oxygen to a patient who is
breathing spontaneously?
a) Partial rebreather mask
b) Nonrebreather mask
c) Simple mask
d) Venturi mask
259. The time between the disappearance of the acute signs and
symptoms of infection and full recovery is:
a) Prodromal stage
b) Incubation period
c) Convalescence
d) Illness stage
260. Sterilization methods include all the following except:
a) Boiling water
b) Radiation
c) Ultrasonic cleaners
d) Chemical sterilization
261. client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When

performing a mouth care, the best position of a client is:
a) Fowler’s position
b) Side lying
c) Supine
d) Trendelenburg

262. The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The
medicine should be placed…
a) On the client’s skin
b) Between the client’s cheeks and gums
c) Under the client’s tongue
d) On the client’s conjunctiva
263. One of the most common reasons for dressing a wound is:
a) To control edema.
b) To prevent friction.
c) To restrict microorganisms.
d) To absorb drainage.
264. The catheter that is intended to be inserted and removed

following its use for a temporary measure is called:
a) A straight catheter.
b) A 3 way irrigation catheter.
c) An indwelling catheter
d) A retention catheter.
265. Immobility impairs bladder elimination, resulting in such

disorders as
a) Increased urine acidity and relaxation of the perineal muscles,

causing incontinence
b) Urine retention, bladder distention, and infection

c) Diuresis, natriuresis, and decreased urine specific gravity
d) Decreased calcium and phosphate levels in the urine
266. In case of kerosene poisoning the best management is:
a) Induce vomiting for patient
b) Give kerosene antidote
c) Give the patient water or milk to ditute the
kerosene
d) Give patient activated charcoal
267. When recording blood pressure, the sounds which can be heard
with a stethoscope placed over the artery is termed as:
a) Murmers
b) Crackels
c) Wheeze
d) Korotkoff
268. Is one type of wound care device use a sponge-like dressing

material covered with air-tight plastic &connected to a suction
pump:
a) Negative pressure wound dressing
b) Relief of pressure
c) Hyperbaric oxygen treatment

d) Biologic dressing
269. Pressure ulcer form primarily as a result of:
a) Prolonged illness or diseases b) Restricted mobility
c) Nitrogen buildup in the underlying tissues d) Poor nutrition
270. If a vial of Gentamycin contains 80 mg in 2 ml, the physician

order is 20 mg every 6 hr., the nurse should give every time:
a) 0.1 ml b) 0.5 ml
c) 0.3 ml d) 0.4 ml
271. The doctor order is 500 cc of normal saline solution, to be

finished within 8 hours, how many drop/min relatively you will
regulate this IV (drop factor is 20 drop/minute).
a) 10 drop/min b) 15 drop/min
c) 25 drop/min d) 21 drop/min
272.The pain associated with Myocardial Infarction(MI) is due:
a) Insufficient blood flow in the veins
b) Extracellular electrolyte imbalance
c) Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscle
d) Left ventricular overload
273. Right-Sided Heart Failure (Backward Failure) signs &

symptoms are all the following except:
a) Edema of ankles

b) Distended jugular veins
c) Liver congestion may produce upper abdominal pain
d) Lowered blood pressure.
274. Lifestyle Modifications for Hypertension include all the

following except:
a) Gain weight if body mass index is greater than or equal to 25.
b) Stop smoking.
c) Get regular aerobic exercise equivalent to 30 to 45 minutes of brisk

walking most days
d) Cut sodium intake to 2.4 g or less per day
275. All of the following is considered from the signs and symptoms
of left sided heart failure except:
a) Shortness of breath.
b) Dyspnea on exertion.
c) Fatigability from low cardiac output.
d) Bradycardia.
276. All of the following causes secondary hypertension except:
a) Pheochromocytoma.
b) Cushing syndrome.
c) Hyperthyroidism.
d) familial factor "positive family history"

277. Long term complications of hypertension include:
a) Renal insufficiency.
b) Damage of blood vessels of brain and eyes
c) Peptic ulcer disease.
d) Risk for angina and MI.
278. Which of the following is most common eye problems of old age
people?
a) Keratitis.
b) Conjunctivitis.
c) Cataract.
d) Blepharitis
279. An inflammatory reaction of the eyelid margin caused by

bacteria:
a) Hordeolum
b) Blepharitis
c) conjunctivitis
d) Trachoma
280. Anemia is a common condition. What happens when a person

has anemia?
a) The body produces too much iron
b) The blood does not have enough red blood cells
c) The blood becomes thick

d) Too many white blood cells are produced
11. A deficiency of which of these will result in abnormally large red

blood cells and a condition called megaloblastic anemia?
a) Oxygen
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin B-12 and folic acid
d) Carbon dioxide
282. When caring for a client with diagnosis of thrombocytopenia,

the nurse should plan to:
a) Discourage the use of stool softeners.
b) Avoid use of plain razor, hard toothbrush and avoid injuries
c) Encourage the use of a hard toothbrush.
d) Assess temperature every 6 hours.
283. All the following are clinical manifestation of iron deficiency

anemia except:
a) Pallor
b) Hypertension
c) Tachycardia
d) Fatigue and weakness
284. Pernicious anemia is most likely to be associated with which of

the following:
a) Acute pancreatitis

b) nephritis
c) removing part of stomach & Partial gastrostomy
d) Cirrhosis of the liver
285. Nurse teaches the client with angina about common expected
side effects of nitroglycerin including:
a) Shortness of breath
b) Headache
c) High blood pressure
d) Stomach cramps
286. A client has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia what the
nurse will teach this client regarding medication he will need to take
after he goes home.
a) Monthly Vitamin. B12 injections will be necessary
b) Ferrous sulfate PO daily will be prescribed
c) Coagulation studies are important to evaluate medications
d) Decrease intake of leafy green vegetables because of increased Vit.

k
287. All the following are clinical manifestation of prostatitis except:
a) Bladder irritability
b) Pain in perineum
c) Sudden chills and fever
d) GI symptoms

288. Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease
cannot be corrected and controlled?
a) Cigarette smoking
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Hereditary factors
d) Hypertension
289. What supplemental medication is most frequently ordered in

addition with furosemide (Lasix)?
a) Chloride
b) Potassium
c) Sodium
d) Digoxin
290. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most commonly used to

determine the location of myocardial damage?
a) Chest X- Ray
b) Electrocardiogram
c) Echocardiogram
d) Cardiac enzymes
291.Which of the following medications maximizes cardiac

performance in clients with heat failure by increasing ventricular
contractility?
a) Calcium channel blockers
b) Beta-adrenergic blockers

c) Diuretics
d) Inotropic agents e.g. Digoxin
292.Which of the following is the most common symptom of

myocardial infarction?
a) Edema
b) Dyspnea
c) Chest pain
d) Palpitations
293. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a

client with myocardial infarction?
a) To decrease the client’s anxiety
b) To sedate the client
c) To decrease the client’s pain
d) All of the above
294. What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart

size?
a) Myocarditis
b) Cardiomyopathy
c) Cardiomegaly
d) Pericarditis
295. A patient with stable angina is more likely to experience chest

pain when:
a) Running up the stairs or other physical activity

b) Smoking a cigarette
c) Eating and digesting a heavy meal
d) All the above
296. Officially, hypertension diagnosed when the patient

demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg
and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a
sustained period.
a) 140/90
b) 130/80
c) 110/60
d) 120/70
297. When a client is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, the nurse

monitors for changes in which of the following physiological
functions?
a) Bowel function
b) Peripheral sensation
c) Intake and output
d) Bleeding tendencies
298. Which of the following is the principal discriminating feature

between M.I. and angina pectoris?
a) Presence of myocardial necrosis.
b) Duration of chest pain.
c) Precipitating factor.
d) Time of onset.

299. One of the following is not complication of prostatitis:
a) Bacteriuria, urethritis, epididymitis,
b) Prostatic abscess and septicemia
c) Enuresis
d) Constipation
300. Postoperative complications for prostatic surgery are all of the

following except:
a) Wound infection & dehiscence
b) Urinary obstruction or infection
c) Hemorrhage
d) Urinary stones
301. Digoxin can be stopped to given for a patient with CHF when his
pulse rate is below:
a) 45 beats /minute
b) 60 beats /minute
c) 70 beats /minute
d) 80 beats /minute
302. Acute bacterial prostatitis:
a) Need antimicrobial therapy generally for 10 days based on culture.
b) Need 3 months of oral antibiotics
c) Need one to two weeks of tetracycline.

d) Antimicrobial based on culture for 30 days.
303. The process of cleansing the blood of accumulated waste

products, it is used for patients with end-stage renal failure called:
a) Hemodialysis.
b) Cystoscopy.
c) Intravenous pyelography.
304. The nurse recognize that a patient has an elevated serum

creatinine level in the blood and knows that this likely indicates the
patient suffering from:
a) Diabetes mellitus.
b) Congestive heart failure
c) Chronic renal failure.
d) Severe dysrhythmias.
305. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidney. When the

patient is in chronic renal failure, loss of this hormone will lead to:
a) Diminished immunologic function with fewer white blood cells.
b) Elevated lipid levels in the bloodstream.
c) Anemia because of the diminished number of red blood cells being

produced
d) Hypertension.

306. Most stones Nephrolithiasis (75%) are composed mainly of:
a) Calcium oxalate crystals
b) Magnesium phosphate salts, uric acid
c) Struvite (magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate).
d) The amino acid cystine.
307. Clinical Manifestations of urinary tract infection (U.T.I) is:
a) Dysuria, Frequency, Urgency, Nocturia
b) Suprapubic pain and discomfort
c) Microscopic or gross hematuria
d) All of the above
308. Causes and predisposing factors of stone formation all of the

following except:
a) Poor fluids intake
b) Living in desert and tropical areas
c) Diet high in calcium.
d) Maintain good habit of regular exercises
309. In caring of nephrotic syndrome patients, the nurse should:
a) Monitor daily weight, intake and output, and urine specific

gravity.
b) Monitor vital signs weekly.
c) Monitor serum lipase to assess renal function.
d) None of the above mentioned.

310. In order to confirm the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome doctor
must do:
a) Urinalysis.
b) 24-hour urine for protein.
c) Serum chemistry.
d) By taking biopsy from the kidney tissues.
311. In-patient with acute glomerulonephritis and impaired renal

function, you may do all the following for the patient except:
a) Bed rest
b) Record intake and out put
c) Give high fluid diet
d) Monitor blood pressure
312. Urine color of patient having acute glomerulonephritis like:
a) Milk color
b) Red like tea color
c) Yellow
d) No answer is correct
313. Nephrotic syndrome characterized by:
a) Hypoalbuminemia
b) Hyperlipidemia
c) Proteinuria
d) All of the above

314. One of the following is true about nephrolithiasis:
a) Caused by chronic diabetes.
b) Caused by chronic arthritis
c) Caused by chronic dehydration
d) Caused by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
315. Oliguria occur when the volume of urine is:
a) 700 ml. /24 hours
b) Less than 500. /24 hours
c) One liter. /24 hours
d) 200 ml. /24 hours
316. Kidney pain: may be felt as:
a) Dull ache in costovertebral angle
b) Sharp, colicky pain
c) Radiates to the groin or testicle
d) All of the above are correct
317.All of the following are present in the End Stage Renal Disease
(ESRD) except:
a) Anemia.
b) Acidosis.
c) Hypokalemia.
d) Hypocalcaemia.

318.All of the following related symptoms of kidney diseases except:
a) Nausea, vomiting
b) Testicular pain
c) Abdominal discomfort
d) Paralytic ileus
319. Which of the following is considered pre-renal cause for acute

renal failure?
a) Hypovolemia
b) Toxins
c) Vascular disorder
d) Obstruction of urine flow
320. Which of the following can caused edema in nephrotic

syndrome?
a) hypoalbuminemia
b) hyperlipidemia
c) hyperkalemia
d) hypocalcaemia
321. Which of the following is Complication of Bacterial

pyelonephritis?
a) Bacteremia with sepsis
b) Paralytic ileus
c) Renal abscess

d) All of the above
322. Caused by the inhalation of food, gastric contents, water, or

blood into the tracheobronchial system is:
a) Aspiration c) Infection
b) Distention d) Obstruction
323. Incomplete expansion of the lung or portion of it occurring

within 48 hours of surgery is:
a) Hiccups c) Nausea
b) Regurgitation d) Atelectasis
324. A patient has just been transferred to the PACU following

surgery , the nurse's first priority for assessment is to check the
patient's
a) Airway c) Blood pressure
b) Dressing d) Intravenous fluids
325. Once your patient complains of difficulty of breathing , all the

following measures will help improve breathing pattern except
a) Put your patient in semi fowler position
b) Teach patient breathing techniques
c) Put the patient in prone position
d) Give oxygen therapy

326. which of the following findings suggest pulmonary embolism
a) Non productive cough and abdominal pain
b) Hypertension and hypothermia
c) Sharp, stabbing pains in the chest
d) Bradypnea and bradycardia
329. Catastrophe of Wound Dehiscence and Evisceration is

commonly related to all of the following except:
a) Poor nutrition c) Infections
b) adequate sutures or excessively loose closures d) Hematoma
330. All the following are signs & symptoms of Urinary Retention
except
a) Inability to void c) Lower abdominal discomfort
b) Voiding large amounts d) Palpable bladder
331. Which of the following is wrong regarding the major parameters

of ABG analysis
a) Paco2: partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (25 to 30 mm

Hg)
b) Sao2: arterial oxygen saturation (≥95%)
c) PH: hydrogen ion concentration, or degree of acid-base balance

(7.35 to 7.45);
d) Bicarbonate (HCO3-) ion primarily a metabolic buffer 22 to 26

mEq/L.

332. All the following are clinical manifestations of DVT except
a) Absence of the peripheral pulse in the affected extremity
b) Most patients with DVT are asymptomatic
c) Pain or cramp in the calf or thigh, progressing to painful swelling

of the entire leg
d) Slight fever, chills, perspiration
333. The purpose of giving anticholinergic drug( e.g atropine)

preoperatively is to
a) Reduce the potential for wound infection
b) Reduce the respiratory tract secretion
c) Stabilize the pt. s blood pressure
d) Decrease preoperative anxiety
334. partial or complete impairment to the forward flow of intestinal

contents Inflammation
of bronchi is:
a) Hiccups c) Intestinal obstruction
b) Regurgitation d) Atelectasis
335. Which of the following tests is routinely performed

preoperatively
a) Pulmonary function
b) Blood gas analysis
c) CBC,ECG,Chest X-ray
d) Sputum culture

336.Which assessment finding indicates that the baby is postterm ?
a) The baby has few sole creases
b) The baby has flat ,shapeless ears
c) The baby has dry, cracked skin
d) The baby's legs are in frog like position
337. After surgical repair of a myelomeningocele , in which position

should the infant be placed ?
a) Supine position
b) Prone position
c) Right or left side position
d) Position most comfortable for infant
338. What clinical manifestations would suggest hydrocephalus in a

neonate?
a) Bulging fontanel, dilated scalp veins
b) Closed fontanel, high-pitched cry
c) Constant low-pitched cry, restlessness
d) Depressed fontanel, decreased blood pressure
339. All of the following are signs and symptoms of dehydration

except?
a) Reduced skin turgor
b) Weight loss
c) Oliguria

d) Polyuria
340. The special test done for diagnosis of baby who have cystic
fibrosis disease is:
a) Stool culture and sensitivity
b) Sweat test for chloride level
c) CBC and urine analysis
d) Sputum culture and sensitivity
341. To examine the ear canal of the child, this is done by:
a) Pull the ear up and back
b) Pull the ear only back
c) Pull the ear down and back
d) Do not pull the ear, direct examine the ear by otoscope
342. Treatment of intussusception usually starts in the first 24 hours

by:
a) Hydrostatic barium enema b) Resection and anastomosis
c) Surgery d) All of these
343. All the following nursing measures are suitable for child with
convulsions except?
a) Keeping patent air way
b) Place child on his side
c) Restraining child’s extremities
d) Recording the events of convulsion

344. The therapeutic management of children with B-thalassemia
major consists primarily of which of the following ?
a) Oxygen therapy.
b) Supplemental iron.
c) Frequent blood transfusions.
d) Adequate hydration.
345. Which assessment regularly performed on newborns and infants

will do most to help with early identification of infants who might
have hydrocephalus?
a) Weight measurement
b) Head circumference
c) Length measurement
d) Presence of reflexes
346. A 6-year-old boy has tetralogy of Fallot. He is being admitted for

surgery. The nurse knows that which problem is NOT associated
with tetralogy of Fallot?
a) Severe atrial septal defect
b) Pulmonary stenosis
c) Right ventricular hypertrophy
d) Overriding aorta
347. A 21 -month- old child is admitted with vaso -occlusive sickle cell
crisis, when admitting this child, the nurse is prepared to use nursing
measures to relieve the Child's?
a) Diarrhea b) Hemorrhage c) Bradycardia d) Pain

348. Which medication should the nurse expect a child with croup to
receive?
a) Ampicillin
b) Epinephrine
c) Ferrous sulfate
d) Metoclopramide
349. Which route of temperature assessment is contraindicated in a

child with leukemia ?
a) Axillary
b) Oral
c) Tympanic
d) Rectal
350.The most common cause of post-partum hemorrhage is:
a) Lacerations of birth canal.
b) Retained placenta.
c) Uterine atony.
d) Interference with blood coagulation.
351. The best definition of preterm labor is:
a) Premature contraction after 24 week.
b) Preterm labor before 37 weeks.
c) Preterm labor before 24 weeks.

352. When the placenta completely covers the internal os it said to
be:
a) Total placenta previa.
b) Partial placenta previa.
c) Marginal placenta previa.
d) low lying placenta.
353. Which of the followings is considered a probable sign of

pregnancy?
a) Breast and Skin Changes
b) Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin
c) Fetal heart is heard by Doppler
d) Sonographic evidence
354. Delivery of placenta:
a) Second stage of labor
b) Fourth stage of labor
c) Third stage of labor
d) First stage of labor
355. Relation of the fetal body parts to one another:
a) Fetal attitude
b) Fetal Head
c) Fetal Lie
d) Fetal position

356. The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness” in a
pregnant woman is by giving:
a) Low sodium diet
b) Intravenous infusion
c) Antacid
d) Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
357. Prenatal visits from 28 to 36 weeks?
a) Bimonthly
b) Every 3 days
c) Weekly
d) Monthly
358. When the baby’s head is out, the immediate action of the nurse
is:
a) Cut the umbilical cord
b) Wipe the baby’s face and suction mouth first
c) Check if there is cord coiled around the neck
d) Deliver the anterior shoulder
359. Hypertension, puffy face & hands, proteinuria are:
a) Placental separation signs
b) True labor signs
c) Probable pregnancy signs
d) Pre eclampsia signs

360.Immunization of a child to prevent measles belongs to what level
of prevention?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Intermediate
d) Tertiary.
361. For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health

education activities. Which of the following is not RELEVANT?
a) Use of sterile syringes and needles
b) Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
c) Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
d) Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water

connections.
362. Providing more intensive chlorination of water known to be

contaminated with fecal coliform bacteria is an example of:
a) Primary prevention.
b) Secondary prevention
c) Tertiary prevention
d) All of the above
363. The most common home accidents in the home setting among
toddlers in Gaza Strip are:
a) Suffocation
b) Drowning
c) Poisoning

d) Scalding and burns.
364. All of the following are modified risk factors Except:
a) Smoking.
b) Genetic factors
c) Overweight.
d) Inactivity.
365. A major goal of community health nursing practice is:
a) To identify economic situation of the client.
b) To assist in developing a negative health practices.
c) To provide health programs for populations at risk.
d) To promote the health of aggregates of people.
366. Which of the following nursing intervention reflects primary

prevention in the school setting?
a) Providing immunization against common infectious diseases.
b) Giving basic care for minor injuries and complaints.
c) Performing vision screening program.
d) Promoting dietary compliance in a student with diabetes.
367. Which of the following would not included under the primary
health care?
a) Safe water and clean air.
b) Adequate public housing.
c) An immunization program for preschoolers.
d) Cardiac transplant surgery.

368.False sensory perception with external stimuli is:
a) Hallucination
b) Illusion
c) Delusion
d) Depersonalization
369. The most common hallucination in schizophrenia is:
a) Visual.
b) Auditory.
c) Tactile.
d) Olfactory.
370. A False fixed believe is:
a) Depersonalization.
b) Hallucinations.
c) Delusion.
d) Illusion.
371. false sensory perception without external stimuli is:
a) Delusion
b) Illusion
c) Hallucination
d) Depersonalization
372. Formal assessment of cognitive functions, thought process,and

capacity for insight:
a) Mental state examination.
b) Verbal communication.
c) Non verbal communication.

d) Non of the above
373.Axis I is refers to:
a) Psychiatric disorder.
b) Personality disorder.
c) Medical problem.
d) Global assessment of functioning.
374. Waxy flexibility is found in:
a) Paranoid Schizophrenia.
b) Catatonic Schizophrenia.
c) Disorganized Schizophrenia .
d) Simple Schizophrenia.
375. Axis II is refers to:
a) Psychiatric disorder.
b) Personality disorder.
c) Medical problem.
d) Global assessment of functioning.
376.The etiology of Mental illness are:
a) Genetic factors
b) Biologic factors
c) Psychosocial factors
d) All the above

377. Which of the following physical symptoms are associated with
Panic attacks:
a) Heart palpitations.
b) Perspiring.
c) Hyperventilating.
d) All of the above.
378. There are three different types of phobias. Which of the

following is not a phobia type?
a) Social phobia
b) Specific phobia (or simple phobia)
c) Obsessive compulsive disorder
d) Agoraphobia
379. Somatoform disorders include which of the following:
a) Conversion disorder
b) Somatization disorder
c) Hypochondriasis
d) All of the above
380. Which of the following is a chronic mood disturbance that can

cause depressive symptoms, but does not disrupt normal functioning:
a) Cyclothymic Disorder.
b) Dysthymic Disorder.
c) Dissociative disorder.
d) Personality disorder.

381. Increased dopamine neurotransmitter receptors in the brain
could be responsible for the onset of:
a) Depression.
b) Anxiety.
c) Phobias.
d) Schizophrenia.
382. The experience of two years of hypomania symptoms that do not

meet the criteria for a manic episode is known as:
a) Dysthymic Disorder.
b) Dissociative disorder.
c) Cyclothymic Disorder.
d) Personality disorder.
383. A patient with schizophrenia is expected to have all the following

EXCEPT:
a) Delusion of persecution
b) Bizarre behavior
c) Auditory hallucination
d) Disorientation
384. An anxiety disorder is:
a) An emotional state identified by panic attacks.
b) An emotional condition classified by excessive checking.
c) Disordered thinking.
d) An excessive or aroused state characterized by feelings of

apprehension, uncertainty and fear.

385. In Schizophrenia psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations
delusions, disorganized speech and grossly disorganized or catatonic
behaviors are known as:
a) Negative symptoms.
b) Positive symptoms.
c) Mediating symptoms.
d) Catastrophic symptoms.
386. Client who is speaking very rapid, jumping from one thought to
another, hyperactive and awake all the night is signs of"
a) Depression.
b) Schizophrenia.
c) Anxiety.
d) Mania.
387. A client believes that other people are out to kill him is example
of:
a) Hallucinations.
b) Grandiose delusion.
c) Delusion of persecution.
d) Error of judgment.
388. Cyanosis is blue color of skin, is caused by:
a) Fever b) Hypertension
c) Low tissue oxygenation d) Kidney disease

289.Instrument which is used to examine the eye structure is called:
a) Ophthalmoscope b) Laryngoscope
c) Otoscope d) Bronchoscope
290.The term used to describe blood in the urine.
a) Glycosuria b) Hematuria
c) Pyuria d) Albuminuria
291.When a person bas a fever or diaphoresis, the urine output will

be which of the following:
a) Increased and diluted b) Increased and concentrated
c) Decreased and highly diluted d) Decreased and highly

concentrated
292.The nurse chooses to inject a prescribed intramuscular

medication into the ventrogluteal site. If the nurse selects the site
correctly, the injection is administered into the.
a) Hip b) Arm
c) Thigh d) Buttock
293.500 mg of a drug is order. It is supplied in tablets of 1 gm per

tablet. How many tablets
should be administered?
a) 0.5 tablet b) 1 tablet
c) 1.5 tablet d) 2 tablet

394. The doctor order is 300 cc of normal saline solution, to be
finished within 4 hours, how many drop/min you will regulate this IV
(drop factor is 20 drop/minute).
a) 10 drop/min b) 15 drop/min
c) 25 drop/min d) 35 drop/min
395.In case of kerosene poisoning the best management is:
a) Induce vomiting for patient
b) Give kerosene antidote
c) Give the patient water or milk to ditute the kerosene
d) Give patient activated charcoal
396.The most reliable sign of cardiac arrest is:
a) Absence of pulse b) Absence of breathing
c) Unconsciousness d) ECG
397.A patient with CHF is displaying symptoms such as dry hacking

cough, fatigue, and a slight increase in today's weight. The most
appropriate position for the patient to be placed in is:
a) Supine b) Low Fowler's
c) High Fowlers with feet dangling d) Left lateral
398.The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to take when a

patient develops chest pain related to angina is:
a) To discontinue the oxygen if in use
b) To have the patient walk to see if pain is relieved with activity

c) To have the patient sit or rest immediately
d) To remove the nitroglycerin patch immediately
399. A nurse finds the patient's systolic pressure as 122 mm Hg and

the diastolic pressure as 75 mm Hg. The pulse pressure would be:
a) 57 b) 60
c) 54 d) 47
400.A patient is diagnosed as having damage to the layer of the heart

responsible for the pumping action. The nurse is aware the damage is
in the:
a) Endocardium b) Pericardium
c) Myocardium d) Visceral pericardium
401.The electrical conduction of the heart usually originates in the

SA node. Which of the
following sequences completes the conduction?
a) SA node to Bundle of HIS to AV node to Purkinjie fibers
b) SA node to AV node to Purkinjie fibers to Bundle of HIS
c) SA node to bundle of HIS to Purkinjie fibers to AV node
d) SA node to AV node to bundle of HIS to Purkinjie fibers
402.In a 75-year-old woman with a diagnosis of a CVA, which of the

following nursing
assessments is indicative of a CVA?
a) Facial droop
b) Facial edema

c) Increase in blood pressure
d) Noncompliance with the treatment regimen
403.What makes up the largest portion of the skin?
a) Rete ridges b) Epidermis
c) Dermis d) Subcutaneous tissue
404. Which of the following proteins, common to the epidermis, is

believed to play a significant role in forming the outer barrier of the
skin?
a) Keratin cells b) Melanocytes
c) Merkel cells d) Langerhans' cells
405. The nurse teaches the patient who is prescribed corticosteroid

therapy that:
a) Her diet should be low protein with ample fat
b) There will be no change in appearance
c) She is at an increased risk for developing infection
d) She is at a decreased risk for development of thrombophlebitis and

thromboembolism
406. Nursing care for the patient with hypothyroidism would include
which action as a priority?
a) Encourage the patient to participate in activities as tolerated .
b) Keep the patient's room temperature cool
c) Provide frequent high-calorie meals
d) Teach about alcohol and stimulants
407. Which of the following menu items would be the best source of
iodine, which supports the function of the thyroid?
a) Eggs b) Strawberries
c) Table salt d) Red meat

408.Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of Addison's
disease?
a) Truncal obesity b) Hypertension
c) Muscle weakness d) “Moon” face
409. A male patient has a catheter, and the nurse suspects he has a
bladder infection. What may be the most likely cause of bladder
infection in a patient with a catheter?
a) Irrigation of the catheter
b) Maintenance of the closed drainage system
c) Emptying the Foley bag
d) Emptying the Foley bag without applying gloves
410. An important function of the kidneys is:
a) Ammonia retention b) Phosphate retention
c) Glucose elimination d) Acid elimination
411. The functional units of the kidneys are the:
a) Nephrons b) Renal capsules
c) Renal pyramids d) Convoluted tubules
412. Clinical manifestation of tonsillitis included:
a) Hypertrophy of tonsils
b) Repeated attacks of otitis media
c) Suspected hearing loss
d) All of the above
413.The purpose of the cilia is to:
a) Produce mucus b) Contract smooth muscle
c) Phagocyte bacteria d) Move the mucous

414. On physical examination the nurse should be looking for
tenderness on palpation at Mc Burney's point, which :
a) Left lower quadrant b) Right lower quadrant
c) Left upper quadrant d) Right upper quadrant
415. In type II non-insulin diabetes mellitus (NIDDM), the patient

demonstrates the following characteristics:
a) A need for insulin for life
b) Usually obesity at diagnosis
c) Islet cell antibodies
d) Decrease in insulin resistance
416. The patient has a gallstone blocking the bile duct. with what
symptoms will the patient report feeling pain?
a) Increased bilirubin levels in the blood
b) Increase in appetite
c) Weight gain
d) Constipation
417. In a typical patient with cholecysitis, beside localized pain, in

what other area might the patient report feeling pain?
a) Left upper arm b) Neck or jaw
c) Lower abdomen d) Right shoulder
418. Which of the following occupations is at the greatest risk for

contracting hepatitis B?
a) Flight attendants b) Fire fighters
c) Health care workers d) Educators
419. Which of the following does the liver require for the synthesis of
prothrombin?
a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Ketones

A rhythm strip from a patient's ECG shows the following pattern:
420. How should the nurse interpret this pattern?
a) Ventricular trigeming b) Ventricular bigeming
c) Ventricular fibrillation d) Ventricular tachycardia
421.Which of the following is a false statement in relation to ECG?
a) The P wave is represents depolarization of the atrium.
b) The QRS wave is represents repolarization of the ventricle.
c) The T wave follows the S wave and represents ventricular

relaxation.
d) The U wave represents repolarization of purkinje fibers.
422. Evaluation of the effectiveness of cardiac nitrates is based on:
a) Relief of angina pain b) Decrease in blood pressure
c) Improved cardiac output d) Dilation of superficial blood

vessels
423. A client is undergoing an extensive diagnostic workup for a

suspected GI problem.The nurse discovers that the client has a
family history of ulcer disease. Which blood type also is a risk factor
for duodenal ulcers?
a) Type A b) Type B
c) Type AB d) Type O
424. Estimate the burn size using the rule of nines, if the client
burned at anterior chest, abdomen and left arm:
a) 27% b) 36% c) 9% d) 18%

425. (BSN ONLY) Which the following phrases best serves as a
definition of epidemiology
a)science that with the incidence , distribution, determinate and

control of health and illness in population
b)science that with the incidence and prevalence of disease among

population
c)science that study specific disease develops in the population
d)non of the above
426. The host , environment and agent are constitute part of the
a) wheel model b)epidemiological cycle
c) epidemiological triangle d)prospective study
427. One a advantage of the home visit for the community health
nurse includes:
a) being able to control environmental distraction.
b) understanding client life style is easier in family residence.
c) client transportation concern are a non relevant personal situation.
d) non of the above.
428. An incidence rate of a disease refer to:
a) the measurement of the existing number of cases identified in a

given population
b) the measurement of the number of new cases identified in a given

period of time
c) how the community health nurse determines the risk factors of the
disease
d) the measurement of the entire population at risk in designed area.

429. Which the following vaccine are given to protect from
Diphtheria and tetanus disease. it should suitable for children old
than six year and pregnant woman
a) TT b)DT
c) Td d)DTP
430.Which of the following vaccines never be frozen
a) DTP b)BCG
c) Measles d)MMR
431. The best site for BCG vaccine administration is
a)intramuscular b)subcutaneous
c) intradermal d)oral
432. The best temperature to keep vaccine in refrigerator is
a) 2-8 o C b)2-4 o C
c) 0-10 o C d)0-6 o C
433. All of the following are live attenuated vaccine EXCEPT
a) mumps b) Sabine
c) pertussis d) BCG
434. A Diabetic patient was amputated following an unexpected

necrosis on the right leg,he sustained and undergone BKA. He then
underwent therapy on how to use his new prosthetic leg. this is a type
of what level of prevention?
a) primary b) secondary
c) tertiary d) none of above
435. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess as

presumptive signs of pregnancy ?
a) Amenorrhea and nausea & vomiting
b) Uterine enlargement and Chadwick's sign

c) A positive pregnancy test and a fetal outline
d) Braxton Hicks contractions and Hegar's sign
436. The third stage of labor ends with which of the following?
a) The birth of the baby
b) When the client is fully dilated
c) After the birth of the placenta
d) When the client is transferred to her postpartum bed
437. Which of the following describes the rationale for administering

vitamin K to everynewborn ?
a) Infants don't receive the clotting factor in uterus.
b) The infant lacks intestinal flora to make the vitamin.
c) It boosts the minimal level of vitamin K found in the infant.
d) The drug prevents the development of phenylketonuria (PKU).
438. Which of the following should be the nurse's initial action

immediately following the birth of the baby?
a) Aspirating mucus from the infant's nose and mouth
b) Drying the infant to stabilize the infant's temperature
c) Promoting parental bonding
d) Identifying the newborn
439. During a routine prenatal visit, a pregnant client reports

heartburn. To minimize her discomfort, the nurse should include
which suggestion in the plan of care?
a) Eat small, frequent meals b) Limit fluid intake sharply
c) Drink more citrus juice d) Take sodium bicarbonate

440. A client who's 2 months pregnant complains of urinary
frequency and says she gets upseveral times at night to go to the
bathroom. She denies other urinary symptoms. How should the nurse
intervene?
a) Advise the client to decrease her daily fluid intake
b) Refer the client to a urologist for further investigation
c) Explain that urinary frequency isn't a sign of urinary tract

infection (UTI)
d) Explain that urinary frequency is expected during the first

trimester
441.A client is in the 8th month of pregnancy. To enhance cardiac

output and renal function, the nurse should advise her to use which
body position?
a) Right lateral b) Left lateral
c) Supine d) Semi-Fowler's
Situation: Mona is pregnant for the first time. She visited the clinic
when she was thirty weeks pregnant.She complained of swollen feet,
legs, and hands. She also had headache, blurred vision,excessive
weight gain, blood pressure of 144/96 and +2 proteinuria.
442. What is Mona’s diagnosis?
a) Essential hypertension b) Pre-eclampsia
c) Eclampsia d) Clomeruonephritis
443. Increasing of Mona’s weight result from:
a) Retention of sodium and water b) Increased blood pressure
c) Increase progesterone level d) Kidney lesion

444.Intramuscular injection into deltoid muscle should be limited to
A) 2.5 ml of solution
b) 2.0 ml of solution
c) 1.0 ml of solution
d) 0.5 ml of solution
445. The dose to be given is 800 mg. The stock strength is 0.4 g per
capsule. How many capsules would you give?
a) 5 capsules
b)4 capsules
c) 3 capsules
d)2 capsules
446. When assessing a post operative patient, a nurse finds there is

tenderness,redness, and swelling in the right calf. The nurse should:
a) Massage the lower leg
b) Prepare for heparin therapy
c) Keep the leg in dependant position
d) Ask the patient to exercise that limb
447. To prevent post operative airway obstruction in unconscious

patient. The nurse should:
a) Places the patient in a side lying position
b) Encourages deep breathing and coughing
c) Elevates the head of bed
d)Administers oxygen per mask
448. Which of the following is not a characteristics of chest pain in

myocardial infarction MI ?

a) It lasts for more than 30 minutes
b) It radiates to the entire chest, neck, and left arm
c) It is a heaviness in character
d) It is a crushing in character
449. Which of the following body systems are affected by

hypertension?
a) Cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, reproductive
b) Salivary and sweet glands
c) Brain, respiratory, kidney, cardiovascular
d)Cardiovascular, brain, kidney, eyes
450. Which intervention should the nurse implement first for patient
stroke is c/o headache?
a) Administer a nonnarcotic analgesic
b) Prepare for STAT magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c) Complete a neurological assessment
d) Start an intravenous line with D5W at 100 mL/hr
451. In the oliguric phase of renal failure, what is the most

appropriate nursing diagnosis?
a) Fluid volume excess.
b)Activity intolerance
c) Ineffective breathing pattern
d) Fluid volume deficit
452. The advantages of external fixation in fracture treatment are
a) Facilitates wound care and soft tissue reconstruction
b) Allows early function of muscle and joints

c) Allows early patient comfort
d) Reduces risk of compartment syndrome
453. The product of conception is highly prone to teratogenic effects

during which weeks of gestation?
a) 12 Weeks
b) 4-8 Weeks
c) 16 Weeks
d) 20 Weeks
454. Put the following phases of stage one of labour in correct order
a) Transition, Latent, Active
b) Latent, Active, Transition
c) Active, Latent, Transition
d)Active, Transition, Latent
455. What is the definition of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
a) Loss of >500ml of blood from the vagina within 24 hours of

delivery
b) Loss of >200ml of blood from the vagina within 24 hours of

delivery
c) Loss of >200ml of blood from the vagina during delivery
d) Loss of >500ml of blood from the vagina during delivery day
456. Which of the following interventions would be most helpful to

assist a woman to void after a cesarean birth?
a)Withholding prescribed analgesic
b) Letting the woman void every 4 hours

c) Running water from the tap within woman’s hearing distance
d) Pouring cold water over her perineal area
457. During psychiatric assessment. What behavior might indicate

that patient has a mental illness?
a) Able to see the difference between the "as if" and the "for real."
b) Describes her mood as consistently sad, discouraged, and hopeless
c) Responds to the rules, routines, and customs of any group he

belongs
d) Within the limits set by his abilities, she can perform tasks she
attempts
456. Mild elevation of mood and increased energy and activity for
many days, Indicate
a) Hypomania
b) Cyclothymia
c) Anhedonia
d) Dysthemia
457. Which of the following is considered an obsession in OCD

(obsessive compulsive disorder)?
a) Hand washing
b) Ritualistic counting
c) Fear of germs
d) Excessive order
458.Which of the following is/are considered as a signs and symptoms

of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD?
a) Re-experiencing b) Avoidance
c) Increased arousal d) All of the above

459.Which of the following is the 2nd leading cause of infant deaths
in Palestine?
a. Congenital anomalies
c. Septicemia
b. Malignancies
d. Respiratory problems
460. The normal average of length at birth is
a. 50 cm
b. 65 cm
c. 35 cm
d. 70 cm
461. Which of the congenital anomalies are commonly associated with

infant of diabetic mother?
a. Congenital heart diseases b. Imperforated anus c. Renal anomalies

d. Esophageal atresia
462. The main cause of respiratory distress syndrome is ..
a. Unknown
c. Inadequate production of surfactant
b. Retained fluids in lung
d. Postmaturity
463. Toddler is the developmental age periods that extend from ..
a. Birth until 2 years
c. 1 to 3 years
b. 2 to 6 years
d. Birth until 1 month

464. Which of the following statements is correct about fetal
circulation?
a. Ductus arteriosus connects between umbilical vein and inferior

vena cava
b. The blood pressure in the right side is greater than the left side
c. Ductus venosus connects between aorta and pulmonary artery
d. The lung is the site of gas exchange in the fetus
465. The baby gets to a setting position at age.
a. 8 months
b. 10 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
466. All of the following factors predispose newborn to develop

hypothermia
Except:
A. Large body weight relative to body surface area.
B. Immature heat regulation center in the hypothalamus.
C. Inability of neonates to generate heat by shivering until 3 months

of age
D. Thin layer of subcutaneous fat
467. Which of the following is a pathological skin conditions?
a. Acrocyanosis
b. Vernix caseosa
c. Mongolian spots
d. Jaundice

468. A neonate is assessed soon after delivery, he was Active, grimace
when suctioned from nose, good respiration, acrocyanosis, with HR
95 bpm. His Apgar score will be..
a. 6 b. 9 c. 8 d. 7
469. While taking history from a mother of 48 hours newborn, she

said that his baby does not pass urine since birth. Which of the
following is the nurse’s most appropriate action?
a. Notify the physician immediately because there is a problem.
b. Do nothing because this is a normal finding for the age.
c. Perform an intensive developmental examination.
d. Perform an intensive neurologic examination.
470. Persistence of Moro reflex for age of one year indicates..
a. Post-maturity
b. CNS depression
c. Fracture clavicle
d. Mental retardation
471. Which of the following is a characteristic symptoms of post-

maturity?
a. Increased vernix caseosa
c. Thin skin
b. Abundant lanugo hair
d. Little subcutaneous fat
472. The most dangerous complication of hyperbilirubinemia in

newborn is.
a. Lethargy b. Poor feeding c. Kernicterus d. Jaundice in the eyes

473.What anatomic condition must be present for an infant with
complete transposition of the
great vessels to survive at birth?
A. Coarctation of the aorta. c. Ventricular septal defect .
B. Pulmonic stenosis. d. Mitral stenosis
474. All of the following are clinical manifestations of Coarctation of

the Aorta Except:
A. Frequent epistaxis.
B. Leg pain with activity
C. Bounding pulses in the upper extremities with weak or absent pulses

in the lower extremities.
D. BP in the lower extremities may be 20 mm Hg or higher than that in

the upper extremities.
475. Which of the following CHD causes left ventricular

hypertrophy?
a. Aortic stenosis b. VSD. c. ASD d. Pulmonary stenosis
476. Which of the following is the most common type of esophageal

atresia with
tracheoesophageal fistula?
A. Both upper and lower esophagus segments connected to the

trachea.
B. Blind at each end of the esophagus, widely separated with no

connection to the trachea.
C. Proximal esophagus segment terminates in a blind pouch, & the

distal segment is connected to the trachea or primary bronchus by a
short fistula
D. Proximal segment of esophagus opens into trachea, distal end is

blind.

477.All of the following is acyanotic heart diseases Except:
a. TOF b. VSD c. PDA d. ASD
478. Which of the following drugs is used to close PDA?
a. Dexamethasone. b. Prostaglandin c. Indomethacin d. Pethidine
479. All of the following are drugs that may be used for treatment of
rheumatic fever Except:
a. Prednisone b. Heparin c. Penicillin d. Aspirin
480. In iron deficiency anemia, red blood cells are ...
a. Normochromic b. Hyperchromic. c. Normocytic d. Hypochromic
481. Which of the following statements is true about sickle cell

disease?
a. Is inherited as autosomal dominant trait
b. Nutritional deficiency anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Has absent or reduced hemoglobin chains
482. All of the followings are possible causes of hemolysisin G6PD

deficiency anemia Except:
a. Ingestion of fava beans b. Less intake of folic acid
c. Synthetic vitamin K injection d. Typhoid fever
483. Hemophilia B occurs due to.
a. Deficiency of clotting factor 8 b. Deficiency of clotting factor 9
c. Inflammation of endothelium of blood vessels
d. d. Deficiency of platelets count

484. Which of the following laboratory tests support the diagnosis of
ITP?
a. Reduced bleeding time b. Increase level of reticulocytes
c. Prolonged PT d. Decrease number of platelets
485. All of the followings are advantages of ORS Except:
a. Corrects severe dehydration b. Suitable for all age
c. Inexpensive d. Control fever
486. All of the followings measures to take in consideration regarding

feeding of infant with cleft lip and palate Except:
a. Feed baby in supine position to minimize aspiration.
b. Soft nipple with large hole can be used or dropper.
c. Feed slowly, bubble frequently during feeding.
d. Smaller but more frequent feedings may be necessary
487. is a malfunction of the lower segment of the esophagus so

allowing gastric contents to return back to the esophagus and
vomiting
a. Gastroesophageal reflux b. Esophageal atresia
c. Pyloric stenosis d. Gastroenteritis
488. A 6-year-old is admitted with suspected rheumatic fever. Which

finding is associated with rheumatic fever?
a. Inability to digest certain grains
b. A case of streptococcal throat infection several weeks ago
c. Presence of sickle cell trait
d. A history of non-febrile convulsion

489. A lumbar puncture is performed on a child suspected to have
bacterial meningitis, and CSF is obtained for analysis. Which results
would verify the diagnosis?
A. Clear CSF, decreased pressure, and elevated protein level
B. Cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels
C. Clear CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels
D. Cloudy CSF, decreased protein, and decreased glucose levels
490. All of the followings are False contraindications for
vaccination Except:
a. Febrile convulsions after vaccination
c. Allergy and asthma
b. Non-febrile convulsions after vaccination
c. Treatment with antibiotics
491. To be effective in preventing disease in a population, The
vaccination coverage should be at least
a. 55%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 60%
492. Bivalent Oral polio vaccine is the vaccine of choice for primary
immunization of children due to all of the following reasons Except:
a. It induces intestinal immunity, besides producing antibodies in

blood
b. bOPV coverage of 80% and above induces herd immunity.
c. It is simple to administer orally, well accepted by children and

mothers.

d. bOPV is a live attenuated vaccine made from the three types of
polio virus: type I, II and III.
493.All of the followings are the major manifestation of active TB

except:
a. Chronic cough
b. Fever
c. Weight loss
d. Hematemesis
494.... implies fitting the job to the worker
a. Ecomapping
b. Ergonomics
c. Egocentric
d. Egometric
495.Penta vaccine include all of following vaccines except:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Diphtheria
c. Tetanus toxoid
d. HIB
496. Food and water-related illness are good examples for .......
transmission
a. Vector b. Vehicle-borne c. Direct d. Air-borne

497.Which of the following is mostly related to the controlling
function of the family?
a. Division of labor among members
c. Meet there members physical need
b. Acceptance of individual members
d. Sharing of gifts during holiday
498.Which of the following is an indirect cause of maternal

mortality?
a. Preeclampsia
c. Heart disease
b. Death from traffic accident
d. Postpartum infections
499. All of the followings are reservoir of infectious diseases Except:
a. Human
b. Animal
c. Insect
d. Droplets
500. An infectious disease that has spread worldwide is described as

....
a. Epidemic b. Pandemic c. Endemic d. Communicable

اسئلة امتحان البرومترك للتمريض

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

اسئلة امتحان البرومترك للتمريض

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

اسئلة امتحان البرومترك للتمريض

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

2020‫‏‬

500 important questions for the

Prepared by: MOHAMMED MOEN ALHOUR

2.Umbilical cord contains.......................

3.connects between umbilical vein and

inferior vena cava

a. Foramen ovale b. Ductus venosus

c. Ductus arteriosus d. Atrial septal defects

4.‫ ‏‬All of the following are predisposing factors that

increase the risk for Preterm infant to development

a. Small body surface area b. Inability to shiver

c. Little subcutaneous fat tissue d. Thin skin

5………….is an irregular areas of blue

pigmentation that characterize the skin of newborn

a. Mongolian spots b. Vernix caseosa

c. Milia d. Lanugo hair

1 ‫الصفحة‬ Prepared by: MOHAMMED MOEN ALHOUR

development of jaundice except:

a. Polycythemia b. Poor feeding

c. Short lifespan of red blood cells d. Immature spleen

7. Which of the following is true about cystic fibrosis?

a. Affects mainly exocrine glands b. Diagnosed by ultrasound

c. Infectious disease d. Affects male more than femal

8‫‏‬.Elevated BP in the upper limb in comparison with lower limbs is

a. Coarctation of aorta b. Atrial septal defect

c. RDS d. None of above

9‫‏‬.When performing a physical assessment for child with

Acute glomerulonephritis, the nurse should expect to find:

a. Anorexia, hematuria, proteinuria, and decreased blood

b. Normal blood pressure, anorexia, proteinuria, and

c. Lowered blood pressure, periorbital edema, proteinuria,

and decreased specific gravity

d. Moderately elevated blood pressure, periorbital edema,

proteinuria & increased specific gravity

2 ‫الصفحة‬ Prepared by: MOHAMMED MOEN ALHOUR

Hydrocephalus you should:

a. Measure head circumference b. Monitor convulsions

c. Assess the pupil size d. Watch for vomiting

11.Thalasemia major may be treated by all of the following Except:

a. Desferal b. Blood transfusion

c. High iron diet d. Splenectomy

12 .A 10-year-old with glomerulonephritis reports a headache

and blurred vision. The nurse should immediately:

a. Put the client to bed. b. Obtain the child’s BP

c. Notify the physician. d. Administer acetaminophen

13.Which of following drugs used as antidote for Parathion

‫‏‬14‫‏‏‬.Which of the following is not a major sign of rheumatic

c. Erythema Marginatum d. Arthralgia

3 ‫الصفحة‬ Prepared by: MOHAMMED MOEN ALHOUR

a. Dextracardia b. Tricuspid atresia

c. Ventricular septal defect d. pulmonary stenosis

16.The primary sign of Hirshsprung disease is.................

c. Constipation. d. Abdominal distension.

17.Health education for mother of child with iron deficiency

anemia include all of the following information Except:

a. Provide liquid iron through a straw.

b. Administer iron before meal with citrus juice.

c. Don’t give iron with milk products.

‫‏‬18.The suitable position for lumbar puncture is.................

a. Prone position. b. Supine position.