Ailet 2008-2020

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AILET 2008-2020
https://t.me/CLAT_Exam
Bhavna Lamay
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CONTENTS Page No
1. AILET 2008 Question Paper 3-20
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AILET 2008
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Total Marks: 150
SEC TION 1 – ENGLISH AND READING COMPREHENSION
1. The Indian Territory which fell under the states on the eve of Independence was
(a) Only 20 percent (b) Over 80 percent (c) 54 percent (d) 46 percent.
2. The Supreme Court of India enjoys

(a) Only original jurisdiction (b) Only appellate jurisdiction
(c) Only advisory jurisdiction (d) All the above types of jurisdictions.
3. A money bill can be introduced in Parliament by

(a) The Finance Minister alone (b) Any minister
(c) Any Member of Parliament (d) Any member of the ruling party.
4. The most powerful legislature in the world is the

(a) Indian Parliament (b) U.S. Congress
(c) Swiss Legislature (d) British Parliament.
5. In the U.S.A., residuary powers or reserve of powers are

(a) Left to the federal government (b) Left to the States
(c) Not defined properly (d) Given to local government.
6. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated with

1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 and 3.
7. According to the Constitution, amendments cannot be proposed in either House to

(a) The Annual Financial Statement (b) Appropriation Bill
(c) Demand for Grants (d) All of the above.
8. Match the following:

List I List II
(A) Nagpur session (1920) (i) Pooma Swaraj
(B) Madras session (1927) (ii) Changes in the constitution of Congress
Resolution of Fundamental Rights and National Economic

(C) Calcutta session (1928) (iii)
Policy
(D) Lahore session (1929) (iv) Return of Gandhiji to active politics after 6 years
(E) Karachi session (1930). (v) Independence resolution passed for the first time.
A B C D E
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(c) (ii) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
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(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv)
9. _____________are words, which appear innocent, but have a latent defamatory meaning.
(a) Libel (b) Slander (c) Innuendo (d) None of the above.
10. Which Article of our Constitution provides that the State shall make effective position for securing
right to work?
(a) Article 41 (b) Article 39 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 45.
11. Who of the following does not constitute an exception for ‘equality before law’ (Article 14)?
(a) The Foreign Diplomats (b) The Prime Minister (c) The Governor (d) The President.
12. The Constitution of India describes India as

(a) A Quasi-Federal Country (b) Union of States
(c) A federation of States and Union territories (d) None of the above.
13. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been the subject of maximum litigation and
controversies?
(a) Right to Property (b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion (d) Right to Freedom.
14. The Fundamental Duties of the Indian Citizens

(a) Formed a part of the original Constitution
(b) Were added by the Forty-Second Amendment
(c) Were added by the Forty-Fourth Amendment
(d) Were defined by the Parliament through a law enacted during the emergency.
15. What is contained in the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India?

(a) Forms of oath of affirmation
(b) Provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
(c) Items in respect of which Panchayats shall have powers and authority to function as
institutions of Self- Government
(d) Items on which Municipalities shall have powers and authority to function as institutions of
Self- Government.
16. The strength of the Council of Ministers

(a) Has been fixed by the Constitution
(b) Has been fixed by the Parliament under Representation of People’s Act, 1950
(c) Is determined by the Prime Minister keeping in view the requirement of the time
(d) Is determined by the President.
17. The Advisory Powers of the Supreme Court of India imply that
(a) It renders advice to the Government of India on all constitutional matters
(b) It renders advice to the Prime Minister on legal matters
(c) It renders advice to the President on question of law or fact which is of public importance
(d) It has power to render advice to all the above persons.
18. The provision under which the Supreme Court can grant ‘special leave’ to appeal against decisions
of lower courts and tribunals is contained in
(a) Section 10 of Supreme Court Rules (b) Article 136 of Indian Constitution
(c) Article 226 of Indian Constitution (d) Article 139 of Indian Constitution.
19. Unliquidated damages mean

(a) Damage to something solid
(b) Damage caused by a firm which has gone in liquidation
(c) Damage to a firm in the hands of receivers
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(b) Damage to be assessed by a Court as these are not pre-determined.
20. Assault and nuisance are

(a) Wrong under criminal law (b) Wrong under tort
(c) Wrong under neither (d) Wrong under both.
21. ‘A’ by cutting the moorings of a boat in which a man and a women were sitting, caused in them a
fear for life. He is liable for
(a) Criminal use of force (b) Assault
(c) Mischief (d) None of these.
22. The display of articles in a show room indicating their prices amounts to
(a) Offer (b) Counteroffer (c) Invitation to an offer (d) Mere advertisement.
23. An idol of Lord Krishna in a temple is

(a) A natural person
(b) A legal person
(c) Not a person in the eye of law because only the priest of the temple will be a person
(d) Not a person because no personality can be conferred on God.
24. When a court sends someone to judicial custody, what does it mean by judicial custody?
(a) Sent to jail (b) Sent to police lock up
(c) Sent to home under judicial protection (d) None of these.
25. In Criminal law, the intention is an essential constituent of offence. In law of Torts
(a) Intention is relevant (b) Intention is irrelevant
(c) Intention is relevant only in some torts (d) None of these.
26. The law forbids the number of partners in partnership. According to law, the maximum number of
people who can form a partnership firm is
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) No limit.
27. The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice is

(a) 10 years (b) 9 years (c) 7 years (d) 5 years
28. The democratic device, used in constitutional states, by which important political questions,
particularly question relating to the states of a region, may be referred to the people of the region for their
final decision, is called
(a) Plebiscite (b) Referendum (c) Recall Vote (d) Quorum.
29. Ancient treatise on law

(a) Vedas (b) Upanishads (c) Smritis (d) Shrutis.
30. Muslim religious foundations

(a) Ulema (b) Jihad (c) Quzat (d) Wakfs.
31. The maximum litigation in Courts is caused by

(a) Businessmen (b) Middle class (c) Government (d) Criminals.
32. The first-regular adjudicatory mobile court in the country has been inaugurated at Punbanna village in
(a) Haryana (b) Bihar (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Punjab.
33. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 provides grounds of dissolution of Muslim marriage to
(a) Spouses (b) Only males
(c) Only females (d) Muslim parents and parents-in-law.
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34. A married man commits adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a/an
(a) Unmarried woman (b) Married woman
(c) Any woman except his wife (d) Unmarried woman without her consent.
35. A husband is obliged to maintain his divorced wife
(a) Forever (b) For 20 years
(c) Till the children grow up (d) Till she gets re-married.

(I) Default (A) Failure to do something required by law
(II) Delict (B) A wrongful act
(III) Derelict (C) A thing thrown away by its owner
(IV) Dictum (D) A judge’s observation
(a) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

(b) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(c) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(d) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
37. You send your servant with a typewriter to be delivered to your friend. The servant takes the type-
writer home and uses it over a period of time. You discovered this a fortnight later and report him for
(a) Cheating (b) Embezzlement (c) Fraud (d) Forgery.
38. India and Britain have signed an ‘Extradition treaty’. Extradition means
(a) Exports without double taxation
(b) Order of Indian Courts will apply to Indians living in the UK
(c) India and the U.K. will deport criminals on reciprocal basis to each other
(d) None of the above.
39. Genocide occurred in all but one case

(a) Bosnia (b) Nazi Germany
(c) Rwanda (d) Gulf War.
40. High sea is

(a) Sea lying more than 5 km beyond the coast of a country
(b) Sea lying beyond a distance of 3 miles from the coast of any country
(c) Sea beyond 200 miles of a coast of any country
(d) Both (a)and (b) .
41. Which Inn of Court called Gandhiji to the Bar?

(a) Inner Temple (b) Middle Temple
(c) Lincoln’s Inn (d) Gray’s Inn.
Directions: Answer the questions 42-50, which follow from application of the under-mentioned legal
principle:
42. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence.
This right also extends to lawfully causing the death of the assailant, if the offence which occasions the
exercise of the right of private defence, be
(i) An assault which reasonably causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt (very serious
hurt)
(ii) An assault which causes reasonable apprehension of rape
(iii) An assault which causes reasonable apprehension of kidnapping.
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This right is available for protecting one’s own body, as well as the body of any other, provided the
assault is not self-invited.
Decide whether the right of private defence is available in the following situation:
FACTUAL SITUATION: A was holding the birthday party of his daughter. Some of his friends decided
to present her with a car. To create an element of surprise, they decided to kidnap her for a few minutes
while the party was in full swing and then get her back in the new car. They put the plan into action.
While they were kidnapping, A got very alarmed and asked the guards to open fire. The guards killed
all the five friends. A is
(a) not protected

(b) protected because he did not kill, the guards did
(c) not protected because A’s own body was not involved
(d) protected because to any ordinary person there would have appeared a reasonable
apprehension of kidnapping.
43. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When a contract has been broken, the party who suffers by such breach is
entitled to receive, from the party who has broken the contract, compensation for any loss or damage
caused to him thereby, which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach, or which
the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result from the breach of it. Such
compensation is not given for any remote or indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach.
Decide, whether and to what extent B is entitled to damages in the following situation:
FACTUAL SITUATION: A contracts with B to sell him 1,000 tons of iron at Rs. 100 per tonne. B tells A
that he needs the iron for export purposes, and that he would be selling the iron at Rs. 200 per tonne. A
breaks the contract. When the question comes about damages, A says he will pay only Rs. 5,000 as
damages because the same variety of iron was available in the market at Rs. 105 per tonne. B however
contends that he should be given Rs. 1,00,000 because that was the profit which he would have made
had A fulfilled the contract. B had actually bought the iron at Rs. 110 and had exported it. B is
(a) not entitled to damages

(b) entitled to Rs. 10,000 as damages
(c) entitled to Rs. 5,000 as damages
(d) entitled to Rs. 1,00,000 as damages.
44. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Contract is an agreement freely entered into between the parties.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Tapan was a dealer in mustard oil. The Government of India by an order
issued under the Essential Commodities Act, fixed the price of mustard oil, and also the quantity
which a person can buy from the dealer.
Tapan carried on his business under this order for a while, but he refused to pay sales tax on his
sale transactions on the ground that these were not the contracts freely entered into by him.
(a) Tapan would succeed because the price and quantity were not negotiated by him
(b) Tapan would not succeed because free consent between the parties was there despite
the restriction on price and quantity
(c) He would succeed because the Government under the new order forced him to enter
into contracts
(d) Both (a)and (c) .
45. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An occupier is not normally liable to a trespasser except in respect of willful act
intended to cause him harm or done with reckless disregard.
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FACTUAL SITUATION: Tony, a rich man, had kept a ferocious dog to guard his house. He strictly
instructed all his servants not to go near the dog. Further a special attender was hired to take care of the
dog. Visitors were warned by a prominent warning sign board about this dog.
One day, a 13-year-old boy playing in the neighbourhood, running after his ball got into the house.
The dog attacked him and killed him. Tony was sued for damages.
(a) Tony was not liable because the boy was a trespasser
(b) Tony is not liable because a 13-year-old boy ought to have known about the presence of the
ferocious dog
(c) Tony is liable of the negligence of his servant to keep watch on such a ferocious dog during
the day time
(d) Both (a)and (b).
46. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A master will be liable for the wrongful acts of his servants in the
course of employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Maria was an old widow who opened an account with the Indian Overseas
Bank, whereby she would deposit Rs. 5 every day in the bank. Stephen was her neighbour who used to
collect the amount and deposit them in the bank. Stephen would get a small commission from the bank
for the money deposited. One day it was discovered that Stephen who had not deposited the money for
more than three months, had vanished with the amount. Maria filed a suit against the Bank.
(a) Bank would not be liable because Stephen was not an employee of the bank.
(b) Bank would not be liable for the failure of Maria to check the balance in her account
(c) Bank would be liable because Stephen was paid commission by the bank for doing its work
47. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The contract after death of one party can be continued if it is ratified by the
surviving party.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Vishal, a famous artist was requested by Arun, an industrialist to draw the
portrait of his deceased wife and paid Rs. 20,000 in advance and agreed to pay when the work was
completed, a sum of Rs. 2 lakhs. When the portrait was half drawn, Vishal died due to heart attack. His
son also a fine artist completed his father’s work and demanded the money from Arun. Arun refused to
pay and to accept the portrait drawn by Vishal’s son and also demanded the advance to be returned.
(a) Arun cannot demand the advance amount from the son of Vishal, because in normal cases
the son is not responsible for the father’s contractual obligation
(b) Son of Vishal cannot demand the rest of amount from Arun because Arun has not assigned
him the work
(c) Arun can demand the rest of the amount
(d) Both (a)and (b) .
48. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Ignorance of law is not an excuse in India with the practice that every person
in India should be acquainted with the law of land.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Mr. Jackson, a foreigner, came to Delhi in the winter season. He saw the people
in Delhi set fire on road side during night and get their body warm. One night he came out of his hotel
and asked two labourers to cut down a dry tree in Pandara Road and when they agreed he paid them
Rs. 150 Indian currency for cutting down the tree. They cut and made the log into small pieces and the
foreigner along with the tree cutters set fire and got their body warm. After some 50. time, the Police
Patrol car watched it and arrested the foreigner and two labourers on the spot. The foreigner pleaded
that the tree was dry and he did not know the cutting of tree from road side is an offence in India.
(a) The foreigner shall not be responsible for the offence because he himself has not cut the
tree but got it cut through the Indian people
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(b) The foreigner shall be punished because in India cutting of tree from road side is an offence
(c) The pretence that he does not know such act is an offence is not an excuse for a foreigner also
(d) Both (b) and (c) .
49. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premises owes a duty of care to all his invitees and
visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Devi who was the owner of a big home with a compound wall, constructed
an underground tank to store water. This was covered by jute bags since the work was incomplete.
The postman who came inside to deliver a registered letter, fell into this tank and hurt himself. There
was also a box on the outside of the compound wall, where all the mail could be deposited. The
injured man filed a suit against Devi claiming compensation.
(a) Devi is not liable, because she did not invite the postman to her house
(b) Devi is not liable, because the postman could have delivered the letter in the box on the
outside of the compound wall
(c) Devi is not liable because the postman was required to take care of himself
(d) Devi is liable because the postman came into the premises in the course of his duty.
50. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Even if the sovereign functions of the State are discharged negligently the
State is not vicariously liable in tort.
FACTUAL SITUATION: ‘A’ was a trader in gold. He was arrested by Police and was detained in the police
lock up after search. The gold with him along with sundry other things were seized. Later he was
discharged. His possessions seized by the police were returned, except the gold. He moved against the
State in tort. In the words of Supreme Court, “There can be no escape from the conclusion that the Police
Officers were negligent in dealing with the property after it was seized.” One of the Constables was a
Muslim. He fled with gold to Pakistan.
(a) ‘A’ succeeded because the servants of the State were negligent and thus caused injury
(b) ‘A’ failed because the Constable who seized the gold had fled to Pakistan and the gold was not
with the State at all
(c) ‘A’ failed because the acts of search and seizure by the Police Officer were part of the
sovereign function of the State
(d) There was some other relief given to ‘A’.
Directions: For questions 51-52, select the pair of the words nearest in meaning to the original.
51. FRAYED: FABRIC

(a) Watered : Garden (b) Dilapidated : Building
(c) Frozen : Ice (d) Crumpled : Paper.
52. LEVITATE: MAGICIAN

(a) Cook: Mother (b) Argue: Lawyer
(c) Float: Astronaut (d) Sky jump : Parachutists.
Fill in the Blank with the appropriate option:
53. Judicial decrees may not change the heart, but they can the heartless.
(a) Transform (b) Subdue (c) Disarm (d) Regulate.
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Directions: In the following questions 54-57, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in
meaning to the word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
54. Charlatan
(a) Monster (b) Pre-historic man (c) Quack (d) An ex-convict.
55. Cavil
(a) Frivolous objection (b) To criticize sharply; reprove
(c) Moving away from centre (d) Working of brain; thought process.
56. Cynosure
(a) Able to co-exist (b) Brief (c) Centre of attention (d) Abridgement
57. Consummate
(a) One at zenith of perfection (b) Existing from birth
(c) Constant; always present (d) A history.
Directions: In the following questions 58-62, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in
meaning to the word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
58. Equanimity
(a) Resentment (b) Dubiousness (c) Duplicity (d) Excitement.
59. Palliate
(a) Apologise (b) Hesitate (c) Wait impatiently (d) Cure completely.
60. Obsequious
(a) Brusque (b) Quick-witted (c) Sharp-tongued (d) Luxurious.
61. Obstreperous
(a) Critical (b) Unruly (c) Unpleasing (d) Weak.
62. Endemic
(a) Decorative (b) Frustrating (c) Terrorising (d) Universal.
Directions: Pick the correct answer choice for filing the blanks in each of the following sentences.
63. I was surprised

(a) at his letting out the secret (b) why he let out the secret
(c) that he let out the secret (d) by his letting out the secret.
64. It is not possible to

(a) mix oil in water (b) mix oil into water
(c) mix oil with water (d) mix oil by water.
65. He and escaped.

(a) forced the door open (b) forced open the door
(c) open forced the door (d) the door forced open.
66. Let finish this work as soon as possible.

(a) you and I (b) you and me
(c) I and you (d) me and you.
67. the room the door hit him on the brow.

(a) While entering (b) As he entered
(c) On entering (d) On having entered.
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Directions: For the questions 68-72, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out
which part of the sentence has an error.
68. He returned back/(a) when he sensed/(b) that there was danger./(c) No error/(d) .
69. The progress of these plants/(a) is not being very encouraging/(b) and they are in various stages of
decay./(c)No error/ (d) .
70. Not only the bandits robbed/(a) the traveller of his purse/(b) but also wounded him grievously./(c)
No error/(d) .
71. No less than twenty persons/(a) were killed in/(b) the air crash./(c) No error/ (d)
72. The police went through the building/(a) with fine toothcombs/(b)but they found no evidence/(c)No
error/(d) .
Directions: For the questions 73-75 the first and the last sentence of the paragraph are given. Other
sentences are given in jumbled form. You have to arrange the sentences as to make it a readable
passage.
73. (1) Some people seem to have a compulsive need to work continually, they may be called work-
addicts.
(M) However they never quite reach the top.

(N) There are companies which expect everyone to be at work early and stay back late.
(O) Because of their diligence they tend to get rapid promotion at first.
(P) Work addicts generally end up in such organisations.
The correct sequence should be:

(a) PNMO (b) MOPN (c) OMNP (d) NPOM.
74. (1) If you feed a dog or tame a bear by hand
(P) or until they succeed in getting it (Q) and tear and pull at it
(R) they get their teeth into the meat (S) until they bite a piece off
(6) all out of your hand.

(a) PSRQ (b) SQRP (c) RPSQ (d) RQSP.
75. (1) St. Francis taught that
(P) and that it was easier to be good (Q) if men would be happy
(R) they must be good (S) and happy if one were poor
(6) and did not trouble oneself about money

(a) PQRS (b) RPSQ (c) QRPS (d) PSQR.
76. In France, children in pre-school programs spend a portion of each day engaged in a program of
stretching and exercise. Pre-school programs in the United States, however, seldom devote time to a
daily stretching and exercise program. In tests designed to measure cardiovascular fitness, children
in the United States were out-performed by their French counterparts. It can therefore be determined
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that children attending pre-school programs in the United States can achieve cardiovascular fitness
only by engaging in a daily school program of stretching and exercise.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

(a) A daily program of stretching and exercise will allow all children to achieve cardiovascular
fitness
(b) Cardiovascular fitness is integral to one’s overall health
(c) It has been proven that children who participate in stretching and exercise programs in pre-
school have better cardiovascular fitness than adults
(d) Stretching and exercise are necessary components of French children’s superior
cardiovascular fitness programs
77. The level of blood sugar for many patients suffering from disease Q is slightly higher than the level
of blood sugar in the general population. Nonetheless, most medical professionals believe that slightly
increasing blood sugar levels is a successful means by which to treat disease Q.
This apparently contradictory argument can best be resolved by which one of the following
statements?
(a) Blood sugar levels for patients who have been cured of disease Q are virtually identical to the
levels of blood sugar found in the general population
(b) Many of the symptoms associated with severe cases of disease Q have been recognized in
laboratory animals with experimentally induced high blood pressure, but none of the animals developed
disease Q
(c) The movement from inactive to advanced states of disease Q often occurs because the virus
that causes disease Q flourishes during periods when blood sugar levels are slightly low
(d) The blood sugar level in patients with disease Q fluctuates abnormally in response to changes
in blood chemistry.
78. Medical studies indicate that the metabolic rates of professional athletes are substantially greater
than those of the average person. So, most likely, a person’s speed and strength are primarily
determined by that person’s metabolic rate.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

(a) Some professional athletes are either faster or stronger than the average person
(b) Some professional athletes do not have higher metabolic rates than some people who are
not professional athletes
(c) The speed and strength of people who are not professional athletes are not
primarily determined by choices of diet and exercise
(d) Drugs that suppress metabolic rate have been shown to have the side- effect of diminishing
the speed and strength of those who are not professional athletes
79. Since Oscar received extensive training in how to repair motorcycles, he is able to repair many of
their most common mechanical problems. However, Oscar does not understand how internal combustion
engines work. When Oscar was given Lucy’s motorcycle to repair, he was able to fix the problem, despite
the fact that he did not understand what was causing it.
From the above paragraph, which of the following can be properly inferred?
(a) The problem with Lucy’s motorcycle involved its engine
(b) Not all mechanical problems can be repaired only by mechanics who understand how
an internal combustion engine works
(c) At least some good mechanics are able to fix mechanical problems without an understanding
of what is causing them
(d) Oscar’s mechanical training in how to repair motorcycles was incomplete.
80. It cannot be true that the lack of success of third-party candidates in national elections is due to the
difficulties such candidates encounter in securing space on national ballots. Everyone who identifies him
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or herself as a supporter of a third party has voted for a major-party candidate in at least one national
election when a third-party candidate was listed on the ballot.
Which one of the following most accurately describes a reasoning flaw in the argument?
(a) The argument overlooks the possibility that the lack of success of third-party candidates in
national elections may be due to the fact that their views on major issues prevent them from gaining
broad support
(b) The argument takes for granted that the media coverage devoted to third- party candidates for
national office is comparable to that devoted to major- party candidates for those same offices
(c) The argument treats as contradictory to some claim evidence that may instead provide
support for that claim
(d) The argument draws its conclusion through the use of a set of facts, not all of which can be
true.
81. The petrol prices shot up by 7% as a result of the hike in the price of crudes. The price of petrol
before the hike was Rs. 28 per litre. Vawal travels 2400 kilometres every month and his car gives a
mileage of 18 kilometres to a litre. Find the increase in the expenditure that Vawal has to incur due to
the increase in the price of petrol (to the nearest rupee)?
(a) Rs. 270 (b) Rs. 262 (c) Rs. 276 (d) Rs. 272.
82. The cost of setting up the type of a magazine is Rs.1000. The cost of running the printing machine
is Rs. 120 per 100 copies, the cost of paper, ink and so on is 60 paise per copy. The magazines are
sold at Rs.2.75 each. 900 copies are printed, but only 784 copies are sold. What is the sum to be
obtained from advertisements to give a profit of 10% on the cost?
(a) Rs. 730 (b) Rs. 720 (c) Rs. 726 (d) Rs. 736
83. A sum is divided between A and B in the ratio of 1 : 2. A purchased a car from his part, which
depreciates 14 2/7 % per annum and B deposited his amount in a bank, which pays him 20% interest
per annum compounded annually. By what percentage will the total sum of money increase after two
years due to this investment pattern (approximately)?
(a) 20 % (b) 26.66 % (c) 30 % (d) 25 %
84. Two cubes of bronze have their total weight equivalent to 60 kg. The first piece contains 10 kg of pure
zinc and the second piece contains 8 kg of pure zinc. What is the percentage of zinc in the first piece of
bronze if the second piece contains 15 per cent more zinc than the first?
(a) 15 % (b) 25 % (c) 55 % (d) 24 %
85. An ant moved for several seconds and covered 3 mm in the first second and 4 mm more in each
successive second than in its predecessor. If the ant had covered 1 mm in the first second and 8 mm
more in each successive second, then the difference between the path it would cover during the same
time and the actual path would be more than 6 mm but less than 30 mm. Find the time for which the ant
moved (in seconds).
(a) 5s (b) 4s (c) 6s (d) None of these.
86. The number of natural numbers of two or more than two digits in which digits from left to right are in
increasing order is
(a) 127 (b) 128 (c) 502 (d) 501
87. The Bubna dam has four inlets. Through the first three inlets, the dam can be filled in 12 minutes;
through the second, the third and the fourth inlet, it can be filled in 15 minutes; and through the first and
the fourth inlet, in 20 minutes. How much time will it take for all the four inlets to fill up the dam?
14
(a) 8 min (b) 10 min (c) 12 min (d) None of these.
88. Find the sum of all two-digit numbers that give a remainder of 3 when they are divided by 7.
(a) 686 (b) 676 (c) 666 (d) 656.
89. A train travels with a speed of 20 m/s in the first 10 minutes, goes 8.5 kms in the next 10 minutes, 11
kms in the next 10 minutes, 8.5 kms in the next 10 minutes and 6 kms in the next 10 minutes. What is
the average speed of the train in kilometre per hour for the journey described?
(a) 42 kmph (b) 35.8 kmph (c) 55.2 kmph (d) 46 kmph.
90. Two solutions of 90% and 97% purity are mixed resulting in 21 litres of mixture of 94% purity.
How much is the quantity of the first solution in the resulting mixture?
(a) 15 litres (b) 12 litres (c) 9 litres (d) 6 litres.
Directions: For questions 91-94, some information is provided in the form of statements.
On the basis of that information find the answer to the questions which follow.
Coach Balkishen is trying to put together a team of four players for a tennis tournament. He has seven
players available: males A, B and C and the females M, N, O and P. All players are of equal ability and
there must be at least two males on the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with
each other player.
• Player B cannot play with player M
• Player C cannot play with player P
• Player M cannot play with player O
91. If player O is selected and player B is rejected the team will consist of which foursome?
(a) A, C, M and O (b) A, C, N and O (c) A, C, P and O (d) A, N, P and O.
92. If player M is on the team, what other players must be on the team as well?
(a) A, B and N (b) A, C and N (c) A, C and O (d) A, C and P.
93. Which statement is false?

(M) Player B and C are never together selected
(N) Player C and O are never together selected
(O) Player N and C are never together selected
(a) Only M (b) Only N (c) Only O (d) All the three.
94. Which statement must always be true?

(M) If M plays, A plays
(N) If O plays, B plays
(O) If M plays, O plays
(a) Only M (b) Only N (c) Only O (d) Only M and O.
95. The door of my house is towards east direction. From the backside of my house I drove straight 100
metres, then turned towards right and drove for 100 metres, then turned towards left and drove for 50
metres and reached my destination. In what direction am I from the starting point?
(a) North-west (b) West (c) North (d) East.
15
Directions: Each interrogative statement 96-97 is followed by two arguments. You are to pick up one of
the following responses as the answer.
96. Should divorce laws be made more favourable to women in India?

(X) Yes, because women are persecuted by their husbands in India.
(Y) No, because it will disrupt family life.
(a) Argument ‘X’ is forceful (b) Argument ‘Y’ is forceful

(c) Neither ‘X’ nor ‘Y’ is forceful (d) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are forceful.
97. Is leisure irrelevant to modern life?

(M) Yes, because life has become too much mechanical today.
(N) No, because without leisure efficiency will fall, body and brain must be given rest.
(a) Only argument ‘M’ is forceful (b) Only argument ‘N’ is forceful
(c) Both ‘M’ and ‘N’ are forceful (d) Neither ‘M’ nor ‘N’ is forceful
98. The island of Bombay was acquired by the East India Company from
(a) Netherlands (b) France (c) Portugal (d) Spain.
99. The outstanding achievement of Todar Mai was in the field of

(a) Military Conquests (b) Revenue Administration
(c) Religious Reforms (d) Art and Architecture.
100. The deity most praised in Rigveda is

(a) Indra (b) Agni (c) Mitra (d) Varuna.
101. The Peacock throne of Shahjahan was taken away by

(a) Changez Khan (b) Timur (c) Nadir Shah (d) Ahmad Shah Abdali.
102. Shivaji’s Council of Ministers was called

(a) Nava Patna’s (b) Ashta Pradhans (c) Ashta Diggajas (d) Mantri Parishad.
103. Charak was the court physician of

(a) Ashoka (b) Kanishka (c) Chandragupta Maurya (d) Samudragupta.
104. Which of the following reasons was mainly responsible for the unpopularity of Muhammad-bin-
Tughlaq?
(a) Bad luck (b) Lack of resources
(c) Subordination of the theologians (d) Transfer of capital from Delhi to Devagiri
105. The empire of the ‘Satavahana kings’ is known by which of the following names at present?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Punjab (c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh.
106. The High Courts at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay were established under the
(a) Indian High Courts Act, 1911 (b) Government of India Act, 1909
(c) Indian High Courts Act, 1861 (d) Indian High Courts Act, 1865.
107. Which of the following rulers was illiterate?

(a) Ala-ud-din Khilji (b) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlak (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb.
108. If the original clay sediments are subjected to high temperature and pressure, they successfully
change into rocks, the correct order of which is
(a) Slate, Shale, Schist (b) Slate, Schist, Shale
(c) Shale, Slate, Schist (d) Shale, Schist, Slate.
16
109. Exfoliation in granite is regarded as a process of

(a) Chemical weathering (b) Mechanical weathering
(c) Faulting (d) Folding.
110. The tree species most commonly used in social forestry is

(a) Gulmohar (b) Mango (c) Pipal (d) Eucalyptus.
111. The Hindustan-Tibet road connects

(a) Kalimpong with Lhasa (b)Shimla with Gangtok
(c) Leh and Lhasa (d) Gangtok with Gyangyse.
112. The Aswan Dam is constructed at a point where

(a) there are several waterfalls
(b) there are several cataracts
(c) there are several pigeon towers to facilitate the collection of droppings needed to keep the
land productive
(d) the old traditional basic irrigation facility exists.
113. The difference in time per degree longitude between any two places on globe is
(a) 4 minutes (b) 5 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 30 minutes.
114. The limit beyond which stars suffer internal collapse is called
(a) Chandrasekhar limit (b) Eddington limit
(c) Hoyle limit (d) Fowler limit.
115. The best anti-knock compound used in petrol to increase mileage is

(a) Ethyl-magnesium chloride (b) Sodium ethoxide
(c) Zinc ethyl (d) Tetraethyl lead.
116. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical
phenomena are responsible for this?
(I) Dispersion (II) Refraction (III) Internal Reflection
(a) II and III only (b) I and II only

(c) I, II and III (d) I and III only.
117. Which of the following bombs, when dropped on a city, will kill only the inhabitants?
(a) Atom Bomb (b) Hydrogen Bomb
(c) Chemical Bomb (d) Neutron Bomb.
118. Which of the following will you use to remove rust stains on cloth?
(a) Alcohol (b) Oxalic acid solution (c) Kerosene oil (d) Lime.
119. “Mach Number” is a term associated with the speed of

(a) Ships (b) Cars (c) Aeroplanes (d) Light.
120. If an object is placed midway between two parallel plane mirrors facing each other, then the
number of images that will appear in mirrors is
(a) Four (b) Infinite
(c) Two (d) Zero because the images will cancel each other.
121. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to

(a) Atmospheric friction of air (b) Gravity of spherical earth
(c) Surface tension of rain water (d) Viscosity of rain water.
122. What is the colour of pure diamond?
17
(a) Light green (b) Light yellow (c) Light blue (d) Light pink.
123. Geiger counter is an instrument

(a) to determine the heart beat rate (b) to detect radioactive radiation
(c) to measure intensity of visible light (d) to count the baggage of an airport
124. The film of oil and soapy water owe their brilliant colours to a combination of light reflection and
(a) Refraction (b) Polarisation (c) Diffraction (d) Interference.
125. When a ship enters a sea from a river, its portion under water will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Show no change (d) Increase or decrease alternatively.
126. For digestion of food, hydrocholoric acid is secreted into stomach at a pH value of
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 18
127. Which of the following diseases is genetically linked?

(a) Epilepsy (b) Diabetes (c) Colour blindness (d) Leucoderma.
128. An eye defect in which one cannot distinguish between vertical and horizontal lines is called
(a) Myopia (b) Astigmatism (c) Trachoma (d) Glaucoma.
129. The gland which is attached to the digestive system but does not have any role to play in
digesting food is
(a) Salivary gland (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Pancreas
130. A reptile with a four-chambered heart is

(a) Snake (b) Lizard (c) Crocodile (d) Turtle.
131. Ahmedabad-based Pioma Industries is best known for which brand?

(a) Maggi (b) Kissan (c) Brooke-Bond (d) Rasna.
132. Australian cricketer Brett Lee models for which watch company?
(a) Timex (b) HMT (c) Titan (d) All of these.
133. Sunita Williams, renowned astronaut of Indian origin, spent a record _______ days in space.
(a) 195 (b) 185 (c) 200 (d) 201
134. ‘Bullion’ refers to gold, silver or other precious metals in the form of ___________ .
(a) Ingots or bars only (b) Bars as well as coins
(c) Coins only (d) Jewellery.
135. What does “R” in Maruti Suzuki’s small car WagonR stand for?
(a) Responsible (b) Remarkable (c) Reliable (d) Recreation.
136. Which of the following took over the Anglo-Dutch steel Company Corns?
(a) Arcelor Mittal (b) Jindal Steel
(c) Neelanchal Ispat Nigam Ltd. (d) Tata Steel.
137. What is Phishing?

(a) A Government Plan
(b) A stem cell
(c) Fradulent way of acquiring PIN and bank passwords using e-mail
(d) None of these.
138. Which organisation is headed by Indian environmentalist R.K. Pachauri who has been awarded the
Nobel Peace Prize, 2007 along with AL Gore?
18
(a) International Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

(b) International Pollution Control Board
(c) International Environment Panel
(d) International Panel on Global Warming.
139. The Government of India recently decided to halt the Future Trading of which of the following
commodities for the time being?
(a) Jeera (b) Soya Oil (c) Wheat (d) Gram.
140. Which game was played for the first time in Asian Games, 2010?
(a) Kabaddi (b) Twenty20 Cricket (c) Squash (d) Kho-kho.
141. Who is the 2nd Managing Director of the Delhi Metro Railway Corporation?
(a) B.L. Joshi, Lt. Governor of Delhi (b) Sam Pitroda
(c) E. Sreedharan (d) Mangu Singh.
142. Which country has recently adopted its new National Anthem?
(a) Israel (b) Bangladesh (c) Indonesia (d) Iraq.
143. Which among the following films has got the ‘Swarna Kamal Award’ for Best Feature Film in 59th
National Film Awards?
(a) Parineeta (b) Sringarm (c) Iqbal (d) Deool, Byari.
144. Which of the following is/are included in the UNESCO’s natural heritage site in India?
(a) Keoladeo (b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Manas Tiger Project (d) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) All.
145. Which of the following is India’s indigenous helicopter weaponised version made its first flight
recently?
(a) Dhruv (b) Cheetah (c) Chetak (d) Rajhans.
Directions: Passage in this section is followed by a group of questions 146-150 to be answered on the
basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some questions, more than one of the choices could
conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that
most accurately and completely answers the question and blacken the corresponding space on your
answer sheet.
One of the most prolific authors of all time, Isaac Asimov was influential both in science fiction and in the
popularization of science during the twentieth century, but he is also justly famous for the scope of his
interests. Although the common claim that Asimov is the only author to have written a book in every
category of the Dewey decimal system is untrue, its spirit provides an accurate picture of the man: a
dedicated humanist who lauded the far- reaching power of reason. His most famous work, the Foundation
trilogy, can be read as an illustration of Asimov’s belief in reason and science, but even while he
expressed that belief, science itself was calling it into question.
Foundation describes a time in which a vast Empire spanning the galaxy is on the verge of collapse. Its
inevitable doom is a consequence not of its size, but of the short sightedness of its leaders. In this
environment, a scientist named Hari Seldon devises an all-encompassing plan to help human civilization
recover from the trauma of the Empire’s coming collapse. Using mathematics, Seldon is able to predict
the future course of history for thousands of years, and he takes steps that are geared toward guiding
that future in a beneficial direction. The trope of the benevolent and paternalistic scientist shaping
existence from behind the scenes, present in much of Asimov’s fiction, is never more explicit than in the
Foundation series, which describes with an epic sweep the course and progress of the Seldon Plan.
19
As naive and, perhaps, self-serving as the conceit of Foundation may seem to contemporary readers, it
retains to some degree its ability to comfort by offering an antidote to the complex and unpredictable
nature of experience. Science in Asimov’s time was, in popular conceptions, engaged in just this pursuit:
discerning immutable laws that operate beneath a surface appearance of contingency, inexplicability,
and change. But even while Asimov wrote, science itself was changing. In Physics, the study of matter
at the subatomic level showed that indeterminacy was not a transitory difficulty to be overcome, but an
essential physical principle. In Biology, the sense of evolution as a steady progress toward better-
adapted forms was being disturbed by proof of a past large-scale evolution taking place in brief
explosions, of frantic change. At the time of Asimov’s death, even Mathematics was gaining popular
notice for its interest in chaos and inexplicability. Usually summarized in terms of the so-called ‘butterfly
effect’, chaos theory showed that perfect prediction could take place only on the basis of perfect
information, which was by nature impossible to obtain. Science had dispensed with the very assumptions
that motivated Asimov’s idealization of it in the Seldon Plan. Indeed, it was possible to see chaos at work
in Foundation itself: As sequels multiplied and began to be tied into narrative threads from Asimov’s
other novels, the urge to weave one grand narrative spawned myriad internal inconsistencies that were
never resolved.
146. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
(a) Isaac Asimov’s greatest work, the Foundation trilogy, is an expression of the common trope
of the benevolent and paternalistic scientist
(b) Popularizations of science are always to some degree dependent idealizations and
simplifications of that science, as Isaac Asimov’s work demonstrates
(c) The impossibility of the conceit on which Isaac Asimov’s Foundation trilogy is based
demonstrates that Asimov’s fiction was based on imperfect understandings of science.
(d) Isaac Asimov’s idealization of science as revealed in his Foundation series was called into
question by the science of his time, which was increasingly focused on chaos and indeterminacy.
147. Which one of the following statements most accurately expresses the purpose of the final
paragraph?
(a) The ultimate failure of the Foundation series as a coherent scientific narrative is discussed
(b) A claim is made about the purpose of Asimov’s writing and then is finally rejected
(c) A key theme of Asimov’s Foundation series is described and discoveries in science that seem
contrary to that theme are outlined
(d) The history of science is used to demonstrate the falsity of a widely believed claim about
the power of human reason.
148. The author’s reference to a common claim made about Isaac Asimov, serves to
(a) Demonstrate that many untrue beliefs are held about him
(b) Illustrate the broad scope of his interests and writings
(c) Undermine the claim that he was a prolific writer
(d) Substantiate his belief in the power of human reason.
149. With respect to the Seldon Plan, the author’s attitude can most properly be described as
(a) Amused at the naive conception of history it implies
(b) Uncertain of the practical impossibility of its application
(c) Ambivalent because of the reliance on human reason it requires
(d) Convinced that it illustrates Asimov’s attitude toward science.
150. Which one of the following statements best illustrates the “butterfly effect” as it is described in the
passage’s third paragraph?
(a) A system implemented to predict the weather worldwide for the next century is soon found to
be inaccurate because it was supplied with incomplete data
(b) Efforts to predict the result of a nuclear reaction fail because of indeterminacy inherent in the
behavior of subatomic particles
(c) The fossil record indicates that certain adaptations found in many organisms appeared
soon after a past catastrophic event
20
(d) Scientific predictions about the future course of human history are found to be reasonably
accurate once existing social theories are reconciled.
AILET 2008 Answers

1 C 31 C 61 D 91 B 121 C
2 D 32 A 62 D 92 B 122 C
3 B 33 C 63 A 93 D 123 B
4 D 34 C 64 C 94 A 124 D
5 B 35 D 65 B 95 A 125 B
6 D 36 D 66 B 96 C 126 A
7 D 37 B 67 B 97 B 127 C
8 C 38 C 68 A 98 C 128 B
9 C 39 D 69 B 99 B 129 C
10 A 40 C 70 A 100 A 130 C
11 B 41 A 71 A 101 C 131 D
12 B 42 D 72 D 102 B 132 A
13 B 43 C 73 D 103 B 133 A
14 B 44 B 74 D 104 D 134 B
15 C 45 D 75 C 105 A 135 D
16 C 46 A 76 D 106 C 136 D
17 C 47 D 77 C 107 C 137 C
18 B 48 D 78 A 108 B 138 A
19 D 49 D 79 B 109 B 139 C
20 D 50 C 80 D 110 D 140 B
21 A 51 B 81 B 111 B 141 D
22 C 52 C 82 C 112 D 142 D
23 B 53 D 83 A 113 A 143 D
24 A 54 C 84 B 114 A 144 D
25 C 55 A 85 B 115 D 145 A
26 B 56 C 86 C 116 A 146 D
27 B 57 A 87 B 117 C 147 C
28 A 58 D 88 C 118 B 148 B
29 C 59 D 89 C 119 C 149 D
30 D 60 C 90 C 120 B 150 B
21
AILET 2009
Directions: Choose the most appropriate word:
1. He is of spelling reforms.
(a) a protagonist (b) an advocate (c) an envoy (d) a champion
2. Negotiable : cheque ::
(a) Frozen: Asset (b) Inventory: Merchandise
(c) Bank: Money (d) Trade: Tariff
3. Hedger : Shrubbery :: ? : Stick

(a) Snuffer (b) Cougher (c) Whittler (d) Stickler.
4. Honour : Governor :: ? : Duke

(a) Excellency (b) Majesty (c) Highness (d) Grace.
Directions: The sentences in the middle of a passage have been removed. You are provided with the
beginning and the end of the passage and the other sentences in a jumbled order. You are to choose
the correct order that will make the passage complete and coherent.
5. 1. When Mrs. Bates came down, the room was strangely empty, with a tension of expectancy.
P. Meantime her anger was turned pale with fear.
Q. She took up her sewing and stitched for some time without raising her head.
R. She rushed to the stair door and opened it, listening.
S: The clock struck eight and she rose suddenly, dropping her sewing on the chair.
6. Then she went out, locking the door behind her.
(a) SQPR (b) QPSR (c) SRQP (d) PRSQ.
6. 1. Above all,
P. in the present age of light reading
Q: it is well if something heavier is cast now and then
R: of reading hastily and thoughtlessly
S: that is,
6. into the midst of the reading public.
22
(a) PQRS (b) PSRQ (c) PRQS (d) QSRP
Directions: In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning
to the Bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
7. Ductile
(a) virtuous (b) grotesque (c) contentious (d) stubborn.
8. The Prime Minister’s radio broadcast galvanised the people’s spirit.

(a) destructed (b) frightened (c) distracted (d) dampened
Directions: In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to
the Bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
9. Obsequious
(a) poor (b) cheerful (c) servile (d) sullen.
10. Dialectic
(a) argumentative (b) instructive (c) constructive (d) destructive.
Directions: In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find
out which part of the sentence has an error.
11. He not only denied/(a) having borrowed money from me,/(b) but also having ever met me./(c)
No error/(d).
12. The running party stood /(a) for implementation of the Bill/(b) and was ready to stake their
political existence./(c) No error/(d).
13. If I were he,/(a) I should not/b) accept the post./(c) No error/(d).
Directions: In this question a paragraph with many numbered blank spaces is given. In case of all
the spaces, some phrases for filling up, are suggested.
The candidate is to pick up the correct response.
14 evening we decided to 15 camp as the weather was not encouraging. The wind
was high and 16 storm clouds 17 a wild wet night. Moreover we ___18 ____ at a
spot which looked 19 for a camp. A level 20 in the lee of a high hill 21_____
some shelter from the wind; fresh water was near 22 in a storm which flowed across the
plain; a __ 23 of trees provided adequate supplies of fuel; and the dry grass which
_____24_____ on the hill side would enhance the comfort of our beds. Each member of the party
25 a task. Some erected the tents; others prepared a scanty meal; yet others 26_____
to the needs of the ponies, now exhausted after a very strenuous day. As the angry sun sank, the
bustle of activity was hushed into silence and each man 27 down to sleep.
14. (a) At the (b) After the (c) In the (d) Before.
15. (a)dig (b) fixed (c) plant (d) pitch.
16. (a)collecting (b) gathering (c) accumulating (d) moving.
17. (a)preceded (b) proceeded (c) predicted (d) proved.
18. (a)arrived (b) have arrived (c) would arrive (d) had arrived.
19. (a) promise (b) promiseful (c) promising (d) prosperous.
20. (a)expense (b) land (c) expanse (d) piece of land.
21. (a)gave (b) afforded (c) supplied (d) cast.
22. (a)in hand (b) on hand (c) at hand (d) of hand.
23. (a)group (b) cluster (c) collection (d) grove.
24. (a)abundant (b) luxuriant (c) abounded (d) abounded in.
25. (a)allotted (b) was allotted (c) had allotted (d) has allotted.
23
26. (a)will attend (b) had attended (c) attended (d) would have attended.
27. (a)settled (b) settles (c) laid (d) lay.
28. At a particular speed, a bus starts vibrating violently due to the phenomenon of
(a) Pitch (b) Resonance (c) Rumbling (d) None of the above.
29. When a bullet is fired upward vertically, it gains in

(a) Speed (b) Acceleration (c) Kinetic energy (d) Potential energy.
30. The metal that is most abundant in the earth is

(a) Silicon (b) Iron (c) Aluminium (d) Nickel.
31. A motorcycle passing by disturbs radio and TV reception. The disturbance is caused because
(a) Intense sound waves shake the delicate electronic components of the receiver
(b) Metallic parts of the vehicle deflect the radio waves
(c) The sparking in the spark-plug of the vehicle generates electromagnetic radiation
(d) Modern motorcycle contains an electronic ignition system which emits radio waves.
32. Match the following scientists with their contributions:

(a) Weismann I. Theory of Mutation
(b) Darwin II. Principle of Independent Assortment
(c) Mendal III. Theory of Evolution
(d) Hugo-de-varis IV. Continuity of Germplasm
(a) I- (a) II-(b) III-(c) IV-(d)

(b) I- (b) II-(c) III-(d) IV-(a)
(c) I- (d) II-(c) III-(a) IV-(b)
(d) I-(d) II-(c) III-(b) IV-(a).
33. Who was the first Sultan of Delhi to introduce the practice of ‘Sijda’?
(a) Balban (b) Muhammad Tughlaq (c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Firoz Tughlaq.
34. Which of the following is rightly regarded as a milestone in the field of education in India?
(a) Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch (b) Stanley’s Despatch
(c) Hunter Commission Report (d) University Commission.
35. A Public Works Department was set up in India by

(a) Lord Dalhousie (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Warren Hastings (d) Lord William Bentinck.
36. The Theory of Economic Drain from India to England was propounded by
(a) R.C. Dutt (b) B.GTilak (c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) L.K. Jha.
37. The Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress held in September 1920, passed a
resolution which led to the
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement (b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Home Rule Movement (d) Quit India Movement.
38. A cyclone is a system of wind in which the wind blows spirally

(a) towards the centre of low pressure (b) towards central region of high pressure
(c) towards a region of low pressure (d) outwards from a central region of high pressure.
39. Contour bunding is used

(a) to stop the winds in sandy deserts (b) to irrigate desert areas
(c) to prevent erosion in hilly areas (d) None of the above.
24
40. Which of the following is not a closed sea?

(a) Caspian sea (b) Aral sea (c) Black sea (d) Red sea.
41. If Greenwich Mean Time is ahead by 12 hours, the place may be (1° = 4 minutes)
(a) 180° West (b) 180° East (c) 90° West (d) None of these.
42. The orbit of the earth is an ellipse and not a circle. The distance between earth and sun thus
varies. On January 3, earth is closest to the sun (Perihelion). Similarly, earth is said to be at Aphelion,
when it is farthest from the sun on
(a) March, 23 (b) July, 4 (c) December, 23 (d) April, 21.
43. What is the meaning of ‘Gilt edged market’?

(a) Market in Government securities (b) Market of smuggled goods
(c) Market of auctioned goods (d) None of the above.
44. “Reduction in rate of taxation leads to more than proportionate increase in tax yield”. This law is
known as
(a) Giffins Effect (b) Laffer Effect (c) Gresham’s Law (d) None of the above.
45. The VDIS -Voluntary Disclosure of Income Scheme was the brainchild of
(a) P. Chidambaram (b) Ram Jethmalani
(c) Atal Behari Vajpayee (d) Sonia Gandhi.
46. A company is said to be ‘Sick’ when the accumulated loss at the end of any financial year
leads to erosion of _________ percent of its net wealth.
(a) 100% (b) 75% (c) 50% (d) 25%.
47. Gunnar Myrdal has dealt with the problem of Asian countries in her book ASIAN DRAMA
regarding
(a) poverty (b) modern industries
(c) military dictatorship (d) neo-colonialism
48. Wealth tax on agricultural property is levied by

(a) Central Government (b) State Governments
(c) Both Central and State Governments (d) None of the above.
49. One of the following statements was not among the Simon Commission’s recommendations:
(a) Dyarchy to be abolished in the provinces
(b) Reconstitution of the Central Legislature
(c) Establishment of the Provincial Public Service Commission for all Provinces
(d) Indian Council is not needed to advice the Secretary of State for India.
50. Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4.
51. There were ____ Articles and ____ Schedules in the draft of the Constitution of India.
(a) 315, eight (b) 319, nine (c) 327, ten (d) 317 nine.
52. The Indian National Congress asserted in _____ that India would not accept any constitution
made by anyone other than people of India and without outside interference.
(a) 1942 (b) 1936 (c) 1927 (d) 1935.
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53. Almost all political parties participated and contributed their share in the formation of Indian
Constitution. Which one of the following party was not associated with the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Communist Party of India (b) Indian National Congress
(c) Hindu Mahasabha (d) Scheduled Castes Freedom.
54. The expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India for which the approval of Parliament is
not necessary, according to the Constitution of India, is called
(a) Charged Expenditure (b) Extra Expenditure
(c) Special Provision Fund (d) None of these.
55. Proclamation of Emergency on the ground of internal disturbance was, for the first time made in
(a) 1971 (b) 1972 (c) 1974 (d) 1975.
56. Which one of the following conditions regarding acquisition of citizenship by naturalisation has
been wrongly listed?
(a) He belongs to a country where citizens of India are permitted to acquire citizenship by
naturalisation
(b) He has been residing in India or serving the Government of India for at least 10 years
preceding the date of application
(c) He possesses workable knowledge of an Indian language
(d) He has consistently supported the Indian cause at various national and international forums.
57. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Right to Private Property was incorporated in the Constitution by the Forty-Second
Amendment
(b) The Right to Private Property was granted by the original Constitution but it has since
been removed from the list of Fundamental Rights
(c) The Right to Private Property was never a Fundamental Right, under the Indian Constitution
(d) The Right to Private Property which was granted by the original Constitution has been
made more sacrosanct by the Forty-Fourth Amendment.
58. Which one of the following Directive Principles is non-Gandhian?

(a) Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas
(b) Prohibition of the use of intoxicants except for medicinal purposes
(c) Prevention of slaughter of cow, calves and other milch cattle
(d) Provision of free and compulsory education for all the children up to the age of fourteen years.
59. Which one of the following steps cannot be taken by the President during the Financial
Emergency?
(a) He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such canons of financial propriety
as he deems desirable
(b) He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens
(c) He can order reduction of salaries and allowances of all civil servants
(d) He can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.
60. A death sentence by a lower court

(a) Must be confirmed by High Court
(b) Must be confirmed by Supreme Court
(c) Is operational if no appeal is made to higher courts
(d) Must be confirmed by the President.
61. How many members are required to support the introduction of a No-Confidence Motion in the
Lok Sabha?
(a) Two-thirds of the membership of the House (b) 50 members
(c) 80 members (d) 60 members.
26
62. The decision of a High Court is

(a) Binding on other High Courts (b) Not binding on other High Courts
(c) Occasionally binding on other High Courts (d) Of no value for other High Courts.
63. Irresistible impulse is

(a) not covered under insanity
(b) covered under insanity
(c) covered under certain specified circumstances
(d) covered under circumstances leading to certain consequences.
64. The Supreme Court in its judgement held that non-payment of minimum wages is a type
of forced labour.
(a) Asiad Workers case (b) Minerva Mills case
(c) Lokhandwala Mills case (d) T. Krishnamachari case.
65. X duly posts a letter of acceptance to V. But the letter is lost in transit by the negligence of the
Post Office.
(a) There is no contract concluded because the acceptance has not reached the proposer
(b) There is no contract concluded because the proposer had not received the letter
(c) The contract is concluded because the acceptance is complete from the date of dispatch,
notwithstanding any delay or miscarriage in its arrival from causes not within the acceptor’s control
(d) None of these.
66. Ramesh asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at a price less than that of market price.
This contract can be avoided by the servant on the ground of
(a) fraud (b) mistake (c) undue influence (d) coercion.
67. In book depot, a catalogue of books enlisting the price of each book and specifying the place
where the particular book is available is
(a) an invitation to offer
(b) an offer
(c) an invitation to visit the book shop
(d) just a promise to make available the particular book at a particular place at the listed price
68. Mark the incorrect answer:

The main purpose of the Law of Contract is
(a) The satisfaction of human desires in the highest practicable degree
(b) where there are conflicting human interests and desires, by establishing a judicial and
administrative system that acts with reasonable degree of uniformity
(c) to do something in accordance with the norm of prescribed law
(d) All of the above.
69. Frustration of contract implies

(a) commercial hardship
(b) physical impossibility due to disappearance of the subject matter of the contract or the object
has failed to materialize.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
70. With the approval of the Parliament the National Emergency can continue for
(a) a maximum period of three years (b) a maximum period of one year
(c) an indefinite period (d) a maximum period of six months.
71. Libel is addressed to the eye; slander to the ear. State which of the following statements are
slander:
(a) Slanderous words uttered by the characters on the dramatic stage
27
(b) Slanderous words uttered by the characters on the cinema screen

(c) Abuses recorded in the gramophone disc
(d) Both (b) and (c).
72. Choose the correct statement: Doctrine of double jeopardy means

(a) a person should not be punished more than once for the same offence
(b) a person should be punished more than once for the same offence
(c) a man may be put twice in peril for the same offence
(d) a man may commit the same offence twice but will get punishment once only.
73. What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”. This statement epitomises the doctrine of
(a) pith and substance (b) implied powers
(c) ancillary powers (d) colourable legislation.
74. The 39th Amendment laid that election of any person to Lok Sabha holding the office of Prime
Minister cannot be challenged before a Court of Law, but only before an authority established
by Parliament. This was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in
(a) Keshvananda Bharti Case (b) Maneka Gandhi Case
(c) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain Case (d) None of the above.
75. The Janata Party Government of Morarjee Desai constituted ________ to find out the truth
about the excesses committed by the Indira Gandhi Government during emergency (1975-77)
(a) Shahbano Commission (b) Jagmohan Commission
(c) Shah Commission (d) Nayyar Commission.
76. Public holidays are declared under
(a) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (b) Contract Act, 1872
(c) Public Employees Act, 1967 (d) None of the above.
77. According to law, the maximum number of people who can form a partnership firm is
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) No limit.
78. A Hindu wife can marry immediately after divorce. A Muslim wife
(a) can also marry immediately (b) has to wait till period of Iddat (seclusion) is over
(c) has to wait for one year (d) None of the above.
79. Sometimes, an accused seeks pardon from the court and offers to give evidence against all
others involved in a crime. He is called
(a) witness (b) clone (c) approver (d) accomplice.
80. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the minimum compensation to be awarded in case of
death (vide 1994 amendment) is
(a) Rs. 25,000 (b) Rs. 30,000 (c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 50,000.
81. What is the legal meaning of the word ‘Battery’?

(a) Cells, as used in torch, tape recorder etc.
(b) Battering a person to death
(c) Actual or intended striking of another person
(d) Assault resulting in, at least, 6 months’ hospitalisation.

(A) Malfeasance I. One who falsely pretends to be sick
(B) Malingerer II. Minor offences
(C) Misdemeanour III. Improper performance of legal duty
(D) Misfeasance IV. Doing an unlawful act
(a) I-A II-B III-C IV-D (b) I-B lI-C III-D IV-A
28
(c) I-C II-D III-A IV-B (d) I-D II-A IIl-B IV-C.
83. Once appointed, judges of Supreme Court serve till they attain the age of
(a) 62 years (b) 63 years (c) 64 years (d) 65 years.
84. Gangaram is a wood-cutter. He earns his livelihood by cutting forest trees in Nainital,
Uttaranchal. The State of Uttaranchal makes a law prohibiting the cutting of forest trees. Is Gangaram’s
Constitutional Right infringed?
(a) Yes. Because he may not like to do any other job to earn his bread and butter
(b) No. Because the Government is sovereign and can make any law
(c) Yes. Because he has a fundamental right to life and livelihood under Article 21 of the
Constitution and the Government cannot snatch away his bread and butter by making such a law
(d) No. Because the Government has power to make a law for prohibiting the cutting of forest
trees under Article 48A of the Constitution.
85. Culpable homicide means causing death

(a) with the intention of causing death
(b) with the intension of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death
(c) with the knowledge that by such act death is likely to be caused
(d) All the above.
86. X takes away a girl out of the custody of her lawful guardians. Which of the following
statements is a complete defence if X is charged under section 361 of the Indian Penal Code for
kidnapping on the ground that the girl was below the age of eighteen years when taken away?
(a) The girl was a student in a college and could understand what was right or wrong for her
(b) The girl was mistreated by the guardians and X promised her a better life
(c) The girl looked more than 18 years of age and the accused had satisfied himself that she
was more than 18 years of age
(d) None of these.
Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the
principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
87. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premises owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Laloo was running a dairy from his house. People used a part of his farm as a
short cut to get to a nearby railway station. Laloo who did not approve of this, put up a notice that
‘Trespassers will be prosecuted’. However, since a number of these people were also his customers, he
tolerated them. One day, a person who was using this short cut was attacked by a bull belonging to the
farm. The injured person filed a suit against him.
DECISION:
(a) Laloo is liable for having kept a bull on his farm
(b) Laloo is not liable in view of the clear notice against trespassers
(c) Laloo is liable because in fact he allowed the people to use his premises
(d) Laloo is not liable to the people other than his customers.
Directions: In each of the following questions, a series of letters or numbers has been arranged in
some sequence. Below each are given alternative responses. Find out the correct response.
88. 2, 6, 14, 11, 15, 23, 20, 24, ______, 29

(a) 31 (b) 29 (c) 28 (d) 32.
89. 97, 86, 73, ________ ,45, 34

(a) 54 (b) 56 (c) 58 (d) 60.
29
90. MOQ, SUM, YAC,

(a) FIL (b) DHJ (c) EGI (d) XAD.
91. KWZ, MOX, OIV, QET,

(a) SAQ (b) SUR (c) RAP (d) SCR.
Directions: The following five (5) items consist of two Statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion A’ and the
other labelled the Reason R. You are to examine these two Statements carefully and decide if the
Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so whether the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark
your answer accordingly.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
92. Assertion (A): A stranger to a contract has no right to enforce it against the parties to the
contract.
Reason (R): Privity of contract between the parties is essential for enforcement of contract.
93. Assertion (A): A finder of a thing has title to it.

Reason (R): The finder’s title to a thing is superior to that of the owner.
94. Assertion (A): A minor is not competent to enter into any contract, even for necessaries.
Reason (R): For necessaries supplied to a minor, his estate can be made liable to reimburse.
95. Assertion (A): A legal right is a legally protected interest.

Reason (R): An element of advantage is essential to constitute a right.
96. Assertion (A): Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of people.
Directions: In each of the following questions one statement is followed by two arguments (A) and (B)
one supporting and the other against it.
Mark.
(a) If only argument (A) is strong
(b) If only argument (B) is strong
(c) If either (A) or (B) is strong
(d) If both (A) and (B) are strong.
97. Statement: Should India adopt a Presidential system? Arguments:

(A) Yes – Because our experience of Parliamentary democracy is disappointing.
(B) No – Because it will concentrate power in the hands of a few people.
98. Statement: Should the death sentence be abolished? Arguments:

(A) Yes – The death sentence deprives the culprit of all chances of improving his behaviour.
(B) No – Capital punishment restrains criminal tendency.
Directions: In the following question, a statement is followed by two conclusions (A) and (B). You have
to assume everything in the statement to be true, and consider both the conclusions together, and then
decide which of the two given conclusions logically follow beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement. Mark.
(a) if only conclusion (A) follows (b) if only conclusion (B) follows
(c) If either (A) or (B) follows (d) If neither (A) nor (B) follows.
30
99. Statement: The greatest advantage of democracy over all other forms of governments is not
that the men who have gone to the top are exceptionally wise, but that since their power depends upon
popular support, they know that they cannot retain their position if they are guilty of more than a
modicum of injustice.
Conclusions:
(A) In a democracy, persons in power cannot act arbitrarily.
(B) Democratic countries cannot have excellent leaders.
100. I go 100 metres towards North from my house, then I turn left and go 200 metres, then turning
left I go 200 metres, then again turning left I go 100 metres, and then turning left again I go 100 metres.
In which direction am I now from my house?
(a) West (b) East (c) North (d) South.
Directions: Some information is provided in the form of statements. On the basis of that information
find the answer to the questions which follow.
1. A cube has six sides each of a different colour
2. The red side is opposite black
3. The green side is between red and black
4. The blue side is adjacent to white
5. The brown side is adjacent to blue
6. The red side is face down.
101. The side opposite to brown is

(a) Red (b) Black (c) White (d) Green.
102. The four colours adjacent to green are

(a) Red, Black, Blue and White (b) Red, Black, Brown and Blue
(c) Red, Black, Brown and White (d) Black, Blue, White and Red.
103. K is L’s wife’s husband’s brother. M is the sister of K.N is the sister of L. How is K related to L?
(a) Sister-in-law (b) Brother (c) Daughter (d) Wife.
104. Atul is the son of Zamir. Alka is the daughter of Aman. Sheela is the wife of Aman. Mohan is
the son of Sheela. How is Alka related to Mohan?
(a) Sister (b) Uncle (c) Son (d) Father.
Five adults A, B, C, D and E are sitting at Bharat Provision Store. In the group, there is one Manager,
one Accountant, one Supplier of provisions. The Accountant, who has a child earns least money. A,
who is married to C’s sister, earns more than the Manager. D is an unmarried lady and does not do any
work. There is one married couple in a group of which B is husband, E is the brother of C and is neither
a Supplier nor an Accountant. No lady is a Supplier or Manager. C is neither a Supplier nor an
Accountant.
105. Who is Accountant?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
106. Who is Supplier?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
107. Who is the wife of B?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E
108. Who is earning the highest?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
109. Who is the sister of C?
(a) A (b) B (c) E (d) D
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110. It is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the fourth, and the eleventh letters of
word ‘CONTROVERSIAL’ write the first letter of that word.
(a) I (b) N (c) S (d) T
111. If (a) ‘Chip din chunk’ means student attends class;

(b) ‘din sunk dink’ means Arjuna is student;
(c) ‘jump nink sink’ means schools are good;
(d) ‘dink mup chimp’ means teacher is good, then what is the code for Arjuna?
(a) din (b) sunk (c) dink (d) chunk.
Directions: In the following groups one does not belong to that group. Find the odd one.
112. (a) Cheese (b) Saffron (c) Pepper (d) Lard.
113. (a) Hansom (b) Victoria (c) Growler (d) Baroque.
Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or
passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question.
However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely
answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards
implausible, superfluous or incompatible with the passage.
Consumer advocate: Businesses are typically motivated primarily by the desire to make as great a profit
as possible, and advertising helps businesses to achieve this goal. But it is clear that the motive of
maximizing profits does not impel businesses to present accurate information in their advertisements. It
follows that consumers should be sceptical of the claims made in advertisements.
114. Each of the following, if true, would strengthen the consumer advocate’s argument EXCEPT
(a) Businesses know that they can usually maximize their profits by using inaccurate information
in their advertisements
(b) Businesses have often included inaccurate information in their advertisements
(c) Many consumers have a cynical attitude toward advertising
(d) Those who create advertisements are less concerned with the accuracy than with the
creativity of advertisements.
Science columnist: It is clear why humans have so many diseases in common with cats. Many human
diseases are genetically based, and cats are genetically closer to humans than are any other mammals
except non-human primates. Each of the genes identified so far in cats has an exact counterpart in
humans.
115. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the science columnist’s explanation for the
claim that humans have so many diseases in common with cats?
(a) Cats have built up resistance to many of the diseases they have in common with humans
(b) Most diseases that humans have in common with cats have no genetic basis
(c) Cats have more diseases in common with nonhuman primates than with humans
(d) Many of the diseases humans have in common with cats are mild and are rarely
diagnosed.
Psychologist: It is well known that becoming angry often induces temporary incidents of high blood
pressure. A recent study further showed, however, that people who are easily angered are significantly
more likely to have permanently high blood pressure than are people who have more tranquil
personalities. Coupled with the long-established fact that those with permanently high blood pressure are
especially likely to have heart disease, the recent findings indicate that heart disease can result from
psychological factors.
116. Which one of the following would, if true, most weaken the psychologist’s argument?
32
(a) Those who are easily angered are less likely to recover fully from episodes of heart disease
than are other people
(b) Medication designed to control high blood pressure can greatly affect the moods of those
who use it
(c) People with permanently high blood pressure who have tranquil personalities virtually never
develop heart disease
(d) The physiological factors that cause permanently high blood pressure generally make
people quick to anger.
A professor of business placed a case-study assignment for her class on her university’s computer
network. She later found out that instead of reading the assignment on the computer screen, 50 out of
the 70 students printed it out on paper. Thus, it is not the case that books delivered via computer will
make printed books obsolete.
117. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?
(a) Several colleagues of the professor have found that, in their non-business courses, several
of their students behave similarly in relation to assignments placed on the computer network
(b) Studies consistently show that most computer users will print reading material that is more
than a few pages in length rather than read it on the computer screen
(c) Some people get impaired vision from long periods of reading printed matter on computer
screens, even if they use high quality computer screens
(d) Scanning technology is very poor, causing books delivered via computer to be full of
errors unless editors carefully read the scanned versions.
Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. Choose the
response that most accurately and completely answers each question.
A panel reviews six contract bids – H, J, K, R, S, and T. No two bids have the same cost. Exactly one
of the bids is accepted. The following conditions must hold:
1. The accepted bid is either K or R and is either the second or the third lowest in cost
2. H is lower in cost than each of J and K
3. If J is the fourth lowest in cost, then J is higher in cost than each of S and T
4. If J is not the fourth lowest in cost, then J is higher in cost than each of S and T
5. Either R or S is the fifth lowest in cost.
118. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the bids in order from lowest to highest
in cost?
(a) T, K, H, S, J, R (b) H, T, K, S, R, J
(c) H, S, T, K, R, J (d) H, K, S, J, R, T
119. Which one of the following bids CANNOT be the fourth lowest in cost?
(a) H (b) J (c) K (d) R
120. Which one of the following bids CANNOT be the second lowest in cost?
(a) H (b) J (c) K (d) R
Detectives investigating a citywide increase in burglaries questioned exactly seven suspects – S, T, V,

W, X, Y and Z – each on a different one of seven consecutive days. Each suspect was questioned exactly
once. Any suspect who confessed did so while being questioned. The investigation conformed to the
following:
1. T was questioned on day three.

2. The suspect questioned on day four did not confess.
3. S was questioned after W was questioned.
4. Both X and V were questioned after Z was questioned.
33
5. No suspects confessed after W was questioned.

6. Exactly two suspects confessed after T were questioned.
121. Which one of the following could be true?

(a) X was questioned on day one (b) V was questioned on day two
(c) Z was questioned on day four (d) W was questioned on day five
122. If Z was the second suspect to confess, then each of the following statements could be true
EXCEPT:
(a) T confessed (b) T did not confess (c) V did not confess (d) Y did not confess.
123. Find the least number that when divided by 16, 18 and 20 leaves a remainder 4 in each case,
but is completely divisible by 7.
(a) 364 (b) 2254 (c) 2884 (d) 3234
124. The average age of three boys is 15 years. If their ages are in the ratio 3:5:7, the age of
the youngest boy is
(a) 21 years (b) 18 years (c) 15 years (d) 9 years.
125. A’s salary is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. The result is the same as
B’s salary increased by 20% and then reduced by 25%. Find the ratio of B’s salary to that of A’s?
(a) 4:3 (b) 11 : 10 (c) 10 : 9 (d) 12 : 11.
126. A man sells 5 articles for Rs. 15 and makes a profit of 20%. Find his gain or loss percent if he
sells 8 such articles for Rs. 18.40.
(a) 2.22% profit (b) 2.22% loss (c) 8% loss (d) 8% profit.
127. What is the simple interest for 9 years on a sum of Rs. 800 if the rate of interest for the first
4 years is 8% per annum and for the last 4 years is 6% per annum?
(a) 400 (b) 392 (c) 352 (d) Cannot be determined.
128. In Ramnagar Colony, the ratio of school going children to non-school going children is 5 : 4. If
in the next year, the number of non-school going children is increased by 20%, making it 35,400, what
is the new ratio of school going children to non-school going children?
(a) 4:5 (b) 3:2 (c) 25 : 24 (d) None of these.
129. Amar and Akbar left Bhubaneshwar simultaneously and travelled towards Cuttack. Amar’s speed
was 15 km/h and that of Akbar was 12 km/h. Half an hour later, Anthony left Bhubaneshwar and travelled
in the same direction. Sometime later, he overtook Akbar and 90 minutes further on he overtook Amar.
Find Anthony’s speed.
(a) 18 kmph (b) 24 kmph (c) 12 kmph (d) 16 kmph.
130. Five boys and three girls are sitting in a row of eight seats. In how many ways can they be
seated so that not all girls sit side by side?
(a) 36,000 (b) 45,000 (c) 24,000 (d) None of these.
131. A bag contains 5 red, 4 green and 3 black balls. If three balls are drawn out of it at random,
find the probability of drawing exactly 2 red balls.
(a) 7/22 (b) 10/33 (c) 7/12 (d) 7/11.
132. Ajit can do as much work in 2 days as Baljit can do in 3 days and Baljit can do as much in 4 days
as Diljit in 5 days. A piece of work takes 20 days if all work together. How long would Baljit take to do all
the work by himself?
(a) 82 days (b) 44 days (c) 66 days (d) 50 days.
133. “Project Tiger” was launched in
34
(a) 1973 (b) 1974 (c) 1978 (d) 1981.
134. Which of the following fighter aircraft was flown by former President Pratibha Patil?
(a) F-16 (b) MI-30 (c) Jaguar (d) Sukhoi-30MKI.
135. The name “Baichung Bhutia” is associated with

(a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Polo (d) Cricket.
136. The Chairperson of the National Human Right Commission of India during 2017-19 was
(a) K.G. Balakrishnan (b) H. L. Dattu (c) J.S. Verma (d) A.S. Anand.
137. The present Secretary General of United Nations Organisation is

(a) B.B.Ghali (b) Ban Ki-Moon (c) Antonio Guterres (d) Kofi Annan.
138. Who is the author of the book “My Life”?

(a) Bill Clinton (b) Tony Blair (c) Hillary Clinton (d) Dalai Lama.
139. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with

(a) Share Market (b) Investment of Gold
(c) Voluntary Retirement (d) Marriage without Dowry Benefits
140. National Disaster Management Authority is constituted under

(a) Natural Calamities Management Act, 2005 (b) Disaster Management Act, 2005
(c) Planning Commission Decision (d) Cabinet Decision.
141. Indian Airlines (New name: Air India) have redesigned their logo which is a graphic wheel.
This logo has been inspired from which one of the following?
(a) Khajuraho Temple (b) Sim Temple, Konark
(c) Mamallapuram Temples (d) Hampi Temples.
142. Who has been recently awarded Officer de La Legion’ Honor, the highest award of France?
(a) Rajesh Khanna (b) Raj Kumar
(c) Amitabh Bachchan (d) Dev Annand
Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on the passage. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Tor some of the questions, more than
one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;
that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions.
Most people acknowledge that not all governments have a moral right to govern and that there are
sometimes morally legitimate reasons for disobeying the law, as when a particular law prescribes
behaviour that is clearly immoral. It is also commonly supposed that such cases are special exceptions
and that, in general, the fact that something is against the law counts as a moral, as well as legal, ground
for not doing it; i.e., we generally have a moral duty to obey a law simply because it is the law. But the
theory known as philosophical anarchism denies this view, arguing instead that people who live under
the jurisdiction of governments have no moral duty to those governments to obey their laws. Some
commentators have rejected this position because of what they take to be its highly counter-intuitive
implications: (a) that no existing government is morally better than any other (since all are, in a sense,
equally illegitimate), and (2) that, lacking any moral obligation to obey any laws, people may do as they
please without scruple. In fact, however, philosophical anarchism does not entail these claims.
First, the conclusion that no government is morally better than any other does not follow from the claim
that nobody owes moral obedience to any government. Even if one denies that there is a moral obligation
to follow the laws of any government, one can still evaluate the morality of the policies and actions of
various governments. Some governments do more good than harm, and others more harm than good,
to their subjects. Some violate the moral rights of individuals more regularly, systematically, and seriously
35
than others. In short, it is perfectly consistent with philosophical anarchism to hold that governments vary
widely in their moral stature.
Second, philosophical anarchists maintain that all individuals have basic, non-legal moral duties to one
another-duties not to harm others in their lives, liberty, health, or goods. Even if governmental laws have
no moral force, individuals still have duties to refrain from those actions that constitute crimes in the
majority of legal systems (such as murder, assault, theft, and fraud). Moreover, philosophical anarchists
hold that people have a positive moral obligation to care for one another, a moral obligation that they
might even choose to discharge by supporting co-operative efforts by governments to help those in
need. And where others are abiding by established laws, even those laws derived from mere
conventions, individuals are morally bound not to violate those laws when doing so would endanger
others. Thus, if others obey the law and drive their vehicles on the right, one must not endanger them
by driving on the left, for, even though driving on the left is not inherently immoral, it is morally wrong to
deliberately harm the innocent.
(a) Some views that certain commentators consider to be implications of philosophical
anarchism are highly counter-intuitive
(b) Contrary to what philosophical anarchists claim, some governments are morally superior to
others and citizens under legitimate governments have moral obligations to one another
(c) It does not follow logically from philosophical anarchism that no government is morally better
than any other or that people have no moral duties toward one another
(d) Even if, as certain philosophical anarchists claim, governmental laws lack moral force, people
still have a moral obligation to refrain from harming one another.
144. The author identifies which one of the following as a commonly held belief?
(a) In most cases we are morally obligated to obey the law simply because it is the law
(b) All governments are in essence morally equal
(c) We are morally bound to obey only those laws we participate in establishing
(d) Most crimes are morally neutral, even though they are illegal.
145. The author’s stance regarding the theory of philosophical anarchism can most accurately be
described as one of
(a) ardent approval of most aspects of the theory
(b) apparent acceptance of some of the basic positions of the theory
(c) concerned pessimism about the theory’s ability to avoid certain extreme views
(d) hesitant rejection of some of the central features of the theory.
146. By attributing to commentators the view that philosophical anarchism has implications that are
“counter-intuitive”, the author most likely means that the commentators believe that
(a) the implications conflict with some commonly held belief
(b) there is little empirical^ evidence that the implications are actually true
(c) common sense indicates that philosophical anarchism does not have such implications
(d) the implications appear to be incompatible with each other.
147. Which one of the following scenarios most completely conforms to the view attributed to
philosophical anarchists in third paragraph?
(a) A member of a political party that is illegal in a particular country divulges the names of other
members because he fears legal penalties
(b) A corporate executive chooses to discontinue illegally when she learns that the chemicals
are contaminating the water supply
(c) A person who knows that a co-worker has stolen funds from their employer decides to do
nothing because the co-worker is widely admired
(d) A person neglects to pay her taxes, even though it is likely that she will suffer severe legal
penalties as a consequence, because she wants to use the money to finance a new business.
36
148. It can be inferred that the author would be most likely to agree that
(a) people are subject to more moral obligations than is generally held to be the case
(b) governments that are morally superior recognize that their citizens are not morally bound to
obey their laws
(c) one may have good reason to support the efforts of one’s government even if one has no moral
duty to obey its laws
(d) there are some sound arguments for claiming that most governments have a moral right
to require obedience to their laws.
149. The author’s discussion of people’s positive moral duty to care for one another function
primarily to
(a) demonstrate that governmental efforts to help those in need are superfluous
(b) suggest that philosophical anarchists maintain that laws that foster the common good are
extremely rare
(c) imply that the theoretical underpinnings of philosophical anarchies are inconsistent with certain
widely held moral truths
(d) indicate that philosophical anarchists recognise that people are subject to substantial moral
obligations.
150. In the passage, the author seeks primarily to

(a) describe the development and theoretical underpinnings of a particular theory
(b) establish that a particular theory conforms to the dictates of common sense
(c) argue that two necessary implications of a particular theory are morally acceptable
(d) defend a particular theory against its critics by showing that their arguments are mistaken.
AILET 2009 Answers

1 A 31 C 61 A 91 D 121 D
2 B 32 D 62 B 92 A 122 B
3 D 33 A 63 A 93 C 123 C
4 C 34 A 64 D 94 B 124 D
5 B 35 A 65 B 95 A 125 C
6 B 36 C 66 C 96 B 126 C
7 D 37 A 67 A 97 B 127 D
8 D 38 A 68 A 98 B 128 D
9 C 39 C 69 B 99 A 129 A
10 A 40 C 70 D 100 A 130 D
11 A 41 A 71 A 101 C 131 C
12 C 42 B 72 A 102 C 132 C
13 B 43 A 73 D 103 B 133 A
14 C 44 B 74 C 104 A 134 D
15 D 45 A 75 C 105 B 135 A
16 C 46 C 76 A 106 A 136 B
17 C 47 A 77 B 107 A 137 C
18 D 48 B 78 B 108 A 138 A
19 C 49 D 79 C 109 D 139 C
20 C 50 D 80 D 110 D 140 B
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21 B 51 A 81 C 111 B 141 B
22 C 52 B 82 B 112 B 142 C
23 D 53 D 83 D 113 D 143 D
24 C 54 A 84 D 114 A 144 A
25 B 55 D 85 D 115 B 145 C
26 C 56 C 86 A 116 C 146 C
27 D 57 B 87 D 117 D 147 B
28 B 58 D 88 D 118 B 148 C
29 D 59 B 89 C 119 B 149 D
30 C 60 A 90 C 120 A 150 D
AILET 2010
SECTION 1 – ENGLISH AND READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and answer the questions following it:
Artists should treat their art as art and take the process of making it as seriously as anyone takes their
chosen profession. Great skill and insight are required in order to create truly original art. Transforming an
idea or concept into a technically thought-provoking or emotion-arousing work of art in any medium is a
talent that few people possess. And there you have the “purist’s vision.”
Now if an artist wants to create art and never sell it, then he or she never has to worry about how to price
it. That artist can afford to be a “purist,” as you put it, produce art free of any encumbrances or concerns
about what the art world or anyone else might think, and avoid “prostituting” or “debasing” that art by
placing dollar values on it. But if you’re an artist who wants to sell your art or who has to sell it in order to
survive as an artist, you must use whatever tools are available to figure out how much it’s worth and how
best to sell it.
Let’s say you’re just starting out as an artist, you have little or no experience showing or selling your work,
and in a period of two minutes, you produce a pencil drawing on a piece of paper. You view this drawing
as highly significant in your evolution as an artist and rank its creation as the single most important creative
moment of your life. Consequently, you put a price of $20,000 on it because only for that amount of money
will you agree to part with such an important work of art. This is a “purist’s vision” approach to pricing as
opposed to a “realities of the marketplace” approach.
38
From a business standpoint, you’ll have an extremely difficult time selling your drawing, as you won’t be
able to justify the $20,000 price to real art buyers in the real art world. You have no track record of selling
art in that price range, and you have few or no shows, critical reviews, or supporting data from outside
sources indicating that your art has that kind of value or collectability in the marketplace. The overwhelming
majority of art buyers who have $20,000 to spend look for works of art by established artists with
documented track records of showing and selling art in that price range.
Your drawing is still highly significant to you, but what someone is willing to pay for it on the open market
is a matter for art buyers to decide. You can price it however you wish, but you can never force anyone to
buy it. That’s the way the art business works. So if you want to sell it, you have to figure out what dollar
amount someone is likely to pay for it on the open market and then price it at that amount. But the tale of
your drawing does not end here.
Returning for a moment to the concept of a purist artist who creates art and never sells it,
sooner or later (hopefully later), that purist will pass on and leave behind a body of work. Unless that artist
leaves specific instructions in his or her Will for that body of work to be destroyed, it will become subject
to those market forces that the artist strived for a life-time to avoid. At the very least, it’ll have to be
appraised for tax, donation, or inheritance purposes. In most cases, it eventually comes onto the market
either through a probable sale, an auction, or as represented by a dealer, gallery, or family member.
The moral of the story is that one way or another, someone somewhere at some point in time will use tried
and true methods to realistically price and either sell, donate, trade or otherwise transact any work of art
that comes onto the market in any way, shape, or form. I hope that that person will be you, the artist, and
that you’ll price your art according to what the market will bear, sell plenty of it, and have a long and
rewarding career.
Answer the following questions indicating your option for each question:
1. The purist’s art is

(a) one that arouses emotions
(b) thought-provoking
(c) technically sound
(d) free from any encumbrances or concerns about what the world or anyone else might think of it
2. The “realities of the marketplace” approach entails
(a) “prostituting” one’s art by putting a dollar price on it
(b) gauging the market value of one’s art and then putting a price on it
(c) compromising on one’s estimation of one’s own art as far as its worth in financial terms is concerned
(d) subjecting one’s art to the buyer’s interpretation of it
(a) Only (a)

(b) Only (b) and (d)
(c) (b), (c) and (d)
(d) only (b)
3. For an artist to sell his piece of art at a higher price range, he/she has to
(a) get endorsed by fellow artists and art critics
(b) hold exhibitions or shows
(c) gradually increase the collectability of his/her art in the market place
(d) all of the above
4. The first piece of an artist that comes out in the market is seen as
(a) his masterpiece
(b) the most collectible piece in his/her repertoire
(c) a blueprint to discern the author’s unique style and point of view
(d) the inspiration for all his subsequent work
39
5. From the point of view of the purist, the irony as far as pricing art is concerned is that
(A) a piece from his collection is eventually sold at the same price that he had estimated it to be its real
worth years earlier
(B) his art is subjected to the same market forces against which he strove his entire life
(C) “realities of the marketplace” is a concept that negates the very attributes that we associate with art-
whim, fancy and imagination
(a) only (A) (b) (A) and (B) (c) only (B) (d) (A), (B) and (C).
Directions (Questions 6 and 7): Each question consists of two capitalized words that have a certain
relationship to each other, followed by 4 pair of words. Choose the pair that is related to each other in the
same way as the capitalized pair.
6. ENCUMBRANCE : BURDEN
(a) Mnemonic : Memory (b) Blatant : Subtle
(c) Captious : Acrimonious (d) Feral : Cultured
7. SUBSEQUENT : PREVIOUS
(a) Significant : Inconsequential (b) Retrospect : Retrospective
(c) Visionary : Seer (d) Caption : Legend
8. The synonym of the word PRECIPITATE in the context of the passage is

(a) launch (b) trigger
(c) provoke (d) accelerate
Complete the sentences by filling in the blanks with the correct tenses from the given choices by
indicating your option for each question:
9. I wish you __________ louder as I can’t hear what you say.

(a) were speaking (b) spoke
(c) would speak (d) speak
10. The audience ________ to take their seats please.

(a) is requested (b) have requested
(c) may request (d) are requested
11. It ______ all day yesterday before the garden wall collapsed.
(a) rained (b) has been raining
(c) had rained (d) was raining
12. Each member of this grout ______ guilty.

(a) is (b) are
(c) is being (d) were
13. The Prime Minister _____ to visit the hospital tomorrow.

(a) will (b) is
(c) must (d) have
14. Last night the radio said that the volcano, Etna, in Sicily _______.
(a) will erupt (b) is erupting
(c) erupts (d) has to erupt
40
15. They say that the Princess _______ incognito at the Sheraton.
(a) have stayed (b) is staying
(c) stay (d) will have been staying
16. She _________ in Calcutta for a quarter of a century now.

(a) will live (b) lived
(c) has been living (d) had been living
17. When we went to their home, Sushma __________ some fresh coffee for us.
(a) made (b) has made
(c) will make (d) is making
18. Evidence shows that Jackson _______ inside the house at the time of the murder.
(a) was (b) is
(c) will be (d) has been
Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence from the given alternatives. Indicate your
option.
19. To answer accurately is more important than

(a) quick finish (b) finish quickly
(c) finishing quickly (d) you finish quickly
20. Professional people now-a-days appreciate _________ when it is necessary to cancel an

appointment.
(a) Your calling them (b) That you would call them
(c) You to call them (d) You are calling them
21. Who will _____ the children when their mother is in the hospital?
(a) look after (b) look for
(c) look up (d) look about
22. The teacher gives many examples to ________ the idea contained in the poem.
(a) bring about (b) bring in
(c) bring forth (d) bring out
23. That magnificent _________ temple was constructed by the Chinese.

(a) eight-centuries-old (b) eight-century’s-old
(c) old-eight-centuries (d) eight-century-old
24. Wheat is not native to India and Barley ______.

(a) isn’t either (b) is either
(c) is neither (d) isn’t neither
25. Encounters between people from different countries can result in misunderstanding _______
different concepts about space.
(a) because they (b) is because they
(c) is because their (d) because of their
Choose the correct answer which is closest in meaning to the word / phrase in Italics given in the
sentence. Indicate your option.
41
26. You may think at first that it is queer to talk of having too much paper money and that money is so
nice and useful that you cannot have too much of it.
(a) Ridiculous (b) Absurd
(c) Anomalous (d) Odd
27. The government is under no obligation to offer contracts to companies which choose to flout
guidelines.
(a) Condemn (b) Ignore
(c) Defy (d) Neglect
28. Indians exhibited a remarkable solidarity at the time of war.

(a) Coalition (b) Co-operation
(c) Unification (d) Unity
29. His impeccable style caught the attention of all critics.

(a) Faultless (b) Inoffensive
(c) Upright (d) Harmless
30. The inspector was a vigilant young man.

(a) Intelligent (b) Ambitious
(c) Watchful (d) Smart
31. The young is quite sanguine about the result of his competitive examination.
(a) Depressed (b) Pessimistic
(c) Anxious (d) Optimistic
32. It was a scurrilous attack on him.

(a) Serious (b) Unjustified
(c) Insulting (d) Justified
33. Both parties were amenable to a peaceful settlement of the land dispute.
(a) Unresponsive (b) Responsive
(c) Unwilling (d) Doubtful
In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase marked in Italics in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase from the
options given. Indicate your option
34. The neighbour had to pay through his nose for a brand-new car.
(a) Take huge loans (b) Pay a reasonable price
(c) Pay an extremely high price (d) Make a quick buck
35. If he phones again, I am going to give him a piece of my mind.

(a) To be nice to him (b) To take advantage of him
(c) To reprimand (d) To support him
SECTION B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

36. The 2013 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to
(a) A1 Gore (b) Jane Adams
(c) Mohammed Yunus (d) OPCW
37. The present Prime Minister of Bangladesh is

(a) Sheikh Hasina (b) Khaleda Zia
42
(c) Fazlul Haque (d) Fakhruddin Ahmed
38. The President of South Africa at present is

(a) Nelson Mandela (b) Cyril Ramaphosa
(c) Jacob Zuma (d) Kgalema Motlanthe
39. The former President who committed suicide in 2009 was
(a) Kim Jong II of North Korea (b) Maumoon Abdul Gayoom of Maldives
(c) Meghavati Sukarnoputri of Indonesia (d) Roh Moo-Hyun of South Korea
40. Who among the following has not won an Oscar?

(a) Resul Pookutty (b) Satyajit Ray
(c) Bhanu Athaiya (d) Dev Anand
41. The present Chief Election Commissioner of India is

(a) Nasim Zaidi (b) Achal Kiumar Jyoti
(c) Om Prakash Rawat (d) Sunil Arora
42. 76 CRPF jawans were killed recently by the Maoists in an ambush near
(a) Dantewada in Chattisgarh (b) Konarkhurd in Bihar
(c) Gadhchiroli in Maharashtra (d) Karimnagar in Andhra Pradesh
43. The National Dairy Research Institute in Haryana cloned a buffalo calf and named it as
(a) Gowri (b) Tusria
(c) Garima (d) Shakthi
44. The former Chief Justice of India who did not become the Chairperson of the National Human Rights
Commission is
(a) Justice Balakrishnan (b) Justice Anand
(c) Justice Lahoti (d) Justice Verma
45. The first sitting Head of the State to be charged with ‘War crimes and crimes against humanity’ by
the International Criminal Court is
(a) President Manuel Zelaya of Honduras (b) President Omar al-Bashir of Sudan
(c) President Siad Barre of Somalia (d) President Martin Torrijos of Panama
46. The former Chief Election Commissioner to be appointed as a Union Minister was
(a) Sukumar Sen (b) T. Swaminathan
(c) R.K. Trivedi (d) MS. Gill
47. India’s Imperial Capital was officially shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in
(a) 1912 (b) 1935
(c) 1947 (d) 1872
48. The first Women’s University was established in Pune during

(a) 1909 (b) 1928
(c) 1915 (d) 1968
49. How many official languages are mentioned in Schedule VIII to the Constitution of India?
(a) 18 (b) 22
(c) 14 (d) 28
50. The present Committee on Centre-State Relations in India is headed by

(a) Justice Punnchi (b) Justice Ahmedi
(c) Justice Anand (d) Justice Ruma Pal
43
51. In India, women were allowed to contest election and to public offices for the first time in
(a) 1909 (b) 1919
(c) 1935 (d) 1926
52. The recently constituted Telangana Committee by the Central Government is headed by
(a) Justice P.V. Reddy (b) Justice Sri Krishna
(c) Justice Venkatachala (d) Justice Banerjee
53. The Committee on Reforming Criminal Justice System in India was headed by
(a) Justice K.T. Thomas (b) Justice Krishna Iyer
(c) Justice V.S. Malimath (d) Justice Mohan
54. The first President of the Constituent Assembly of India established in 1946 was
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Sachidananda Sinha
(c) Rajagopalachari (d) B.R. Ambedkar
55. The Constitution of India was adopted on

(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 26 January, 1950
(c) 26 November, 1947 (d) 26 January, 1949
56. The film that won 14 Oscar nominations was

(a) Gandhi (b) Slumdog Millionaire
(c) Benhur (d) All About Eve
57. The first Indian to get a medal at the World Boxing Championship was
(a) Jayadev Bisht (b) Suvanjoy Singh
(c) Vijender Singh (d) Rajkumar Sangwan
58. At the London 2012 Olympics, the highest number of medals were won by
(a) China (b) USA
(c) Russia (d) Germany
59. If the Anglo-Indian Community is not adequately represented in the election, the President can
nominate to Lok Sabha from that community
(a) Not more than 5 (b) Not more than 2
(c) Not more than 1 (d) None
60. The right to Vote in India is a

(a) Constitutional right (b) Legal right
(c) Fundamental right (d) None
61. The maximum fine that the Central or State Information Commission can impose on a Public
Information Officer for not furnishing the information within the stipulated time is
(a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 15,000
(c) Rs. 25,000 (d) Rs. 30,000
62. Maximum number of gold medals won by an individual at Olympics in any event is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 8
63. The person who promoted the establishment of the International Committee of the Red Cross was
(a) Charles Dickens (b) Henri Dunant
(c) Henry Ford (d) Robert Frost
44
64. The first African to become the Secretary- General of United Nations was
(a) Kofi Annan (b) Dag Hammarskjold
(c) Boutros Boutros Ghali (d) U Thant
65. The present UN Secretary-General Ban Ki Moon is from

(a) South Korea (b) North Korea
(c) China (d) Mongolia
66. Who said that Swaraj is my birth right?

(a) M.K. Gandhi (b) Balgangadhar Tilak
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Mohammed Ali Jinnah
67. Which of the following States got separated from India in 1937?
(a) Pakistan (b) Sikkim
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Burma
68. The first woman Prime Minister was

(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Srimavo Bandaranaike
(c) Golda Meir (d) Elizabeth Domitien
69. The largest country in terms of territory is

(a) Russia (b) Canada (c) USA (d) China
70. The phrase ‘cloud computing’ means

(a) Delivery of hosted services over the internet
(b) Study of clouds to predict rains and thunderstorms
(c) Study of conditions of clouds for ‘cloud seeding’
(d) Use of different software for financial accounting
SECTION C : LEGAL APTITUDE
71. PRINCIPLE: An assault is an attempt to do a corporeal hurt to another, coupled with an apparent
present ability and intention to do that act. A battery is the intentional and direct application of any
physical force to the person of another.
A was sitting on a chair reading a book. His friend, B decided to play a practical joke on him.
Accordingly, he pulled the chair from under him, as a result of which A landed on the floor.
(a) B’s act amounts to a battery
(b) B’s act amounts to an assault
(c) B’s act amounts to an assault till the time A lands on the floor
(d) B’s act amounts to neither because there was no intention
72. PRINCIPLE: False imprisonment is a total restraint of the liberty of a person, for however short a
time, without lawful excuse. (Common for Q. Nos. 72 and 73)
A was driving down a road heading to her house. As she reached close to her house, she found that a
few people led by B, protesting against an unfair law had blocked the road. There was no alternate road
to her house and hence she was stuck there for around 5 minutes.
(a) B and his group are liable for having falsely imprisoned A
(b) B and his group are not liable for falsely imprisoning A, since they were exercising their right to
protest.
(c) B and his group are not liable for falsely imprisoning A, since they did not totally restrain the liberty of
A.
(d) B and his group are not liable for falsely imprisoning A, since 5 minutes is too short a time.
45
73. A was suspected of having committed the murder of B. C, a policeman who was investigating into
B’s murder, saw A in a market. He went up to him, caught hold of his hand and prevented him from
going anywhere.
(a) C is liable for having falsely imprisoned A, since to arrest a person, a policeman requires permission
from a Magistrate
(b) C is not liable for having falsely imprisoned A, since for the offence of murder, a policeman need not
take the permission of a Magistrate to arrest
(c) C is not liable for having falsely imprisoned A since the restraint was not total
(d) C is not liable for having falsely imprisoned A since he did not take him to a prison
74. PRINCIPLE: A libel is a publication of a false and defamatory statement tending to injure the
reputation of another person without lawful justification or excuse. A slander is a false and defamatory
statement by spoken words or gestures tending to injure the reputation of another.
A wrote a letter to B calling him a cheat. B’s clerk C opened the letter, as he normally did (a fact which
was known to A and placed it on B’s table. B alleges that A has committed libel.
(a) B will succeed since A has published a defamatory statement against A
(b) B will not succeed because it was not written in a newspaper
(c) B will not succeed because everyone knew that A was a cheat
(d) B will not succeed since A did not follow up the letter with a speech
75. PRINCIPLE: A Master is liable for the acts of his Servant as long as he can control the working of his
servant
A owned a taxi agency. She had hired B to drive one of her cars. On January 1, 2010, C called up A’s
taxi agency and asked for a car to drop him from his house to his place of work. On the way, because of
the driver’s negligence, the car hit a road divider and C was injured. He sued A for damages.
(a) A is not liable because A was not driving the car
(b) A is not liable because A was not in the car
(c) A is liable because B was employed by her and was in her control
(d) A is not liable because 8 was driving as per C’s instructions
76. PRINCIPLE: A Master is liable to third persons for every such wrong of his servant as committed in
the course of service. For acts committed beyond the scope of employment, the master is liable only if
he has expressly authorised the act (Common for Q. Nos. 76, 77 and 78)
A owned a bus and he had hired B to drive it and C to be the conductor. One day, when B had stepped
out of the bus to have a cup of coffee, C decided to turn the bus around so that it was ready for its next
trip. While doing so, C ran over D’s leg, causing major injuries to him. D sued A for damages.
(a) D will succeed since C was employed by A
(b) D will not succeed since A had not authorised C to drive the bus
(c) D will not succeed since the bus was not on an official trip
(d) D will succeed since turning the bus was in the course of employment
77. A owned a truck and he had hired B to drive it. On one of its trips, C flagged the truck down and
asked to be dropped to nearby city. B agreed to do so for a small amount of money. The truck met with
an accident en route, in which C was badly injured. C sued A for damages.
(a) A will be liable since B did the act in the course of his employment
(b) A will be liable since he had not instructed B not to pick up passengers
(c) A will not be liable since taking passengers in a truck had no connection with his business
(d) A will not be liable because B was an experienced driver
78. A handed over Rs. 5,000 to her neighbour B, who was an employee of a bank, and asked him to
deposit the money in her account. Instead of doing so, B spent the money. A sues the bank for
damages.
46
(a) The bank will be liable since B was its employee

(b) The bank will not be liable since B was not authorised to collect money from A
(c) The bank will not be liable since A gave money to B in his capacity as a neighbour and not as an
employee of the bank
(d) The bank will not be liable since this is a criminal act
79. PRINCIPLE: When a criminal act is done by one person in furtherance of the common intention of
himself and some other persons, each of such person is liable for the act in the same manner as if it
were done by each one of them.
A, B and C decided to commit burglary. They broke into a locked house. However, before they had finished
their work, a domestic servant appeared from the out-house and started shouting. A, B and C left the
house and started running away. They were pursued by a small crowd. A, on being caught by X, one of
the persons pursuing them, stabbed him and ran away. By the time B and C had disappeared. X died on
account of the stab wounds. Later, the police arrested all the three. They were charged for attempted
burglary and murder of X.
(a) Along with A, the person who stabbed X, B and C are also guilty of murder because A stabbed X in
furtherance of common intention
(b) Along with A, B and C are also guilty of murder because A., at the time of stabbing X, was acting on
behalf of B and C and he wanted to save not only himself but B and C as well
(c) A alone is guilty of murder because though there was common intention to commit the offence of
burglary, there was no common intention to commit the offence of murder
(d) None of the above
80. PRINCIPLE: A person is liable for any damage which is the direct consequence of his/her unlawful
act, as long as the consequence could have been foreseen by a reasonable person.
During a scuffle, A knocked B unconscious and then placed B at the foot of a hill at night, when the
temperature was around one degree centigrade. B suffered from hypothermia and had to be hospitalised
for a week. B sues A.
(a) B will be liable for the act, since the consequence was a direct and foreseeable consequence of his
act
(b) B will not be liable because he had no intention of causing hypothermia
(c) B will not be liable because he did not know that A would suffer from hypothermia
(d) B will be liable since A was hospitalized
81. PRINCIPLE: The owner of a land is entitled to the column of air space above the surface ad
infinitum. But, the right is restricted to such height as is necessary for the ordinary use and employment
of his land, and the structure on it.
A had constructed a single-storeyed house on a comer site. He had no intention of building an additional
floor. B his neighbour, who ran an internet parlour got a hoarding made, which protruded over A’s house
at a height of around 6 feet above the terrace. A sues B for trespass.
(a) A will succeed since B’s act amounts to trespass

(b) A will not succeed since he was anyway not planning to build an additional storey
(c) A will not succeed since the hoarding is not obstructing him
(d) A will not succeed since B has a right to erect a hoarding
82. PRINCIPLE: Trespass to land is the wrongful and unwarranted entry upon the land of another.
A purchased a ticket to watch a movie in a theatre. After the show got over, A refused to leave the
theatre. The owner of the theatre sues A for trespass
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(a) He will not succeed since A had purchased a ticket

(b) He will not succeed since A has a right to remain wherever he wants to after the show gets over
(c) He will succeed since A’s authorisation to remain in the theatre ends with the show
(d) He will not succeed since A did not have the intention to trespass
83. PRINCIPLE: Negligence is the breach of a duty caused by an omission to do something which a
reasonable person would do or an act which a prudent and reasonable person would not do. An action
for negligence proceeds upon the principle that the person has an obligation or duty on the part of the
defendant, which he/she breaches, leading to damage.
A, a surgeon operated on B. Subsequent to the operation, B complained of pain in his abdomen. On

examination, it was discovered that A had left a mop in B’s stomach while operating.
(a) A will be liable for negligence, since there is a breach of the duty of care
(b) A will not be liable for negligence since it was an accident
(c) A will not be liable for negligence since no real damage was done
(d) A will not be liable for negligence since it is not a reasonable act
84. PRINCIPLE: A contract requires a proposal and an acceptance of the proposal. It is necessary to
make a binding contract, not only that the proposal be accepted, but also that the acceptance is notified
to the proposer. (Common for Q. Nos. 84, 85 and 86)
A sent a letter to B stating that he was willing to sell to B, 10 bags of rice at Rs. 20 each. B made a
telephone call to A to inform him that he had accepted the offer. Just as he was stating his acceptance, a
very noisy aircraft flew over B’s house. A was not able to hear the acceptance.
(a) There is no contract since the acceptance has not been notified to A
(b) There is no contract since the reply also has to be in writing
(c) This is a valid contract since B conveyed his acceptance to A. It does not matter if A heard it or not
85. A sent a letter to B stating that he was willing to sell to B, 10 bags of rice at Rs. 20 each. B wrote a
letter to A accepting the offer and posted it.
(a) The contract is entered into the moment B posts the letter
(b) The contract is entered into only after A receives and reads the letter
(c) The contract is entered into only after A receives the letter, reads it and then gets back to B
(d) The contract is entered into the moment A makes the offer
86. A sent a letter to B stating that he was willing to sell to B, 10 bags of rice at Rs. 20 each. B sent an e-
mail to the address mentioned in the letter-head, accepting the offer.
(a) The contract is entered into the moment the mail reaches A’s server
(b) The contract is entered into only after A sees the e-mail
(c) The contract is entered into when A sent the letter
(d) The contract is entered into the moment B receives an automated delivery receipt
87. PRINCIPLE: An agreement becomes a contract when it is entered into between two or more people
with each other’s free consent. Two or more people are said to consent when they agree to the same
thing in the same sense. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence,
fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
A went to a doctor to get himself treated. The doctor asked him to sign a “consent form” and said that
unless he signs it, he will not examine him. A signed the form waiving his right to sue the doctor.
(a) This is a valid contract since A understood and consented to the terms
(b) This is not a valid contract since A had not other option, but to sign
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(c) This is a valid contract since it is a doctor-patient relationship

88. PRINCIPLE: Where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to matter of fact essential
to the agreement, the agreement is void.
A had a piece of land. He believed that the value of the land was Rs. 1,000 per square foot. B knew that
the value of the land was in fact Rs. 1,500 per square foot. However, he did not inform A and purchased
the land at Rs. 1,000.
(a) The contract is valid since A should have been more careful
(b) The contract is valid since B paid for the land
(c) The contract is void since A was mistaken about the cost of the land
(d) The contract is valid since the land has already been purchased
89. PRINCIPLE: The object of an agreement is lawful unless it is forbidden by law; is of such a nature
that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law; is fraudulent; involves or implies injury to the
person or property of another person; the court regards it as immoral; it is opposed to public
policy. (Common for Q. Nos. 89, 90, 91 and 92)
A and B entered into a contract, whereby A agreed to get married to B, if her parents paid A Rs.
1,00,000 before the wedding. B’s parents failed to pay the promised amount. A sues B and her parents.
(a) A will succeed because all the requirements of a contract are met
(b) A will succeed since the payment of the amount was the condition precedent for the wedding
(c) A will not succeed since the contract is void, its object being against the law
(d) A will not succeed since B was not a party to the contract
90. A was arrested by the police for committing an offence and was subsequently granted bail by the
Court. One of the conditions imposed by the Court for granting bail was that A arrange for a surety for
Rs. 50,000. A approached B to be a surety. B agreed, but insisted that they enter into a contract
whereby A would deposit Rs. 50,000 into B’s account, which would be returned to A by B after the case
was over.
(a) The contract would be void since its effect is to defeat the provisions of the Cr.P.C.
(b) The contract would be void because A cannot enter into a contract when a criminal case is going on
against him
(c) The contract would be void because the Court is not a party to it
(d) The contract would be valid
91. A and B, a Hindu couple were married to each other. Owing to differences between them, they
decided to get divorced. They entered into a contract laying down the conditions that both parties had to
adhere with. One of the terms of the contract was that their children would not be entitled to claim the
ancestral property of A, the husband.
(a) The contract will be void since the children are not a party to the contract
(b) The contract will be void since its terms since it is opposed to the personal laws of the parties
(c) The contract will be valid
(d) The contract will be void since. a woman cannot enter into a contract with her husband
92. The BCCI decided to hold an auction to sell IPL teams. 12 bidders registered for the auction.
Unknown to the BCCI, these 12 bidders had entered into a contract that they would not bid more than a
certain amount.
(a) The contract will be void because BCCI is not a party to it

(b) The contract will be void since the object of the contract is to cause a loss to the BCCI
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(c) The contract will be void since the maximum number of parties to a contract as per Indian law is 10
(d) The contract will be valid
93. PRINCIPLE: Every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession,
trade or business of any kind, to that extent is void.
A company entered into a contract with Coca Cola Ltd. to bottle soft drinks produced by Coca Cola. One
of the terms of the contract was that the company would not bottle soft drinks for any other competitor of
Coca Cola during the pendency of the contract.
(a) The contract is void since it restrains the lawful right of the company to engage in business
(b) The contract is void because there is no consideration being paid
(c) The contract is valid
(d) The contract is void since the competitor is not a party to the contract
94. PRINCIPLE: An agreement is void to the extent that it restricts absolutely, a party from enforcing his
contractual rights by usual proceedings in any ordinary court. A and B entered into a transaction in Delhi
for sale of goods based in Delhi. The contract stated that in case of a dispute, only civil courts in Chennai
would have jurisdiction. Neither A, nor B resided or carried on business in Chennai.
(a) The contract is valid since it is still an Indian court that has jurisdiction
(b) The contract is void since it ousts the jurisdiction of the competent court
(c) The contract is void since the consent of the court is required before entering into such a contract
(d) The contract is valid since Chennai courts have expertise with respect to contractual matters
95. PRINCIPLE: An agreement, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, is
void.
A and B, who were brothers, entered into an agreement which stated that A would sell his entire share of
the ancestral property to B. The agreement did not mention the specific details (like survey number) of
the property.
(a) The contract will be void since it is vague

(b) The contract will be void because it is not possible to ascertain the property which is being referred to
(c) The contract will be void since it is illegal
(d) The contract is valid since there is clarity about the property sought to be sold
96. PRINCIPLE: Whoever intending to take dishonestly (with an intention to cause wrongful loss to
another or wrongful gain to himself) any movable property without that person’s consent, moves that
property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
(Common for Q. Nos. 96 and 97)
A had lent his watch to B for a period of a month. Two days after he had done so, he walked into B’s
office to find the watch on B’s table. He decided to take the watch back. A was prosecuted for theft.
(a) A is not guilty of the offence since he owned the watch

(b) A is not guilty of the offence since he was not doing the act dishonestly
(c) A is guilty of the offence since he caused wrongful loss to B
(d) A is not guilty of the offence since he had lent the watch to B only for a short period of time
97. A handed over his watch to B for safekeeping. B sells the watch to C, which he was not authorised to
do. B is prosecuted for theft.
(a) B is guilty of theft because he gained from the act

(b) B is not guilty of theft because he was in possession of the watch
(c) B is not guilty of theft because A had given him the watch
(d) B is guilty of theft because caused wrongful loss to A
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98. PRINCIPLE: Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to any
other, and thereby dishonestly induces that person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property,
commits extortion.
A entered B’s house, caught hold of B’s daughter C and threatened to stab her if A did not give him Rs.
10,000 immediately. B did so. A is prosecuted for extortion.
(a) A has committed theft, not extortion

(b) A has committed extortion
(c) A has committed both theft and extortion
(d) A has not committed any offence
99. PRINCIPLE: Theft is robbery if in order to committing of the theft, or in committing the theft, or in
carrying away or attempting to carry away property obtained by theft, the offender, for that end,
voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or fear of instant death or instant
hurt. (Common for Q. Nos. 99 and 100)
A entered B’s house to take away her TV. When he was carrying the TV out of the house, he
encountered B near the door. He left the TV behind and ran away.
(a) A has committed theft
(b) A has committed robbery
(c) A has committed both theft and robbery
(d) A has neither committed theft nor robbery
100. A entered B’s house and was taking away her wallet and leaving the house, when he encountered
B. He dropped the wallet, but shot her while escaping.
(a) A has committed robbery

(b) A has committed theft, but not robbery
(c) A has neither committed theft, nor robbery
(d) A has committed both theft and robbery
101. PRINCIPLE: Whoever with the intent to cause, or knowing that he is likely to cause wrongful loss or
damage to the public or to any person, causes the destruction of property, or any such change in any
property or in the situation thereof as destroys or diminishes its value or utility, or affects it injuriously,
commits mischief.(Common for Q. Nos. 101 and 102)
A went to B’s house for dinner. He saw that B had a statue made of ice, which was kept in a freezer, A
removed the statue from the freezer for a few minutes, which led to the hand of the statue changing
shape.
(a) A has not committed mischief, since he did not have the intention to change the shape of the hand of
the statue.
(b) A has committed mischief because he should have known that his act was likely to damage the
statue
(c) A has not committed mischief because the statue did not get destroyed
(d) A did not commit mischief because the value of the statue has not diminished
102. A lent his laptop to B. When in possession of the laptop, B inserted a pen drive into the laptop.
When he did a virus scan, he realised that the pen drive was infected. Since he urgently required a file
that was on the laptop, he nevertheless opened the files on the pen drive, in the process infecting the
laptop.
(a) A has committed mischief because he has affected the laptop injuriously
(b) A has not committed mischief because he did not intend to do so.
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(c) A has not committed mischief because the laptop continued working
(d) A has not committed mischief because the laptop was in his possession
103. PRINCIPLE: Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with the intent to
commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property or having
lawfully entered into or upon such property, unlawfully remains there with an intent to intimidate, insult or
annoy any such person, or with the intent to commit an offence commits criminal trespass.
A went to Delhi Law College to participate in a competition. After participating in the competition, A hid
inside the campus so that he could steal a few books from the library.
(a) A has committed theft

(b) A has committed criminal trespass
(c) A has not committed criminal trespass, because he entered with permission
(d) A has not committed any offence
104. PRINCIPLE: A second suit will not be heard on the same facts between the same parties.
(Common for Q. Nos. 104 and 105)
Nakshatra files a suit against Chandra for getting possession of a house on the ground that the property
passed on to her through the Will executed by Surya before his death. The suit gets dismissed as
Nakshatra fails to produce the Will. Nakshatra files another suit against Chandra to get the same house
from the latter, on the ground that she was entitled to the house as being the nearest heir of Surya.
(a) Nakshatra will succeed as she is the nearest heir of Surya

(b) Nakshatra will not succeed as the facts in both the cases are the same
(c) Nakshatra will succeed as the facts in the two cases deal with different situations
(d) Nakshatra will succeed as the grounds in the second case were not taken in the first one owing to the
mistake of her advocate
105. Mr. Sampath went to a party alone in his wife Sunanda’s car. He usually used his wife’s car after
office hours and his wife never objected to it. At the party, he got drunk. Instead of taking the risk of
driving the car, he requested his friend Mr. Vivek to drive him back home in Sunanda’s car. Mr. Vivek
was quite sober since he had moderately consumed alcohol. On the way, Vivek knocked down a boy
and injured his leg. Subsequently, on behalf of the boy a claim for compensation was brought against
Mrs. Sunanda since the car belonged to her and it was registered in her name. The insurance company
refuses to pay compensation because the police report says that the person driving the car at the time of
accident had consumed alcohol?
(a) Sunanda is liable to pay compensation, although she did not authorize Mr. Vivek to drive the car
which caused the accident, yet it was registered in her name
(b) Sunanda is not liable to pay compensation because it is the liability of Mr. Sampath who had
permission to drive the car and on the basis of this permission, he requested Mr. Vivek who was driving
the car at the time of the accident
(c) Mr. Vivek is liable to compensate the boy fully because he was negligent in driving the car
(d) Sunanda, Sampath and Vivek are all jointly liable to compensate the boy
SECTION D : LOGICAL REASONING

106. If it is true that ‘men are seldom honest’, which of the following statement conveys the same
meaning?
(a) At least one man is not honest (b) Men are not honest
(c) At least on one occasion men are not honest (d) Sometimes men are honest
107. If it is false that ‘men always obey the law, which one of the following statements is doubtful?
(a) Sometimes men do not obey the law (b) All men obey the law
(c) Men never obey the law (d) Some men obey the law
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108. If it is false that ‘all men strive for the happiness of all’, which one of the following statements is true
beyond doubt?
(a) All men seek their own happiness
(b) There are men who do not desire for the happiness of all
(c) No men strive for the happiness of all
(d) There are men who do not strive for the happiness of all
109. From among the given alternatives, identify the missing premiss.
1st Premiss : If a plane triangle is possible, then perfect straight line is possible
2nd Premiss : If perfect straight line is possible, then Euclid is right
3rd Premiss: ?
4th Premiss : But Riemann is right.
Conclusion : Therefore a plane triangle is not possible.
(a) If Riemann is right, then Euclid is right
(b) If Riemann is wrong, then Euclid is right
(c) If Euclid is right, then Riemann is wrong
(d) If Riemann is right, then Euclid is not wrong
110. From among the given alternatives, identify the conclusion of the following argument
If A is B, then C is not D.
If C is not D, then E is not F.
If E is not F, then G is not H.
Therefore
(a) If G is not H, then A is B
(b) If A is B, then G is not H
(c) If G is H, then A is B
(d) If A is not B, then G is H
111. From among the given alternatives, identify the conclusion of the following argument.
You cannot taste success in life unless you work hard.
You cannot be happy unless you taste success in life. Therefore
(a) You can be happy unless you work hard
(b) You cannot be happy unless you work hard
(c) You cannot work hard unless you are happy
(d) You can work hard unless you are happy
112. If the statement “All men desire their own welfare always” is true, then which of the following
statements must be false?
(a) There are men who desire their own welfare sometimes
(b) Some men desire their own welfare always
(c) There are men who always desire their and others’ welfare
(d) It is not the case that all men desire their own welfare always
113. From among the alternatives identify the statement which states the same fact as the statement
“The dual nature of light is an enigma’.
(a) The nature of light is an enigma
(b) Light has some enigmatic properties
(c) Two differing arguments regarding the nature of light are obviously wrong
(d) It is surprising and puzzling that according to one study, light is made up of one type of constituents
and according to another, light is made up another type of constituents
114. Identify the statement which can be neither proved nor disproved.
(a) I have head-ache
(b) Yesterday, New York recorded 20° C at 12 noon
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(c) The gang war that broke out last week was due to business rivalry
(d) History of Kannada literature states that Nripatunga is the earliest poet
115. Identify the statement which cannot be doubted.

(a) Sense experience provides true knowledge
(b) It is reasonable to accept science and most unreasonable to believe any religion
(c) I am alive
(d) Whenever there is unrest in society, the police will be alert
116. If it is true that ‘good governance ensures law and order’, then identify the statement which has to
be accepted along with the given statement.
(a) A healthy society is governed by maximum number of laws
(b) A strong government uses force to enforce law
(c) An able government very effectively uses the law to promote peace and prosperity
(d) Law is indispensable for the society
117. Identify the statement which cannot be accepted.

(a) Mahabharatha is an ancient epic
(b) Many Indian languages have their origin in Sanskrit
(c) According to the heliocentric theory, the Earth is the centre of the solar system
(d) Indian Constitution has been amended many times
118. If it is true that ‘religious fundamentalism is dangerous to society, which one of the following
statements is also true?
(a) Religion without reason is dangerous to the society
(b) Belief in religions is dangerous to the society
(c) Religious pluralism is dangerous to the society
(d) Disrespect for other religions is dangerous to the society
119. Identify the argument which has to be accepted when the premiss is accepted as true.
(a) A and B are subsets of C.
Therefore A and B must have at least one common element.
(b) Every man desires happiness. Therefore happiness is desirable.
(c) God is not perceivable.
Therefore God does not exist.
(d) Nothing comes out of nothing.
Therefore something must have existed always.
120. Identify the argument which cannot be accepted.

(a) All Indians are Asians.
All Asians are dark-coloured. Therefore All dark coloured are Indians.
(b) Amar is a friend of Basava.
Therefore Basava is a friend of Amar.
(c) All positive integers less than 100 have only 2 digits.
Therefore all positive integers with 2 digits are less than 100.
(d) All spinsters are unmarried women. Therefore, all unmarried women are spinsters.
121. Till Nineties, clearly the policy of the government was guided by the philosophy of socialism. Under
its influence, the government tried to exercise control in every field. But today we hear about
disinvestment and privatization. Hence there is a clear shift from socialistic principles.
Which one of the following assertions, if true, contradicts the passage mentioned above?
(a) That government is the best government which governs least
(b) Only enterprise in a free society contributes to the real progress
(c) Notwithstanding the alleged merits of laissez-faire implicit in the passage, lack of effective control by
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the State results in the exploitation of many by a few

(d) The State is guilty of the dereliction of duty
122. Geographical division of the Earth resulting in the so-called sovereign

nations is artificial because it is man- made, just as division of society on the basis of religion, language,
caste, etc., is artificial. While the so-called intellectuals raise hue and cry about the latter, they maintain
divine silence about the former. Does it not amount to double standard?
Which of the following statements, if true, is the essence of the passage mentioned above?
(a) Geographical division of the Earth is of divine origin
(b) Only division of society on the basis of religion, language, etc., is man-made
(c) The consequences of geographical and sociological divisions are very different
(d) Patriotism is a barren concept
123. It is argued that prosperity depends upon production which means more production more
consumption. However, it is not the case. Consumption should be need based. Just as intake of food in
excess of digestion is pointless so also consumption of natural resources beyond requirement is
pointless.
Which of the following statements, if true, contradicts the spirit of the passage?
(a) Prosperity without consumption is ideal
(b) Prosperity without consumption is shallow
(c) Prosperity is possible when natural resources are not abused
(d) To increase consumption we cannot have any alibi
124. It is true that agriculture is the backbone of nation’s economy. But it is fallacious to argue that only
agriculture should receive overriding importance. Agriculture also depends upon other sectors like
generation and distribution of power, irrigation, transportation, etc. If any one sector suffers, its fall-out is
more than obvious.
Which of the following assertions, if true, is the summary of the given passage?
(a) Budget allocation for all fields must be equal
(b) If adequate budget allocation in any one fiscal year for every sector is not possible, then each year
one sector can be provided with adequate funds
(c) Budget allocation for each sector should be need based, neither less nor more, i.e., it should be
optimum
(d) Reversion to ancient method of farming is the only way out
125. Education is one field which is totally non-remunerative. Still worse, it is a liability. But then the
government is not a money-making institution. The bottom- line of prosperity is primary education. Hence
the government should raise resources elsewhere only to pour it on primary education. But primary
education cannot be provided without higher education. So higher education stands on par with primary
education.
Which of the following statements, if true, contradicts the passage above?

(a) Money should produce money which means that, that which does not generate money has no place
(b) Education should raise its own resources
(c) Education should be made as economical as possible
(d) If the government cannot spread education, private enterprise should step in
126. Four statements are given below. Group two of them in such a way that one is logically impossible
and the other is empirically (factually) possible.
1. A plane equilateral triangle can also be a plane right angled triangle.
2. Velocity of light in vacuum is constant.
3. Consumption of fuel at this rate results in reversal to bullock-cart age.
4. A tall man is a man.
(a) A, B (b) B, D (c) C, D (d) A, C
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127. Four statements are given. Group two of them in such a way that one is logically possible and the
other is empirically (factually) highly improbable.
1. No theories of science can explain the origin of the Universe satisfactorily
2. Solar energy is inexhaustible.
3. Liberalization and rise in consumerism are directly related.
4. God exists.
(a) A, B (b) A, C (c) B, D (d) A, D
128. Four statements are given below. One of them can be demonstrated with the help of reason, while
another requires sense experience to ascertain the truth, identify them.
1. After Ravana’s death, Rama becomes a Jain monk
2. Area of Circle is given by the formula π r 2
3. Methane is poisonous
4. The absolute is pure consciousness
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
129. How do you evaluate the statement “Autobiography of Mr. M.K. Gandhi” is written by Mr. Mahadeva
Desai?
(a) False (b) True (c) Probable (d) Absurd
130. All faculties of understanding, which a human being enjoys, are necessarily limited in terms of
performance. If so, which of the following alternatives is justified by the preceding statement?
(a) Human knowledge is necessarily imperfect
(b) Perfection one’s own knowledge is a distinct possibility, but man does not know how to employ his
faculties
(c) When progress in knowledge is linear, one day or the other the ultimate truth will be discovered
(d) Human knowledge is not necessarily perfect
131. “The Universe has necessarily a beginning and an end’ and ‘the Universe has boundary’ together
imply
(a) The universe is finite in space and time
(b) The universe is infinite in space and time
(c) The universe is infinite in space but not in time
(d) The universe is finite in space but not in time
132. Which of the following alternatives comes very close to the statement, ‘Man is necessarily an evil by
nature’?
(a) As a matter of fact, man is an evil by nature
(b) Man is not an evil by nature, but circumstances tend to make him so
(c) Man cannot be an evil by nature
(d) Actually, man is not an evil.
133. Which of the following alternatives is farthest from the statement, ‘Sound waves cannot travel in
vacuum’?
(a) Sound waves require some medium to travel
(b) Sound waves may travel in vacuum very slowly
(c) Sound waves can travel only in vacuum
(d) Sound waves may not travel in vacuum
134. Which of the following alternatives contradict the statement ‘deterministic laws of physics are
characteristically Newtonian’.
(a) Indeterminism and physics cannot go together
(b) Indeterminism is inherent in Newtonian system
(c) Determinism in physics is a flaw
(d) Determinism in physics is only apparent.
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135. Identify the alternative which best explains the relation between the arguments mentioned below:
Arguments:
1. It is highly probable that every student of law at University level would have done a course on
principles of ethics and Rama being a student of law, in all probability, would have done a course on
principles of ethics.
2. At University level, every faculty aims at super speciality for which emphasis is laid upon structuring
the curricula in such a way that every faculty is treated as a closed system so that no inter-disciplinary
study is acceptable. Principles of ethics being essentially an integral part of philosophy, most probably is
out of any course on law.
(a) Two arguments are mutually independent

(b) Two arguments are mutually supportive
(c) Two arguments are supplementary
(d) They are incompatible
136. ‘Greater than’ is said to be transitive (relation) since A is greater than B and B is greater than C
imply A is greater than C. Similarly, ‘friend of is said to be symmetric since if A is a friend of B, then B is
a friend of A. If so, what kind of relation is ‘analogous’?
(a) Transitive (b) Symmetric (c) Identical (d) Transitive and Symmetric
137. Since an object is identical with itself ‘being identical’ is called a reflexive relation and if a relation is
transitive, symmetric and reflexive, then such a relation is called ‘equivalence’. If so, what kind of relation
is ‘different’?
(a) Equivalence (b) Inequivalence (c) Asymmetric (d) Non-transitive
138. Which of the following having the same form contradicts the statement ‘guilty should be punished’?
(a) Guilty will not be punished (b) Guilty may not be punished
(c) Guilty are not punished (d) Guilty should not be punished
139. If it is true that ‘no innocent persons should be punished’ and ‘Socrates is innocent’, which of the
following is the correct conclusion?
(a) Socrates is not punished (b) Socrates may not be punished
(c) Socrates should not be punished (d) Socrates will not be punished
140. Identify the alternative which gives true picture of the relation between the arguments listed below:
1. A healthy society is characterised by overall development of every section. As in the case of human
body no organ is less prominent so also in a society no section is less important. If any human organ is
sick, then the human being is sick. Similarly, if any section of society is sick, then the society is sick.
2. It is fallacious to think that priority to production of agricultural products alone promotes the prosperity
of farmers. Prosperity has too many discussions. Transportation, communication, network, sound
economic policy, to mention a few are equally important to the economic wellbeing of farmers. Hence,
they also deserve consideration.
(a) These two are irrelevant (b) They are interdependent
(c) They are analogous (d) They are compatible
SECTION E : MATHEMATICS
141. Which one of the following is same as 30% of 40% of 560?

(a) 60% of 40% of 280 (b) 15% of 80% of 280
(c) 30% of 40% of 280 (d) 15% of 80% of 140
142. If x/y= 4/5, then value of (4/7 + 2y-x/ 2y+x) is

(a) 3/7 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 8/7
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143. The average height of 10 students in a class is 105 cms. If 20 more students with an average height
of 120 cms join them, what will be the average height?
(a) 105 cms (b) 110 cms (c) 112 cms (d) 115 cms
144. Anil is half his father’s age now, Fifteen years ago, he was one-third of his father’s age.
How old will Anil be after five years?
145. 10 men can finish the construction of a hut in 8 days. How many men are needed to finish the same
in half a day?
(a) 80 (b) 100 (c) 120 (d) 160
146. India’s Republic Day in 1996 fell on Friday. Which week day it will be celebrated in the year 2000?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
147. An express train travels at an average speed of 120 km per hour, stopping for 4 minutes after every
80 kms. How long will it take the train to reach a destination 960 km away?
(a) 8 hrs 40 mts (b) 8 hrs 44 mts (c) 8 hrs 48 mts (d) 8 hrs 56 mts
148. In a family, the father took one-fourth of the cake and he had three times more than the others had.
The total number of family members is:
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 12
149. A dock gains 5 minutes every hour. Then the angle traversed by the seconds hand in one minute
will be
(a) 390° (b) 380° (c) 360.5° (d) 360°
150. A right circular cone and a right cylinder have the same radius and the same volume. The ratio of
the height of the cone to that of the cylinder is
(a) 5:3 (b) 5:2 (c) 1:3 (d) 3 : 1
AILET 2010 Answers

1 D 31 D 61 D 91 B 121 D
2 B 32 C 62 D 92 B 122 D
3 D 33 B 63 B 93 C 123 B
4 D 34 C 64 C 94 B 124 C
5 C 35 C 65 A 95 D 125 A
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6 C 36 D 66 B 96 C 126 A
7 A 37 A 67 D 97 B 127 A
8 B 38 B 68 B 98 B 128 B
9 C 39 D 69 A 99 A 129 A
10 A 40 D 70 A 100 A 130 D
11 C 41 D 71 D 101 B 131 A
12 A 42 A 72 C 102 A 132 A
13 B 43 C 73 B 103 B 133 C
14 A 44 C 74 A 104 C 134 B
15 B 45 B 75 C 105 A 135 A
16 C 46 D 76 B 106 D 136 B
17 A 47 A 77 A 107 B 137 B
18 A 48 C 78 B 108 D 138 D
19 C 49 B 79 C 109 C 139 C
20 A 50 A 80 A 110 B 140 C
21 A 51 C 81 A 111 B 141 A
22 D 52 B 82 C 112 D 142 C
23 A 53 C 83 A 113 D 143 D
24 A 54 B 84 A 114 A 144 C
25 D 55 A 85 B 115 C 145 D
26 D 56 D 86 B 116 C 146 B
27 C 57 C 87 A 117 C 147 B
28 D 58 B 88 D 118 D 148 C
29 A 59 B 89 C 119 D 149 A
30 C 60 A 90 D 120 A 150 D
AILET 2011
Read the passage and answer the questions following it. The questions are to be answered on the basis
of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices
could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the
response that most accurately and completely answers the questions.
59
Roger Rosenblatt’s book ‘Black Fiction’, manages to alter the approach taken in many previous studies
by making an attempt to apply literary rather than socio-political criteria to its subject. Rosenblatt points
out that criticism of Black writing has very often served as a pretext for an expounding on Black history.
The recent work of Addison Gayle’s passes a judgment on the value of Black fiction by clear political
standards, rating each work according to the ideas of Black identity, which it propounds.
Though fiction results from political circumstances, its author reacts not in ideological ways to those
circumstances, and talking about novels and stories primarily as instruments of ideology circumvents
much of the fictional enterprise. Affinities and connections are revealed in the works of Black fiction in
Rosenblatt’s literary analysis; these affinities and connections have been overlooked and ignored by
solely political studies.
The writing of acceptable criticism of Black fiction, however, presumes giving satisfactory answers to
quite a few questions. The most important of all, is there a sufficient reason, apart from the racial identity
of the authors, for the grouping together of Black authors? Secondly, what is the distinction of Black
fiction from other modem fiction with which it is largely contemporaneous? In the work Rosenblatt
demonstrates that Black fiction is a distinct body of writing, which has an identifiable, coherent literary
tradition. He highlights recurring concerns and designs, which are independent of chronology in Black
fiction written over the past eighty years. These concerns and designs are thematic, and they come from
the central fact of the predominant white culture, where the Black characters in the novel are situated
irrespective of whether they attempt to conform to that culture or they rebel against it.
Rosenblatt’s work does leave certain aesthetic questions open. His thematic analysis allows
considerable objectivity; he even clearly states that he does not intend to judge the merit of the various
works yet his reluctance seems misplaced, especially since an attempt to appraise might have led to
interesting results. For example, certain novels have an appearance of structural diffusion. Is this a
defeat, or are the authors working out of, or attempting to forge, a different kind of aesthetic? Apart from
this, the style of certain Black novels, like Jean Toomer’s Cane, verges on expressionism or surrealism;
does this technique provide a counterpoint to the prevalent theme that portrays the fate against which
Black heroes are pitted, a theme usually conveyed by more naturalistic modes of expressions?
Irrespective of such omissions, what Rosenblatt talks about in his work makes for an astute and
worthwhile study. His book very effectively surveys a variety of novels, highlighting certain fascinating
and little- known works like James Weldon Johnson’s Autobiography of an Ex-Coloured Man. Black
Fiction is tightly constructed, arid levelheaded and penetrating criticism is exemplified in its forthright and
lucid style.
Answer the following questions indicating your response for each question:
1. The author of the passage raises an objection to criticism of Black fiction like that by Addison ‘Gayle
as it
a) Highlights only the purely literary aspects of such work
b) Misconceive the ideological content of such fiction
c) Miscalculate the notions of Black identity presented in such fiction
d) Replaces political for literary criteria in evaluating such fiction.
2. The primary concern of the author in the above passage is

a) Reviewing the validity of a work of criticism
b) Comparing various critical approaches to a subject
c) Talking of the limitations of a particular kind of criticism
d) Recapitulation of the major points in a work of criticism.
3. The author is of the opinion that Black Fiction would have been improved had Rosenblatt
a) Undertaken a more careful evaluation of the ideological and historical aspects of Black Fiction
b) Been more objective in his approach to novels and stories by Black authors
60
c) Attempted a more detailed exploration of the recurring themes in Black Fiction throughout its history
d) Calculated the relative literary merit of the novels he analyzed thematically.
4. Rosenblatt’s discussion of Black Fiction is

a) Pedantic and contentious
b) Critical but admiring
c) Ironic and deprecating
d) Argumentative but unfocused.
5. According to the given passage the author would be LEAST likely to approve of which among the
following?
a) Analyzing the influence of political events on the personal ideology of Black writers
b) Attempting a critical study which applies sociopolitical criteria to the autobiographies of Black authors
c) A literary study of Black poetry that appraises the merits of poems according to the political
acceptability of their themes
d) Studying the growth of a distinct Black literary tradition within the context of Black history.
6. From the following options, which does the author not make use of while discussing Black Fiction?
a) Rhetorical questions
b) Specific examples
c) Comparison and contrast
d) Definition of terms.
Each of the following sentences contain four parts, marked a, b, c and d. One of these parts is incorrect.
Indicate the letter of the incorrect part.
7. The Baby showed a noticeable (a)/ distaste for (b)/ these kinds (c)/ of prepared baby food (d).
8. They cannot go camping right now (a) / because (b) / they are taking care of (c) / a three-weeks-old
baby (d).
9. If it (a)/ will rain (b)/ this afternoon, we will have (c)/ to cancel the picnic (d).
10. Are (a)/ you familiar of (b)/ the latest (c)/ scientific developments in the field (d)?
11. Men are apt to (a)/ pick up holes (b)/ in the views of those whom they do not like, (c)/ No error (d).
12. The myth that some races (a)/ are naturally superior than others (b)/ has now been fully demolished
(c)/ No error (d).
13. The steep rise in the price of petroleum products (a)/ have affected (b)/ the economic development of
the developing nations, (c)/ No error (d)
14. Kiran as well as Kamal (a)/ are leaving (b)/ for Mumbai, (c)/ No error (d)
15. Much water (a)/ has flown (b)/ under the bridge since then, (c)/ No error (d)
16. Everyone of the men present here (a)/ has given a day’s pay (b)/ as their contribution to the fund, (c)/
No error (d).
17. Found guilty (a)/ on murder (b)/ the accused was sentenced to death, (c)/ No error (d)
Complete the sentences with suitable words indicating your option for each question
18. I saw_____movie last night.
a) the b) a c) an d) one.
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19. The RBI in consultation with Government of India has_______working group to suggest measures for
revival of weak public sector banks.
a) appointed b) constituted c) devolved d) none of these.
20. He stepped out and began to walk_________

a) behind b) around c) besides d) none of these.
21. The lady received quick promotions when they saw how________she was.
a) lethargic b) hostile c) correct d) hard working.
22. The shower in the bathroom needs mending as it has started ______
a) trickling b) soaking c) dripping d) overflowing.
23. The person who is looking for sympathy talks _________

a) petulantly b) despicably c) plaintively d) deftly.
24. The very nature of society is inimical_________freedom.

a) of b) to c) with d) on.
25. Wilbur Wright flew his airplane_________France in 1909.

a) on b) upon c) until d) over.
Directions (Qs. 26-35): Fill in the blanks.

If you look very closely at a newspaper photograph you will see that the grey areas are made up of black
dots of various sizes. The lighter the shades of grey, the smaller the dots. In….(26)….area the dots are
larger. The process by which this…(27)…..is achieved is called half-tone screening. First of all a negative
…..(28)….is made of the picture. That is, the light and dark areas are……(29)…..so that white becomes
..….(30) ……and black becomes white. This picture is projected…….(31)…..a special screen. The screen
is made of glass and has lines….. (32)…on it both vertically and horizontally. So the screen is divided up
….. (33) ….. tiny squares rather like graph paper. When the light….. (34)…..the negative is shone through
this….. (35)……it is broken up into dots. This light lands on a metal plate that is coated with chemicals.
26. a) Smaller b) Darker c) Lighter d) small.

27. a) Effect b) Colour c) Tone d) affect.
28. a) Photograph b) Print c) Copy d) paint.
29. a) Reversed b) Removed c) Coloured d) Darkened.
30. a) Dark b) Dotted c) Black d) White.
31. a) Into b) Above c) Through d) On.
32. a) Ruled b) Cut c) Reflected d) Deflected.
33. a) From b) Into c) Like d) in.
34. a) From b) Of c) On d) at.
35. a) graph paper b) framework c) screen d) paper.
SECTION II- GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

36. The world’s largest nuclear power station is
a) Chernobyl b) Kashiwazki-Kariwa c) Fukushima-Daiichi d) Kalpakkam.
37. The First International Women’s Day was celebrated on

a) 17-3-1911 b) 8-3-1911 c) 18-3-1911 d) 9-3-1911.
38. The nature and extent of nuclear accident in power plants is indicated as International Nuclear and
Radiological Event (INRE) and quantified in terms of the highest as
a) Level 10 Accident b) Level 12 Accident c) Level 7 Accident d) Level 6 Accident.
62
39. The Minority Affairs Minister of Pakistan who was assassinated in March, 2011
a) Salman Taseer b) Nawaaz Paintal c) Shahbaz Batti d) None.
40. The present Central Chief Information Commissioner is

a) Wajhat HabibuIIah b) Satyananda Mishra c) M.L. Sharma d) Sushma Singh.
41. The country that gets highest percentage of electricity from nuclear power stations is
a) USA. b) Japan c) China d) France.

a) S.Y. Quraishi b) H.S. Brahma c) V.S. Sampath d) Navin Chawla.
43. Which of the following Chief Justices of India also became the Vice-President of India?
a) Patanjali Sastri b) Hidayatullah c) Sikri d) None.
44. India’s Foreign Exchange Reserve has become the ________ largest in the world.
(Question Modified)
a) Eighth b) Twelfth c) Ninth d) Eleventh.
45. The first ever woman Secretary-General of SAARC, Ms.Fathimath Dhiyana Saeed is from
a) Pakistan b) Bangladesh c) India d) Maldives.
46. Air-conditioning was invented by

a) Carrier b) Voltas c) A.Volta d) Sinclair.
47. Motorcycle was invented by

a) Davidson b) G. Daimler c) Benz d) MacMillan.
48. Which of the following has the largest territory?

a) U.S.A. b) Brazil c) Canada d) China.
49. The country that recently joined the South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation was
a) Myanmar b) Iran c) Iraq d) Afghanistan.
50. According to the survey conducted in India during 2001-2003, the highest percentage of deaths were
due to
a) Cancer b) Heart diseases c) Asthma d) HIV-AIDS.
51. The 123 Agreement was entered into between

a) Canada and India b) France and India c) USA and India d) China and India.
52. The largest State in India in terms of territory is

a) Uttar Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Rajasthan.
53. The first judge who was sought to be impeached under the Constitution was
a) Justice V. Ramaswami b) Justice Dinakaran c) Justice Sen d) None.
54. The State having the maximum number of seats in Rajya Sabha is
a) Maharashtra b) Uttar Pradesh c) Tamil Nadu d) Andhra Pradesh.
55. Rajya Sabha members are elected for a period of

a) 5 years b) 4 years c) 2 years d) 6 years.
63
56. The Supreme Court recently declared the appointment ‘non-est’ of _________
a) Navin Chawla b) S.C. Mishra c) P.J. Thomas d) Both (b) and (c).
57. The maximum number of nominated members to Lok Sabha is

a) One b) Two c) Three d) No one can be nominated.
58. The special reservation of 4% in favour of Muslims was struck «down as unconstitutional by
a) High Court of Madras b) High Court of Andhra Pradesh
c) High Court of Delhi d) High Court of Kerala.
59. The Year Book of Industrial Statistics, 2010 released by the UN Industrial Development Organization
ranks India among
a) Top 12 countries b) Top 15 countries c) Top 4 countries d) Top 10 countries.
60. The European Union member States decided to temporarily withdraw the preferential tariff benefits
from August 2010 on the ground that there are significant shortcomings in the implementation of three
UN Human Rights Conventions in
a) Sri Lanka b) India c) Pakistan d) Nepal.
61. The Eleventh South Asian Games were held in

a) Kathmandu, Nepal b) Hyderabad, India
c) Dhaka, Bangladesh d) Colombo, Sri Lanka.
62. Dr. Jean Mayer Award for Global Citizenship by the Tufts University, USA, was awarded in 2010 to
a) Justice Verma b) Narayana Murthy
c) M.C. Mehta d) Sanjoy Hazarika.
63. The constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly was

a) Rajendra Prasad b) B.N. Rau c) B.R. Ambedkar d) Kamat.
64. Census takes place in India

a) every 20 years b) every 10 years c) every 15 years d) every 5 years.
65. INTERPOL, a 190-nation Police Commission, has its Headquarters at (Question Modified)
a) Paris b) Lyons c) London d) Frankfurt.
66. Red Cross is an international society for relief of suffering in the time of war or disaster which has
headquarters at Geneva was founded in 1863 on the advocacy of
a) Herbert Spencer b) J.H. Dunant
c) W.H. Morgan d) C.A. Bamord.
67. The Maastrich Treaty is for

a) Nuclear weapons free world b) Chemical weapons free world
c) Biological weapons free world d) Common European Union.
68. Who among the following was the Chairman of Sixth Pay Commission ?
a) Justice Rathnaval Pandian b) Justice Venkatachalliah
c) Justice A.K. Majumdar d) Justice B.N. Srikrishna.
69. Kyoto Protocol which was replaced by Cancun in December, 2010 relates to
a) Climate b) Water c) Air d) Soil.
64
70. Which of the following mountains has oldest rocks in India?

a) Aravallis b) Himalayas c) Sivaliks d) None.
SECTION III- LEGAL REASONING

71. PRINCIPLE: A master shall be responsible for the wrongful acts of his servants in the course of his
employment.
FACTS: The Syndicate Bank was running a small savings scheme under which its authorised agents
would go round and collect small savings from several people on daily basis. These agents would get
commission, on the deposits so collected. Ananth was one such agent, collecting deposits from factory
workers engaged on daily wages. Though he regularly carried on his business for some time, slowly he
started appropriating deposits for his personal use and one day he just disappeared. One Fatima, who
had been handing over her savings to him found that nearly for a month before his disappearance, he was
not depositing her savings at all. The Bank, when approached, took the stand that Ananth was not its
regular and paid employee and, therefore, it was not responsible for his misconduct. She files a suit against
the Bank.
a) The Bank is not liable, since Ananth was not its salaried employee
b) The Bank is liable, since Ananth was projected as its employee
c) The Bank is not liable, since it did not know about misappropriation by Ananth
d) None of the above.
72. PRINCIPLE: When the parties to an agreement agree on the same thing in the same sense, there
arises legally binding obligations between them.
FACTS: Zaverilal’s antique shop was a well-known shop of the locality. Taradevi, a socialite of the locality,
went to the shop and she was attracted by an earthern jar on display. Zaverilal explained to her that the
jar belonged to Hoysala period; and despite its earthern composition, it was very strong and almost
unbreakable. Taradevi replied to him that she was so captivated by the jar that it was immaterial to her as
to which period it belonged. She bought the jar and came home. She placed the jar in a prominent place
in her drawing room. One of her friends, an art critique, who happened to visit her, told her that the jar was
not at all an Antique, but Taradevi did not bother about it. One day, it accidentally fell down and broke into
pieces. Taradevi took up the matter with Zaverilal that his both statements were wrong and, therefore, he
should pay damages to her.
a) Zaverilal must compensate her, since his both the statements concerning jar were wrong
b) Zaverilal need not compensate, since, Taradevi was not concerned with its antique value at all
c) Zaverilal must compensate, because he carelessly made the statements
73. PRINCIPLE: Interfering with another’s goods in such a way as to deny the tatter’s title to the goods
amounts to conversion and it is a civil wrong.
FACTS: Ram went to the bicycle stand to park his bicycle and he found the stand fully occupied. Ram
removed a few bicycles in order to rearrange the stand and make some space for his bicycle. He parked
his bicycle properly and put back all the bicycles except the one belonging to Shyam. It was rather
negligent on the part of Ram and he was in fact in a hurry to get into his office. Somebody came on the
way and took away Shyam’s cycle. The watchman of the stand did not take care of it assuming that the
cycle was not parked inside the stand. Shyam filed a suit against Ram for conversion.
a) Shyam would succeed because Ram’s act led to the stealing of his bicycle
b) Shyam would not succeed, because Ram did not take away the bicycle himself
65
c) Ram would not be held responsible for the negligence of the watchman
74. PRINCIPLE: Damages are payable for breach of contract and the purpose of damages is to
compensate him for the loss suffered and not to improve his position more than what it would have been
if the contract had been duly performed.
FACTS: A wanted to buy a house and he contracted with a surveyor S to inspect a particular house and
value it for him. S surveyed the house and valued it for Rs. 10 lakhs. S, however, failed to notice the
defective plumbing system in the house and had he taken note of it, the house would have been worth
only Rs. 8 lakhs. A followed S’s advice and bought the house for Rs. 8 lakhs and thereafter spent Rs. 4
lakhs for repairing the plumbing system. He filed a suit against S claiming Rs. 4 lakhs as damages.
a) A should get Rs. 4 lakhs, because that was the amount that he had to spend finally to make the house
worth living
b) A should get Rs. 2 lakhs, since he paid additional Rs. 2 lakhs on account of S’s negligence
c) A should get Rs. 4 lakhs, since that loss was attributable to S’s negligence
75. PRINCIPLE: A right of action cannot arise out of an illegal activity.

FACTS: A and B were thieves engaged in stealing cars and other vehicles. Once they stole a car; and
while driving off, they had to cross a city. They engaged a driver to drive them through the city, since they
did not know the route inside. The indicator lamp of the car was not working and the thieves had not
realised this and therefore, had not told about it to the driver. While driving, through the city, the car was
hit by another vehicle because of the faulty indicator. In the accident, the driver was injured and he filed a
suit against A and B.
a) The driver would lose, because he was driving a stolen car

b) The driver would win, because he was not a party to the stealing
c) The driver would win, because he did not know anything about the stealing
76. PRINCIPLE: Law does not take notice of trifles.
FACTS: A proposes to his neighbour B that they both should go together for a morning walk. B agrees to
the proposal and it is decided that both of them would meet at a particular point at 6 A.M. from where
they would set off for the morning walk. Inspite of the agreement, B does not turn up. A wait for him at 6
A.M. every day for a continuous period of seven days. Thereafter he files a suit against B claiming
damages for the agony and mental torture suffered by him.
DECIDE
a) B is guilty of breach of contract and is liable to pay damages
b) There is no intention to enter into legal relations
c) The matter is too small and the court will refuse to go into it
77. PRINCIPLE: Limitation bars the remedy, not the right.
FACTS: After the expiry of the period of limitation of three years, debtor Rohan makes a part payment of
debt to creditor Sohan. Sohan then files a suit against Rohan for recovery of the debt after two years
from the date of part payment.
DECIDE
a) The part payment extends the period of limitation
b) The suit is time-barred as part payment is made after the expiry of period of limitation
66
c) Fresh period of limitation begins from the date of part payment

78. PRINCIPLE: Ignorance of law is no excuse.
FACTS: A fails to file his income-tax returns for ten years. The Income-tax department issues to him
notice to show cause why proceedings should not be initiated against him for the recovery of the income-
tax due from him with interest and penalty.
ADVISE
a) He may take the plea that his advocate had advised him not to file the return as his income was not
taxable
b) He may request the department to waive the interest and penalty
c) A must pay the tax due as ignorance of law cannot be ground of defence
79. PRINCIPLE: Nobody shall make use of his property in such a way as to cause damage to others.
Any such use constitutes private nuisance, a wrongful act under Law of Torts.
FACTS: Vasan was owing a house, adjacent to a cluster of houses, owned by Varadan. Varadan was
leasing out these houses whereas Vasan was living in his house. When Vasan was transferred to another
place, he leased out his house to a person suffering from AIDS. Fearing the spread of AIDS, the tenants
moved out of Varadan’s houses. Varadan requested Vasan to evict AIDS patient and he offered to fix a
suitable tenant for Vasan’s house, if the AIDS patient is evicted. But Vasan refused by arguing that AIDS
would not spread as feared by Varadan’s tenants. Varadan filed a suit against Vasan.
a) Varadan will win, because Vasan knowingly caused him financial damage
b) Varadan will not win, because Vasan could lease his house to whomever he wanted
c) Varadan will not win, because Vasan should not be held responsible for public mis-perception
80. PRINCIPLE: One has to compensate another for the injury caused due to his wrongful act. The
liability to compensate is reduced to the extent the latter has contributed to the injury through his own
negligence. This is the underlying principle of contributory negligence.
FACTS: Veerappa owns a farm at a distance of half a furlong from the railway track. He stored in his land
the stacks of dried up straw after the cultivation as is normal in farming. One day when the train was
passing through the track, the driver was negligently operating the locomotive by allowing it to emit large
quantities of spark. The high wind, normal in open fields, carried the sparks to the stacks stored by
Veerappa and the stacks caught fire thereby causing extensive damage. Veerappa filed a suit against the
Railways claiming damages. The Railways while acknowledging liability alleged contributory negligence
on the part of Veerappa.
a) Veerappa was not liable since his use of land was lawful
b) Veerappa’s farm being at a reasonable distance from the railway track, he cannot be held responsible
for the high winds
c) Veerappa should have anticipated the possibility and hence he is liable for contributory negligence
81. PRINCIPLE: A person is entitled to protect his property by using lawful means.
FACTS: Ramlal is growing valuable vegetables and fruits in his farm and he has fenced the farm to prevent
the cattle from entering into it. In addition, he has kept a ferocious dog to chase away intruding urchins
and cattles. Some children were playing in a nearby playground and the ball slipped into the farm. A boy
running after the ball came near the fence and shouted for the ball. But when there was no response, he
67
managed to creep into the farm to get the ball. The dog which was surreptitiously waiting attacked the boy
and badly mauled him. The boy’s parents filed a suit against Ramlal.
a) Ramlal is not liable, since the fence and the dog are lawful means of protecting the property
b) Ramlal is not liable for the boy trespassing and getting badly injured in that process
c) Ramlal is liable, since an ordinary barking dog would have sufficed for the purpose
82. PRINCIPLE: A person who commits an unlawful act towards another which can be imputed to him,
must repair the damage which the other person suffers as a consequence thereof.
FACTS: Mr. Rajender Singh was riding his scooter on the right side of the road which is illegal as per the
Traffic Rules. Mr. Rajesh Chawla was driving his car in the opposite direction. The two vehicles collided
and resulted in loss of Rs. 50,000 to Mr. Rajender Singh. This includes his medical expenses and damage
to the scooter. In this accident there is no fault on the part of Mr. Rajesh Chawla.
a) Mr. Rajender Singh will not get any amount as damages

b) Mr. Rajender Singh will get full compensation
c) Mr. Rajender Singh will get part of compensation
83. PRINCIPLE: When there is breach of contract, the resulting damages will have to be paid by the party
breaching the contract to the aggrieved party. However, the parties are free to agree as to damages
payable in advance in case there is breach of contract.
FACTS: Mr. Ramesh entered into a contract with Mr. Ramakrishna for selling his green Alto Car for Rs. 3
lakhs. Mr. Ramakrishna was to pay Rs. 3 lakhs on or before 25th April, 2005 and take possession of the
car. The party failing to honour the contract has to pay Rs. 40,000 as damages to the other party. Mr.
Ramakrishna has not performed his part of the contract. Mr. Ramesh is claiming Rs. 40,000.
a) Mr. Ramesh can sell the car in the second-hand market and if he suffers any loss, then only he can
claim that amount from Mr. Ramakrishna
b) Mr. Ramakrishna is liable to pay the agreed damages
c) Mr. Ramesh has to prove that he has suffered Rs. 40,000 as damages to get it
84. PRINCIPLE: Every person has a right of self-defence, if his life is under imminent threat.
FACTS: Mr. Prashanth threatens Mr. Krishna that he will kill Mr. Krishna. After saying so, Mr. Prashanth
goes to his house saying that he would get his axe.
a) Mr. Krishna will have to run away

b) Mr. Krishna will have to go to the Police Station and file a complaint
c) Mr. Krishna cannot exercise the right of self-defence
85. PRINCIPLE: Whoever does any act so rashly or negligently as to endanger human life or the
personal safety of others is said to have committed an offence.
FACTS: Mr. Mangeskar owns a Yamaha motorcycle which has very good pick up and speed. He is
studying in the IV semester of Mechanical Engineering degree course. One day it was getting late for the
college as he woke up late in the morning. He got ready and was rushing to the college so that he would
not miss the class. He was riding the motor cycle at a speed of 140-km per hour in Bangalore city which
was crowded. He was very good in riding the motorcycle. People who were using the road got
annoyed/scared with the way Mr. Mangeskar was riding the motorcycle.
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a) Mr. Mangeskar has committed an act of rash and negligent driving

b) Mr. Mangeskar is very good in driving, so there is no need for others to be panicky about his driving
c) Mr. Mangeskar is very studious student and he does not want to miss any class in the College
86. PRINCIPLE: When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act, it is criminal conspiracy
punishable with imprisonment.
FACTS: Mr. Bharath is a student of B.E. in Computer Science. He loves his computer very much. He
considers his computer as his close friend and companion. On 1-4-2006, while interacting with his
computer, he hacked into the Bank account of Mr. Javed and was successful in withdrawing money from
Mr. Javed’s bank account. He did it to please his girlfriend.
a) Mr. Bharath has committed an offence

b) Mr. Bharath has committed a cyber-crime
c) Mr. Bharath has not committed the offence of criminal conspiracy
87. PRINCIPLE: Contractual liability is completely irrelevant to the existence of liability in tort (civil
wrong).
FACTS: X purchased a bottle of ginger- beer from a retailer. As she consumed more than 3/4 of the
contents of the bottle, she found decomposed remains of a snail in the bottle. After seeing the remains of
a snail, she fell sick on the thought of what she consumed. She sued the manufacturer of the beer for
negligence, though there is no contractual duty on the part of the manufacturer.
a) X cannot sue the manufacturer for negligence in the absence of a contract

b) X cannot sue the retailer
c) X can sue the manufacturer as he had a duty to take care to see that bottles did not contain any other
substance than the beer and hence liable to have broken that duty
88. PRINCIPLE: The standard to determine whether a person has been guilty of negligence is the
standard of care which, in the given circumstances, a reasonable man could have foreseen.
FACTS: The Agricultural University constructed 200 houses for its employees in its premises. Two huge
bore wells were sunk and motors were installed. They did not cover the pump rooms properly. A child, 6
years old, from one of the quarters was playing near the pumphouse. On hearing the noise of the pump,
she was curious to see the motor. She touched the motor that was not covered properly and three of her
fingers were cut.
a) The parents of the child cannot sue the University on any grounds
b) Inspite of the child’s act, her parents can successfully sue the University for damages
c) The University can be made liable only to the extent of the cost of treatment as the child also
contributed to the incident
89. PRINCIPLE: A person is liable for all the injurious consequences of his careless act.
FACTS: Ram, a snake charmer, was exhibiting his talents to a group of people. One of the snakes
escaped and bit a child who had to be hospitalised for two days for treatment.
a) Ram is liable to compensate the child’s family for his careless act
b) Ram is not liable to anything as such things keep happening
c) Ram is not in a position to compensate as he is poor
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90. PRINCIPLE: A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event,

collateral to such contract, does or does not happen.
FACTS: A agrees to pay B a sum of Rs. 1 lakh if B marries C within a period of six months. B marries C
during the seventh month as the marriage hall was available only during that month. B claims Rs. 1 lakh
from A.
a) B can successfully claim Rs. 1 lakh from A

b) B cannot claim Rs. 1 lakh from A as B married C after the duration set in the contract
c) B can claim Rs. 1 lakh as well as special damages from A for having married C
91. PRINCIPLE: Right to carry on any occupation, trade or business is a Fundamental Right under the
Indian Constitution. The State is under an obligation under the Directive Principles of State Policy to
organize agriculture and animal husbandry on scientific lines, and towards that goal, take steps to prohibit
cow slaughter.
FACTS: The State of X passed a legislation totally prohibiting cow slaughter. A, a butcher, trading in
meat of all animals including cows, challenged this legislation as violating the fundamental right to carry
on his business.
a) The State of X cannot make a law taking away any fundamental right. Such law is null and void
b) The State can prohibit cow slaughter to organize animal husbandry on scientific lines
c) The right to carry on any occupation, trade or business is subject to reasonable restrictions. Banning
cow- slaughter is such a restriction to better animal husbandry production and it is within the power of
State
92. PRINCIPLE: The Constitution guarantees freedom of religion and expects the citizen to respect
national anthem as a fundamental duty.
FACTS: According to the religions tenets of a particular sect, singing the praise of any entity other than
God is forbidden. The child, belonging to that sect, refuses to sing national anthem in the course of school
assembly, in which every child must compulsorily participate. When the disciplinary action was instituted
against the child, the parents challenged the school’s order of singing the national anthem.
a) The school can take disciplinary action against the child as it is the fundamental duty to respect
national anthem
b) The fundamental right to freedom of religion cannot be abridged by a fundamental duty imposed by
the State
c) The girl is free to follow the religion of her choice and follow its rules. It cannot be said to be disrespect
on the part of the girl if she refuses to sing national anthem
93. PRINCIPLE: All citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression.
FACTS: X, a famous writer and novelist criticized another novelist, B stating that: “The novel of B is
foolish, he is a weak man, his novel is indecent, his mind is impure, he is not of a good character, he
should write decent and good novel.” Can X be sued for defamation?
a) He is not liable because he has just expressed his personal views

b) He is liable to be sued for defamation if his statement, was not true or said in mala fide intention
c) He cannot be liable because he has fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression
d) He cannot be sued, because both are writer and novelists and both can criticize each other.
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94. PRINCIPLE: A citizen is expected to take reasonable duty of care while driving on the road and not
to cause injuries to any person. (Common for Qs. 94, 95 and 96)
FACTS: X, the owner of a car, asked his friend Y to drive the car to his office. As the car was near his
(X’s) office, it hit a pedestrian P on account of Y’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. P sued X
for damages. Which one of the following is correct?
a) X is not liable as it was the negligence of Y

b) The liability was solely of Y as X was not accompanying him
c) As Y was driving under X’s care and authority, X is liable
d) X is not liable under the principle of inevitable accident.
95. The standard of care generally used in cases of negligence is the
a) skill and care of a professional person

b) care taken by an intelligent and prudent man
c) foresight of a prudent man
d) skill and foresight of an ordinary person of prudence and competence.
96. Two persons are said to be joint tort-feasors when

a) a person on account of his negligence gives opportunity to another for committing a tort
b) two or more persons are simultaneously involved in committing a wrong
c) a tort is committed by two or more persons or any one of them when they are engaged in furtherance
of a concerted purpose
d) two persons together commit a tort.
97. PRINCIPLE: The law permits citizens to use force only for protection when necessary against
imminent attack. (Common for Qs. 97, 98 and 99)
FACTS: P with the intention of committing theft entered the house of Q. Q, on seeing him entering,
struck him with a lathi and P fell down unconscious. Thereafter, Q gave him another blow of lathi on his
head which caused, his death. On being prosecuted for murder, Q took the plea of private defense.
Which of the following argument is valid?
a) Since Q was acting in the exercise of right of private defense of his property, he had taken a valid
defence
b) Since in the defence of one’s property one cannot cause death of the intruder, Q has no defense
c) Q has used excessive force as once P fell unconscious; there was no need for the second blow.
Hence, Q’s plea of right of private defence will not succeed
d) If P committed house breaking in the night, Q has the right to cause death in defense of his property,
and thus Q’s plea should prevail.
98. To whom, among the following, is the right of private defence is available?
1. Only to the defender being a preventive right
2. An aggressor, while facing action on the part of the defender which is excessive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2.
99. X’s farm house in outskirts of Delhi was attacked by a gang of armed robbers. X without informing
the police, at first warned the robbers by firing in the air. As they were fleeing from the farm, he fired and
killed one of them. At the trial
1. X can avail the right of private defence as he was defending his life and property
2. X cannot avail the right as he failed to inform the police
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3. X cannot avail the right as he caused more harm than was necessary to ward off the danger
4. X can avail of the right as at first, he only fires in the air
a) I and IV b) II only c) II and III d) IV only.
100. PRINCIPLE: Conspiracy is a combination between two or more persons formed for the purpose of
doing either an unlawful act or a lawful act by unlawful means.
FACTS: X and Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy procures the poison and
delivers it to Y in order that he may administer it to Z. Y in pursuance of the conspiracy administers the
poison in the presence of X and thereby causes Z’s death. What offence, if any has been committed by
X and Y, respectively? (Common for Qs: 100, 101 and 102)
a) Y has committed the offence of murder and X was an abettor

b) Both X and Y have committed the offence of criminal conspiracy
c) X has committed the offence of murder and Y was an abettor
d) Both X and Y have committed the offence of murder.
101. Suppose X and Y were apprehended by A before administering poison to Z. What is the offence
committed by X and Y ?
a) X and Y are not guilty of conspiracy as they did not cause death of Z
b) Liability of X comes to an end and Y is only liable
c) As no offence is committed and none of them are responsible
d) X and Y are to be punished as it is immaterial whether illegal act is ultimate object of the agreement or
merely incidental to that object.
102. The gist of the offence of criminal conspiracy is
a) agreement is necessary between two or more persons to do or cause to be done an illegal act
b) a legal act by illegal means followed by an overt act to be done or cause to be done according to
agreement
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above.
103. PRINCIPLE: Contributory negligence in an accident is a defence to a charge in criminal law.
FACTS: X, the deceased was negligently crossing the busy road at Connaught Place in Delhi while Y’s
car hit him resulting in death of X. What is the liability of Y?
a) Y is liable for death of X

b) Y is partly liable as X contributed to his own death
c) Y is absolved from liability based on the principle of contributory negligence
104. PRINCIPLE: A contract without consideration is void. When at the desire of one party the other
party does something, the consideration is said to flow from the latter to the former.
FACTS: A’s house was on fire and a child was trapped inside the house. Everyone was shouting for
help. A brave onlooker, hearing the shrieks of child, went inside the house and brought him out. The
father of the child promised to pay the rescuer Rs. 10,000. Subsequently, he backtracked his promise.
The rescuer sued the promise for the breach.
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a) The father of the child must pay for the service rendered by the rescuer
b) The rescuer is not entitled to the payment, since he acted on his own
c) Commercial considerations cannot be applied to humanitarian instincts
105. PRINCIPLE: A contract procured by coercion is bad under Indian Contract Act. Coercion is defined
as committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by Indian Penal Code. Attempt to commit
suicide is an offence under India Penal Code.
FACTS: A wanted his wife B to part with some landed property given to her by her father. B resisted fearing
that her husband would squander it away. A threatened her that if she does not sign the deed transferring
the property to him (i.e., A), he would commit suicide. B signed the deed. Subsequently, she challenged
the deed on the ground that the deed was bad under law.
a) The deed is valid under the law

b) The transfer of property is complete once the deed is entered between the owner of the property and
the buyer
c) The deed is not valid as it was signed under the threat of suicide by her husband which amounts to
coercion and vitiates the contract
d) Husband has a right over the property of the wife that was voluntarily transferred to the buyer.
SECTION IV- LOGICAL REASONING

Direction: Find out the missing word.
106. Carpet: Floor :: ? : Wall

a) Wall paper b) Wall hanging c) Scenery d) Oil painting.
107. Kaziranga : Rhino :: ? : Lion

a) Corbett b) Kanha c) Gir d) Sunderbans.
Direction: Find out that word/number.
108. AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?

a) IYZ b) HWX c) IWX d) JWX.
109. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?

a) 66 b) 76 c) 81 d) 86.
110. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as his son.
The age of the son is
a) 12 b) 15 c) 18 d) 20.
111. A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that
the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 9.35 a.m. At what time did the
enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger?
a) 9.10 a.m. b) 8.55 a.m. c) 9.08 a.m. d) 9.15 a.m.
112. Soaking dried beans overnight before cooking them reduces cooking time. However, cooking
without pre-soaking yields plumper beans. Therefore, when a bean dish’s quality is more important than
the need to cook that dish quickly, beans should not be pre-soaked.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?
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a) Plumper beans enhance the quality of a dish

b) There are no dishes whose quality improves with faster cooking
c) A dish’s appearance is as important as its taste
d) None of the other ingredients in the dish need to be pre-soaked.
113. Everyone in Biba’s neighbourhood is permitted to swim at Barton Pool at some time during each
day that it is open. No children under the age of 6 are permitted to swim at Barton Pool between noon
and 5 P.M. From 5 P.M. until closing, Barton Pool is reserved for adults only.
If all the sentences above are true, then which one of the following must be true?
a) Few children under the age of 6 live in Biba’s neighbourhood

b) If Biba’s next door neighbour has a child under the age of 6, then Barton Pool is open before noon
c) If most children who swim in Barton Pool swim in the afternoon, then the pool is generally less
crowded after 5 P.M.
d) On days when Barton Pool is open, at least some children swim there in the afternoon.
Direction: Find out the missing alphabet/ number.
114. D, H, L, R, ?
a) T b) X c) I d) O.
115. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
a) 92 b) 115 c) 127 d) 131.
116. If SIR is written as PSPIPR, then MAN can be written as

a) PMANP b) PMPAPN c) MANP d) MPANP.
117. In a certain code language, 35796 is written as 44887. How is 46823 written in that code?
a) 57914 b) 55914 c) 55934 d) 55714.
118. If day before yesterday was Tuesday, the day after tomorrow will be
a) Monday b) Wednesday c) Friday d) Saturday.
119. Ram is facing North-West. He turns in clockwise direction by 90°, then 180° in the anti-clockwise
direction and then another 90° in the same direction. Which direction is he facing now?
a) South-West b) West c) South d) South-East.
120. One morning after sunrise, Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their backs towards
each other, Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left hand side. Which direction was Shailesh facing?
a) East b) West c) North d) South.
121. Zack’s Coffeehouse schedules free poetry readings almost every Wednesday. Zack’s offers half-
priced coffee all day on every day that a poetry reading is scheduled.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the information above?
a) Wednesday is the most common day on which Zack’s offers half-priced coffee all day
b) Most free poetry readings given at Zack’s are scheduled for Wednesdays
c) Free poetry readings are scheduled on almost every day that Zack’s offers half-priced coffee all day
d) Zack’s offers half-priced coffee all day on most if not all Wednesdays.
122. If it is true that neither Rama is a brother of Krishna, nor is he a lecturer, then which of the following
statements is true?
a) Rama is not a brother of Krishna, but he is a lecturer
b) Rama is a brother of Krishna, but he is not a lecturer
c) Rama is a brother of Krishna and he is a lecturer
d) Rama is not a brother of Krishna and he is not a lecturer.
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123. “Make hay while the sun shines” is logically similar to

a) Sleep when you are tired b) Take the bull by horn
c) Losing hope of everything d) None of the above.
124. The Constitution has given the right of free speech. People speak freely in order to enjoy this right.
Which of the following has the same logic?
a) Smuggling is illegal. People indulge in smuggling because they want to violate laws
b) People have the right to live, but they die, since they do not want to exercise that right
c) Wealth gives power to enjoy material things. People enjoy these things by spending their wealth
d) All of the above.
125. Literature is the mirror in which the society can see itself. The above statement implies that
a) no ugly society can produce good literature
b) writers are essentially like newspaper correspondents, reporting faithfully what they are observing
c) literature enables the people to comprehend the dimensions which they are unaware of
d) none of the above.
126. It is time that begging must be forbidden in all public places in India. Exploitation of charitable
instincts in general, far from solving the problem of poverty, may infact aggravate it by inducing laziness.
Which of the following, if true, would support the above reasoning?
a) Destitution is the result of unwillingness to work
b) Most beggars are really poor
c) All poor people do not beg
127. Child labour is only a reflection of the malaise in the society.

Which of the following, supports the above statement?
a) Child labour is not abhorred by the public
b) The Government is not serious about eliminating child labour
c) Exploitation of the poor, weak and unorganized is not uncommon
128. If it is true that ‘good governance ensures law and order’, then identify the statement which has to
be accepted along with the given statement.
a) A healthy society is governed by maximum number of laws
b) A strong government uses force to enforce law
c) Law is indispensible for the society
129. If it is true that ‘very rarely do we come across committed film directors’, which one of the following
is false beyond doubt?
a) We can never come across committed film directors
b) No film director is committed
c) All film directors are committed, but we can never meet them
130. If it is true that all men are honest and all politicians are men. For which among the following is it
impossible to follow from the given premises?
a) Some politicians are not honest
b) All politicians are honest
c) One politician is honest
d) All honest persons are politicians.
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131. Consider a set of premises like this: if science and religion clash, then
critical thinking and dogma will clash. Dogma is not acceptable and hence religion. But critical thinking
shakes the foundation of morality.
Identify the conclusion which follows from the premises.
a) If science is not accepted, then the foundations of morality are not shaken
b) If foundations of morality are shaken, then science is acceptable
c) If science is accepted, then foundations of morality are shaken
d) Though science is accepted, it cannot shake the foundation of morality.
132. If Ramesh likes oranges more than grapes, strawberries more than apples, and apples more than
oranges, then which one of the following is not true?
a) He likes grapes more than strawberries b) He likes strawberries more than grapes
c) He likes apples more than grapes d) He likes strawberries more than apples.
133. “Justice should not only be done, but seen to have been done”. The statement intends to convey
the message that
a) Court proceedings must be open to public
b) Public participation in judicial decision making is essential for timely justice
c) Court proceedings must be fair and judgments should be based on legal reasoning
d) All court cases must be publicizes and reported to the public in their own language.
134. Yoga has become a very popular type of exercise, but it may not be for everyone. Before you sign
yourself up for a yoga class, you need to examine what is it you want from your fitness routine. If you’re
looking for a high-energy, fast-paced aerobic workout, a yoga class might not be your best choice.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
a) Yoga is more popular than high- impact aerobics
b) Before embarking on a new exercise regimen, you should think about your needs and desires
c) Yoga is changing the world of fitness in major ways
d) Most people think that yoga isn’t a rigorous form of exercise.
135. Which one of the following, even if true, can be empirically tested?
a) Violence is engineered by power- hungry politicians
b) Only poor are driven to violence
c) Faith in God alone can contain violence
d) Instinct to preserve one’s own self is at the root of violence.
136. Which one of the following, whether true or false, is irrelevant to the issue?
a) Also, violence is due to the fact there is a tendency in man to enjoy when somebody suffers
b) Violence is commonplace in the world because men hardly learn philosophy
c) Violence is the overt manifestation of covert desire to. be adventurous
d) Violence is the result of man’s tendency to assert himself.
137. Which one of the following makes the argument self-contradictory?

a) The soul has finite existence b) Whatever is corruptible is soluble
c) What is spatial is material d) Motion is not a reality.
138. Before Robert Norman worked on ‘Dip and Field Concept’, his predecessor thought that the
tendency of the magnetic needle to swing towards the poles was due to a point attractive. However,
Norman showed with the help of experiment that nothing like point attractive exists. Instead, he argued
that magnetic power lies in lodestone.
Which one of the following is the problem on which Norman and others worked?
a) Existence of point attractive b) Magnetic power in lodestone
c) Magnetic power in needle d) Swinging of magnetic needle.
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139. In his study of conduction of heat, James Maxwell observed that quantities which are significant in
such a study are ‘temperature, flow of heat and conductivity’. Further, he noticed that the mathematical
laws of the uniform motion of heat in homogenous media are identical in form with those of attractions
varying inversely as the square of the distance. He thought source of heat, flow of heat and temperature
correspond respectively to centre of attraction, accelerating effect of attraction and potential. On this
ground, Maxwell observed that conduction of heat proceeds by an action between contiguous parts of a
medium.
Which one of the following best explains Maxwell’s method?
a) Mathematical calculation b) Analogy
c) Observation d) Experiment.
140. Henry Poincare argued that in space there are not only rectilinear triangles in which angles equal to
two right angles, but also curvilinear triangles in which angles are less than two right angles. He, further,
maintained that to name the first one straight is to subscribe to Euclidean geometry and to name the
latter straight is tantamount to subscribing to non- Euclidean system.
Which one of the following accurately represents what is at stake?

a) Acceptability of Euclidean system b) Acceptability of Non-Euclidean system
c) Confusion in Geometry d) Choice of the definition of straight angle.
SECTION V- MATHEMATICAL ABILITY

141. Kirti took loan of Rs. 800 at the rate of 11% per year for 7 months. After seven months she has to
pay
a) Rs. 851 b) Rs. 852 c) Rs. 950 d) Rs. 951.
142. 16 men can do a piece of work in 16 days. 4 days after they started the work, 8 more men joined
them. How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work?
a) 10 days b) 6 days c) 8 days d) 12 days.
143. The number of the members of a club is increased by 10% every year. If the initial number of the
members is 500, then what will be the number at the beginning of the third year?
a) 610 b) 615 c) 620 d) 605.
144. A student rides a bicycle at 8 kms/hr and reaches the school 2.5 minutes late. The next day he
increases the speed to 10 kms/hr and reaches school 5 minutes early. How far is the school from his
house?
a) 4 kms b) 8 kms c) 5 kms d) 10 kms.
145. Rs. 324 is divided among three friends Sonu, Monu and Hari in the ratio 5:6:7. What is Monu’s
share of money?
a) 68 b) 108 c) 60 d) 120.
146. In an examination, every candidate took either Physics or Mathematics or both. 84% of the
candidates took Physics and candidates who took Mathematics were half of those who took Physics.
The total number of candidates being 1000, how many took both Physics and Mathematics?
a) 200 b) 240 c) 250 d) 260.
147. A company declares a dividend of 12% on Rs. 100 shares? A housewife buys such shares and gets
15% on her investment. At what price she bought the shares?
a) Rs. 80 b) Rs. 85 c) Rs. 125 d) Rs. 76.
148. The price of an article is cut by 10%. To restore it to the original value, the new price must be
increased by
a) 10% b) 9 ⁻¹̷₁₁% c) 11% d) 11¹̷₉%
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149. A shopkeeper mixes two varieties of Tea, one costing Rs. 40/kg and another Rs. 50/ kg in the ratio
3 : 2. If he sells the mixed variety of Tea at Rs. 48/kg, his gain or loss per cent is
a) 48.4% gain b) 48.4% loss c) 10% gain d) 10% loss.
150. The value of a car depreciates every year at the rate of 10% on its value at the beginning of the
year. If the present value of the car is Rs. 52,488, its worth four years ago was
a) Rs. 68,232 b) Rs. 68,234 c) Rs. 69,862 d) Rs. 80,000
AILET 2011 Answers

1 D 31 D 61 C 91 C 121 D
2 A 32 A 62 D 92 C 122 D
3 D 33 B 63 B 93 B 123 A
4 B 34 A 64 B 94 C 124 C
5 B 35 C 65 B 95 D 125 C
6 D 36 B 66 B 96 C 126 A
7 C 37 C 67 D 97 C 127 C
8 D 38 C 68 D 98 C 128 C
9 B 39 C 69 A 99 C 129 A
10 B 40 B 70 A 100 D 130 D
11 D 41 D 71 A 101 D 131 C
12 B 42 C 72 B 102 A 132 A
13 B 43 B 73 B 103 C 133 B
14 B 44 D 74 A 104 B 134 B
15 D 45 D 75 B 105 C 135 B
16 C 46 A 76 C 106 B 136 B
17 B 47 B 77 C 107 C 137 D
18 A 48 C 78 C 108 C 138 A
19 B 49 D 79 C 109 C 139 C
20 B 50 C 80 A 110 B 140 B
21 D 51 C 81 C 111 D 141 A
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 A 142 C
23 C 53 A 83 B 113 B 143 D
24 B 54 B 84 B 114 B 144 C
25 D 55 D 85 A 115 C 145 B
26 B 56 C 86 C 116 B 146 D
27 A 57 B 87 C 117 B 147 A
28 C 58 B 88 B 118 D 148 D
29 A 59 D 89 A 119 D 149 C
30 C 60 A 90 B 120 D 150 D
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AILET 2012
SECTION I- LEGAL APTITUDE
1. What is minimum duration of stay essential before a person can apply for citizenship of India?
a) Five years b) Seven years c) Nine years d) Twelve years.
2. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by

a) State legislature b) President c) Central Government d) Parliament.
3. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

a) have been specified by the Presidential Orders issued in consultation with the Governors of the
respective States
b) have been specified in the Constitution by the Constitution makers in the form of a Schedule
c) have to be specified and notified by the Parliament after detailed discussions about the backward
nature of these people
d) are the Castes and Tribes notified by the State Government after detailed discussion as to their socio-
economic conditions.
4. Free legal aid for an accused is a

a) Fundamental Right b) Fundamental Duty of the State
c) Directive Principles of State Policy d) Discretion of the State.
5. The concept of Secular State is that the State will not make any discrimination on the ground of
religion, caste or community against any person professing any particular form of religious faith. The
Secularism is embodied in
a) Preamble of Constitution b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Rights d) Judicial Interpretation of Fundamental Rights.
6. The National Development Council consists of

a) Members of Planning Commission b) Cabinet Ministers and State Chief Ministers
c) Representatives of Union Territories d) All of the above
7. Who allocates portfolios among the Ministers?

a) Prime Minister b) President
c) President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister d) Chairperson of Ruling Political
Party.
8. Which Indian language is given the status of ‘Classical language’ by the Central Government?
a) Sanskrit b) Telugu c) Tamil d) Pali.
9. Each member of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions on procedural matters are to be taken
by_________permanent members. Here veto does not apply. On all other matters, there must be nine
affirmative votes including those of five permanent members.
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 5.
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10. The first venture of Mahatma Gandhi in all India Politics was
a) Non-cooperation Movement b) Dandi March
c) Champaran Movement d) Rowlatt Satyagrah.
11. The “Right to Information” (RTI) is a

a) Constitutional Right b) Statutory Right
c) Fundamental Right d) Contractual Right.
12. Which of the following committees has recommended measures for banning and controlling ragging
in educational establishments in India?
a) The Raghavan Committee b) Jasraj Committee
c) Narsimhan Committee d) Soli Sorabjee Committee.
13. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of

a) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
b) The Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
c) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
d) The Deputy Prime Minister.
14. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India or High Court of any State can be removed by the President
of India only
a) when the Principles of Natural Justice are followed and the alleged misconduct is proved in an
impartial enquiry
b) if he is satisfied through the report made by the Chief Justice of India that the misconduct of the judge
has been proved
c) when an address is made by both the Houses of Parliament in the same session asking for his/her
removal on the grounds of proven misbehaviour and incapacity
d) when the President and the Prime Minister are satisfied that he or she has committed a misconduct
and the same has been proved before a competent authority.
15. The Constitution of India is the result of considerable imitation and adaptation rather than originality
because
a) Makers of Indian Constitution drew much from the American Constitution, Canadian Constitution and
British made Government of India Act, 1935
b) Makers of Indian Constitution drew much from Swiss Constitution, German Constitution and
Government of India Act of 1919
c) Makers of Indian Constitution drew much from Constitution of Singapore, Constitution of Sri Lanka
and Government of India Act of 1919
d) Makers of Indian Constitution drew from Constitution of South Africa, Constitution of Netherlands and
Government of India Act of 1919.
16. For transfer of accused person from a foreign State to India for any offence within India or relating to
India is done
a) by previous repatriation agreement between India and concerned foreign country
b) by instant repatriation agreement between India and concerned foreign country
c) at the desire of ambassador representing India in concerned foreign country
d) at the desire of the ambassador who represents concerned foreign country in India.
17. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is certified by the _______and his decision is conclusive.
a) President b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha d) Chairman of Public Accounts Committee.
18. seats are reserved in all Panchayats at all levels for women.
(a) One-fourth (b) One-third (c) One-half (d) Two-third.
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19. A seat of a M.P. can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the House for a continuous period
of
a) Six months b) Two months c) Three months d) One year.
20. What is true with Members of Parliament’s immunity from arrest?

a) In civil cases while, the Legislature is in Session, for 40 days before and after and in criminal cases no
arrest during Parliament Session
b) In civil cases, while Legislature is in Session and for 40 days before and after and in criminal cases
arrest can be made at any time
c) In civil cases while the Legislature is in Session, for 20 days before and after and in criminal cases no
arrest during Parliament Session
d) In civil cases, while Legislature is in Session and for 20 days before and after and in criminal cases
arrest can be made at any time.
21. The maximum duration of the zero hour in Lok Sabha can be
(a) One hour (b) Unspecified (c) 30 minutes (d) Two hours.
22. Dealing with the chapter of citizenship under the Constitution, the Supreme Court has held that Sonia
Gandhi, the President of Congress (I) is not an Italian citizen, but is an Indian citizen because she is
governed by
a) Article 10, Constitution of India b) Article 11, Constitution of India
c) The Citizenship Act, 1955 d) Article 5, Constitution of India.
23. What is true with appointment of Attorney-General for India?

a) He can be appointed by President of India and is qualified to be appointed a Judge of Supreme Court
b) He can be appointed by President of India and is qualified to be appointed a Judge of High Court
c) He can be appointed by a Special Commission and is qualified to be appointed as Law Minister
d) He can be appointed by Chief Justice of India and is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme
Court.
24. The earliest Codified Laws (Civil and Criminal) that defined and demarcated for first time in India
during 335-345 A.D. was followed in the
a) Huna reign b) Sakka reign c) Mughal reign d) Gupta reign.
25. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Objectives Resolution?
I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly
II. It called for just right for minorities
III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights
IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity
a) I and II
b) I, II and III
c) III and IV
d) Only III.
26. The right to constitutional remedies in India is available to

a) only the citizen of India
b) all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right
c) any person for enforcing any rights conferred on them
d) an aggrieved individual alone.
27. Money bills can be introduced in the State Legislature with the prior consent of the
a) President b) Governor c) Speaker d) Chief Minister.
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28. While a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the State Government

a) cannot legislate
b) can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List
c) can legislate on the subjects in the State List
d) is suspended.
29. A political party is recognised by the Election Commission only if

I. it has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years
II. has returned at least one member of the Lok Sabha for every 25 members of that House or any
fraction of that number elected from that State
III. has polled not less than six per cent of the total number of valid votes polled by all contesting
candidates at the general elections
IV. has contested elections in four or more states in three consecutive general elections
a) I and II
b) I, III and IV
c) I, II and III
d) I, II, III and IV.
30. Electioneering has to stop in a constituency

a) one day before the election b) 48 hours before election starts
c) 36 hours before a poll commences d) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
Directions (Q. 31-Q.35): Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation.
Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
31. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: In case of a breach of contract, compensation can be awarded for the personal
inconvenience suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in the usual course of
things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result
from the breach of it.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunita and Sushmita bought bus tickets for a journey from Adyar to Mandaveli.
The bus was to go to St. Thomas Mount via Mandaveli. However, the driver mistakenly took a wrong
direction and the two girls were dropped at a distance of 2½ miles from Mandaveli on the highway. With
no other transportation in sight or a place to stay, the two had to walk 2½ miles at midnight. Later they
filed a case against the bus company and claimed Rs. 5000 as damages for inconvenience caused in
having to walk and Rs. 6500 for Sushmita having fallen ill by catching cold during the night.
DECISION:
a) Both the amounts are liable to be paid because Sunita and Sushmita suffered loss for no fault of
theirs.
b) The bus company is liable to pay both the amounts claimed because the loss was suffered on account
of the fault of the bus company and the inconvenience suffered and illness arose was in the normal
course of things from breach of contract.
c) The compensation for inconvenience suffered by being forced to walk at night is liable to be paid by
the bus company. However, no compensation for Sushmita’s illness because this was not expected on
account of breach of contract.
d) The bus company is not liable to pay any amount, because it was the driver’s fault
32. LEGAL PRINCIPLE:

I. Any law made by the Parliament that infringes the fundamental rights of the citizens is invalid and
unenforceable.
II. Freedom to carry on trade or profession of one’s own choice is a fundamental right.
III. The Parliament is competent to impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of this right.
IV. If the restrictions, on fundamental rights imposed by the Parliament, totally removes or nullifies any
fundamental right then it will be construed as an unreasonable restriction.
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FACTUAL SITUATION: In order to ensure that people live in an amicable atmosphere the Government
of India decided to abolish courts and constituted Dispute Settlement Boards. Further to achieve this
objective, the law stipulated that lawyers should not be allowed to espouse the claims of parties, and
instead their claims be espoused by social workers.
DECISION:
a) The law made by the Parliament is valid as it does not infringe any fundamental right.
b) The law made by the Parliament is valid as even though there is restriction of fundamental right, such
a restriction is reasonable.
c) The law made by the Parliament is invalid as it constitutes an infringement of fundamental rights and
the restriction imposed is not reasonable.
d) None of the above answer is correct.
33. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A right to action cannot arise out of an illegal activity.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A and B were thieves engaged in stealing cars and other vehicles. Once they
stole a car; and while driving off, they had to cross a city. They engaged a driver to drive them through
the city, since they did not know the route inside. The indicator lamp of the car was not working and the
thieves had not realised this, and therefore, had not told about it to the driver. While driving, through the
city, the car was hit by another vehicle because of the faulty indicator. In the accident, the driver was
injured and he filed a suit against A and B.
DECISION:
a) The driver would lose, because he was driving a stolen car.
b) The driver would win, because he was not a party to the stealing of car.
c) The driver would win because he did not know anything about the stealing.
34. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A man would be responsible for all direct consequences of his act, in so far as
he could reasonably foresee them as arising from his act.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A ship carrying petroleum was moving on the high sea. On a short halt in a port,
the master of the ship engaged some stevedores to load some metallic planks onto the ship. While
loading the planks, a plank slipped from the hands of stevedore and the spark, emitted thereby, ignited
petroleum vapour and caused considerable damage to the goods. The owner of the goods filed a suit
against the master of the ship.
DECISION:
a) The master of the ship is not liable, because he was not responsible for the act of stevedore.
b) The master of the ship is liable, because he is responsible for the acts of stevedore since he engaged
them.
c) The master is liable, because he should have foreseen the consequences of the stevedore’s act.
35. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: All minorities, whether based on religion or language shall have the rights to
establish and administer educational institution of their choice.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Md. Yusuf wants to establish an educational institution to help the poor persons
of his community and to educate the children of the community. Yusuf being a very rich man has no
problem regarding finance for institution. Therefore he applies to state government to grant him
permission to establish and administer the institution. State government rejects his plea on ground that
said institution will create communal tension in the proposed area. Yusuf has following remedies.
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a) He should file a civil suit in District Court.

b) He should file a special leave petition before Supreme Court.
c) He has no remedy under the law.
d) He could file a Writ petition either before the High Court or the Supreme Court.

36. What is the sequence in which the Indian economy has undergone the process of convertibility?
I. Rupee floated on trade account
II. Part convertibility under a dual exchange rate system
III. Introduction of EXIM scrips
IV. Rupee made convertible on current account
a) I,II,III,1V b) II, I, III, IV c) III, II, I, IV d) IV,I,II,III.
37. Which of the following currency exchange rate mechanisms has been adopted by India?
a) Free Float b) Managed Float c) Floating with a Band d) Fixed-but-Adjustable.
38. The national income estimates of India are prepared by

a) Ministry of Finance b) National Sample Survey
c) Central Statistical Organisation d) Indian Statistical Institute.
39. The ‘Year of Great Divide’ refers to

a) rapid growth rate in population after 1921 b) the declining -sex ratio after 1921
c) the slow down in death rate after 1921 d) all of the above.
40. Aurorae are a result of the interaction of earth’s magnetosphere with

a) the solar wind b) the ozone layer c) radio waves d) none of the above.
41. You are standing in a lift. The force on the floor of the lift due to your weight will
a) become zero when the lift moves up with an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2
b) become zero when the lift moves down with an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2
c) become zero when the lift moves with an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2 in any direction
d) remain unchanged whatever be the value of acceleration of the lift.
42. What happens to the level of mercury in a barometer tube when it is taken down a coal mine? It
a) falls b) remain unaltered
c) rises d) rises and then falls.
43. A popping sound is heard in the ear when yawning or swallowing. This is caused by
a) air in the cochlea b) the opening of the Eustachian tubes
c) air entering the perilymph d) the moving of the jaws.
44. The body’s thermostat is in the

a) pineal b) hypothalamus
c) thyroid d) pituitary.
45. India is divided into how many PIN code zones?

a) Six b) Seven c) Eight d) Nine.
46. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the Indus Valley civilisation?
I. The people of this civilisation were the earliest to make use of cotton.
II. They did not cremate their dead.
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III. A grid system was followed in city planning.

IV. Stone was the chief building material.
a) I and II b) II and III c) III and IV d) I and IV.
47. The famous queen Chand Bibi who fought gallantly against Akbar belonged to
a) Berar b) Ahmadnagar c) Bijapur d) Golconda.
48. Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modem lines?
a) Haider Ali b) Mir Qasim c) Shah Alam II d) Tipu Sultan.
49. Which one of the following may be called a ‘political’ cause of the 1857 Revolt?
a) The subsidiary alliance system of Wellesley b) The Religious Disabilities Act of 1856
c) Low pay and poor prospects of the sepoys d) Dalhousie’s annexation policy.
50. The first time that Mahatma Gandhi tried out his method of satyagraha was
a) in South Africa against racist policies b) against indigo planters in Champaran
c) in the Kheda no-rent campaign d) at Bardoli.
51. The Royal Indian Navy ratings revolted in February 1946 to protest against
a) the treatment meted out to them
b) the punishment meted out to the INA officials
c) the firing on some ratings of the HMIS Talwar
d) the Government’s suppression of Congress activities.
52. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in
a) the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Puma Swaraj
b) the Nehru Report
c) a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress
d) the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
53. A very rapid growth in prices in which money loses its value to the point where even barter may be
preferable is known as
a) inflation b) hyper-inflation c) deflation d) disinflation.
54. Unlike the fluid core of the earth, the core of the moon is
a) plasma b) volatile gas c) viscous liquid d) solid.
55. Which of the following theories has no connection with the origin of the earth?
a) Nebular hypothesis of Laplace b) Tidal hypothesis of Jeans and Jeffreys
c) Binary star theory of Lyttleton d) Convection current theory of Holmes
56. On what does the escape velocity of a body depend?

I. Mass of celestial body
II. The distance from the centre of mass to the escaping object
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II.
57. The blood enters the aorta from

a) left ventricle b) left auricle c) right ventricle d) right auricle
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58. Desert plants would be characterised by

a) vivipary b) aerenchyma c) aerial roots d) sunken stomata.
59. Why is sprouted gram considered more nutritious?

a) Seeds are storehouses of energy
b) Germinating seeds produce enzymes which are a rich source of protein
c) Seeds have plenty of amino acids and glucose
d) Sprouted gram is not more nutritious; it is just an old wives’ tale that it is.
60. The edible portion of which of the following vegetables is not a stem?
a) Potato b) Sweet potato c) Ginger d) Com of Colocasia.
61. What is the venue for the 20th Commonwealth Games in 2014?
a) Glasgow b) Beijing c) London d) Italy.
62. Who among the following leaders topped 2011 Forbes List of “World’s Most Powerful Person”?
a) Mr. Barak Obama b) Ms. Pratibha Patil c) Mr. Manmohan Singh d) Mr. Hu Jintao.
63. According to the Srikrishna Committee, which is the most workable option out of the six option
suggested by the Committee to resolve the Telengana issue?
a) Second b) Fourth c) Sixth d) First.
64. Who is convicted to death in the Beant Singh assassination case on March 31, 2012?
a) Kehar Singh b) Balwant Singh Rajoana c) Kamail Singh d) Dilawar Singh Babbar.
65. Which news corporation was recently alleged to have been using illicit hacking into voicemail
messages of prominent people to find stories?
a) News of the World (NoW) b) BBC c) CNN d) Aaj Tak.
66. Ms. Aung San Suu Kyi, Myanmar’s democracy icon, has been released from of home arrest.
a) 16 years b) 15 years c) 10 years d) 20 years.
67. Which country became the 193rd member of UN in July 2011. (Question Modified)
a) South Sudan b) Montenegro c) Serbia d) Tuvalu.
68. More than 50 Sikh shrines in India are named after

a) Flowers b) Trees c) Birds d) Animals.
69. The country that set the record as the one with the longest time without government, in April 2011?
(a) Burundi (b) Belgium (c) Turkey (d) Taiwan.
70. It has been the practice to have ________ as the Managing Director of the IMF.
a) an American b) a European c) an Australian d) an Arab.
SECTION III- LOGICAL REASONING

71. For one academic year, all the students at a high school were observed. The aim was to test the
hypothesis that studying more increased a student’s chances of earning a higher grade. It turned out that
the students who spent the most time studying did not earn grades as high as did many students who
studied less. Nonetheless, the researchers concluded that the results of the observation supported the
initial hypothesis.
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Which one of the following, if true, ‘most helps to explain why the researchers drew the conclusion
described above?
a) The students who spent the most time studying earned higher grades than did some students who
studied for less time than the average.
b) The students tended to get slightly lower grades as the academic year progressed.
c) In each course, the more a student studied, the better his or her grade was in that course.
d) The students who spent the least time studying tended to be students with no more than average
involvement in extra-curricular activities.
72. Educator: It has been argued that our professional organization should take decision about important
issues—such as raising dues and taking political stands— by a direct vote of all members rather than by
having members vote for officers who in turn make the decisions. This would not; however, be the right
way to decide these matters, for the vote of any given individual is much more likely to determine
organizational policy by influencing the election of an officer than by influencing the result of a direct vote
on a single issue.
Which one of the following principles would, if valid, most help to justify the educator’s reasoning?
a) No procedure for making organizational decisions should allow one individual’s vote to weigh more
than that of another.
b) Outcomes of organizational elections should be evaluated according to their benefit to the organization
as a whole, not according to the fairness of the methods by which they are produced.
c) Important issues facing organizations should be decided by people who can devote their full time to
mastering the information relevant to the issues.
d) An organization’s procedures for making organizational decisions should maximize the power of each
member of the organization to influence the decisions made.
73. Mayor: Local anti-tobacco activists are calling for expanded anti-smoking education programs paid for
by revenue from heavily increased taxes on cigarettes sold in the city. Although the effectiveness of such
education programs is debatable, there is strong evidence that the taxes themselves would produce the
sought-after reduction in smoking. Surveys show that cigarette sales drop substantially in cities that impose
stiff tax increases on cigarettes.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the reasoning in the argument above?
a) A city-imposed tax on cigarette will substantially reduce the amount of smoking in the city if the tax is
burdensome to the average cigarette consumer.
b) Consumers are more likely to continue buying a product if its price increases due to higher taxes than
if its price increases for some other reason.
c) Usually, cigarette sales will increase substantially in the areas surrounding a city after that city imposes
stiff taxes on cigarettes.
d) People who are well informed about the effects of long-term tobacco use are significantly less likely to
smoke than are people who are not informed.
74. Gotera: Infants lack the motor ability required to voluntarily produce particular sounds, but produce
various babbling sounds randomly. Most children are several years old before they can voluntarily produce
most of the vowel and consonant sounds of their language. We can conclude that speech acquisition is
entirely a motor control process rather than a process that is abstract or mental. Which one of the following
is an assumption required by Gotera’s argument?
a) Speech acquisition is a function only of one’s ability to produce the sounds of spoken language.
b) During the entire initial babbling stage, infants cannot intentionally move their tongues while they are
babbling.
c) The initial babbling stage is completed during infancy.
d) The initial babbling stage is the first stage of the speech acquisition process.
75. Reducing stress lessen a person’s sensitivity to pain. This is the conclusion reached by researchers
who played extended audiotapes to patients before they underwent surgery and afterward while they were
recovering. One tape consisted of conversation; the other consisted of music. Those who listened only to
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the latter tape required less anaesthesia during surgery and fewer painkillers afterward than those who
listened only to the former tape.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the researchers’ reasoning depends?
a) All of the patients in the study listened to the same tape before surgery as they listened to after surgery.
b) Anticipating surgery is no less stressful than recovering from surgery.
c) Listening to music reduces stress.
d) The psychological effects of music are not changed by anesthesia or painkillers.
Directions: In the following questions, each question has a statement followed by two conclusions.
Taking the statement to be true, decide which or the given conclusions definitely follows from the given
statement. Indicate your answer as
(a) if only I follows,

(b) if only II follows
(c) if neither I nor II follows and
(d) if both I and II follow.
76. Statement: The Supreme Court gave a judgement that the maintenance of old age parents is the
responsibility of the married girls, if they do not have brothers.
Conclusions
I: Constitution is always interpreted to help oppressed people out.
II: Before the Supreme Court gave the verdict, a married girl must have denied to pay for the
maintenance to her parents.
77. Statement: Ideas given by our ancestors that were once discarded as uneconomical and unviable,
turn out to be as functional and inevitable in present circumstances.
Conclusions
I: In ancient period, ideas were considered either completely functional or totally infeasible.
II: Ideas cannot change from time-to-time.
Direction: In each question below is given statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the
flowing assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark answer:
a) If only I assumption is implicit;
b) If only assumption II is implicit;
c) If neither I nor II is implicit; and
d) If both I and II are implicit.
78. Statement: “Use ‘M’ Brand shoes. They are available in all sizes and last longer” an advertisement
in the newspaper ‘A’.
Assumption
I: Some people do not know about ‘M’ brand shoes.
II: People generally prefer shoes which last longer.
79. Statement: Lack of stimulation in the first four or five years of life can have adverse consequences.
Assumption
I: A great part of the development of observed intelligence occurs in the earliest years of life.
II: 50 per cent of the measurable intelligence at age 16 is predictable by the age of four.
Direction (Q. 80 – Q. 84): Read the following and answer the questions:
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Six persons – P, Q, R, S, T and W work in an Organisation. Each of them likes different colours, viz.,
Black, White, Blue, Green, Red and Yellow and their salaries are also different. The person who earns
maximum does not like Blue or White colour. The person who earns the least does not like Black or Red
colour. R likes Yellow colour and his salary is the second maximum. P likes White colour and earns more
than T but less than W. Q likes Black colour who earns less than P but more than T. S likes Blue colour
and T likes Red colour.
80. How many of them do earn more than Q?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Data inadequate.
81. Who among them earns least?

a) Q b) P c) R d) S.
82. If they are arranged in the descending order according to their salaries, who will occupy the third
position?
a) P b) R c) T d) Data inadequate.
83. W likes the colour

a) White b) Green c) Blue d) Either White or Green.
84. S likes which colour?

a) White b) Green c) Blue d) Red.
85. A child crawls 20 feet towards North, turns right and crawls 30 feet, turns right again and crawls 35
feet. He turns left now and crawls 15 feet. He turns left again and crawls 15 feet. Finally he turns to his
left to crawl another 15 feet. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?
a) 45 feet North-East b) 30 feet East c) 30 feet West d) 15 feet West.
Directions: Read the following directions and answer the questions 86 and 87.
A is the father of C. But C is not his son. E is the daughter of C. F is the spouse of A. B is the brother of
C. D is the son of B. G is the spouse of B. H is the father of G.
86. Who is the son-in-law of H?

a) C b) A c) D d) B
87. Who is the grand-daughter of A?

a) H b) D c) B d) E.
88. A is older by 4 years to B at one stage. After 16 years of this stage, A will be thrice his present age
and B will be five times his present age. How old would A and B be two years before the initially
indicated stage?
a) 8 and 4 b) 10 and 6 c) 6 and 2 d) 12 and 8.
89. If day before yesterday was Tuesday, the day after tomorrow will be
a) Monday b) Wednesday c) Friday d) Saturday.
90. My brother is 562 days older to me, while my sister is 75 weeks older to him. If my sister was born on
Tuesday, on what day was I born?
a) Sunday b) Monday c) Tuesday d) Wednesday.
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91. Ram is facing North-West. He turns in clockwise direction by 90°, then 180° in the anti-clockwise
direction and then another 90° in the same direction. Which direction is he facing now?
a) South-West b) West c) South d) South-East
92. One morning after sunrise, Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their backs towards
each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left hand side.
Which direction was Shailesh facing?
a) East b) West c) North d) South
Direction: In the following number series (Q. Nos. 93 & 94) only one number is wrong. Find out
that number:
93. 1, 2, 6, 15, 20, 30, 42

a) 30 b) 15 c) 6 d) 1.
94. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64

a) 50 b) 17 c) 26 d) 64.
95. D, H, L, R,?
a) T b) X c) I d) O
96. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63,?

a) 92 b) 115 c) 127 d) 131.
97. PLANNING is coded in a certain language as UFFHSCSA. How will AUTHORITY be coded in the
same language?
a) FOYBTLNND b) FYOTBNNLT c) FBOYTLNTN d) FBOYTNLTN.
98. In certain code ELECTION is written as GLGCVIQN, then VOTER will be coded as
a) XOVET b) VOXET c) WPUFU d) VQTGR.
99. CHILD: FIRE

a) Aged : Wisdom. b) Student: Examination c) Youth : Adolescence d) Judge: Dishonour.
100. GRAIN: SALT

a) Shred : Wool b) Cave : Stone c) Chip : Glass d) Blades : Grass.
Direction (Q. 101 – 105): Each group of questions is based on a set of conditions. Choose the response
that most accurately and completely answers each question.
Mercotek carried out a study to compare the productivity of its night shift with that of its day shift. Every
week the company’s six crews – F, G, H, R, S and T – were ranked from first (most productive) to sixth
(least productive). There were no ties. For any given week, either G and T were the two night-shift crews
or else S and H were – the four other crews were the day-shift crews for that week. The following
relationships held for every week of the study:
F is more productive than G

R is more productive than S
R is more productive than T
S is more productive than H
G is more productive than T.
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101. Which of the following could be an accurate ranking of all the crews, in order from first to sixth, for a
given week of the study?
a) F, G, T, R, S, H b) F, R, G, T, H, S c) G, R, T, S, H,F d) R, F, G, S, H, T.
102. If F is ranked third for a given week of the study, then which one of the following could also be true
of that week?
a) G ranks second b) H ranks fourth c) R ranks second d) S ranks fourth.
103. Which one of the following CANNOT be the crew ranked fifth for any given week of the study?
a) G b) H c) R d) S.
104. For any given week 6f the study, the ranking of all the crews is completely determined if which one
of the following is true?
a) F ranks second that week b) G ranks fifth that week
c) H ranks third that week d) R ranks third that week.
105. If the night-shift crews rank fifth and sixth for a given week of the study, then which one of the
following could also be true of that week?
a) G ranks fourth b) H ranks fifth c) R ranks third d) S ranks fourth.
SECTION IV- MATHEMATICAL ABILITY

106. A purse contains some coins consisting of rupees, fifty paise coins and twenty-five paise coins. If
coins be in the ratio of 2:3:10 and their total value is Rs. 72, the number of twenty-five paise coins will be
a) 100 b) 140 c) 120 d) 80.
107. In an examination, a student who secured 25% of the maximum marks fails by 60 marks but
another candidate who secures 45% of the maximum marks gets 10 marks more than required passing
marks. The maximum number of marks is
a) 450 b) 350 c) 525 d) none of these.
108. In a tour, I spent every day as many ten rupee (notes) as the number of days I had been away from
the home. My total expenditure was Rs. 18,300. How long did I stay away from the home?
a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 4 months.
109. Before 3 years, the average age of a five- member family was 17 years. A baby having been bom
and the average of family is now 17 years. The present age of the baby is
a) 3 years b) 2 years c) 1 year d) none of these.
110. A publisher sells books to retailer at marked price which is 20% above his outlay. If on cash
payment, he allows a discount of 10% on the marked price. The publisher thus gains
a) 12% b) 10% c) 8% d) 14%.
111. The average age of A, B and C is 25 years. The ratio of their ages is 3 : 5 : 7. Find the age of A
a) 21 years b) 18 years c) 15 years d) Data Inadequate.
112. A certain sum of money was deposited in a bank and it became two-fold in 10 years. What is the
rate of simple interest?
a) 8% b) 10% c) 12% d) 13%.
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113. If Rs. 80 amounts to Rs. 140 in 4 years, what will Rs. 96 amount to in 10 years at the same rate of
interest per annum?
a) Rs. 276 b) Rs. 306 c) Rs. 386 d) Rs. 300.
114. A group of workers accepted to do a piece of work in 25 days. If 6 of them did not turn up for the
work and the remaining workers did the work in 40 days, then the original number of workers was
a) 22 b) 18 c) 20 d) 16.
115. Two taps ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a water reservoir in 8 and 6 hours respectively. A third tap ‘C’ can empty
the tank completely in 24 hours. How long would it take to fill the empty tank when all the taps are open?
a) 4 hours b) 5 hours c) 6 hours d) 3 hours.
SECTION V- ENGLISH AND READING COMPREHENSION

116. The number of marks carried by each question (a)/ are indicated (b)/ at the end of the Question, c)/
No error, (d)
117. As much as I admire him for his sterling qualities (a)/ I cannot excuse him for (b)/ being unfair to his
friends, (c)/ No error, (d)
118. Many times the news has been (a)/ published in the papers that the end of (b)/ the world will be
certain (c)/ if a nuclear war breaks out. No error, (d)
119. She reluctantly said that (a)/ if nobody else was doing it (b)/ she will do it. (c)/ No error, (d)
120. Though child marriage (a)/ has been banned, (b)/ the custom still prevailed among some groups in
India, (c)/ No error, (d)
Directions: In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to
the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
121. LYNCH
a) Hang b) Madden c) Killed d) Shoot.
122. His speech was nothing but a string of latitudes.

a) grand statements b) stereo-typed statements c) noble sentiments d) humorous
anecdotes
Directions: In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning
to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
123. PERENNIAL
a) Frequent b) Regular c) Lasting d) Rare.
124. My first speech was a fiasco.

a) success b) disaster c) fun d) joy.
Direction: Fill in the blanks
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125. If I___________his address, I could write to him.

a) knew b) had known c) know d) will know.
126. When the morning__________ murder was discovered.

a) Occurred b) arrived c) came d) happened.
127. I ____________a car to be absolutely necessary these days.

a) consider b) regard c) think d) agree.
128. Do not intrude, they are talking________a confidential matter.

a) on b) for c) over d) in.
129. I slept after lunch___________armed chair.

a) over b) into c) in d) on
130. He is so ___________ that he immediately believed my story of ghosts

a) innocent b) credulous c) vociferous d) credible.
131. I will help only______________.

a) if I shall have time b) if I would have time c) if I had time d) if I have time.
132. He doesn’t work with hands he works ____________ the machine.

a) with b) by c) at d) on.
133. Every Shakespearean hero has an internal ______________in his character

a) defect b) weakness c) fault d) flaw.
Direction (Q. 134 -135): In this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth
sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each passage have been removed
and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of
the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
134. S₁: Two men held a struggling crazed dog down on a table.
S6: The men watched him awe-struck.
P: Its mouth was smothered with saliva and a bite from its jaws might cause death.
Q: He put one end of the tube between his lips and lowered the other towards the foam covered jaws.
R: Beside them stood Louis Pasteur holding a narrow glass-tube in one hand.
S: As the animal writhed he carefully sucked some of the saliva up the tube.
The proper sequence should be

a) PRQS
b) PQRS
c) SRPQ
d) RPSQ.
135. S₁: There is only one monkey we can thoroughly recommend as an indoor pet.
S6: Finally, let me say that no other monkey has a better temper or more winning ways.
P: They quickly die from colds and coughs after the first winter fogs.
Q: It is the beautiful and intelligent Capuchin monkey.
R: The lively little Capuchins, however, may be left for years in an English house without the least
danger to their health.
S: The Marmosets, it is true, are more beautiful than the Capuchins and just as pleasing, but they are
too delicate for the English climate.
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The proper sequence should be:

a) PQRS
b) QRPS
c) QSPR
d) RPSQ.
Direction (Q. 136-145): Fill in the blanks.

The Ganga is ...(136)… they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she
…(137)… it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in …(138)… ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true.
She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ...(139)… the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the
river with …(140)... of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini - the east flowing river …(141)… west at
Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ...(142)… in her water,
muttering ...(143)… to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the …(144)… of prayer pouring water
through their finger in habits for which may be they never …(145)… the meaning.
136. a) Kind b) Name c) Flow d) Cruel

137. a) Takes b) Refuse c) Ignore d) Gives
138. a) Their b) Her c) Any d) Only
139. a) Counting b) Persuing c) Dotting d) Watching
140. a) Dullness b) Dampness c) Glints d) Splint
141. a) Steers b) Hears c) Looks d) Turns
142. a) Deep b) Down c) Up d) Fallen
143. a) Appeals b) Pleas c) Invocations d) Considerations
144. a) Culture b) Rituals c) Works d) Deed
145. a) Mentioned b) heard. c) conceived. d) knew.
Directions (Q. 146 – 150): The questions in this section is based on the passage. The questions are to
be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more
than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best
answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions.
In principle, a cohesive group – one whose members generally agree with one another and support one
another’s judgments – can do a much better job at decision making than it could if it were non-cohesive.
When cohesiveness is low or lacking entirely, compliance out of fear of recrimination is likely to be
strongest. To overcome this fear, participants in the group’s deliberations need to be confident that they
are members in good standing and that the others will continue to value their role in the group, whether or
not they agree about a particular issue under discussion. As members of a group feel more accepted by
the others, they acquire greater freedom to say what they really think, becoming less likely to use deceitful
arguments or to play it safe by dancing around the issues with vapid or conventional comments. Typically,
then, the more cohesive a group becomes, the less its members will deliberately censor what they say out
of fear of being punished socially for antagonizing their fellow members.
But group cohesiveness can have pitfalls as well: while the members of a highly cohesive group can feel
much freer to deviate from the majority, their desire for genuine concurrence on every important issue
often inclines them not to use this freedom. In a highly cohesive group of decision makers, the danger is
not that individuals will conceal objections they harbour regarding a proposal favoured by the majority, but
that they will think the proposal is a good one without attempting to carry out a critical scrutiny that could
reveal grounds for strong objections. Members may then decide that any misgivings they feel are not worth
pursuing – that the benefit of any doubt should be given to the group consensus. In this way, they may fall
victim to a syndrome known as “groupthink”, which one psychologist concerned with collective decision
making has defined as “a deterioration of mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment that results
from in-group pressures”.
Based on analyses of major fiascos of international diplomacy and military decision making, researchers
have identified groupthink behaviour as a recurring pattern that involves several factors: overestimation of
the group’s power and morality, manifested, for example, in an illusion of invulnerability, which creates
excessive optimism; closed-mindedness to warnings of problems and to alternative viewpoints; and
unwarranted pressures toward uniformity, including self-censorship with respect to doubts about the
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group’s reasoning and a concomitant shared illusion of unanimity concerning group decisions.
Cohesiveness of the decision-making group is an essential antecedent condition for this syndrome but not
a sufficient one, so it is important to work toward identifying the additional factors that determine whether
group cohesiveness will deteriorate into groupthink or allow for effective decision making.
146. Why does the author thinks that the cohesive group can do a much better job at decision making
than it could if it were non-cohesive?
a) The members of a highly cohesive group can feel much freer to deviate from the majority.
b) Individuals will not conceal objections they harbour regarding a proposal favoured by the majority.
c) Participants in the group’s deliberations are confident that they are members in good standing and
that the others will continue to value their role in the group, whether or not they agree about a particular
issue under discussion.
a) Despite its value in encouraging frank discussions, high cohesion can lead to a debilitating type of
group decision making called groupthink.
b) Group members can guard against groupthink if they have a good understanding of the critical role
played by cohesion.
c) Groupthink is a dysfunctional collective decision-making pattern that can occur in diplomacy and
military affairs.
d) Low cohesion in groups is sometimes desirable when higher cohesion involves a risk of groupthink
behaviour.
148. A group of closely associated colleagues has made a disastrous diplomatic decision after a series
of meetings marked by disagreement over conflicting alternatives. It can be inferred from the passage
that the author would be most likely to say that this scenario.
a) provides evidence of chronic indecision, thus indicating a weak level of cohesion in general.
b) indicates that the group’s cohesiveness was coupled with some other factor to produce a groupthink
fiasco
c) provides no evidence that groupthink played a role in the group’s decision.
d) provides evidence that groupthink can develop even in some groups that do not demonstrate an
“illusion of unanimity”.
149. The passage mentions which one of the following as a component of groupthink?
a) unjustified suspicions among group members regarding an adversary’s intentions.

b) strong belief that the group’s decisions are right.
c) group members working under unusually high stress, leading to illusions of invulnerability.
d) the deliberate use of vapid, cliched arguments.
150. It can be inferred from the passage that both the author of the passage and the researchers
mentioned in the passage would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about
groupthink?
a) Groupthink occurs in all strongly cohesive groups, but its contribution to collective decision making is
not fully understood.
b) The casual factors that transform group cohesion into groupthink are unique to each case.
c) The continued study of cohesiveness of groups is probably fruitless for determining what factors elicit
groupthink.
d) On balance, groupthink cannot be expected to have a beneficial effect in a group’s decision making
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AILET 2012 Answers

1 A 31 C 61 A 91 D 121 C
2 A 32 C 62 A 92 D 122 B
3 A 33 B 63 C 93 B 123 D
4 C 34 C 64 B 94 D 124 A
5 D 35 D 65 A 95 B 125 A
6 C 36 C 66 B 96 C 126 B
7 C 37 B 67 A 97 A 127 A
8 D 38 C 68 B 98 A 128 C
9 C 39 A 69 B 99 B 129 C
10 B 40 A 70 B 100 C 130 B
11 B 41 B 71 C 101 D 131 D
12 A 42 C 72 D 102 B 132 C
13 D 43 B 73 B 103 C 133 D
14 C 44 B 74 A 104 C 134 B
15 A 45 C 75 C 105 C 135 C
16 A 46 D 76 B 106 C 136 A
17 C 47 B 77 C 107 B 137 D
18 B 48 D 78 D 108 B 138 B
19 B 49 D 79 C 109 B 139 D
20 B 50 A 80 C 110 C 140 C
21 B 51 A 81 D 111 C 141 D
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 B 142 A
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23 A 53 B 83 B 113 A 143 C
24 D 54 D 84 C 114 D 144 B
25 C 55 D 85 B 115 A 145 D
26 C 56 C 86 D 116 B 146 D
27 B 57 A 87 D 117 A 147 A
28 C 58 D 88 C 118 D 148 B
29 C 59 B 89 D 119 C 149 B
30 D 60 B 90 A 120 C 150 A
AILET 2013
Directions (Qs. 1-6): The questions in this section is based on the passage. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than
that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question.
Although the legal systems of England and the United States are superficially similar, they differ profoundly
in their approaches to and uses of legal reasons: substantive reasons are more common than formal
reasons in the United States, whereas in England the reverse is true. This distinction reflects a difference
in the visions of law that prevails in the two countries, hi England, the law has traditionally been viewed as
a system of rules; the United States favours a vision of law as an outward expression of community’s
sense of right and justice.
Substantive reasons, as applied to law, are based on moral, economic, political and other considerations.
These reasons are found both “in the law” and “outside the law” so to speak. Substantive reasons inform
the content of a large part of the law: constitutions, statutes, contracts, verdicts, and the like. Consider, for
example, a statute providing that “no vehicles shall be taken into public parks.” Suppose that no specific
rationales or purposes were explicitly written into the statute, but that it was clear (from its legislative
history) that the substantive purpose of the statute was to ensure quiet and safety in the park. Now suppose
that a veterans’ group mounts a World War II jeep (in running order but without a battery) as a war memorial
on a concrete slab in the park, and charges are brought against its members.
Most judges in the United States would find the defendants not guilty because what they did had no
adverse effect on park’s quiet and safety.
Formal reasons are different in that they frequently prevent substantive reasons from coming into play,
even when substantive reasons are explicitly incorporated into the law at hand. For example, when a
document fails to comply with stipulated requirements, the court may render the document legally
ineffective. A Will requiring written witness may be declared null and void and, therefore, unenforceable
for the formal reason that the requirement was not observed. Once the legal rule – that a Will is invalid for
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lack of proper witnessing – has been clearly established, and the legality of the rule is not in question,
application of that rule precludes from consideration substantive arguments in favour of the Will’s validity
or enforcement.
Legal scholars in England and the United States have long bemused themselves with extreme examples
of formal and substantive reasoning. On the one hand, formal reasoning in England has led to wooden
interpretations of statutes and an unwillingness to develop the common law through judicial activism. On
the other hand, freewheeling substantive reasoning in the United States has resulted in statutory
interpretations so liberal that the texts of some statutes have been ignored,
1. Which one of the following best describes the content of the passage as a whole?
a) An analysis of similarities and differences between the legal systems of England and the United
States
b) A re-evaluation of two legal systems with the use of examples
c) A contrast between the types of reasons embodied in the United States and English legal systems
d) An explanation of how two distinct visions of the law shaped the development of legal reasoning.
2. It can be inferred from the passage that English judges would like to find the veterans’ group
discussed in the second paragraph guilty of violating the statute because
a) not to do so would encourage others to act as the group did

b) not to do so would be to violate the substantive reasons underlying the law
c) the veterans failed to comply with the substantive purpose of the statute
d) the veterans failed to comply with the stipulated requirements of the statute.
3. From the discussion of Wills in the third paragraph it can be inferred that substantive arguments as to
the validity of a Will might be considered under which one of the following circumstances?
a) The legal rule that a Will be witnessed in writing does not stipulate the format of the Will
b) The legal rule requiring that a Will be witnessed stipulates that the Will must be witnessed in writing by
two people
c) The legal rule requiring that a Will be witnessed in writing stipulates that the witnessing must be done
in the presence of a judge
d) A judge rules that the law can be interpreted to allow for a verbal witness to a Will in a case involving
a medical emergency.
4. Which one of the following best describes the function of the last paragraph of the passage?
a) It presents the consequences of extreme interpretations of the two types of legal reasons discussed
by the author
b) It shows how legal scholars can incorrectly use extreme examples to support their views
c) It corrects inaccuracies in legal scholars’ view of the nature of two types of legal systems
d) It suggests how characterisations of the two types of legal reasons can become convoluted and
inaccurate .
5. The author of the passage suggests that in English law a substantive interpretation of a legal rule
might be warranted under which one of the following circumstances?
a) Social conditions have changed to the extent that to continue to enforce the rule would be to decide
contrary to present-day social norms
b) The composition of the legislature has changed to the extent that to enforce the rule would be contrary
to the views of the majority in the present legislative assembly
c) The legality of the rule is in question and its enforcement is open to judicial interpretation
d) Individuals who have violated the legal rule argue that application of the rule would lead to unfair
judicial interpretations.
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6. The author of the passage makes use of all of the following in presenting the discussion of the English
and the United States legal systems except
a) Comparison and contrast

b) Generalisation
c) Explication of terms
d) A chronology of historical developments.
Directions (Qs. 7-11): In the following questions, a group of sentences about a single topic are given.
One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect
sentence(s).
7.
I. It began with acquisitions in information technology and related services sector.
II. In pharmaceuticals, Wockhardt has bought C.P. Pharma of the United Kingdom for S 10.85 million.
III. Tata Tea has taken over Tetley of the UK, the world’s biggest tea bag maker, for $ 430 million.
IV. With the processes, it has become the world’s second largest tea company.
a) II and IV b) IV only c) II and III d) I, II and IV.
8.
I. There are two main reasons for that predatory mood.
II. Having established a domestic presence, the component-makers are now looking for an international
presence.
III. Second, having improved their productivity, quality and reliability, Indian companies feel more
confident about spreading their wings abroad.
IV. Various other factors are being attributed to this Indian penchant for the takeover game in all sectors.
a) I only b) I and II c) II only d) III and IV.
9.
I. Moving one by one step away from the expected with the graphics and photography can also create
reader’s interest.
II. Try using a conceptual image or photo to highlight your main message versus very first thing to come
to mind when thinking about your product or services.
III. Another form of contrast is in the actual design.
IV. An unusual fold in a brochure or direct mail piece can add excitement.
a) I and II b) II and III c) I and IV d) No error.
10.
I. The typeface that you choose for your print project is an important piece of the foremost overall design
process.
II. First, narrow down your choice by selecting the tone you want to present.
III. Typefaces can convey personality.
IV. For instance, if you are in the banking industry you might choose a classic serif font, such as
Garamond, to convey dependability,
a) I only b) II only c) III only d) IV only.
11.
I. Readability is crucial.
II. Be sure of the font we choose is legible and logical.
III. With all of the newest and interesting typefaces available today, it is tempting to pick one that you
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think looks “cool”.

IV. This can work if you are going for an edgy look that will appeal to a young audience, but your copy
still needs to be easily understood.
a) I and IV b) II only c) III only d) II and III.
Directions (Qs. 12-15): In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the same in
meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
12. ABERRATION
a) Deviation b) Embarrassment c) Abhorrence d) Absence.
13. POTPOURRI
a) Medley b) Dose c) Weird d) Overabundance.
14. IMPOSTURE
a) Claim b) Status c) Destruction d) Deception.
15. PARLEY
a) Discuss b) Deliver c) Sweeten d) Race.
Directions (Qs. 16-19): In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in
16. PROTEAN
a) Versatile b) Amateur c) Dull d) Cautious.
17. PREDILECTION
a) Antipathy b) Ignorance c) Dissonance d) Disharmony.
18. IMPALPABLE
a) Visible b) Audible c) Tangible d) Fearless.
19. PAROCHIAL
a) Dogmatic b) Dominant c) Cosmopolitan d) Niggardly.
Directions (Qs. 20-32): Fill in the blanks.
20. The event passed___________ without any untoward incident

a) of b) on c) off d) away.
21. Please give me___________ to drink

a) little water b) a little water c) any water d) some water.
22. Her true feelings manifested themselves in her sarcastic asides; only then was her______ revealed.
a) sweetness b) bitterness c) anxiety d) charm.
23. The tapeworm is an example of____________ organism, one that lives within or on another
creature, deriving some or all its nutrients from its host.
a) a protozoan b) a parasite c) a hospitable d) an autonomous.
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24. While the disease is in a latent state it is almost impossible to determine its existence by ________
a) observation b) analysis c) examination d) estimate.
25. Language, culture and personality may be considered independently of each other in thought, but
they are___________ in fact
a) pervasive b) inseparable c) autonomous d) immutable.
26. The country is ushering________ a new era.

a) into b) in c) of d) over.
27. He is a traitor_______ the country.

a) for b) to c) in d) of.
28. There is no culture in the world __________absolutely pure

a) that which is into b) that be c) that is d) that what is.
29. He led me_________ the green lawn to the palatial building.

a) upon b) across c) along d) on.
30. The lease of our premises has__________ and we have to vacate it.
a) run out b) run off c) run over d) run down.
31. His boss______________ an explanation of his conduct with his colleagues

a) called up b) called upon c) called for d) called off.
32. He_____________ his departure for a week as his mother was not well.
a) put off b) put up c) put out d) put aside.
Directions (Qs. 33-35): In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is
given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled
P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark
accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
33. S₁: A suicide bomber killed 18 people near a hospital of Baghdad, keeping violence on the boil after
Iraq’s landmark election and ahead of an important Shia religious ceremony.
P: The bomber drove his vehicle towards local government offices and a hospital in the town, but
detonated it outside blast walls protecting buildings.
Q: Around 25 people were wounded in the attack, the second suicide car bombing in as many days.
R: “Looking at the partial result, it appears the Sistani list will have over 50% and Kurdish parties will
come second,” said a Sunni politician.
S: Meanwhile, the two electoral power houses representing Iraq’s Shia and Kurdish communities are
poised to clinch the country’s two top jobs, with results from the landmark January 30 polls expected
anytime.

a) SRPQ b) SQPR c) PQSR d) Q P S R.
34. S₁: It should be noted that Lenin, being the head of the government, held no official posts in the
Party Central Committee, but presided over sessions of the Central Committee plenary meetings and
also of the Political Bureau.
P: In performing his party duties, he was assisted by a secretary of the Central Committee, or the head
of the Secretariat,
Q Officially, such a post did not exist at the time, but in practice one of the secretaries was expected to
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supervise the work of the Secretariat.

R: That being the case, Lenin not only headed the Council of People’s commissars, but was also the de
facto leader of the Party’s Central Committee.
S: When Lenin’s health deteriorated, the question arose of strengthening the secretariat and an
authoritative leader has to be found who could supervise Party’s affairs in Lenin’s absence.

a) P Q R S b) SRPQ c) SQPR d) R P Q S.
35. S₁: There is nothing in the world more fascinating than watching a child grow and develop,
P: At first you think of it as just a matter of growing bigger.
Q Then, as the infant begins to do things, you may think of it as “learning tricks”.
R: In some ways; the development of each child retraces the whole history of the human race, physically
and spiritually, step by step
S: But, it’s really more complicated and full of meaning than that.

a) PQSR b) RPQS c) P Q R S d) RPSQ.

36. The sun reaches its maximum angular distance from the equator at the
a) zenith b) solstice c) equinox d) noon time.
37. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one move from
a) West to East b) East and West of the prime meridian
c) Poles to equator d) Equator to poles.
38. When can one record the lowest temperature of air?

a) Just before sunrise b) At midnight
c) At 3 a.m. d) At sunrise.
39. What is the difference between a geyser and a hot spring?

a) Water is ejected explosively in a geyser b) Water from a geyser may be cold
c) Geysers are formed on volcanic mountains d) Geysers are more common in cold
countries.
40. Sher Shah is well-known for his administrative skill, especially his
a) Market control steps b) Land revenue system c) Mansabdari system d) Law and
order.
41. A monument resembling Taj Mahal was created by Aurangzeb in

a) Ahmedabad b) Aurangabad c) Hoshangabad d) Daulatabad.
42. The maximum work in popularising female education in the nineteenth century was done by
a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar b) J.E.D. Bethune
c) D.K. Karve d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
43. The most learned ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who was well versed in various branches of learning
including Astronomy, Mathematics and Medicine was
a) Iltutmish b) Alauddin Khalji
c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq d) Sikandar Lodhi.
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44. Permanent Settlement was introduced to

a) help the ryots b) earn a fixed and regular revenue
c) help the landlords d) improve the prospects of agriculture.
45. Who is, presently, the Director of the National Judicial Academy?
a) Prof. N.R. Madhava Menon b) Dr. Balram K. Gupta
c) Prof. M.P. Singh d) Prof. K.N. Chandrasekharan Pillai.
46. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV of the Constitution of
India?
I. Equal pay for equal work
II. Uniform Civil Code
III. Small family norm
IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level
a) I, II and III b) I and II c) II and III d) I, II and IV.
47. Who decides whether a Member of Parliament is subject to any disqualification?

a) President ` b) Speaker c) Election Commissioner d) None of the above.
48. The 9th Postal Zone of India covers

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Army Post Office c) Goa d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
49. Regarding No-Confidence Motion

a) it is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers
b) no grounds have to be set out for the motion
c) not less than 100 members have to support it for the Speaker to grant leave for its introduction
d) it is always brought against the Prime Minister.
50. Who is responsible for the registration of voters in India?

a) Government b) Voters c) Political parties d) Election Commission.
51. The term fiscal deficit means

a) total receipts minus expenditure b) total receipts minus interest payments on external debt
c) revenue receipts minus expenditure d) revenue receipts minus defence expenditure.
52. The functions of the Reserve Bank of India are

I. issuing all notes and coins
II. distributing all notes and coins
III. formulating monetary policy
IV. acting as agent of government in respect of India’s membership of the IMF
a) I, II and III b) II and III c) II, III and IV d) I, II, III and IV.
53. What do you understand by Bear Raid?

a) An attempt to bring down the price of strong short selling
b) Simultaneous buying of shares and debentures in view of getting more values in near future
c) Higher rate of price paid for particular government share or debentures
d) Any of the above.
54. The foreign exchange reserves of India include

a) Gold b) SDRs
c) Foreign currencies d) All of these.
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55. Among the remedies of inflation, we cannot include

a) better capacity utilization b) lowering bank rate
c) inducing budgetary deficit d) an efficient public distribution system.
56. Which one of the following is the most effective carrier of communications?
a) Cables b) Radio waves
c) Microwaves d) Optical fibres.
57. Which one of the following compounds is used as a sedative?

a) Potassium Bromide b) Calcium Chloride
c) Ethyl Alcohol d) Phosphorus Trichloride.
58. In a fire siren, a jet of air is directed against a series of evenly spaced holes in a rotating disc. As the
disc speeds up, the tone
a) maintains constant pitch b) drops in pitch
c) increases in wavelength d) increases in frequency.
59. After death, the

I. arteries are usually empty of blood
II. blood in arteries clots
III. veins are empty of blood
IV. veins are full of clots
a) I and II b) I only c) I and IV d) III only.
60. A victim of a road accident is unconscious. Put in correct order the steps in First-Aid,
I. Treating for cardiac arrest
II. Treating for asphyxia
III. Treating for shock
IV. Arrest Haemorrhage
V. Cleanse and cover wounds.
a) I, II, III, IV, V b) II, I, IV, III, V c) II, III, I, IV, V d) V, II, I, III, IV.
61. Which one of the following international organisations does India disapprove of?
a) ASEAN b) NATO c) FAO d) OPEC.
62. Which space agency released surprising pictures of the remains of huge river which ran across Mars
at some point of time on January 17, 2013?
a) NASA b) European Space Agency c) Australian Space Agency d) ISRO.
63. Name the Indian woman weight-lifter who in January 2013 won Maiden National Title in National
Weightlifting Championship, 2013.
a) Binitha Devi b) Amanpreet Kaur c) Manpreet Kaur d) Kamam Malleswari.
64. Which of the following Indian company got the top rank among Indian companies in Top 500
companies list of Fortune India?
a) Indian Oil Corporation b) ONGC c) RIL d) SAIL.
65. The Report of Transparency International India released in December, 2012 places India at _______
rank among 176 nations on the basis of Corruption Percentage Index.
a) 93 rd b) 94 th c) 95 th d) 96 th.
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66. Who is crowned as Pond’s Femina Ms. India, 2013?

a) Zoya Afroz b) Sobhita Dhulipala c) Navneet Kaur Dhillon d) Anukriti Gusain.
67. Which Hindi film was awarded 60th National Film Award, 2013 for Best Feature Film?
a) Paan Singh Tomar b) Barfi c) Gangs of Wasseypur d) Vicky Donor.
68. Who is elected as the 266th Pope of the Roman Catholic Church at Rome in March, 2013?
a) John Paul I b) John Paul II c) Benedict XVI d) Francis.
69. Which country joined WTO in August 2012?

a) Russia b) Belgium c) Turkey d) Taiwan.
70. Which of the following are included in the definition of Sexual Harassment under the new Sexual
Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redresal) Bill?
a) Physical contact and advances b) Demand or request for sexual favours
c) Making sexually coloured remarks d) All of the above.

Directions (Qs. 71-85): Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation.
71. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: If a person brings anything dangerous on his land which may prove harmful if
escapes, then that person must keep it at his peril. If a man fails to do so then he must be made
responsible to all-natural consequences of its escape.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A grows poisonous trees on his own land and lets the projection of the
branches of his trees on the B’s land. B’s cattle die because of nibbing the’ poisonous leaves.
DECISION:
a) A is not liable to B because B must have taken due care to control his cattle
b) A is not liable to B because trees are still on A’s land and there is no escape of dangerous thing
c) A is liable to B because projection of branches with poisonous leaves amounts to escape
d) A is not liable to B because he is not acting negligently.
72. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant/agent,
in the performance of his duties an servant/agent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: -4 gave come cash and cheques to his friend B, who was an employee of the
Stale Bank of India, to deposit the same in that Bank in the account of A. B misappropriated the amount.
If A sues the Bank for damages, then the Bank is
DECISIONS:
a) Liable to pay because it was the employer of B
b) Liable to pay because the employee did it during business hours and while working as an employee
c) Not liable because he turned out to be the friend of the plaintiff’s husband
d) Not liable because while committing the fraud, he was not acting as the agent or employee of the
Bank.
73. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant/agent,
in the performance of his duties as an servant/agent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The plaintiff a bullion merchant was arrested by the police on a charge of
purchasing stolen goods. Some of the gold and silver ornaments were seized from the plaintiff and were
kept in the police station custody. The duty constable appropriated the gold ornaments and escaped to a
foreign country. The plaintiff after being acquitted brought an action against the State for the
compensation. In this case, compensation is
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DECISION:
a) Payable as there is misappropriation by the servants of the State
b) Payable due to the fact that police constable has escaped to a foreign country
c) Payable by the police constable himself and not by the State
d) Not payable as the act was committed in discharge of sovereign function.
74. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:

1. Joint tort-feasers means joint wrong-doers. People can be joint tort-feasors in case of common action,
in fact or in law.
2. Joint tort-feasers are jointly and severally liable
FACTUAL SITUATION: Two dogs belonging to two different owners acting in concert attacked a flock of
sheep and injured several sheeps. In an action for damages brought against the owners of the dogs, if
one of them puts a defence claiming that he was liable for one half only of the damage, then which one
of the following statements is legally sustainable in the above case?
DECISION:
a) Neither of the owners is liable for damages done by his dog
b) Each owner was responsible for one half of the damage
c) The owners themselves are not joint tort-feasers

1. Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those
considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something
which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
2. Defendant’s duty of care depends on the reasonable foreseeability of injury which may be caused to
the plaintiff on breach of duty.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The defendants employees of the Municipal Corporation opened a manhole in
the street and in the evening left the manhole open and covered it by a canvass shelter, unattended and
surrounded by warning lamps. The plaintiff, an eight years old boy, took one of the lamps into the shelter
and was playing with it there, when he stumbled over it and fell into the manhole. A violent explosion
followed and the plaintiff suffered bum injuries. The defendants are
DECISION:
a) Not liable because the injury to plaintiff is not foreseeable
b) Liable because they should have completed the work before they left
c) Not liable because they acted reasonably
d) Liable because they acted unreasonably.

1. Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant/ agent, in the performance of
his duties as an servant/agent.
2. Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those
considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something
which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A patient is brought to a hospital maintained by B. The patient is to be operated

upon. As a result of faulty oxygen supply, the patient dies on the operation theatre table, then
DECISION:
a) B would not be liable because the surgeon was negligent
b) B would be liable because there is master and servant relationship between B and the surgeon
c) B would not be liable because there is no master and servant relationship between B and the surgeon
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d) B would not be vicariously liable because surgery is a highly skilled work on which B would have no
control.
77. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Defamation means publication of a false and derogatory statement about
another person without lawful justification.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A writes a defamatory letter to B containing defamatory remarks in reference of

B in Urdu language. A is aware that B does not know Urdu. B goes to C who knows Urdu and the letter
is read over by C to him. B sues A for defamation.
DECISION:
a) A is liable
b) A is not liable because he addresses the letter to B and not to C
c) A is not liable because there is no publication of defamatory statement
d) A is not liable because he is unaware that the letter can be read over by someone else to B
78. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A private nuisance may consist of:

1. Any interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land.
2. The act of wrongfully causing or allowing the escape of deleterious things into another person’s land
e.g. water, smoke, smell, etc.
FACTUAL SITUATION: D erected a brick grinding machine adjoining the premises of P, a medical
practitioner. The dust from the machine polluted the atmosphere and caused inconvenience to P and his
patients. Here
DECISION:
a) P cannot stop D because D is carrying on lawful business
b) D has fundamental right to carry on any kind of business
c) P can claim compensation because D’s activity amounts to nuisance for P
d) D can claim compensation from P because P is trying to maliciously prosecute D.
79. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: False imprisonment is the confinement of a person without just cause or
excuse. There must be a total restraint of the person and the onus of proving reasonable cause is on the
defendant.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A entered in B’s park where there was an artificial lake for the boating. A paid
Rs. 100 for entering the park and has to pay Rs. 100 at the time of exit. A waited for .30 minutes but no
boat was available. A came out, however, denied to pay Rs. 100 for exit, B did not allow A to leave the
park unless he paid Rs. 100 for exist. A sued B for false imprisonment.
DECISION:
a) B is guilty of false imprisonment
b) B is not guilty of false imprisonment
c) A can lawfully refuse to pay Rs. 100 when no boat was available
d) A can ask for even Rs. 100 given for entering the park as B’s services are deficient in the park and
can sue B for false imprisonment.
80. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: In a suit for malicious prosecution, the plaintiff must prove the following
essentials:
1. That he was prosecuted by the defendant.
2. That the proceeding complained was terminated in favour of the present plaintiff.
3. That the prosecution was instituted against him without any just or reasonable cause.
4. That the prosecution was instituted with a malicious intention, that is, not with the mere intention of
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getting the law into effect, but with an intention, which was wrongful in fact.
5. That he suffered damage to his reputation or to the safety of person, or to security of his property.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A recovered a large sum of money from Railway Co. for personal injuries.
Subsequently, Railway Co. came to know that injuries were not real and were created by doctor B.
Railway Co. prosecuted B for playing fraud on the company, but B was acquitted. B sued Railway Co. for
malicious prosecution. In the light of these facts which of the following statements is true?
DECISION:
a) Railway Co. is guilty of malicious prosecution because it acted without reasonable cause
b) Railway Co. is not guilty of malicious prosecution because the Co. took reasonable care in
determining the facts and honestly believed them to be true
c) Railway Co. is liable because it acted negligently
81. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Attempt is an act done with an intent to commit crime, and forming part of the
series of acts which would constitute actual commission of the crime, if not interrupted.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A intending to murder B by poison purchases poison and mixes the same with a
glass of water. He gave to the bearer to serve B. The bearer while approaching B, loses the balance and
the glass drops out of his tray.
DECISION:
a) A has not committed any offence
b) A has committed the offence of murder
c) A has committed the offence of attempt to murder
d) A has not committed an offence of attempt to murder because nothing happened to B.

1. The concept of joint liability comes under section 34 of IPC which states that “when a criminal act is
done by several persons, in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for
that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.”
2. A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the commission of an
act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of committing an offence with
the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
3. A criminal conspiracy takes place when two or more people get together and plan to commit a crime
and then take some action toward carrying out that plan. The action taken does not have to be a crime
itself to further the conspiracy.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X and Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy procures the
poison and delivers it to Y in order that he may administer; it to Z. Y in pursuance of the conspiracy,
administer the poison in the presence of X and thereby causes Z’s death. What offences X and Y have
committed?
DECISION:
a) Y’s has committed the offence of murder and X was an abettor
b) Both X and Y have committed the offence of criminal conspiracy
c) X has not committed any offence
d) Both X and Y have committed the offence of murder.

1. Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person
without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
2. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property, shall be
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punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine,
or with both.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A takes umbrella belonging to Z out of Z’s possession in good faith, believing at
the time when he took it, that the property belongs to himself. His wife points out after some days that
the umbrella does not belong to them but to Z. After coming to know that, A dishonestly keeps the
umbrella.
DECISION:
a) A is guilty of criminal misappropriation
b) A is guilty of criminal breach of trust
c) A is guilty of theft
d) Both A and his wife are guilty of criminal misappropriation.
84. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee had done or abstained from
doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or abstain something, such an act or abstinence
or promise is called consideration for the promise.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A daughter promises to give maintenance to her uncle in consideration of her
mother making a gift of certain properties to her. The daughter pleas lack of consideration when the
uncle seeks to enforce the contract. She says that the uncle is a stranger to the consideration and so he
cannot enforce the contract. The daughter
DECISION:
a) Will succeed because uncle being a stranger to the consideration cannot enforce it
b) Will not succeed because uncle is a near relative and in such cases consideration is not necessary
c) Cannot succeed because consideration might move from any person

1. Parties to contract should be capable of entering in to contract, only then they can lay the foundation
of a valid contract.
2. Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority,
FACTUAL SITUATION: A minor agreed with B to become a tenant of his house and to pay Rs, 1,000 for
the furniture therein. He paid Rs. 800 in cash and gave a promissory note for the balance. A occupied
the premises and used the furniture for some months and then brought an action for refund of
consideration, in this case
DECISION:
1. A is liable to pay Rs. 1,000
2. Ais liable to pay remaining Rs. 200
3. A is liable to refund of Rs. 800
4. Neither B is liable to refund Rs. 800 nor A is under obligation to pay Rs. 200.
86. “Begar” means

a) Voluntary work without payment b) Involuntary work without payment
c) Involuntary work with payment d) Voluntary work with payment.
87. In India, the reckoning date for the determination of the age of the juvenile is the
a) date of offence b) date of trial
c) date of judgment d) date of arrest.
88. Which of the following rights is not available to the citizens of India under Article 21 of the
Constitution?
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a) Right to Privacy b) Right to Die

c) Right to Health and Medical Assistance d) Right to Get Pollution-free Water and Air.
89. The “Eco-mark” is given by the Ministry of Environment and Forest to the consumer products which
a) are degradable b) are environment-friendly
c) conform to the standards of ISI d) are electricity saver.
90. The EIA is abbreviated form of

a) Environment Impact Assessment b) Environment Implementation Arrangement
c) Environment Impact Apparatus d) Environmental Institute of Awareness.
91. ________ was the leader of “Chipko Movement”.

a) Medha Patkar b) Subhash Gheising c) Balasaheb Doeras d) Sunderlal
Bahuguna.
92. When two persons descend from a common ancestor but by different wives they are said to be
related to each other by
a) Sapinda relationship b) Half blood c) Full blood d) None of the above.
93. “Pacta sunt Servanda” means that
a) The States are not bound to respect the agreements entered into by them
b) The agreements entered into by the States will be respected and followed by them in good faith
c) The States are under no obligation to follow the agreements in good faith
d) Though the States are bound to recognise an agreement entered into by them but cannot be
compelled to follow it.
94. An offence of breaking a divine idol

a) Blasphemy b) Salus populi c) Crime d) Sacrilege.
95. What is Plea Bargaining?

a) A conference between opposing lawyers and judge to determine the time a case should take place
b) A procedure by which an accused pleads guilty in exchange for a lesser punishment
c) A conference between opposing lawyers to settle the claim
d) A conference between the victim and the accused to settle the claim.
96. The act by members of a trade union, persuading others not to work is called as
a) Non-cooperation b) Picketing c) Sit-in-strike d) Strike.
97. In India, cyber terrorism is an offence punishable under

a) Information Technology Act b) POTA
c) TADA d) Indian Penal Code.
98. When a judge makes certain remarks in the course of his judgment, which are said “by the way” and
do not have direct bearing on the facts at hand, such remarks are called
a) Ratio Decidendi b) Obiter Dictum c) Observations d) Comments ordinaralis.
99. In Extradition Treaty, extradition means
a) Order of Indian Court will apply to Indian living elsewhere than India
b) Export without double taxation
c) Two countries will deport criminal on reciprocal basis to each other
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100. Who is the Chairperson of the 20th Law Commission of India?

a) Justice Altmas Kabir b) Justice P.V. Reddy
c) Justice A.R. Lakshmanan d) Justice D.K. Jain.
101. ______ of the Constitution of India lays down that Union of India and the States are juristic person
and can sue and be sued.
a) Article 225 b) Article 268 c) Article 300 d) Article 348.
102. A post-dated cheque bears__________ date.

a) past b) no c) future d) present.
103. According to the Doctrine of every________ generation is obliged to preserve its natural and
cultural heritage for the enjoyment of the future generations.
a) Sustainable development b) Polluter pay principle
c) Precautionary principle d) Inter-generational equity.
104. Which of the following is not recommended by the Justice Verma Committee?
a) Minimum sentence for a rapist should be enhanced from 7 years to 10 years
b) The age of juvenile should not be lowered from 18 to 16 years
c) Life imprisonment must always mean jail for “the entire natural life of the convict”
d) Death sentence for “rarest of rare cases” of rape.
105. High Courts has been constituted in all these States in January, 2013 except
a) Assam b) Meghalaya c) Manipur d) Tripura.

106. Information that is published is part of the public record. But information that a reporter collects, and
sources that he contacts, must be protected in order for our free press to function free of fear. The above
argument is most severely weakened by which one of the following statements?
a) Public information is usually reliable

b) Undocumented evidence may be used to convict an innocent person
c) Members of the press act ethically in most cases
d) The sources that a reporter contacts are usually willing to divulge their identity.
107. Psychological novels are superior to novels of adventure. Immature readers prefer novels of
adventure to novels with less action and greater psychological depth. The immature reader, who prefers
James Bond’s exploits to the subtleties of Henry James, can be identified easily by his choice of inferior
reading matter.
A criticism of the logic of this argument would be likely to find fault with the author’s
a) Presupposing the conclusions he wishes to prove
b) Failure to define “adventure” clearly
c) Failure to cite possible exceptions to this rule
d) Hasty generalisation on the basis of a limited specific case.
108. Many very effective prescription drugs are available to patients on a “one time only” basis.
Suspicious of drug abuse, physicians will not renew a prescription for a medicine that has worked
effectively for a patient. This practice denies a patient her right to health. Which one of the following is a
basic assumption made by the author?
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a) A new type of medicine is likely to be more expensive

b) Physicians are not concerned with a patient’s health
c) Most physicians prescribe inadequate amounts of medicine
d) Patients are liable to suffer the same ailment repeatedly.
109. Vijay claimed that the large dent in the fender of the company-owned vehicle he had borrowed was
caused by the careless act of another motorist, who backed into the car when it was parked in a public
garage. Yet Vijay’s own car has several dents in its fenders, all of which he acknowledges as having
caused by his own careless driving. Therefore, Vijay’s contention that the dent in the formerly undented
company-owned vehicle was caused by the careless act of another person is not true.
The reasoning in this argument is vulnerable because it
a) Fails to recognise that Vijay could be lying about the dents in his own vehicle
b) Fails to recognise that the motorist who backed into him simply did not see him
c) Fails to acknowledge that many such accidents occur in parking garages
d) Presumes, without justification, that because Vijay has caused similar dents to his own car, he caused
the dent in the company car.
110. It takes a good telescope to see the moons of Neptune. I can’t see the moons of Neptune with my
telescope; Therefore, I do not have a good telescope.
Which one of the following most closely parallels the logic of this Statement?
a) It takes two to tango. You are doing the tango. Therefore, you have a partner
b) If you have a surfboard, you can surf. You do not have a surfboard. Therefore, you cannot surf
c) You can write a letter to your friend with a pencil. You do not have a pencil. Therefore, you cannot
write the letter
d) If you know the area of a circle, you can find its circumference. You cannot figure out the
circumference. Therefore, you do not know the area.
Directions (Qs. 111-114): In each question below is given statement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement, Mark answer:
a) If only I assumption is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If neither I nor II is implicit; and
d) If both I and II are implicit.
111. Statement: As poor people in India prefer and use jaggery rather than sugar, the government has
decided to decontrol and scrap sugar distribution through Public Distribution System (PDS).
Assumption
I. Jaggery is freely available at reasonable price to all poor people.
II. PDS has lost its utility.
112. Statement : Unless country ‘X’ achieves total literacy, it cannot achieve its mission of development.
Assumption
I. It is possible to achieve total literacy in country ‘X’.
II. No development is possible without a proper mission.
113. Statement : Many species of animals on our earth are still not studied scientifically and if we do not
do this work urgently, many species will face extinction.
Assumption
I. Earth may lose all types of life very shortly.
II. It is desirable and possible to study scientifically many animal species.
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114. Statement: Herbs can safely be used for treating diseases of human beings.
Assumption
I. Herbs cannot be used for treating diseases of animals.
II. Herbal treatment is getting popular.
Directions (Qs. 115-120): Each group of questions is based on a set of conditions. Choose the
At the snack cafe at a party, Ali, Bina, Champak and Diva are eating cookies. There are five kinds of
cookies to choose from – chocolate chip cookies, oatmeal cookies, sugar cookies, peanut butter cookies
and raisin cookies. Each of these four people eats at least two kinds of cookies. Their choices are
governed by the following rules:
At most two of them eat oatmeal cookies At least two of them eat sugar cookies Ali does not eat any
sugar cookies Bina and Champak do not eat the same type of cookies
Bina eats chocolate chip cookies
Champak eats sugar cookies
No one eats both raisin cookies and sugar cookies
If someone eats raisin cookies, they also eat peanut butter cookies
115. Which one of the following must be true?

a) Champak eats chocolate chip cookies b) Ali eats chocolate chip cookies
c) Bina does not eat peanut butter cookies d) Diya does not eat raisin cookies.
116. If Bina eats exactly three kinds of cookies, which one of the following must be true?
a) Champak eats exactly three kinds of cookies b) Diya eats only sugar cookies
c) If Ali eats oatmeal cookies, Diya eats oatmeal cookies d) Champak eats oatmeal cookies.
117. Which one of the following cannot be true?

a) No one eats raisin cookies
b) Ali and Diya both eat oatmeal cookies
c) Ali and Diya both eat chocolate chip cookies
d) Bina and Champak eat the same number of kinds of cookies.
118. Which pair of cookie types could each be eaten by at least three different people?
a) Chocolate chip and oatmeal b) Oatmeal and peanut butter
c) Chocolate chip and peanut butter d) Oatmeal and sugar.
119. Which pair of cookie types contains a cookie type eaten by exactly two different people?
a) Chocolate chip and oatmeal b) Oatmeal and peanut butter
c) Chocolate chip and peanut butter d) Sugar and raisin.
120. Which cookie type could be eaten by none of the people?

a) Chocolate chip b) Oatmeal
c) Sugar d) Raisin.
Directions: Read the following directions and answer the questions 121 to 123.
Sunita, Rahul and Suraj are children of Mrs. and Mr. Ahuja. Rani, Rohan and Shyam are children of Mrs.
and Mr. Malik. Shyam and Sunita are married and Arjun and Sohan are their children. Gunjan and Romesh
are children of Mrs. and Mr. Gandhi. Gunjan is married to Suraj and has three children named Rupali,
Sonu and Ravi.
121. How is Rahul related to Arjun?

a) Brother-in-law b) Cousin c) Uncle d) Maternal uncle.
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122. Rani is Sohan’s

a) Niece b) Sister c) Aunt d) Sister-in-law.
123. Shyam and Suraj are related as

a) Brother-in-law b) Cousin c) Brother d) Nephew.
124. Shyam travels 5-km towards East and turns left and moves 6-km further. He then turns right and
moves 9-km. Finally, he turns once again to his right and moves 6-km. How far is he from the starting
point?
a) 26 km b) 21 km c) 14 km d) 9 km.
125. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday, I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled
day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday, how many days late would I have been?
a) One day b) Two days c) Three days d) Four days.
126. X was born on March 6, 1993. The same year Independence Day was celebrated on Friday. Find
out the birth day of X.
a) Thursday b) Saturday c) Friday d) Wednesday.
127. Kamala would like to complete all her homework before 10 p.m. in order to watch an important TV
programme. She has 40 minutes’ assignment in each of her five subjects. What is the latest time at
which she can start and still complete work in time for the programme?
a) 6.40 p.m. b) 6.30 p.m. c) 7.10 p.m. d) 7.20 p.m.
Direction: In the following number series (Qs. 128-131) only one number is wrong. Find out that
number:
128. 21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36

a) 33 b) 35 c) 21 d) 36.
129. 5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253

a) 61 b) 29 c) 120 d) 253.
130. 0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215

a) 7 b) 63 c) 28 d) 215.
131. 9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340

a) 340 b) 170 c) 83 d) 40.
132. In a certain code, TEAMWORK is written as NBFUJQNV and SOME is written as PTDL. How is
PERSON written in that code?
a) QDOOPT b) QDOMNR c) SFQMNR d) SFQOPT.
133. In certain code, BASKET is written as 5$3%#1 and TRIED is written as 14*#2. How is SKIRT
written in that code?
a) 370*41 b) 3*%41 c) 3%#41 d) 3#4%1.
134. Eagle : Swoops :: Duck

a) Swims b) Flits c) Waddles d) Floats.
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135. APPLE : 50 :: ORANGE

a) 61 b) 63 c) 60 d) 69.
Directions: In (Qs. 136 to 140), a particular word is given. The word is followed by four words as given
in the alternatives. One of these four words cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question.
136. ENTHUSIASTICALLY
a) SATIATE b) HELMINTH c) SHALE d) TANTALUS.
137. CONCENTRATE
a) CENTRE b) CONCERN c) REASON d) TREAT.
138. INTRANSIGENT
a) STAIN b) GRATE c) TRACE d) RESIGN.
139. PERPETUATION
a) REPUTE b) RETAIN c) PIPETTE d) PENANCE.
140. ESTRANGEMENT
a) ENTANGLE b) ENTREAT c) GERMAN d) TANGENT.

141. The difference between the number of numbers from 2 to 100 which are not divisible by any other
number except 1 and itself and the numbers which are divisible by atleast one more number along with
one and itself.
a) 25 b) 50 c) 49 d) none of these.
142. The average of three prime numbers lying between 47 and 74 is 191/3. The greatest possible sum
between any two out of the 3 prime numbers is
a) 120 b) 138 c) 132 d) 136.
143. Divya purchased 6 mangoes, 10 oranges and 5 apples for a certain amount. With 40% less amount
Anu could purchase 3 mangoes, 5 oranges and 4 apples. What percentage of the total amount did Divya
spend on apples?
a) 25% b) 33.333% c) 40% d) can’t be determined.
144. Military camp is having the provisions for 300 people consuming 600 grams daily for 75 days. They
are joined by 60 more men and daily ration was reduced by 100 grams. How long will the provisions last
approximately?
a) 61 days b) 67 days c) 75 days d) 88 days.
145. A contractor Abhay Singh employed some men to do a piece of work which can be done by 16 men
in 14 days. At the end of 5 days, 7 of the men stopped working and 3 days later half of the remainder
stopped working; the rest finished the work in 5 days. What is the number of men originally employed?
a) 25 b) 27 c) 29 d) 33.
146. Ram is travelling by car at the rate of 40 kmph. After 80 kms he rests for 20 minutes. How long will
he take to cover a distance of 240 kms?
a) 6 hrs 40 min
b) 6 hrs 11 min
c) 5 hrs 11 min
d) 7 hrs 15 min.
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147. There is leak in the bottom of a tank. This leak can empty a full tank in 8 hours. When the tank is
full, a tap is opened into the tank which admits 6 litres per hour and the tank is now emptied in 12 hours.
What is the capacity of the tank?
a) 28.8 litres
b) 36 litres
c) 144 litres
d) 145 litres.
148. A and B walk from X to Y, a distance of 27-km at 5-km/hr and 7-km/hr, respectively. B reaches V
and immediately turns back meeting A at Z. What is the distance from X to Z?
a) 25 km
b) 22.5 km
c) 24 km
d) 20 km.
149. Three consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number exceeds double the
third by 2, the third number is
a) 10
b) 14
c) 16
d) 12.
150. Devendra, a computer accessories vendor gave a discount of 20% on a pen-drive and his profit
reduced from Rs. 200 to Rs. 100. What is Devendra’s cost price?
a) Rs. 300
b) Rs. 200
c) Rs. 400
d) None of these
AILET 2013 Answers

1 C 31 C 61 B 91 D 121 D
2 D 32 A 62 B 92 B 122 C
3 D 33 C 63 C 93 B 123 A
4 A 34 D 64 A 94 D 124 C
5 C 35 A 65 B 95 B 125 C
6 D 36 B 66 C 96 B 126 A
7 B 37 D 67 A 97 A 127 A
8 A 38 A 68 D 98 B 128 B
9 A 39 A 69 A 99 C 129 C
10 A 40 B 70 D 100 D 130 C
11 D 41 B 71 C 101 C 131 A
12 A 42 A 72 D 102 C 132 C
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13 A 43 C 73 A 103 D 133 A
14 D 44 B 74 C 104 D 134 C
15 A 45 B 75 D 105 A 135 C
16 D 46 B 76 B 106 B 136 B
17 A 47 B 77 C 107 A 137 C
18 C 48 B 78 C 108 D 138 C
19 C 49 B 79 B 109 D 139 D
20 C 50 D 80 B 110 D 140 A
21 B 51 C 81 C 111 C 141 C
22 B 52 C 82 D 112 A 142 C
23 B 53 A 83 A 113 B 143 B
24 A 54 D 84 D 114 C 144 C
25 B 55 B 85 D 115 D 145 A
26 B 56 C 86 B 116 D 146 A
27 B 57 A 87 A 117 B 147 C
28 C 58 D 88 B 118 C 148 B
29 B 59 C 89 B 119 D 149 B
30 A 60 B 90 A 120 D 150 A
AILET 2014
Directions (Qs. 1 -7): The questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be
Under very early common law, all felonies were punishable by death. The perpetrators of the felony were
hanged whether or not a homicide had been committed during the felony. Later, however, some felonies
were declared to be non-capital offences. The common law courts, in need of a deterrent to the use of
deadly force in the course of these non-capital felonies, developed the “felony-murder” rule. The first formal
statement of the rule stated: “Any killing by one in the commission of a felony is guilty of murder.” The
killing was a murder whether intentional or unintentional, accidental or mistaken. The usual requirement
of malice was eliminated and the only criminal intent necessary was the intent to commit the particular
underlying felony. All participants in the felony were guilty of murder- actual killer and non-killer
confederates.
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Proponents of the rule argued that it was justified because the felony demonstrated a lack of concern for
human life by the commission of a violent and dangerous felony and that the crime was murder either
because of a conclusive presumption of malice or simply by force of statutory definition.
Opponents of the rule describe it as a highly artificial concept and “an enigma wrapped in a riddle.” They
are quick to point out that the rule has been abandoned in England where it originated, abolished in India,
severely restricted in Canada and a number of other commonwealth countries, is unknown in continental
Europe, and abandoned in Michigan. In reality, the real strength of the opponents’ criticism stems from the
bizarre and of times unfair results achieved when the felony-murder rule is applied mechanically.
Defendants have been convicted under the rule where the killing was purely accidental, or the killing took
place after the felony during the later flight from the scene; or a third party killed another (police officer
killed a citizen or vice versa; or a victim died of a heart attack 15-20 minutes after the robbery was over;
or the person killed was an accomplice in the felony).
Attacks on the rule have come from all directions with basically the same demand – reevaluate and
abandon the archaic legal fiction; restrict and limit vicarious criminal liability, prosecute killers for murder,
not non-killers; increase punishment tor the underlying felony as a real deterrent, and initiate legislative
modifications. With the unstable history of the felony – murder rule, including its abandonment by many
jurisdictions in this country, the felony-murder rule is dying a slow but certain death.
1. Which one of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
a) The felony – murder rule should be abolished
b) Some jurisdictions are about to abandon the felony – murder rule.
c) The felony – murder rule can be unfair.
d) Supreme Court of the United States,
2. The felony – murder rule was developed in order to

a) deter felonies
b) deter murders
c) deter deadly force in felonies
d) extend the definition of murder to any malicious act resulting in death
3. Arguments in favour of the felony – murder rule may include all of the following EXCEPT
a) We can infer that anyone undertaking a dangerous felony demonstrates an indifference to human life.
b) If the punishment for the use of deadly force whether intended or not is the same, criminals will be
less likely to use deadly force.
c) Because a life has been taken, the crime is murder by force of statutory definition.
d) The victim of murder may be an accomplice of the felony.
4. According to the passage, opponents of the felony – murder rule have raised all of the following
objections to the statute EXCEPT
a) The felony – murder rule results in murder prosecutions of defendants who have not committed
murder.
b) The felony – murder rule assigns a criminal liability vicariously.
c) The felony – murder rule is based upon a presumption of malice even if death is wholly accidental.
d) The felony – murder rule deters the use of deadly force in non-capital felonies.
5. In which of the following situations would the defendant NOT be liable to the charge of murder under
the felony – murder rule?
a) In escaping from an unsuccessful attempt to rob a bank, the defendant crashes his car, killing an
innocent pedestrian in another city.
b) A bank security officer, pursuing the defendant after a robbery, falls down a flight of stairs and suffers
serious permanent brain and spinal cord injuries.
c) The driver of the escape car, who has not entered the bank, crashes the car killing the armed gunman
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who committed the robbery.

d) A bank teller, locked safely in the bank vault by the robber, has a stroke and dies.
6. According to the passage, the decline of support for the felony – murder rule is indicated by the
abandoning of the rule in all of the following locations EXCEPT
a) Continental Europe b) India c) England d) Canada
7. The author believes that the felony – murder rule is

a) unconstitutional
b) bizarre and unfair
c) a serviceable rule unfairly attacked by the “intelligentsia”
d) an unfair equating of intent to commit a felony and intent to commit murder
Directions (Qs. 8-11): In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE
in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
8. Ambiguity
a) lucidity b) basal c) dull d) necessity
9. Antidote
a) medicine b) poison c) anodyne d) amity
10. Which is NOT a synonym for ‘accumulation’?

a) collection b) conglomeration c) assemblage d) collagen
11. Which is NOT a synonym for ‘incline’?

a) trenchant b) slope c) acclivity d) gradient
Directions (Qs. 12-15): In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in
12. Aphorism
a) Prune b) Wither c) Aphis d) Proverb
13. Passè
a) Rude b) Old – fashioned c) Modern d) Chic
14. Vituperation
a) Moisture b) Parallel c) Malediction d) Recover
15. Qualm
a) Concavity b) Amplitude c) Misgiving d) Repute
Directions (Qs. 16-17): Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.
16. She exhibited remarkable sang-froid during the crisis.

a) temper b) irritation c) composure d) anger
17. The co-operation and esprit de corps between the soldiers and the officers was directly responsible
for their victory.
a) bravery b) loyalty c) subordination d) unity
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Directions (Qs. 18-19): Answer the questions based on the following information.
In each of the question below, four different ways of writing a sentence are indicated. Choose the best
way of writing the sentence.
18.
a) The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is that it is not always a bad thing, but that it
is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
b) The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing; it is the
monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
c) The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, but that it
is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
d) The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not it is always a bad thing, but that it is the
monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
19.
a) A symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a
large number of devices, costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand
deals.
b) A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and costs are
artificially escalated with a large number of devices and black money is generated through underhand
deals.
c) A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a large
number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated on underhand deals.
d) A symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and by large
number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand deals.
Directions (Qs. 20- 23): In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is
given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P,
Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark
accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
20. L1: It is significant that one of the most common objections to competition is that it is blind.
P: This is important because in a system of free enterprise based on private property, chances are not
equal and there is indeed a strong case for reducing that inequality of opportunity.
Q. Rather it is a choice between a system where it is the will of a few persons that decides which is to
get what and one where it depends at least partly, on the ability and the enterprise of the people
concerned.
R: Although competition and justice may have little else in common, it is as much a commendation of
competition as of justice that it is no respecter of persons.
S: The choice today is not between a system in which everybody will get what he deserves according to
some universal standard and one where individual shares are determined by chance or goodwill.
L6: The fact that opportunities open to the poor in a competitive society are much more restricted than
those open to the rich, does not make it less true that in such a society the poor are more free than a
person commanding much greater material comfort in a different type of society.

a) RSQP b) SRQP c) PQRS d) QPSR
21. L1: The chain saw howled as I finished cutting through the branch,
P: The branch crashed to the ground, taking my spectacles with it.
Q. 1 almost dropped the saw as I shielded my face from the twigs that brushed by.
R: Howard retrieved my glasses and handed them up to me.
S: I pulled the saw away, and my husband tugged against the other end of the rope that 1 had tied just
above the cut.
L6: Are you okay? He asked.
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a) QRPS b) SQPR c) SRPQ d) QSPR
22. L1: All human beings are aware of the existence of a power greater than that of the mortals the
name given to such a power by individuals is an outcome of birth, education and choice.
P: Logically, therefore such a power should be remembered in good times also.
Q: Their other philanthropic contributions include the construction and maintenance of religious places
such as temples or gurdwaras.
R: Industrial organizations also contribute to the veneration of this power by participating in activities
such as religious ceremonies and festivities organized by the employees.
S: This power provides an anchor in times of adversity, difficulty and trouble.
L6: The top management/managers should participate in all such events, irrespective of their personal
choices.

a) RPSQ b) QRPS c) SPRQ d) SQRP
23. L1: A thorough knowledge of path or course to be followed is essential for achieving success.
P: Seniors must show the path clearly by laying down the precise expectations of the management in
terms of job description, key result areas, and personal targets.
Q: They should also ‘light the path’ by personal examples.
R: Advice tendered or help offered must be objectively evaluated for its effectiveness in achieving the
desired goals.
S: A display of arrogance and a false sense of ‘self-worth’, in order to belittle those who come to help,
prove dysfunctional.
L6: The individuality of each employee must be respected.

a) RSPQ b) RPSQ c) QPSR d) PQRS
Directions (Qs. 24-26): In the following questions, the word at the top is used in four different ways.
Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
24. Passing
a) She did not have passing marks in mathematics.
b) The mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road.
c) At the birthday party, all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.
d) A passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victim to the hospital.
25. Bolt
a) The shopkeeper showed us a bolt of fine silk.
b) As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.
c) Could you please bolt the door?
d) The thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime.
26. Fallout
a) Nagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiation,
b) People believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant.
c) Who can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements? •
d) The Headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at the public
examination
Directions (Qs. 27- 35): Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:
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Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and
deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% – 20% of all global emissions In addition, forests and other
terrestrial carbon sinks play a.…(27)…. role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6
Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a
staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely…(28)…. forests’ capacity to absorb emissions from other sources
– but also drastically.…(29)…. the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ….(30)…. a wide variety of
ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from
.…(31)….; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and .…(32)…. to clean water
in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each
year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to
make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ….(33)…. of income for a huge
number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America……(34)…. this, economic pressures frequently drive
both local communities and national governments in the developing world to ….(35)…. these forests in
ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land,
27. a) Tough b) Important c) Vital d) Biggest

28. a) Affect b) Diminish c) Increases d) Impairs
29. a) Plagues b) Develops c) Reduces d) Shortens
30. a) Sell b) Offer c) Give d) Provide
31. a) Transforming b) Decoding c) Erupting d) Eroding
32. a) Handiness b) Excess c) Availability d) Access
33. a) Beginning b) Source c) Ways d) Reference
34. a) Despite b) Also c) In spite d) Apart
35. a) Exploit b) Encompass c) Nurture d) Work

36. The Aircraft Carrier inducted in to the Indian Navy recently is
a) INS Virat b) INS Vikrant c) INS Vikramaditya d) None
37. Which of the following countries impeached its Chief Justice recently?
a) Bangladesh b) Pakistan c) Sri Lanka d) Maldives
38. With which of the following country India signed an Extradition treaty that came into force during
October 2013?
a) Afghanistan b) Kenya c) China d) Bangladesh

a) Dr Nasim Zaidi b) V.S. Sampath c) H.S. Brahma d) None
40. According to the recent World population data of 2013, the second most populous city in the world is
a) New Delhi b) Tokyo c) Mexico d) Beijing
41. The latest country to launch a satellite during January 2013 from its soil and join the club of space-
faring nations is
a) South Korea b) North Korea c) Ukraine d) Iran
42. Who won the Women’s Singles at the Malaysian Grand Prix Badminton Championship in 2013?
a) Saina Nehwal b) Juan Gu c) P.V. Sindhu d) Ratchanok Intanon
43. Who is the oldest woman tennis player to be ranked No. 1 in the world?
a) Venus Williams b) Chris Evert c) Martina Navratilova d) Serena Williams
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44. How many High Courts are there in India as on January 2014?
a) 18 b) 21 c) 28 d) 24
45. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 2013 has been conferred
on:
a) Ms. Angela Merkel b) Mr. Nelson Mandela c) Mr. Uhuru Kenyatta d) Mr. Hamid Karzai
46. Who has won the Golden Shoe Award in Soccer three times?
a) Diego Maradona b) Christiano Ronaldo c) Lionel Messi d) Pele
47. The phrase ‘Bitcoins’ refers to

a) Cryptocurrency introduced by the United States b) Cryptocurrency introduced by France
c) Cryptocurrency introduced by the World Bank d) None
48. Who was conferred the Col. C.K. Nayudu Life Achievement Award in Cricket during 2012?
a) Sunil Gavaskar b) Sachin Tendulkar c) Dhoni d) Kapil Dev
49. The Parliament of India voted to remove

a) Justice V. Ramaswami b) Justice P. Dinakaran c) Justice Soumitra Sen d) None
50. The maximum penalty that can be imposed by CIC/SIC under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is
a) Rs. 5,000 b) Rs. 25,000 c) Rs. 250 d) Rs. 10,000
51. On January 1, 2013, internet has completed

a) 26 years b) 30 years c) 32 years d) 28 years
52. Which of the following was declared by the United Nations General Assembly as “International Year
for Water Co-operation”?
a) 2011 b) 2012 c) 2013 d) 2014
53. How many States are there in the European Union?

a) 28 b) 24 c) 36 d) 22
54. How many members can be nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
a) 10 b) 20 c) 12 d) 16
55. The highest award for sporting excellence in India is

a) Arjuna Award b) Dronacharya Award c) Bharat Ratna d) Khel Ratna
56. Cloves, used as a spice, are derived from which of the following plant parts?
a) Seeds b) Fruits c) Flower buds d) Young leaves
57. Which one of the following is included in the World List of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO?
a) Kinnaur Region b) Spiti Valley c) Nallamalai Hills d) Sunderbans
58. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar d) T. Krishnamachari
59. Which one of the following countries is not a UN member country?

a) Greece b) Taiwan c) Portugal d) Australia
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60. The main component of India’s import items from China is

a) Rice b) Iron ore
c) Pharmaceuticals d) Telecom equipments and Machinery
61. Which of the following divides India into Northern and Southern parts?
a) Equator b) Tropic of Cancer c) Tropic of Capricorn d) Arctic Circle
62. With which one of the following countries, India shares maximum length of the border?
a) Bangladesh b) Pakistan c) China d) Nepal
63. What is known as Jasmine Revolution?

a) Czech uprising b) Sudan uprising c) Arab Spring d) Libyan uprising
64. Which one of the following statements about NATO is not correct?
a) NATO has 28 independent member states
b) The US is an ex-officio member of NATO
c) NATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe
d) Turkey is a member of NATO
65. V.R. Krishna Iyer was___________ before he became a Judge.

a) a minister b) an ambassador c) a Governor d) a bureaucrat
66. What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?
a) Sodium bicarbonate b) Sodium azide c) Sodium nitrite d) Sodium peroxide
67. Which colour of heat radiation represents the highest temperature?

a) Blood red b) Dark cherry c) Salmon d) White
68. Who is the founder of Facebook?

a) Jimmy Wales b) Larry Page c) Mark Zuckerberg d) Brian Acton
69. Shashi Kant Sharma was appointed in 2013 as the

a) Attorney General of India b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
c) Commissioner of Linguistic Minorities d) Chairman of the National Commission for SCs & STs
70. Mist is a result of which one of the following?

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Sublimation d) Saturation

Directions (Q. 71-97): Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply
the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
71. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Radhika’s brother, Akash, had come to visit at her place. After seeing her
wealth, Akash decided to commit theft that night. While he was trying to escape that night, he got
electrocuted by the wires which were fixed on the boundary walls. Akash plans to sue Radhika. Will his
claim succeed?
DECISION:
a) Yes, because in Indian tradition, guests are like Gods,
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b) No, because one has to be himself cautious about his safety.

c) Yes, because it is the occupiers’ duty to take care of its visitors.
d) No, because he himself is guilty of theft. He is no longer an invitee or visitor

1. An unlawful intrusion which interferes with one’s person or property constitutes trespass.
2. An easement is the right to use another person’s land for a stated purpose and has been in use for
quite some time. It can involve a general or specific portion of the property.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Vijay wanted to construct a shed on his window to stop the water from leaking
to his house. The shed was constructed but it protruded in Namit’s house. Vijay claims it is his ease
monetary right. Will Vijay’s claim succeed?
DECISION:
a) Yes, because he has a reason to do the same,
b) Yes, because right of easement exists.
c) No, because there exists no right of easement.
d) No, because this is encroachment on Namit’s property.
73. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person is responsible for that which he could have reasonably foreseen or
prevented.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A chemist sold a hair conditioner to Jyoti. The conditioner was locally
manufactured and the contents, harmful chemicals, were listed on the bottle. The chemist, however,
represented to Jyoti that the chemicals used were harmless and beneficial for the hair. On using it,
Jyoti’s hair was badly damaged and she had to get hair treatment done for the same. Jyoti filed a
complaint against the chemist. Will the chemist be liable?
DECISION:
a) Yes, as he should have informed Jyoti that the ingredients are not known.
b) Liable because he was aware of the side effects of the ingredients.
c) Not liable because it was the buyer’s duty to be aware about the product she is buying.
d) Not liable as it is a natural tendency of shopkeepers to extol the virtues of the product they are selling
74. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Defamation means publication of a statement injuring the reputation of a
person without lawful justification. Such statement must reflect on a person’s reputation and tends to
lower him in the estimation of right thinking members of the society generally or tends to make them
shun or avoid him.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Madam Tussauds Ltd. decided to keep a waxwork exhibition, and placed an
effigy of Babloo Prasad with a gun, in a room adjoining the “Chamber of Horrors”. Mr. Babloo Prasad
had been tried for murder in India and released on a verdict of “not proven guilt)'” and a representation of
the scene of the alleged murder was displayed in the Chamber of Horrors. Is it amount to defamation?
DECISION:
a) No Defamation as Babloo was an accused.
b) Defamation as his guilt was not proved and he was released by the court.
c) No defamation as there was no proper publication.
75. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and also severally, for
all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A and B started a partnership firm for providing vehicle repairing services. C
approached the firm for getting his car repaired and noticed that only B was present in the office. C
informed the problem, and B started repairing the car. While B was repairing, he filled petrol instead of oil
in the engine. As a consequence, a small blast occurred and damaged the car. Now, C sued both A and
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B for the damage so caused. Decide.

DECISION:
a) Both liable since B was authorised to carry out the work of the firm.
b) A is not liable since A has not authorised B to do something which was not for the benefit of the firm.
c) A is not liable since it was B‘s fault and for that only B can be held liable.
d) A is liable since it was negligence on his part that he was not present in the office when C came.
76. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: No fault liability means liability of a person even without any negligent act on
his part and even if he has taken due care and caution. If a person brings and keeps any dangerous
thing on his land, then he is liable for any damage caused if the thing escapes. No one can be penalized
for an Act of God which is unforeseeable and unpredictable.
FACTUAL SITUATION: B owned and managed a company supplying electricity to the nearby locality.
On a particular windy and stormy day, one of the wires snapped and was hanging down. A, a cyclist who
was driving in the night, saw the wire from a distance. There was a nearby street light with low visibility.
He came in contact with the wire and was electrocuted immediately. His heirs sued A on ground of strict
liability. Decide.
DECISION:
a) A is not liable because B must have stayed indoor on a windy day
b) A is not liable because B’s negligence caused him injury.
c) A is liable because supplying electricity is an inherently dangerous use of land and he should have
been careful.
d) A is not liable because sudden storm and winds without A’s negligence was an Act of God
77. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The master/ principal is liable for all acts done by his duly appointed
servant/agent for all acts done by him lawfully in the course of his employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A had an agency which used to lend carpenters to people on need basis. A
deputed B to do some repair work in C’s shed. While so doing, B lit up a cigarette and threw it as soon
as he saw someone coming there. The cigarette remaining lit caused a fire and the shed was reduced to
ashes. C sued A and B. Decide.
DECISION:
a) A is liable as B was his servant.
b) A is liable as he should have chosen responsible people.
c) A is not liable as B s act was not an authorised act.
d) A is not liable but B is liable.
78. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Where the parents of a minor child due to their negligence allow the child an
opportunity to commit a tort, the parents are liable.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The father supplied an air gun to his son who was about to turn 18 next month.
After some complaints of mischief, the father took the gun away and placed it in a corner of their
storeroom which was used by the family to store surplus and other unnecessary stuff. The son took it out
of the store and shot A. A sued his father. Is the father liable?
DECISION:
a) No. he took all necessary steps to prevent the son from using the gun.
b) Yes, he was the one who gave the gun and allowed him to use it by giving an opportunity.
c) No, the son was almost 17 years and 11 months of age; hence, he could think about his well-being
and interest.
d) Yes, the father was negligent in disposing off the gun.

1. Medical professionals are not immune from liability in tort on ground of negligence.
2. Services rendered to a patient by a doctor (except when given free of charge) by way of consultation,
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diagnosis and treatment fall in the definition of “service” under the Consumer Protection Act. In case of
negligence, the doctors are liable in tort as well as under the Consumer Protection Act.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A was the only child of his parents. Once he had high fever and his parents called
a doctor at home. This doctor used to work at a respectable hospital in Delhi. The doctor administered
certain medicines and asked the nurse to stay with him for the night and administer to him a chloroquine
injection. This injection was generally not suitable for young children. The nurse, without prior test, followed
instructions of the doctor and gave the injection. As a result of an allergic reaction, the child died. The
parents sued the nurse and the doctor.
DECISION:
a) Doctor was rendering a “service”; hence liable to pay compensation.
b) Doctor was not liable as he came to their home to give personal treatment and was not in the Hospital.
c) This is not a service; hence not liable.
d) Only the nurse is liable

1. An act done by the consent of a person above 18 years is not an offence; provide the offender did not
intend to cause death or grievous hurt.
2. Mere pecuniary benefit is not a ‘thing done for a person’s benefit’.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, a poor man, is in dire need of money to pay off his money lenders. A
approaches Z, a doctor, to operate on him to remove one of his kidneys so that he can donate it to
needy people and earn money. The doctor explains to him the risks and thereafter proceeds to remove
his kidney. In the process, some complications develop and A develops an abdominal tumour. Is Z
guilty?
DECISION:
a) Yes, donating kidney for money is illegal and amounts to trafficking of organs.
b) Yes, removing kidney for money is not an act protected by this exception.
c) No, Z performed the operation with A’s consent and fully explained him the risks involved.
d) No, Z’s act was done for A’s benefit so that he can pay off the money lenders.

1. An act done, even if without the consent of a person is not an offence, provided the offender did not
intend to cause death, and the act was done for the person’s benefit, in good faith.
2. Mere pecuniary benefit is not a ‘thing done for a person’s benefit’.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A is in a house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket.
A drops the child from the house top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child but intending to
save him from the fire. Unfortunately, the child is killed. Is A guilty?
DECISION:
a) Yes, A had knowledge of his dangerous act. His act was not justified.
b) Yes, A should have tried a less dangerous alternative.
c) No, his act was done in good faith to save the child.
d) No, he had the best of intentions and this was the only alternative
82. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is, or who by reason of
mistake of fact, in good faith, believes himself to be bound by law to do it.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with
the commands of the law. B is killed due to such firing. Is A guilty of murder?
DECISION:
a) Yes, he should have taken care to avoid any innocent person from being killed.
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b) No, he is bound by law to do it.

c) Yes, as he has killed a person.
d) The superior officer is guilty
83. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person shall not be guilty of contempt of court on the ground that he has
published any matter which interferes with or obstructs or tends to obstruct the course of justice in
connection with any civil or criminal proceeding pending at the time of the publication, if at that time he
had no reasonable grounds for believing that the proceeding was pending.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X delivered a lecture at the local Rotary Club in favour of an accused who is
prosecuted for assaulting a police officer. He said that the accused is a victim of prevailing corruption in
the judiciary and he knows that the accused is going to be punished by the court for being honest. Is X
guilty of contempt of court?
DECISION:
a) No, not guilty of contempt of court.
b) Yes, guilty of contempt of court.
c) Yes, X has dishonoured judiciary.
d) No, X is an honest man.
84. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the
possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is
said to commit theft.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, in good faith, believing property belonging to B to be A’s own property, sells
the property to C. Has A committed theft?
DECISION:
a) No, because he did not have a dishonest intention.
b) No, he did not move the property.
c) No, he did not move the property that was in B’s possession.
d) Yes, the constituent elements of theft are satisfied in this case.

1. Preparation to commit an offence is not an offence.
2. After one has finished preparation to commit an offence, any act done towards committing the offence
with the intention to commit it, is an attempt to commit the offence which is by itself an offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Manish wanted to kill Nandini and had therefore gone to the market to buy
explosives to plant in her house. Manish kept those explosives in his godown as he planned to plant
them early next morning. But as the explosives were stolen in the night, he could not plant them in
Nandini’s house. However, Nandini came to know about Manish’s plan and therefore wants to file a
complaint against him. Will she succeed?
DECISION:
a) Yes, because he has done something more than mere preparation.
b) No, because Nandini did not die.
c) Yes, because there existed a mala fide intention.
d) No, because mere preparation is no offence
86. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent,
in order to committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it likely
to cause injury, fear, or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force
to that other.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Akash was burning some crackers in his house when his dog got scared and
got unruly which scared his brother Mohsin. Can this be called criminal force?
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DECISION:
a) Yes, because he did it intentionally.
b) No, because law doesn’t account for trivial things.
c) Yes, because it led to annoyance of Mohsin.
d) No, because there was no mala fide intention
87. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in
force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence, nor subjected to a penalty greater than
which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of commission of the offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A boy of 16 years was convicted of house trespass and theft. He was
sentenced to imprisonment for 6 months and fine was also imposed. After the judgement, the Probation
of Offenders Act came into force. It provided that a person below 21 years may not ordinarily be
sentenced to imprisonment. Now the boy claims the benefit of this Act. Should he get it?
DECISION:
a) No
b) The rule of beneficial interpretation required that the benefit of ex post facto law can be applied to
reduce his sentence.
c) A boy below 18 years is a minor and so should not be punished.
88. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No one can be punished for the same offence twice.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Aditya is accused of harassing his colleague Nimisha. She complains to her
superior and a departmental inquiry is initiated against Aditya. Aditya tries to intimidate Nimisha and
continues harassing her following which she complains to the police. The departmental inquiry finds him
guilty and terminates his services. Later, he is found guilty by a court and is jailed for 2 years. He claims
that he has been punished twice.
DECISION:
a) He has been punished twice for the same offence.
b) He has not been punished twice for the same offence.
c) He has been punished for different offences.
d) None of the above
89. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: To be held guilty of an offence, one should have done the act that causes the
intended result.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, with the intention to murder B stabs him repeatedly with a knife, B is taken to
the hospital and is found to be out of danger. Thereafter, due to the doctor’s negligence, B’s wounds are
infected and he requires surgical interventions. During the time of operation to remove his infected leg, B
died on account of administration of general anesthesia.
DECISION:
a) A is guilty of murder.
b) A is not guilty of murder though he may be guilty of attempt to murder.
c) A is not guilty of murder but he may be guilty of causing hurt.
d) The doctor is liable as he was negligent.
90. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Every agreement, by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his
rights in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, is void to that
extent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Feroz and Pinto entered into an agreement for rendering certain services. As
per the prevailing law, the agreement may be enforced either at Jaipur or Udaipur. The agreement itself,
however, specifies that upon breach, the parties can only approach courts at Jaipur. Feroz breaches the
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contract and Pinto, being a resident of Udaipur, would like to sue him in Udaipur. He challenged the
validity of the clause.
DECISION:
a) Pinto will succeed as Feroz had made him suffer and the law must take his convenience into account
and allow him to sue in Udaipur.
b) Pinto will succeed as the contract does not allow him to institute any legal proceedings in any court or
tribunal in Udaipur.
c) Pinto will fail as the contract does not restrain him from instituting legal proceedings in Jaipur.
d) Pinto will fail as he was of sound mind while entering into contract and having accepted it, he cannot
now deny his obligation.
91. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A contract is an agreement enforceable by law.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Amita invited Bina to her house for dinner. Bina accepted the invitation but later
did not go. On Bina’s failure to attend, Amita filed a suit against Bina for the price of non-consumed food.
Will the law enforce this agreement?
DECISION:
a) No, it is a social agreement.
b) Yes, Amita can recover amount for non-consumed food.
c) No, as Bina did not accept the invitation in writing.
d) No, because the law does not take account of trivial things

1. Once a person accepts another’s offer, and signifies such acceptance to the former, a contract comes
into existence between them.
2. Uncertain agreements are void agreements.
3. Rejected offers can be accepted only if renewed.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Bakshi wanted to purchase a particular land. He sent a letter to his cousin, Dutt,
offering him ? 4 lakhs for it. Dutt replied that he would not sell it below 5 lakhs. Bakshi communicated his
willingness to pay this amount. Dutt did not sell the land to Bakshi. Bakshi sued him for breach of
contract.
DECISION:
a) Dutt is liable because once he communicates an offer to Bakshi and Bakshi accepts it, a contract
comes into existence.
b) Dutt is liable as he has misled Bakshi by his actions.
c) Dutt is not liable because he has rejected the offer by giving a counter offer which is also not specific.
d) Dutt is not liable as there is no legally enforceable contract
93. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An agreement is void if the court regards it as opposed to the public policy.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunita, while her husband Shankar was alive, promised to marry Neel in the
event of Shankar’s death. Subsequently, Shankar died, but Sunita refused to marry Neel. Neel sues
Sunita for damages for breach of promise.
DECISION:
a) Sunita is liable as she is bound to marry Neel.
b) She is liable to compensate Neel for breach of promise.
c) Neel can marry someone else.
d) She is not liable as the contract is opposed to public policy and so void.
94. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An agreement is void if its object is unlawful.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunil had a rich uncle who owned prime property in Chennai and had lot of
money in the bank. Being the only heir, Sunil was sure that he would inherit the property. One day, the
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uncle called him to his room and announced that he planned to marry again. This angered Sunil and he
plans to murder his uncle so he hired Anuj, a murderer and entered into a contract with him to kill his
uncle. Sunil agreed to pay Rs. 10 lakhs to Anuj and even paid 5 lakhs as advance. The following night
Anuj entered the uncle’s house intending to kill him. On reaching there, he realised that Sunil’s uncle
was already dead so he left without doing anything. Next day, after post mortem report, it transpired that
Sunil’s uncle had died due to heart attack. Now, Sunil wants to recover the advance from Anuj. Will he
succeed?
DECISION:
a) Yes
b) No
c) Anuj is liable to return the amount as the act was not done by him.
d) None of the above

1. Consideration must be of value in the eyes of law.
2. Consideration is not real if it is illusory.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Arjun received summons to appear at a trial as a witness on behalf of Bitu, the
accused. Bitu promised to pay him a sum of Rs. 1, 000 for his trouble. On default by Bitu, Arjun filed a
suit to recover the said sum. Will he succeed?
DECISION:
a) No, as the consideration is of no value in the eyes of law.
b) Yes, as the contract is supported by consideration.
c) No, as there is no consideration for the promise.
d) Yes, as he appeared before court only after Bitu agreed to pay him the amount of Rs. 1,000.
96. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A minor is not competent to contract.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Deep, a 9th standard student realizes that he being a minor, he is not permitted
by law to execute a contract, appoints Mandeep as his agent to conclude purchase of a land to gift it to
his mother on her birthday- Mandeep accordingly prepares the papers for the transaction but at the last
minute the seller who had agreed to sell it now refuses to sell it contending that he does not wish to sell
the land to a minor. Deep seeks to enforce the contract against the seller.
DECISION:
a) Deep can enforce the contract – since Mandeep is his agent, Deep is deemed to have personally
entered into a contract.
b) Deep cannot enforce the contract – only Mandeep can, since seller has entered into the contract with
Mandeep.
c) Deep cannot enforce the contract since he is a minor.
d) Deep can neither appoint an agent nor enforce the contract since he is a minor

1. Acceptance must be given only by the person to whom the offer is made.
2. Communication of acceptance to a person who did not make the offer does not bind the offerer.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Pal sold his business to Sam without disclosing it to his customers. Mani, an old
customer sent an order for goods to Pal by name. Sam, the new owner, executed the order. Mani
refuses to accept the goods from Sam as he intended to deal only with Pal. In a suit by Sam against
Mani:
DECISION:
a) Sam cannot recover as Mani never intended to deal with him.
b) Can recover the price as he had supplied goods only against the order made by Mani
c) Sam cannot recover as it was only an invitation to offer by Mani on which no acceptance can be given
by Sam.
d) Sam can recover as the price of the goods as an offer once accepted results in a contract.
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98. The main objectives of the Judicial Standards Accountability Bill 2010
1. It is a legislation which aims to increase accountability of the higher judiciary in India
2. It seeks to devise a new “complaint procedure” under which any person may be able to file a
complaint in writing against any judge of a superior court
3. The issue of Judicial Standards must be seen in the context of Article 124(4) of the Constitution
4. The Bill seeks to provide a straight jacketed definition of misbehaviour in clause 2(k)
Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2 b) 1,2 and 3 c) Only 4 d) 3 and 4
99. In April 2013, the Supreme Court held that the modification of a well-known cancer fighting drug is
not a patentable new invention against which pharmaceutical firm?
a) GlaxoSmithKline b) Novartis c) Ranbaxy d) Cipla
100. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 does not provide that:
a) A rape convict can be sentenced to a term not less than 20 years Death sentence to not less than 20
years
b) Death sentence to repeat offenders
c) Stalking and voyeurism are bailable offenders
d) Acid attack convicts can get a 10-year jail term
101. India, Uniform Civil Code is applicable in the State of:
a) Goa b) Nagaland c) Jammu & Kashmir d) Maharashtra
102. NOTA is introduced in the voting machine as one among the options based on
a) Representation of Peoples Act, 1950 b) Representation of Peoples Act, 1951

c) Decision of the Supreme Court of India d) Direction of the Election Commission
103. How many duties are provided under Part IV A of the Constitution?
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 08
104. The Inter State Council has been constituted based on the recommendation of
a) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

b) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution
c) Sarkaria Commission
d) Punchhi Commission
105. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?
a) Finance Commission b) State Public Service Commission

c) Election Commission d) Planning commission
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106. Rahul: One would have to be blind to the reality of moral obligation to deny that people who believe
a course of action to be morally obligatory for them have both the right and the duty to pursue that
action, and that no one else has any right to stop them from doing so.
Richa: But imagine an artist who feels morally obliged to do whatever she can to prevent works of art
from being destroyed confronting a morally committed anti-pornography demonstrator engaged in
destroying artworks he deems pornographic. According to your principle that artist has, simultaneously,
both the right and duty to stop the destruction and no right whatsoever to stop it.
Which of the following, if substituted for the scenario invoked by Richa, would preserve the force of her
argument?
a) A medical researcher who feels a moral obligation not to claim sole credit for work that was performed
in part by someone else confronting another researcher who feels no such moral obligation.
b) A manufacturer who feels a moral obligation to recall potentially dangerous products confronting a
consumer advocate who feels morally obliged to expose product defects.
c) An architect who feels a moral obligation to design only energy- efficient buildings confronting, as a
potential client, a corporation that believes its primary moral obligation is to maximise shareholder profits.
d) A health inspector who feels morally obliged to enforce restrictions on the number of cats a
householder may keep confronting a householder who, feeling morally obliged to keep every’ stray that
comes along, has over twice that number of cats.
107. Between 1951 and 1963, it was illegal in the country of Geronia to manufacture, sell, or transport
any alcoholic beverages. Despite this prohibition, however, the death rate from diseases related to
excessive alcohol consumption was higher during the first five years of the period than it was during the
five years prior to 1951. Therefore, the attempt to prevent alcohol use merely made people want and use
alcohol more than they would have if it had not been forbidden.
Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:

a) Many who died of alcohol-related diseases between 1951 and 1963 consumed illegally imported
alcoholic beverages produced by the same methods as those used within Geronia.
b) Death from an alcohol-related disease generally does not occur until five to ten years after the onset
of excessive alcohol consumption.
c) The death rate resulting from alcohol- related diseases increased just as sharply during the ten years
before and ten years after the prohibition of alcohol as it did during the years of prohibition.
d) Between 1951 and 1963, among the people with pre-existing alcohol- related diseases, the
percentage who obtained life-saving medical attention declined because of a social stigma attached to
excessive alcohol consumption.
108. Unless they are used as strictly temporary measures, rent-control ordinances (municipal regulations
placing limits on rent increase) have several negative effects for renters. One of these is that the controls
will bring about a shortage of rental units. This disadvantage for renters occurs over the long run, but the
advantage—smaller rent increases – occurs immediately. In many municipalities, especially in all those
where tenants of rent-control units have a secure hold on political power and can get rent-control
ordinances enacted or repealed, it is invariably the desire for short-term gain that guides those tenants in
the exercise of that power.
If the statements above are true, which one of the following can be properly inferred from them?
a) It is impossible for landlords to raise rents when rent controls are in effect.
b) In many municipalities, rent-control ordinances are repealed as soon as shortages of rental units
arise.
c) In many municipalities there is now, or eventually will be, a shortage of rental units.
d) In the long term, a shortage of rental units will raise rents substantially.
109. A government’s proposed 8 percent cut in all subsidies to art groups will be difficult for those groups
to absorb. As can be seen, however, from their response to last year’s cut, it will not put them out of
existence. Last year there was also an 8 percent cut, and though private fund-raising was very difficult
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for the art groups in the current recessionary economy, they did survive.
The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument

a) Relies without warrant on the probability that the economy will improve.
b) Overlooks the possibility that the cumulative effect of the cuts will be more than the arts group can
withstand.
c) Equates the mere survival of the arts groups with their flourishing.
d) Does not raise the issue of whether there should be any government subsidies to arts groups at all.
110. Health insurance insulates patients from the expense of medical care, giving doctors almost
complete discretion in deciding the course of most medical treatments. Moreover, with doctors being
paid for each procedure performed, they have an incentive to over-treat patients. It is thus clear that
medical procedures administered by doctors are frequently prescribed only because these procedures
lead to financial rewards.
The argument uses which one of the following questionable techniques?

a) Assigning responsibility for a certain result to someone whose involvement in the events leading to
that result was purely coincidental.
b) Inferring the performance of certain actions on no basis other than the existence of both incentive and
opportunity for performing those actions.
c) Presenting as capricious and idiosyncratic decisions that are based on the rigorous application of well-
defined principles.
d) Depicting choices as having been made arbitrarily by dismissing without argument reasons that have
been given for these choices.
Directions (Qs. 111-112): Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations
of three. Choose the set in which the combinations are logically related.
111.
1. Some buildings are not skyscrapers
2. Some skyscrapers are not buildings
3. No structure is a skyscraper
4. All skyscrapers are structures
5. Some skyscrapers are buildings
6. Some structures are not buildings
a) 1,3,5 b) 2,4,6 c) 6,4,1 d) 1,3,6
112.
1. All bins are buckets
2. No buckets is a basket
3. No bin is a basket
4. Some baskets are buckets
5. Some bins are baskets
6. No basket is a bin
a) 2,4,5 b) 1,3,2 c) 2,4,6 d) 1,2,6
Directions (Qs. 113-114): From the alternatives, choose the one which correctly classifies the four
sentences as a
F: Fact: If it relates to known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be
true.
J: Judgment: If it is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention.
I: Inference: If it is a logical conclusion or deduction about something based on the knowledge of facts.
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113.
1. If democracy is to survive, the people must develop a sense of consumerism.
2. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries,
3. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers.
4. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this,
a) IJFJ b) JFJI c) IJJF d) IFJJ
114.
1. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships.
2. The roots of many misunderstandings have been cited in poor relations among individuals.
3. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of
good interpersonal relations.
4. A study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life in general can be improved with a little effort
on the part of individuals.
a) FJIJ b) JFIF c) FIFJ d) IFFJ
Directions ((Qs. 115-120): Each group of questions is based on a set of conditions. Choose the
There are five flagpoles lined up next to each other in a straight row in front of a school. Each flagpole
flies one flag (red, white, or blue) and one pennant (green, white, or blue). The following are conditions
that affect the placement of flags and pennants on the poles: On a given flagpole, the pennant and the
flag cannot be the same colour.
Two adjacent flagpoles cannot fly the same colour flags.
Two adjacent flagpoles cannot fly the same colour pennants.
No more than two of any colour flag or pennant may fly at one time.
115. If the 2nd and 5th pennants are blue, the 2nd and 5th flags are red, and the 3rd flag is white, then
which one of the following must be true?
a) Two of the flags are white. b) Two of the pennants are white.
c) The 4th pennant is green. d) If the 1st flag is white, then the 1st pennant is green.
116. If the 1st flag is red and the 2nd pennant is blue, then which one of the following is NOT necessarily
true?
a) The second flag is white.
b) If the 5th flag is red, then the 3rd flag is blue.
c) If the 4th pennant is green, then the 1st pennant is white.
d) If the 1st and 5th flags are of the same colour, then the 3rd flag is blue.
117. If the 1st and 3rd flags are white and the 2nd and 4th pennants are blue, then which one of the
following is false?
a) The 4th flag is red. b) The 1st pennant is green.
c) The 3rd pennant is not red. d) The 5th pennant is green.
118. If the 1st and 4th flags are blue, and the 3rd pennant is white, then which one of the following must
be true?
a) If the 1st pennant is green, then the 5th pennant is white.
b) If the 5th pennant is white, then the 1st pennant is green.
c) The 2nd flag is red.
d) The 5th flag is red.
119. If the 2nd flag is red and the 3rd flag is white, and the 4th pennant is blue, then which one of the
following must be true?
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a) If the 5th flag is white, then the two of the pennants are blue.
b) If the 1st flag is white, then the 2nd flag is white.
c) If the 1st pennant is blue, then the 5th pennant is green.
d) If the 1st pennant is green, then the 5th flag is not blue.
120. If the 1st flag and the 2nd pennant are of the same colour, the 2nd flag and the 3rd pennant are the
same colour, the 3rd flag and the 4th pennant are the same colour, and the 4th flag and the 5th pennant
are the same colour, then which one of the following must be true.
a) The 1st pennant is white. b) The 2nd flag is not white.
c) The 5th flag is red. d) The 3rd pennant is blue.
121. Nicky, who is Ronald’s daughter, says to Irene, “Your mother Rita is the youngest sister of my
father, who is the third child of Sylvester”. How is Sylvester related to Irene?
a) Maternal uncle b) Father
c) Grandfather d) Father-in-law
122. Pointing to a lady, a person says to his friend, “She is the grandmother of the elder brother of my
father”. How is the girl in the photograph related to the man?
a) Niece b) Sister c) Aunt d) Sister-in-law
123. Pointing towards a boy, Aruna said to Pushpa, “The mother of his father is the wife of your
grandfather (mother’s father)”. How is Pushpa related to that boy?
a) Sister b) Niece c) Cousin d) Wife
124. The front door of Kiran house is towards the south. From the backside of her house she walks 50
metres straight then turns towards the left and walks 100 metres and after that turns right and stops after
walking 100 metres. Now Kiran is facing which direction?
a) East b) South c) West d) North
125. If Northwest becomes south and southwest becomes east and all the other directions change in the
similar manner, then what will be the direction for north?
a) Southeast b) Northeast c) North d) Southwest
126. A policeman goes 20 km east and then turning to the south he goes 30 km and then again turns to
his left and goes 10 km. How far is he from his starting point?
a) 30 km b) 20 km c) 10 km d) 40 km
Directions (Qs. 127-130): In the following number series, find out the missing number:
127. 31, 32, 36, 45,?
a) 55 b) 56 c) 63 d) 61
128. 1,3,2,5,3,7,4,9,5,11,6,?
a) 10 b) 11 c) 13 d) 9
129. 300, 296, 287, 271,?, 210

a) 246 b) 250 c) 244 d) 261
130. 12,15,19, ? ,30,37

a) 25 b) 21 c) 23 d) 24
Directions (Qs. 131-132): Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each question
using the following instructions.
Choose (a): If the question can be answered by using statement I alone but not by using II alone.
Choose (b): If the question can be answered by using Statement II alone but not by using I alone.
Choose (c): If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
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Choose (d): If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either
statement.
131. In a cricket match the ‘man of the match’ award is given to the player scoring the highest number of
runs. In case of tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has taken the higher number of
catches is chosen. Even thereafter, if there is a tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has
dropped fewer catches is selected. Aakash, Biplab and Chirag who were contenders for the award
dropped at least one catch each. Biplab dropped 2 catches more than Aakash did, scored 50, and took 2
catches. Chirag got two chances to catch and dropped both. Who was the man of the match?
I. Chirag made 15 runs less than both Aakash and Biplab.
II. The catches dropped by Biplab are 1 more than the catches taken by Aakash.
132. Four friends, A, B, C and D got the top four ranks in a competitive examination, but A did not get the
first, B did not get the second, C did not get the third, and D did not get the fourth rank. Who secured
which rank?
I. Neither A nor D were among the first 2.
II. E Neither B nor C was third or fourth.
Directions (Q. 133 -134): These four (4) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion
(A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the
answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
133. Assertion (A): The phenomenon of nuclear fission generates great energy.
Reason (R): The process in which a nucleus is broken into two parts is called nuclear fission.
134. Assertion (A): The price of a stock is determined on the basis of demand and supply of the stock.
Reason (R): The value of the Sensex increases whenever there is a heavy demand for the stocks which
form the Sensex.
Directions (Qs. 135-136): The questions given below have a statement followed by two conclusions 1
and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follow
from the statement.
Mark answer as:
a) If conclusion I follows
b) If conclusion II follows
c) If both conclusions I and II follow
d) If neither conclusion I follows nor II follows
135. Statement: A degree in law is one of the most wanted degrees by youth in India.
Conclusions:
I. A degree in law guarantees a good profession.
II. A degree in law is the first choice for youth in India.
136. Statement: Any student who is caught red-handed using unfair means discredits his parents and
teachers.
Conclusions:
I. Such students try to show that their teachers don’t teach properly in the class.
II. Stringent actions must be taken against such students.
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Directions (Qs. 137-140): In the following set of analogies, one word is missing. Find it out from the
given options.
137. Errata : ? :: Flaws : Jewels

a) Manuscripts b) Books c) Literature d) Prints
138. Inoculation : ? :: Exposure : Toughening

a) Immunity b) Punctuality c) Vulnerability d) Contagious
139. Steel : Rails :: Alnico : ?

a) Aircraft b) Machinery c) Silverware d) Magnets
140. Conscience : Wrong :: Police : ?

a) Thief b) Law c) Discipline d) Crime

141. Mohan credits 15% of his salary into his bank and spends 30% of the remaining amount on
household articles. If cash in hand is Rs. 2,380, what is his salary?
a) Rs. 5000 b) Rs. 4,500 c) Rs. 4000 d) Rs. 3,500
142. The average marks of a student in ten papers are 80. If the highest and the lowest score are not
considered the average is 81. It his highest score is92, what is his lowest score?
a) 55 b) 60 c) 62 d) 61
143. Ten years ago, Sunil was half of Sudip’s age. If the age of both at present is in the ratio of 3:4, what
will be the total of their present age?
a) 20 years b) 30 years c) 35 years d) 45 years
144. A and B started a business with a total capital of ? 30,000. At the end of the year, they shared the
profit in the ratio of their investments. If their capitals were interchanged, then A would have received
175% more than what he actually received. Find out the capital of B.
a) Rs.20,000 b) Rs.22,000 c) Rs.21,000 d) Rs.23,000
145. The ratio in which Aman and Bimal have contributed to the capital of a company is 3 : 4. Bimal has
invested his capital for only 3 months and has received half as much profit as Aman, at the end of the
year. Find out for how much time has Aman invested his capital in the company.
a) 8 months b) 14 months c) 15 months d) 1 year
146. Two whole numbers whose sum is 64 can be in the ratio of?
a) 7:2 b) 7:6 c) 3:1 d) 8 : 7
147. In a call Centre, 6 employees working for 10 hours complete a certain task. They started working at
11:00 am. This continued till 5:00 pm and after that, for each hour one more employee is added till the
work gets completed. At what time will they complete the work?
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a) 7:10 pm b) 8:00 pm c) 7:35 pm d) 6:35 pm
148. 72% of students in a class took Physics and 44% took Mathematics. If each student took Physics or
Mathematics and 40 took both, the total number of students in the class would be
a) 200 b) 240 c) 250 d) 320
149. Amar is twice as fast as Rohit and Rohit is thrice as fast as Chanda is. The journey covered by
Chanda in 42 minutes will be covered by Amar in
a) 14 min 25 sec b) 7 min c) 28 min 37 sec d) 54 min 35 sec
150. P, Q and R are three consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. If the value of three times P is 3
less than two times R, find the value of R.
a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 11
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AILET 2014 Answers

1 A 31 D 61 B 91 A 121 C
2 C 32 D 62 A 92 C 122 A
3 D 33 B 63 C 93 D 123 C
4 D 34 A 64 C 94 B 124 D
5 B 35 A 65 A 95 .C 125 D
6 D 36 C 66 B 96 D 126 C
7 D 37 C 67 D 97 A 127 D
8 A 38 D 68 C 98 B 128 C
9 B 39 B 69 B 99 B 129 A
10 D 40 A 70 A 100 C 130 D
11 A 41 A 71 D 101 A 131 D
12 D 42 C 72 B 102 C 132 C
13 B 43 D 73 B 103 B 133 B
14 C 44 D 74 B 104 C 134 B
15 C 45 A 75 A 105 D 135 D
16 C 46 C 76 C 106 D 136 B
17 D 47 D 77 A 107 A 137 B
18 C 48 A 78 D 108 C 138 A
19 B 49 D 79 A 109 B 139 D
20 A 50 B 80 B 110 B 140 D
21 B 51 B 81 C 111 B 141 C
22 C 52 C 82 B 112 D 142 B
23 D 53 A 83 B 113 B 143 C
24 A 54 C 84 A 114 B 144 B
25 B 55 D 85 D 115 D 145 A
26 D 56 C 86 D 116 C 146 C
27 C 57 D 87 B 117 D 147 B
28 D 58 C 88 B 118 B 148 C
29 C 59 B 89 B 119 A 149 B
30 B 60 D 90 C 120 C 150 C
AILET 2015
140
Directions (Q. 1 – 6) : The questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be
The Constitution of the United States protects both property rights and freedom of speech. At times these
rights conflict. Resolution then requires a determination as to the type of property involved. If the property
is private and not open to the general public, the owner may absolutely deny the exercise of the right of
free speech thereon. On the other hand, if public land is at issue, the First Amendment protections of
expression are applicable. However, the exercise of free speech thereon is not absolute. Rather it is
necessary to determine the appropriateness of the forum. This requires that consideration be given to a
number of factors including: character and normal use of the property, the extent to which it is open to the
public, and the number and types of persons who frequent it. If the forum is clearly public or clearly private,
the resolution of the greater of rights is relatively straight forward.
In the area of quasi-public property, balancing these rights has produced a dilemma. This is the situation
when a private owner permits the general public to use his property. When persons seek to use the land
for passing out handbills or picketing, how is a conflict between property rights and freedom of expression
resolved?
The precept that a private property owner surrenders his rights in proportion to the extent to which he
opens up his property to the public is not new. In 1675, Lord Chief Justice Hale wrote that when private
property is “affected with a public interest, it ceases to be private.” Throughout the development of Anglo-
American law, the individual has never possessed absolute dominion over property. Land becomes
clothed with a public interest when the owner devotes his property to a use in which the public has an
interest. In support of this position the chairman of the board of the Wilde Lake Shopping Centre in
Columbia, Maryland said:
The only real purpose and justification of any of these centres is to serve the people in the area – not the
merchants, not the developers, not the architects. The success or failure of a regional shopping centre will
be measured by what it does for the people it seeks to serve.
These doctrines should be applied when accommodation must be made between a shopping centre
owner’s private property rights and the public’s right to free expression. It is hoped that when the Court is
asked to balance these conflicting rights it will keep in mind what Justice Black said in 1945: “When we
balance the constitutional rights of owners of property against those of the people to enjoy (First
Amendment) freedom(s) … we remain mindful of the fact that the latter occupy a preferred position.”
1. In which one of the following cases would the owner of the property probably be most free to restrict
the freedom of speech?
(a) an amusement park attended by five million people each year owned by a multinational company.
(b) a small grocery shopping mall owned by a husband and wife
(c) an enclosed shopping mall owned by a single woman
(d) an eight-unit residential apartment building owned by a large real estate company
2. A conflict between property rights and freedom of speech might arise in all of the following situations,
EXCEPT
(a) protestors carrying signs outside a cinema in an enclosed shopping mall
(b) a disgruntled employee passing out leaflets in front of a hairdresser’s salon
(c) a religious order soliciting funds and converts in the swimming pool area of a condominium
(d) a candidate for mayor handing out flyers in front of his opponent’s headquarters
3. According to the passage, an owner’s freedom to deny freedom of speech on his property is
determined by all of the following EXCEPT
(a) whether or not the land is open to the public
(b) the nature of and the usual use of the property
(c) the type of persons who frequents the land
(d) the nature of character of the owner
4. We can infer from the passage that the author believes that shopping malls in America
(a) should be in the service of the people who frequent them
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(b) have a right to prohibit distribution of advertising handbills

(c) have a right to control any distributed materials
(d) should permit any charitable solicitations
5. According to the passage, the idea that a property owner’s rights decline as the property is more used
by the general public
(a) is peculiar to recent Supreme Court decisions
(b) is attested by a three-hundred-year-old opinion
(c) conflicts with the idea that property affected with a public interest ceases to be private
(d) is now universally accepted in Great Britain and in Canada
6. All other things being equal, the courts must

(a) favour First Amendment rights over property rights
(b) favour property rights over First Amendment rights
(c) treat property rights and First Amendment rights equally
(d) protect property rights of the owners
Directions (Q. 7 -11): For each of the following words below, a context is provided. From the
alternatives given, pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
7. Alphanumeric: The inclusion of alphanumeric features in cellular phones has made sending SMSs
very convenient.
(a) using only alphabets
(b) using digital codes
(c) using OSCOLA
(d) using both letters and numerals
8. Oligarchy : Mrigank argued that all political parties, including those which profess democratic values
become the instruments of their leaders who eventually become a self-interested and self-satisfied
oligarchy.
(a) rule of a mob or crowd
(b) small group of people having control of state
(c) an iron-rule of democrats
(d) a socialist rule of activists
9. Perestroika : In the 1980’s, the “state socialist” tradition became totally discredited as Gorbachev’s
programme of perestroika revealed the fundamental failures of the planned economies of the Communist
bloc.
(a) closing off all entries
(b) manifesto of failure
(c) opening up
(d) nagging policies
10. Bequeath : In consequences, they bequeathed to their followers no clear vision of the economics of
socialism, that is state ownership and planning the means of production, distribution and exchange, and
others had to advocate market socialism, the state regulation of capital rather than state ownership of
planning.
(a) hand down or pass on
(b) a powerful will of the people
(c) a method of governing
(d) to give in promise
11. Redundancy : Communication is a subtle, complex and continuously fluctuating process, affected
by a multitude of factors both external and internal, and two such elements are noise and redundancy.
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(a) that part of message that is predictable or conventional

(b) that word or phrase which is surprising
(c) that meaning of a word which is sparingly used
(d) that message which has no clear meaning
Directions (Q. 12-15): In the following questions, choose the word which is odd one out.
12. (a) bedlam (b) anarchy (c) anatomise (d) insurrection
13. (a) miscreant (b) defendant (c) accused (d) plaintiff
14. (a) assault (b) extortion (c) sub-poena (d) battery
15. (a) barrister (b) attorney (c) juror (d) advocate
Direction (Q. 16 -20): Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.
16. Alpha and Omega

(a) related to science (b) the beginning and the end
(c) A to Z (d) none of these
17. Ante-diluvium
(a) old time (b) up-to-date
(c) time period (d) against dualism
18. To play truant

(a) to make a narrow escape (b) to run away from work without permission
(c) to be clever (d) none of these
19. To see red

(a) to find fault with (b) to be very angry
(c) to criticise others (d) to victimise someone
20. To flog a dead horse

(a) to do a thing in vain (b) to act in a foolish way
(c) to criticize strongly (d) try to revive interest in a subject that is out of date
Direction (Q. 21 – 25): In this section, each passage consists of four/five sentences. The sentences in
each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R, S and T. You are required to find out
the proper sequence of the sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
21. P : You couldn’t have asked for a nicer, more respectable-looking fellow than Jack, the day he
arrived in town for grandpa’s funeral.
Q: He’d just arrived that morning, got the word that the old Judge was gone, he said.
R : He rode into the yard on his motorbike – the one he’d sold last summer, which wasn’t a patch on the
big red one he’d bought later.
S : He was glad he was in time for the services. He sat with Paresh all through the funeral; he even cried
– or if it wasn’t crying, it was a darned good show.

(a) Q R P S (b) Q R S P (c) S P Q R (d) P R Q S
22. P : Anything to do with his parents had always been vague to Manish.
Q: He had been too young to remember them; he only knew the story of the fatal weekend at the
Airondack camel and the overturned canoe.
R • Then, as the years swept by and the tragedy faded into time, they began taking him there; and the
lake again became a quite lake in the foothills, a camping place where the three of them had a good
time.
S : Grandpa had still owned the camp a long while afterwards he and Grandma hadn’t gone there.
143

(a) P Q R S (b) Q R S P (c) P Q S R (d) Q P S R
23.P : The role of Western values in contemporary Indian society is a subject on which I have pondered
for years.
Q: Moreover, various stakeholders of our company – employees, investors, customers and vendors –
come from across the globe.
R : An organisation is representative of society, and some of the lessons that I have learnt from the West
regarding values are, I think, applicable to us as a nation. Here are some of them:
S : I come from a company that is built on strong values.
T: In dealing with them over the years, I have come to appreciate several aspects of the West’s value
system.

(a) P Q S T R (b) P S Q T R (c) S Q T R P (d) S Q R P T
24. P : “To play great music,” he said, “you must keep your eyes on a distant star.”
Q: Eleven years old, I was taking a violin lesson with Georges Enesco, my teacher, in his Paris studio.
R : At the time, I took this to mean, simply, “Give your very best to every piece.”
S : A deep-chested, powerful man with a rugged, gentle face, Enesco looked at me across the violin he
held under his chin, and shook his bow.

(a) Q P R S (b) Q S P R (c) S P R Q (d) S P Q R
25.P : On the one hand, I want very much for someone else to clean our house, as neither I nor my
husband, Ed, has shown any aptitude for it.
Q: No one but me, for instance, should have to clean up the dental floss heaped up like spaghetti near
the wastebasket where I toss it each night, never catching on that floss is not something that can be
thrown with a high degree of accuracy.
R : On the other hand, I’d feel guilt inflicting such distasteful drudgery on another human being..
S : Have always wanted and not wanted a cleaning person.

(a) S P R Q (b) R Q P S (c) R P Q S (d) P Q S R
Direction (Q. 26 – 35): Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:
26. When you are living with your ___ values and principles, you can be straight forward, honest and
____
(a) inherited, distinct (b) core, upfront (c) innate, durable (d) cultural, perceptive
27. The quality of _____. between individuals and the organisation for which they work can be _____ to
the benefit of both parties.
(a) life, conceptualized (b) interactions, improved (c) service, evaluated (d) work, better
28. Genetic engineering in humans should be used to ____ diseases, not to ______ genetic uniformity.
(a) treat, foster (b) eradicate, cater (c) cure, generate (d) avoid,
promote
29. Stating that the ATM operations are ________ losses, the nation’s largest bank, the State Bank
plans to _________ the management of some of its ATMs.
(a) generating, resource (b) generating, close (c) incurring, outsource (d) reporting, tighten
144
30. Most journalistic writing could do with _____of paragraphs to make the prose more ______
(a) suppression, legible (b) removal, argumentative
(c) simplification, abstruse (d) deletion, succinct
31. Angered by bureaucrat’s _______ comments, the reporter insisted for a more ______ response.
(a) redundant, repetitive (b) tactless, immediate
(c) circumlocutions, direct (d) sarcastic, beneficial
32. One of the most productive researches _____ in contemporary neurosciences is devoted to _____
maps of human consciousness.
(a) trajectories, reconnoitring (b) designs, enunciating
(c) paradigms, elucidating (d) declensions, obfuscating
33. But ______ are now regularly written not just for tools but well-established practices, organisations
and institutions not all of which seem to be ______ away.
(a) reports, withering (b) stories, trading
(c) books, dying (d) obituaries, fading
34. In this context, the _______ of the British Labour Movement is particularly_______
(a) affair, weird (b) activity, moving
(c) experience, significant (d) atmosphere, gloomy
35. Indian intellectuals may boast if they are so inclined of being ________ to the most elitist among the
intellectual ________ of the world.
(a) subordinate, traditions (b) heirs, cliques
(c) ancestors, societies (d) heir, traditions

36. Which State has become first to fix minimum educational qualification for panchayat polls ?
(a) Kerala (b) Gujarat (c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka
37. Which country was chosen to chair Partnership in Population and Development (PPD) for the year
2015?
(a) India (b) China (c) Sri Lanka (d) Ghana
38. Recently, the Prime Minister has launched the “Give it Up” campaign for voluntarily giving up
(a) use of tobacco products (b) use of plastic (c) LPG subsidy (d) black money
39. Who bagged the best actress award at the 62nd National Film Awards ?
(a) Priyanka Chopra (b) Vidya Balan (c) Kangana Ranaut (d) Rani Mukherji
40. Simona Halep, who has won the Indian Wells Open Tennis Women’s Singles Title 2015, hails from
which country ?
(a) Belgium (b) Romania (c) Switzerland (d) Sweden
41. The winner of prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2014 is

(a) Mohan Lai (b) Shashi Kapoor (c) Mani Ratnam (d) Girish Karnad
42. The Bandung Conference was an important step towards the creation of
(a) Non-Alignment Movement (b) United Nations (c) European Union (d) SAARC
43. Recently, the Union Government has appointed Amitabh Bachchan as the brand ambassador for its
campaign against which disease ?
(a) Swine Flu (b) Tuberculosis (c) Hepatitis B (d) Diabetes
145
44. The World’s first hydrogen powered tramcar has rolled off in which country ?
(a) China (b) Japan (c) U. S. (d) Russia
45. Which is the only Central University in India which has Prime Minister as its Chancellor ?
(a) Banaras Hindu University (b) Indira Gandhi National Open University
(c) Rajiv Gandhi University (d) Visva Bharti University
46. Which Country has launched the “Let Girls Learn” initiative aimed at educating 62 million girls around
the World ?
(a) United States (b) New Zealand (c) India (d) Australia
47. Which among the following parties declared victory in the 2015 Israel Legislative Election ?
(a) Zionist Union (b) Likud (c) Yesh Atid (d) Joint List
48. Which of the following measures the value of a currency against a basket of other currencies ?
(a) Real Exchange Rate (b) Effective Exchange Rate
(c) Real Effect Exchange Rate (d) Nominal Exchange Rate ‘
49. Which is the only regenerative organ in human body ?

(a) Brain (b) Liver (c) Pancreas (d) Lungs
50. What is the name of the innovative Council proposed in the Railway Budget – 2015 to promote
innovation ?
(a) Navachar (b) Rail Tech (c) Kayakalp (d) Sankalp
51. Lysosomes, which are known as suicidal bags, are produced by which organelle ?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Golgi body (c) Ribosome (d) Peroxisome
52. India’s rank in the recently released World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) 2015 is
(a) 120 (b) 135 (c) 136 (d) 140
53. Who among the following has been named as new heir of Mysore Royal Family ?
(a) Yaduveer Gopal Raj Urs (b) Chaduranga Kantharajas Urs
(c) Aditya Gurudev Urs (d) Chandra Shekar Urs
54. Who among the following is often called the “Greenest Chief Minister of India” ?
(a) Pawan Kumar Chamling (b) Anandiben Patel
(c) Prakash Singh Badal (d) Nabam Tuki
55. Which part of the World is referred to as the Fertile Crescent ?

(a) Latin Americas (b) South East Asia (c) Middle East (d) Scandinavia
56. Which of the following banks launched ‘Pocket’, India’s first digital bank on mobile phones ?
(a) Axis Bank (b) ICICI Bank (c) HDFC Bank (d) SBI
57. India based Rickey Kej has won the Grammy Award for his album
(a) Morning Phase (b) Beyonce (c) The Lonely Hours (d) The Winds of Samsar
58. Recently, UNICEF and which football legend has launched protection fund named “7’ to protect the
World’s most vulnerable youngsters ?
(a) David Beckham (b) Lionel Messi (c) Christiano Ronaldo (d) Zinedine Zidane
59. According to the latest data, which among the following States has attracted maximum Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) in the country ?
(a) Gujarat (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka
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60. Which one of the following countries will hold the presidency of the BRICS New Development Bank
for the first six years ?
(a) India (b) China (c) South Africa (d) Russia
61. Which among the following States has won the 10th National Award for Excellence work in Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(a) Karnataka (b) West Bengal (c) Haryana (d) Madhya Pradesh
62. Who is the newly appointed Chairman of the empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers on
Goods & Services Tax (GST) ?
(a) J. K. George (b) K. M. Mani (c) Amit Mitra (d) Saurabh Patel
63. What is the code name of the military operation in Yemen against Shia Houthi Group ?
(a) Operation Destruction Storm (b) Operation Decisive Storm
(c) Operation Desert Storm (d) Operation Black Star
64. Who was sworn in as the President of Sri Lanka in January 2015 ?
(a) Mahinda Deshapriya (b) Mahinda Rajapaksa
(c) Gotabhaya Rajapaksa (d) Mithripala Sirisena
65. Who is the new Chief Election Commissioner?

(a) H.S. Brahma (b) Vinod Zutshi (c) Nasim Zaidi (d) R. Balakrishnan
66. A minor planet is named after which one of the following Indian Legends ?
(a) Viswanathan Anand (b) Sachin Tendulkar (c) A. R. Rahman (d) Milkha Singh
67. Who won the title Miss India 2015 ?

(a) Aafreen Rachel (b) Vartika Singh (c) Koyal Rana (d) Aditi Arya
68. _______ the ‘founding father’ and ‘architect’ of modern Singapore passed away on 23 March 2015.
(a) Mr. Lee Kuan Yew (b) Mr. Lee Hsien Loong
(c) Mr. Lim Hng Kiang (d) Mr. Lee Li Lian
69. Election Commission (EC) on has announced to launch Electoral Roll Authentication Mission
(ERAM) and Purification Drive. What is the aim of the mission ?
(a) To enlist all the eligible voters in voters list (b) To create awareness about the voting
right
(c) To weed out bogus voters from the voters list (d) (a) and (c)
70. What is the name of the party of the Australian Prime Minister Tony Abbott that saw a confidence
vote on spilling the top leadership in February 2015 ?
(a) Liberal Party (b) Australian Greens (c) Labour Party (d) Palmer United Party

Directions (Q. 71 – Q. 95) : Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation.
71. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : A statement is defamatory in nature if it is injurious to a person’s reputation

and if the statement has been published.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Rudra had been dating a girl named Kiara for three weeks. But he had
introduced himself to her as Ricky Thakur (who is one of Rudra’s friends) and he continued to be Ricky
for the rest of their relationship. But ultimately the relationship ended badly and Kiara being upset and
angry at Rudra started a website named ‘ricky-thakur-is-a-jerk.com’. She created this website so as to
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warn other girls about ‘Ricky Thakur’. The real Ricky Thakur files a suit for defamation. Decide.
DECISION :
(a) Kiara shall be held liable for defamation as she published a statement which was injurious to Ricky’s
reputation.
(b) Rudra shall be held liable as he had led Kiara into thinking that he was Ricky Thakur and moreover, it
was his fault in the first place that made Kiara create this website.
(c) Kiara cannot be held liable as she had actually been referring to Rudra and not the real Ricky Thakur.
(d) Kiara cannot be held liable as her act was done in good faith as she intended to warn other girls.
72. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever stores a substance which could cause damage on escape shall be
absolutely liable (i.e. liable even when he has exercised necessary care) for any damage caused by the
escape of the substance.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) manufactured methyl isocyanate, an
extremely toxic gas. Due to a storm, the gas that was being stored in sealed containers got released.
Before much could happen, the local municipal authorities managed to contain the disaster. The
authorities filed a suit against UCIL for the costs that were incurred in decontamination. However, later it
was realized that the clean-up by the authorities could have been done without spending as much
resources and the damage was not that significant. UCIL argued that it would pay only part of the
amount demanded by the authorities, which could have dealt with the contamination.
DECISION :
(a) UCIL is liable only to the extent of contamination caused. It does not need to pay the authorities the
entire amount demanded by them.
(b) The authorities are entitled to the whole sum, as UCIL shall be held liable for all the repercussions of
their act even if they had exercised due care.
(c) UCIL can plead that the escape of the gas had been caused by a storm and not due to its own
negligence. It was an inevitable accident.
(d) The municipal authorities should have analyzed the damage first before jumping into action. It was
due to their own negligence because of which they had to shell out more than required.
73. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A partner is liable for the debts incurred by the other partners in the course of
partnership.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Satwik and Prateek enter into a partnership to produce a film wherein Satwik
also directs the movie. The movie bombed at the box office. Consequently, they run into financial
difficulties and the partnership ends. Prateek goes to Abbas to borrow some money, which Abbas debts
from the partnership. Prateek takes the money and absconds to Malibu. Abbas sues Satwik for the
amount. Decide.
DECISION:
(a) Satwik is liable to return the money as it was his partner, Prateek, who directed the movie.
(b) Abbas has been negligent in not properly enquiring the purpose! for which Prateek borrowed the
money. Satwik is not liable to pay him back according to the principle of contributory negligence.
(c) Satwik is not liable as Prateek absconded with the money instead of using it to pay off the debts in
the partnership.
(d) Satwik is not liable as by the time Prateek borrowed money from Abbas, the partnership was no more
in existence.
74. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid act or
omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbor, the neighbor for this purpose is any person
whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Krish, while driving a car at a high speed in a crowded road knocked down a
cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around Lekha, a pregnant woman passing
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by, suffered from a nevous shock, leading to abortion. Lekha filed a suit against Krishnan claiming
damages.
(a) Krish will be liable, because he owed a duty of reasonable care to everybody on the road including
Lekha.
(b) Krish will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lekha suffering from nervous shock as a
result of his act.
(c) Krish will be liable to Lekha because he failed to drive carefully.
75. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Lalit was running a dairy from his house. People used a Dart of his farm as
shortcut to get to a nearby railway station. Lalit who did not approve of this, put up a notice that
“Trespassers will be prosecuted”. However, since a number of these people were also his customers, he
tolerated them. One day a person who was using this short cut was attacked by a bull belonging to the
farm. The injured person filed a suit against him.
DECISION:
(a) Lalit is not liable in view of the clear notice against trespassers.
(b) Lalit is liable for having kept a bull on his farm.
(c) Lalit, is not liable to the people other than his customers.
(d) Lalit’ is liable because in fact he allowed the people to use his premises.
76. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : A master shall be liable for the acts of his servants done in the course of
employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION : PUL, a public sector undertaking, is operating a number of bus services for its
employees in Pune. These buses are quite distinct in their appearance and carry the board “for PUL
employees only”. M, a villager from neighbouring state, was waiting for a regular bus in one of the bus
stops in Pune. A bus belonging to PUL happened to stop nearby and number of people got into the bus.
M, without realizing that it was PUL bus, got into the bus and soon thereafter, the bus met with an
accident due to driver’s negligence. M, along with several others, was injured in the accident. M seeks to
file a suit against PUL claiming damages.
DECISION:
(a) M will succeed, because he got into the bus without realizing that it was PUL bus.
(b) M will not succeed, because it was for him to find out whether it was a public transport.
(c) M will succeed, because the driver was anyhow duty-bound to drive carefully.
(d) PUL is not liable as the bus met with an accident due to driver’s negligence.
77. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their
own. No law made by the State can take away a person’s fundamental right.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating
the fundamental rights of traders. A group of lawyers files a writ petition challenging the Constitutional
validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.
DECISION :
(a) The court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental rights but cannot direct Parliament to
make a new law.
(b) The court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct Parliament to make a
new law.
(c) No writ would lie against Parliament, as the court has no authority to direct Parliament to enact or re-
enact a law.
(d) The court cannot quash the law as reasonable restrictions can be put on the fundamental rights.
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78. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from
doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said
to have made a proposal.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Ram sends a telegram to Sohan, writing: “Will you sell me your Rolls Royce
car? Telegram the lowest cash price.” Sohan also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for car is Rs. 20
lakh.” Ram immediately sent his consent through telegram stating: “/ agree to buy the car for Rs. 20 lakh
asked by you” Sohan refused to sell the car.
DECISION :
(a) He cannot refuse to sell the car because the contract has already been made.
(b) He can refuse to sell the car because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer.
(c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent.
(d) It was not a valid contract as offer and acceptance is conveyed through telegram.
79. A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he
makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his
interests.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unusual state
of mind, enters into a contact with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind. Mr. Y having come to
know about this fact afterwards, wants to file a suit against Mr. X.
DECISION:
(a) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he entered into
contract.
(b) Mr X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound
state of mind at the time of contract.
(c) Mr X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he sound state of mind
at the time of contract.
(d) Contract with a person of unsound mind is void.
80. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance o aw is no excuse to criminal
liability.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane
landed at the Airport of Bombay on 22 November 2014 it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of
Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest of Transit’. On 24 November
2014, the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it
mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.
DECISION:
(a) X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued two
days ago.
(b) X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable
(c) X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable
(d( X’s liability would depend on the discretion of the court
81. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody’s possession without
lawful justification is called trespass of goods.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Z purchased a car from a person who has no title to it and sent it to garage for
repair. X believed wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage. Has X committed any offence?
DECISION:
(a) X cannot be held response for trespass of goods as he was under a wrong belief.
(b) X can be held responsible for trespass of goods.
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(c) Z has no right over the car as he purchased it from a person who had no title over it.
82. LEGAL PRINCIPLES :

1. Bigamy is not permitted under Hindu law.
2. A Hindu of sound mind can adopt a child of the gender they don’t already have a child of.
3. Only the child’s father, mother or guardian has the capacity to give the child up in adoption, under
Hindu law.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Ramesh comes from a family where from the past two generations; all male
members have had two wives. He also wants to continue this tradition and thus he married Suman first
and then Tania. Ramesh has a son, Gunjan with Suman. However, with Tania, he is childless. He thus
wishes to adopt some children. Rajat is the child of Ramesh’s brother. However, Rajat’s parents decide
to go off to Dubai for 5 years and they leave their son under the care of Ramesh’s sister. Ramesh and
Tania ask for Rajat in adoption from his sister who agrees and Rajat is adopted. Later, Ramesh and
Suman want to adopt a daughter as well and they do adopt a girl – Sara -from an orphanage. However,
at the time of signing the adoption deed, Ramesh was dead drunk. Ramesh and his entire family
member are Buddhists. Keeping in mind the given principles and facts, solve the questions Is Rajat’s
adoption a valid adoption ?
DECISION :
(a) No, because Ramesh already has a son.
(b) No, because Ramesh’s sister has no authority to give Rajat up in adoption.
(c) Yes, it is a valid adoption because Ramesh has no child with Tania and Ramesh’s sister is Rajat’s
guardian for 5 years at least.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
83. LEGAL PRINCIPLES : Whoever dishonestly takes away any property from the possession of
another, with an intention of such taking away, without his permission is liable for theft.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Raja, a famous gangster, moves into an apartment in Kankurgachi, Calcutta.
There, he discovers that the previous owner of the apartment had left behind a pair of beautiful ivory
handled combs. Mesmerized by their beauty and confused as to whom he should be returning them to,
he decides to retain them and starts using them. The previous owner of the combs gets to know this and
registers an FIR for theft against Raja. Is Raja liable ?
DECISION :
(a) Raja is liable for theft as he failed to return the property even when he knew it was someone else’s
property.
(b) Raja is not liable as he is not taken it away from anyone else’s possession and there was no
dishonest intention.
(c) Raja is liable as you don’t expect anything better from a gangster.
(d) Raja is not liable as he was confused as to whom he should be returning the property to.
84. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: The state shall make special laws for the upliftment of citizens of the country,
and these laws can be made for the benefit of any specific caste, class or sex of people living in the
society.
FACTUAL SITUATION : The state of Hindu Pradesh comes out with a law, which provided for
reservation to Muslims in all government and government aided institutions. This law is challenged in the
High Court of Hindu Pradesh, as being arbitrary and contrary to the established laws. Can the challenge
be successful ?
DECISION :
(a) Yes, since people from other religions would also start making such demands, which would
jeopardize the unity and integrity of the country.
(b) No, since the state has the right to make special laws for the upliftment of the citizens of the country.
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(c) Yes, since the state has not been mandated to make reservation, based on a person’s religion.
(d) No, since the Government cannot neglect the minorities.
85. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : The master/principal is liable for all acts done by his duly appointed
servant/agent for all acts done by him lawfully jn the course of his employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A, B, C and D carried on a business in partnership. While making a deal with
another company, B bribed the clerk there. Is the partnership firm vicariously liable ?
DECISION :
(a) No, as bribing is not in course of employment of the partners.
(b) Yes, as partners are agent of the firm.
(c) Yes, as B can be said to have implied authority for the same.
(d) No, as this act was not authorised by the others.
86. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : A contract which is impossible to perform becomes void.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Surender agreed to deliver a specific quality of rice to Sonakshi identified by
both of them. Before delivery, the rice was burnt by short circuit. Is Surender discharged from the
performance of the contract?
DECISION:
(a) Surender is discharged from performance as the subject matter of the contract is destroyed.
(b) Surender is discharged from performance as the subject matter has been specifically identified.
(c) Surender is not discharged from performance as he can procure rice from other sources. •
87. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable
property is guilty of criminal misappropriation of property.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A finds a government promissory note belonging to Z, bearing a blank

endorsement. A knowing that the note belongs to Z, pledges it with a banker as a security for a loan,
intending to restore it to Z at a future time Has A committed criminal misappropriation ?
DECISION:
(a) Yes since he deprived Z from using his property and used it for his own use.
(b) No, since he intended to return the property to Z in the future.
(c) No, it is theft and not criminal misappropriation.
(d) Yes since he deprived Z from using his property.
88. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or
some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and
reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Joy and Prakash were neighbours in a residential locality Prakash started a
typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jogi who could not put up with any kind
of continuous noise- He filed a suit against Prakash.
DECISION :
(a) Prakash is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house.
(b) Prakash is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jogi’s delicate nature.
(c) Prakash is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jogi.

1. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death or with the intention of
causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to
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cause death commits the offence of culpable homicide.

2. Mens rea and actus reus must concur to result in a crime which is punishable by the law.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A and B went for shooting. A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it.
A induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z. Has an offence been committed?
DECISION:
(a) A had mens rea but no actus reus. B had actus reus but no mens rea. No one is guilty.
(b) A induced B to fire at the bush with the knowledge that Z is there. A is guilty of culpable homicide but
B is not guilty of any offence. ’
(c) Both A and B are guilty.

1. The crime of kidnapping involves taking someone away from the custody of their lawful guardian.
2. The crime of abduction involves inducing or forcing somebody to go away from some place against
their will.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A steals B’s slave. Is it a crime ?
DECISION :
I. Kidnapping II. Abduction III. Neither
REASON :
(A) Slavery is illegal.
(B) A has taken him away from B’s lawful custody.
(C) A has forced somebody to go with him against his will.
DECISION :
(a) l(B) (b) ll(C) (c) III (A) (d) l(A)
91. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Whoever delivers to another person as genuine any counterfeit currency which
he knows to be counterfeit, but which that other person is not aware of at the time when he received it, is
guilty of counterfeiting currency.
FACTUAL SITUATION : While returning home one day, Roshni realizes that the local shopkeeper has
given her a fake note of Rs. 1,000. Disappointed, she goes to the same shop and buys cosmetics worth
Rs. 600. She then passes the same fake note to the shopkeeper. The shopkeeper while inspecting the
note finds out that it is fake. Is Roshni guilty ?
DECISION:
(a) No, as she was merely attempting to return the note to the same shopkeeper who gave her the note.
(b) No, she is not guilty of any offence as neither did she manufacture the note nor did she circulate it
with a view to deceive the public.
(c) Yes, as she attempted to pass on a note which she knew was counterfeit.
(d) No, the shopkeeper is guilty as he was the one who circulated the counterfeit note to Roshni.

1. To constitute a punishable criminal offence, guilty intention must accompany an illegal act.
2. Criminal mischief means causing damage to public property intentionally or with the knowledge that
harm may occur.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Neel being a Shahrukh Khan fan went for the premier of the movie, Happy New
Year. As usual, he carried his pen-knife, a gift from his dead mother. At the security check, impatient of
waiting in the queue, Neel slunk past the guards and the metal detector when no one was watching.
Later, he was apprehended in the hall and charged for mischief and possession of a weapon when it
was expressly forbidden.
DECISION:
(a) Neel is not criminally liable since he had no intention to commit mischief.
(b) Liable for possession of the weapon since it was expressly forbidden and mere possession was
enough; although he might not be liable for mischief as he did not do anything.
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(c) Neel is not liable since the pen knife had an emotional value and rather the guards should be
punished for the security breach.
(d) Liable for both possession of weapon and criminal mischief since he slunk past the guards which
shows his intention to commit the crime.

1. Everyone has a right to defend their life and property against criminal harm provided it is not possible
to approach public authorities and more harm than is b=necessary has been caused to avert the danger.
2. Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The accused found the deceased engaged in sexual intercourse with his 15-
year-old daughter. The accused assaulted the deceased on the head with a spade which resulted in his
death. Accused claimed private defense and the prosecution claimed that the sexual intercourse was
with the consent of the daughter. Here,
DECISION:
(a) Accused is entitled to the right of private defence since the girl was only 15 years old.
(b) Accused exceeded the right of private defence.
(c) Accused is not entitled to private defence as the intercourse was consensual
(d) Accused is not entitled to private defence as the right of private defence is available for defending
one’s life and property only.
94. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Necessity knows no law, and any person facing danger may do all that is
necessary to avert the same till he can take recourse to public authorities.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Akshay, a law-abiding citizen decided to remove the weed of corruption rom
Indian society. One day, confronted with a bribing official, Akshay decided to teach him a lesson and
punched him in his face. Akshay
DECISION:
(a) Can plead defence of necessity as he was being bribed which is a crime.
(b) Cannot plead defence of necessity as there was no necessity to act in the manner he acted.
(c) Can plead defence of necessity as aware and vigilant citizenry forms the basis of a good democracy.
(d) Can plead defense of necessity as there was no time to take recourse to public authorities.

1. Preparation to commit an offence is not an offence.
2. After one has finished preparation to commit an offence, any act done towards committing the offence
with the intention to commit it, is an attempt to commit the offence which is by itself an offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A wanted to kill B and had therefore gone to the market to buy explosives to
plant in his house. After A has planted the bomb, he felt guilty and he went back to remove the bomb but
while he was doing so, B saw him and called the police. Can A be held liable?
DECISION :
(a) Yes, because he has done something more than mere preparation
(b) No, because B did not die. ‘
(c) Yes, because there existed a mala fide intention.
(d) No, because he had removed before anything could happen.
96. The Supreme Court of India constituted ___________ Bench in December 2014.
(a) Constitution (b) Arbitration (c) Social Justice (d) Fast-Track
97. Who is the author of the book “Indian Parliamentary Diplomacy – Speaker’s Perspective” ?
(a) Sumitra Mahajan (b) Somnath Chaterjee (c) Meira Kumar (d) Manohar Joshi
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98. Which of the following recently became 123- State party to the International Criminal Court?
(a) Israel (b) Palestine (c) Jordan (d) Banglades
99 Which body has launched the “Group of Friends Against Terrorism” ?

(a) United Nations (b) European Union (C) ASEAN (d) SAARC
100. Which one of the following Committee was constituted to review environmental law in the country ?
(a) Subramanian Committee (b) Kasturi Ranjan Committee
(c) Madhav Nair Committee (d) Ullas Karanth Committee
101. Which South-East Asian country has recently banned surrogacy services to end its flourishing rent-
a-womb industry ?
(a) Singapore (b) India (c) Thailand (d) Vietnam
102. The Third National Lok Adalat which disposed of 56000 cases in a single day was held under the
chairmanship of
(a) Justice H.L. Dattu (b) Justice T.S. Thakur
(c) Justice Jagdish Singh Khehar (d) Justice Anil R Dave
103. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court, recently, held that demand for dowry can be
made at any time and not necessarily before marriage?
(a) State of Uttarkhand v. Bhim Singh & Anr (b) State of Bihar v. Arnesh Kumar & Anr
(c) State of Rajasthan v. Prem Kumar (d) State of Punjab v. Kans Raj & Ors
104. National Green Tribunal ruled __________ old diesel vehicles cannot ply on Delhi roads.
105. Supreme Court struck down which Section of the Information Technology Act 2000, in Shreya
Singhal v. U. O. I, as unconstitutional ?
(a) 66 B (b) 66 A (c) 66 C (d) 66

106. At birth we have no self-image. We cannot distinguish anything from the confusion of light and
sound around us. From this beginning of no-dimension, we gradually begin to differentiate our body from
our environment and develop a sense of identity, with the realization that we are separate and
independent human being. We then begin to develop a conscience, the sense of right and wrong.
Further, we develop social consciousness, where we become aware that we live with other people.
Finally, we develop a sense of values, which is our overall estimation of our worth in the world.
Which one of the following would be the best completion of this passage?
(a) The sum total of all these developments we call the self-image or the self-concept.
(b) This estimation of worth is only relative to our value system.
(c) Therefore, our social consciousness is dependent on our sense of values
(d) The sum total of living with other people and developing a sense of values makes us a total person.
107. Violence against racial and religious minority groups increased sharply throughout the country last
year, despite the decline in state wide figures. Compiling incidents from police departments and private
watchdog groups, the County Human Relations Committee reported almost 500 hate crimes in the year,
up from only 200 last year It was the first increase since the committee began to report a yearly figure six
years ago. The lower state wide figures are probably in error due to underreporting in other counties;
underreporting is the major problem that state surveyors face each
All of the following, if true, would support the conclusion or the explanation of the discrepancy in the state
and county figures EXCEPT-
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(a) The number of hate crimes and those resulting in fatalities has increased in neighbouring states.
(b) Anti- immigration sentiment was fanned this year by an anti- immigration ballot referendum.
(c) Many law- abiding member of minority groups are fearful or distrustful of the police.
(d) All of the countries in the state have active private watchdogs groups that carefully monitor hat crimes.
108. In the last three years, the numbers of arrests for burglary and robbery in Sandy Beach has declined
by more than 30 percent. At the same time, the city has reduced the size of its police force by 25 percent.
Which one of the following helps to resolve an apparent discrepancy in the information above?
(a) Neighbouring Watch programs have always been active in Sand Beach.
(b) The number of reported burglaries and robberies in Sandy Beach has increased in the last three years.
(c) Compared to other cities in the state, Sandy Beach has one of the lowest crime rates.
(d) Many of the residents of Sandy Beach have installed expensive security systems in their homes.
109. To be admitted to Bigshot University, you must have a 3.5 grade-point average (GPA) and a score of
800 on the admission test, a 3.0 GPA and a score of 1.000 on the admission test, or a 2.5 GPA and a
score of 1,200 on the admission test. A sliding scale exists for the other scores and GPAs.
Which one of the following is inconsistent with the above?

(a) Jagan was admitted with a 2.7 GPA and a score of 1,100 on the admission test.
(b) No student with a score less than 800 on the admission test and a 3.4 GPA will be admitted.
(c) More applicants had a GPA of 3.5 than had a GPA of 2.5.
(d) Some of the students with a score of less than 1,200 on the admissions test and a GPA of less than
2.5 were admitted.
110. Only 75 years ago, the best fishing in the world was the Grand Banks of the North Atlantic. But now
overfishing and man’s pollution have decimated the area. There will be no fishing industry in the Americas
in a few years. The waters on Newfoundland now yield less than the catch of five years ago, and less than
one quarter of the total of ten years ago. The cod has almost disappeared. The numbers I of fishermen in
Newfoundland and New England have declined, and their yearly earnings are now at an all-time low. Yet
radar has made fishing methods more efficient than ever.
Which one of the following identifies most clearly a faulty assumption in the reasoning of this passage?
(a) The argument fails to consider that the decline in the catch may be due to factors other than pollution.
(b) The argument assumes that the waters off Newfoundland are representative of all the American
oceans.
(c) The pollution of the sea may have been caused by natural as well as by human forces.
(d) The argument does not allow for the possibility that the catch may increase in size in the next five
years.
111. A number of lawsuits have been brought against popular singing groups charging that suicidal themes
in their songs have led to teenage suicides. So far, the courts have found that the lyrics are protected
under the Constitution. But what if this should change and a court decides that suicidal themes in popular
songs are dangerous? In fact, the songs that have been charged so far are anti-suicide, they present
sardonically the self-destructive behavior of drinking, drugs, and escape by death. They describe a pitiful
state of mind, but they do not endorse it.
Blaming suicide on the arts is nothing new. In the late eighteenth-century Goethe’s popular novel, The
Sorrows of Young Werther was said to be the cause of a rash of suicides imitation of the novel’s hero. If
we begin to hold suicide in books or music responsible for suicides in real life the operas of Verdi and
Puccini will have to go, and Romeo and Juliet and Julius Caesar will disappear from the high school
reading lists.
Which one of the following is an assumption necessary to the author’s argument.

(a) A lyric presenting suicide in a favourable light should not have Constitutional protection. .
(b) Literature or music cannot directly influence human behaviour.
(c) Freedom of speech is most threatened by our personal freedom.
(d) The audience, not the performer, is responsible for the audience s actions.
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112. Archaeologists have come to the support of Arctic anthropologists. A small minority of anthropologists
assert that Stone Age tribes of the Arctic domesticated wolves and trained them to haul sleds. Excavations
have recently found evidence to support this claim. Archaeologists have found wolf bones near the site of
a Stone Age village. They have also found walrus bones that might have been used on primitive sleds.
The small minority of anthropologists believe that their theories have been proved.
Which one of the following is true of the evidence cited in the paragraph above?
(a) It conclusively contradicts the anthropologists’ conclusions.
(b) It neither supports nor refutes the anthropologist’ conclusions positively.
(c) It conclusively supports only a part of the anthropologists’ conclusions.
(d) It supports the anthropologists’ conclusions authoritatively.
Direction (Q. 113 -118): Each group of questions is based on a set of conditions. Choose the response
that most accurately and completely answers each question.
A science student has exactly four flasks – 1, 2, 3 and 4 – originally containing a red, a blue, a green,
and an orange chemical, respectively. An experiment consists of mixing exactly two of these chemicals
together by completely emptying the contents of one of the flasks into another of the flasks. The
following conditions apply:
The product of an experiment cannot be used in further experiments.
Mixing the contents of 1 and 2 produces a red chemical.
Mixing the contents of 2 and 3 produces an orange chemical.
Mixing the contents of 3 with the contents of either 1 or 4 produces a blue chemical.
Mixing the contents of 4 with the contents of either 1 or 2 produces a green chemical.
113. If the student performs exactly one experiment, which one of the following could be the colours of
the chemicals in resulting three non-empty flasks ?
(a) blue, blue, green (b) blue, orange, orange
(c) blue, orange , red (d) green, green, red
114. If the student performs exactly two experiments, which one of the following could be the colours of
the chemicals in the resulting two non-empty flasks?
(a) blue, blue (b) blue, orange
(c) blue, red (d) green, red
115. If the student performs exactly one experiment and none of the resulting three non-empty flasks
contains a red chemical, which one of the following could be the colours of the chemicals in the three
flasks?
(a) blue, blue, green (b) blue, green, green
(c) blue, green, orange (d) blue, orange, orange
116. If the student performs exactly one experiment and exactly one of the resulting three non-empty
flasks contains a blue chemical, which one of the following must be the colours of the chemicals in other
two flasks?
(a) both green (b) both orange
(c) both red (d) one green and one red
117. If the student will perform exactly two experiments and after the first experiment exactly one of the
resulting three non-empty flasks contains an orange chemical, then in the second experiment the student
could mix together the contents of flasks
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
118. If the student performs exactly one experiment and none of the resulting three non-empty flasks
contains an orange chemical, then the student must have mixed the contents of
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(a) flask 1 with flask 2 (b) flask 2 with flask 4

(c) flask 2 with one of the other flasks (d) flask 4 with one of the other flasks
Direction (Q. 119 — 121): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
In a joint family of seven persons L, M, N, O, P, Q and R, two are married couple. ‘R’ is a housewife and
her husband is a lawyer. ‘N’ is the wife of ‘M’,‘L’ is an engineer and is the grand-daughter of ‘R’ and ‘O’ is
the father-in-law of N , a doctor, and father of P , a professor. ‘Q’ is L’s brother and M’s son.
119. How is P related to M ?

(a) Son (b) Brother (c) Daughter (d) Uncle
120. How is Q related to O ?

(a) Grandfather (b) Uncle (c) Grandson (d) brother
121. Who is M’s father ?

(a) O (b) R (c) N (d) P
Direction (Q. 122 -124): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The city K is 30 km to the southeast of Z while Y is 50 km to the northwest of K. Also, H is 38 km to the
southeast of Y. L lies in the direct route between Y and K and its distance from H is 14 km. G also lies on
this route and is exactly midway between L and Y.
122. A car starting from K at 9 a.m. and running at a constant speed towards Y reaches H at 9.24 a.m.
and then reaches G at
(a) 9.18a.m. (b) 10.16a.m. (c) 10.36a.m. (d) 10.42a.m.
123. If M is 1 km to the southeast of L, then it is exactly midway between

(a) H and L (b) Y and K (c) H and Z (d) None of these
124. The distance from G to H is

(a) 26 km (b) 24 km (c) 12 km (d) 16km
Direction (Q. 125 -128): Each question contains four arguments of three sentences each Choose the
set in which the third statement is a logical conclusion of the first two.
125. (1) Some bikes are mopeds. All mopeds are scooters. Some bikes are scooters.
(2) All children are hairs. No hairs are red. No children are red.
(3) No pencil is pen. Some pens are markers. Some pencils are markers.
(4) Every man has a wife. All wives are devoted. No devoted has a husband.
(a) (1), (2), and (3) (b) (1) and (2) (c) (3) and (2) (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
126. (1) No moon is not red. All stars are moon. All stars are red.
(2) All doors are open. No open is outdoors. All doors are not outdoors.
(3) No Japanese can fire. All Chinese are books. Japanese and Chinese can fight
(4) No A is B. No B is C. No A is C.
(a) (1) only (b) (2) only (c) (1) and (2) only (d) (4) only
127. (1) All envelopes are rectangular. All rectangles are rectangular. All envelopes are rectangular.
(2) Some thin are smart. Some smart things are tiny. Some thin are tiny
(3) Learned are well read. Well-read know. Learned know.
(4) Dieting is good for health. Health foods are rare. Dieting is rare
(a) (4) only (b) (3) only (c) Both (1) and (3) (d) All of these
158
128. (1) Shahrukh is an actor. Some actors are pretty. Shahrukh is pretty
(2) Some executives are soldiers. All soldiers are patriotic. Some executives are patriotic.
(3) All cricketers are patriotic. Some executives are soldiers. Some executives are patriotic.
(4) All actors are pretty. Shahrukh is not an actor. Shahrukh is not pretty.
(a) (4) only (b) (2) only (c) (1) only (d) (2) and (3)
Direction (Q. 129-131): Each question has a main statement, followed by four statements labelled I, II,
III and IV. Choose the ordered pair of statements, where the first statement implies the second, and the
two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.
129. Whenever Vijay reads late into the night, his grand-father reprimands him.
I. His grandfather does not reprimand Vijay.
II. Vijay reads late into the night.
III. Vijay reads early in the morning.
IV. Vijay’s grandfather reprimands him in the morning.
(a) III, IV (b) II, IV (c) I, II (d) none of the above
130. Either Amir is angry, or he shows mock anger.

I. Amir shows mock anger.
II. Amir is angry.
III. Amir does not show mock anger.
IV. Amir is not angry.
(a) III, II only (b) IV, I only (c) II, I only (d) III, II and IV, I
131. Every player will become a champ.

I. Rajesh is a player.
II. Rajesh will become champ.
III. Rajesh is not a player.
IV. Rajesh will not become a champ.
(a) I, IV (b) IV, I (c) III, IV (d) IV, III
Direction (Q. 132 – 135) : The question given below has a statement to owed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in ire statement to be true Then decide which of the
two suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Mark answer as:

(a) If only I follows
(b) If only II follows
(c) If both I and II follows
(d) If neither I follows nor II follows
132. Statement:
The number of people who die on the roads every year is so alarming that the numbers every year are
close to the numbers which can be attribute to the major diseases of the world.
Course of Action :
I. There should be an active campaign for sensitizing people towards road safety norms.
II. There should be an increased emphasis on enforcing speed limits, safety rules and traffic
management on roads across the world.
133. Statement:
An unacceptable number of children die during the first year of the lives. The high incidence of infant
death is a major cause for concern for the health ministry.
159
Course of Action :
I. All government hospitals should be privatized to improve health care facilities.
II. Government should commit higher levels of their budget to health services.
134. Statement:
The cream of India’s Cricket team is likely to retire in the next three years leaving a vacuum which the
Indian Cricket team is going to struggle to overcome.
Course of Action:
I. The BCCI should start to induct youngsters into the team and start to give them exposure to pressure
situations.
II. There should be a rotation policy adopted for senior players in order to prolong their careers and keep
them injury free.
135. Statement:
The lack of employment and income during economic depression leads to an increase in the crime rates.
Course of Action:
I. The government should provide an unemployment compensation as done in advanced countries.
II. The government should encourage greater economic activity and increase the number of industries in
order to reduce crime rates.
Direction (Q. 136- 140): Read the questions below very carefully and choose the correct answer.
On an island ‘Neverland’ the inhabitants always answer any question with two sentences- one of which
is always true and the other always false.
Perhaps due to this peculiar habit, there’s been a high rate of suicides on the island. As a doctor, you
have to identify potentially suicidal people and counsel them. You know that all people, who are suicidal
feel that the life is futile. On questioning three inhabitants, these are the answers you get:
Anuj : Himanshu is suicidal. I am not suicidal.
Himanshu : I do not want to die. Akshay does not want to die.
Akshay : Life is futile. I am suicidal.
136. Who among the three is suicidal ?

(a) Akshay (b) Himanshu (c) Himanshu and Akshay (d) None of these
137. Which one of them is lying about another person’s tendencies?

(a) Akshay (b) Himanshu (c) Anuj and Himanshu (d) Anuj
138. Further Going around the village, you come across three people. One of them is a dentist, one is a
barrister and one is professor. You want to know who is who.
Peter: I am not a professor. Shina is not a professor.
Matt : Peter is not a barrister. Shina is a professor
Shina : Peter is not a dentist. I am not a professor.
Which of the following is true?

(a) Shina is the professor (b) Peter is the dentist
(c) Matt is the barrister (d) None of the above
139. Further you come across three women, one of whom is an excellent singer. You start questioning
them, when you notice that Minaxi is wearing a flower in her hair.
Madhuri: I am not a singer. The singer wears a flower in her hair.
Minaxi : I am the singer. The singer is amongst us.
Jaya : Madhuri is the singer. Minaxi is not the singer.
Who is the singer ?
(a) Madhuri (b) Minaxi (c) Jaya (d) Cannot be determined
160
140. You want to expand your horizons and decided to go to the village of “Where is Who” which is deep
inside the island. You come to the border of “Kya Kya” and see a road sign. One leads to left and the
other right. There are no other roads. You ask the inhabitants.
Maroof : I do not speak to the strangers. I am new to these parts.
Nafish : Take road to the right. I am married to Ayesha
Ayesha . I am not Nafish’s wife, Maroof is not new to these parts
Which one of the following is true ?
(a) The road to the right leads to “Where is Who” (b) The road to the left leads to “Where is Who”
(c) Nafish is married to Ayesha (d) None of the above

141. A piece of string is 40 centimetres long. It is cut into three pieces. The longest piece is 3 times as
long as the middle-sized and the shortest piece is 23 centimetres shorter than the longest piece. Find
length of the shortest piece (in cm).
(a) 27 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 9 cm
142. Fresh grapes contain 90% water by weight while dried grapes contain 20 % water by weight. What
is the weight of dry grapes available from 20 kg of fresh grapes?
(a) 2 kg (b) 2.4 kg (c) 2.5 kg (d) 2.6 kg
143. A qroup of men decided to do a job in 8 days. But since 10 men dropped out every day the job got
completed at the end of the 12th day. How many men were there at the beginning ?
(a) 165 (b) 175 (c) 80 (d) none of these
144. In a race of 200 m run, A beats S by 20 m and N by 40 m. If S and N are running a race of 100 m
with exactly same speed as before, then by how many metres will S beat N?
(a) 11.11m (b) 10 m (c) 12 m (d) 25 m
145. Total expenses of a boarding house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly with the number of
boarders. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700 when there are 25 boarders and Rs. 600 when
there are 50 boarders. What is the average expense per boarder when there are 100 boarders ?
(a) Rs. 550 (b) Rs. 580 (c) Rs. 540 (d) Rs. 570
146. Three math’s classes: X, Y and Z take an algebra test. The average score of class X is 83. The
average score of class Y is 76. The average score of class Z is 85. The average score of class X and Y
is 79 and average score of class Y and Z is 81. What is the average score of classes X, Y and Z ?
(a) 81.5 (b) 80.5 (c) 83 (d) 78
147. You can collect rubies and emeralds as many as you can. Each ruby is worth Rs.4 crore and each
emerald is worth of Rs. 5 crore. Each ruby weighs 0.3 kg and each emerald weighs 0.4 kg. Your bag can
carry at the most 12 kg. What you should collect to get the maximum wealth ?
(a) 20 rubies and 15 emeralds (b) 40 rubies
(c) 28 rubies and 9 emeralds (d) none of these
148. A man has 9 friends: 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be
exactly 3 girls in the invitee’s list ?
(a) 320 (b) 160 (c) 80 (d) 200
149. Ten points are marked on a straight line and 11 points are marked on another straight line. How
many triangles can be constructed with vertices from among the above points?
(a) 495 (b) 550 (c) 1045 (d) 2475
161
150. Number of students who have opted for the subjects A, B and C arej60. 84 and 108 respectively.
The examination is to be conducted for these students such that only the students of the same subject
are allowed in one room. Also, the number of students in each room must be same. What is the
minimum number of rooms that should be arranged to meet all these conditions ?
(a) 28 (b) 60 (c) 12 (d) 21
AILET 2015 Answers

1 D 31 C 61 D 91 C 121 A
2 C 32 C 62 B 92 B 122 B
3 D 33 D 63 B 93 A 123 B
4 A 34 C 64 D 94 B 124 A
5 B 35 D 65 C 95 A 125 B
6 A 36 C 66 A 96 C 126 C
7 D 37 B 67 D 97 C 127 C
8 B 38 C 68 A 98 B 128 B
9 D 39 C 69 C 99 A 129 D
10 A 40 B 70 A 100 A 130 D
11 A 41 B 71 A 101 C 131 D
12 C 42 A 72 B 102 B 132 C
13 D 43 C 73 D 103 A 133 B
14 C 44 A 74 B 104 B 134 C
15 C 45 D 75 D 105 B 135 C
16 B 46 A 76 C 106 A 136 A
17 A 47 B 77 A 107 D 137 C
18 B 48 C 78 B 108 B 138 A
19 B 49 B 79 C 109 D 139 C
20 D 50 C 80 C 110 B 140 A
21 D 51 B 81 B 111 D 141 C
22 C 52 C 82 D 112 B 142 C
23 B 53 A 83 B 113 D 143 D
24 B 54 A 84 C 114 C 144 A
25 A 55 C 85 A 115 B 145 A
26 B 56 B 86 B 116 A 146 A
27 B 57 D 87 A 117 D 147 B
28 A 58 A 88 D 118 D 148 B
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29 C 59 C 89 B 119 B 149 C
30 D 60 A 90 C 120 C 150 D
AILET 2016
Directions (Qs. 1 -9) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the
questions that follow.
Rural manual workers comprise the single largest occupational category in India. In 1991, according to
the National Commission on Rural Labour, 60 percent of the workers in rural India were manual workers
and they numbered more than 160 million. The changes in the working and living conditions of rural
labourers are thus central to changes in the welfare of the rural population and of the country as a whole.
The structure and working of rural labour markets in India is complex; as is well known, there is great
diversity across regions and across segments of the labour market. This article brings together an
interesting body of research that seeks to understand and explain the types of changes that have
accrued in the structure of rural labour markets over the last few decades.
The 1980s were characterised by an explosion of the rural labour force, slow employment growth in
agriculture and a rise in the share of non-agricultural employment. The decade was also characterized
by a growing casualisation of the work force (for a relative rise in casual employment as opposed to
regular employment).
At the same time, it was a period when agricultural wages increased in real terms and when income
poverty declined. There was what may be called "the tension between the estimated decline in poverty
on the one hand, and the slow growth of agricultural employment and increased casualisation of the
labour force on the other. Some of the trends in the development of rural labour over for this period are
a source of concern. These include, as Radhakrishnan and Sharma note, the continuous widening of
the gap between labour productivity in agricultural and non-agricultural occupations, the burgeoning
mass of rural casual workers who have no social security safety net, and the increasing number of
women employed at very low wages in agriculture. Another matter for concern, one that emerges from
a desegregation of data on rural unemployment by age groups, is that the incidence of unemployment
is higher for persons in the age group of 15-29 than for any other age group in others words,
unemployment is typically high among new entrants to the workforce.
In her review of trends in wages, employment and poverty, Sheila Bhalla shows that the real wages of
agricultural labourers stagnated from the time of independence to the mid-1970s and then began to rise
in all parts of the country. This was also the period in which the incidence of rural poverty began to
decline. The rise in wages was not limited to the more prosperous agricultural zones, and Bhalla argues
that the movement in real wages was co-related with the increase in the share of non-agricultural
employment in total employment. As wages in non-agricultural work are typically higher than wages in
agriculture, the expansion of non-farm work could also explain some of the decline in rural poverty. In
163
the 1990s, the improvement in real wages and the decline in poverty were reversed while agricultural
employment expanded. Economic development all over the world has been associated with a rise in the
share of employment in the secondary and tertiary sectors of the economy and a fail in the share of the
agriculture sector. In India, changes in the composition of the rural workforce in the 1gg's points to a
"structural retrogression"'
1. Give an appropriate title to the passage

(A) The complex labour markets in India
(B) Matters of concern in rural agriculture
(C)The agricultural and non-agricultural sectors: Changing perspective
(D) The Changing Structure of Rural labour market
2. The author does not say

(A) In 1991, about 3/5 of the workers in rural India were manual workers
(B)The decade of 1980s was characterised by a relative rise in casual employment as opposed to
regular employment
(C)There is no gender bi as among workers in agriculture sector
(D)Wages in agricultural employment have been lesser than those in non-agricultural employment in the
1990s
3. Why is the increasing gap between labour productivity in agricultural and non- agricultural
occupations a cause of concern according to Radha Krishnan and Sharma?
(A) This would increase the wages of agricultural sector
(B) This would lead to pressure on both the agricultural and non-agricultural sectors as whichever
sector expands of the other, there would be increased labour pressure on that sector and lesser
economic development in the other
(C) This would indirectly mean a pressure on non-agricultural sector in terms of higher wages
(D) This would indirectly mean a pressure on non-agricultural sector in terms of higher wages
4. How does Bhalla explain the fact that the real wages of agricultural labourers began to rise all
parts of the country after mid-70s?
(A) Economic development increased for both the sectors across the world
(B) Economic liberalization in India led to the development of the agricultural sector
(C)The agricultural labourers became rich due to successive good crops during the time of green
revolution.
(D) There was a mass outflow of agricultural labourers into the non-agricultural sectors and the
remaining labourers, who were lesser in number, now apportioned the existing agricultural sector
wealth, getting richer individually
5. What is the most important problem in understanding the condition of rural labour markets in
India?
(A) The rural labour markets are uneconomic in nature

(B) The rural labour markets are very complex and there exists great diversity across regions and
across segments of such ,arkets
(C) The rural labourers are a reticent lot; not forthcoming with their problems, not very open to
suggestions on how to improve their lifestyle
(D) They are lazy and want doles from the government without undertaking any viable productive
activities
6.What sort of tension exists between the decline of poverty and the slow growth of agricultural
employment and the increased casualisation of the labour force?
(A) A decline in rural poverty is only possible when there is increased agricultural employment and
lower casualization of the labour force
164
(B) The tension exists in the fact that an increased casualisation of the labour force would increase
proverty
(C) When there is a decline in poverty there should be faster growth of
agricultural employment and the decreased casualization of the labour force
(D) Both (B) and (C)
7. What sort of Passage is this?

(A) Political (B) Social commentary (C) Economic (D) Philosophical
8. The author does not say which of the following statements in the passage?
(A) The National Commission on Rural Labour gives data on the activities of rural labourers in India
(B) Economic development basically means a rise in the share employment in the agriculture sector
at the expense of the secondary and tertiary sectors
(C) In India, employment was higher among the new entrants to the workforce in the 1980s
(D) Real wages of the agricultural labourers started showing an upward trend from the 1970s
9. Why are changes in the working and living conditions of rural manual workers
of utmost significance to the country as a whole?
(A) Rural workers migrate a lot to the cities, adding to the already burgeoning population of these places
and so any improvement in their living conditions which would stall this trend would benefit
(B) The rural workers live in abject poverty and a change in their working and living conditions is
therefore very crucial
(C) They form the bulk of the rural workers and so any change in their living standards augurs well for
the country as a whole
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Directions (Q. 10 - Q. 12): For the word given at the top of each table, match the
dictionary definitions on the left (a,b,c,d) with their corresponding usage on the
right (e,f,g,h). Out of the four possibilities given below the table select the one that
has all the usages correctly matched.
10 Run down
Dictionary definition Usage
a Trace e My cat was run down by a bus
Have you run down those addresses I
b Criticize f
aske week?
Suraj is running for President of the
c Hit with a car g
club
Campain for a government
d h My father runs everyone down
position
(a) ah, bf, ce, dg (b) ah, be, cf, dg (c) ag, bf, ce, dh (d) af, bh, ce, dg
11 Wind up
a Finish e She just think it’s a big wind-up
To tighten the spring of (a He wound up the toy top and set it
b f
clockwork mechanism) on floor
To become nervous, If he doesn’t get his act together. He
c g
tense, etc, excited is going to wind up in prison
An act or instance of The kids always get wound up to
d h
teasing when uncle Ronnie comes over
165
(a) ae, bg, cf, dh (b) ae, bf, cg, dh (c) ag, bf, ch, de (d) ah, bg, cf, de
12 Run off
Would you mind running off 20 copies
a Make leave e
of this document for me ?
You shouldn’t swim where the dirty
b Reproduce f
water runs off into the ocean
c Leave quickly g Why did you run off after the dinner ?
The new government is trying to run
d To flow h
the criminals off.
(a) ah, be, cg, df (b) af, bh, cg, de (c) af, bh, ce, dg (d) ag, be, ch, df
Directions (Q. 13 - Q. 17) : Read the following newspaper report and. put the verbs in brackets into
the most suitable form. Indicate your choice in the provided box'
A woman _(13)_ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. 'She (14)__
(allow) home after treatment. The road (15)__(block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to
_(16)_ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: 'The woman was lucky' She could __(17)__(kill)
13. (A) is taken (B) took (C) was taken (D) take
14. (A) allow (B) is allowed (C) allowed (D) was allowed
15. (A) was blocked (B) block (C) is blocked (D) be blocked
16. (A) diverted (B) be diverted (C) was diverted (D) is diverted
17. (A) was killed (B) have been killed (C) killed (D) kill
18. In which of the following clusters, all the words mean 'ignoring existence of God'
(A) Pantheism, Agnosticism, Secularism (B) Atheism, Agnosticism, Secularism
(C) Deism, Secularism, Agnosticism (D) Atheism, Deism, Secularism
19. Which set of words are only nouns?

(A) Pompous, ridiculous, photographic (B) Penance, science, Porous
(C) Analysis, Praxis, thesis (D) Poisonous, vocalize, stupidity
20. Which set of words are only adjectives?

(A) Ridiculous, native, psychologise (B) Astronomy, sympathy, Privacy
(C) Nation, action, Privacy (D) Chemical, mathematical, French
21. In which set each word is a noun, adjective and verb also?
(A) Delegate, defeat, temporary, tertiary
(B) Chronic, incumbency, parent, proponent
(C) Topic, alacrity, android, auditory
(D) Square, precipitate, collect, free
Direction (Qs. 22 - 26) : Find the odd one out'

22. (A) wary (B) gullible (C) credulous (D) naive
23. (A) gusto (B) verve (C) burst (D) zest
24. (A) beatific (B) diatribe (C) blithe (D) ecstatic
25. (A) trappings (B) orifice (C) egress (D) vent
26. (A) spectre (B) apparition (C) hoodlum (D) phantom
Direction (Qs. 27 - 35) : Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
166
27. You mad if you think I'm going to lend you any more money'
(A) should be (B) are supposed to be (C) must be (D) ought to be
28. Who was coming to see me this morning?

(A) you said (B) did you say (C) did You say that (D) you did say
29. I notified I had changed my address.

(A) with the Bank (B) the bank that (C) in the Bank (D) to the bank that
30.If I a more reliable car, I to Surat rather than fly.

(A) had; would drive (B) would have, would drive
(C) had; had driven (D) would have had, would drive
31. I first met Sohan on a beach Kochi. I later found out that he had been a carpenter
and a dustman, other things'
(A) by; among (B) near, (C) by; between (D) near among
32. ,when did you last hear Don?' 'He phoned me just this morning, He's coming to Delhi
next week, so we agreed a time and place to meet.
(A) from; on (B) about on (C) from; at (D) of, to
33. perhaps because something in us instinctively distrusts such displays of natural fluency,
some readers approach John Updike's fiction with-.
(A) suspicion (B) bewilderment (C) veneration (D) recklessness
34. Despite the mixture's nature, we found that by lowering its temperature in the
laboratory, we could dramatically reduce its tendency to vaporize.
(A) volatile (B) resilient (C) insipid (D) acerbic
35. I you can swim so well and I can’t

(a) hate (b) hate it that (c) hate that (d) hate it
36. Which folk dance of India has made it to the Guinness Book of World Records as the largest
folk dance in the world?
(A) Bihu (Assam) (B) Garba (Gujarat) (C) Nati (Himachal Pradesh) (D) Bhangra (Punjab)
37. which e-commerce company has made its maiden entry in the Thomson Reuters top 100
Global Innovators list 2015 ?
(A) Amazon (B) Snapdeal (C) ebay (D) Alibaba
38. which of the following groups of International institutions are also known as
'Bretton Woods Sisters' ?
(A) United Nations and Bank of International Settlement
(B) IMF and World Bank Group
(C) IMF and WTO
(D) IMF, IBRD and International Trade Organisation
39. Which of the following variables is not part of the 'impossible Trinity'
conundrum?
(A) Capital Control (B) Exchange Rate (C) Fiscal Policy (D) Monetary Policy
40. The measurement of poverty- line in India is based on the criteria of

(A) Nature of employment (B) Dwelling houses
(C) Level of education (D) Calorie consumption
41. who termed Paris deal on climate change as ‘climate Justice' ?

(A) Ban-Ki-Moon (B) Barack Obama (C) Narendra Modi (D) Francois Hollande
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42. What is R2 - D2?

(A) It is an astromech droid that extinguishes fires' repairs space ships and assists the lead characters
in the Star Wars film
(B) It is a new atomic particle discovered
(C) It is vaccine against Ebola
(D) It is a video game
43. Tunisian mediators of the so-called National Dialogue Quartet won the Nobel
Peace Prize20l5.which of the following is/are part of Quartet?
1. The Tunisian General Labour Union (UGTT)
2. The Tunisian Confederation of Industry, Trade and Handicrafts (UTICA)
3. The Tunisian Human Rights League (ITDH)
4. The Tunisian Order of Lawyers
The correct answer is
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (C) 1,2,3,4 (D)1, 2, 4
44. The Employee's Provident Fund organisation has won the National Award on e-
governance 201 5-16 for launching
(A)Unique identification Number (B)Universal Account Number
(C) online Pension scheme (D) online complaint portal
45. Which is the world’s first airport to fully run on solar power?
(A) Vancouver (US) (B) Dubai (UAE) (C) Kochi (India) (D) Zurich (Switzerland)
46. Government has introduced Start-up Scheme to promote new enterprises' Such
enterprises has been awarded years tax holiday'
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
47. Consider the following statements in respect of PAN (effective from January 1, 2016)
1. Quoting PAN is mandatory for cash payments made to settle hotel bills or for buying foreign
travel tickets of an amount above Rs. 50, 000
2. The PAN requirement for non-luxury cash transactions is Rs 2 lakh
3. PAN for making post office deposit of over Rs 50, 000 has been dispensed
4. PAN is mandatory on purchase of immovable property of Rs 10 lakh
The correct answer is
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
48. How many firms, recently, have got licence from RBI for establishing Payment Banks?
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13
49. Government has allowed FDI in operations of white level ATMs.

(A) 100% (B) 74% (C) 51% (D) 49%
50. Which of the following pairs of rivers have been interlinked formally for the first time in
India?
(A) Betwa – Ken (B) Son-Ken (C) Ganga – Jhelum (D) Godavari-Krishna
51. Which of the following feature films from India has been declared as the official entry for
88th Oscar Awards?
(A) Queen (B) Court (C) Mary Kom (D) Kaaka Muttai
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52. why the sidereal day is 4 minutes shorter than the solar day ?
(A) The Earth is round in shape' (B) The Earth revolves around the Sun'
(C) The Earth rotates on its axis. (D) The Earth has an atmosphere'
53. which is the only industrialised country of the world that did not ratify the Kyoto
Protocol?
(A) Russia (B) USA (C) Japan (D) France
54. The 8th BRICS Summit (2016) is proposed to be held in

(A)Brazil (B) India (C) China (D) South Africa
55. which of the following statements is incorrect about foreign investment in India ?
(A)Foreign Portfolio investment (FPIs) can invest upto5.l% in multi-brand retail
(B)FPI upto 49%through automatic route is permissible across sectors
(C) 49% FPI in Brown field Pharma projects is allowed
(D)Foreign retailers are not able to have direct management control of an Indian
56. An Indian car maker recently changed the name of its newly launched car because
the name was similar to an epidemic
(A) Tata Motors (B) Maruti Suzuki (C) Mahindra & Mahindra (D) Honda motors
57. The first telecommunication company to launch pan India 4G mobile services
(A) BSNL (B) Vodafone (C) Reliance Jio (D) Bharti Airtel
58. WTO has recently approved membership of which country?

(A) Zimbabwe (B) Sweden (C) Afghanistan (D) Sri Lanka
59. FM broadcast band lies in

(A) HF (B) SHF (C) UHF (D) VHF
60. What percentage of Employees Provident Fund can be invested in equity shares?
(A) 0% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) minimum 5% and maximum 15%
61. Liquid crystals are used in

(A) Pocket Calculator (B) Display Devices (C) Wrist watches (D) All of the above
62. Which country recently allowed women to vote in local elections for the first time?
(A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) Indonesia (D) Saudi Arabia
63. 'Brass Plate Subsidiaries' are usually set up

(A) For the purpose of Income tax avoidance (B) In the metal sector
(C) To take advantage of subsidies (D) As cross border investment
64. Global fast-food chain has maximum number of restaurants across the world.
(A) KFC (B) Subway (C) McDonalds (D) Starbucks
65.Who has been honoured by the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2o15'?
(A) Rohit Sharma (B) Jitu Rai (C) Sania Mirza (D) Deepika Pallikal
66.Which of the following countries has recently declared a state of economic emergency'?
(A) Bangladesh (B) Germany (C) Burundi (D) France
67. Section 80 TTA of the Income Tax Act pertains to interest earned on
(A) Saving Bank Accounts (B) Fixed Deposits
(C) Recurring deposit (D)Government saving schemes
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68. who is the chairperson of the Firm and Television Institute of India (FTTI) ?
(A) Suneel Darshan (B) Pankaj Dheer (C) Gajendra Chauhan (D) Prashant Pathrabe
69. MNREGA program provides 100 days employment in rural areas. The Government during
September 2015 decided to provide additional days employment in drought affected areas'
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 40 (D) 50
70. United Nations has appointed Anupama Kher as the ambassador of

(A) 'Let the Girl Live' campaign (B) 'He for She' campaign
(C) 'Share Humanity' campaign (D) 'Youth Now' campaign
Direction: Given below is a statement of LEGAL PRINCIPLE followed by a factual situation.

71. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A reasonable classification having nexus with the object sought to be
achieved is not violative of article 14 or article 16 of the constitution of India
FACTUAL SITUATION: .X, is a male teacher in a Women's college, who applied for the post of principal
of that college. His candidature was rejected on the basis of The Government’s policy of appointing only
women as Principal of a women's college'. ,X' challenges the policy on the ground of discrimination'
whether the challenge is sustainable?
(A) Yes, because rejection of X’s candidature amounts to sexual discrimination and deprivation of
opportunity
(B) No' the rejection does not amount to discrimination since it is a reasonable classification permissible
under the constitution.
(C) No, because the policy of appointment of only lady Principal in a women's college is a
reasonable classification having a nexus with the object sought to be achieved.
(D) Yes, because the policy is violative of the guarantee of equality before law under Article 14 of the
constitution
72. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Any institution or body can be a' state' if it is created under the constitution
or a statute, or it is substantially financed by the government or the government holds its share capital
FACTUAL SITUATION: K approached the, High Court by filing a writ petition against the board for control
of cricket in India (BCCI). The argument advanced was that BCCI is a ‘state’ within the meaning of article
12 of the constitution of India. The question is whether the argument is acceptable?
DECISION:
(A) Yes, because the Board has monopoly on cricket in India'
(B) No, because the monopoly on cricket is neither State conferred nor State protected
(C) No, because the control of the government on BCCI, if any, is only regulatory
(D) No, because neither the Board is created under a statute nor any part of share capital of the board
is held by the government and no financial assistance is given by the government to the Board'
73. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A suit shall be instituted in the court within whose jurisdiction the cause
of action arises; or the defendant actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business, or
personally works for gain.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Y, 'carries on business in Mumbai. 'Z' carries on business in Delhi. 'Z' buys
goods of 'Y' in Mumbai through his agent and request' Y' to deliver them at Delhi. Accordingly, 'Y' delivered
the goods at Delhi. But he did not get the price of the goods delivered in Delhi. Therefore, he intends to
move the Civil Court for recovery of amount from 'Z'. Which court may 'Y' approach?
DECISION:
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(A) 'Y' may institute the suit either at Delhi where Z carries on business or at Mumbai where the cause
of action arose.
(B) 'Y' may institute the suit at Delhi where 'z' carries on business.
(C) 'Y' may institute the suit simultaneously at Delhi where 'Z' caries on business and at
Mumbai where the cause of action arose.
(D) 'Y' may institute the suit at Mumbai where the cause of action arose.
74. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The acceptance of an offer will be valid only if it is made in the way it was
expected to be made.
FACTUAL SITUATION: There was a telephonic discussion between 'J' and 'K for negotiating the sale
of the shop of former to the latter. Upon reaching an agreement as to the price of the shop of 'J' at Rs
20 lakh, 'J' told 'K' to send a letter to him within two weeks confirming that she wishes to buy the shop
for the price finalized. Two days thereafter, 'K' gave her acceptance to 'J' over telephone but sent the
letter of confirmation after lapse of one month. is 'J' bound by acceptance of 'K' ?
DECISION:
(A) Yes, because the acceptance was conveyed within two weeks over telephone and it was
followed by a letter of acceptance as stipulated.
(B) No, because although the acceptance over telephone was conveyed in time but not in the mode
specified and the letter of acceptance was also not sent within two weeks.
(C) No, because sale of immovable property cannot be finalized online; neither any
acceptance can be given over phone. Hence, the entire negotiation is invalid.
(D) Yes, because no law can compel the purchaser to give his acceptance through the mode
prescribed by the vendor.
75. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A power conferred by a statute cannot be withdrawn by a subordinate

legislation.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The Cinematograph Act conferred powers upon the District Magistrate (DM) to
grant license subject to the control of the government. The government framed Rules under the said Act.
The effect of these Rules was that the licensing power stood transferred to the Government itself and the
District Magistrate was rendered powerless. Whether such Rules are valid?
DECISION:
(A) The licensing power was granted by the Cinematograph Act. Any withdrawal or transfer thereof was
possible only through an Amending Act and not by any Rules made under the Parent Act.
(B) Although the legislature has conferred power upon the DM to grant license but. the government
being the implementing agency might find it unfeasible. Therefore, the government rightly withdrew it
from the DM.
(C) The Rules are valid since these are framed under the Parent Act in order to better implement it.
(D) The Rules are valid since the DM under the Parent Act was not independent but subject to the
control of Government'
76. LEGAL PRINC1PLE : Clause (1) of Article 15 of the Constitution of India prohibits the State from
discriminating between citizens on the ground only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of
them'
FACTUAL SITUATION: The admission Rules of an Engineering College located in XYZ State of India
provided that no capitation fee shall be charge from the residents of the XYZ State but the non-residents
shall be required to pay capitation fee. Whether the Rules are violative of Article 15 (1) of the
Constitution?
DECISION:
(A) Yes, because Article 15 (1) prohibits discrimination between citizens on the ground only of religion,
race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
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(B) Yes, because Article 15 (1) prohibits discrimination on the basis of place of birth which impliedly
includes place of residence.
(C) Yes, because Article 15 (1) prohibits discrimination between citizens on the ground only for religion,
race, caste, sex, place of birth and the provision suffers from causus omissus and “place of residence”
is advertently omitted.
(D) No because Article 15 (1) does not prohibit discrimination based on the place of residence
77. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: In the employer - employee relationship, the employer is held liable for all the
wrongs committed by his employees in the course of employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: David was employed as a Driver in ABC & Co over the past 15 years and has
been appreciated by the General Manager for his hard work 'and sincerity. He has been rewarded by
the company for his accident free record. David's younger brother wanted to join the same company
as a driver. He obtained a Learner's Licence, joined a Driving School and was learning driving during
the last three months. He was on the verge of completion of the training and appear for the Driving
test. He wanted to have more practice before the test and requested his brother David for using the
Company's car for two days. David also allowed him to use the office car for the practice. While he
was practising driving, a truck came from the wrong side, hit the company's car driven by David's
brother, which in turn hit a pedestrian and injured him. The pedestrian sues the company for damages.
DECISION:
(A) The Company is not liable as it was driven by David's brother
(B) The Company is liable as David allowed his brother to drive the car
(C) David's brother is personally liable
(D) The Company can shift the responsibility on to the truck driver
78. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according
to procedure established by law and Civil Courts have coercive powers to compel attendance of
witness only within its local territory.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Puchu, a resident of Faridabad was summoned by the Delhi High Court as a
witness in a civil case regarding wrongful possession of immovable property filed by Amu against Kichu.
He refused to appear before the court due to his office job. He was prosecuted by the court. is he liable?
DECISION:
(A) He is not liable because he is not the resident of Delhi.

(B) He is not liable because he has fundamental right under Article 21 of personal liberty.
(C) He is liable because he is called as a witness in a civil trial and it is a procedure
established by law.
(D) He is not liable because he has no interest in the suit property.
79. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Article 19 (1) (g) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the
right to practice any profession, or to carry on any trade, occupation and business but Article 19 (6)
empowers the State to impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the interest of public.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Having experienced acute shortage of labour for agricultural purpose
due to engagement of agricultural labourer in manufacture of Bidis, the state Government enacted
a law to prohibit such engagement of agricultural labour in the manufacture of Bidis. Whether the
law violates the constitutional Provisions?
DECISION:
(A) No, because the law in a reasonable restriction in the interest of public as if labourers would not be
available for agricultural purposes there can be shortage of food grains and wastage of crops'
(B) No, because Bidis are harmful for health of people so any law preventing people from engaging in
manufacture of Bidis is in the interest of public'
172
(C) Yes, because the law imposes an unreasonable restriction as it indirectly makes the two sectors
(manufacture of Bidis and agriculture) alternative options for the labourers where as some people would
like to work in both of these'
(D)Yes, because the objects ought to be achieved by this law is to keep sufficient labour supply for
agricultural purpose, which could have been easily achieved by restraining the employment of
agricultural labour in Bidi manufacturing during the agricultural season only. Absolute restriction
amounts to withdrawal of the right. Hence, the law is unconstitutional'
80. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: when a person unlawfully intervenes in the chattel of another person by
which the latter is deprived of its use, the former commits the tort of conversion. And nobody shall
enrich himself at other's cost'
FACTUAL SITUATION: X, a patient suffering from fibroids in her uterus approached KLM Medical
Institute. X was suggested to undergo surgery to remove the fibroids from her uterus. The operation
is successfully performed and X was discharged after few days. One of the researchers of the KLM
institute discovered some rare and unique cells in the fibroids of X and using these cells, the
laboratory of KLM developed some life-saving drug sand earned rupees twenty crore from a leading
International Pharma Company. When X came to know about it' she claimed five crore from the
Institute.
DECISION:
(A) KLM institute need not share its income with X because X far from being deprived of the use of her
fibroids was actually benefitted by its removal'
(B) KLM lnstitute need not share its income with X because the medical institute instead of destroying
the waste fibroids of X conducted research on its own and invented new life-saving drugs'
(C) KLM lnstitute must share its income with X because KLM could not have achieved its success
without the fibroids of X'
(D) KLM Institute must share its income with X on moral grounds.
81.LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A judgment which binds only the parties to a suit in which the judgment was
passed is called judgment in personam; whereas a judgment which binds all men irrespective of
whether they were party to suit or not is known as judgment in rem.
FACTUAL SITUATION: "Judgment of a competent court determining contractual obligations of the

parties to a contract is an example of judgment in personam but a judgment of a competent court
declaring a party to be insolvent is an example of judgment in rem." Comment on the correctness of
this statement.
DECISION:
(A) The statement is incorrect because a judgment relating to contract is a judgment in rem as it binds
both the parties to the suit as well as the strangers. But a judgment relating to insolvency applies only
to the person who has been adjudged to be an insolvent; hence it is a judgment in personam.
(B) The Statement is wrong as both the judgments are judgments in rem as both bind not only the
parties to the suit but also others
(C) The Statement is wrong as both the judgments are judgments in personam as both the judgments
bind not only the parties to the suit but not the others.
(D) The statement is correct.
82. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: According to Article 20 (1) of the Constitution, no person shall be convicted of
any offence except for violation of the law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an
offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in
force at the time of the commission of the offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: 'P' was charged with an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of one
year. The Magistrate convicted him and awarded him a punishment of one-year imprisonment. While' P
was undergoing the sentence, the law under which 'P' was convicted came to be amended and the
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punishment for the offence of which 'P' was convicted was reduced to six months. The defense filed an
application to the Magistrate for review of sentence and to commute it to six months. Can the application
be allowed?
DECISION:
(A) No, because penal laws only have prospective application.
(B) No, because a penal statute cannot be given retrospective effect.
(C) No, since at the time of coming into force of the amended law, 'P' was already suffering the
sentence and had not completed the full term. Hence, his case should not be dealt under the new law.
(D) Yes, because retrospective application of criminal law if it is beneficial to the accused is not
against Article 20 (1) of the Constitution.
Directions: The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as

‘Assertion’ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer
using the code given below.
83. Assertion (A) : The entries in the three legislative lists are not always set out with scientific
Precision'
Reason (R): The entries are not powers but are only fields of legislation'
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
84. Assertion (A) : No action lies for mere damage caused by some act which does not violate a
legal right.
Reason (R): An action lies for interference with another's legal right even where it causes no actual
damage'

85. Assertion (A): The parties to the contract must be competent to contract otherwise it will be a
void contract'
Reason (R: All wagering agreements are void'
86. Assertion (A): custom to have force of law must be followed from time immemorial'
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of the people'

87. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be forced to give his thumb impression'
174
Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself

88. Assertion (A): In federalism, there is division of powers between the centre and the States.
Reason (R): The legislation is not invalid merely because it incidentally encroaches upon matters
which have been assigned to another organ.

89. Assertion (A): International law is not law at all'
Reason (R) : International law has no judicial system to enforce the law by applying sanctions.

90. The constitution (one hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 amended the Schedule of the
Constitution to give effect to an agreement entered into by India and on acquiring and transferring
of territories between the two countries.
(A) Ninth; Pakistan (B) Second; Pakistan (C) First; Bangladesh (D) First; China
91. Who is the CEO of NITI Aayog ?

(A) Sindhushree Khullar (B) Arvind panagariya (C) Bikesh Debroy (D) Amitabh Kant
92. Allahabad High Court has held that the of deceased Government employees are eligible for
appointment on compassionate ground.
(A) wife (B) daughter (C) mother (D) married daughter
93. Which party has won the general elections of Spain in spite of its worst result since 1989?
(A) People's Party (B) Pedro Sanchez’s socialist party
(C) Popular union (D) Ciudadanos party
94' Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority has started using for online registration under
the National pension system scheme.
(A) PAN Card (B) passport (C) Aadhar Card (D) Driving License
95. When a vehicle is financed by a bank, what kind of charge does the bank have over the
primary security?
(A) Pledge (B) Hypothecation (C) Assignment (D) Lien
96. Under which Act can action be taken against wilful defaulters of banking loans?
(A) Under Section 42O of IPC
(B) SEBI Act
(C) Banking Regulation Act
(D) Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act
(SARFAESI Act)
175
97. Which of the following court / tribunal ordered levy of an environment compensatory charge on
commercial vehicles not bound for the capital yet passing through Delhi?
(A) Supreme Court of India (B) Delhi High Court (C) National Green Tribunal (D) None of these
98. Parliament has enacted which of the following Legislation in 2015 - 16?
1. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
2. The Election Laws (Amendment) Act
3. The Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act
4. Commercial Courts, Commercial Division and Commercial Appellate Division of High
Courts Act
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 4 only (C) 1 and 4(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
99. In the following Sates more than 60% seats are in reserved category in educational
institutions against 50% cap as fixed by the Supreme Court of India
(I) Karnataka (II) Tamil Nadu (III) Odisha (IV) Bihar
The correct answer is :

(A) Only II (B) I and II (C) II and IV (D) I, II and III
100. According to SEBI norms, a person found guilty of indulging in unfair trade practices shall
be liable to a penalty of
I. Rs. 25 crore
II. Three times the amount of profits made out of such practices, .....
The correct answer is :

(A) Only I (B) only II (C) either I or II (D) neither I nor II
101. The minimum wages in are the highest in the northern region.
(A) Rajasthan (B) Delhi (C) Punjab (D) Haryana
102. The correct sequence in ascending order of their creation of the following international institution
is:
I. WTO
II. GATT
III. UNCTAD
IV. NAFTA
(A) II, III,I, IV (B)III, II, I, IV (C) IV,II, I,III (D) I, II, III,IV
103. Government of India has decided to establish -- in selected High Courts.

(A) Tax Division (B) SC/ST Division (C) Commercial Division (D) Economic Offence Division
104. 'Zero Rating' is a recent term used in

(A) Insurance (B) Credit Rating (C) Energy Efficiency (D) Net Neutrality
105. Which Article of the Constitution of India was used to impose President Rule in
Uttarakhand and placing the Assembly under suspended animation in March 2016?
(A) Article 102 (B) Artictel43 (C) Article 356 (D) Article 365
Directions (Qs. 106 - 109) : A passage is given below followed by several inferences.
You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its
degree of truth or falsity. Mark your answer as:
(A)If the inference is 'definitely true'

(B)If the inference is 'probably true'
176
(C)If the 'data provide in inadequate'

(D)If the inference is 'probably false'
Investors today have more investment options than were available just a few years ago. Choice in any
decision-making is good in so far it provides variety, differentiation and benchmarking. It could also,
however, at times lead to clutter and "noise" if the options are mostly similar and undifferentiated. To
make sense of this choice conundrum, it is imperative for an investor to define objective - both returns
and digestible risk and then identify the possible options. The investor also needs to select the mix and
regularly monitor that objectives and investment outcomes remain aligned. Sounds simple, but can
present the most confounding situation which multiplies with the quantum of wealth.
106. Investors need to critically evaluate the risk of each investment option.
107. Present day investors need to use their judgement more critically before investing.
108. Multiple investment options of similar types helps in making better investment
109. In the past, investors were generally guided by the fund managers.
Directions (Qs. 110 - 115): Read the following short passages and answer the questions
that follow each passage.
110. For some women, the cost of giving birth can be an unexpectedly a large burden. The average
normal birth now costs Rs.3,200 and a birth with complications can cost thousands of rupees more. Of
women in the primary child-bearing age range of eighteen to twenty-four, who account for about 40
percent of all births in this country annually, more than 25 percent have no health care insurance to pay
maternity costs.
If the above statements are true, which one of the following must also be true?
(A) Each year, about 75 percent of all births in this country are to women who have health
care coverage of maternity costs
(B) Each year, about 60 percent of all births in this country are to women who are are younger
than eighteen or older than twenty-four.
(C) For an average birth, health care insurance pays about 75 percent of Rs. 3,200.
(D) In this country, about 75 percent of the women who do not have health care coverage of maternity
costs are younger than eighteen or older than twenty-four.
111. Products sold under a brand name used to command premium prices because, in general, they
were superior to non-brand rival products. Technical expertise in product development has become so
widespread, however, that special quality advantages are very hard to obtain these days and even
harder to maintain. As a consequence, brand-name products generally neither offer higher quality nor
sell at higher prices' Paradoxically, brand names are a bigger marketing advantage than. ever.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the paradox outlined above?
(A) Brand names are taken by consumers as a guarantee of getting a product as good as the best
rival product.
(B) Consumers recognised that the quality of products sold under invariant brand names can drift
over time
(C) In the acquisition of one corporation by another, the acquiring corporation interested more in
acquiring the right to use certain brand names than in acquiring existing production facilities.
(D) In the earlier days when special quality advantages were easier to obtain than are now, it was also
easier to get new brand names established
112. The extent to which a society is really free can be gauged by its attitude towards artistic expression.
Freedom of expression can easily be violated in even most outwardly democratic of societies. When a
government's Arts Council withholds funding from a dance performance that its members deem
177
"obscene", the voice of a few bureaucrats have in fact censored the work of the choreographer, thereby
committing the real obscenity of repression.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?
(A) Members of government Acts Council are screened to ensure that their beliefs reflect those of the
majority
(B) The term obscenity has several different definitions that should not be used interchangeably, for
rhetorical effect.
(C) Withholding financial support for a performance is not the same as actively preventing or inhibiting it.
(D) The Council's decision could be reversed if the performance were altered to conform to public
standards of appropriateness.
113. It is not generally realised that when a court upholds or invalidates legislation or executive action, it
neither approves nor condemns any legislative policy, nor is if concerned with the wisdom or expediency
of the administrative action. It merely determines whether the legislation or executive action is in
conformity with or contrary to the provisions of the Constitution. it discharges the function of guarding the
Constitution, no more, no less. Judicial activism is to be properly understood in the context of the extent
and the vigour and the readiness with which the courts exercise their power of judicial review. When
courts actively perform an interventionist role, we witness the phenomenon of judicial activism. When
the judiciary exercises self-restraint in exercising the power of judicial review and limits its role, there is
absence of judicial activism. But the pendulum of judicial review is never static and judicial activism, or
lack of it, is a variable phenomenon.
Which one of the following, if true, would defeat the case presented above?
(A) The judiciary is plagued with the Public Interest Litigations against some or the other forms of
administrative action.
(B) Often, the judiciary is seen to be making disparaging remarks about the executive, pulling up
officials for lapses in conduct, many a time condemning them.
(C) The judicial review exercises that the judiciary often undertakes is what comprises judicial
activism.
(D) Judicial activism is not mandatory under the Constitution. it is for the judiciary to decide whether
it wants to intervene in a certain issue or not.
114. Traditionally, decision-making by managers that is reasoned and step-by-step has been considered
preferable to intuitive decision-making. However, a recent study found that top managers used intuition
significantly more than did most middle or lower-level managers. This confirms the alternative view that
intuition is actually more effective than careful, methodical reasoning.
The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Methodical, step-by-step reasoning is inappropriate for making many real-life management
decisions
(B) Top managers have the ability to use either intuitive reasoning or methodical, step-by- step
reasoning in making decisions
(C) The decisions made by middle and lower-level managers can be made as easily by using
methodical reasoning as by using intuitive reasoning
(D) Top managers are more effective at decision-making than middle or lower-level manager
115. Banker: By transferring income to a retirement account at our bank, people can save money by
delaying payment of taxes.
Accountant: That plan won't actually save money because the taxes will have to be paid
sometime in the future when the money is withdrawn.
178
Which one of the following best explains the conflict between the Banker and the Accountant?
(A) The Banker is primarily concerned with recruiting new customers for the bank but the
accountant is not.
(B) The Accountant misunderstands the application of the tax laws.
(C) The Banker and the Accountant disagree on the application of the term "save".
(D) Retirement accounts are nothing more than a tax shelter, which the Parliament intends
to cut of next year’s tax amendment
Direction (Qs. 116 - 120) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
i. Five friends A, B, C, D and E travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi, Bangalore
and Hyderabad by different modes of transport viz. bus, train, aeroplane, car and boat from Mumbai'
ii. The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
iii. C went to Bangalore by car and B went to Kolkata by aeroplane.
iv. D travelled by boat whereas E travelled by train.
v. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.
116. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?
(A) A- Bus (B) D-Boat (C) C-Car (D) E-Aeroplane
117. Which of the following combination is true for A?

(A) Delhi - Bus (B) Chennai – Bus
(C) Hyderabad - Bus (D) Hyderabad - Car
118. Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct?
(A) Hyderabad - Train (B) Hyderabad – Bus
(C) Chennai - Boat (D) Delhi - Train
119. The person travelling to Hyderabad went by which of the following modes?
(A) Train (B) Bus (C) Boat (D) None of these
120. Who among the following travelled to Delhi?

(A)D (B)A (C)E (D) None of these
Direction (Qs' 121 - 125) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
All the streets of a city are either perpendicular or parallel to one another. The streets are all straight.
Streets N, O, P, Q and R are parallel to one another. Streets S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are horizontally
parallel to one another.
i. Street N is 1 km east of Street O.

ii. Street O is 1/2 km west of Street p.
iii. Street is 1 km west of Street R.
iv. Street S is 1/2 km south of Street T.
v. Street U is 1 km north of Street V.
vi. Street W is 1/2 km north of Street X.
vii. Street W is 1 km south of Street Y.
121.'If W is parallel to U and W is 1/2 km south of V and 1 km north of T, then which two streets
would be 1 & 1/2 km apart ?
(A) U and W (B) V and S (C) V and T (D) W and V
122. Which of the following possibilities would make two streets coincide?
179
(A) X is 1/2 km north of U (B) P is 1 km west of Q

(C) Q is 1/2 km east of N (D) R is 1/2 km east of O
123. Street R is between O and P, then the distance between P and Q is

(A) 1/2 km (B) 1 km (C) 1.5 km (D) 1.25 km
124. R is between O and P, then which of the following is false?

(A) Q is 1.75 km west of N (B) P is less than 1 km from Q
(C) R is less than 1 km from N (D) Q is less than 1 km from O
125. Which of the following is necessarily true?

(A) R and O intersect (B) Q is 2 km west of O
(C) Y is 1.5 km north of X (D) Q is at least 2 km west of N
Direction (Qs. 126 - 129) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
A family consists of six members H,I, J, K, L and M. There are two married couples. I is a doctor and
father of L. M is grandfather of J and is a contractor. K is grandmother of L and is a housewife. There
is one doctor, one contractor, one nurse, one housewife and two students in the family.
126. What is the profession of H ?

(A) Doctor (B) Student (C) Doctor or Nurse (D) Nurse
127. Who is the husband of H ?

(A) l (B) M (C) J (D) None of these
128. Which of the following are two married couples?

(A) LK, JM (B) MK, JH (C) MK, JH (D) MK, IL
129. Who is the sister of L?

(A) J (B) H (C) K (D) Information insufficient
130. If Saturday falls four days after today, which is 6th January, on what day did the 1st of December
of previous Year fall ?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D) Wednesday
131. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined when it is half past 8?
(A) 70⁰ (B) 80⁰ (C) 75⁰ (D) 60⁰
Direction (Qs. 1 32 - 135) : Find the missing numbers/letters in following series.
132. 3, 20, 63, 144, 275, ???

(A) 468 (B) 461 (C) 467 (D) 469
133. 113, ???, 164, 215, 283, 368

(A) 132 (B) 130 (C) 129 (D) 128
134. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, ?????, MQNRO

(A) LSJTL (B) JSKIT (C) JSKTL (D) LTSKY
135. Z1A, X2D, V6G, T21J, RB8M, ????

(A) P440P (B) N2670S (C) N2676S (D) P445P
Directions (Qs. 136 - 140) : A fact situation and result is presented. Numbered statements follow the
result. Each statement has to be separately evaluated in relation to the fact- situation and result'
180
Evaluate these statements with the following sequences of decisions in the order of a, b, c and d. The
first of these that you cannot eliminate is the correct answer.
(A) If the statement is inconsistent with, or contradicts, the fact situation, the result, or both together. If
so Choose (A).
(B) If the statement present a possible adequate explanation of the result.
(C) If the statement is deducible from something in the fact-situation, or the result, or both together.
(D) If the statement either supports or weakens a possible explanation of the result.
Situation: Major X, an able officer in the Kapistan Army, failed to receive a promotion for eight years.
Then he had been reassigned to a military supply depot in Khawalpindi, despite his university training in
engineering and electronics, and his remarkably high-performance ratings from his commanding officers.
X had never been an active member of any political party as a youth nor as an adult, yet neither had he
given the party or his superiors any cause to doubt his absolute loyalty to Kapistan. X's brother-in-law
had been a diplomat in the Kapistan government until his death in 1971 in a plane crash on Koviet soil
while he was working in the Kapistan Embassy in Kosco. X had always assumed that the mishap was
indeed an accident, until his friend Y, a middle-level officer in the lnterior Ministry, broadly hinted that the
plane crash had been an act of sabotage. Soon after the talk with Y, X visited his sister, the diplomat's
widow, in her Kosco apartment. During the visit she asked X several questions that struck him as strange
and inappropriate. As he was leaving her apartment, she asked X to wear her late husband's scarf and
to return to his hotel by way of a certain park. Bewildered, but not wishing to offend his sister, X obeyed
her odd instructions.
Result : Two months later, X received a promotion and was made Commander of the Kapistan missile
division in Kahore.
136. X's sister had arranged for her husband's fatal accident.
137. X's sister was an operative in the Kapistan Secret Police, and her husband had been acting as
a spy before his death.
138. X's promotion and reassignment to the Kosco Army Headquarters came as a result of Y's
recommendations.
139. For X, a missile base is a more highly prized assignment than a supply depot.
140. X's failure to win a promotion for eight years was the result of the clerical error in his records.
141. A die is rolled twice. What is the probability that sum of the numbers on the two faces is 5 ?
(A) 5/12 (B) 1/9 (C) 1/6 (D) 5/36
142. Twenty-five workers were employed to complete a compound wall in 12 days. Five workers left
after working for 4 days. The remaining 20 workers completed the work. In how many days the total
job was completed?
(A) 15 days (B) 16 days (C) 14 days (D) 18 days
143. In a garden, there are B rows and 10 columns of papaya trees. The distance between the two
trees is 2 metres and a distance of one metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The
length of the garden is
(A) 24 metres (B) 14 metres (C) 20 metres (D) 18 metres
144. A man can row 14 kmph in Still water. In the stream flowing with the speed of 10 km/h. He takes 4
hours to move with the stream and come back. Find the distance he rowed the boat.
(A) 11.71 km (B) 13.71 km (C) 14.71 km (D) 12.71 km
181
145. What will be the difference in simple and compound interest on Rs. 2, 000 after three years at
the rate of 10 percent per annum?
(A) Rs.60 (B) Rs.42 (C) Rs' 62 (D) Rs. 40
146. A man covers a certain distance between his house and office on a Scooter. Having an average
speed of 30 km/hr, he reaches office late by 10 minutes. However, with a speed of 40 km/hr, he
reaches his office 5 minutes earlier. The distance between his house and office is
(A) 30 km (B) 10 km (C) 20 km (D) 40 km
147. A box contains Rs, 56 in the form of coins of one rupee, 50 paisa and 25 paisa. The number of
50 paisa coins is double the number of 25 paisa coins and four times the number of one-rupee coins.
The number of 50 paisa coin in the box is
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 64
148. The price of 7 bananas is equal to the cost of 3 kiwis, the price of 2 kiwis is equal to the cost of 1
banana and 5 chikoos. if Rambo has just enough money to buy 30 chikoos, then how many bananas
Rambo could buy with the same amount ?
(A) 22 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 11
149. In a certain class, 72% of the students prefer cold coffee and 44% prefer fruit juice 'If each of them
prefers cold coffee or fruit juice and 48 likes both, the total number of students in the class is
(A) 240 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 250
150. The average price of 10 pens is Rs.12 while the average price of-8 of these pens is Rs.11.75. Of'
the remaining two pens, if the price of one pen is 60% more than the price of the other, what is the
price of each of these two pens?
(A) Rs. 12, Rs. 14 (B) Rs.5, Rs, 7.50 (C) Rs. 8, Rs. 12 (D) Rs. 10, Rs. 16
AILET 2016 Answers

1 D 31 D 61 D 91 D 121 A
2 C 32 A 62 D 92 D 122 D
3 B 33 B 63 A 93 A 123 D
4 D 34 C 64 C 94 A 124 B
5 B 35 B 65 C 95 B 125 C
6 A 36 C 66 D 96 D 126 D
7 C 37 A 67 A 97 A 127 A
8 B 38 B 68 C 98 D 128 B
9 C 39 C 69 D 99 D 129 D
10 D 40 D 70 B 100 C 130 B
11 C 41 C 71 C 101 B 131 C
12 A 42 A 72 D 102 A 132 A
13 C 43 D 73 A 103 C 133 B
14 D 44 B 74 B 104 D 134 C
15 A 45 C 75 A 105 C 135 D
182
16 B 46 C 76 D 106 A 136 D
17 B 47 D 77 B 107 A 137 B
18 B 48 B 78 A 108 D 138 A
19 C 49 A 79 D 109 C 139 C
20 D 50 D 80 B 110 B 140 B
21 D 51 B 81 D 111 A 141 B
22 A 52 C 82 D 112 C 142 C
23 C 53 B 83 B 113 B 143 D
24 B 54 B 84 B 114 D 144 B
25 A 55 A 85 B 115 C 145 C
26 C 56 A 86 B 116 D 146 A
27 C 57 D 87 D 117 C 147 D
28 B 58 C 88 B 118 A 148 A
29 B 59 D 89 D 119 B 149 C
30 A 60 D 90 C 120 C 150 D
AILET 2017
1. Cashed up, aspirational and a marketer’s dream, the hoi polloi are on the march, writes Bridie Smith.
Choose the antonym of the word hoi polloi.

(a) Middle class (b) Aristocracy (c) Masses (d) Working class
2. There’s a lot in life that can leave you nonplussed.
Choose the antonym of the word nonplussed.

(a) dumbfound (b) disconcert (c) astound (d) unperturbed
3. Stay away from the touristy Pioneer Square historic district and most of its cheeseball clubs, at least
on nights and weekends,
Choose the meaning of the word cheeseball.

(a) Expensive (b) Inferior in quality (c) Notorious (d) Stylish
4. It was marvellous to see how gingerly, the little beasts footed it in such places.
183
Choose the synonym of the word gingerly.

(a) roughly (b) assiduously (c) rashly (d) carelessly
5. She’s also an up-and-coming fiction writer with a penchant for the dark and surreal.
Choose the meaning of the word surreal.

(a) Bizarre (b) Haunting (c) Edgy (d) Satanic
Directions (Q.6 and Q.7): Match the ideas in (i) and (ii) by using the words in the brackets.
6 l. (even though) II. (with) III. (seeing that) IV. (even if)
(i) (ii)
I took my raincoat and umbrella
1 a ______ because David is its Captain
_______
I still won't be able to get to a ____despite a problem in digging the
2 b
meeting at 8.30 _____ foundations
The team is likely to do well in
3 c _______ as weather forecast was so bad
this season ______
The building work is still on
4 d _____ weather or not I catch an earlier train
schedule ______
(a) III-1-c, IV-2-d, II-3-a, I-4-b (b) I-1-c, II-2-d, III-3-a, IV-4-b
(c) I-2-d, III-4-b, II-3-a, IV-1-c (d) IV-3-a, III-2-b, II-4-c, I-1-d
7 l. (due to) II. (in order to) III. (in order that) IV. (so as to)
(i) (ii)
We have decided not to go on _______ because there had recently been
1 a
holiday this year ________ strike by postal workers.
The Council have planted trees at _______ to give Dave somewhere private to
2 b
the side of the road ______ study before his exams.
The Parcel has been delayed ________ because we want to save money for
3 c
_______ a new car.
We've put a table and chair in the
4 d ________ in an attempt to reduce traffic noise.
spare room
(a) I-1-a, II-2-b, III-3-c, IV-4-d (b) IV-1-a, III-2-b, II-3-c, I-4-d
(c) I-4-a, II-3-c, III-2-b, I-1-a (d) II-1-c, IV-2-d, I-3-a, III-4-b
Directions (Q.8 and Q.9): Complete the sentences on the right with appropriate compound
nouns related to the two-word verbs used in the sentences on the left.
8 l. (flashbacks) II. (Telling off) III. (hideout) IV. (downpour)

(i) (ii)
The teacher told me off for The children have a secret _______ at the
1 a
handing in my homework late. bottom of the garden.
My mind flashed back to the time I was caught in a sudden _______ and got
2 b
when I was living in Stolkholm. soaked through.
The escaped prisioners crept into

My father gave me a good _______ for
3 an old barn and hid out untill it c
knocking down his prize roses.
got dark.
184
The rain was pouring down as we There are number of _______ in the film to the
4 d
got out of the taxi. time before the robbery.
(a) I-1-a, II-2-b, III-3-c, IV-4-d (b) II-1-c, I-2-d, III-3-a, IV-4-b
(c) II-1-c, I-2-d, IV-3-a, III-4-b (d) I-4-d, II-3-c, III-2-b, IV-1-a
9 l. (setbacks) II. (Tip-offs) III. (passers-by) IV. (Upbringing)

(i) (ii)
The police were waiting for the
Harry had a very strict ______ and was glad to
1 theives. Someone must have a
move away from his parents.
tipped them off.
As I passed by her house, I could
The engine fault was the latest of several
2 see people dancing in the front b
_______ development of the car.
room.
We received several ________ that there
She was born and brought up in
3 c would be an attempted break-out at the
central London.
prision.
The injury has set back his
The man was learning out of the window,
4 chances of being fit to play in d
shouting at _____ in the street below.
their final.
(a) I-4-b, II-1-c, III-2-d, IV-3-a (b) II-3-c, III-2-b, IV-1-a, I-4-d
(c) II-1-c, I-2-d, IV-3-a, III-4-b (d) I-3-b, II-4-c, III-1-d, IV-2-a
Directions (Q. 10 and Q. 12) : Observe the following sentences where same word in different form is
used keeping the sense of the sentence same. in the following questions, the sentences have some
element of similarity. You have to find out the similarity and choose the option which is odd one out.
10.
(a) Such jokes do not give me any amusement.
Such jokes do not amuse me.
(b) He put up a brave fight.

He fought bravely.
(c) Her failure disappointed her.

She failed and it disappointed her.
(d) The boy gave a prompt answer.

The boy answered promptly.
11.
(a) Getting up he walked away.
He got up and walked away.
(b) Fortunately, nothing has happened.

It was fortunate that nothing has happened.
(c) You must take rest to get well.

You must take some rest otherwise you can’t get well.
185
(d) He made a promise. He kept it.

He not only made a promise but also kept it.
12.
(a) Mother said to Geeta, “Where are you going ?”
Mother asked Geeta where she was going’
(b) Radhika said, “Can you tell me how to reach there ?” “Yes”, said Ram’
Radhika asked if he could tell her how to reach there. Ram replied that he could.
(c) All could hear the mournful wails of his wife’

The mournful wails of his wife could be heard by all.
(d) she said to her husband, “Did you like my dance yesterday ?”
she asked her husband if he had liked her dance the last day.
Direction (Q. 13 and Q. l4) : Choose the sentence which is incorrect grammatically.
13.
(a) Sita is more intelligent and wise than Rita’
(b) The wisest man that ever lived made mistakes’
(c) I doubt if Ravi will come.
(d) The flowers smelt sweet.
14.
(a) I am looking forward to receiving your reply’
(b) Each boy and every girl was given rewards’
(c) L can run as fast, if Rot faster, than you’
(d) I can reproduce this lesson word for word’
Direction (Q. 15 – Q. 17) : choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
idiom/Phrase in the question.
15. Pell-mell
(a) In hurried disorder
(b) Gaiety and excitement
(c) Extremely worried
(d) None of these
16. To have one’s heart in one’s boots

(a) To get angry
(b) To be deeply depressed
(c) To be frightened
(d) To keep a secret
17. To give one’s ears

(a) To listen carefully
(b) To act in a foolish way
(c) To make a guess
(d) To make almost any sacrifice
Direction (Q.18 – Q.20) : Rearrange the given six sentences K, L, M, N, O and p in the proper sequence
so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions that follows.
(K). The subjugation or enslavement of the people and countries is fast becoming a thing of the past.
(L). Since then the progress in science and technology and in other branches of knowledge has resulted
in the betterment of the conditions of life in many countries.
(M). The industrial Revolution in England about the middle of the eighteenth century was history’s great
186
leap forward.
(N). All this is on credit of modern civilisation.
(O). society has been progressing and improving for thousands of years.
(P). The span of human life has been enlarged, the condition of the labouring classes in many countries
has improved, knowledge and education have made great strides, the treatment of children has become
more humane, feats of engineering have done wonders, democracy and freedom have been granted to
most countries of the world, and a very much larger percentage of people have become entitled to the
good things of life.
18. Which sentence should come fifth in the paragraph ?

(a) P (b) K (c) N (d) L
19. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph ?

(a) O (b) M (c) P (d) K
20. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph ?

(a) N (b) M (c) P (d) L
Direction (Q. 21 – Q. 24) : Find out the sentence/s which is/are written correctly.
a. Charles is a gifted footballer, but up to now he didn’t play well in international matches.
b. We’ve been staying with Paul and Jenny until last weekend.
c. He just heard the news and was rushing home to tell his family.
d. When I grow up I’m going to be an astronaut.
21. (a) a, d (b) c (c) d (d) b, c
a. Have you ever been to the opera when you lived in Milan ?
b. The man who broke the window wants to see you.
c. I won’t be able to meet you next week. I will stay in London for a few days.
d. d. My mother who is in her seventies enjoys hill walking.
22. (a) b, d (b) a, b, c (c) b (d) d
a. Applications have risen this year by as much as 50%.

b. There are a number of reasons I don’t like him, but his meanness is the main.
c. I felt confident to pass my driving test.
d. I haven’t got enough cash on me for paying the bill.
23. (a) a, d (b) b, c (c) d (d) a
a. Although they played well, but they never looked like winning.
b. Despite the snow was still falling heavily, she went out.
c. lf Schumacher were to win today he would become world champion.
d. She got low grades for her exams, therefore she had to retake them to get into
college.
24. (a) b, d (b) c (c) c, d (d) d
Direction (Q.25 – Q.35) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

Under a zero-hour contract, a party described as a casual worker’ has a contract with an employer, but
the contract may be of little benefit as its provisions do not (25_____) any obligation upon the employer to
offer work, and similarly, there is no obligation for the worker to accept it. A ‘casual worker is the correct
term to define workers who do not have (26____) hours of work but instead supply services on an irregular,
flexible basis when the employer needs them. A’ worker’ is not, therefore, an’ employee’. This is an
important distinction, as employees enjoy significantly better protection under the law.
Although workers do have basic rights, for example, the right to a national minimum (27____), the right
not to be unlawfully discriminated against and the right to sick pay, but they are denied other important
rights. For example, casual workers do not have the same rights when it comes to issues such as maternity
187
or paternity pay, (28____) pay in the event that there is not enough work available and the right not to be
unfairly (29___). These contracts are very unpopular with trade unions, who argue that employers are
using this type of contract as a way of denying workers the benefits which they would otherwise be entitled
to under current employment (30___)
As a result of public criticism, the Eurona government held an independent review to analyse the use of
these contracts. In June 2016, Eurona Business Secretary, Zoro, concluded that zero-hour contracts were
not to be declared (31 __), as he considered that many groups of people benefited from them. However,
he did change the law in order to prevent employers from banning casual workers from working elsewhere
when bound by a zero-hour contract. This is not the encl of the story, however. The use of zero-hour
contracts is extremely popular in the food and retail (32 _) of the Eurona economy. For example,
McDonald’s and Burger King have recently disclosed that they use this type of contract for over 80% of
their workers in the Eurona and another high-street giant, Sports Direct, has admitted that 90% of its
workers are under this type of contract. However, the latter (33 _) a legal challenge in November 2016
when Tera Phera filed a claim against the company in a Eurona Employment Tribunal. Tera Phera claimed
that although she was contracted as a casual worker for Sports Direct, she had the same responsibilities
and duties as an employee but without receiving the benefits of an employee. A (34 _) was reached
according to which Sports Direct is now required at the time of advertising for future zero-hours staff to
expressly state that the role does not (35___) work. The company must also produce clear written policies
setting out what sick pay and paid holiday their zero-hours staff are entitled to.
25. (a) impose (b) compel (c) force (d) impress

26. (a) fixed (b) secure (c) firm (d) stable
27. (a) salary (b) wage (c) earnings (d) remuneration
28. (a) let go (b) redundancy (c) termination (d) release
29. (a) dismissed (b) discharged (c) terminated (d) laid off
30. (a) statutes (b) codes (c) legislations (d) acts
31. (a) unlawful (b) illegal (c) illegitimate (d) felonious
32. (a) zones (b) regions (c) sectors (d) areas
33. (a) suffered (b) bore (c) endured (d) faced
34. (a) agreement (b) settlement (c) Deal (d) Decision
35. (a) provide (b) entitle (c) guarantee (d) offer
SECTION B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

36. Which country recently decided to quit commonwealth group ?
(a) Maldives (b) Fiji (c) Nigeria (d) Zimbabwe
37. The official mascot of the 2018 FIFA World cup is ____who wears ____ .
(a) Zabivaka, glasses (b) Willie, glasses
(c) Zaumi, Russia’s kit (d) Zabivaka, flag of Russia
38. In India, three women had held the post of Deputy Governor of RBI Which of the following is not
amongst them ?
(a) K.J. Udeshi (b) Usha Thorat (c) Dr. lsher J. Ahluwalia (d) Shyamala Gopinath
39. ______ World’s largest refugee camp, which was in news recently, is located in ____.
(a) Dadaab, Kenya (b) Zaalari, Syria (c) Yida, Sudan (d) Katumba, Tanzania
40. “Greenmail” is a type of

(a) Currency Manipulation (b) Takeover Defence
(c) Corporate Communication (d) Eco- friendly device
41. Which of the following labels are not owned by Yum Brands ?
(a) KFC (b) Pizza Hut (c) Burger King (d) Taco Bell
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42. ____ has become the first bank in India to introduce software robotics in power banking.
(a) HDFC (b) ICICI (c) SBI (d) Yes Bank
43. _____ is not a component of the Li Keqiang Index.

(a) Bank Loans (b) Export (c) Electricity Consumption (d) Railway freight
44. Train travel insurance in India is available at a premium of ____ with effect from October7,2016.
(a) 1 rupee (b) 2 rupees (c) 92 paisa (d) 1 Paisa
45. Which of the following banks overtook Wells Fargo as the most valuable bank in USA ?
(a) J.S. Morgan Chase (b) HSBC (c) Citigroup (d) Bank of America
46. Nobel Prize in Economics for 2016 has been given to Oliver Hart and Bengt Holmstrom for their
contribution to
(a) Contract Theory (b) Imperfect Competition
(c) Game theory (d) Limitations on state intervention in market economy
47. Why a small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form
?
(a) It kills bacteria (b) It kills germs and spores
(c) It absorbs moisture (d) It acts as a preservative
48. The Union Government has decided to withdraw the benefit of subsidised LPG to the customers
having income above
(a) Rs. 7.5 lakh (b) Rs. 10 lakh (c) Rs. 12.5 lakh (d) Rs. 15 lakh
49. What is beaufort Scale ?

(a) Scale to measure wind speed (b) Scale to measure ocean waves
(c) Scale to measure sound waves (d) Scale to measure depth
50. Navtej Sarna who was appointed as an Ambassador of _____ was Ambassador of ____ earlier.
(a) Canada, Israel (b) USA, Israel (c) USA, Canada (d) USA, France
51. What is the primary objective of the Governments in opting for deliberate devaluation of currency ?
(a) Boosts import (b) Boosts Internal Trade (c) Boosts exports (d) Increase gold reserves
52. ______ for States and _____for Union Territories is the new limit of flexible fund decided by the
government in the Centrally Sponsored Schemes in order to give more freedom of operation in these
schemes.
(a) 25%, 30% (b) 20%, 30% (c) 10%,35% (d) 50%, 20%
53. Which of the following banks recently designated P. V. Sindhu and K. Srikanth as brand
ambassadors ?
(a) Canara Bank (b) SBI (c) PNB (d) Bank of Baroda
54. Which of the following are optical illusions ?

(a) Twinkle of stars in the sky (b) Rainbow (c) Auroras (d) All of these
55. Which of the following are Nocturnal in nature ?

(a) Kiwi (b) Red Panda (c) Catfish (d) All of these
56. ____ is the World’s lightest material developed by ISRO scientists.

(a) Silica Aerogel (b) Carbon Aerogel (c) Graphite Aerogel (d) Fiberol
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57. Wi -Fi uses ____ in order to transmit data whereas Li – Fi uses_____ in order to transmit data.
(a) radio waves, laser (b) radio waves, visible light
(c) electromagnetic waves, laser (d) infrared rays, radio waves
58. _____ is used for constructing filament of the World s thinnest light bulb ?
(a) Graphite (b) Graphene (c) Carbon (d) Tungsten
59. Which of the following companies has hired World’s first robot lawyer ROSS to assist its various
teams in legal research ?
(a) Davis Polk and Wardwell (b) Cravath, Swaine and Moore
(c) Baker Hostetler (d) Latham and Watkins
60. ____ has invited India to join in developing next-generation nuclear reactors and also to participate in
its fast reactor research project known as MBIR.
(a) Russia (b) US (c) China (d) UK
61. The scientists from ______ have developed a catalyst to render the drinking water E. Coli free.
(a) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (b) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
(c) National Chemical Laboratory (d) Indian Institute of Sciences
62. India has launched its latest communication satellite GSAT – 18 from
(a) Turkey (b) French Guiana (c) Russia (d) Japan
63. In which country the World’s first baby was born from a new procedure that combines the DNA of
three people ?
(a) Canada (b) England (c) Australia (d) US
64. International Day of Happiness is observed on _____ and ______ is adjudged as the happiest
country in the World in World Happiness Report 2017 released by UN.
(a) March 20, Denmark (b) March 20, Norway
(c) March 20, Switzerland (d) March 20, Iceland
65. Which of the following seas of Antarctica has been declared as world’s largest marine protected area
?
(a) Amundsen Sea (b) Bellingshausen Sea (c) Weddell Sea (d) Ross Sea
66. Ms._____ from ______ has been crowned Miss International 2019.
(a) Mariem Velazco, Venezuela (b) Sireethorn Leearamwat Thailand
(c) Kevin Lilliana Junaedy, Indonesia (d) Kylie Verzosa, Philippines
67. _____ has developed the concept of Human Development Index in .

(a) Mehboob-ul-Haq, 1990 (b) Avinash Dixit, 1999
(c) Jagdish Bhagwati, 1980 (d) AmartyaSen, 1970
68. The position of the Earth in its orbit, when it is at its greatest distance from the Sun causing summer
in the Northern Hemisphere is
(a) Apogee (b) Perigee (c) Aphelion (d) Perihelion
69. India won _____ medals in 2017 Special Olympics World Winter Games held in Austria.
(a) 73 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 63
70. Recently a huge Dead Zone is discovered in

(a) Gulf of Mexico (b) Bay of Bengal (c) Coasts of Namibia (d) Baltic Sea
SECTION – C : LEGAL APTITUDE
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Directions (Q. 71 – Q. 79): Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation.
Legal Principle: Contract is an agreement freely entered into between the parties. But when consent to
an agreement is obtained by undue influence, the contract is voidable at the option of the party whose
consent was so obtained.
Factual Situation: The Pragya had been worked for a business man Anurag since the age of 18, working
for a range of Anurag’s businesses. In 2000, (aged 21) Pragya purchased a flat. In 2005, Mr. Anurag’s
business was facing financial difficulties, and he asked Pragya to offer up her flat as financial security
against an overdraft facility for the business. In July of that year, the banks solicitors wrote to Pragya,
advising that she should take independent Legal advice before putting her property up as a security for
the debt. The bank also notified Praqya that the guarantee was unlimited in both time and financial amount.
Having discussed the arrangement with Anurag, Pragya was unaware of the extent of the borrowing, but
was assured that her mortgage would not be called upon, and that his own properties which were also
used as security would be looked at first. A charge was executed over the Pragya’s property in August
2005. In 2009, Mr Anurag s business went into liquidation and the bank formally demanded Rs. 60,24,912
from Pragya Pragya raised the defence of undue influence – stating that Mr. Anurag had induced her to
enter into the agreement, and the bank had full knowledge/notice of this undue influence which should set
aside the banks right to enforce the debt recovery against Pragya. Bank is contending that there is no
undue influence.
71. Whether the consent to offer the flat as financial security obtained through undue influence ?
(a) No because Pragya was not forced by Anurag to offer her flat as a security.
(b) No, because Pragya was an educated and adult employee of Anurag and she knew what she was
doing.
(c) Yes an employer/employee relationship was capable of developing into such a relationship for undue
influence. There was no benefit to Pragya in the agreement. The lack of benefit to one party was
evidence enough.
(d) No, an employer/employee relationship is not capable of developing into a relationship for undue
influence.
72. Irrespective of your answer to Q. 71, assume it is a case of undue influence. Decide whether the
bank has done enough to allay concerns of undue influence ?
(a) The bank had not made all reasonable steps to allay themselves of the concerns regarding undue
influence. The fact that, on advice from the bank, the defendant did not seek independent advice, should
have been taken as confirmation of undue influence. .
(b) Yes, the Bank has advised Pragya that she should take independent legal advice before putting her
property up as security for the debt.
(c) Pragya has a duty to be aware of the consequences of her act.
(d) Bank has done enough as it had notified Pragya that the guarantee was unlimited in both time and
financial amount.
73. Legal Principle: The acceptance must be absolute and unqualified, leaving no ground for doubt or
uncertainty. If the acceptance is conditional, no valid contract is formed, and the offer can be withdrawn at
any moment till the absolute acceptance has taken place within reasonable time of such offer.
Factual Situation: Delhi Government conducted an auction for the sale of license of wine shop. X offered
the highest bid which was provisionally accepted “…subject to the confirmation of Chief Commissioner
who may reject any bid without assigning any reasons.” Since X failed to deposit the required amount,
Chief Commissioner rejected the bid. The government held X liable for the difference between the bid
offered by him and the highest bid accepted in re-auction, and commenced proceedings for the recovery
of the sum. It was contended on behalf of the government of Delhi that X was under a legal obligation to
pay the difference as it was due to his default that a resale of the excise shop was ordered and hence X
was liable for the deficiency in price and all expenses of such resale which was caused by his default.
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Decide, giving reason, whether X is liable to make payment to the Delhi Government.
(a) No, X is not liable to make payment as the shop was sold to the highest bidder.
(b) X is liable to pay because the Government of Delhi has to conduct re-auction and also suffered loss in
the sale of the shop.
(c) X is liable because his bid was accepted but he failed to deposit the required amount on time.
(d) No, contract for sale was not complete till the bid was confirmed by the Chief Commissioner and till
such confirmation; the bidder was entitled to withdraw the bid.
74. Legal Principle: Employers/Principles are vicariously liable, under the respondeat superior doctrine,
for negligent acts or omissions by their employees/agents in the course of employment/agency. A
servant/agent may be defined as any person employed by another to do work for him on the terms that
he, the servant/agent, is to be subject to the control and directions of his employer/principal in respect of
the manner in which his work is to be done.
Factual Situation: A motor car was owned by and registered and insured in the name of A (wife) but was
regarded by her and her husband (B) as “our car.” B used it to go to work, and A for shopping at the
weekends. B told A that if ever he was drunk and unfit to drive through, he would get a sober friend to
drive him or else telephone her to come and fetch him. On the day in question the husband telephoned
the wife after work and told her that he was going out with friends. He visited a number of public houses
and had drinks. At some stage, he realised that he was unable to drive safely and asked a friend, C, to
drive. C drove them to other public houses. After the last had been visited C offered the three friends (X,
Y and Z) a lift and they got in, together with B who was in a soporific condition. C then proceeded, at his
own suggestion, to drive in a direction away from the B’s home to have a meal. On the way, due to C’s
negligent driving, an accident occurred in which both B and C were killed and the other friends got injured.
X, Y and Z brought an action against the wife both in her personal capacity and as administratrix of the
husband’s estate. Decide whether A is liable.
Decision:
(a) Yes, she was vicariously liable for the negligent driving of C as the principle of vicarious liability was to
put responsibility on to the person, namely, in the case of a motor car, the owner, who ought in justice to
bear it, and that in the case of a “family car” the owner was responsible for the use of it by the other spouse.
(b) No, C had not been the wife’s agent in driving the husband about as he had been doing at the time of
the accident. To fix vicarious liability on the owner of a motor car in a case such as the present, it must be
shown that the driver was using it for the owner’s purposes under delegation of a task or duty.
(c) No, because this is a case of volenti non fit injuria as X, Y and Z voluntarily took the lift knowing that C
was also drunk.
(d) No, because C was not employed by A to drive her husband back to the home on the day of accident.
75. Legal Principle:

1. Battery is the intentional causation of harmful or offensive contact with another’s person without that
person’s consent.
2. When lawfully exercising power of arrest or some other statutory power a police officer had greater
rights than an ordinary citizen to restrain another.
Factual Situation: Two police officers on duty in a police car observed two women in the street who
appeared to be soliciting for the purpose of prostitution. One of the women was known to the police as a
prostitute but the other, X, was not a known prostitute. When the police officers requested X to get into the
car for questioning, she refused to do so and instead walked away from the car. One of the officers, a
policewoman, got out of the car and followed X in order to question her regarding her identity and conduct
and to caution her, if she was suspected of being a prostitute, in accordance with the approved police
procedure for administering cautions for suspicious behaviour before charging a woman with being a
prostitute. X refused to speak to the policewoman and walked away, whereupon the policewoman took
hold of X’s arm to detain her. X then swore at the policewoman and scratched the officer’s arm with her
fingernails. X was convicted of assaulting a police officer in the execution of her duty. She appealed against
the conviction, contending that when the assault occurred the officer was not exercising her power of arrest
and was acting beyond the scope of her duty in detaining X by taking hold of her arm. The police contended
that the officer was acting in the execution of her duty when the assault occurred because the officer had
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good cause to detain X for the purpose of questioning her to see whether a caution for suspicious
behaviour should be administered. Decide whether the police officer is liable for battery.
Decision:
(a) X is liable for trespass on the person of a police officer while performing her official duty.
(b) The policewoman had not been exercising her power of arrest when she detained X, and since in taking
hold of the appellant’s arm to detain her the policewoman’s conduct went beyond acceptable lawful
physical contact between two citizens, hence the officer’s act constituted a battery on X and that she had
not been acting in the execution of her duty when the assault occurred.
(c) The fact that the reason the police officer detained X was to caution her regarding her suspicious
behaviour render the officer’s conduct lawful if in detaining her she used a degree of physical contact that
went beyond lawful physical contact as between two ordinary citizens.
(d) The police officer was on duty and performing her duty in the regular course of the work so is not liable
for battery.

1. A careless person becomes liable for his negligence when he owed a duty of care to others.
2. Volenti non fit injuria is defence to negligence.
Factual Situation: K was a friend of L and was teaching her to drive. Prior to such an arrangement K
had sought assurances from L that appropriate insurance had been purchased in the event of accident.
On the third day, L was executing a simple manoeuvre at slow speed when she panicked which resulted
in the car crashing into a lamp-post injuring K. L was subsequently convicted of driving without due care
and attention. L denied liability to pay compensation to K on the ground of volenti non fit injuria and also
that she was just learning to drive and was not in complete control of the vehicle.
Decision:
(a) L is liable as the defence of volenti non fit injuria was not applicable. Secondly, that the duty of care
owed by a learner driver to the public (including passengers) was to be measured against the same
standard that would be applied to any other driver.
(b) L is not liable as K voluntarily accompanied her.
(c) L is not liable as she is just learning to drive and duty of care rests upon the instructor.
(d) L is not liable as a learner driver do not owe a duty of care towards public in general and towards the
passenger in specific.
77. Legal Principle: Article 19(1) (d) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the right to
move freely throughout the territory of India. But at the same time, Article 19(5) empowers the State to
impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of movement on the ground of interest of general public.
Factual Situation: Wearing of helmet is made compulsory for all two-wheeler riders by a law enacted by
the State. The constitutionality of the law is questioned before the High Court on the ground that it
violates Article 19(1)(d) of the petitioner. Will the petitioner succeed ?
Decision:
(a) Yes, because the restriction is not reasonable and no interest of general public is protected by this
law.
(b) No, because the restriction is reasonable as it intends to protect interest of general public by
preventing loss of lives of citizen of India.
(c) Yes, because freedom of movement is a fundamental right of every citizen of India and the State
cannot take it away by way of legislation but has to amend the Constitution to take away the fundamental
rights.
(d) No, because the freedom of movement will not be violated by the impugned legislation.
78. Legal Principle : An unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over
or in connection with it is a nuisance in tort. The fact that the plaintiff “came to the nuisance” by knowingly
acquiring property in the vicinity of the defendant’s premises is not a defence to nuisance. However, an
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act cannot be a nuisance if it is imperatively demanded by public convenience. Thus, when the public
welfare requires it, a nuisance may be permitted for special purposes.
Factual Situation: D owned and occupied an estate about two miles from RAF Wittering, an operational
and training base for Harrier Jump Jets. D claimed that they suffered severe noise disturbance every time
the Harrier pilots carried out training circuits: an average of 70 times a day. D alleged that the noise
nuisance constituted a very serious interference with their enjoyment of their land. D instituted judicial
proceedings against the defendants, the Ministry of Defence (MoD), damages amounting to
Rs.1,00,00,000.
The MoD denied liability and raised defence that the Harrier training was undertaken for the public benefit
and that they had prescriptive right over the land as D had bought their property at a time when RAF
Wittering was already established so he cannot claim compensation as he already knew about existence
of RAF Wittering near his property.
Decision :
(a) D is not entitled to compensation as the training of pilots is a public welfare activity.
(b) The Harrier training is not an ordinary use of land and that although there was a public benefit to the
continued training of Harrier pilots, D should not be required to bear the cost of the public benefit.
(c) D is not entitled to compensation as his property is two miles away from the training base.
(d) D will not get compensation as the training activity does not amount to nuisance and D had full
knowledge about the training activities when he purchased the land.

1. Negligence is the absence of care on the part of one party which results in some damage to the other
party.
2. Generally, a person is under no duty to control another to prevent his doing damage to a third party.
3. The foreseeability test basically asks whether the person causing the injury should have reasonably
foreseen the general consequences that would result because of his or her conduct.
4. Statutory authority implies that an act is done by a person to fulfil his duty imposed by the State.
Statutory authority is a valid defence under the law of torts.
Factual Situation: Ten borstal trainees were working on an island in a harbour in the custody and under
the control of three officers. During the night, seven of them escaped. It was claimed that at the time of the
escape the officers had retired to bed. The seven got on board a yacht, moored off the island and set it in
motion. They collided with another yacht, the property of X and damaged it. X sued the Home office for
the amount of the damage. Decide whether on the facts pleaded in the statement of claim the Home Office,
its servants or agents owed any duty of care to X capable of giving rise to a liability in damages with respect
to the detention of persons undergoing sentences of borstal training or with respect to the manner in which
such persons were treated, employed, disciplined, controlled or supervised whilst undergoing such
sentences.
Decision:
(a) The Home office is not liable as they are performing statutory duty and has immunity from liability in
negligence.
(b) The trainees are liable and not the Home Officers as the injury to X’s property could not be reasonably
foreseen by the officers.
(c) The fact that the immediate damage to the property of X was caused by the acts of third persons, the
trainees, prevent the existence of a duty on the part of the officers towards X.
(d) The taking by the trainees of the nearby yacht and the causing of damage to the other yacht which
belonged to X ought to have been foreseen by the borstal officers as likely to occur if they failed to exercise
proper control or supervision; in the particular circumstances, the officer’s prima facie owed a duty of care
to X.
Directions (Q. 80 – Q. 86): The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as
‘Assertion’ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes
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given below.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true
80. Assertion (A): The framers of the Indian Constitution were keen to preserve the democratic values
to which Indians had attached the highest importance in their struggle for freedom.
Reason (R): The Constitution describes India as a Union of States, thereby implying the indestructible
nature of its unity.
81. Assertion (A) : The “basic features” of the Constitution cannot be amended by exercising the power
of Amendment under Article 368.
Reason (R) : Though Fundamental Rights, as such are not immune from Amendment en bloc, particular
Rights or Parts thereof may be held as “basic feature.”
82. Assertion (A) : Legislations which gives a wide power to the executive to select cases for special
treatment, without indicating the policy, may be set aside as violative of equality.
Reason (R): Article 14 of the Constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality
before law or equal protection of laws within the territory of India.
83. Assertion (A) : If the Constitution is flexible it may be playing at the whims and caprices of the ruling
party.
Reason (R): The framers of the Indian Constitution were keen to avoid excessive rigidity.
84. Assertion (A): A person suffering from AIDS can be restricted in his movements by law.
Reason (R): Where policy is laid down, discretion is not of reasonableness.
85. Assertion (A) : If a convict is prepared to give an interview to journalists and video-graphers, the
facility should be allowed to the latter.
Reason (R) : Position of a person sentenced to death is not inferior to that of a citizen.
86. Assertion (A): A files a false and frivolous civil suit against B and B wins the case, he cannot file
another civil suit for damages and costs.
Reason (R): In a civil suit, damage of reputation is absent because the action is tried in public and if
person wins his case then his reputation will be re-established.
87. A minority community may reserve up to _____ seats for members of its own community in an
educational institution established and administered by it even if the institution receives aid from the
State.
(a) 50% (b) 40% (c) 33% (d) 27%
88. After Delhi and Goa, which is the third Indian State to have child – friendly court ?
(a) West Bengal (b) Karnataka (c) Telangana (d) Tamil Nadu
89. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Constitution (One Hundred and First
Amendment) Act, 2016 ?
I. GST Act is a comprehensive direct tax on manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services
throughout India.
II. The Act will transform India into a common market, harmonising myriads of State and Central levies
into a national goods and services tax which is expected to boost manufacturing and reduce corruption.
III. It provides for Constitution of a Goods and Services Tax Council by inserting Article 297A in the
Constitution.
IV. GST will be based on input tax credit method.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) All of the above
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90. Central Vigilance Commissioner shall hold office for a term of ______years from the date on which
he enters upon his office.
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
91. In Youth Bar Association V. Union of India, the Supreme Court directed to upload copies of FIR
within______ hours on police website.
(a) 48 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48 – 72
92. India’s first court-annexed mediation centre was established in

(a) Delhi (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Chennai (d) Karnataka
93. Which is the first country to allow voting through mobile phones ?
(a) Estonia (b) Finland (c) France (d) Germany
94. All students graduating from academic year______ onwards need to clear the All India Bar
Examination in order to practice law in India.
(a) 2007-08 (b) 2009- 10 (c) 2008 – 09 (d) 2010-11
95. “The people have a right, an inalienable, indisputable, indefeasible, divine right to that most dreaded
and envied kind of knowledge – I mean, of the character and conduct of their rulers.” Who said this ?
(a) Abraham Lincoln (b) John Adams (c) Martin Luther (d) Mahatma Gandhi
96. John Doe order in India is known as

(a) Ashok Kumar Order (b) DMCA Order (c) Take Down Order (d) Injunction
97. In 2016, the Supreme Court has clarified that the “Third Gender” will include(s)
(a) Transgender (b) Gays and Lesbians (c) Bisexuals (d) All of these
98. New Zealand Government has granted legal status of a person to a ____ after a legal battle of 140
years.
(a) National Park (b) Tree (c) Mountain (d) River
99. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India authorize the Chief Justice of India to
request a retired Judge to join the Supreme Court ?
(a) 129 (b) 128 (c) 127 (d) 126
100. The ‘Public Trust’ the doctrine is related to

(a) Charitable Institution (b) Environment (c) Journalism (d) Public Offices
101. The Delhi High Court has asked Facebook to ban children below______ years of age from creating
an account.
(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 16 (d) 18
102. Which one of the following decided to set up a website, which will compare the World’s
Constitutions by themes online “to arm drafters with a better tool for Constitution design and writing” ?
(a) UN (b) Google (c) Microsoft (d) Amnesty
103. Mental Health Care Bill 2016 seeks to

1. Decriminalise suicide
2. Prohibit electro-convulsive therapy
3. Provide right to make Advance Directives
4. Provide for seclusion and solitary confinement in few cases
(a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) All of the above
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104. What is the new minimum wage of non-agricultural, unskilled workers of the Central Government as
announced by the Union Government on August 30, 2016 ?
(a) Rs. 350 per day (b) Rs. 250 per day (c) Rs. 246 per day (d) Rs. 400 per day
105. Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Bill, 2016 provides ______ weeks of full paid maternity leave to
women who work in organised sector.
(a) 12 (b) 26 (c) 24 (d) 32
SECTION – D : REASONING
Directions (Q. 106 – Q. 108): Read the following case and answer the questions.
Sakshi is the Vice-President in an electrical equipment company in Delhi. One day, her subordinate
Bhaskar requested that Kishen, a project manager, be transferred to the Mumbai office from the Delhi
office. In Mumbai, Kishen would work alone as a researcher. Bhaskar gave the following reasons for his
request “Kishen is known for fighting frequently with colleagues of his team. He cannot accept criticism
and feels rejected and get hostile. He is overbearing and is generally a bad influence on the team.”
Sakshi called upon Samir, another project manager and sought further information on Kishen. Samir
recalled that a former colleague, Lalit (who was also Kishen’s former boss) has made few remarks on
Kishen in his appraisal report. In his opinion, Kishen was not fit for further promotion as he was emotionally
unstable to work in groups in spite of the fact that he had seven years of work experience. Lalit has
described Kishen as too authoritative to work under anyone. Lalit has further told Samir that Kishen had
an ailing wife and an old mother, who does not want to stay with his wife.
Consider the following solutions to the problem mentioned above

I. Sakshi should transfer Kishen to Mumbai office.
II. Sakshi should try and verify the facts from other sources as well.
III. Kishen should be sacked.
IV. Kishen should be demoted.
V. Sakshi should suggest Kishen to visit a family counsellor.
106. Which of the following would be the most appropriate sequence of decisions in terms of immediacy
starting from immediate to a long term solution ?
(a) II, V, I (b) II, III, IV (c) II, V, IV (d) II, I, V
107. Sakshi sought an appointment with Lalit to find out ways to help Kishen. Lalit is of the view that the
company’s responsibility is restricted to the workplace and it should not try to address the personal
problems of employees. If Sakshi has to agree to Lalit’s view, which of the solutions presented in the
previous question would be weakened ?
(a) Only III (b) Only IV (c) Only V (d) Only II
108. Which of the following statements, if true would weaken the decision to sack Kishen the most ?
(a) Another article published in the magazine, Caventers Quaterly , highlighted that employee’s problem
at home affect their performance at work.
(b) In the latest issue of a reputed Journal, Xanders Business Review, it was published that most top
managers, find it difficult to work in a group.
(c) It was published in Santers Management Review, another reputed Journal that individuals who
cannot work in teams find it difficult to adjust to a new location.
(d) Bhaskar was of the opinion that emotionally unstable persons, find it difficult to get back to normal
working life.
Directions (Q. 109 – Q. 113): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular
rule in each step. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement.
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Input – Diksha cannot but feel happy for him

Step I: but cannot Diksha happy feel him for
Step II: cannot but feel happy Diksha for him
Step III: but cannot happy feel him for Diksha
Step IV : happy cannot but him feel Diksha for
and so on for subsequent steps. You have to find out the logic and answer the questions given below.
109. If Step V read “weeks of tepid slothful and weak ideas”, then what would be Step IV read ?
(a) ideas and tepid weeks of weak slothful (b) of weeks and slothful tepid ideas weak
(c) ideas weeks and tepid of weak slothful (d) none of these
110. If Step I read “it was the name bestowed upon him”, then what would be the arrangement for Step
VII ?
(a) it was him the name bestowed upon (b) upon the him was it bestowed name
(c) bestowed it was the name upon him (d) none of these
111. If Step VI reads “workers must take a stand against working”, then what will be the last word of Step
III ?
(a) must (b) take (c) a (d) none of these
112. If Step III reads “the best way of promoting our sports”, then what will be the arrangement of the
input ?
(a) best the sports way of our promoting (b) our promoting the best sports way of
(c) sports best the of way our promoting (d) of our best the way sports promoting
113. If the given input is “it is good approach with care”, then what will be Step IV ?
(a) care with a good approach is it (b) approach is a care good it with
(c) a good approach it is with care (d) with approach it is a good care
Direction (Q. 114 – Q. 118) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Nine players – G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O – have to be put in three teams. Each team will consist of
three players and each player will appear only once in a team. The teams must be arranged according to
the following conditions,
i. I and N must be in the same team.
ii. K and L must be in the same team.
iii. O and J cannot be in the same team.
iv. M must be in the second team.
v. Either J or M or both must be in the team with H.
114. Which of the following cannot be true ?

(a) M is in 1st team and H is in the 3rd (b) O is in 3rd team
(c) I is in 2nd team (d) H is in the 3rd team
115. All of the following could be in the same team as K, except

(a) G (b) J (c) I (d) M
116. If J and K are in the 3rd team, which of the following players must be in 2nd ?
(a) L (b) I (c) G (d) H
117. Which of the following players could be in a team together ?

(a) K, I, M (b) N, I, J (c) G, J, M (d) G,L,O
118. The 3rd team could consist of the following except

(a) G, H, J (b) K, L, J (c) K, L, O (d) G, I, J
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Direction (Q. 119 – Q. 122) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
A couple decided to organize a party and invited a few of their friends. Only the host and hostess were
sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table with three persons on each side. The pre-requisite of the
sitting arrangement was that each person must be seated so that at least on one side he/she has a person
of the opposite sex. Romeo is opposite to Sonakshi, who is not the hostess. Ruchir has a woman on his
right and is sitting opposite to a woman. Jia is sitting to the hostess’s right, next to Vikram. One person is
seated between Mahima and Rajni, who is not the hostess. The men were Romeo, Ruchir, Vikram and
Rajnikant while the women were Mahima, Rajni, Sonakshi and Jia.
119. The eighth person present, Rajnikant must be

I. The host
II. Seated to Sonakshi’s right
III. Seated opposite to Rajni
(a) Only III (b) I and II (c) Only I (d) Only II
120. If each person is placed directly opposite to his/her spouse, which of the following pairs must be
married ?
(a) Ruchir and Mahima (b) Rajni and Rajnikant
(c) Mahima and Vikram (d) Ruchir and Jia
121. Which of the following persons is definitely not seated next to a person of same sex ?
(a) Mahima (b) Sonakshi (c) Rajnikant (d) Romeo
122. If Ruchir would have exchanged his seat with a person sitting four places to his left, which of the
following would have been true after the exchange ?
I. No person of the opposite sex was seated between two persons of same sex
II. One side of the table consisted entirely of persons of the same sex
III. Either the host or the hostess changed their seats
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) I and II (d) II and III
123. Starting from a point M, Rohit walked 18 m towards South. He turned to his left and walked 25 m.
He then turned to his left and walked 25 m. Then he turned to his left and walked 18 m. He again turned
to his left and walked 35 m and reached a point P. What is the direction of P in respect of M ?
(a) North (b) East (c) West (d) South-East
124. Rashmi starts walking towards North. After walking 15 m she turns towards South. After walking 20
m, she turns towards East and walks 10 m. She then turns towards North and walks 5 m. How far is she
from her original position and in which direction ?
(a) 10 m, East (b) 10 m, West (c) 10 m, North (d) 10 m, South
125. Suraj reached the coffee shop 20 minutes before 8 : 50 h, and he came 30 minutes before Suman
who reached 40 minutes late. What was the scheduled time of meeting ?
(a) 8 : 05 h (b) 8 : 20 h (c) 8 : 09 h (d) 8 : 10 h
126. A bus for New Delhi leaves every two and half hour from Kashipur Bus Stand. An announcement
was made at the bus stand that the bus for New Delhi has left 40 minutes ago and the next bus will leave
at 18 h. At what time the announcement was made ?
(a) 16 : 10 h (b) 16 : 15 h (c) 17 : 05 h (d) 17:20h
127. If Kriti says, “Amrita’s father Amar is the only son of my father-in-law, Arjun.” Then how is Babita,
who is the sister of Amrita, related to Arjun ?
(a) Wife (b) Niece (c) Grand-daughter (d) Sister-in-law
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128. Marc is Robin’s mother’s father. Marc has three brothers. One of them has a grandson Anurag.
Krish is the son of Anurag. Krish is related to Robin as
(a) Uncle (b) Nephew (c) Brother (d) Cousin
129. ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B, ‘A – B’ means that A is the wife of B, ‘A x B’ means that A is the
brother of B and ‘A ÷ B’ means that A is the daughter of B. If ‘S ÷ T x U + Z’, which of the following is true?
(a) S is the daughter of U (b) Z is the aunt of S
(c) S is the aunt of Z (d) S and Z are cousins
Direction (Q. 130 and Q. 131): Select the odd one out.
130. (a) ZYAB (b) TSGH (c) ONLM (d) UTFH

131. (a) JIHG (b) RQPO (c) WXUV (d) UTSR
Direction (Q. 132 and Q. 133): Find out the wrong number.
132. 5, 7.5,11.25, 17.5, 29.75, 50, 91.25
(a) 29.75 (b) 17.5 (c) 91.25 (d) 50
133. 10,13,26,37,51,85,154
(a) 154 (b) 51 (c) 26 (d) 13
Direction (Q. 134 and Q. 135): Find out the missing number/words.
134. ST39, UV43, WX47, ?
(a) YZ47 (b) YZ52 (c) YZ51 (d) YZ50
135. 13(168) 13,14(181) 13,15(7) 13

(a) 196 (b) 195 (c) 190 (d) 194
Directions (Q. 136 – Q. 140): Read the following short passages and choose the best answers to the
questions that follow each passage.
136. Columnist: Senators who are not firmly committed to a core set of beliefs will formulate new
campaign strategies and moot points before each upcoming election. Senators are elected to serve
multiple terms in office only if they formulate new campaign strategies and moot points before each
upcoming election. Therefore, senators who are not firmly committed to a core set of beliefs are elected
to serve multiple terms in office.
Which one of the following displays a flawed pattern of reasoning most closely parallel to that in the
columnist’s argument ?
(a) Nuclear proliferation will accelerate only if there is widespread access to fissile material. Widespread
access to fissile material goes hand in glove with increased regional instability. Therefore, nuclear
proliferation will not accelerate unless there is an increase in regional instability.
(b) If health care costs continue to rise, foreign currency markets will devalue the Euro. But health care
costs will not continue to rise. Therefore, foreign currency markets will not devalue the Euro.
(c) A loyal person is a likeable person, for a loyal person always stands by her friends and a likeable person
also always stands by her friends.
(d) A well-constructed house includes code-compliant framing, wiring, and insulation. A house is
marketable only if it is well-constructed. Therefore, a marketable house includes code-compliant framing,
wiring, and insulation.
137. Cuisine from the north of China is one of the most popular kinds of food in India. But this is not the
case for Southern Chinese cuisine. In fact, in a recent survey, Southern Chinese cuisine was voted one
of the least popular styles of cooking in the country.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox described above ?
(a) Southern Chinese cuisine frequently incorporates obscure ingredients that are difficult to locate, while
200
the ingredients necessary to prepare Northern Chinese cuisine are easily found in most Indian grocery
stores.
(b) Immigrants from all parts of China brought their local cuisines with them when they came to India in
great numbers in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
(c) Northern Chinese cuisine has recently become more popular in India than the Italian cuisine, which
for many years was this country’s favourite international food.
(d) Northern Chinese cuisine is more time consuming and labour intensive to prepare than Southern
Chinese cuisine.
138. A growing number of ecologists have begun to recommend lifting the ban on the hunting of leopards,
which are not an endangered species, and on the international trade of leopard’s skin. Why, then, do I
continue to support the protection of leopards ? For the same reason, that I oppose the hunting of people.
Admittedly, there are far too many human beings on this planet to qualify us for inclusion on the list of
endangered species. Still, I doubt the same ecologists endorsing the resumption of leopard hunting would
use that fact to recommend the hunting of human beings.
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument ?
(a) Human being might, in fact, be placed on the list of endangered species.
(b) Despite the growing number of ecologists supporting a repeal of the ban on leopard hunting, most will
still support it.
(c) The international ban on leopard hunting was instituted before leopards became an endangered
species.
(d) Leopards, now dangerously overpopulated, cannot be supported by their ecosystems.
139. Experts musicologists believe that Beethoven wrote his last piano sonata in 1824, three years before
his death. However, the manuscript of a piano sonata was recently discovered that bears Beethoven’s
name and dates from 1825. Clearly, the experts are mistaken because not every piece that Beethoven
wrote was catalogued in his lifetime, and it is known that Beethoven continued to compose until just weeks
before his death.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to which of the following criticisms ?
(a) That either of two things could have occurred independently is taken to show that those two things
could not have occurred simultaneously.
(b) An inconsistency that, as presented, has more than one possible resolution is treated as though only
one resolution is possible.
(c) Establishing that a certain event occurred is confused with having established the cause of that
event.
(d) A claim that has a very general application is based entirely on evidence from a narrowly restricted
range of cases.
140. Some people fear that our first extra-terrestrial visitors will not be the friendly aliens envisaged in
popular science fiction movies, but rather hostile invaders bent on global domination. This fear is
groundless. Any alien civilisation that makes it to our planet must have acquired the wisdom to control war,
or it would have destroyed itself long before contacting us.
The author bases the argument above on which of the following assumptions ?
(a) Our planet will have contact with extra-terrestrial visitors at some time in the future.
(b) Interstellar travel is unworkable except in a society much more technologically advanced than ours.
(c) A civilisation that has learned to control war on its own planet will not wage war on another.
(d) Alien civilisations are more morally advanced than those on Earth.
SECTION – E : MATHEMATICS
141. A garden is rectangular in shape. A sum of Rs. 1,000 was spent to make > the Hand usable at the
rate of 25 paisa per m2. The breadth of the garden is 50 m. If the length of the garden is increased by 20
201
m, what will be the expenditure in rupees for making the land usable, at the same rate per m2 ?
(a) Rs. 1,250 (b) Rs. 1,220 (c) Rs. 1,400 (d) Rs. 2,250
142. The sum of ages of a mother and daughter is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages
was four times the mother’s age at that time. The present age of the mother is
143. Today is Monday in a leap year. The day after 68 days will be
(a) Friday (b) Monday (c) Thursday (d) Saturday
144. A streamer goes downstream from one port to another in 4 hours. It covers the same distance
upstream in 5 hours. If the speed of stream is 2 km/h, the distance between the two ports is
(a) 80 km (b) 81 km (c) 70 km (d) 71 km
145. A train running at the rate of 40 km/h passes a man riding parallel to the railway line in the same
direction at 25 km/h in 48 seconds. Find the length of the tram in metres,
(a) 100 m (b) 200 m (c) 150 m (d) 250 m
146. Reema, Ruchi and Richa can make a painting in 15, 20 and 30 days, respectively. They undertake
to make a painting for Rs. 810. The share of Reema exceeds that of Ruchi by
(a) Rs. 91 (b) Rs. 92 (c) Rs. 90 (d) Rs. 89
147. Population of a city is 2,96,000 out of which 1,66,000 are males. 50% population is literate. If 70%
males are literate, then the number of women who are literate is
(a) 48,000 (b) 66,400 (c) 32,200 (d) 31,800
148. The average weight of 14 students was calculated as 71. But it was later found that the weight of
one student had been wrongly entered as 42 instead of 56 and of another as 74 instead of 32. The
correct average is
(a) 75 (b) 80 (c) 68 (d) 69
149. Four years ago, the ages of Ritu and Reena were in the ratio 5 : 61 respectively. Eight years from
now the respective ratio of their ages will be 8 : 9. What is the sum of their ages at present ?
150. A shirt was sold at a profit of 15%. If its cost had been 5% less and it had been sold for Rs. 21 less,
then the profit would have been 10%. Find the cost of the shirt.
(a) Rs. 210 (b) Rs. 220 (c) Rs. 100 (d) Rs. 200
AILET 2017 Answers

1 b 31 a 61 d 91 c 121 b
2 d 32 c 62 b 92 b 122 a
3 c 33 d 63 b 93 a 123 d
4 b 34 b 64 b 94 b 124 a
5 a 35 c 65 d 95 b 125 b
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6 a 36 a 66 b 96 a 126 a
7 d 37 a 67 a 97 a 127 c
8 b 38 c 68 c 98 d 128 b
9 a 39 a 69 a 99 b 129 d
10 d 40 b 70 b 100 b 130 d
11 b 41 c 71 c 101 b 131 c
12 c 42 b 72 a 102 b 132 a
13 a 43 b 73 d 103 c 133 b
14 c 44 c 74 b 104 a 134 c
15 a 45 a 75 b 105 b 135 d
16 b 46 a 76 a 106 a 136 c
17 d 47 c 77 b 107 c 137 a
18 b 48 b 78 b 108 d 138 d
19 a 49 a 79 d 109 b 139 b
20 d 50 b 80 b 110 d 140 c
21 c 51 c 81 b 111 d 141 a
22 c 52 a 82 a 112 c 142 c
23 d 53 d 83 b 113 d 143 d
24 b 54 d 84 d 114 a 144 a
25 a 55 d 85 b 115 c 145 b
26 a 56 a 86 b 116 d 146 c
27 b 57 b 87 a 117 b 147 d
28 b 58 b 88 c 118 d 148 d
29 a 59 c 89 b 119 b 149 a
30 c 60 a 90 a 120 d 150 d
AILET 2018
SECTION – A : ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 1 – Q. 4): For each question, choose the correct sentence/s.
1. I. Due to the amicable nature of the new neighbours in the locality, we could come to an amiable
settlement of the dispute that had taken place.
II. Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay gave ascent that they will assent the Mt. Everest and conquer it
together.
203
III. His immanent literary qualities made him an eminent writer and hence fame became imminent for
him.
IV. Kamal is very obedient, agreeable and gracious: a complaisant child. His mother feels complacent of
her parentage.
(a) I, IV (b) III, IV (c) II, IV (d) I, III
2. I. The Music Director ingeniously told the media that the song was his ingenuous work.
II. If you are mendacious in life most of the times, you will have to be mendicant later to win their trust
back again.
III. Being venal is not a venial crime under the court of law.
IV. The leader abjured his followers to adjure violence as a means to demand their rights.
(a) II, III (b) I, IV (c) II, IV (d) I, III
3. (a) Ketan has to be more discreet or he’ll literally drive his wife up the wall.
(b) Ketan has to be more discrete or he’ll literally drive his wife up the wall.
(c) Ketan has to be more discrete or he’ll drive his wife up the wall.
(d) Ketan has to be more discreet or he’ll drive his wife up the wall.
4. (a) Hema prophesized that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just desserts.
(b) Hema prophesized that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just deserts.
(c) Hema prophesied that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just deserts.
(d) Hema prophesied that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just desserts.
Directions (Q. 5 – Q. 6): Following are the questions based on the same words used as different parts
of speech. Choose the correct matches.
5 Well
1 Noun a Well begun is half done
2 Adjective b Let well alone
3 Adverb c Well , who would have thought it ?
4 Interjection d I hope you are now well.
(a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (b) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
(c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (d) 4-a, 3-b, 2-c, 1-d
6 What
Give me what you can. What happened
1 Interjection Adjective a
then, I do not know.
2 Interjection b What does he want ?
3 Interjection Pronoun c What ! You don't mean to say so ?
4 Relative Pronoun d What evidence have you got ?
(a) 4-b, 3-c, 2-d, 1-a (b) 3-c, 2-b, 1-a, 4-d
(c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a (d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Directions (Q. 7 – Q. 12): Name the various Figures of Speech in the following.
7. He was a learned man among lords, and a lord among learned men.
(a) Epigram (b) Metonymy (c) Oxymoron (d) Antithesis
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8. Sceptre and crown

Must tumble down,
And in dust be equal made
With the poor crooked scythe and spade.
(a) Irony (b) Apostrophe (c) Metonymy (d) Synecdoche
9. Brave Macbeth, with his brandished steel, carved out his passage.
(a) Metaphor (b) Litotes (c) Climax (d) Synecdoche
10. We had nothing to do, and we did it very well.
(a) Antithesis (b) Paradox (c) Anticlimax (d) Litotes
11. And thou, Dalhousie, the great god of war Lieutenant-Colonel to the Earl of Mar!
(a) Apostrophe (b) Epigram (c) Anticlimax (d) Paradox
12. The Puritan had been rescued by no common deliverer from the gasp of no common foe.
(a) Hyperbole (b) Epigram (c) Metaphor (d) Litotes
Directions (Q. 13 – Q. 19): Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.
13. I. Our daughter will be three years old next week.

II. Our son will be two-years-old next week.
III. Our two-year-old is starting to talk.
IV. Our two year old is starting to talk.
(a) I, III (b) I & IV (c) II, III (d) III
14. I. Jan asked; “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later.’ ”
II. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later?’ ”
III. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later’? ”
IV. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later’ ”?
(a) II (b) I (c) IV (d) III
15. I. You are my friend; however, I cannot afford to lend you any more money.
II. Truly, a popular error has as many lives as a cat; it comes walking in, long after you have imagined it
effectually strangled.
III. There is only one cure for the evils which newly acquired freedom produces, and that cure is
freedom.
IV. There is a slavery that no legislation can abolish; the slavery of caste.
(a) I, II, III (b) II, IV (c) I, II, III, IV (d) II, III
16. I. Yes, Jagrit, you were right about that answer.

II. Yes Jagrit, you were right about that answer.
III. I saw our town’s ex-Mayor Prakash Kumar in the mall.
IV. I saw our town’s ex-mayor in the market.
(a) I, III (b) I, III, IV (c) I, IV (d) II, III
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17. I. As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour
him; but as. he was ambitious, I slew him.
II. Danish, my friend from Chandigarh, Punjab, will join us.
III. Danish, my friend, from Chandigarh, Punjab will join us.
IV. As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour
him: but as he was ambitious, I slew him.
(a) II (b) II, IV (c) I, III (d) I, II
18. I. A liberally sprinkled dose of humour was very much appreciated.

II. Right now, I want two things: peace and quiet.
III. Our liberal-minded clergyman managed to unite the entire congregation.
IV. Right now, I want two things; peace and quiet.
(a) II, III (b) I, IV (c) I, II, III (d) III, IV
19. I. It may not be the correct part, but I bet that it works.
II. It may not be the correct part but: I bet that it works.
III. O father! I hear the sound of guns.
IV. O Hamlet, speak no more!
(a) I, III (b) I, III, IV (c) II, III (d) I, IV
Directions (Q. 20 – Q. 26): For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are
in bold and the verbs are underlined.
20. (a) Every environmental regulation has been undermined by that industry.
(b) Every environmental regulation has been undermined by that industry.
(c) Every environmental regulation has been undermined by that industry.
(d) Every environmental regulation has been undermined by that industry.
21. (a) My gift for singing and dancing simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
(b) My gift for singing and dancing simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
(c) My gift for singing and dancing simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
(d) My gift for singing and dancing simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
22. (a) Every attempt to flatter her failed miserably.

(b) Every attempt to flatter her failed miserably.
(c) Every attempt to flatter her failed miserably.
(d) Every attempt to flatter her failed miserably.
23. (a) If all is lost, why am I still playing cricket ?

(b) If all is lost, whv am I still playing cricket ?
(c) If all is lost, whv am I still playing cricket ?
(d) If all is lost, why am I still playing cricket ?
24. (a) “Buses” has only one s in the middle of it.

(b) “Buses” has only one s in the middle of it.
(c) “Buses” has only one s in the middle of it.
(d) “Buses” has only one s in the middle of it.
25. (a) Have you memorized all the chemical symbols on the chart ?
(b) Have you memorized all the chemical symbols on the chart ?
206
(c) Have you memorized all the chemical symbols on the chart ?
(d) Have you memorized all the chemical symbols on the chart ?
26. (a) This gorgeous grand sitar is tuned to perfection.

(b) This gorgeous grand sitar is tuned to perfection.
(c) This gorgeous grand sitar is tuned to perfection.
(d) This gorgeous grand sitar is tuned to perfection.
Directions (Q. 27 – Q. 30): Find out the sentence/s which is/are written correctly.
27. I. Some of the desserts was left by the end of the birthday party.
II. Your brilliant excuses almost makes up for your tardiness.
III. Neither Jackson nor Jenna have played hooky.
IV. Either of us is capable of winning.
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III (c) II (d) IV
28. I. Here’s the paper clips you requested.

II. A limousine and driver are in the driveway.
III. One-fourth of the voters tend not to cast its ballots in national elections.
IV. Either of the classic cars are for sale.
(a) I, II (b) I, II, III (c) II (d) II, IV
29. I. Ten dollars are too much to pay for a pen.

II. The water polo team have won the state championship for the second time.
III. That skier is one of those who competes nationally.
IV. I cannot be calm on roller coasters.
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, IV (c) I, III, IV (d) none of these
30. I. The sexy, slim, Indian superstar.

II. The Indian, slim, sexy superstar.
III. My yellow, old, Ferrari sports car.
IV. My old, yellow, Ferrari sports car.
(a) I, IV (b) II, IV (c) I, III (d) II, III
Directions (Q. 31 – Q. 35): Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/
phrase in the question.
31. Find your feet

(a) desire to escape from a situation (b) adapting and attuning to something
(c) finding one’s own space (d) ready to fight a war
32. (To be) On the ball

(a) another thing coming (b) having fun
(c) being alert or well prepared (d) raise the roof
33. (To) Go cold turkey

(a) speaking truth (b) getting down to business
(c) gradually cutting down (d) withdraw abruptly and completely
34. Break a leg

(a) good luck (b) take a break
(c) bad luck (d) trying hard to succeed
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35. White-knuckled handshake

(a) sign of stressful situation (b) friendly handshake
(c) sign of peace (d) holding hands very lightly
SECTION – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

36. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is an independent verification system for EVM designed
to
I. allow voters to verify that their votes are cast correctly.
II. detect possible election fraud or malfunction.
III. Provide a means to audit the stored electronic results.
IV. Voter can see printout and take it out too.
(a) I and II (b) I, III and IV (c) I, II and III (d) All of the above
37. The Film Federation of India (FFI) has selected the Hindi film_______ to represent India in Best
Foreign Language category at the 90th Academy Awards (Oscars),
(a) Padmavat (b) Dangal (c) Bahubali (d) Newton
38. Who is awarded the Person of the Year for 2017 by Times magazine ?
(a) The Silence Breakers (b) Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman
(c) The Dreamers (d) Colin Kaepernick
39. How many banks have merged with SBI with effect from October 2017 ?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
40. According to a recent report by NASA, the El Nino led to excessive carbon dioxide releases in which
of the following ways ?
I. Hot weather and drought caused extensive wildfires in south-east Asia.
II. Drought in the Amazon rainforest stunted plant growth, reducing the amount of carbon they absorb
while growing.
III. Warmer weather and near normal rainfall in Africa caused forests to exhale more CO2.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
41. Scientists from which of the following countries have developed the world’s first artificial intelligence
politician named SAM ?
(a) New Zealand (b) Japan (c) China (d) Korea
42. Which State became the first State in India to operate electric bus services?
(a) Assam (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra
43. ______ officially launched its own oil-backed cryptocurrency called Petro.
(a) China (b) Senegal (c) Venezuela (d) Singapore
44. ______ is the first Indian woman pilot of Indian Air Force who created history by completing a solo
flight on a MiG-21 Bison fighter aircraft.
(a) Bhawana Kanth (b) Mohana Singh (c) Anny Divya (d) Avani Chaturvedi
45. _______ is first city in India to get World Heritage City status by United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Ahmadabad (d) Jaipur
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46. Which of these digital payment mechanisms does not require an internet connection ?
(a) USSD (b) UPI (c) e- wallets (d) IMPS 24X7
47. ___ is a popular statistical simulation named after a city.

(a) Bristol (b) Vienna (c) Berlin (d) Monte Carlo
48. Book My Show and PayTM are examples of ______ and_____ wallets, respectively.
(a) Open, Closed (b) Closed, Semi-closed
(c) Semi-open, Semi-closed (d) Semi-closed, closed
49. Which of the following Indian companies had become one of the top three most- valuable brands in
the information technology (IT) service sector of the world ?
(a) Wipro (b) Infosys (c) HCL Technologies (d) Tata Consultancy Services
50. ICC Under-19 World Cup Trophy 2018 was won by India defeating Australia. What is special about
this tournament ?
(a) Shubman Gill of India was declared the ‘Man of the Tournament’.
(b) Team Afghanistan defeated three high profile teams namely Pakistan, Sri Lanka and New Zealand.
(c) India now holds the most wins record in Under-19 World Cup.
(d) All of the above
51. When ghee is kept in open air/sunlight for 30 minutes, the loss of Vitamin ‘A’ is
(a) 100% (b) 75% (c) 34% (d) None of the above
52. Which one of the following has been appointed first female independent Director of International
Cricket Council in 2018 ?
(a) Naina Lai Kidwai (b) Indra Nooyi (c) Nita Ambani (d) Chitra Ramkrishna
53. Light waves can be polarised because they

(a) have high frequency (b) have short wavelength (c) are compressive (d) are transverse
54. As per NITI Aayog’s Health Index, 2018, which of the following States is the healthiest State in India
?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
55. Which one of the following has been described as a ‘Frozen Moment in History’ ?
(a) Fatehpur Sikri (b) Jallianwala Bagh (c) Gol Gumbas Bijapur (d) Kutub Minar
56. In a coastal city, a high tide occurs every

(a) 24 hours (b) 12 hours and 25 minutes
(c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours and 25 minutes
57. Which of the followings are the exclusive powers of Rajya Sabha under the Constitution of India ?
I. Creation of new All India Services.
II. Enable Parliament to enact law on a subject in State List.
III. Enforcing proclamation of emergency when Lok Sabha is dissolved.
(a) I, II (b) II, III (c) I, III (d) I, II, III
58. India and China jointly submitted a proposal to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) calling for the
elimination – by developed countries – of the most trade-distorting form of farm subsidies, known in WTO
parlance as_____ support as a prerequisite for consideration of other reforms in domestic support
negotiations.
(a) Amber Box (b) Green Box (c) Blue Box (d) Orange Box
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59. Which of the following statements is correct as per the announcement of Union Budget 2018-19?
(a) 24 new Medical Colleges will be established as green field projects.
(b) 24 new Medical Colleges to be established by upgrading leading district hospitals.
(c) 24 new Medical Colleges to be established in tribal areas.
(d) 24 new Medical Colleges to be established for girl students.
60. Which has been termed as the ‘Green Gold’ by the Finance Minister ?
(a) Shell Gas (b) CNG (c) Bamboo (d) Medicinal and Aromatic plants
61. Which of the following statements is not true about UNAIDS’ target 90: 90: 90 ?
(a) 90% control of HIV infection by the year 2020.
(b) 90% of all people living with HIV will know their HIV status.
(c) 90% of all people with diagnosed HIV infection will receive sustained anti-retroviral therapy.
(d) 90% of all people receiving anti-retroviral therapy will have viral suppression.
62. According to John Templeton – Bull markets are born on pessimism, grow on scepticism, mature on
optimism and die on .
(a) Excitement (b) Euphoria (c) Ebullition (d) Ravishment
63. If RBI lowers the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), then

I. supply of money in the economy may increase.
II. banks will increase the interest rates.
III. exports will become cheaper.
(a) I (b) I, II (c) I, III (d) I, II, III
64. GST has a ____ tier structure for taxation of goods and services.
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
65. Which of the following statements is correct about FDI in India ?

(a) 100% FDI is allowed in single brand retail via automatic route
(b) 100% FDI is admissible in construction sector via automatic route
(c) Foreign airlines are allowed to invest upto 49% in Air India through approval route
(d) All of the above
66. ‘Diopter’ is the unit of measurement of .

(a) Heat (b) Sound (c) Energy (d) power of a lens
67. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by
the President incumbent before the date of such decision of court are
(a) valid but subject to judicial review (b) invalid
(c) valid (d) valid but subject to the approval of the Parliament
68. In 2018, scientists have discovered a new organ which could also be the biggest organ in human
body. What is the name of the organ?
(a) Interstitium (b) Mesentery (c) Langerhans (d) Myeloid
69. World’s longest sandstone cave has been discovered in which of the following States ?
(a) Assam (b) Meghalaya (c) Jammu & Kashmir (d) Nagaland
70. Which is the first Indian city to have its own logo for promoting tourism ?
(a) Goa (b) Agra (c) Jaipur (d) Bengaluru
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Directions : Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

1. A person is liable for his negligence when he owed a duty of care to others and commits a breach of
that duty causing injury thereby.
2. Volenti non fit injuria is defence to negligence.
Factual Situation: Anil and his wife, Reena, were in a shop as customers, where a skylight in the roof of
the shop was broken, owing to the negligence of the contractors engaged in repairing the roof, and a
portion of the glass fell and struck Anil causing him a severe shock. Reena, who was standing close to
him, was not touched by the falling glass, but reasonably believing her husband to be in danger, she
instinctively clutched his arm, and tried to pull him from the spot. In doing this, she strained her leg in such
a way as to bring about a recurrence of thrombosis. Anil and Reena are claiming compensation for their
injuries which were caused due to the negligence of the shop owners. The shop owners are denying
liability on the grounds of volenti non fit injuria. The defence of volenti non fit injuria.
(a) is available in respect of husband

(b) is available in respect of wife
(c) is available in respect of both husband and wife
(d) is not available in respect of both husband and wife
Directions (Q. 72 – Q. 73): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most
appropriate answer.
Legal Principles :
1. Private nuisance is a continuous, unlawful and indirect interference with the use or enjoyment of land,
or of some right over or in connection with it.
2. The person who for his own purposes brings on his lands and collects and keeps there anything likely
to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it at his peril, and, if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable
for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape.
3. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would likely to injure his neighbour.
4. The foreseeability of the type of damage is a pre-requisite of liability in actions of nuisance.
72. Factual Situation : During 2011, a European Directive was issued requiring nations of the European
Community to establish standards on the presence of Perchloroethene (PCE) in water, which the
Kingsland did in 2013.
Alfa Water Co. purchased a borehole in 2007 to extract water to supply to the public in Kingsland. In 2014,
it tested the water to ensure that it met minimum standards for human consumption and discovered that it
was contaminated with an organochlorine solvent (PCE). On investigation, it emerged that the solvent
seeped into the soil through the building floor of the Light & Soft Leather Tannery, about 3 miles from the
borehole that eventually contaminated the Alfa’s borehole.
Since the tannery opened in 1910, until 2007, the solvent it used had been delivered in 40-gallon drums
which were transported by fork lift truck and then tipped into a sump. Since 2007, solvents had been
delivered in bulk and stored in tanks. It was then piped to the tanning machinery. There was no evidence
of any spills from the tanks or pipes, and it was concluded that the water had been contaminated by
frequent spills under the earlier system. Alfa Water brought a claim against the Tannery on the grounds of
nuisance. Whether the Tannery owners are liable?
(a) Yes, the escape of the solvent which contaminated the water is sufficient for making them liable.
(b) No, the damage is too remote as it was not possible for the Tannery owners to reasonably foresee a
spillage which would eventually lead to contamination of a water borehole so far away.
(c) No, because Alfa Water Co. should have been careful in using good purifying mechanisms to ensure
that the water is fit for human consumption. They cannot shift the blame on the Tannery owners.
(d) Yes, the damage is not remote as it was possible for the Tannery owners to reasonably foresee a
spillage which would eventually lead to contamination of a water borehole just 3 miles away.
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73. Factual Situation: M G Ltd. was constructing Crystal Heights, a posh state-of-the-art tower for
commercial and residential purposes, in Gurugram. During construction, hundreds of claimants alleged
that, in addition to dust and noise caused by the erection of the building, their television signals had been
interrupted by the tower. The claimants, some of whom were absolute owners, and many others who were
renting, sued in both negligence and in nuisance for the harm done to their amenity by the loss of their
television signals. Whether the respondent’s action in causing the appellant’s television signals to be
interrupted with the construction of their tower could constitute a private nuisance ?
(a) The interference with the television signal caused by the construction of the tower could not amount to
a private nuisance at law. Effective town planning can sort this matter, instead.
(b) Yes, the large tower had interrupted their television reception, and caused private nuisance – for loss
of enjoyment – and remuneration for their wasted television license fee, from the time their signal had been
impaired.
(c) No, it cannot constitute private nuisance but the claimants can claim damages for loss of television
signals.
(d) Yes, the respondent’s conduct was unreasonable because the act of building the tower caused
impairment of enjoyment of the land.

1. Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harms a person’s reputation;
decreases the respect, regard, or confidence in which a person is held; or induces disparaging, hostile,
or disagreeable opinions or feelings against a person.
2. The statement must tend to lower the claimant in the estimation of right-thinking members of society.
3. A mere vulgar abuse is not defamation.
4. Sometimes a statement may not be defamatory on the face of it but contain an innuendo, which has a
defamatory meaning.
5. Defamation encompasses both written statements, known as libel, and spoken statements, called
slander.
Factual Situation : In May 2017, a memorial commemorating the women of World War II was vandalized
during an anti-government demonstration following the General Election. An offensive political slogan was
spray painted across the plinth of the memorial. This act caused public outrage and widespread
condemnation.
On Twitter, a political writer, Asha Mehta said that she did not have a problem with the vandalism of the
memorial building. Chandna reacted to this negatively, suggesting that Asha should be sent to join Terrorist
Organization. Asha’s comments and Chandna’s reactions both received national media coverage.
A few days later, Chandna published a tweet asking the question “Scrawled on any war memorials
recently?” to Anshika Chauhan, another political activist. Anshika Chauhan responded stating that they
had never vandalised any memorial building, and moreover had family members serving in the armed
forces. Chandna followed with a second tweet, in which she asked if someone could explain the difference
between Mehta (an “irritant”) and AnshikaChauhan (whom she described as “social anthrax”).
Anshika Chauhan asked for a retraction via Twitter and was promptly blocked by Chandna. Anshika
Chauhan asked Chandna to make a public apology and claimed compensation for libel alleging that the
First Tweet suggested that she had either vandalised a war memorial, which was a criminal act; and the
Second Tweet suggested that she approved or condoned that vandalisation. What is the meaning of the
Tweets and whether those meanings had defamatory tendency?
(a) Both the tweets were defamatory to Anshika Chauhan as the hypothetical ordinary reader can be
expected to understand defamatory tendency of the tweet in the context of the situation.
(b) Second tweet was not defamatory as it was not referring directly to Anshika Chauhan. So, she cannot
claim compensation.
(c) Natural and ordinary meaning of the tweets are not defamatory. So, she cannot claim compensation.
(d) First tweet was not defamatory because the natural and ordinary meaning of the statement which is
conveyed to a hypothetical ordinary reader is not defamatory.
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1. An assault is an act which intentionally causes another person to apprehend the infliction of
immediate, unlawful force on a person.
2. A battery consists of an intentional application of force to another person without any lawful
justification.
Factual Situation: Jagan was in his car when he was approached by a police officer who told him to move
the vehicle. Jagan did so, reversed his car and rolled it on to the foot of the police officer. The officer
forcefully told him to move the car off his foot at which point Jagan swore at him and refused to move his
vehicle and turned the engine off. Jagan was convicted for assaulting a police officer in the execution of
his duty. Is he liable for battery or assault?
(a) He is not liable because there cannot be an assault in omitting to act and that driving on to the officer’s
foot was accidental, meaning that he was lacking mens rea when the act causing damage had occurred.
(b) He is not liable as the act neither amount to an attempt nor a threat to commit a battery that amounts
to an actionable tort of assault.
(c) Jagan’s crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on to the foot of the officer
and decided not to cease the act, he had established a continual act of battery.
(d) He is neither liable for assault nor battery as he accidently drove his car on the police officer’s foot.
appropriate answer.
Legal Principles:
1. Consideration is something that moves from the promise to the promisor, at the implied or express
request of the latter, in return for his promise. The item that moves can be a right, interest, profit, loss,
responsibility given or suffered, forbearance or a benefit which is of some value in the eyes of law.
2. An offer may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as
against the proposer, but not afterwards.
76. Factual Situation : The defendant, Mr. Dhawan, wrote to the complainant, Mr. Chaman, with an
offer to sell his house to him for Rs. 8,00,000. He promised that he would keep this offer open to him
until Friday. However, on the Thursday Mr. Dhawan accepted an offer from a third party and sold his
house. According to Mr. Chaman, he was going to accept this offer but had not said anything to Mr.
Dhawan because he understood that he had time until Friday. Mr. Dhawan communicated to Mr.
Chaman that the offer had been withdrawn, through a friend to the complainant. After hearing this, Mr.
Chaman went to find the defendant, informing of his acceptance to the offer. Thereafter, the complainant
brought an action for specific performance and breach of contract against the defendant. Whether the
defendant’s promise to keep the offer open until Friday morning was a binding contract between the
parties and whether he was allowed to revoke this offer and sell to a third party?
(a) The statement made by Mr. Dhawan amounts to a valid contract and he has committed a breach by
selling the house before Friday.
(b) The statement made by Mr. Dhawan was nothing more than a promise; there was no binding contract
formed. He had communicated an offer for buying his house to the complainant and this offer can be
revoked any time before there is acceptance.
(c) The communication by a friend or other party that an offer had been withdrawn is invalid and could
not be treated as if it came from the person himself.
(d) Promises to keep an offer open until a certain time is a binding agreement as it is accepted by the
other party.
77. Factual Situation : MXM Co. is a building contractor who entered into an agreement with Star
Heights Housing Association to refurbish a block of 27 flats. This contract was subject to a liquidated
damages clause if they did not complete the contract on time. The MXM Co. engaged Hasan to do the
carpentry work for an agreed price of Rs. 20,000. After six months of commencing the work, Hasan
realised he had priced the job too low and would be unable to complete at the originally agreed price. He
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approached MXM Co. who recognised that the price was particularly low and was concerned about
completing the contract on time. MXM Co. agreed to make additional payments to Hasan in return for his
promise to carry out his existing obligations.
MXM Co. agreed to pay Hasan an additional Rs.575 per flat. Hasan continued work on the flats for a
further period of 6 weeks but only received an additional Rs. 5,000. He then ran out of money and
refused to continue unless payment was made. MXM Co. engaged another carpenter to complete the
contract and refused to pay Hasan any further sums. Hasan sued for payment under the original
agreement and the subsequent agreement. MXM Co. argued that the agreement to make additional
payments was unenforceable as Hasan has not provided any consideration to make this agreement a
valid contract. Decide.
(a) The agreement to pay extra was unenforceable as Hasan had provided no consideration as he was
already under an existing contractual duty to complete the work.
(b) Consideration was provided by Hasan in the form of conferring a benefit on the MXM Co. by helping
them to avoid the penalty clause. Therefore, MXM Co. was liable to make the extra payments promised.
(c) There was no consideration provided by Hasan as to avoid the penalty clause was the main object of
the contract. Therefore, MXM Co. was not liable to make the extra payments promised.
(d) MXM Co. is liable to pay compensation to Hasan as they have committed a breach of contract by
employing another carpenter.
78. Factual Situation: Bournville ran a sales promotion whereby if persons sent in 3 chocolate bar
wrappers and a postal order for Rs. 100 they would be sent a record. Big Beats owned the copyright in
one of the records offered and disputed the right of Bournville to offer the records and sought an injunction
to prevent the sale of the records which normally retailed at Rs. 1,000. Under the Copyright Act, retailers
are protected from breach of copyright if they gave notice to the copyright holders of the ordinary retail
selling price and paid them 6.25% of this. Bournville gave notice stating the ordinary selling price was Rs.
100 and three chocolate bar wrappers. The issue is whether the chocolate bar wrappers formed part of
the consideration?
(a) The wrappers were a mere token or condition of sale and not consideration.
(b) The wrappers did form part of the consideration for the sale of records despite the fact that they had
no intrinsic economic value in themselves.
(c) The wrappers did not form part of the consideration for the sale of records as they had no intrinsic
economic value in themselves.
(d) There was consideration for the sale of records in the form of postal order for? 100.
appropriate answer.
Legal Principles:
1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from doing it. The person
who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made is
known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is
made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus
ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement.
79. Factual Situation : Tejas drove his car to a car park named Super Car Park (SCP).Outside the car
park, the prices were displayed and a notice stated cars were parked at the owner’s risk. An automatic
ticket vending machine provided a ticket, a barrier was raised and Tejas parked his car. In small print on
the ticket it was stated that the ticket is issued subject to conditions displayed on the premises. On a pillar
opposite to the machine was a notice stating the owners would not be liable for any injuries occurring on
their premises. Tejas met with an accident and sought damages from SCP. SCP denied any liability on
the basis of the exclusion clause which was mentioned in the notice on the pillar. Whether there is an offer
and acceptance of the exclusion clause?
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(a) There is a valid contract between Tejas and SCP as SCP had taken reasonable steps to bring
exclusion clause to Tejas’s attention at the time of making the contract.
(b) The contract was made when Tejas received the ticket and parked his car. The ticket amounted to a
contractual document which effectively referred to the terms which were clearly visible on the premises.
(c) The machine itself constituted the offer. The acceptance was by putting the money into the machine.
The ticket was dispensed after the acceptance took place and therefore the exclusion clause was not
incorporated into the contract.
(d) The machine itself constituted the offer. The acceptance was by putting the money into the machine
and acceptance of the offer mean acceptance of all the terms of the offer and hence SCP is not liable.
80. Factual Situation : The plaintiffs offered to provide delivery of a machine tool for a price of Rs. 75,535.
The delivery of the tool was set for 10 months, with the condition that orders only qualified as accepted
once the terms in the quotation were met and prevailed over any of the buyer’s terms. The buyer
responded to the offer with their own terms and conditions, which did not include the ‘price variation clause’
listed in the seller’s terms. This included a response section which required a signature and to be returned
in order to accept the order. The sellers returned this response slip with a cover letter signaling that delivery
would be in accordance with their original quotation. The tool was ready for delivery but the buyers could
not accept delivery, for which the sellers increased the price which was in line with their initial terms.
This was denied by the buyer and an action was brought by the seller to claim the cost of delay and
interest. Was a contract made with or without a price variation clause ?
(a) The buyer’s order was not an acceptance of the initial offer from the seller but a counter-offer which
the sellers had accepted by returning the signature section of the buyer’s letter and so the contract was
completed without the price variation clause and therefore the seller could not increase the cost of the
tool.
(b) The buyer’s order was an acceptance of the initial offer from the seller and so the contract was
completed with the price variation clause and therefore the seller can increase the cost of the tool.
(c) The contract was made with price variation clause due to the condition that orders only qualified as
accepted once the terms in the quotation were met and prevailed over any of the buyer’s terms.
(d) The contract between the buyer and seller is not valid as both the parties are not agreeing to the
same thing in the same sense.
81. Legal Principle :

1. ‘Misrepresentation ‘means and includes -the positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the
information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true; any breach
of duty which, without an intent to deceive, gains an advantage of the person committing it, or any one
claiming under him, by misleading another to his prejudice, or to the prejudice of any one claiming under
him; causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to the substance of the
thing which is the subject of the agreement.
2. The tort of negligent misstatement is defined as an inaccurate statement made honestly but carelessly
usually in the form of advice given by a party with special skill/knowledge to a party that doesn’t possess
this skill or knowledge.
Factual Situation : The plaintiff, Mr. Madan, entered into a tenancy agreement with the defendant, Esso
Petroleum, in respect of a petrol station owned by the latter. During the course of the negotiation of the
agreement, ‘expert’ advisers employed by the defendant had provided an estimate of the sales which the
petrol station could expect which was based on inaccurate information and consequently was
significantly inflated. The value of the rent on the agreement had been calculated based on this inflated
figure. As a result, it was impossible for the plaintiff to operate the petrol station profitably. Whether the
plaintiff could have any action for negligent misrepresentation ?
(a) The contract could not be held void for misrepresentation as the defendants presented the inflated
figure as an estimate rather than as a hard fact.
(b) The defendant has no obligation to disclose as the parties contracting should obtain the necessary
information themselves without relying upon the other party.
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(c) As the defendant had taken it upon themselves to employ experts for the purpose of providing an
estimate of sales, they owed a duty of care to the plaintiff to ensure that this was done on the basis of
accurate information. Hence, the plaintiff can recover the losses which he had suffered as a result of the
defendant’s negligent misstatement.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
appropriate answer.
Legal Principles :
1. The Tort of Negligence is a legal wrong that is suffered by someone at the hands of another who fails
to take proper care to avoid what a reasonable person would regard as a foreseeable risk.
2. The test of liability requires that the harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of the defendant’s
conduct, a relationship of proximity must exist and it must be fair, just and reasonable to impose liability.
3. The claimant must prove that harm would not have occurred ‘but for’ the negligence of the defendant.
The claimant must prove, on the balance of probabilities, that the defendant’s breach of duty caused the
harm.
82. Factual Situation: Amar worked for an iron works, Luxmi Mills & Co. Ltd. operating a remotely
controlled crane, Amar galvanized items by dipping them into a large tank of molten metal. In order to
protect its crane operators, whose controls were located just a few feet from the tank, Luxmi Mills erected
a low wall around the tank and also provided a sheet of corrugated iron that crane operators placed
between themselves and the wall. The operators were not facing the tank while operting the crane. Thus,
they could not see the operation of the crane and therefore relied upon signals from another worker located
farther from the tank. Many other galvanizers at the time situated their operators in enclosed, windowed
spaces from which they could safely see and perform their work. Luxmi Mills eventually adopted that
practice as well. One day, Amar was working on the crane. At one point, he either turned toward the tank
or leaned out to see the worker giving him instructions, thereby placing his head outside the iron sheet. A
spray of molten metal burned Amar’s lip. When it failed to heal and began to ulcerate, he consulted a
doctor who diagnosed the wound as cancerous. Amar ultimately died from the spread of cancer after three
years. His widow sued Luxmi Mills for negligence. Whether the employers would be liable for the full extent
of the burn and cancer that had developed as a result?
(a) The employers are liable for all of the consequences of their negligence; thus, liable for the employee’s
death. His predisposition to cancer did not matter, nor did the results of the injury. The question of liability
was, whether the defendant could reasonable foresee the injury.
(b) The employers are not liable because the duty of care towards Amar was not breached by them as
they were using the same practices which were used by other companies at that time.
(c) The employers are not liable because Amar suffered injury due to his own negligence in stepping out
of the protective shield.
(d) The employers are liable for burns and not for the death which happened due to Amar’s cancerous
condition which could not have been known to the employers.
83. Factual Situation : A 13-year-old boy fell from a tree. He went to a hospital where his hip was
examined, but an incorrect diagnosis was made. After 5 days it was found that he was suffering from
avascular necrosis. This was more advanced and serious than if it had been spotted straight away. Despite
receiving treatment, it was determined that he had suffered from a muscular condition (avascular necrosis)
which left the boy with a permanent disability and further left a strong probability that he would develop
severe osteoarthritis later in life. The expert medical testimony indicated that had his fractured hip been
identified on his initial hospital visit, there was a 25% chance of his condition having been successfully
treated. He is claiming compensation for the negligence of hospital. Whether the hospital’s negligence on
his initial visit had caused his injury ?
(a) No, because there are very less chances that correct diagnosis and treatment would have prevented
the disability from occurring.
(b) Where there are a number of possible causes, the claimant must still prove the defendant’s breach of
216
duty caused the harm or was a material contribution.

(c) Yes, because there are some chances that correct diagnosis and treatment would have prevented
the disability from occurring.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
84. Legal Principle : Vicarious liability is when employers are held liable for the torts committed by their
employees during the course of employment.
Factual Situation : New Vision School opened a boarding house (Shivaji House) for boys in the year 2000
for the students having behavioural and emotional difficulties. The claimants in the instant case had resided
there between 2000 to 2003, being aged 12 to 15 during that time, under the care of a warden, who was
in charge of maintaining discipline and the running of the house. The warden lived in the House, with his
disabled wife, and together they were the only two members of staff in the House. His duties were ensuring
order, in making sure the children went to bed, went to school, engaged in evening activities, and
supervising other staff. It had been alleged by some of the boys that the warden had sexually abused
them, including inappropriate advances and taking trips alone with them. A criminal investigation took
place some ten years later, resulting in the warden being sentenced to seven years imprisonment.
Following this, the victims brought an action for personal injury against the employers, alleging that they
were vicariously liable. Whether the employers of the warden may be held vicariously liable for their
employee’s intentional sexual abuse of school boys placed under his care?
(a) No, vicarious liability could only arise when the employee is acting during the course of his
employment and for his employer’s benefit.
(b) No, the employers cannot be made liable for acts which are not authorised by them.
(c) Yes, there was a sufficient connection between the work that the warden was employed to do and the
abuse that he committed to render it within the scope of employment. The abuse was committed at the
time, premises and during the course of the warden’s care of the boys.
(d) Yes, because the employers should be made liable in cases of sexual abuse of differently abled
children.
85. In 2017, Special Leave Petition for re-investigation in the Mahatma Gandhi murder case was filed by.
(a) Amrendra Sharan (b) Pankaj K. Phadnis

(c) Tushar Gandhi (d) Raju Ramachandran
86. Who is the first Indian woman to be elected as the Judge of the International Tribunal for the Law of
Sea ?
(a) Dr. Neeru Chadha (b) Justice Gita Mittal

(c) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit (d) Dr. Menaka Guruswamy
87. Which of the following river(s) is/are declared as a legal entity by an Act of Parliament?
(a) Ganga (b) Whanganui (c) Yamuna (d) All of the above
88. Which of the following lawyers approached the Supreme Court challenging the existing system of
‘designation of Senior Advocates’ ?
(a) Meenakashi Lekhi (b) Vrinda Grover (c) Indira Jaisingh (d) Meenakshi Arora
89. ‘Drunken Driving’ is punishable under______ .
(a) Indian Penal Code (b) Motor Vehicles Act

(c) Road Safety Standards Act (d) National Highways Act
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90. The Supreme Court on 12 December 2017, had directed that_____ special criminal courts, to be set
up to exclusively deal with cases involving_____ , should start functioning from March 1, 2018.
(a) 12, MPs/MLAs (b) 12, Rape Accused

(c) 24, Child-sexual abuser (d) 24, Terrorism related offences
91. Which State Government, in India, has recently sanctioned stipend for junior lawyers practicing in the
courts ?
(a) Delhi (b) Punjab (c) Kerala (d) Maharashtra
92. From the field of Law and Justice, who is awarded the Nari Shakti Puraskar 2018 on the International
Women’s Day?
(a) Geeta Mittal (b) Sudha Bharadwaj (c) Flavia Agnes (d) Indira Jaisingh
93. Recently, the Supreme Court allowed_____ euthanasia and right to give advance medical
directives_______ , stating that human beings have the right to die with dignity as part of fundamental
right to life.
(a) active, dying will (b) passive, living will

(c) active, living will (d) passive, dying will
94. Local self-governance is an example of
(a) federalism (b) democratic decentralization

(c) direct democracy (d) administrative delegation
95. The institutional infrastructure under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, rests on certain
pillars :
I. Insolvency Professionals
II. Information Utilities
III. Adjudication
IV. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
V. Asset Construction Companies
Correct code is:

(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, II, III and IV (d) All of the above
96. In 2017, the Supreme Court held that right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution
of India in the context of
(a) State Surveillance (b) Power of search & seizure

(c) Homosexuality (d) Indian Biometric Identification Scheme
97. The age of consent for sexual intercourse between a husband and wife has been made_____
from______ years by the Supreme Court of India.
(a) 18,16 (b) 16,15 (c) 21,18 (d) 18,15
98. An accused is entitled to statutory bail (default bail) if the police failed to file the charge-sheet
within_____ of his arrest for the offence punishable with ‘imprisonment up to 10 years’.
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 90 days (d) 180 days
99. Nelson Mandela Rules deals with
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(a) Apartheid (b) Truth and Reconciliation

(c) Prison Management (d) Global Peace-making
100. The Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriages) Bill 2017. Which of
the following are true about it?
I. It declares instant triple talaq illegal and criminalizes it.
II. It makes declaration of talaq a bailable offence.
III. A husband declaring talaq can be imprisoned for up to two years along with a fine.
IV. It entitles Muslim woman against whom triple talaq has been declared to seek subsistence allowance
from her husband for herself and for her dependent children.
(a) I and IV (b) I, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) All of the above
101. In August 2017, the Union Ministry of Law & Justice in association with the National Legal Service
Authority (NALSA) launched ‘Tele-Law’ scheme in_____ to provide legal aid services to marginalised
communities and citizens living in rural areas through digital technology.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
102. In March 2018, the Supreme Court of India has held that there cannot be a stay of more than
_________ on trial of _________
(a) 6 months, civil and criminal cases (b) 6 months, criminal cases
(c) 3 months, rape cases (d) 3 months, civil and criminal cases
103. Which country has withdrawn from the International Criminal Court (ICC) citing reasons of
international bias in March, 2018 ?
(a) Burundi (b) Russia (c) South Africa (d) Philippines
104. Regarding foreign law firms, the Supreme Court held

I. That foreign law firms can set up offices in India.
II. Foreign lawyers can practice in India.
III. Foreign lawyers can visit India for a temporary period on a fly in and fly out basis.
IV. Foreign lawyers can give advice to their clients on Indian laws.
(a) I, II, III (b) II, IV (c) III (d) III, IV
105. Which is the world’s first country to enact a law under which companies and government agencies
that employ at least 25 people will be fined if they can’t prove they pay men and women equally ?
(a) Iceland (b) India (c) Sweden (d) France
SECTION – D : REASONING
Directions (Q. 106 – Q. 110): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Eight friends Akash, Bunty, Chandan, Deepak, Esha, Fiza, Gazal and Hema are sitting around a circle
facing the centre. Deepak is between Akash and Esha only, Fiza is second to the left of Esha. Bunty is
between Chandan and Gazal only. Fiza is between Gazal and Hema only.
106. Who is fourth to the right of Bunty ?
(a) Esha (b) Hema (c) Gazal (d) Deepak
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107. In which of the following pairs, second person is to the immediate left of the first person?
(a) Deepak, Akash (b) Bunty,Gazal (c) Bunty, Chandan (d) Hema, Esha
108. Which of the following is definitely true ?
(a) Chandan is to the immediate right of Bunty. (b) Esha is to the immediate left of Chandan.
(c) Deepak is second to the left of Hema. (d) Akash is second to the right of Esha.
109. Who is sitting in the immediate left of Esha ?
(a) Fiza (b) Hema (c) Gazal (d) Deepak
110. Who is third to the right of Gazal ?
(a) Fiza (b) Akash (c) Hema (d) Esha
111. Harsh moves 15 kms in East direction, then turns towards North and moves 4 kms. From there he
turns West and travels 12 kms. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point?
(a) 5 kms, North-East (b) 5 kms, South-West

(c) 27 kms, North-East (d) 19 kms, North-East
112. Pratham travels 10 metres in North direction, he turns right and travels 20 metres. Again, he turns
towards right and travels 25 metres. Then, he turns towards left and travels 15 metres. In which direction
and how far is Pratham from his original position?
(a) 35 metres, East (b) 38. 07 metres, South-East

(c) 25. 08 metres, West (d) 25 metres, North-East
Directions (Q. 113 – Q. 119): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Seven film buffs – Aamna, Archana, Aradhana, Anu, Aahana, Anuja and Aashna – attend a showing of
classic movies. Three films are shown, one directed by Satyajit Ray, one by Stanley Kubrick, and one by
Steven Spielberg. Each of the film buff see only one of the three films. The films are shown only once,
one film at a time.
The following restrictions must apply:
i. Exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
ii. Aamna and Aahana do not see the same film as each other.
iii. Archana and Anu do not see the same film as each other.
iv. Anuja and Aashna see the same film as each other.
v. Aradhana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
vi. Aamna sees either the Satyajit Ray film or the Steven Spielberg film.
113. Which one of the following could be an accurate matching of film buffs to films?
(a) Aamna: the Steven Spielberg film; Archana: the Satyajit Ray film; Anuja: the Satyajit Ray film
(b) Anu: the Steven Spielberg film; Aahana: the Steven Spielberg film; Anuja: the Steven Spielbergfilm
(c) Anu: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aahana: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aashna: the Stanley Kubrickfilm
(d) Archana: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aahana: the Steven Spielberg film; Anuja: the Satyajit Ray film
114. Each of the following must be false EXCEPT

(a) Aahana is the only film buff to see the Satyajit Ray film.
(b) Aahana is the only film buff to see Stanley Kubrick film.
(c) Aashna is the only film buff to see the Steven Spielberg film.
(d) Exactly three film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film.
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115. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the film buffs who do Not see
the Stanley Kubrick film ?
(a) Aamna, Aahana
(b) Aamna, Archana, Aahana
(c) Aamna, Anu, Aashna
(d) Aamna, Anuja, Aashna
116. If exactly one film buff sees the Steven Spielberg film, then which one of the following must be true?
(a) Aamna sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(b) Anu sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(c) Anuja sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
(d) Archana sees the Satyajit Ray film.
117. Which of the following must be true ?

(a) Archana, Aradhana and Anuja do not all see the same film.
(b) Archana sees a different film than Anuja does.
(c) Aamna sees a different film than Archana does.
(d) Aamna, Aradhana and Anu do not all see the same film.
118. If Anuja sees the same film as Aamna does, then which one of the following could be true?
(a) Aahana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
(b) Aashna sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(c) Archana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
(d) Aamna sees the Satyajit Ray film.
119. Each of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the film buffs who see the Satyajit
Ray film EXCEPT
(a) Aamna, Archana (b) Anuja, Aashna
(c) Anu, Aahana (d) Aamna,Anu
Directions (Q. 120 – Q. 121): In each of the following questions, there are two statements labelled as
Assertion (S) and Reason (R).
Give answer
(a) if both ‘S’& ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘S’.
(b) if ‘S’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(c) if ‘S’ is false and ‘R’ is true
(d) if both ‘S’ &‘R’ are false
120. Assertion (S) – Bulb filament is made of titanium.

Reason (R) – The filament should have low melting point.
121. Assertion (S) – Moon cannot be used as a satellite for communication.

Reason (R) – Moon does not move in the equatorial plane of the Earth.
Directions (Q. 122 – Q. 126): Given below is a passage followed by few statements about that passage.
You must select one of the following answers:
Definitely True: The statement follows logically from the information contained in the passage.
Definitely False: The statement is logically false from the information contained in the passage.
Probably False: The statement is more likely to be false than true, but not definitely false beyond a
reasonable doubt, based solely on the information in the passage.
221
Data Inadequate: It is not possible to determine whether the statement is true or false without further
information.
Mediators recognize that the law is generally in place to uphold mediator – client confidentiality, however,
there are situations that may occur where the mediator is under obligation to break that confidence. This
obligation can vary depending upon where the mediator is practicing and it may occur as a result of their
employment contract or of the law. Where such an issue does occur, the mediator is expected to firstly try
and discuss the presenting issue with their client; however, in situations where the factors under
consideration are particularly urgent, it is accepted that this cannot always be the case
Legitimate breaches of confidentiality relate to circumstances where the information the client has shared
relates to anti-national activities; information of this nature must be reported. There are other
circumstances where breaching confidentiality may be considered legitimate, for example, in the case of
serious crime or suspected child abuse. Mediation service providers and mediators practicing
independently have their own boundaries but must agree this contractually with their client at the outset of
the client-counsel relationship.
122. Being obliged to break confidentiality in a mediator-client relationship is always a direct result of the
law.
(a) Definitely True (b) Definitely False (c) Data Inadequate (d) Probably False
123. When a client reports their involvement in a serious crime, their Mediators is legally obliged to
report this ?
(a) Definitely True (b) Probably True (c) Definitely False (d) Data Inadequate
124. Mediators have some flexibility regarding what they deem serious enough to lead them to breach
confidentiality.
(a) Definitely True (b) Definitely False (c) Probably False (d) Data Inadequate
125. Most Mediators agree with the conditions that the law places on them relating to breaching client
confidentiality.
(a) Definitely True (b) Definitely False (c) Probably False (d) Data Inadequate
126. If a mediator breaches his client’s confidence about a serious issue without first informing their
client of their intentions, they are breaking the law.
(a) Definitely True (b) Probably False (c) Definitely False (d) Data Inadequate
Directions (Q. 127 – Q. 128): Find out the wrong number in the series.
127. 1,2,8,33,148,760,4626
(a) 760 (b) 148 (c) 4626 (d) 2
128. 888, 440, 216, 104, 48, 22, 6

(a) 440 (b) 216 (c) 22 (d) 6
Directions (Q. 129 – Q. 130): Find the one that does not belong to the group.
129. (a) 1:0 (b) 7 : 50 (c) 6 : 35 (d) 3 : 8
130. (a) LO (b) HS (c) DW (d) JR
131. If in a certain code language ‘BETTER’ is written as ‘EHWQBO’, then how will ‘LAWYER’ be written
in that language?
(a) ODZVBO (b) OBZVDO (c) DOZVBO (d) OVZOBD
132. If in a certain code language ‘PERFECT’ is written as ‘116’, then how will ‘DIVORCE’ be written in
that code ?
(a) 111 (b) 120 (c) 113 (d) 117
222
133. Which is the largest fraction ?

(a) 3/4 (b) 7/8 (c) 4/5 (d) 7/9
134. How many degrees are there between clock hands at 3.15 ?
(a) 0 (b) 5.5 (c) 7.5 (d) 10
Directions (Q. 135 – Q. 140): Read the following short passages and choose the best answer to the
Modern science is built on the process of posing hypotheses and testing them against observations – in
essence, attempting to show that the hypotheses are incorrect. Nothing brings more recognition than
overthrowing conventional wisdom. It is accordingly not surprising that some scientists are sceptical of the
widely accepted predictions of global warming. What is instead remarkable is that with hundreds of
researchers striving to make breakthroughs in climatology, very few find evidence that global warming is
unlikely.
135. The information above provides the most support for which one of the following statements?
(a) Most researchers in climatology have substantial motive to find evidence that would discredit the
global warming hypothesis.
(b) There is evidence that conclusively shows that the global warming hypothesis is true.
(c) Most scientists who are reluctant to accept the global warming hypothesis are not acting in
accordance with the accepted standards of scientific debate.
(d) Research in global warming is primarily driven by a desire for recognition in the scientific community.
136. The indigenous people of Tago are clearly related to the indigenous people of Taminia, but were
separated from them when the land bridge between Taminia and Tago disappeared approximately 10,000
years ago. Two thousand years after the disappearance of the land bridge, however, there were major
differences between the culture and technology of the indigenous Tagoians and those of the indigenous
Taminians. The indigenous Tagoian unlike their Taminian relatives, had no domesticated dogs, fishing
nets, polished stone tools, or hunting implements like the boomerang and the spear-thrower.
Each of the following, if true, would contribute to an explanation of differences described above EXCEPT
(a) Although the technological and cultural Innovations were developed in Taminia more than 10,000
years ago, they were developed by groups in Northern Taminia with whom the indigenous Tagoian had
no contact prior to the disappearance of the land bridge.
(b) Devices such as the spear-thrower and the boomerang were developed by the indigenous Tagoian
more than 10,000 years ago.
(c) After the disappearance of the land bridge the indigenous Tagoian simply abandoned certain
practices and technologies that they had originally shared with their Taminian relatives.
(d) Indigenous people of Taminia developed hunting implements like boomerang and the spear-thrower
after the disappearance of the land bridge.
137. Arbitrator: The shipping manager admits that he decided to close the old facility on October 14 and
to schedule the new facility’s opening for October 17, the following Monday. But he also claims that he is
not responsible for the business that was lost due to new facility’s failing to open as scheduled. He
blames the contractor for not finishing on time, but he too, is to blame, for he was aware of the
contractor’s typical delays and should have planned for this contingency.
Which one of the following principles underlies the arbitrator’s argument ?

(a) A manager should see to it that contractors do their job promptly.
(b) A manager should be held responsible for mistakes by those whom the manager directly supervises.
(c) A manager should take foreseeable problems into account when making decisions.
(d) A manager, and only a manager, should be held responsible for a project’s failure.
223
138. Anita: Television programs and movies that depict violence among teenagers are extremely
popular. Given how influential these media are, we have good reason to believe that these depictions
cause young people to engage in violent behaviour. Hence, depictions of violence among teenagers
should be prohibited from movies and television programs.
Amrita: But you are recommending nothing short of censorship! Besides which, your claim that television
and movie depictions of violence causes violence is mistaken: violence among young people predates
movies and television by centuries.
Amrita’s attempted refutation of Anita’s argument is vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following
grounds ?
(a) It confuses a subjective judgment of private moral permissibility with an objective description of social
fact.
(b) It presupposes that an unpopular policy cannot possibly achieve its intended purpose.
(c) It cite purported historical facts that cannot possibly be verified.
(d) It rules out something as a cause of a current phenomenon solely on the ground that the
phenomenon used to occur without that thing.
139. Most people feel that they are being confused by the information from the broadcast news. This
could be the effect of the information’s being delivered too quickly or of its being poorly organized.
Analysis of the information content of a typical broadcast news story shows that news stories are far
lower in information density than the maximum information density with which most people can cope at
any one point of time. So, the information in typical broadcast news stories is poorly organised.
Which one of the following is an assumption that the argument requires in order for its conclusion to be
properly drawn ?
(a) It is not the number of broadcast news stories to which a person is exposed that is the source of the
feeling of confusion.
(b) Poor organisation of information in a news story makes it impossible to understand the information.
(c) Being exposed to more broadcast news stories within a given day would help a person to better
understand the news.
(d) Most people can cope with a very high information density.
140. Cafe’s Coffee Emporium stocks only two decaffeinated coffees: English Roast and German Mocha.
Ratan only serves decaffeinated coffee, and the coffee he served after dinner last night was far too
smooth and mellow to have been English Roast.
So, if Ratan still gets all his coffee from Cafe’s, what he served last night was German Mocha.
The argument above is most similar in its logical structure to which one of the following?
(a) Sunny wants to take three friends to the beach. His mother owns both a sedan and a convertible. The
convertible can accommodate four people. Although the sedan has a more powerful engine, if Sunny
borrows a vehicle from his mother, he will borrow the convertible.
(b) Ruchi can either take a two-week vacation in July or wait until October and take a three-week
vacation. The trail she had planned to hike requires three weeks to complete but is closed by October,
so if Ruchi takes a vacation, it will not be the one she had planned.
(c) If Tamanna does not fire her assistant, her staff will rebel and her department’s efficiency will decline.
Losing her assistant would also reduce its efficiency, so, if no alternative solution can be found,
Tamanna’s department will become less efficient.
(d) Wikro, Inc. has offered Arshit a choice between a job in sales and a job in research. Arshit would like
to work at Wikro but he would never take a job in sales when another job is available, so if he accepts
one of these jobs, it will be the one in research.
SECTION – E : MATHEMATICS
141. Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that one is a club and one is
a diamond, is
(a) 13/102 (b) 46/104 (c) 12/21 (d) 13/200
224
142. Sanju has two watches with a 12-hour cycle. One of these watches, gains one minute a day and the
other loses 1 and 1/2 minutes per day. If Sanju sets both the watches at the correct time, how long will it
be before they again show the correct time together?
(a) 482 days (b) 290 days (c) 1440 days (d) 730 days
143. To display 500 Wax Statuettes in a Museum, it is required to construct a big rectangular hall,
allowing 22.5 m3 space per statuette. The height of the hall is to be kept at 7.5 m, while the total inner
surface area of the walls must be 1,200 sq.m. Then the length and breadth of the hall, respectively, are
(a) 62 m and 22m (b) 50 m and 30 m (c) 46 m and 35 m (d) 40 m and 32 m
144. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular Jogging Park is 3:2. If Ashish cycling
along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area
of the park (in sq. m) is
(a) 3,07,200 sq. m (b) 30,720 sq. m (c) 1,53,600 sq. m (d) 15,360 sq. m
145. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 1,008 in 2 years and to Rs. 1,164 in 3 ½ years. Find the
sum and the rate of interest.
(a) Rs.900 and 12 % (b) Rs. 800 and 12 %

(c) Rs.700 and 13 % (d) Rs.800 and 13 %
146. Azhar can row 9.333 kmph in still waters and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up
than as to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current of the river is
(a) 3.333 km/hr (b) 3.111 km/hr (c) 4.666 km/hr (d) 4.5 km/hr
147. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has
made 21 revolutions, then the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel is
(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 14 (d) 42
148. In a University, for each Rs.200 spent by the Cultural Committee, Debating Committee spends Rs.20
and for every Rs.400 spent by the Debating Committee, the Student Welfare Committee spends Rs.150.
The triple ratio of the money spent by the Cultural Committee to the money spent by the Debating
Committee to the money spent by the Student Welfare Committee can be expressed as
(a) 80 : 8 : 3 (b) 60 : 8 : 3 (c) 40 : 4 : 3 (d) 20 : 4 : 3
149. A wooden almirah is sold at a certain price. By selling it at 2/3 of that price one loses 10%. Find the
profit per cent at the original price.
(a) 15% (b) 25% (c) 35% (d) 45%
150. The ratio between the present ages of Anu and Balbir is 5 : 3, respectively. The ratio between Anu’s
age 4 years ago and Balbir’s 4 years hence is 1 :1. What is the ratio between Anu’s age 4 years hence
and Balbir’s age 4 years ago ?
(a) 4 :1 (b) 2 : 4 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 3 :1
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AILET 2018 Answers

1 B 31 B 61 A 91 C 121 A
2 A 32 C 62 B 92 A 122 B
3 D 33 D 63 A 93 B 123 C
4 C 34 A 64 C 94 B 124 A
5 B 35 A 65 D 95 C 125 D
6 D 36 C 66 D 96 D 126 C
7 A 37 D 67 C 97 D 127 A
8 C 38 A 68 A 98 B 128 C
9 D 39 C 69 B 99 C 129 B
10 B 40 D 70 D 100 A 130 D
11 C 41 A 71 D 101 B 131 A
12 D 42 B 72 B 102 A 132 C
13 A 43 C 73 A 103 D 133 B
14 D 44 D 74 A 104 C 134 C
15 A 45 C 75 C 105 A 135 A
16 B 46 A 76 B 106 A 136 B
17 D 47 D 77 B 107 C 137 C
18 C 48 B 78 B 108 D 138 D
19 B 49 D 79 C 109 B 139 A
20 C 50 D 80 A 110 D 140 D
21 D 51 A 81 D 111 A 141 A
22 C 52 B 82 A 112 B 142 C
23 A 53 D 83 D 113 B 143 B
24 D 54 C 84 C 114 A 144 C
25 A 55 A 85 B 115 B 145 D
26 B 56 B 86 A 116 C 146 C
27 D 57 D 87 B 117 D 147 B
28 C 58 A 88 C 118 C 148 A
29 D 59 B 89 B 119 B 149 C
30 A 60 C 90 A 120 D 150 D
226
AILET 2019
SECTION-A: ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 1 – Q. 8): Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow.
Surajendu Kumar’s study on the effect of the modernization of a Government Printing Press on Press
maintenance work and workers is a solid contribution to a debate that encompasses two lively issues in
the history and sociology of technology: technological determinism and social constructivism.
Kumar makes the point that the characteristics of a technology have a decisive influence on job skills and
work organization. Put more strongly, technology can be a primary determinant of social and managerial
organization. Kumar believes this possibility has been obscured by the recent sociological fashion,
exemplified by Cravman’s analysis, that emphasizes the way machinery reflects social choices. For
Cravman, the shape of a technological system is subordinate to the manager’s desire to wrest control of
the labor process from the workers. Technological change is construed as the outcome of negotiations
among interested parties who seek to incorporate their own interests into the design and configuration of
the machinery. This position represents the new mainstream called the social constructivism.
The constructivists gain acceptance by misrepresenting technological determinism: technological

determinists are supposed to believe, for example, that machinery imposes appropriate forms of order on
society. The alternative to constructivism, in other words, is to view technology as existing outside society,
capable of directly influencing skills and work organization.
Kumar refutes the extremes of the constructivists by both theoretical and empirical arguments.
Theoretically, he defines “technology” in terms of relationship between social and technical variables.
Attempts to reduce the meaning of technology to cold, hard metal are bound to fail, for machinery is just
scrap unless it is organized functionally and supported by appropriate systems of operation and
maintenance. At the empirical level, Kumar shows how a change at the Printing Press from maintenance-
intensive electromechanical devices to semi-electronic devices altered work tasks, skills, training
opportunities, administration, and organization of workers. Some changes Kumar attributes to the
particular way management and labor unions negotiated the introduction of the technology, whereas
others are seen as arising from the capabilities and nature of the technology itself.
Thus, Kumar helps answer the question: “When is social choice decisive and when are concrete
characteristics of technology more important ?”
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to –

(a) challenge the position of advocates of technological determinism.
(b) consider a successful challenge to the constructivist view of technological change.
(c) suggest that the social causes of the technological change should be studied in real situation.
(d) advocate a more positive attitude towards technological change.
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2. Which of the following statements about the modernization of the Printing Press is supported by the
information provided in the passage?
(a) Some of the maintenance workers felt victimized by the new technology.
(b) The modernization was implemented without the consent of the employees directly affected by it.
(c) The new technology reduced the role of managers in labor negotiations.
(d) The modernization had an impact that went significantly beyond maintenance routines.
3. Which of the following most accurately describes Kumar’s opinion of Cravman’s position?
(a) He is sympathetic to its concern about the impact of modern technology on workers.
(b) He is concerned about its potential to impede the implementation of new technologies.
(c) He disapproves of its misplaced emphasis on the influence of managers.
(d) He admires the consideration it gives to the attitude of workers affected.
4. Which of the following statements from the passage suggests that the hypothetical sociological
studies of change in industry most clearly exemplifies the social constructivists’ version of technological
determinism?
(a) It is the available technology that determines worker’s skills, rather than workers’ skill influencing the
application of technology.
(b) Some industrial technology eliminates jobs, but educated workers can create whole new skills areas
by the adaptation of the technology.
(c) Most major technological advances in industry have been generated through research and
development.
(d) All progress in industrial technology grows out of a continuing negotiation between technological
possibility and human need.
5. According to the passage, Kumar believes if social constructivism had not gained widespread
acceptance, then which of the following would be true?
(a) Modernization would have occurred at a slower rate.
(b) Businesses would be more likely to modernize without considering the social consequences of their
actions.
(c) There would be greater understanding of the role played by technology in producing social change.
(d) Businesses would be less likely to understand the attitudes of employees affected by modernization.
6. According to the passage, constructivists employed which of the following to promote their argument?
(a) Construction of hypothetical situations that support their view.
(b) Empirical studies of business situations involving technological change.
(c) Description of the breadth of impact of technological change.
(d) Contrasts of their view with a misstatement of an opposing view.
7. The author of the passage uses the expression “are supposed to” in third para (highlighted) primarily
in order to –
(a) define the generally accepted position of determinists regarding the implementation of technology
(b) engage in speculation about the motivation of determinists
(c) suggest that a contention made by constructivists regarding determinists is inaccurate
(d) lend support to a comment critical of the position of determinists
8. Which of the following statements about Kumar’s study of the Printing Press can be inferred from the
information in the passage ?
(a) Kumar’s study suggests that the implementation of technology should be discussed in the context of
conflict between labor and management.
(b) Kumar examined the impact of changes in the technology at the printing Press in terms of overall
operations and organization.
(c) Kumar concluded that the implementation of new technology was equally beneficial to management
and labor.
(d) Kumar’s reason for undertaking the study was to undermine Cravman’s analysis of the function of
technology.
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Directions (Q. 9 – Q. 11): In each of the following questions, a word is highlighted. Choose the word
which is a synonym of the highlighted word.
9. The flaw of the genre is not in betraying the loquacious John Williams and the chatty Father Foucquet,
but in failing to schedule an interview with the reticent Eunice Williams and the tongue-tied John Hu.
(a) Talkative (b) Laconic (c) Taciturn (d) Reserved
10. The above data suggest that common mechanisms underpin attachment organization in caregiver
and infant, and the precocious emergence of mentalizing in the child.
(a) typical (b) late (c) advanced (d) sudden
11. But there remains the ineluctable sense that something is badly, mysteriously wrong—if nothing else,
because neither Kawhi nor the Spurs organization seems to need, or want, to clear things up.
(a) unnecessary (b) illusive (c) evitable (d) unavoidable
Directions (Q. 12 – Q. 13): Following are the questions based on the same words used as different parts
of speech. Choose the correct matches.
12. Down
1. Adverb A. He has seen the ups and downs of life.
2. Preposition B. The porter was killed by the down train.
3. Adjective C. The fire engine came crashing down the hill.
4. Noun D. Down went the “Royal George.”
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A.4-B (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
13. Why
1. Interrogative Adverb A. Why did you do it ?
2. Relative Adverb B. I know the reason why he did it.
3. Interjection C. Why, it is surely Nanak !
4. Noun D. This is not the time to go into the why and the wherefore of it.
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
Directions (Q. 14 – Q. 23): Each of the following questions has a sentence, part or all of which is
underlined. Four sentences are given in the options. Choose the sentence, which is correct
grammatically. Make sure the sentence is clear, exact and free from redundancy, ambiguity and
awkwardness.
14. Although she was considered among her contemporaries to be the better poet than her husband,
later Kassia was overshadowed by his success.
(a) Although she was considered among her contemporaries to be the better poet than her husband,
later Kassia was overshadowed by his success.
(b) Later overshadowed by the success of her husband, Kassia’s poetry had been considered among
her contemporaries to be better than that of her husband.
(c) Although Kassia’s success was later overshadowed by that of her husband, among her
contemporaries she was considered the better poet.
(d) Kassia’s poetry was considered among her contemporaries as better than her husband, but her
success was later overshadowed by his.
15. A ruined structure found at Aizawl. India, was probably a church, as indicated in its eastward
orientation and by its overall plan, as well as artifacts, such as glass-oil lamp fragments, found at the
site.
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(a) A ruined structure found at Aizawl, India, was probably a church, as indicated in its eastward
orientation and by its overall plan, as well as
(b) A ruined structure found at Aizawl, India, once probably being a church, was indicated by its
eastward orientation, overall plan, and
(c) A ruined structure found at Aizawl, India, was probably a church, as indicates its eastward orientation
and overall plan, as well as the
(d) That a ruined structure found at Aizawl, India, was probably a church is indicated by its eastward
orientation and overall plan, as well as by the
16. Octopus, with anywhere from five to eight arms, have a strong regenerative ability, and if one arm is
lost it quickly replaces it. sometimes by the animal overcompensating and growing an extra one or two.
(a) one arm is lost it quickly replaces it, sometimes by the animal overcompensating and
(b) one arm is lost it is quickly replaced, with the animal sometimes overcompensating and
(c) they lose one arm they quickly replace it, sometimes by the animal overcompensating,
(d) they lose one arm it is quickly replaced, sometimes with the animal overcompensating,
17. The eves of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than any other animal vet tested, thus
allowing it to hunt efficiently under the gloomy conditions at its feeding depths of between 500 and 800
meters.
(a) The eyes of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than any other animal yet tested, thus
allowing it
(b) The eyes of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than does any other animal yet tested,
allowing them
(c) The eyes of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than do those of any other animal yet tested,
allowing it
(d) Because the eyes of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than do those of any other animal yet
tested, it allows them
18. The first trenches that were cut into a 1000 acre site at Haji Pivada. Afghanistan, have yielded strong
evidence for centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia that were arising
simultaneously with but independently of the more celebrated city-states of Indus Valley Civilization, in
what is now northern India.
(a) that were cut into a 1000-acre site at Haji Piyada, Afghanistan, yields strong evidence that centrally
administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia were arising simultaneously with but also
(b) having been cut into a 1000-acre site at Haji Piyada, Afghanistan, have yielded strong evidence that
centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia were arising simultaneously but
(c) cut into a 1000-acre site at Haji Piyada, Afghanistan, yields strong evidence of centrally administered
complex societies in northern regions of Asia arising simultaneously but also
(d) cut into a 1000-acre site at Haji Piyada, Afghanistan, have yielded strong evidence that centrally
administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia arose simultaneously with but
19. While it costs about the same to run atomic power plants as other types of power plants, it is the
fixed costs that stem from building atomic power plants that makes it more expensive for them to
generate electricity.
(a) While it costs about the same to run atomic power plants as other types of power plants, it is the fixed
costs that stem from building atomic power plants that makes it more expensive for them to generate
electricity.
(b) While the cost of running atomic power plants is about the same as for other types of power plants,
the fixed costs that stem from building atomic power plants make the electricity they generate more
expensive.
(c) Even though it costs about the same to run atomic power plants as for other types of power plants, it
is the fixed costs that stem from building atomic power plants that makes the electricity they generate
more expensive.
(d) It costs about the same to run atomic power plants as for other types of power plants, whereas the
electricity they generate is more expensive, stemming from the fixed costs of building atomic power
plants.
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20. About 8 million acres in the British Isles have been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from
Russia with milky sap that gives mouth sores to cattle, displacing grasses and other cattle food and
rendering grasslands worthless.
(a) Isles have been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia with milky sap that gives
mouth sores to cattle, displacing grasses and other cattle food and rendering
(b) Isles have been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia, with milky sap, that gives
mouth sores to cattle and displaces grasses and other cattle food, rendering
(c) Isles have been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia having milky sap that gives
mouth sores to cattle and displacing grasses and other cattle food, rendering
(d) Isles, having been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia that has milky sap giving
mouth sores to cattle and displacing grasses and other cattle food, rendering
21. In Xonia, a lack of genetic variation in the Rodian ant has allowed the species to spread widely; due
to their being so genetically similar to one another, the ants consider all their fellows to be a close
relative and thus do not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colonv struggles that limits the spread of this
species in its native Rodia.
(a) due to their being so genetically similar to one another, the ants consider all their fellows to be a
close relative and thus do not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colony struggles that limits
(b) due to its being so genetically similar, the ant considers all its fellows to be a close relative and thus
does not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colony struggles that limit
(c) because they are so genetically similar to one another, the ants consider all their fellows to be close
relatives and thus do not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colony struggles that limit
(d) because of being so genetically similar to one another, the ants consider all their fellows to be a close
relative and thus do not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colony struggles that limits
22. Rivaling the Roman Colosseum or even the ancient cities of the Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro as an
achievement, the army of bronze warriors created to protect Juan Ming. Indonesia’s King, during his
lifetime is more than 3.000 years old and took 900.000 artisans more than 40 years to complete.
(a) the army of bronze warriors created to protect Juan Ming, Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime is
more than 3,000 years old and took 900,000 artisans more than 40 years to complete
(b) it took 900,000 artisans more than 40 years to create an army of bronze warriors more than 3,000
years ago that would protect Juan Ming, Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime
(c) more than 3,000 years ago, 900,000 artisans worked more than 40 years to create an army of bronze
warriors to protect Juan Ming, Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime
(d) more than 40 years were needed to complete the army of bronze warriors that 900,000 artisans
created 3,000 years ago to protect Juan Ming, Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime
23. Tides typically range from four to seven feet, but while some places show no tides at all, some
others, such as the Bay of Bengal, have tides of at least twenty feet and more.
(a) the others, such as the Bay of Bengal, that have tides of more than twenty feet
(b) others, such as the Bay of Bengal, have tides of more than twenty feet
(c) those at the Bay of Bengal, which has tides of more than twenty feet
(d) the ones at the Bay of Bengal have tides of at least twenty feet and more
Directions (Q. 24 – Q. 29) : Following questions are based on the various Figures of Speech.
24. Which of the following statements is not an example of epigram ?

(a) So innocent arch, so cunningly simple.
(b) A man cannot be too careful in the choice of his enemies.
(c) Fools rush in where angels fear to tread.
(d) Art lies in concealing art.
25. Which of the following statements is an example of Litotes ?

(a) I am a citizen of no mean city.
(b) Is life worth living ? – It depends upon the liver.
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(c) Why, man, if the river were dry, I am able to fill it with tears.
(d) He had his jest, and they had his estate.
26. Which of the following statement is an example of metaphor ?

(a) The righteous shall flourish as the palm tree.
(b) The Assyrian came down like a wolf on the fold.
(c) As the hart panteth after the water-brooks, so panteth my soul after Thee, 0 God.
(d) Revenge is a kind of wild justice.
27. Which of the following statements is an example of Metonymy ?

(a) Uneasy lies the head that wears the crown.
(b) He was playing to the gallery.
(c) He has many mouths to feed.
(d) England won the first test match against Australia.
28. Which of the following statements is an example of Oxymoron ?

(a) Not that I loved Caesar less, but that I loved Rome more.
(b) Speech is silvern, but silence is golden.
(c) She accepted it as the kind cruelty of the surgeon’s knife.
(d) Give every man thy ear, but few thy voice.
29. Which of the following statements is an example of Pun ?

(a) No doubt but ye are the people, and wisdom shall die with you.
(b) An ambassador is an honest man who lies aboard for the good of his country.
(c) I must be taught my duty, and by you!
(d) One truth is clear: whatever is, is right.
Direction (Q. 30 – Q. 35): Choose the best word to fill in the blanks
Roshan acknowledges that late payment of rent will cause Ram, his Landlord to (30) costs not
contemplated by their Lease, the exact amount of which will be extremely difficult to (31). These costs
include, but are not (32) to, processing and accounting charges, and late charges which may be (33) on
Landlord by the terms of any Superior Leases and Mortgages. Accordingly, if any installment of Monthly
Rent or payment of additional rent is not received by Ram or Landlord’s assignee within fifteen days after
the amount is (34), Roshan shall pay to Ram a late charge equal to ten per cent of said amount.
Acceptance of late charges by Ram shall not constitute a waiver of Roshan’s default with respect to said
amount, nor prevent Ram from (35) any of the other rights and remedies granted hereunder or at law or
inequity.
30. (a) derive (b) acquire (c) collect (d) incur

31. (a) affirm (b) classify (c) ascertain (d) locate
32. (a) contained (b) limited (c) held (d) bound
33. (a) imposed (b) dictated (c) obliged (d) required
34. (a) owing (b) scheduled (c) due (d) unpaid
35. (a) practicing (b) exercising (c) commanding (d) undertaking
SECTION –B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
36. Why North-western India gets rainfall in winter season of January and February ?
(a) Due to western disturbance in Mediterranean Sea
(b) Due to eastern disturbance in the Mediterranean Sea
(c) Due to western disturbances in the Pacific Ocean
(d) Due to eastern disturbances in Pacific Ocean
37. Which of the following is/are true about Methanol based Economy ?
I. Future economy in which dimethyl ether replace fossil fuels as a means of energy storage.
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II. It offers an alternative to the proposed hydrogen economy or ethanol economy.

III. China is the world’s largest producer of methanol.
IV. Menthol cannot be made by chemical recycling of carbon-dioxide.
(a) I, II (b) II, III (c) III, IV (d) I, II, III
38. Which airport is known as the ‘World’s Emptiest Airport’ ?

(a) Sigiriya Airport, Dambulla (b) Ellinikon International Airport, Athens
(c) Mattala international Airport, Hambantota (d) Berlin Tempelhof Airport, Germany
39. Who has prepared Global Risk Report 2019 ?

(a) United Nation (b) World Economic Forum
(c) Greenpeace International (d) None of these
40. India’s first Vertical-Lift Bridge will connect

(a) Rameswaram to mainland India (b) Ahmedabad to Mumbai
(c) Daman and Diu to Gujarat (d) Kavaratti to mainland India
41. What was the cause of extreme cold in USA in January and February 2019 ?
(a) Strengthening of Polar Vortex (b) Weakening of Polar Vortex
(c) Extreme cold in Antarctica (d) Depletion of Ozone layer
42. Which of the following are the Administrative/Revenue units of Jammu and Kashmir ?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Jammu, Kashmir, Kargil
(c) Jammu, Kashmir, Leh (d) Jammu, Kashmir, Ladakh
43. Which of the following is/are true about the Earth’s Magnetic Field ?
I. Earth Magnetic Field is shifting from Canada and moving towards Siberia.
II. The Magnetic Pole is moving fast because of turbulence in Earth’s liquid outer core.
III. The constant shift is a problem for compasses in smartphones and some consumer electronics.
IV. GPS will also be affected by fast moving of Magnetic Pole.
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, II, III (c) I, II (d) III, IV
44. Which of the following is/are true about concept of Most Favored Nation (MFN) ?
I. It establishes the sovereign equality of states with respect to trading policy.
II. There are two forms of MFN treatment: conditional and unconditional.
III. Such treatment has always applied primarily to the duties charged on imports.
IV. Custom unions and free trade areas are exceptions to MFN principle.
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, IV (c) I, II, III, IV (d) I, III, IV
45. Who has become highest wicket taker in Internationa! Cricket in 2018 ?
(a) Mohamed Shami (b) Jaspreet Bumrah (c) Billy Stanelcake (d) Marcus Stoinis
46. Who is appointed as the New Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh in 2018 ?
(a) Kamal Nath (b) Shivraj Singh Chouhan (c) Jyotiraditya Scindia (d) Ashok Gehlot
47. Who is appointed as the New Chief Information Commission of India ?

(a) R. K. Mathur (b) Vandana N. Sarna (c) Sudhir Bhargava (d) Suresh Chandra
48. Which of the following countries have quit the membership of UNESCO ?
(a) USA and China (b) USA and Iran (c) Israel and Iran (d) Israel and USA
49. USA has ceased to be member of which of the following organizations ?

(a) NAFTA (b) COP21 (c) UNHRC (d) All of the above
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50. Which country has introduced GAFA tax on Global Internet Technology firms ?
(a) Germany (b) Spain (c) Belgium (d) France
51. The Yellow Vest protest of France is in respect of

(a) Green Tax on fuel (b) Labour Policy (c) Unemployment (d) Economic Policy
52. The Cabinet has approved merger of Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank with
(a) SBI (b) Indian Bank (c) Bank of Baroda (d) Indian Overseas Bank
53. Which of the following countries recently assumed the seat of non-permanent member of UN
Security Council ?
(a) South Africa (b) Netherlands (c) Sweden (d) India
54. Which of the following country’s spacecraft has landed for the first time on the far side of the Moon?
(a) USA (b) Russia (c) China (d) Japan
55. India’s fastest train, Vande Bharat Express, will run from_____ to_____
(a) Delhi, Varanasi (b) Delhi, Agra (c) Delhi, Mumbai (d) Mumbai, Bengaluru
56. The HQ of International Olympic Committee is located in

(a) USA (b) France (c) Switzerland (d) Germany
57. Which of the following statements is/are true ?

I. According to Indus Water Treaty, India got the full rights for utilization of waters of three eastern rivers
Ravi, Beas and Satluj.
II. Shahpur Kandi dam is planned to be built across the river Satluj.
III. Implementation of the Shahpurkandi Dam project would minimize wastage of water to Pakistan.
(a) I, II, III (b) I, II (c) II, III (d) I, III
58. Hayabusa 2 was in news recently, which of the following statement regarding it is correct ?
(a) It is Japan’s first Mars Mission, funded by NASA.
(b) Asteroid sample-return mission operated by the Japanese space Agency, JAXA.
(c) It is a military satellite by JAXA.
(d) It is Japan’s first mission to Jupiter.
59. World’s first privately funded mission to Moon is launched by

(a) USA (b) Russia (c) Japan (d) Israel
60. Which of the following railway stations in India is NOT to be redeveloped in a PPP mode ?
(a) Bhubaneshwar (b) Habibganj (c) Delhi Sarai Rohilla (d) Jammu Tawi
61. ______was one of the first countries in the world to propose a ban on the sale of petrol and diesel
cars by making the switch to electric-powered vehicles.
(a) France (b) UK (c) Norway (d) Scotland
62. Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding Credit Rating Agencies (CRA) in India ?
I. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (CRA) Regulations, 1999 empower SEBI to regulate
CRAs operating in India.
II. All the credit agencies need to be registered with SEBI in order to operate in India.
III. There are several Indian Credit Rating Agencies, viz. CRISIL, ICRA, CARE, India Ratings and
Research, SMERA, Infomerics and Brickworks, Moody, Fitch.
IV. CRAs help strengthening of primary market by increasing borrower pool.
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) III, IV (c) I, III (d) II, IV
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63. Which of the following companies has designed gates and reader for the National Common Mobility
Card in India ?
(a) Bharat Electronics Limited (b) Hindustan Electronic Limited
(c) Reliance (d) Tata
64. Why Ratnagiri, which will be Asia’s largest oil refinery, was in news recently ?
I. Protest over acquisition of land by government
II. Protest over harm on eco-sensitive zone
III. Protest against impact on mango and cashew crops
IV. Protest over acquisition of land under State Law and not under Central law on acquisition of land.
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, IV (c) I, II, IV (d) I, II, III, IV
65. World’s largest Solar Park is being inaugurated in

(a) Karnataka, India (b) Tengger Desert, China
(c) Gobi Desert, China (d) Rajasthan, India
66. Which of the following movies got the 91st Academy Award for Best Picture ?
(a) Black Panther (b) Green Book (c) Bohemian Rhapsody (d) Roma
67. Bharat Ratna 2019 will be conferred to

I. Bhupen Hazarika
II. Pranab Mukherjee
III. Nanaji Deshmukh
IV. Atal Bihari Bajpai
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, II (c) I, II, III (d) II, III
68. Sunderban Reserve Forest was accorded the status of ‘Wetland of International Importance’ under
which of the following International Instruments ?
(a) Ramsar Convention
(b) Convention on Biological Diversity
(c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(d) Kyoto Protocol
69. In March 2019, RBI has allowed White Level ATM Operators to buy wholesale cash, above a threshold
of__________ pieces of any denomination, directly from the Reserve Bank and Currency Chests against
full payment.
(a) 5 Lakh (b) 3 lakh (c) 2 lakh (d) 1 lakh
70. In March 2019, which of the following countries government resigned after failure of flagship health
and social care reform ?
(a) Sweden (b) Finland (c) Poland (d) Norway
SECTION –C: LEGAL APTITUDE

appropriate answer.
Legal Principles:
1. An attempt is an act committed in part execution of a criminal design or intent, more than mere
preparation, but failing short of actual commission.
2. Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to
deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or
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intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do/omit if
he were net so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that
person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to “cheat”.
3. Preparation is the second stage in the commission of a crime. It means to arrange the necessary
measures for the commission of the intended criminal act.
4. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of
causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that his act is likely to cause
death, commits the offence of murder.
5. Whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act shall be guilty of
negligence.
71. In which of the following cases, X is guilty of attempting to commit the offence?
(a) X, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Y, send his servant to buy a stamp
paper in the name of Y. As the servant reaches shop, he Is arrested.
(b) X shoots at Y whose back is towards him. Y is not hurt as he is beyond the range of the gun.
(c) X pours half a pint of substance from a bottle marked ‘poison1 into the drink of Y. Y Is not aware of it.
Later, it turns out that the bottle did not contain any poison.
(d) X administers some noxious substance to Ria so that an abortion results. The woman was not
pregnant.
72. Facts : Amar applied for the post of P. G. Teacher in a government school and submitted his
application along with his degrees. He was called for the interview on 10 June 2018. But the school
authorities on 10 May 2018 discovered that the copy of the degrees attached with Amar’s application are
forged and so the interview was cancelled.
Is any offence committed by Amar?

(a) Amar is guilty of cheating.
(b) Amar is guilty of preparation to cheat.
(c) Amar is guilty of attempt to cheat.
(d) Amar is not guilty of any offence as he is not called for the interview.
73. Facts: X tries to pickpocket Z. Z has a loaded pistol in his pocket. X’s hand touches the pistol and
triggers it, resulting in the death of Z.
Which of the following offence is committed by X ?

(a) X is guilty of causing Z’s murder.
(b) X is guilty of culpable homicide by negligence.
(c) X is guilty of causing grievous hurt.
(d) X is guilty of pickpocketing.
appropriate answer.
Legal Principles :
1. The Tort of Negligence is a legal wrong that is suffered by someone at the hands of another who fails
to take proper care to avoid what a reasonable person would regard as a foreseeable risk.
2. The test of liability requires that the harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of the defendant’s
conduct, a relationship of proximity must exist and it must be fair, just and reasonable to impose liability.
3. Volenti non-fit injuria is defence to action in negligence.
74. Facts : In a sad incident, 95 fans of a Football club died in a stampede in the Nehru Stadium. The
court has decided that the accident was caused due to the negligence of the Police in permitting too many
supporters to crowd in one part of the stadium. Now, a suit is filed by Harman and several other people
against the Commissioner of State Police. Harman and the other claimants had relatives who were caught
up in the Nehru Stadium disaster. The disaster was broadcast on live television, where several claimants
alleged, they had witnessed friends and relatives die. Others were present in the stadium or had heard
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about the events in other ways. All claimed damages for the psychiatric harm they suffered as a result.
Determine whether, for the purposes of establishing liability in negligence, those who suffer purely
psychiatric harm from witnessing an event at which they are not physically present are sufficiently
proximate for a duty to be owed, and thus can be said to be reasonably within the contemplation of the
tortfeasor ?
(a) Police is liable for all of the consequences of their negligence because they could reasonable foresee
the injury. The liability towards victims who are not physically present is also there in all circumstances.
(b) Police is not liable because the duty of care towards Harman and others will be breached if they were
present at the event and the harm caused was being foreseeable. The liability towards victims who are
not physically present is only in certain exceptional circumstances.
(c) Police is not liable because the incident was an accident and supporters were there by their own free
will.
(d) Police is liable for only for the death of 95 fans burns and not for the psychiatric harm to relatives of
deceased fans which happened due to their own delicate mental condition.
75. Facts: X purchased a disused cinema with the intention of turning it into a Multiplex. Six weeks after,
X entered the building for the first time, it was set on fire by intruders and destroyed. As a result, the
adjacent buildings were also affected and damaged. The cinema building was a target to vandals and
children who often played there, but X had had no knowledge of previous attempts to start fire at the
cinema buildings. The owners of the adjacent buildings brought an action for negligence against X on
grounds that X failed to take reasonable care for the safety of the buildings by not keeping the cinema
locked, making regular inspections and employing a caretaker. Decide whether the occupier of a property
owe a duty of care to the adjoining occupiers in respect of acts of trespass on his property resulting in
damage to the adjoining properties ?
(a) An occupier of a property owes a duty of care to the adjoining occupiers in respect of acts of trespass
on his property resulting in damage to the adjoining properties under all circumstances.
(b) X was not aware of previous attempts of vandals to start fire and as such, the building did not present
an obvious fire risk, so X was not under any duty to anticipate the possibility of fire and take measures to
prevent the entry of vandals. So, no duty of care existed towards the adjoining properties in this case.
(c) Though X were not aware of previous attempts of vandals to start fire and as such and the building did
not present an obvious fire risk but he failed to take reasonable care, so X is liable.
(d) X is not liable as the adjoining occupiers are also negligent by not being careful in safeguarding their
properties against fire.
76. Facts : A team of scientists imported a virus for the purpose of research. They carried out research
on their premises into foot and mouth disease in cattle, and they were apparently responsible for the
escape of some virus. As a result, there was an outbreak of foot and mouth disease in the area, and the
Minister of Agriculture ordered two markets to be closed. This caused the some of the traders, who were
two firms of auctioneers, to suffer a loss of profits on a total of six market days, for which they sought to
recover.
Decide whether the scientists owed a duty of care towards the traders ?
(a) An ability to foresee indirect or economic loss to another person as the result of a defendant’s
conduct automatically impose on the defendant a duty to take care to avoid that loss.
(b) The loss to the traders was pecuniary. They suffered no physical harm to themselves or to any of
their property. An ability to foresee indirect or economic loss to another person as the result of a
defendant’s conduct did not automatically impose on the defendant a duty to take care to avoid that loss.
(c) It is not proved that there was negligence on the part of the scientists which resulted in an escape of
the virus so they are not liable.
(d) Though the scientists are negligent in handling the virus but they are not liable as the leakage of virus
was by accident.
77. Legal Principles :

2. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would be likely to injure his neighbour.
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3. The foreseeability of the type of damage is a pre-requisite of liability in actions of nuisance.
Facts : Bharat Sugar Ltd. operated a sugar refinery on the bank of the river Ravi. They had a jetty from
which raw sugar would be offloaded from barges and refined sugar would be taken. The sugar would be
taken by larger vessels and then transferred to smaller barges to enable them to get through the shallow
waters. As part of development Bharat Sugar Ltd. wished to construct a new jetty and dredge the water to
accommodate the larger vessels. At the same time the State was constructing new ferry terminals. The
design of the ferry terminals was such that that it caused siltation of the channels. After using the channels
for a short while, Bharat Sugars’ larger vessels were no longer able to use them. Further dredging at the
cost of Rs.7,50,000 was required to make the channel and jetties usable by the vessels. Bharat Sugar Ltd.
brought an action in nuisance to recover the cost of the extra dredging. Is the State liable ?
(a) The loss caused by the construction of new ferry terminals could not amount to a private nuisance at
law since they did not possess any private rights which enabled them to insist on any particular depth of
water.
(b) The loss caused by the construction of new ferry terminals amount to a private nuisance at law since
they did possess right to use the water at a particular depth.
(c) No, it cannot constitute private nuisance but the claimants can claim damages for loss suffered by
them.
(d) Yes, the State’s conduct was unreasonable in building the new terminals without thinking of all the
consequences it will have on the rights of other parties.
78. Legal principle : The tort of negligent misstatement is defined as an inaccurate statement made
honestly but carelessly usually in the form of advice given by a party with special skill/knowledge to a
party that doesn’t possess this skill or knowledge.
Facts : X and Y Co. were advertising agents placing contracts on behalf of a client on credit terms. X and
Y Co. would be personally liable should the client default. To protect themselves, the X and Y asked their
bankers to obtain a credit reference from K and L, the client’s bankers. The reference (given both orally
and then in writing) was given gratis and was favour able, but also contained an exclusion clause to the
effect that the information was given ‘without responsibility on the part of this Bank or its officials’. X and Y
relied upon this reference and subsequently suffered financial loss when the client went into liquidation. X
and Y sued K and L Co. for negligence, claiming that the information was given negligently and was
misleading. K and L argued there was no duty of care owed regarding the statements. Decide.
(a) The K and L’s disclaimer was not valid to protect them from liability and X and Y’s claim will not fail.
(b) The X and Y has a duty to obtain the necessary information themselves without relying upon the other
party.
(c) It was reasonable for K and L to have known that the information that they had given would likely have
been relied upon for entering into a contract of some sort. That would give rise to a special relationship of
trust, in which K and L would have to take sufficient care in giving advice to avoid negligence liability.
However, on the facts, the disclaimer is sufficient to discharge any duty created by K and L’s actions.
(d) It was reasonable for K and L to have known that the information that they had given would likely have
been relied upon for entering into a contract of some sort. That would give rise to a special relationship of
trust, in which K and L would have to take sufficient care in giving advice to avoid liability. Hence, liable for
negligent misstatement.
appropriate answer.
Legal Principles :
1. A contract comes into being from the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is
made signifies his assent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus
2. Consideration is something that moves from the promisee to the promisor, at the implied or express
request of the latter, in return for his promise. The item that moves can be a right, interest, profit, loss,
responsibility given or suffered, forbearance or a benefit which is of some value in the eyes of law.
3. Contractual rights and liabilities are exclusive to the parties to contract.
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4. There are few exceptions to the doctrine of privity of contract like agency, trust, assignment and third-
party beneficiary.
5. A quasi contract is a contract that is created by the court when no such official contract exists between
the parties to prevent a party from being unjustly enriched, or from benefiting from the situation when he
does not deserve to do so.
79. Facts : Goodtyre is a tyre manufacturer who agreed with their dealer to not sell the tyres below a
recommended retail price (RRP). As part of the agreement, Goodtyre also required their dealers to gain
the same agreement with their retailers, who in this instance was Bestmotors. The agreement held that if
tyres were sold below the RRP, they would be required to pay Rs.500 per tyre in damages to Goodtyre.
This was agreed between the dealer and Bestmotors, which effectively made Goodtyre a third-party to
that agreement. Sometime after this, Bestmotor sold the tyres below the agreed price and Goodtyre
sued for damages and an injunction to prevent them from continuing this activity. Bestmotor is arguing
that Goodtyre could not enforce the contract as it was not part of the contract between the dealer and the
Bestmotor. The court decided that Goodtyre had no right to access damages.
Which of the following are correct reasons?
I. Goodtyre could not claim for damages as only a party to a contract can claim damages under it.
II. Goodtyre had not given any consideration to Bestmotor and therefore there could be no binding
contract between the parties.
III. Goodtyre was not listed as an agent within the contract and could therefore not be included as a valid
third-party who had rights to claim on the contract.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II (d) I, II, ill
80. Facts : Nandini, by deed of gift, made over certain landed property to Reena, her daughter. By the
terms of the deed, which was registered, it was stipulated that an annuity of Rs. 3,000 should be paid
every year to the Subhashini, sister of Nandini. Reena executed in Subhashini’s favour an agreement
promising to give effect to the stipulation. The annuity was, however, not paid and the Subhashini sued
to recover it. Reena is defending herself by claiming that there is no valid contract with Subhashini.
Which of the following can be ground/s for court’s decision?
I. A promise is enforceable if there is some consideration for it and it is quite immaterial whether it moves
from the promise or any other person.
II. Only a person who is a party to a contract may demand the execution of that contract from other party.
But if there is third party beneficiary to contract then it is enforced to the extent of his\her benefit.
III. The agreement is valid as both Reena and Subhashini agreed to on the same thing in the same
sense.
IV. There is no privity of contract as Subhashini has furnished no consideration. Reena had promised to
Subhashini but consideration was furnished by Nandini.
(a) I, II (b) III, IV (c) I only (d) II only
81. Facts : Tanu’s brother, Ishan, tries to talk her into building a greenhouse in her large back-yard. She
declines, but Ishan is convinced that, if she were surprised by a lovely greenhouse, she would love it.
Knowing that Tanu makes good money, and could easily afford the greenhouse, Ishan contacts
greenhouse builder Aditya, and arranges to have him erect the structure while his sister is at work one
day.
Tanu is not happy by her brother’s initiative, but the deed is done. Ishan has directed Aditya to bill his sister
for the greenhouse, and that turns out to be the biggest surprise for her. She declines to pay, and Ishan
tells Aditya he cannot afford it. Aditya is now out, not only for payment for his many hours of hard work,
but cash for the materials he used. He files a civil suit to claim against both Tanu and Ishan. Decide.
(a) Ishan is liable to pay as he has entered into contract with Aditya for his services.
(b) Tanu is not liable to pay as there is no contract between Aditya and Tanu.
(c) Tanu is liable to pay Aditya the costs involved in building the greenhouse as she has being unjustly
enriched by this deal.
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(d) Tanu is liable as Ishan is her brother and was acting on her behalf under her implied consent as she
liked greenhouse.

1. Vicarious liability is when employers are held liable for the torts of their employees that are committed
during the course of employment.
2. A servant is a person subject to the command of his master as to the manner in which he shall do his
work. The question of whether a person is an employee depends upon the degree of control which the
’employer’ exercises over the worker.
Facts : Raja is a travel agent and possessed certain houses, which had an internal communication
throughout, and which were used for the purposes of his business. Ramesh looked after the houses, and
lived in them for this purpose, but he was also a clerk in the Raja’s pay at a set annual salary. He lived in
the houses with his wife, a child, and a servant. The case concerned the payment of inhabited house duty.
There was a statutory exemption for premises which were occupied by a “servant’’ or person occupying
the premises “for the protection thereof”. Raja was claiming the exemption from tax liability by claiming
that Ramesh was the servant. Decide whether Ramesh was a servant or an independent contractor ?
(a) Ramesh is not a servant as the premises was held purely for trade purposes, and as Ramesh’s
position was simply that of a caretaker.
(b) Ramesh earned a salary per annum in his separate role as.a clerk and merely enjoyed residence of
the building with his family members. Thus, is an employee of the building owner for tax purposes.
(c) Ramesh is a servant as servant is a person subject to the command of his master as to the manner in
which he shall do his work.
(d) Ramesh is a servant as Raja can control his work of caretaker of the building as well as his job of
clerk.

2. The person who for his own purposes brings on his lands and collects and keeps there anything likely
to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it in at his peril, and, if he does not do so, is prima facie
answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape.
3. Generally, nuisances cannot be justified on the ground of necessity, pecuniary interest, convenience,
or economic advantage to a defendant.
Facts : Dr. Hemant had for 18 years operated a clinic and hospital for the treatment of ENT. Dr. Karan
operated a renal clinic in which patients receive haemo-dialysis on the floor above the Dr. Hemant’s
clinic. The Karan was found liable for emitting from their clinic obnoxious fumes which escaped
downwards into Hemant’s clinic. Hemant, his staff and patients were found to have suffered substantial
damage ranging from skin diseases, red and swollen eyes, headaches, lethargy and breathing
difficulties. Decide whether Karan is liable ?
(a) Karan is not liable as the work is a public welfare requires, a nuisance may be permitted for special
purposes.
(b) Hemant cannot claim damages as he is voluntarily operating his clinic since a decade.
(c) Karan is not liable as he is running the clinic for 18 years and Hemant has not raised any issues
earlier.
(d) Karan is liable for the damages caused to Hemant and his staff and patients.
Directions (Q. 84 – Q. 85) : The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion’
and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true
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84. Assertion (A): The rule making power of the Supreme Court is not subject to any law made by the
Parliament of India.
Reason (R): Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of the individual without
fear or favour.
85. Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative lists are not always set out with scientific precision.
Reason (R) : The entries are not powers but only fields of legislation.
86. Which of the following amendments are sought to be introduced in the Representation of the People
Act through Amendment Bill, 2018 ?
I. Proxy voting
II. Gender neutral provisions
III. Allocation of seats
IV. Delimitation of constituencies
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) III, IV (c) I, II (d) I, II, IV
87. Which of the following offences can be prosecuted under the newly enacted Fugitive Economic
Offenders Act, 2018 ?
I. Economic offences involving Rs. 100 crore and more
II. Dishonouring of cheques
III. Money laundering
IV. Benami transactions
(a) III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (c) II, IV (d) I, III, IV
88. The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Bill, 2019 seeks to amend______ to
include_____
(a) Article 15 and 29; Other Backward Class

(b) Article 15 and 30; Other Backward Class
(c) Article 29 and 30; Economically weaker sections
(d) Article 15 and 16; Economically weaker sections
89. Which of the following are the salient features of the Aadhaar and other laws (Amendment)
Ordinance 2019 ?
I. The maximum penalty proposed is Rs. one crore.
II. The cognizance of an offence under the law can be taken only on a complaint by UIDAI.
III. It changes definition of ‘aadhaar number’ to include ‘virtual ID’, in addition to the 12-digit number.
IV. The authority who can issue orders to disclose Aadhaar information is proposed to be changed as
‘High Court Judge’ from ‘District Judge.
(a) I, II (b) II, III, IV (c) I, III, IV (d) III, IV
90. Recently, Ram Janmabhoomi and Babri Masjid land dispute is referred to mediation by a panel.
Which of the following is the correct constitution of the panel?
(a) Retd. Justice Kalifullah, Sadhguru

(b) Retd. Justice Altmas Kabir, Sadhguru, Sadhna Ramachandran
(c) Retd. Justice Altmas Kabir, Sri Sri Ravi Shankar
(d) Retd. Justice Kalifullah, Sri Sri Ravi Shankar, Sriram Panchu
91. Who is heading the five-member committee set up to examine the issues related to framing of a
proper, structured scheme for providing of insurance cover to the advocates and also suggest modalities
for the implementation of such scheme ?
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(a) Ravi Shankar Prasad (b) Anand Patel

(c) Alok Srivastava (d) Amrinder Khuller
92. What is the punishment under the Official Secrets Act, 1923 for the offence of spying in relation to
any work of defense establishment or in relation to any secret official code ?
(a) Sentence of Death (b) Imprisonment for 14 years

(c) Imprisonment for 10 years (d) Imprisonment for life
93. Citizenship (Amendment) Bill 2019, seeks to grant citizenship on the basis of ______ to the people
from______
(a) Religion; Bangladesh, Pakistan, Afghanistan

(b) Registration; Bangladesh, Pakistan
(c) Birth; Bangladesh
(d) Descent; Bangladesh, Afghanistan
94. Delhi High Court has allowed the transgenders to register complaints of sexual harassment under
which provision of Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Section 265 (b) Section 355 B

(c) Section 365 (d) Section 354 A
95. Who is the executive Chairperson of NALSA ?
(a) Justice A. K. Sikri (b) Justice Madan B. Lokur

(c) Justice N. F. Nariman (d) Justice D. Y. Chandrachud
96. Who is the First Chief Justice of Telangana High Court ?
(a) B.N. Srikrishna (b) T.B.N. Radhakrishna

(c) K.R. Lakshmanan (d) Hrishikesh Roy
97. A human wall was made up by women in Kerala as part of the State sponsored initiative to uphold
gender equality from________ to___________
(a) Thrissur, Kollam (b) Kasaragod, Thiruvananthapuram

(c) Kollam, Maradu (d) Varkala, Thiruvananthapuram
98. Trade Union Act (Amendment) Bill 2019 will provide for which of the following benefits ?
I. Recognition of Trade Unions at Central and State level;
II. Ensure true representation of workers in the tripartite bodies;
III. Check on the arbitrary nomination of workers’ representatives by the Government; and
IV. Reduce litigations and industrial unrest.
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, II, III (c) II, III (d) I, II
99. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, Other Traditional Forest Dwellers has to give proof that they have
been living in the forest areas for_____years.
100. Article 35 A, Constitution of India is regarding

(a) Special status of Delhi
(b) Special Status of 99 years
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(c) Empowers the Jammu and Kashmir State’s legislature to define “permanent resident” of the State
(d) Empowers State of Jammu and Kashmir to have its own separate laws
101. Which of the following statements, are true regarding the jurisdiction of the High Court ?
I. High Court can punish for its contempt.
II. High Court tender advice on the legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
III. High Court confirms the death sentences passed by lower judiciary.
IV. High Court can issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental rights.
(a) I, IV (b) I, II, III (c) I, II, IV (d) I, III, IV
102. If the tax rate increases with the higher level of income, it is called
(a) Progressive Tax (b) Proportional Tax (c) Lumpsum Tax (d) Regressive Tax
103. In February, 2019 a Public Interest Litigation has been lodged with the High Court of______,
wherein a 11-year-old boy has sought ban on the PUBG game in all the schools in the State.
(a) Delhi (b) Karnataka (c) Allahabad (d) Bombay
104. As per the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018, which of the following
is true ?
I. Home Buyers Recognized as Financial Creditors.
II. Extension of the application of the Code to personal guarantors of Corporate Debtors and
Proprietorship firms
III. A person shall be eligible to submit a resolution plan, if such person is an undischarged insolvent.
IV. A resolution applicant cannot withdraw a resolution application, from the National Company Law
Tribunal (NCLT), after such process has been initiated.
(a) I and II (b) I, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) All of the above
105. The Supreme Court has said that FIR in respect heinous and serious offences cannot be quashed
solely on the ground that the dispute was settled amicably between the parties. Which of the following
were included in the list of “heinous and serious offences” ?
I. Offences under Prevention of Corruption Act
II. Some Offences under Arms Act
III. Rape
IV. Offences by public servants in their official capacity
(a) I, III (b) II, III (c) I, II, III (d) I, II, III, IV
SECTION –D: REASONING

Direction (Q. 106 – Q. 112): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Shopper’s Stop offers exactly 10 types of perfumes – both domestic ana export varieties of Woods,
Proposal, Rose, Neesh and Hydra. Shopper’s Stop is having a sale on some of these types of perfumes.
The following conditions must apply:
i. Export Rose is on sale; domestic Proposal is not.
ii. If Doth types of Rose are on sale, then all Hydra is.
iii. If both types of Woods are on sale, then no Neesh is.
iv. If neither type of Woods is on sale, then domestic Rose is.
v. If either type of Neesh is on sale, then no Hydra is.
106. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the types of perfume that are on
sale ?
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(a) export Proposal, export Rose, domestic Neesh, export Neesh

(b) domestic Woods, export Rose, export Neesh, domestic Hydra
(c) domestic Woods, export Woods, export Proposal, export Rose, domestic Neesh
(d) export Woods, export Rose, domestic Hydra, export Hydra
107. If domestic Hydra is not on sale, then which one of the following must be true ?
(a) At least one type of Woods is not on sale. (b) Domestic Neesh is not on sale.
(c) At least one type of Rose is not on sale. (d) Domestic Neesh is on sale.
108. If both types of Woods are on sale, then which one of the following is the minimum number of types
of domestic perfume that could be included in the sale ?
(a) One (b) two (c) three (d) four
109. Which one of the following CANNOT be true ?

(a) Neither type of Woods and neither type of Proposal is on sale.
(b) Neither type of Woods and neither type of Hydra is on sale.
(c) Neither type of Proposal and neither type of Neesh is on sale.
(d) Neither type of Proposal and neither type of Hydra is on sale.
110. If neither type of Woods is on sale, then each of the following must be true EXCEPT
(a) Domestic Hydra is on sale. (b) Export Hydra is on sale.
(c) Domestic Neesh is not on sale, (d) Export Proposal is on sale.
111. If domestic Hydra is the only type of domestic perfume on sale, then which one of the following
CANNOT be true ?
(a) Export Hydra is not on sale. (b) (b) Export Neesh is not on sale.
(c) Export Woods is not on sale. (d) (d) Export Proposal is not on sale.
112. If exactly four of the five types of export perfume are the only perfume on sale, then which one of
the following could be true ?
(a) Export Neesh is not on sale.
(b) Neither type of Woods is on sale.
(c) Neither type of Neesh and neither type of Hydra is on sale.
(d) Export Proposal is not on sale.
Directions (Q. 113 – Q. 115) : In each question is given a statement followed by two courses of action.
On the basis of the information given in the statement you have to suggest course of action.
(a) If only I follows
(b) If only II follows
(c) If both I and II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows
113. Statement:
LightUp company has rejected first lot of switches supplied by company ABC and has cancelled its huge
order quoting use of inferior-quality material and poor craftmanship.
Courses of Action :
I. The company ABC needs to investigate functioning of its purchase, production and quality control
departments.
II. The company ABC should inspect all the valves rejected by LightUp company.
114. Statement:
The State Government is expecting bumper crop of wheat this year under its ‘Wheat Purchase
Guarantee Scheme’.
Courses of Action :
I. Other farmers should start cultivation of wheat from the next year.
II. The price of wheat will increase in the open market.
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115. Statement:
The eligibility for appearing in Common Admission Test (CAT) for law in the State of X is now raised to
70% from earlier 60% in the Higher Secondary Examination.
Courses of Action :
I. Many candidates from the State of X may not appear for CAT this year and may appear from other
states.
II. At pre-examination screening candidates obtaining less than 70% at the Higher Secondary
Examination will have to be eliminated.
Directions (Q. 116 – Q. 117) : In each of the following questions, there are statements followed by
conclusions. Find out the most appropriate response on the basis of the given statements.
116. Statement 1 – Some parrots are pigeons.

Statement 2 – All pigeons are crows.
Conclusions – I. Some parrots are crows.
II. All parrots are crows.
III. Some crows are parrots.
IV. All pigeons are parrots.
(a) I, III (b) II, IV (c) I, II, III (d) I, II, III, IV
117. Statement 1 – All singers are dancers.

Statement 2 – Some dancers are actors.
Conclusions – I. Some actors are singers.
II. No actor is a singer.
III. All dancers are singers.
IV. All singers are actors.
(a) IV (b) I, III (c) either I or II (d) either II or III
Directions (Q. 118 – Q. 120): In each of the following questions there is a related pair of words followed
by four pairs of words. Select that pair which expresses the relationship that is most similar to that the
capitalized pair.
118. APPEAL: REFUSAL
(a) Obesity : Over-eating (b) Try : Failure (c) Struggle : Victory (d) Examination : Passing
119. ZEPHYR: GALE

(a) Decay : Age (b) Death : Sickness (c) Trickle : Torrent (d) Imprint: Emboss
120. IMPLICATE : INCRIMINATION

(a) Perjury : Fraud (b) Involve : Crime
(c) Embezzlement: Charging (d) Exonerate : Acquittal
Directions (Q. 121 – Q. 122): In each of the following questions, two Statements I and II are provided.
These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes.
Give answer
(a) if the Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect.
(b) if the Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.
(c) if both the Statements are effects of independent causes.
(d) if both the Statements are effects of some common cause.
121. Statement I – The price of Bronze has gone up from ? 30,000 per kg to ? 60,000 per kg in almost a
year’s time.
Statement II – Indian sculptors are receiving a lot of demand for bronze statues from English and
Russian art collectors.
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122. Statement I – Hallmark of gold jewelry has been made compulsory.

Statement II – Many persons do not prefer to buy hall marked jewelry.
Directions (Q. 123 – Q. 127): Given below is a passage followed by several inferences. You have to
examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or
falsity.
Mark your answer as
(a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’. (b) if the inference is ‘probably true’.
(c) if the ‘data provided is inadequate’. (d) if the inference is ‘probably false’.
In a proposal to Government of Xovia, Association of Xovian Industry (AXI) has suggested a^ series of
short and long-term initiatives to help the states to cope up with the specter of drought in the country
particularly in the North. It has come out with a paper on ‘How to tackle drought’ and recommended the
cultivation of selected crops such as short duration paddy and irrigated dry crops in the focus areas besides
subsidization of their seeds by 50%. Other short-term measures include a food-for-work program with the
investment of relevant departments and rural bodies, the setting up of a task force headed by top
government officials to monitor the drought relief program, the scrapping of schemes that facilitates
subsidized power supply to irrigation pump set connection in water-scarce blocks to ensure power supply
for drinking water schemes and ban on export of fodder. In fact, fodder should be mobilized from all sources
and cattle sheds should be opened wherever needed. Employment affirmation program should be
launched with central assistance. If possible, interest on loans taken by farmers should be waived besides
converting the short-term loans into long-term ones. It is necessary to work out a way to take over the
loans taken from primitive money lenders or reschedule them. Coming to long-term steps, the AXI paper
says new water resources be explored besides building water supply projects and creating rainwater
storage facility. Dryland cultivation ought to be promoted apart from popularizing water-saving irrigation
technologies.
123. To cope up with the specter of draught, we should devise both short-term and long-term policies.
124. During the draught, a bailout package should be given to the farmers.
125. Draughts are more devastating than floods.
126. We should work out a long-term and permanent strategy to tackle the frequent draught situations.
127. In case of draught situation, we should channelize all the meters to the field.
128. In a card party, six friends are playing a game of card. Lela is facing Leena who is sitting to the left
of Shreya and to the right of Ritu. Shreya is sitting to the left of Arya. Megha is sitting to the left of Ritu. If
Arya exchanges her seat with Megha and Ritu exchanges with Leena, who will be sitting to the left of
Arya ?
(a) Shreya (b) Lela (c) Megha (d) Leena
129. In the Diwali dinner, four men and four women are invited. They are sitting around a square table
facing the centre. One person is sitting at each corner and at the mid-point of each side of the table.
Kiran is sitting diagonally opposite to Mona who is to the right side of Piya. Kishan who is to the left side
of Piya is diagonally opposite to Chander who is to the left of Deepak. Ravi is not sitting to the right of
Kiran but in front of Sheela. Who is sitting opposite to Deepak ?
(a) Chander (b) Sheela (c) Ravi (d) Piya
130. Sana has organized birthday party for Roma. Roma took her car to reach the venue of the party.
She drove 30 km towards North and then 40 km towards West. She then turned to South and covered 8
km. Further she turned to East and moved 26 km. Finally, she turned right and drove 10 km and then
turned left to travel 19 km. How far and in which direction is she from the starting point?
(a) South-East of the starting point, 5 km (b) North-East of the starting point, 13 km
(c) North-East of the starting point, 6 km (d) South-East of the starting point, 13 km
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131. The houses of Asma and Seema face each other on a road going North-South. Asma’s house is on
the western side, she comes out of her house and turns left, travels for 5 km. She then turns right,
travels 5 km and reaches the front of Geeta’s house. Seema does exactly the same and reaches in front
of Shobha’s house.
In this context, which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) The houses of Shobha and Geeta are less than 20 km apart
(b) The houses of Shobha and Geeta are 20 km apart
(c) Shobha and Geeta lives in the same street
(d) Geeta’s house faces South
132. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes at 12 noon on Monday and is 5 minutes 36 seconds
fast at 4 pm on the next Monday. At what time it was showing correct time ?
(a) 12 am on Tuesday (b) 12 pm on Wednesday

(c) 12 am on Thursday (d) 12 pm on Thursday
133. A clock is set at 10 am. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the right time when
the clock indicates 3 pm on the following day ?
(a) 12.40 pm (b) 1.40 pm (c) 2.40 pm (d) 2.48 pm
134. Pihu and Aayan are the children of Mrs. & Mr. Sharma. Riya and Shankar are the children of Mrs. &
Mr. Kumar. Aayan and Riya are married to each other and have two daughter Mona and Shona. Shankar
is married to Leena and they have two children Rohit and Ruchi. How is Pihu related to Shona ?
(a) sister (b) mother (c) aunt (d) mother-in-law
135. In a family, there are seven persons, comprising two married couples. F1 is the son of F2 and the
grandson of F3. F2 is a widower. F2 and F4 are brothers and F5 is the daughter-in-law of F6, who is the
mother of F4 and the grandmother of F7. How is F7 related to F2 ?
(a) brother (b) nephew or niece (c) cousin (d) son-in-law
Directions (Q. 136 – Q. 140): Read the following short passages and choose the best answers to the
136. According to the last opinion poll in Bhadristan, most voters believe that the three problems
government needs to address, in order of importance, are crimes; unemployment and capitalistic
economy. Yet in election, candidates from political parties perceived as strongly against capitalism were
defeated, while those elected were all from parties with a history of opposing legislation designed to curb
anti-competitive practices. These results should not be taken to indicate that the polls was inaccurate,
however, since_________
Which one of the following most logically completes the passage ?

(a) every candidate who was defeated had a strong anti-capitalism record.
(b) many of the people who voted in the election refused to participate in the poll.
(c) all the candidates who were elected were perceived as being stronger against both crime and
unemployment than the candidates who were defeated.
(d) there were no issues other than crime, unemployment and capitalism on which the candidates had
significant difference of opinion.
137. Natural Gas Production Units in Industan have recently been acquired in substantial, numbers by
investors from abroad. Industanian politicians are proposing legislative action to stop such investment,
justifying the proposal by arguing that foreign investors, opportunistically exploiting a recent fall in the
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value of the Industanian currency, were able to buy Industanian assets at less than their true value.
Which one of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubt the accuracy of the Industanian
politicians’ justification for the proposed legislation ?
(a) In Bangania, a country broadly similar to Industan, the share of Natural Gas Production Units that is
foreign-controlled is 60 percent higher than it is in Industan.
(b) The true value of investment is determined by the value of the profits from it, and the low value of the
Industanian currency has depressed the value of any profits earned by foreign investors from
Industanian assets.
(c) The Industanian government originally welcomed the fall in the value of Industanian currency
because the fall made Industanian exports more competitive in international markets.
(d) Foreign investors who acquired Industanian production units generally did so with no intention of
keeping and running those units over the long term.
138. Proposed new safety rules for Seashore City Port would lengthen considerably the minimum time
between departures from the port. In consequence, the port would be able to accommodate 10 percent
fewer vessels than currently use the port daily. The city’s operating budget depends heavily on taxes
generated by tourist spending, and most of the tourists come by ships. Therefore, the proposed new
safety rules, if adopted, will reduce the revenue available for the operating budget.
The argument depends on assuming which of the following ?

(a) The response to adoption of the new safety rules would not include a large increase in the number of
passengers per ship.
(b) There are no periods of the day during which the interval between ships departing from the port is
significantly greater than the currently allowed minimum.
(c) If proposed safety rules are adopted, the reduction in tourist numbers will not result mainly from a
reduction in the number of tourists who spend relatively little in Seashore city.
(d) Increasing the minimum time between departures is the only way to achieve necessary safety
improvements without a large expenditure by the city government on port enhancements.
139. The average amount of overtime per month worked by an employee in the design division of the
Diva Corporation is 18 hours. Most employees of Diva Corporation work in the design division.
Furthermore, the average amount of overtime per month per employee in the company generally does
not fluctuate much from month to month. Therefore, each month, most employees of the Diva Corp.
almost certainly work at least some overtime.
The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which of the following grounds ?

(a) It confuses a claim from which the argument’s conclusion about the Diva Corp. would necessarily
follow with a claim that would follow from the argument’s conclusion only with a high degree of
probability.
(b) It overlooks the possibility that even if most employees of the corporation work some overtime each
month, any one corporate employee may, in some months, work no overtime.
(c) It takes for granted that the design division is a typical division of the corporation with regard to the
average amount of overtime its employees work each month.
(d) It overlooks the possibility that even if, on average, a certain amount of overtime is worked by the
members of some group, many members of that group may work no overtime at all.
140. Supporters of the recently introduced tax on sales of new luxury cars had argued that a tax of this
type would be an equitable way to increase government revenues because the admittedly heavy tax
burden would fall only on wealthy people and neither they nor anyone else would suffer any economic
hardships. In fact, however, 30 percent of the workers employed by manufacturers of luxury cars have
lost their jobs as a direct result of this tax.
The information given, if true, most strongly supports which of the following statements ?
(a) Taxes can be equitable only if their burden is evenly distributed over the entire population.
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(b) Because many people never buy luxury items, imposing a tax on luxury items is the kind of legislative
action that does not cost incumbent legislators much popular support.
(c) The new tax would produce a net gain in tax revenue for the government only if the yearly total
revenue that it generates exceeds the total of the yearly tax- revenue decrease resulting from the
workers’ loss of jobs.
(d) The market for luxury cars would have collapsed even if new tax on luxury cars had been lower.
SECTION – E: MATHEMATICS
141. If n =1 + x, where x is the product of four consecutive positive integers, then which of the following
is true?
I. n is an even number
II. n is prime number
III. n is a perfect square
IV. n is odd number
(a) I, III (b) I, II (c) I, IV (d) III, IV
142. Three wheels can complete 40, 24 and 16 revolutions per minutes respectively. There is a green
spot on each wheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time, all these spots will
simultaneously touch the ground again ?
(a) 7 and 1/2 seconds (b) 7 seconds (c) 7 and 1/2 minutes (d) 7 minutes
143. In a group of students in a class, 20 are in the debating club, 24 in the drama club and 27 in the
recitation club. If 12 like drama and debate, 10 like recitation and debate, 14 like drama and recitation
and 7 like all the three activities, then the total number of students in the class is
(a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 50 (d) 52
144. Class XII of XYZ International School has three sections – K, L and M. In Mathematics examination,
the average marks obtained by these sections are 72, 60 and 50 respectively. The average marks of
sections K and L taken together is 69. If the ratio of the number of students in sections L and M is 6 : 7,
what is the average score of all the three sections put together ?
(a) 65 (b) 64 (c) 63.4 (d) 64.7
145. Sheena’s test had 75 questions i.e., 10 on English, 30 on Reasoning and 35 on Legal Aptitude.
Although she answered 70% of the English, 40% of the Reasoning and 60% of the Legal Aptitude
questions correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% of the questions right. How
many questions she would have needed to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing grade ?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4
146. Amrit wants to sell cars at 25% above the cost price. Due to a slump in the market, his cost reduces
by 5%. He thus offers a discount of 8% due to which the sales go up by 25%. Compute the change in
Amrit’s profit.
(a) unchanged (b) 5% (c) 4% (d) 3%
147. A water tank has eight pipes fitted into it. Pipes are of two types: Green Pipe and Red Pipe. Green
pipes are used to fill the tank and the Red pipes are used to empty the tank. Every Green pipe can fill the
tank in 12 hours and every Red pipe can empty it in 36 hours. On opening all the pipes an empty tank is
filled in 3 hours. The number of Red pipes is
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2
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148. Anju is waiting on the railway station for the arrival of her train. Two trains running in opposite
directions cross Anju on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each
other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speed is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
149. Neeraj is going to Agra on his bike from Delhi. He overtakes a bus travelling from Delhi to Agra at
4.30 pm. Neeraj reaches Agra at 6 pm. After stopping there for an hour, he starts back towards Delhi
and meets the same bus at 7.30 pm which was moving towards Agra at that time. If both the bus and the
bike were travelling with uniform speeds on the same route, at what time would the bus reach Agra?
(a) 9.45 pm (b) 9.30 pm (c) 9.15 pm (d) 9 pm
150. Sonam has a rectangular garden. If the length of the garden is reduced by 5 m and breadth is
increased by 3 m, then the area of the garden gets reduced by 9 m2. However, if we increase the length
by 3 m and breadth by 2 m, the area is increased by 67m2. What is the length of the garden?
(a) 16 m (b) 17 m (c) 16.5 m (d) 17.5 m
AILET 2019 Answers

1 B 31 C 61 C 91 C 121 C
2 D 32 B 62 B 92 B 122 B
3 C 33 A 63 A 93 A 123 B
4 A 34 C 64 D 94 D 124 A
5 C 35 B 65 A 95 A 125 B
6 D 36 A 66 B 96 B 126 D
7 C 37 D 67 C 97 B 127 C
8 B 38 C 68 A 98 A 128 B
9 A 39 B 69 D 99 C 129 D
10 C 40 A 70 B 100 C 130 B
11 D 41 B 71 B 101 D 131 A
12 B 42 D 72 C 102 A 132 C
13 D 43 B 73 D 103 D 133 D
14 C 44 C 74 B 104 A 134 C
15 D 45 B 75 B 105 D 135 B
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16 B 46 A 76 B 106 D 136 C
17 C 47 C 77 A 107 C 137 B
18 D 48 D 78 C 108 A 138 A
19 B 49 D 79 D 109 B 139 D
20 B 50 D 80 A 110 D 140 C
21 C 51 A 81 C 111 C 141 D
22 A 52 C 82 A 112 A 142 A
23 B 53 A 83 D 113 C 143 B
24 A 54 C 84 D 114 D 144 D
25 A 55 A 85 B 115 B 145 C
26 D 56 C 86 C 116 A 146 A
27 B 57 D 87 B 117 C 147 B
28 C 58 B 88 D 118 B 148 C
29 B 59 D 89 C 119 C 149 D
30 D 60 A 90 D 120 D 150 B
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AILET 2020
1. SECTION – A : ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 1 – Q. 5): Each set of questions in this section is based on the passage. The questions
are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions,
more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the
best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions.
In order to understand the development of Gangetic Valley plains, scholars have traditionally relied
primarily on evidence from historical documents. However, such documentary sources provide a
fragmentary record at best. Reliable accounts are very scarce for many parts of Northern India prior to
the fifteenth century, and many of the relevant documents from the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries
focus selectively on matters relating to cultural or commercial interests.
Studies of fossilized pollens preserved in peats and lake muds provide an additional means of
investigating vegetative landscape change. Details of changes in vegetation resulting from both human
activities and natural events are reflected in the kinds and quantities of minute pollens that become
trapped in sediments. Analysis of samples can identify which kinds of plants produced the preserved
pollens and when they were deposited, and in many cases the findings can serve to supplement or correct
the documentary record.
For example, analysis of samples from a bay in Jammu has revealed significant patterns of cereal-
grain pollens beginning by about fourth century. The substantial clay content of the soil in this part of
Jammu makes cultivation by primitive tools difficult. Historians thought that such soils were not tilled to
any significant extent until the introduction of the wooden plough to India in the seventh century. Because
cereal cultivation would have required tiling of the soil, the pollens evidence indicates that these soils
must indeed have been successfully tilled before the introduction of the new plough.
Another example concerns flax cultivation in Jammu, one of the great linen-producing areas of India
during the sixteenth century. Some aspects of linen production in Jammu are well documented, but the
documentary record tells little about the cultivation of flax, the plant from which linen is made, in that area.
The record of sixteenth-century linen production in Jammu, together with the knowledge that flax
cultivation had been established in India centuries before that time, led some historians to surmise that
this plant was being cultivated in Jammu before the sixteenth century. But pollens analyses indicate that
this is not the case; flax pollens were found only in deposits laid down since the sixteenth century.
It must be stressed, though, that there are limits to the ability of the pollen record to reflect the
vegetative history of the landscape. For example, pollen analysis cannot identify the species, but only the
genus or family, of some plants. Among these is turmeric, a cultivated plant of medicinal importance in
India. Turmeric belongs to a plant family that also comprises various native weeds, including Brahma
Thandu. If Turmeric pollen were present in a deposit it would be indistinguishable from that of uncultivated
native species.
1. The phrase “documentary record” (para 2 and 4) primarily refers to -

(A) articles, books, and other documents by current historians listing and analyzing all the
available evidence regarding a particular historical period.
(B) government and commercial records, maps, and similar documents produced in the past
that recoded conditions and events of that time.
(C) documented results of analyses of fossilized pollen.
(D) the kinds and qualities of fossilized pollen grains preserved in peats and lake muds.
2. The passage indicates that pollen analyses have provided evidence against which one of the
following views?
(A) In certain parts of Jammu, cereal grains were not cultivated to any significant extent before
the seventh century.
(B) Cereal grain cultivation began in Jammu around fourth century.
(C) In certain parts of India, cereal grains have been cultivated continuously since the
introduction of the wooden plough.
(D) Cereal grain cultivation requires successful tilling of the soil.
3. The passage indicates that prior to the use of pollen analysis in the study of the history of the
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Gangetic Valley plains, at least some historians believed which one of the following?
(A) Turmeric was not used as a medicinal plant in India until after the sixteenth century.
(B) Cereal grain was not cultivated anywhere in India until at least the seventh century.
(C) The history of the Gangetic Valley plains during the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries was
well documented.
(D) The beginning of flax cultivation in Jammu may well have occurred before the sixteenth
century.
4. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between the second paragraph
and the final paragraph?
(A) The second paragraph describes a view against which the author intends to argue, and the
final paragraph states the author’s argument against that view.
(B) The second paragraph proposes a hypothesis for which the final paragraph offers a
supporting example.
(C) The final paragraph qualifies the claim made in the second paragraph.
(D) The final paragraph describes a problem that must be solved before the method advocated
in the second paragraph can be considered viable.
(A) While pollen evidence can sometimes supplement other sources of historical information, its
applicability is severely limited, since it cannot be used to identify plant species.
(B) Analysis of fossilized pollen is a useful means of supplementing and in some cases correcting
other sources of information regarding changes in the Gangetic Valley plains.
(C) Analysis of fossilized pollen has provided new evidence that the cultivation of such crops as
cereal grains, flax, and turmeric had a significant impact on the Gangetic Valley plains.
(D) Analysis of fossilized pollen has proven to be a valuable tool in the identification of ancient
plant species.
Directions (Q. 6 – Q. 8): In each of the following questions, a word is highlighted. Choose the word
which is a synonym of the highlighted word.
6. The systematic vilification of facts and expertise, the violent abnegation of diverse thought, the
constant blasts of paranoia-stoking crime reports and patriotic sound bites on an inescapable news
network—could this be more now?
(A) indulgence (B) denial

(C) acceptance (D) adoption
7. Her 2014 autobiography, A Fighting Chance, and recent stump speeches are festooned in pep club
spirit and folksy blandishments, cloying bits of business that have attached themselves to her life
story.
(A) cajolery (B) roughness
(C) criticism (D) bully
8. Were other international trade negotiations to be put back because of the virus — for example those
being conducted between London and Washington — Britain’s government could start to look
obdurate about the Brexit talks.
(A) sensitive (B) illusive

(C) flexible (D) callous
Directions (Q. 9 – Q. 11): Complete the following sentences with an appropriate irregular verb and
one of these phases.
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(i) (ii)
I. Make a. From the jeweler
II. Choose b. on the label
III. Carry c. To the players
IV. Give d. To represent India
V. Print e. At today’s meeting
VI. Damage f. On the boulevard
VII. Take g. In the storm
9. The road repairs __________ might delay traffic.

(A) I–b (B) VII - c
(C) VI - g (D) III - f
10. All the bijouterie ________ have now been recovered.

(A) VII – a (B) III - f
(C) VI - a (D) III - a
11. The admonition _________ about their behaviour on the pitch was ignored.
(A) I–a (B) VII - b

(C) VI - g (D) IV - c
Directions (Q. 12 – Q. 13): Following are the questions based on the same words used as
different parts of speech. Choose the correct matches.
12. Back
1. Noun a. The back portion of the house is in dilapidated condition.
2. Adverb b. In a coalition government a number of parties back the

single largest party to form the government.
3. Adjective c. There is a road at the back of this theater.

4. Verb d. She has come back from America.
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
13. Near
1. Adjective a. Draw near while I speak to you.

2. Verb b. There is a mango tree near our house.
3. Adverb c. Lajwanti is a near relative of mine.
4. Preposition d. I am nearing the end of the given work.
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(A) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(C) 4-c, 1-b, 2-d, 3-a (D) 3-c, 2-b, 1-a, 4-d
Directions (Q. 14 – Q. 16): Observe the following sentences where some changes are made in the
sentence but keeping the sense of the sentence same. In the following questions, the sentences have
some element of similarity. You have to find out the similarity and choose the option which is odd one
out.
14. (A) His behaviour displeased his officers.

His officers were displeased at his behaviour.
(B) One must respect one’s elders.
One’s elders must be respected.
(C) I said, “Do not speak of the past.”
I advised him not to speak of the past.
(D) A crash radio message was handed over to me.
They handed over a crash radio message to me.
15. (A) I don’t expect to see him back here.

I don’t expect that I will see him back here.
(B) In spite of his poverty, he is satisfied.
He is poor but he is satisfied.
(C) He gave them not only food but some money also.
Besides food, he gave him some money also.
(D) Escaping arrest, he ran away.
He ran away in order to escape arrest.
16. (A) The teacher was strict but always loving.

Though the teacher was strict, she was always loving.
(B) He is very rich and can buy a car.
He is so rich that he can buy a car.
(C) He ran hard but missed the bus.
Although he ran, he missed the bus.
(D) You know what my errand is.
You know my errand.
Direction (Q. 17 – Q. 22): Choose the sentence which is correct grammatically.
17. (A) “Mr. Sharma has conveyed his heart-felt thanks to the Principal of the school and its
management for their support to the cause of children with special needs.”
(B) “The government was adviced to take immediate steps”.
(C) This colt will make a good mare.
(D) Is your mother the executrix of this deed?
18. (A) You have fallen in bad company.

(B) Please run through the book.
(C) He set every thing to naught.
(D) He is calling you a bad name.
19. (A) All of the reptiles lay eggs.

(B) Waiting in the queue for half an hour, Jay suddenly realised that he had left his wallet at
home.
(C) ‘Do you think Meena will remember your birthday?’ ‘I suspect not.’
(D) The coffee in this coffee shop is the best one in town.
255
20. (A) He has a shave every morning, but you wouldn’t think he had.
(B) Supposing you don’t get the job – what will you do then?
(C) The strikes were mainly concerned about working conditions.
(D) She is quite younger than me.
21. (A) Because I’d lost my watch, so I was late for the meeting.
(B) She lives in 38 Middle Street.
(C) He’d left his papers all across the room.
(D) There have been many problems with the new bridge.
22 (A) I had to go into work even though I was feeling terrible.

(B) Competition entries must be received until 12.00 on 10 August.
(C) Why on earth were you waving that knife around? What were you thinking about?
(D) Do you care if I smoke a cigar?
Direction (Q. 23 – Q. 26): Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/
phrase in the question.
23. Purple Patch

(A) a dark period (B) a period of success
(C) safe way to royalty (D) mending old ties
24. French Leave

(A) an insulting defeat (B) a time of revelry
(C) leave without permission (D) a great deception
25. Hang out to dry

(A) to desert one in troubling situation (B) to ridicule
(C) a time of truce (D) be critical of
26.
Down to the wire
(A) digging deep (B) no chance of error
(C) in great details (D) until the last moment
Directions (Q. 27 – Q. 29): Replace the underlined word/words with one of these two- or three-
word verbs in an appropriate form.
27. If I tell you the secret, you must promise not to tell anyone else.
(A) let in on (B) bring in
(C) put down to (D) shoot down
28. They’re going to suffer a lot of criticism for increasing bus fares by so much.
(A) put down to (B) gather up
(C) come in for (D) put up with
29. It’s best to attribute his bad mood to tiredness and just forget it.
(A) flick through (B) put down to
(C) take on (D) see through
Direction (Q. 30 – Q. 35): Choose the best word to fill in the blanks
30. Owing to the combination of its proximity and __________ atmosphere, Mars is the only planet in
256
our solar system whose surface details can be discerned from the Earth.
(A) viscous (B) ossified
(C) rarefied (D) copious
31. Using the hardships of the Ganguli family as a model, Jhumpa Lahiri’s The Namesake effectively
demonstrated how one clan’s struggles epitomized the ________ experienced by an entire
community.
(A) reticence (B) quiescence
(C) verisimilitude (D) tribulation
32. The Pyramid of Giza is more t h a n just_________ edifice; this imposing structure was built to
create a chirping echo whenever people clap their hands on the staircase.
(A) a venerable (B) a specious
(C) a prosaic (D) a humble
33. Some wealthy city-dwellers become enchanted with the prospect of trading their hectic schedules
for a bucolic life in the countryside, and they buy property with a pleasant view of farmland – only
to find the stench of the livestock so______________ that they move back to the city.
(A) bovine (B) atavistic
(C) olfactory (D) noisome
34. When Sheena brought home the irascible puppy, her more quiescent dogs were rattled by their
new _______________housemate.
(A) languid (B) bellicose
(C) diminutive (D) phlegmatic
35. Despite the vast amount of time Tarun dedicated to learning six different languages, he was
_____________ communicator; his mastery of vocabulary and grammar failed to redress his
inability to redress his inability to construct cogent prose.
(A) an astute (B) a prolific
(C) a maladroit (D) a florid
2. SECTION – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
36. Bru Settlement is regarding Bru refugee crisis and it was entered between:
(A) Central Government, Tripura, Mizoram and Reang Tribe
(B) Central Govt. and Indian Coffee Trade Association
(C) Tripura, Mizoram and Reang Tribe
(D) Central Government, Indian Coffee Trade Association and Reang Tribe
37. Which Movie won the Best Picture in 92nd Academy Awards 2020?
(A) Joker (B) Parasite
(C) Jojo Rabbit (D) Once Upon a Time in Hollywood
38. Which State in India tops the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) India Index 2019?
(A) Kerala (B) Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Himachal
39. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Blue Dot Network (BDN)?
(A) Blue Dot network is an initiative to grade the infrastructure projects in terms of debt,
environment safety, labour standards, etc.
(B) The Blue Dot Network project is being led by USA. Japan and Australia.
(C) BDN offer public funds or loans for the project.
(D) It is expected to serve as a globally recognised evaluation and certification system with a
focus on the Indo-Pacific region.
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40. Who among the following is not a recipient of Padma Vibhushan Award 2020?
(A) Sushma Swaraj (B) George Fernandez
(C) Arun Jaitley (D) Teejan Bai
41. Which of the following from India is included in the SCO list of eight wonders of the world?
(A) Soho House (B) Statue of Unity
(C) Signature Bridge (D) Ajanta Caves
42. Which of the following statements on Bond Yields is /are true?

I. Yield from Government Bond is always lower than yields from corporate bonds.
II. When the economy is in recession, the Bond Yields usually tends to decrease.
III. Government Bonds are known as Treasury Bills in India.
IV. When the Bond price increases then Bond Yield decreases.
(A) II, IV (B) I, III

(C) I, II, III (D) I, II, III, IV
43. Which of the following first-ever talked about the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’?
(A) Earth Summit 1992 (B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Paris Summit (D) Brundtland Report
44. In Global Democracy Index 2019, which of the following criteria is the main reason for India’s
sliding ranking?
(A) Electoral process and pluralism
(B) Civil liberties
(C) Functioning of government
(D) Political participation
45. From which of the following sites, the female skeleton 16614 is recovered whose DNA sequencing
has revealed that the people in the Indus Valley Civilization have an independent origin?
(A) Ganveriwala (B) Mohenjo-Daro

(C) Dholavira (D) Rakhigarhi
46. Tishreen Revolution of 2019 is regarding:

I. Corruption
II. unemployment
III. inefficient public services
V. to stop Iranian intervention in Iraq
(A) I, II (B) II, III

(C) I, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
47. The term Cytokine Storm is related to which of the following?

(A) Earth’s Weather (B) Human body’s Immune system
(C) Atomic energy (D) Space Exploration
48. What is the main reason of people’s protest in Hong Kong in 2019-20?
(A) Unemployment (B) Economic slow down
(C) Extradition law (D) labour laws
49. Which of the following is/are not true about the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)?
I. India is an observer to OIC.
II. Only Muslim majority states are members to the body.
III. It is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nation.
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IV. The recent summit of the OIC was held in Mecca, Saudi Arabia.
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, II, III

(C) I, II (D) III, IV
50. Who won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2019 for Journalism?
(A) Ravish Kumar (B) Dibang
(C) Sudhir Chaudhary (D) Rahul Kanwal
51. Who is the writer of the patriotic song Saare Jahan Se Accha ?
(A) Allama Mohd. Iqbal (B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (D) Kavi Pradeep
52. Apple has started a credit card named “Apple Card” in collaboration with which of the following
companies?
(A) MasterCard (B) CitiBank
(C) American Express (D) Goldman Sachs
53. India has signed the Singapore Convention on Mediation in 2019. It is regarding -
(A) Cross-border river disputes
(B) Cross-border commercial disputes
(C) Terrorism
(D) War crimes
54. Consider the following statements:

I. The Administer, appointed by the President, is the constitutional head of the Union
Territory.
II. The relationship of the Union Territories with the Central Government is a part of the
federal structure.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct?
55. Where is the Nine Dash Line located?

(A) South China Sea (B) North Atlantic Ocean
(C) Arctic Ocean (D) East Philippine Sea
56. What is the duration of Solar Cycle?

(A) 100 years (B) 6 months
(C) 11 years (D) 12 months
57. Which city in the World is declared the Most Liveable City in 2019?
(A) Melbourne (B) Vienna
(C) Sydney (D) Osaka
58. The Central Board of Secondary Education has collaborated with which of the following
companies for developing Artificial Intelligence (AI) based tools for learning in schools?
(A) IBM (B) Google
(C) Intel (D) Wipro
59. Who has said “How dare you? You have stolen my dreams, my childhood with your empty
word.”?
(A) Malala Yousafzai (B) Greta Thunberg
(C) Jaden Anthony (D) Martinez
60. Sound cannot travel through

(A) Gas (B) Liquid
(C) Metal (D) Vacuum
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61. The chemical component which is found in most of the virus is -

(A) Protein (B) Lipids
(C) DNA (D) RNA
62. Ajanta Caves depicts paintings and sculptures from which of the following?
(A) Panchtantra Tales (B) Animals
(C) Jataka Tales (D) dance forms
63. In which of the following countries, a law to criminalize fake news came into effect in October
2019?
(A) Singapore (B) Finland
(C) China (D) India
64. ‘Singularity’ has been in the news in the context of the Black Hole image. It refers to which of the
following?
(A) Gravitational waves generated by the merger of Black Holes.
(B) The boundary around a Black Hole, beyond which no light or other radiation can escape.
(C) It is a stage in the life-cycle of a star.
(D) It is the centre of the Black Hole, which contains a huge mass in an infinitely small space,
where density and gravity become infinite.
65. Who has been elected as the Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha?
(A) Rjiv Gauba (B) Om Birla
(C) Adhir Ranjan Chowdhary (D) Sumitra Mahajan
66. Who among the following became youngest ever elected Member of Parliament in India?
(A) Dushyant Chautala (B) Tejasvi Surya
(C) Chandrani Murmu (D) Raksha Khadse
67. Who has been appointed India’s first Lokpal?

(A) Justice (retd) Pinaki Chandra Ghose (B) Shri. Suresh Mathur
(C) Justice (retd.) A. D. Koshal (D) Justice (retd.) A.K. Sikri
68. Who has been declared the winner of the Nobel Peace Prize, 2019?
(A) Abhijit Banerjee
(B) Abdel Fattah el-Sisi, President of Egypt
(C) Greta Thunberg, Climate Activist
(D) Abiy Ahmed Ali, the Prime Minister of Ethiopia
69. The Neelakurinji flower, which grows after a period of 12 years, grows in which of the following
areas?
(A) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands (B) Lakshadweep
(C) The Western Ghats (D) Arunachal Pradesh
70. Which of the following Statements correctly relates to ‘Pink Tax’?

(A) It is a tax legally imposed on women in some countries.
(B) It is a tax imposed legally, the proceeds of which go for the development of women.
(C) It is the name of the phenomenon wherein women pay more for women specific
goods and services.
(D) It is a kind of tax relief given for women specific products.
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Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply
the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Directions (Q. 71 – Q. 74): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the
most appropriate answer.
Legal Principles:
1. Negligence is a legal wrong that is suffered by someone at the hands of another who has a
duty to take care but fails to take proper care to avoid what a reasonable person would regard
as a foreseeable risk.
2. The test of liability requires that the harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of the
defendant's conduct, a relationship of proximity must exist and it must be fair, just and
reasonable to impose liability.
3. The claimant must prove that harm would not have occurred 'but for' the negligence of the
defendant.
4. Duty of care is a legal obligation which is imposed on an individual requiring adherence to a
standard of reasonable care while performing any acts that could foreseeably harm others.
5. Conversations between a doctor and patient are generally confidential but there are few
exceptions.
71. A company called KLM, manufacturers of electrical equipment, was the target of a takeover by ABS
Industries. KLM was not doing well. In March 2019, KLM had issued a profit warning, which had halved
its share price. In May 2019, KLM's directors made a preliminary announcement in its annual profits
for the year up to March. This confirmed that the position was bad. The share price fell again. At this
point, ABS had begun buying up shares in large numbers. In June 2019, the annual accounts, which
were done with the help of the accountant Dinesh, were issued to the shareholders, which now
included ABS. ABS reached a shareholding of 29.9% of the company, at which point it made a general
offer for the remaining shares, as the City Code's rules on takeovers required. But once it had control,
ABS found that KLM's accounts were in an even worse state than had been revealed by the directors
or the auditors. It sued Dinesh for negligence in preparing the accounts and sought to recover its
losses. This was the difference in value between the company as it had and what it would have had if
the accounts had been accurate. Which of the following answers in incorrect?
(A) No duty of care had arisen in relation to existing or potential shareholders. The only duty of care
the auditor`s owed was to the governance of the firm.
(B) Dinesh is not liable as it is a case of pure economic loss in the absence of contractual agreements
between parties.
(C) There are circumstances where an auditor will owe a duty of care in respect of reports produced.
These are conditional that at the time the report is prepared it is known by the auditors that the
results are for a specific class and for a specific purpose.
(D) An ability to foresee indirect or economic loss to another person as the result of a defendant’s
conduct automatically impose on the defendant a duty to take care to avoid that loss.
72. In 2005, the local council of Delhi approved building plans for the erection of a block of
apartments. The approved plans showed the base wall and concrete foundations of the block to be
three feet or deeper to the approval of local authority. The notice of approval said that the bylaws of
the council required that notice should be given to the council both at the commencement of the work
and when the foundations were ready to be covered by the rest of the building work. The council had
the power to inspect the foundations and require any corrections necessary to bring the work into
conformity with the bylaws, but was not under an obligation to do so.
The block of apartments was finished in 2006. The builder (who was also the owner) granted 99-
year leases for the apartments, the last conveyance taking place in 2010. In 2017 structural
movements occurred resulting in failure of the building comprising cracks in the wall, sloping of the
floors and other defects. In 2019, the plaintiffs who were lessees of the apartments filed cases for
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negligence against the builder and the council.

The plaintiffs claimed that the damage was a consequence of the block having been built on
inadequate foundations, there being a depth of two feet six inches only as against the three feet or
deeper shown on the plans and required under the bylaws. The plaintiffs claimed damages in
negligence against the council for approving the foundations and/or in failing to inspect the
foundations. Decide whether the council owed a duty of care to the claimants in respect of the incorrect
depth of the foundations laid by the third-party builder?
(A) The Council is not liable for damages to the plaintiff as failing to inspect would not render the council
liable unless it was considered that it had failed to properly exercise its discretion to inspect and that
they had failed to ensure proper compliance with building regulations.
(B) The Council is liable for negligence as they failed to inspect the foundation.
(C) There is no negligence in building the apartments as there is minor difference between a foundation
which is three feet deep and a foundation which is two feet six inches deep.
(D) The tenets has a duty to inspect the property properly before entering into such a long lease
agreement.
73. Soman was the student of PRQ University. He met Pamela in a youth festival and fell in love with
her. However, Pamela was not interested in having any serious relationship with Soman. Due to this,
Soman went into emotional crisis and started consulting a psychologist in the PRQ Memorial Hospital.
In October 2018, Soman murdered Pamela. Pamela’s parents contended that only a short time prior,
Soman had expressed his intention to murder their daughter to his therapist, Dr. Surana, a
psychologist employed by the University. They further alleged that Dr. Surana had warned campus
police of Soman’s intentions, and that the police had briefly detained him, but then released him.
Pamela’s parents filed a case of negligence against the Police Department and the University officials
on two grounds: the failure to confine Soman, in spite of his expressed intentions to kill Pamela, and
failure to warn Pamela or her parents. Defendants maintained that they owed no duty of care to the
victim, and were immune from suit. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) The police did not have the requisite proximity or special relationship with family of Pamela,
sufficient to impose a duty to warn her of Soman’s intention.
(B) The public policy favoring protection of the confidential character of patient psychotherapist
communications must yield to the extent to which disclosure is essential to avert danger to others. The
protective privilege ends where the public peril begins.
(C) The therapists and Regents of University are liable for breach of duty to exercise reasonable care.
(D) Soman only once expressed the desire to kill Pamela. Such kinds of feelings are normal in any
mentally ill patient. Moreover, information received during a counselling session is confidential in
nature and so therapists cannot reveal it to the parents of Pamela.
74. R, T and U were watchmen in Skypark Society. They were on night shift and began vomiting after
drinking tea. They went to the SEM Hospital and complained to the nurse about it. The nurse thought
they were vomiting because of alcohol they had been drinking earlier in the evening. However, the
nurse reported it to the medical officer who refused to examine them and said that they needed to go
home and contact their own doctors. They returned to their workplace, where U’s condition
deteriorated. U died of arsenic poisoning five hours later on way to hospital. U’s wife brought a claim
of negligence against the Hospital administration. She argued that the hospital was negligent in not
identifying that U had been poisoned, and the doctor should therefore have seen to him when they
first approached the hospital. The hospital denied they were negligent, and in any event said they did
not cause his death. Decide.
(A) The hospital is not liable for negligence because even if the patient was examined five hours earlier
to the death he would have died anyways. The test of causation was not satisfied. The Hospital did
not cause U’s death – But for the defendant’s negligence, U would have died anyways.
(B) It was highly possible that the doctor would have identified U’s condition as arsenical poisoning, and
therefore U would have received the treatment he needed to survive.
(C) Where there are a number of possible causes, the claimant must still prove the defendant's breach
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of duty caused the harm or was a material contribution.

(D) Both (A) & (C)
75. Legal Principle: Generally, the owner of the property has a duty to maintain his property so as
to make it reasonably safe for use. However, the occupier also owes a duty to take such care as is
reasonable to see that the visitor is reasonably safe in using the premises for the purposes for which he
is invited or permitted by the occupier to be therein.
Facts: Sheila is a painter. She went to her friend Ruchi’s house for meeting her. Sheila requested to use
the bathroom and injured her right hand on a broken water faucet handle. Sheila filed a personal injury
action for hand injuries suffered alleging that Ruchi failed to warn her that her bathroom fixtures were
cracked and dangerous. Ruchi says she had complained to the landlord about the broken handle so the
landlord is liable. Decide whether the Sheila’s injury the proximate cause of Ruchi's negligence?
(A) A licensee or social guest was obliged to take the premises as he or she found them, and the
possessor of the premises owed a duty only to refrain from wanton or willful injury.
(B) The landlord is liable as Ruchi had complained to the landlord about the broken handle and it is
the duty of the landlord to get the repair work done.
(C) Ruchi is not liable as the use of toilet is not the purposes for which Sheila was invited or permitted
by the occupier to be therein.
(D) Ruchi owes a duty to warn of a dangerous condition so the guest can take special precautions,
like the host would, when they come in contact with it.
76. Legal Principle: Intimidation involves a threat to do something unlawful or 'illegitimate'; it must
be intended to coerce the claimant to take or not take certain action.
Facts: Hari, a skilled draughtsman and employee of the Overseas Airways Corporation (OAC), resigned
his membership of the Association of Engineering and Shipbuilding Draughtsmen (AESD), a registered
trade union. It was agreed between OAC and AESD (among others) that no strike or lockout should take
place and disputes should be handled by arbitration. He resigned from his union, the Association of
Engineering and Shipbuilding Draftsman (AESD), after a disagreement. The Corporation and AESD had
a contract that stipulates that the employer will only hire workers from a specific union and those workers
can only remain with that employer while they are a part of the union so AESD threatened a strike unless
Hari resigned also from his job or was fired. Corporation suspended Hari and, after some months,
dismissed him with one week's salary in lieu of notice. Hari brought an action for damages alleging that
he was the victim of a tortious intimidation. Decide.
(A) The union was guilty of the tort of intimidation. It was unlawful intimidation to use a threat to break
their contracts with their employer as a weapon to make him do something which he was legally
entitled to do but which they knew would cause loss to Hari.
(B) The Union was not guilty of intimidation as no unlawful means were used to induce Corporation
to terminate his contract of service.
(C) There was a contract between Union and Corporation that stipulates that the employer will only
hire workers from a specific union and those workers can only remain with that employer while they
are a part of the union so the Union is not liable.
(D) Hari cannot claim damages as he was paid one week’s salary in lieu of notice.
77. Legal Principles:
1. A deceit occurs when a misrepresentation is made with the express intention of defrauding a party,
subsequently causing loss to that party.
2. “Misrepresentation” means and includes— the positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the
information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true; any
breach of duty which, without an intent to deceive, gains an advantage of the person committing it,
or any one claiming under him, by misleading another to his prejudice, or to the prejudice of any one
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claiming under him; causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to
the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement.
Fact: XY Company in its prospectus stated that the company was permitted to make engines that
were powered by electricity, rather than by fuel. In reality, the company did not possess such a right
as this had to be approved by the Government Board. Gaining the approval for such a claim from the
Board was considered a formality in such circumstances and the claim was put forward in the
prospectus with this information in mind. However, the claim of the company for this right was later
refused by the Board. The individuals who had purchased a stake in the business, upon reliance on
the statement, brought a claim for deceit against the defendant’s business. Decide.
(A) The company is liable for false representation as their claims were eventually turned out to be false.
(B) The company is liable as their false statements has resulted in causing loss to the shareholders.
(C) The company is not liable as the statement in its prospectus was simply incorrect and not
fraudulent.
(D) The shareholders should have collected as much information regarding the company as possible
before purchasing a stake in it.
1. Private nuisance is a continuous, unlawful and indirect interference with the use or enjoyment of
land, or of some right over or in connection with it.
2. Generally, nuisances cannot be justified on the ground of necessity, pecuniary interest,
convenience, or economic advantage to a defendant.
4. In cases of nuisance, the court may grant an injunction restricting the nuisance from occurring in the
future when the loss could not adequately compensated.
Facts: Tina purchased a house in an estate which was adjacent to a functioning, in use, cricket field. The
members of Super Eleven Cricket Club used to play Cricket in that field for over 70 years. After Tina
moved into the property, cricket balls began to fly over the field’s protective barrier and into the Tina’s
property. Tina complained, which caused Super Eleven Cricket Club to erect a chain link fence. This
improved matters as less balls were now flying onto the Tina’s property but it did not fully solve the issue
as some still got through. The club offered Tina to pay for any damage done or injuries received as a
result of the balls landing onto her land, including fixing any broken windows and similar. Tina, however,
refused all of the club’s offers and filed a case against the members of the Club alleging nuisance and
negligence and requested court to grant an injunction to prevent the club from playing cricket on their
ground. Tina argued that even though the club offered to make good any damage and that there had
been no injuries, she was not able to use her garden when matches were being played for fear of being
struck by a cricket ball. Decide.
(A) The members of Club are not liable as Tina was aware about the activities of the Cricket Club
and had willingly purchased the property.
(B) The members of the Club are liable for nuisance and court should pass an order of compensation
as the injury is small and could be compensated in terms of money. Also, public interest
considerations outweighed the private rights of the plaintiff and therefore a remedy of damages was
sufficient in the circumstances.
(C) The members of the Club are liable for nuisance and court should pass an order of injunction.
The plaintiff’s right to enjoyment of her property outweighs the right of the members of the Club to play
cricket.
(D) The Club is not liable as they have already taken sufficient measures to mitigate the effects of
their act and are ready and willing to do so in future too.
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1. According to rule of strict liability, any person who for his own purposes brings on his lands and collects
and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it in at his peril, and, if he does
not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage, irrespective of fault, which is the natural
consequence of its escape in respect of the non-natural use of land.
Facts: PN was the owner of a gas pipe which passed under the surface of an old railway between
Ramnagar and Kotpur. XY was the local council which was responsible for a water pipe which supplied
water to a block of flats in the nearby Shining Apartment Complex. A leak developed which was
undetected for some time. The water collected at an embankment which housed PN’s high pressure gas
main. The water caused the embankment to collapse and left the gas main exposed and unsupported.
This was a serious and immediate risk and PN took action to avoid the potential danger. They then sought
to recover the cost of the remedial works. PN argued that the XY Council was liable for negligence under
strict liability.
(A)The Council is liable under strict liability rule as the damage is not remote as it was possible for the
Council to reasonably foresee a leakage which would eventually lead to collapse of the gas main.
(B) The escape of water as a result of leak is sufficient to make the Council liable.
(C) The Council is not liable as PN should have been careful in detecting the leak earlier. They cannot
shift the blame on the Council.
(D) The Council is not liable under rule of strict liability for the damage as the Council’s use was neither
a non- natural nor dangerous use of the land.

1. When the negligent act of two or more person results in the same damage, it is called composite
negligence. The liability in such a case is joint and several of the tort-feasers.
2. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would be likely to injure someone.
3. The foreseeability of the type of damage is a pre-requisite of liability.
4. The claimant must prove that harm would not have occurred 'but for' the negligence of the
defendant.
Facts: Zara filed a civil suit against five drug manufacturing companies. Zara’s mother took synthetic
estrogen while pregnant with her. As a result of receiving the drug in-utero, Zara developed cancer as an
adult. The drug was manufactured by the Defendants, five major drug companies and by about 195 other
companies not named in the suit. The Defendants together produced 90% of the drug. Zara is unable to
identify which company produced the actual drug her mother took. Decide whether the Defendants only
can be held liable for Zara’s cancer.
(A) No, as the industry responsible for the production of this drug is large, so holding only the defendants
responsible is not correct.
(B) Yes, as defendants joins a substantial share of the manufactures into the lawsuit, the chances of the
actual tort-feasor escaping liability is greatly reduced.
(C) No, as defendants can be made liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would be likely to
injure someone.
(D) No, Zara is not entitled to any damages as the drugs her mother was administered were needed at
that time and her mother had taken the medicines voluntarily. Zara developed cancer after so many years
and she must prove that harm would not have occurred 'but for' the negligence of the defendants.

1. Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harms a person's reputation;
decreases the respect, regard, or confidence in which a person is held; or induces disparaging,
hostile, or disagreeable opinions or feelings against a person.
2. The statement must tend to lower the claimant in the estimation of right- thinking members of
society.
3. A mere vulgar abuse is not defamation.
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4. Defamation encompasses both written statements, known as libel, and spoken statements, called
slander.
5. A public official or public figure can recover damages for defamation on a matter of public
concern only if he proves that the speaker acted with actual malice.
Facts: In 2018, a police officer, Suresh Singh, shot and killed Dayal. After the officer was convicted of
culpable homicide not amounting to murder, Dayal's family retained a lawyer, Kaushal, to represent them
in civil litigation against the officer. In a magazine called Indian Opinion, the Anti-Communist Society
accused Kaushal of being a “Naxalite” and a “Communist-fronter” because he chose to represent clients
who were suing a law enforcement officer. Because the statements contained serious inaccuracies,
Kaushal filed a libel action against the editors of the magazine. Decide whether he will succeed.
(A) No, as it is mere vulgar abuse.

(B) The statement may be defamatory but the editors of the magazine are not liable unless Kaushal
is able to establish actual malice in making the statement.
(C) No, as the statement does not tend to lower Kaushal in the estimation of right-thinking members
of society and print media is known for such type of journalism.
(D) Yes, as statement is defamatory and Kaushal is not required to establish actual malice to
successfully bring a claim of defamation.
82. Legal principle: A contract may, in some circumstances, be discharged by a breach of contract.
Where there exists a breach of condition this will enable the innocent party the right to repudiate the
contract (bring the contract to an end) in addition to claiming damages.
Facts: In April, Sagar Tour &Travels agreed to employ Hiten as his courier for three months from 1
June 2020, to go on a trip around the European continent. On 11 May, Sagar Tour & Travels wrote to
say that Hiten was no longer needed. On 22 May, Hiten sued Sagar Tour & Travels for breach of
contract. Sagar Tour & Travels argued that Hiten was still under an obligation to stay ready and willing
to perform till the day when performance was due, and therefore could commence no action before
June 1, 2020.
(A) A breach of contract by renouncing the duty to perform the future obligation does not render the
party liable immediately to a suit of action for damages by the injured party.
(B) The renunciation of a contract of future conduct by one party immediately dissolves the
obligation of the other party to perform the contract.
(C) Hiten has suffered no harm and the offer can be revoked anytime before June 1, 2020 so he
cannot claim any damages.
(D) A contract for future conduct do not constitutes an implied promise that, in the meantime,
neither party will prejudice the performance of that promise.
83. Legal Principle: An agreement between two private parties that creates mutual legal obligations.
A contract can be either oral or written.
Facts: Mr. Ram and Mr. Rahim were work colleagues who had an arrangement regarding shared lifts to
work. Rahim would drive his motorbike and Ram would ride pillion in return for a weekly sum of money.
Unfortunately, both were killed in a road traffic accident and the wife of Mr. Ram made a claim for
damages against the estate of Mr. Rahim. However, Rahim’s insurance policy did not cover pillion
passengers and as his estate had no assets or money to satisfy the judgment, Mrs. Ram pursued the
Motor Insurance Bureau (MIB).
The MIB have an agreement whereby accidents and consequential claims would be satisfied by the
Government in circumstances where the driver has no relevant policy of insurance. However, the rules
covering this situation require Mr. Ram was carried for “hire or reward”. Mrs. Ram argues that there was
a contract in place between Ram and Rahim for the lifts to work. Decide whether there was a contract so
as to make Mrs. Ram eligible for claim from MIB.
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(A) Notwithstanding the regular payment of money in return for the lift, it was not a legal obligation as
to create a contract. There were no terms as to how long this was to last, what would happen in default
of payment or the availability of transport, or anything written down so as to at least make their intention
clear.
(B) Yes, there was clearly an offer of transport and this was accepted. In addition, the consideration
exchanged by the parties was the service of transport and the money paid by Ram.
(C) Yes, the practice of agreements between colleagues sharing a lift to work (or “car-pooling”) is an
accepted and wide spread practice. Parties will usually agree that one will take their car and in return
the others will make a contribution towards the petrol costs.
(D) No, unless the wife of Ram can show that the accident happened due to rash and negligent driving
of Rahim.

who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made is
known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made
signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad
idem regarding the terms of the agreement.
Facts: Mr. Kumar visited the Holiday Bliss Hotel. He had not made an in advance booking and upon
arrival requested a room for the night. He signed the register and there was no mention at that stage of
any other terms or conditions that might impact upon his stay at the hotel. During the course of his stay
Mr. Kumar discovered that someone had broken into his room and stolen certain property including a
coat. Kumar filed a case of negligence on the Hotel administration. Nevertheless, the Hotel sought to rely
upon an exclusion clause that was placed in the bedroom the claimant stayed in. This stated that the
hotel would not accept liability for lost or stolen items belonging to customers. Decide whether the
exclusion clause that was displayed in the bedroom constituted a valid term of the contract.
(A) The contract was made when Kumar signed the register at the reception and so the acceptance of
the offer mean acceptance of all the terms of the offer.
(B) There is a valid contract between Kumar and Hotel and the Hotel has taken reasonable steps to bring
exclusion clause to Kumar’s attention in the room.
(C) Terms must be brought to the attention of the customer, consumer or party against whom they are
trying to be enforced at the moment the contract was entered into. Kumar was not given notice of this
exclusion clause until he had already entered into the contract and therefore it was unenforceable
against him.
(D) Though the terms must be brought to the attention of the customer, consumer or party against
whom they are trying to be enforced at the moment the contract was entered into. But, such type of
clauses are generally part of all contracts and customers should be aware of such exclusion of liability
clauses.
1. When one person signify to another person his willingness to do or not do something (abstain) with a
view to obtain the assent of such person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal
or an offer.
2. The communication of the offer is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it
is made.
3. Communication of acceptance is complete when it is put in the course of transmission to him as to be
out of the power of the acceptor to withdraw the same and when it comes to the knowledge of the
proposer.
4. In case of the proposer, the communication of the acceptance is complete when he puts such
acceptance in the course of transmission.
5. The communication in case of the acceptor is complete when the proposer acquires knowledge of
such acceptance.
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6. An offer may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as
against the proposer, but not afterwards.
Facts: G offered to sell the L fleeces of wool for a certain price. G requested that the response be made
by post. This letter was misdirected by G so that it was not received for 3 days after it was sent. L decided
to accept the offer and responded on the same day. This was posted on the 5th July but not received until
the 9th July. However, G decided on the 8th July that as he had not received a response so decided to
sell the wool to someone else. But L argued that a contract had been created as he had accepted their
offer. Decide.
(A) No contract was formed as L accepted the offer even before he received the offer by post. Contract
will be entered upon when L had received the offer and then written to him saying that the terms were
agreed.
(B) The contract was entered on the 9th September when the acceptance was received by G.
(C) G is free to withdraw his offer before 9th September.
(D) The contract was entered on the 5th September when the acceptance was posted, not when it was
received.
1. In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must be absolute and unqualified.
2. Acceptance must be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner, unless the proposal prescribes
the manner in which it is to be accepted. If the proposal prescribes a manner in which it is to be
accepted, and the acceptance is not made in such manner, the proposer may, within a reasonable
time after the acceptance is communicated to him, insist that his proposal shall be accepted in the
prescribed manner, and not otherwise; but, if he fails to do so, he accepts the acceptance.
Facts: TUV’s employee performing installation on Motorola’s premises was injured due to the negligence
of Motorola employees. TUV had executed a purchase order that contained an indemnity form. First
purchase order contained indemnity provision which narrowly applied to damages caused by the
negligence of TUV’s employees. It attached a broader indemnity form page which would make TUV also
responsible for the negligence of Motorola employees in connection with the work. This page was marked
VOID. Amendment 2 to Purchase order contained same provision and attached same additional
indemnity form which this time was not marked VOID. But also contained the additional language that
“acceptance should be executed on acknowledgement copy which should be returned to the buyer.”
Employee was injured several months before the acknowledgement copy of the second purchase order
was executed, but was in the course of performing work related to the second purchase order. Decide
whether TUV liable under the broader indemnity provision.
(A) TUV is liable as workers have sustained injury during the course of their employment even though
TUV has not accepted the amended purchase order as it did not execute the acknowledgement.
(B) Motorola’s amendment gave a suggested mode of acceptance which did not preclude TUV’s
acceptance by another method. TUV accepted when TUV undertook performance of the work
called for by the amendment with the “consent and acquiescence” of Motorola.
(C) TUV is not liable under the broader indemnity provision as it did not execute the acknowledgement
copy until several months after the employee sustained his injury.
(D) TUV is not liable as commencement of work was acceptance to the first purchase order in which
the broader indemnity provision was marked as void.
1. A contract can become void when: It is unfairly one-sided; it goes against public policy; its
subject matter is illegal; it is impossible to perform; it unfairly restricts one side's actions (such
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as the right to work); one of the parties is not legally competent to enter into a binding contract.
2. A contract is void as against public policy if: (1) it is a contract by the defendant to pay the
plaintiff for inducing a public official to act in a certain manner; (2) it is a contract to do an illegal
act; or (3) it is a contract that contemplates collusive bidding on a public contract.
Facts: BR Industries, a company manufacturing drills, machine parts and components thereof and a
purchaser of subcontract work from other suppliers, won the bid from the HLK Company to supply certain
parts to it at a specified price. BR industries then contracted with SU Co. to supply the parts under the
contract for a much lower price. BR Industries then intended to keep the difference between the amount
it billed the HLK Company and the amount SU Co. charged for the parts. BR Industries initiated an action
for breach of contract when SU Co. failed to complete the order. In its defense, SU Co. asserts that the
contract is void as against public policy because Defendant turned a profit of 84.09% on anvils, 39.13%
on holder primers and 68.33% on plunger supports. Did plaintiff receive too much compensation deeming
it unconscionable and against public policy?
(A) The contract is void as against public policy as it is a contract that contemplates collusive bidding
on a public contract.
(B) The Contract is void as it unfairly one sided.
(C) Relative values of the consideration in a contract between business men at “arms-length” without
fraud will not affect the validity of the contract.
(D) Relative values of the consideration in a contract between business men will affect the validity of the
contract as it amounts to abuse of dominance and unconscionable.

who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made
is known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made
signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus
Facts: In Dec. 2019, a convicted murderer who was sentenced to death escaped from the custody of
Ramesh, a prison official. Ramesh later offered a reward of INR 50,000 to anyone who captured the
fugitive and returned him to the authorities. In Jan. 2020, without knowledge or notice of the reward, Sunil
captured the fugitive and took him to Ramesh's jail house. Ramesh refused Sunil's demands for the
reward money. Sunil filed a case against Ramesh to recover the reward. Ramesh alleges that there is no
contract between Ramesh and Sunil.
(A) A mere offer or promise to pay did not give rise to a contract. Rather, the assent or meeting of two
minds gave rise to a contract, and therefore it was not complete until the offer was accepted. Having
notice or knowledge of the existence of the reward when he captured the fugitive is essential to his
right to recover the reward offered by Ramesh.
(B) The act of capturing the fugitive was acceptance of the offer of reward through conduct and so a valid
contract is entered upon.
(C) There was an offer by Ramesh and acceptance by Sunil and it is immaterial whether Sunil had notice
or knowledge of the existence of the reward when he captured the fugitive.
(D) Such an offer, like the reward here, could be accepted by anyone who performs the service called
for, when the acceptor knows that it has been made and acts in performance of it.
89. Which of the following States have passed a Bill providing for life imprisonment and fine up to INR
5 Lakhs against accused in case of mob lynching leading to death of the victim ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Rajasthan

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Haryana
90. The strength of Judges in Supreme Court of India has been increased from 31 to __________.
269
(A) 34 (B) 38
(C) 33 (D) 35
91. In September 2019, High Court of _______ has held that the right to have access to the internet
is part of fundamental right to education and right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
(A) Delhi (B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Kerala (D) Mumbai
92. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Delimitation Commission?
I. It determines the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all
constituencies nearly equal.
II. The orders of Delimitation Commission have the force of law and can be challenged
in a court of law.
III. Constitution of India has put a freeze on fresh delimitation until 2025.
IV. The constitution has also capped the number of Lok Shaba & Rajya Sabha seats to a
maximum of 550 & 250 respectively

(C) II, III (D) I, IV
93. The Enemy Property Act applies to the property of which of the following?
(A) people who took citizenship of China & Pakistan
(B) people who took citizenship of Bangladesh, China & Pakistan
(C) people who took citizenship of Bangladesh & China
(D) people who took citizenship of China & Myanmar
94. Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 provides for which of the following powers to prevent the spread of
an epidemic disease?
I. Inspection of person
II. detention of persons
III. penalties for disobeying provisions of the Act under Section 188, 269 & 271 Indian
Penal Code
IV. legal protection of implementing officers

(C) I, II, IV (D) I, III, IV
95. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Adaptation of State Laws) Second Order 2020 under J&K
Civil Services (Decentralization and Recruitment) Act provides for which of the following:
I. Anyone who has lived in the Union Territory of J&K for at least 10 years is a domicile.
II. Anyone who has studied there for at least seven years and appeared in Class X or Class
XII examinations in any school in the region is a domicile.
III. Anyone who is registered as a migrant by the Relief and Rehabilitation Commissioner
(Migrants) in the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir is a domicile.
IV. A domicile of the UT shall be eligible for appointment to any post with a pay scale of not
more than Level-4 under the UT or any local authority within the territory.
(A) II, III (B) I, II, III

(C) I, IV (D) II, III, IV
96. Which of the following statements regarding Anti-defection Law is/are incorrect?
I. Grounds of disqualification on ground of defection are provided in the 10th Schedule to the
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Constitution.
II. If 1/3rd of the members of the political party defect from it than it is not defection.
III. Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of a member under Anti- Defection Law
cannot be challenged in a court of law.
IV. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he disobeys the directives of the party
leadership on a vote.
(A) I, II, (B) I, II, IV

(C) II, III (D) I, II, III, IV
97. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Essential Commodities
(Amendment) Ordinance, 2020?
I. The Ordinance seeks to increase competition in the agriculture sector and enhance
farmers’ income.
II. The Ordinance requires that imposition of any stock limit on certain specified items must
be based on price rise.
III. The provisions of the Ordinance regarding the regulation of food items and the
imposition of stock limits will apply to any government order relating to the Public
Distribution System or the Targeted Public Distribution System.
IV. Recently, sanitizers, masks and oxygen cylinders are included under the Act till June
30, 2020.
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II

(C) III, IV (D) only I
98. Recently, the Supreme Court of India has held that women officers are also entitled to
Permanent Commission in __________
(A) Indian Navy (B) Indian Army
(C) Indian Air Force (D) all of these
99. In February 2020, the Supreme Court has held that reservations in promotion, in government jobs,
is not a fundamental right and refused to give directions to provide reservations to the government
of which of the following States?
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Jharkhand
(C) Kerala (D) Delhi
100. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities)
Amendments Act?
(A) No arrest can be made without prior permission.
(B) No anticipatory bail can be granted to the accused under the Act.
(C) The Police must file an FIR and arrest the accused on receiving the complaint.
(D) The offences under the Act are cognizable.
101. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2019?
I. The Act does not apply to tribal areas of Tripura, Mizoram, Assam and Meghalaya but
apply to all other states and UTs in India.
II. The Act provides that that no order of cancellation of registration shall be passed unless
the Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder has been given a reasonable opportunity of
being heard.
III. The Act increases the period of naturalisation for such group of persons from six years
to eight years.
IV. The Act applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to
persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such people from proceedings
of illegal migration.
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(A) I, IV (B) II, III, IV

(C) I, III, IV (D) II, IV
102. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding preventive detention?
I. National Security Act as well as Article 22, Constitution of India provide for preventive
detention in certain cases
II. Maximum duration in case of preventive detention can be till 12 months
III. In case of preventive detention, accused has the right to be informed about the
grounds of arrest at the time of arrest.
IV. In case of preventive detention, accused has no right to be represented by a lawyer.
(A) I, II (B) III, IV

(C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, IV
103. Which of the following countries joined the International Criminal Court (ICC) in 2019?
(A) Turkey (B) Malaysia
(C) Myanmar (D) India
104. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act grants citizenship to the Hindus, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhist,
Jains and Parsis — from _____________ who had arrived in India before ____________.
(A) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh; 31 December 2014

(B) Afghanistan, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh; 31 December 2014
(C) Myanmar, Pakistan and Tibet; 31 December 2011
(D) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Myanmar; 31 December 2011
105. Which of the following countries have abolished flogging as a form of punishment in April 2020?
(A) Indonesia (B) Maldives
(C) Saudi Arabia (D) Singapore
3. SECTION- D : REASONING
Direction (Q. 106 – Q. 112): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Sonu has to deliver seven parcels containing different items– Medicine, Book, Stationery, Grocery,
Cosmetics, Clothe and Chocolate – to houses on different floors of a building, one parcel each to a
house. The seven floors of the building are numbered consecutively 1 through 7. Delivery of parcels
to houses must meet the following conditions:
i. Medicine is delivered on a lower numbered floor than Grocery.

ii. Clothe is delivered at one level below the floor at which Book is delivered.
iii. Stationery is delivered at first floor or else seventh floor.
iv. Chocolate is delivered at fourth floor.
106. There can be at most how many floors between the floor at which Medicine is delivered and the
floor at which Grocery is delivered?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
107. If Clothe is delivered at floor 1, which of the following could be true?

(A) Book is delivered at a floor one below than the floor at which Grocery is delivered.
(B) Book is delivered at a floor one below than the floor at which Cosmetics is delivered.
272
(C) Medicine is delivered at a floor one below than the floor at which Stationery is delivered.
(D) Cosmetics is delivered at a floor one below than the floor at which Book is delivered.
108. Which one of the following is an acceptable assignment of parcels to the floors in the building, in
order from floor 1 through 7?
(A) Medicine, Clothe, Cosmetics, Chocolate, Book, Grocery, Stationery
(B) Stationery, Cosmetics, Chocolate, Clothe, Book, Medicine, Grocery
(C) Stationery, Clothe, Book, Chocolate, Grocery, Medicine, Cosmetics
(D) Medicine, Cosmetics, Grocery, Chocolate, Clothe, Book, Stationery
109. If Cosmetics is delivered at floor 2, which one of the following must be true?
(A) Medicine is delivered at a lower numbered floor than Chocolate.
(B) Chocolate is delivered at a lower numbered floor than Grocery.
(C) Grocery is delivered at a lower numbered floor than Stationery.
(D) Clothe is delivered at a lower numbered floor than Grocery.
110. If Cosmetics is delivered on floor 5, which one of the following is a pair of parcels that could be
delivered, not necessarily in the order given, at floors whose numbers are consecutive to each
other?
(A) Book, Grocery
(B) Clothe, Chocolate
(C) Stationery, Grocery
(D) Book, Stationery
111. If Book is delivered at one floor below the floor at which Medicine is delivered, then which one of
the following must be true?
(A) Cosmetics is delivered on fifth floor.
(B) Medicine is delivered on third floor.
(C) Stationery is delivered on first floor.
(D) Clothe is delivered on fifth floor.
112. It must be true that the lowest numbered floor on which

(A) Book can be delivered on third floor.
(B) Medicine can be delivered on second floor.
(C) Cosmetics can be delivered on third floor.
(D) Grocery can be delivered on second floor.
Directions (Q. 113 – Q. 116): Read the following information carefully to answer the following
questions.
I. ‘X + Y’ means that ‘X is the mother of Y’.
II. ‘X ̶ Y’ means that ‘X is the sister of Y’.
III. ‘X × Y’ means that ‘X is the father of Y’.
IV. ‘X ÷ Y’ means that ‘X is the brother of Y’.
113. If it is given ‘B + D × M ÷ N’, then how is M related to B?

(A) grand-daughter (B) son
(C) grand-son (D) daughter
114. Which of the following represent ‘J is the son of F’?

(A) J÷R̶T×F (B) J+R̶T×F
(C) J÷R̶N×F (D) none of these
115. Which of the following represent ‘R is the niece of M’?

(A) M÷K×T̶ R (B) M̶J+R̶N
(C) R̶ M×T÷W (D) M+T×K÷R
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116. If it is given ‘B × D ̶ M’, then which of the following is true?

(A) B is the brother of M (B) B is the sister of M
(C) B is the uncle of M (D) B is the father of M
Direction (Q. 117 – Q. 121): Read the given information carefully and answer the
following questions.
Vidya, Umesh and Tanu are sitting around a circular table. Arun, Bina and Chetan are sitting
around the same table but two of them are not facing centre (they are facing the direction opposite
to centre). Vidya is second to the left of Chetan. Umesh is second to the right of Arun. Bina is
third to the left of Tanu. Chetan is second to the right of Tanu. Arun and Chetan are not sitting
together.
117. Which of the following is not facing centre?

(A) Bina & Arun (B) Chetan & Vidya
(C) Bina & Chetan (D) Arun & Umesh
118. Which of the following is the position of Tanu in respect of Bina?

(A) third to the right (B) second to the right
(C) third to the left (D) third to the left & right, both
119.
What is the position of Vidya in respect of Chetan?
(A) second to the right (B) third to the left
(C) fourth to the right (D) fourth to the left
120. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Arun, Bina and Chetan are sitting together
(B) Vidya, Umesh and Tanu are sitting together
(C) Only two people are sitting between Vidya and Tanu
(D) Those who are not facing centre are sitting together
121. What is the position of Arun in respect of Umesh?

(A) second to the left (B) second to the right
(C) third to the right (D) none of these
Directions (Q. 122 – Q. 123): In each of the following questions is given a statement followed by
two conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the
two conclusions together and decide which of these logically follows beyond reasonable doubt
from the given information.
Give answer
(A) if only Conclusion I follows
(B) if only Conclusion II follows
(C) if both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows
122. Statement – The use of non-conventional sources of energy will eliminate the energy crisis in the
world.
Conclusion I – Modern technology is gradually replacing the conventional source of

energy.
Conclusion II – The excessive exploitation of environment has led to the depletion of
conventional source of energy.
274
123. Statement – Computer advertisements now fill magazine pages but the real computer revolution
in India is taking place quietly and is a likely organisation of Government.
Conclusion I – Both the Central and State Government are computerizing rapidly.
Conclusion II –The Government does not fill the magazine pages with its computer
advertisements.
Direction (Q. 124 – Q. 125): Each of these questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certian
relationship. From among the options, find out the one that best illustrates a similar relationship.
124. ABCD : OPQR : : WXYZ : ?

a. EFGH (B) STUV
(C) KLMN (D) QRST
Direction (Q. 126 – Q. 127):Find the one that does not belong to the group.
125. (A) GMS (B) EKQ

(C) JOU (D) LRX
127. (A) RARCOT (B) NIATCRU

(C) BACGEBA (D) ILBJARN
128. If in a certain code language ‘TEMPERATURE’ is written as ‘BZQDYXVBNXZ’, then how will
‘RAMP’ be written in that language?
(A) XVQD (B) XVDQ
(C) XQVD (D) XDVQ
129. In a certain coding system, ‘JUNE’ is written as ‘PQRS’ and ‘AUGUST’ is written as ‘WQFQMN’.
How will ‘GUEST’ be written in that coding language?
(A) FQTMN (B) FPSMN
(C) FQSMN (D) FQSNM
130. A clock is set right at 5 am. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the right time
when the clock indicates 10 pm on the 3rd day?
131. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 65 minutes of the correct
time. How much does a clock gain or lose in a day?
10 10
(A) 10 minutes (gain) (B) 10 minutes (loss)
143 143
10 10
(C) 9 minutes (gain) (D) 9 minutes (loss)
143 143
132. If a day before yesterday was Tuesday, then what day of the week will it be on a day after
tomorrow?
a. Monday (B) Wednesday
(C) Friday (D) Saturday
133. If 15th August, 2017 was Tuesday, then what day of the week was it on 17th September, 2017?
a. Sunday (B) Saturday
(C) Friday (D) Thursday
275
134. Tia and Renu both are walking away from point ‘X’. Tia walked 3 m and Renu walked 4 m
from it, then Tia walked 4 m North of X and Renu walked 5 m South of Tia. What is the
distance between them now?
(A) 9.5 m (B) 9 m
(C) 16 m (D) 11.40 m
135. Tanaya travelled 4 km straight towards South. He turned left and travelled 6 km straight,
then turned right and travelled 4 km straight. How far is he from the starting point?
a. 8 km (B) 10 km
(C) 12 km (D) 18 km
Directions (Q. 136 – Q. 140): Read the following short passages and choose the best answers to
the questions that follow each passage.
136. Therapists have just completed an extensive study of recently delinquent juveniles in order to
determine which factors contributed most to the delinquency. The researchers found that in a great
majority of the cases of delinquency, the parents met, on average, fewer than 4 times per week
with their children. From this data, the therapists have determined that a failure to spend time
together with the children is a major factor leading to delinquency.
Which one of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the researcher’s hypothesis?
a. Parents and children in the study who reported that they met each other more than four times per
week also indicated that they tended to perceive their relationships as healthy.
b. In many cases, people in unhappy family tend to express their displeasure by avoiding contact with
each other when possible.
c. Most of the families in the study who were unable to meet often with each other worked outside of
the home.
d. Many families who have a long and strong family bonding met each other fewer than four times per
week.
137. Several coaching centres have recently switched at least partially from study material written by
hand on printer paper from study material written on a computer and sent electronically with no use
of paper at all. Therefore, less printer paper will be used as a result of these changes than would
have been used if these coaching centres had continued to use handwritten study materials.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?

a. The amount of printer paper needed to explain the electronic study material is less than the amount
that would have been used for handwritten material.
b. Coaching centres that used more printer paper were more likely to switch to electronic materials
than centres that used less printer paper.
c. Some of the Institutes that have switched at least partially to electronic study material still primarily
used printer paper for other operations.
d. More printer paper was used to create manuals for the use of electronic study materials than was
used to write handwritten materials.
138. In visual media, it’s possible to induce viewers to project their feelings onto characters on the
screen. In one study, a camera shot of a girl’s face was preceded by images of a still river. The
audience thought the girl’s face registered contentment. When the same girl’s face was preceded
by images of a mighty and violent tsunami wave, the audience thought the girl’s face registered
fear. Media news teams must be careful to avoid such manipulation of their viewers.
Which of the following is best supported by the information in the passage?

a. The technique for manipulating audiences described in the passage would also work in an audio
program that played dramatic music.
b. Audiences should strive to be less gullible.
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c. Images of a still river engendered feelings of happiness in the audiences.

d. The expression on the woman’s face was, in actuality, blank.
139. Although measuring the productivity of outsourced workers is a complex endeavor. Company X,
which relies heavily on outsourced workers, must find ways to assess the performance of
these workers. The risks to a company that does not review the productivity of its human
resources are simply too great. Last year, Company Y was forced into receivership after its
productivity declined for three consecutive quarters.
The clauses in the italics in the above paragraph, play which of the following roles in the argument
above?
a. The first clause in italics express a position, and the second warns against the adoption of that
position.
b. The first clause in italics represents the author’s conclusion, and the second supports the
conclusion with an analogy.
c. The first clause in italics states the author’s premises, and the second states the author’s
conclusion.
d. The first clause in italics provides background information, and the second offers evidence to
contradict that information.
140. A telephonic poll conducted in two states asked respondents whether they get adequate water
during summers. Ninety-nine percent of respondents said their houses were having running water
through-out the day. The pollsters published their findings, concluding that ninety-nine percent of
all homes in India have adequate water for use.
Which of the following most accurately describes a questionable technique employed by the pollsters
in drawing their conclusions?
a. The pollsters conducted the poll by telephone, thereby relying on the veracity of respondents.
b. The pollsters never defined the term “adequate” in terms of a specific quantity of water.
c. The pollsters didn’t visit respondent’s houses in person, so no measure of adequacy of water
during summers in a subject’s house was actually made.
d. The poll assumes conditions in the two states are representative of the entire country.
4. SECTION – E : MATHEMATICS
141. If the third and the tenth term of an arithmetic progression are 14 and 56, respectively, then the
arithmetic mean of the first 15 terms of the arithmetic progression is
(A) 40 (B) 44
(C) 80 (D) 34
142. Ronnie has a bag containing 7 red and 9 green balls. From it, he draws out 6 balls simultaneously
at random. The probability that 4 of them are red and the rest are green is
24 45
(A) (B)
143 286
155 302
(C) (D)
2001 1005
143. City A is connected to City B by four highways and City B is connected to City C by three highways.
Kesari wants to travel from City A to City C via City B. In how many ways, Kesari can do it?
(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 10 (D) 12
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144. The number of integral values of x satisfying the inequation |x| < 4 is
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 10
145. If the price of each book goes up by Rs. 5, then Asha can buy 20 books less for Rs. 1200. Find
the original price and the number of books Asha could buy at the original price.
(A) Rs. 25, 50 (B) Rs. 20, 60
(C) Rs. 15, 80 (D) Rs. 10, 90
146. If 2x = 7y = 14z, then find the value of z in terms of x and y.

a. x+y/x-y (B) xy / x + y
(C) x + y + xy (D) xy – (x + y)
147. Bhiku borrowed some money from Dhanraj to admit his daughter in a reputed Law School. He
agreed to pay the interest-free loan of Rs. 60, 000 in a monthly installment which increased by a
constant amount. After the 20 th installment, he found that he has paid 3/4 th of the loan. If the
entire loan was cleared this way in 25 installments, find out the value of the first installment.
(A) Rs. 1560 (B) Rs. 1067
(C) Rs. 1680 (D) Rs. 1987
148. A vessel contains an 80% alcohol solution. 20% of the solution was removed and replaced with
water. If this process is repeated, find the percentage of alcohol which remains in the solution.
(A) 64% (B) 51.2%
(C) 50.6% (D) 45%
149. Arsh takes up a job, wherein each working day he is given a target. For each day, he meets the
target he is paid Rs. 105 and for each day he does not meet the target he is paid Rs. 18 less. If by
the end of a month, he is paid total of Rs. 2988, then how many days does he meets the target?
(A) 21 (B) 12
(C) 10 (D) 14
150. A fruit vendor purchases two varieties of oranges at the rates of 12 oranges for Rs. 8 and 18
oranges for Rs.12. He mixes the two varieties in the ratio of 2 : 3 and sells the mixed stock at a
price of Rs. 144 for 10 dozens. What percentage of profit or loss does he make?
(A) 26¾% (B) 34¼%
(C) 20% (D) 28%
278
AILET 2020 Answers

1 B 31 D 61 A 91 C 121 A
2 A 32 A 62 C 92 D 122 D
3 D 33 D 63 A 93 A 123 ###
4 C 34 B 64 D 94 C 124 A
5 B 35 C 65 B 95 A 125 C
6 B 36 A 66 C 96 C 126 C
7 A 37 B 67 A 97 B 127 B
8 D 38 A 68 D 98 B 128 A
9 D 39 C 69 C 99 A 129 C
10 A 40 D 70 C 100 A 130 ###
11 D 41 B 71 D 101 D 131 A
12 C 42 A 72 A 102 D 132 D
13 A 43 D 73 D 103 B 133 A
14 C 44 B 74 D 104 A 134 D
15 A 45 D 75 D 105 C 135 B
16 D 46 D 76 A 106 C 136 B
17 D 47 B 77 C 107 B 137 A
18 B 48 C 78 B 108 D 138 C
19 C 49 C 79 D 109 A 139 B
20 B 50 A 80 B 110 C 140 D
21 D 51 A 81 D 111 B 141 B
22 A 52 D 82 B 112 D 142 B
23 B 53 B 83 A 113 C 143 D
24 C 54 ### 84 C 114 D 144 A
25 A 55 A 85 D 115 B 145 C
26 D 56 C 86 B 116 D 146 B
27 A 57 B 87 C 117 C 147 C
28 C 58 C 88 A 118 D 148 B
29 B 59 B 89 B 119 C 149 A
30 C 60 D 90 A 120 D 150 C
Question nos : 54, 123,& 130 were removed.

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1

1. AILET 2008 Question Paper 3-20

2. AILET 2009 Question Paper 21-36

3. AILET 2010 Question Paper 37-57

4. AILET 2011 Question Paper 58-76

5. AILET 2012 Question Paper 77-94

6. AILET 2013 Question Paper 95-114

7. AILET 2014 Question Paper 115-137

8. AILET 2015 Question Paper 138-159

9. AILET 2016 Question Paper 160-179

10. AILET 2017 Question Paper 180-199

11. AILET 2018 Question Paper 200-222

12. AILET 2019 Question Paper 223-246

13. AILET 2020 Question Paper 247-273

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Total Marks: 150

SEC TION 1 – ENGLISH AND READING COMPREHENSION

2. The Supreme Court of India enjoys

3. A money bill can be introduced in Parliament by

4. The most powerful legislature in the world is the

5. In the U.S.A., residuary powers or reserve of powers are

6. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated with

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 and 3.

7. According to the Constitution, amendments cannot be proposed in either House to

8. Match the following:

Resolution of Fundamental Rights and National Economic

(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv)

12. The Constitution of India describes India as

14. The Fundamental Duties of the Indian Citizens

15. What is contained in the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India?

16. The strength of the Council of Ministers

19. Unliquidated damages mean

(b) Damage to be assessed by a Court as these are not pre-determined.

20. Assault and nuisance are

23. An idol of Lord Krishna in a temple is

27. The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice is

29. Ancient treatise on law

30. Muslim religious foundations

31. The maximum litigation in Courts is caused by

36. Match the following:

(a) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

(a) Cheating (b) Embezzlement (c) Fraud (d) Forgery.

39. Genocide occurred in all but one case

40. High sea is

41. Which Inn of Court called Gandhiji to the Bar?

(a) not protected

(a) not entitled to damages

51. FRAYED: FABRIC

52. LEVITATE: MAGICIAN

Fill in the Blank with the appropriate option:

63. I was surprised

64. It is not possible to

65. He and escaped.

66. Let finish this work as soon as possible.

67. the room the door hit him on the brow.

(M) However they never quite reach the top.

The correct sequence should be:

74. (1) If you feed a dog or tame a bear by hand

The correct sequence should be:

75. (1) St. Francis taught that