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‭Maximum Marks: 300‬ ‭Time: 3 Hrs‬

‭INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES‬

‭Kindly Read the Instructions Carefully‬
‭●‬ ‭The test is of 3 hours (180 min.) duration.‬

‭●‬ ‭This Test Booklet has 2 Papers I and II consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions:‬

‭○‬ ‭Part-I : Paper 1 (Q.Nos. 1-50)‬

‭○‬ ‭Part-II : Subject (Q.Nos. 51-150)

‬

‭●‬ ‭All the questions are compulsory.‬

‭●‬ ‭Marking Scheme:‬

‭○‬ ‭Each question carries 02 (two) marks.‬

‭○‬ ‭For each correct response, the candidate will get 02 (two) marks.‬

‭○‬ ‭There is no negative marking for incorrect responses.‬

‭○‬ ‭No marks will be given for questions unanswered/un-attempted‬

‭○‬ ‭To answer a question, the candidate needs to choose one option as the correct option.‬

‭●‬ ‭Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same.‬

‭●‬ U
‭ se‬‭Blue/Black Ball Point Pen‬‭only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses in the‬
‭Answer Sheet.‬
150 Questions

Que. 1 The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states A, B, C, D and E on
the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex.
Proportional of Males
percentage of and Female
Population
State Below
Below the Above poverty
poverty line poverty
line
line
M/F M/F
A 30 5∶6 6∶7
B 20 3∶5 4∶5
C 25 1∶2 2∶3
D 20 2∶3 4∶3
E 15 5∶3 3∶ 2

What will be the number of females above the poverty line in the state D, if it is known that the population of
state D is 7 million?

1. 2.4 million
2. 3 million
3. 1.3 million
4. 3.6 million

Que. 2 If the male population above poverty line for state C is 1.5 million, then the total population of state
C is:

1. 4.5 million
2. 5.25 million
3. 5 million
4. 5.75 million

Que. 3 If the population of males below poverty line for state B is 2.4 million and that for state E is 6
million, then the total populations of states B and E are in the ratio:

1. 2∶3
2. 1∶2
3. 3∶5
4. 1∶4

Que. 4 If the total population of state C is 4 million, find the total number of females above poverty line in
state C.

1. 1.2 million
2. 2 million
 3. 1.8 million
4. 2.4 million

Que. 5 What will be the approximate male population above poverty line for state A if the female above
poverty line for state A is 1.8 million?

1. 2.1 million
2. 3.55 million
3. 2 .5 million
4. None of these

Que. 6 Which of the following are the important characteristics of an effective teacher?
(I) Knowledge of content.
(II) Effective verbal communication skills.
(III) Impressive personality.
(IV) Ability to command respect from students.

1. (II) and (III)

2. (I) and (II)
3. (III) and (IV)
4. (I) and (IV)

Que. 7 The National Education Policy (NPE), 1986 suggested the development of integrated programmes
for the

1. education of boys and girls together

2. education of the mentally disabled
3. handicapped children to study in regular schools
4. handicapped children to study in special schools

Que. 8 Experiential learning is important for improving the learning abilities of students. Which one of the
following can be achieved through experiential learning:
a. Sensory experiences
b. Concrete experiences
c. Gain in more knowledge and better grades
d. Improvement in process skills

1. (a), (b) and (d)

2. (b) and (c) only
3. (d) only
4. (c) and (d) only

Que. 9 The National curriculum framework (2005) considers that mathematics involves 'a certain way of
thinking and reasoning'. The vision can be realized by

1. Giving special coaching to students

 2. Adopting exploratory approach, use of manipulatives connecting concepts to real life, involving
students in discussions
3. Rewriting all the text book of mathematics
4. Emphasizing on solving problems given in text book

Que. 10 Arrange the following phases of memory in the correct sequence from first to last
A. Learning
B. Recall
C. Recognition
D. Retention
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, B, C and D
2. A, D, B and C
3. A, C, D and B
4. A, D, C, and B

Que. 11 In a research study the variable which is not directly observable but whose effect is inferred on the
dependent variable is termed as:

1. Extraneous variable
2. Moderator variable
3. Intervening variable
4. Treatment variable

Que. 12 Which of the following statements are true for a historical research design?
a) Mostly based on qualitative data
b) Testing hypothesis is an integral part
c) Findings can be generalized to other situations
d) Data are examined for validity and authenticity
e) Content-analysis is used for data treatment
Choose the correct option:

1. (a), (b) and (e)

2. (a), (c) and (e)
3. (a), (d) and (e)
4. (b), (c) and (d)

Que. 13 Which of the following statements will be considered true in the case of good hypothesis? Choose
the correct answer from the code given below.
i) It should be derived from the existing theory of knowledge.
ii) It should clearly indicate the relation between variables postulated.
iii) It should test a theory.
iv) It should be related to a current issue.
v) It should be stated in a concise and lucid manner.
 1. i, iv and v
2. ii, iii and iv
3. iii, iv and v
4. i, ii and v

Que. 14 A teacher prepares a list of latest arrivals in the various libraries of the colleges of a university. His
list reflects the number of books as reported. Which of the measurement scales is implied in this?

1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Interval
4. Ratio

Que. 15 Which of the following research types is most useful for the government in planning policies ?

1. Correlational studies
2. Descriptive studies
3. Experimental studies
4. Historical studies

Que. 16 Assertion (A): Understanding is an essence of Communication.

Reason (R): Communication is incomplete unless the receiver has understood the message
properly and his reaction or response is known to the sender.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Que. 17 What is the sequence in which process of communication takes place according to cole and chan
communication?

1. Formulation of message, message transmission, message decoding, message encoding, feedback

2. Formulation of message, message decoding, message transmission, message encoding, feedback
3. Formulation of message, message encoding, message d​ ecoding, message transmission, feedback
4. Formulation of message, message encoding, message transmission, message decoding, feedback

Que. 18 Which of the following are considered as Psychological Barriers?

A. Defensiveness and fear
B. Stereotyping
C. Communication context
D. Self-image
E. Biasness
Select the correct codes given below:

1. A, B and D only
 2. A, B and E only
3. A, B, D and E only
4. All of the above

Que. 19 Match List I with List II :

List I
List II
Typed of
Definition
Communication
A verbal form
(A) Meeting (I) of summarising and
retaining the key points
Group communication
in action around a
(B) Group discussion (II)
defined agenda, at a set
time
The communication
allows its participants
(C) Exhibition (III) to share their views and
opinions with other
participants
Method of showing
(D) Personal notes (IV)
quality or trait
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
4. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Que. 20 The characteristics of effective communication are

(A) Fluency in the language
(B) Brief and easily understandable
(C) They must be written in formal english
(D) Free from errors
(E) Reliable and devoid of any false claims
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (A), (B), (C) only

2. (A), (B), (D), (E) only
3. (B), (C), (D), (E) only
4. (C), (D), (E) only

Que. 21 Rajesh can walk at 5m/s or cycle at 20 m/s. He takes 45 s to cover a distance of 600 m using a
combination of the two modes of transport. How long did Rajesh cycle?

1. 15 s
2. 20 s
 3. 25 s
4. 26 s

Que. 22 Person A can complete a job in 48 min while B can complete the same job in 60 min. How long
will they take to complete the job together?

1. 26 min 40 sec
2. 28 min 20 sec
3. 30 min 45 sec
4. 32 min 15 sec

Que. 23 How much be the multiplication of 0.529 and 2.01 is more by 1?

1. 0.09326
2. 0.06329
3. 0.03269
4. 0.02369

Que. 24 The product of two numbers is 9216. When the larger number is divided by the smaller number, the
quotient is 16 leaving no remainder. What is the difference between the numbers?

1. 384
2. 408
3. 360
4. 380

Que. 25 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series:
13, 27, 56, 115, ?

1. 234
2. 238
3. 233
4. 243

Que. 26 If two proposition both cannot be false but both may be true, the relation between the two
proposition is called

1. Contradictory
2. Contrary
3. Sub-contrary
4. Altern

Que. 27 Consider the argument provided below:

“Ghosts do not exist because no one has proved its existence so far"
Identify the fallacy of irrelevant reason involved in the above argument on the basis of Indian logic.

1. The red herring

 2. Appeal to emotion
3. Appeal to force
4. Argument from ignorance

Que. 28 "Everyone drives over the speed limit, so it should not be against the law." This inference commits
which kind of fallacy?

1. Ad hominem
2. Ad populum
3. Fallacy of Accident
4. Fallacy of Ambiguity

Que. 29 According to classical Indian school of logic, what is the correct sequence of steps involved in
Anumana (inference)?

1. Upanaya, Pratijna, Hetu, Udaharana, Nigamana

2. Pratijna, Hetu, Upanaya, Udaharana, Nigamana
3. Pratijna, Upanaya, Hetu, Udaharana, Nigamana
4. Pratijna, Hetu, Udaharana, Upanaya, Nigamana

Que. 30 Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Nyaya accepts four valid means of knowledge viz. perception, inference, testimony,
and comparison.
Statement II: Upanama is knowledge derived from comparison while Verbal testimony is the statement of a
trustworthy person.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Que. 31 Match List - I with List II

I
II
(Digital
(Purpose)
Initiative)
(a) UMANG (i) G2B Services
(b) BHIM (ii) Learning platform
(c) eBiz (iii) Unified payment interface
Single point of access to all
(d) SWAYAM (iv)
government services

Choose the correct option

1. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

2. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
 3. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
4. (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

Que. 32 The following list indicates different types of computer file formats. Which of them is devoted
exclusively to graphic file formats?

1. PNG, GIF, JPEG

2. TIFF, XLS, PNG
3. GIF, JPEG, DOC
4. JPEG, TIFF, HTML

Que. 33 A combination of hardware and software which links two parts of the same LAN or two compatible
LANs by directing messages to the correct node is called

1. Embedded System
2. Router
3. Hybrid Computer
4. Microprocessor

Que. 34 Match the ICT terminology with their meanings.

List– I list – II
a) A set of instructions written in a computer language 1) Firewall
b)The software that accesses and displays pages and
2) Cookies
files on the web
c) The practice of blindly posting commercial
messages or advertisements to a large number of 3) Browser
unrelated and uninterested group
d) A mechanism that isolates a network from the rest
4)
of the internet, permitting only specific traffic to pass
Programme
in and out
5) SPAM

1. a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4
2. a - 5, b - 4, c - 3, d - 2
3. a - 4, b - 3, c - 5, d - 1
4. a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 5

Que. 35 In the context of Internet, the facility in which the server application allows many users to create
and edit pages on a website through their browser is called as

1. hacking
2. troll
3. cybernetics
4. wiki

Que. 36 According to the NITI Aayog's SDG India Index (2020-21), which is the second best-performing
state on SDG-9 (Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure) in India?
 1. Karnataka
2. Kerala
3. Gujarat
4. Telangana

Que. 37 Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the International Solar Alliance?

1. India
2. Brazil
3. France
4. Australia

Que. 38 Carbon Monoxide (CO)

A. is a greenhouse gas
B. is a polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon
C. is a component in determining Air Quality Index (AQI)
D. helps in the formation of acid rain
E. is a Volatile Organic Compound (VOC)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B & C only
2. A, D & E only
3. C only
4. C, D & E only

Que. 39 Which of the following refers to a type of mass wasting characterized by the rapid downslope
movement of a cohesive mass of regolith or rock along a curved surface?

1. Landslide
2. Rockfall
3. Creep
4. Debris flow

Que. 40 Given below are two statements

Statement I: According to Environment (Protection) Amendment Rules, 2022, All new brick kilns
shall be allowed only with zig-zag technology or vertical shaft.
Statement II: Brick kilns shall construct permanent facilities (port hole and platform) as per the norms or
design laid down by the Central Pollution Control Board for monitoring emissions.
choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement Il is true
Que. 41 Given below are two statements - one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R) :
Assertion (A): Government of Ind in established higher educational statutory bodies to ensure the quality of
education.
Reason (R): There are some educational institutions in India which do not provide quality education.
In the context of the above two statements, choose the correct option:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (It) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Que. 42 Match List I with List II:

List - I List - II
a) Open i) Odisha State Open
University University, Odisha
b) Dual Mode
ii) Amity University
University
c) Mixed Model iii) Indian Institute of
University Science, Bengaluru
d) Deemed iv) University of
University Mumbai, Mumbai
e) Specialized v) School of Planning and
University Architecture, New Delhi
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

1. a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (v), d - (i), e - (iv)

2. a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii), e - (v)
3. a - (v), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii), e - (iii)
4. a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv), e - (v)

Que. 43 Match the items in List-I with List-II and select correct alternative.
List-I List-II
Radha Krishna
a) i) 1986 NPE
Commission
b) Mudaliar Commission ii) 10 + 2 + 3 system
Intermediate is the weakest
c) Kothari Commission iii)
link
Secondary Education
d) Ramamurty Committee iv)
Commission

1. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

2. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
3. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
4. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
Que. 44 The idea of Four Pillars of Education was suggested by

1. UNICEF.
2. UNESCO.
3. NCTE.
4. UGC.

Que. 45 In NEP 2020, the current 10+2 system to be replaced by a new curricular structure. What is the new
curricular structure?

1. 3+4+4+5
2. 5+3+3+4
3. 4+3+3+5
4. 5+4+3+3

Que. 46 Read the given passage and answer the following questions -
The emergence of cryptocurrencies has introduced a new element into the established world order
of finance. These digital, decentralized currencies, over time, have swayed back and forth between benign
neglect and intense scrutiny from financial institutions and governments across the globe. The pulse of this
nascent financial ecosystem has developed an unusual rhythm, underpinned by a veil of mathematical
complexity and technological sophistication. The enigmatic algorithmic mechanisms which underlie
cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin – intricate, distributed ledgers known as blockchains – harness an interplay of
cryptography, network theory, and game theory.
Cryptoassets, ranging from cryptocurrencies proper to tokenized securities and utility tokens, have earned
mixed responses from stakeholders ranging from enthusiastic embracement as the harbinger of a new
financial democratization wave to disdainful rejection due to their reputation for being conduits for illegal
activities. While some regulators scramble to establish control mechanisms, others portray them as the
quintessential tools of a new economic paradigm, uncoupling debt and finance and empowering individual
economic agency.
However, thorough examination of this development comes with its own set of impediments. The nature of a
blockchain's decentralized ledger, maintaining transparency while cloaking individual identity details, makes
tracking transactions arduous. Furthermore, speculative bubbles, high volatility, and suspicions of market
manipulation contribute to an aura of mistrust and uncertainty around this financial innovation. The duel
between cryptoassets’ potential and pitfalls is ceaselessly waged on analysts’ desks, regulatory meeting
rooms, and public forums. As the dust settles, this crypto-financial revolution either could prove to mark an
evolutionary leap in human economics or be relegated to a footnote, a bold but ultimately doomed monetary
experiment.

Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?

1. The rise of cryptocurrencies has garnered considerable attention from financial institutions.
2. Cryptoassets have universally been accepted as the future of finance.
3. Tracking transactions within a blockchain network can be challenging
4. Cryptocurrencies can be vehicles for illegal transactions.

Que. 47 Which of the following is correct as per the passage?

1. The subject of cryptocurrencies lacks any level of complexity.

2. The influence of cryptocurrencies is confined to certain restrictive geographical boundaries.
3. Governments across the world remain indifferent to the rise of cryptocurrencies.
 4. Cryptocurrencies could potentially mark a significant shift in economic systems.

Que. 48 Statement I: Cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin use blockchains that incorporate cryptography, network
theory, and game theory.
Statement II: All stakeholders universally embrace cryptoassets as spearheading financial democratization.
Statement III: Cryptoassets face challenges in transaction tracking due to the nature of blockchain's
decentralized ledger.
Statement IV: Beyond being speculative investments, cryptocurrencies offer no potential shift in existing
economic systems.

1. Only Statements I, III are correct

2. Statements I, II, and III are correct
3. Statements II, III, and IV are correct
4. Statements I, II, and IV are correct

Que. 49 Statement I: Financial institutions and governments worldwide are indifferent to the rise of
cryptocurrencies.
Statement II: Cryptoassets have the potential to decouple debt and finance.
Statement III: Speculative bubbles and market manipulation suspicions contribute to mistrust around
cryptoassets.
Statement IV: Blockchain technology simplifies transaction tracking in cryptocurrencies.

1. Only Statements II and III are correct

2. Statements I, II, and IV are correct
3. Statements II, III, and IV are correct
4. Statements I, III, and IV are correct

Que. 50 According to the passage, which of the following reasons contribute to the element of mistrust
around cryptoassets?

1. Lack of understanding about blockchain technology.

2. High volatility and suspicion of market manipulation.
3. Governments' universal acceptance of cryptocurrencies.
4. Limited scope for financial democratization with cryptoassets.

Que. 51 Earthquakes are known to cause devastating effects on their immediate surroundings. Which of the
following statements is/are true regarding them?
1. The immediate cause of shallow earthquakes is the sudden release of stress along a fault crack in the earth's
crust.
2. The north-western region of the Indian subcontinent is susceptible to earthquake activity due to volcanic
activity.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Que. 52 In the structure of the planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of
the following?

1. Aluminium
2. Chromium
3. Iron
4. Silicon

Que. 53 Which one of the following elements is the most abundant in the earth's Crust?

1. Oxygen
2. Sulphur
3. Silicon
4. Carbon

Que. 54 Till, Moraines and boulder clay are depositional land forms due to

1. Glacial activity
2. Surface water activity
3. Underground water activity
4. Aerial activity

Que. 55 Which of the following landforms is formed due to faulting?

1. Mushroom rock
2. Moraine
3. Rift-valley
4. Doline

Que. 56 When two meander loops come closer due to continuous erosion and deposition, which of the
following landform originates?

1. Flood plain
2. Ox-bow lake
3. Delta
4. River meander

Que. 57 Consider the following statements:

Statement i:The Grand Canyon is a steep-sided gorge carved by the Colorado River in Arizona,
United States.
Statement ii:The Himalayas is a mountain range in Asia, separating the plains of the Indian subcontinent from
the Tibetan Plateau.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
 4. Neither 1 nor 2

Que. 58 Granite and quartzite areas have a upstanding look because

1. These rocks are not easily eroded

2. They are not easily worn down
3. These rocks are resistant to all kinds of erosion
4. None of the given options

Que. 59 According to the Continental drift theory, which among the following statements is correct?

1. The Northern rift cuts Pangea from east to west creating Laurasia in the North.
2. The Northern rift cuts Pangea from east to west creating Gondwanaland in the North.
3. The Northern rift cuts Pangea from east to west creating Laurasia in the South.
4. The Northern rift cuts Pangea from east to west creating Panthalasa in the North.

Que. 60 Which ocean current can help a boat in sailing from Mexico to the Philippines?

1. California current
2. North Equatorial current
3. South Equatorial current
4. Kuroshio Current

Que. 61 'El nino' affecting Indian monsoons is a

1. sea storm
2. tropical disturbance
3. warm ocean current
4. a typhoon

Que. 62 Which one of the following is called rainforest of the oceans?

1. Corals
2. Ocean deposits
3. Tides
4. Currents of the Oceans

Que. 63 The major fisheries 'Grand Bank' is located at

1. in the South Atlantic Ocean

2. in the Southern Pacific Ocean
3. in the North Atlantic Ocean
4. in the North Pacific Ocean

Que. 64 A) Waves are formed when winds scrape across the ocean surface.
B) The stronger the wind blows, the bigger the wave becomes.
Choose the correct option:

1. Both A and B is true but A is not correct explanation of B

2. Both A and B is true and A is correct explanation of B
3. A is true, B is false
4. A is false, B is true

Que. 65 The teacher draws a water cycle chart on the blackboard. From the given processes below choose
the processes involved in a water cycle.
A. Condensation
B. Insolation
C. Evaporation
D. Precipitation

1. A, B and C
2. A, C and D
3. B, A and D
4. C, B and D

Que. 66 Which of the following factors affecting the distribution of temperature of the ocean water is
INCORRECT?

1. Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold ocean areas, while the cold currents decrease the
temperature in warm ocean areas.
2. The temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles.
3. The winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away from the coast.
4. The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive less heat due to their contact with lesser extent of land
than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.

Que. 67 The height of water of tsunami waves above mean sea level in the near shore zone is called ______.

1. Flow depth
2. inundation distance
3. Tsunami height
4. Tsunami run-up

Que. 68 Red sea records the highest salinity because of very high evaporation. It is located in which ocean?

1. Atlantic ocean
2. Pacific ocean
3. Arctic ocean
4. Indian ocean

Que. 69 Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere:

1. Argon
2. Neon
3. Helium
4. Carbon dioxide
Which of the following is the correct descending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume
percentage?

1. 1-3-2-4
2. 1-4-2-3
3. 4-2-3-1
4. 2-4-1-3

Que. 70 Directions: The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II.
Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement I: Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.
Statement II: Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.

1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
2. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Que. 71 Which of the following statements concerning the atmosphere of the Earth is correct?
1. In the stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude.
2. In the mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude.
3. The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere.
4. The tropopause is an isothermal zone.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Que. 72 The main atmospheric layer near the surface of the earth is

1. stratosphere
2. troposphere
3. mesosphere
4. ionosphere

Que. 73 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. With increasing distance from the sea, monsoon rainfall generally depicts a declining trend.
2. In the Western parts of cool temperate regions, rainfall is evenly distributed throughout the year.
3. The western margins of the continents between 45o and 65o N and S of equator receive higher rainfall
than the eastern margins.
4. Rainfall in doldrums moves from west to east.
Que. 74 Find the odd one out of the following:

1. Convectional Rainfall
2. Orographic Rainfall
3. Cyclonic Rainfall
4. Tidal Rainfall

Que. 75 Identify the heat zone of the earth based on the given characteristics
A. Areas are very cold.
B. The sun here does not rise above the horizon.
C. Areas lying between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole and Antarctic Circle and South Pole.
D. Sun rays are always slanting and provide less heat.
Choose the correct option.

1. Frigid Zone
2. Torrid Zone
3. Temperate Zone
4. Hot Zone

Que. 76 Wind circulation in anticyclone in northern hemisphere is

1. Clockwise
2. Anti-clockwise
3. No circulation
4. Parallel to isobars

Que. 77 Which of the following statements about permanent winds is correct?

1. These blow only during a particular period of the day in a small area.
2. These winds change their direction in different seasons.
3. These blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction.
4. Monsoon is an example of permanent winds.

Que. 78 Identify the organism that does NOT belong to the first level trophic level.

1. Grass
2. Phytoplankton
3. Zooplankton
4. Trees

Que. 79 Which day is celebrated as the World Ozone Day?

1. 16 June
2. 15 September
3. 16 September
 4. 19 July

Que. 80 At places the groundwater is stored between layers of hard rock below the water table. This is
known as _____.

1. a well
2. an aquifer
3. a lake
4. a pond

Que. 81 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding hydropower generation from river dams?

1. Dams encourage sustainable growth

2. It does not pollute water or air
3. Hydropower facilities can have large environmental impacts
4. Dams displace indigenous people from their river lifelines

Que. 82 Which of the following areas can be classified under biogeography?

I. Zoology
II. Environmental geography
III. Regional geography
IV. Vegetative geography

1. I, II and IV
2. I, II and III
3. I, III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV

Que. 83 Match List-I with List-II and using the given codes select the correct answer:
List-I List-II
(Grassland) (Country/continent)
1. Steppes (a) United States of America
2. Prairies (b) South Africa
3. Welds (c) Russia
4. Downs (d) Australia

1. 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d
2. 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c
3. 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - d
4. 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - a

Que. 84 In temperate regions, the eastern margin of the continents is usually occupied by

1. Tropical Deciduous Forests

2. Temperate Deciduous Forests
 3. Temperate Evergreen Forest
4. Mediterranean Vegetation

Que. 85 Which among the following soil horizon is known as the layer of surface soil?

1. A-Horizon
2. B-Horizon
3. C-Horizon
4. R-Horizon

Que. 86 Consider the following points related to Urban forestry:

1. It is the raising and management of trees in and around urban centres.
2. Urban forestry also includes the management of forests at the urban fringe.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 both
4. None of the above

Que. 87 Which of the following factors is a geographical factor that affects the distribution of the population
in India?

1. Industrialisation
2. Climate
3. Minerals
4. Urbanisation

Que. 88 Which is the largest tribe in India?

1. Gond
2. Kol
3. Bhil
4. Santhal

Que. 89 J.P. Clark and F.C. Evance are associated with

1. Nearest Neighbour Method

2. Concept of Hierarchy
3. Concept of Rimland
4. Concept of Geo-Politics

Que. 90 Consider the following statements (A), (B) and (C) and choose the correct option.
(A) Human settlements are reflection of how human beings have modified their environment.
(B) Natural conditions play no role in selection of an ideal site.
(C) Only when humans started to grow crops, it became necessary to have permanent homes.
 1. Only (A) and (B) are true.
2. Only (B) and (C) are true.
3. Only (A) and (C) are true.
4. Only (C) is true.

Que. 91 Which is a small settlement usually characterized by a single economic activity?

1. Hamlet
2. Village
3. Rurban Centre
4. Urban fringe village

Que. 92 The last sector in Von Thunens model is associated with

1. Live stock farming

2. Market gardening
3. Milk production
4. Crop farming

Que. 93 Identify the incorrect pair from the given pairs.

1. Ecological model → Robert Park

2. Sector Model → Homer Hyot
3. Multiple Nuclei Model → Harris and Ullman
4. Concentric Zone Model → Amos Hawley

Que. 94 The theory which is NOT related with urban land use:

1. Multiple nuclei theory

2. Concentric zone theory
3. Central Place theory
4. Sector theory

Que. 95 Match List 1 with List 2 and choose the correct answer form the code given below:
List 1 List 2
(Model Concept) (Definition)
1. Model of the internal structure
of cities in which social groups
(a) Sector Model
are spatially arranged in a series
of rings
2. Nucleus of city where retail
(b) Concentric Zone Model stores and offices are
concentrated
(c) Bid-Rent theory 3. Theory that refers how price
and demand on real estate
 changes as distance towards
CBD increases
4. Model of internal structure of
cities in which social groups are
(d) Central Business
arranged around a series of
District (CBD)
sectors or wedges radiating from
CBD

1. (a) - 3, (b) - 1, (c) - 4, (d) - 2

2. (a) - 2, (b) - 1, (c) - 4, (d) - 3
3. (a) - 4, (b) - 1, (c) - 3, (d) - 2
4. (a) - 1, (b) - 2, (c) - 4, (d) - 3

Que. 96 Which among the following is/are the major principles of Permaculture?
1. Intensive farming
2. Zero-waste lifestyle by reusing and recycling.
3. Developing systems to collect abundant resources and energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

Que. 97 Match List I and List II :

List I List II
(Thinker/Scholar) (Theory/Model/Strategy)
Gunnar Strategy of
(A) (I)
Myrdal unbalanced growth
A.O. Circular and
(B) (II)
Hirschman cumulative causation
John Growth center and
(C) (III)
Friedmann growth axis
(D) J. Boudeville (IV) Core and periphery
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Que. 98 According to world-systems theory, which of the following statements best describes the
relationship between core, periphery, and semi-periphery nations?

1. Core nations are predominantly exploited by both periphery and semi-periphery nations.
2. Periphery nations are self-sustaining and independent of both core and semi-periphery nations.
3. Semi-periphery nations act as buffers between core and periphery nations, possessing characteristics
of both.
 4. Core, periphery, and semi-periphery nations exist independently with no significant economic
interactions between them.

Que. 99 Which aspect of economic development did Gunnar Myrdal concentrate upon?

1. Capital Scarcity
2. Human resource scarcity
3. Regional inequalities
4. Population explosion

Que. 100 The doctrine of balanced growth has not been advanced by

1. H. W. Singer
2. W. A. Lewis
3. A. O. Hirschman
4. C. P. Kindleberger

Que. 101 A kind of social differentiation where by members of society are grouped into social economic
basis, depending upon their job, wealth, social status, power or income is:

1. Social stratification
2. Social Inequality
3. Social Mobility
4. Social Change

Que. 102 Consider the following statements:

1. Cities accommodating population sizes between one to five million are called metropolitan
cities.
2. Cities accommodating population size more than five million are mega cities.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct according to Census of India classification?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Que. 103 Consider the following statements:

1. Census of India classifies urban centres into six classes.
2. More than 60 percent of urban population in India lives in Class I towns.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Que. 104 Consider the following:
1. Unplanned Nature
2. Employment Opportunities
3. Illegal Settlements
4. Substandard Housing
Which of the above are problems faced by Urban Settlements?

1. 1, 2, 3
2. 1, 2, 4
3. 2, 3, 4
4. All of the above

Que. 105 Which of the following leaders was awarded the Global Energy and Environment Leadership
Award by Cambridge Energy Research Associates (CERA) in March 2021?

1. Joe Biden
2. Emmanuel Macron
3. Narendra Modi
4. Angela Merkel

Que. 106 Which one of the following Regional Organisations' Headquarters is located outside its region?

1. Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries

2. European Union
3. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
4. Association of South-East Asian Nations

Que. 107 Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The Gulf Cooperation Council was established in 1981.
Statement 2: The primary goal of the Gulf Cooperation Council is to foster defense and military cooperation.
Select the correct answer.

1. Both statements are true.

2. Both statements are false.
3. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
4. Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.

Que. 108 Who found eight distinct meanings for the term “Balance of Power"?

1. Iris L. claude,Jr
2. Emst B. Haas
3. Richard Coleden
4. Alfred Vagdt

Que. 109 Which of the following ASEAN countries share a border with South China Sea?
1. Brunei Darussalam
2. Malaysia
3. Indonesia
4. Philippines
5. Vietnam
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 Only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only
3. 1, 4 and 5 Only
4. All the above

Que. 110 Group of people formed through web based interaction

1. Mediated Community
2. Virtual Community
3. International Community
4. Internet Community

Que. 111 During whose government the look East policy was adopted?

1. Atal Bihari Bajpai

2. Narendera Modi
3. Manmohan Singh
4. Narasimha Rao

Que. 112 Which of the following tribes is from Bangladesh?

1. Lhotshampa
2. Dhanka
3. Brokpa
4. Chakma

Que. 113 The nature of the subject called social studies is explained by which of the following ideas?

1. Study of socio-cultural environment

2. Relationship between past, present and future
3. Practical study of family, social and national relations
4. All of the above

Que. 114 “The dominant idea of all geographical progress is that of terrestrial unity”. This statement is
attributed to :

1. Friedrich Ratzel
2. Vidal-de-la-Blache
3. Richard Hartshorne
4. Jean Brunhes
Que. 115 Lebensraum was coined by:

1. Mackinder
2. Peter Taylor
3. David Harvey
4. Ratzel

Que. 116 Who is the father of Human Geography?

1. Friedrich Ratzel
2. Karl Souwer
3. Vidal de la Blache
4. Jean Brunhes

Que. 117 Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding the development of Geography?

1. Greeks-Romans-Arabs-Dark Age
2. Romans-Arabs-Greeks-Dark Age
3. Dark Age-Greeks-Romans-Arabs
4. Greeks-Romans-Dark Age-Arabs

Que. 118 "A scientific theory of culture" is the work of

1. Frazer
2. Raadcliff Brown
3. Malinowski
4. Redfield

Que. 119 Match List 1 with List 2 and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List 1 List 2
(Book) (Author)
(a) Makers of Modern
1. Ratzel, F.
Geography
(b) All Possible Worlds 2. Hartshorne
3. Dickinson, R.
(c) Anthropogeographie
E.
(d) Nature of Geography 4. James, P. E.

1. (a) - 2, (b) - 3, (c) - 4, (d) - 1

2. (a) - 1, (b) - 4, (c) - 3, (d) - 2
3. (a) - 3, (b) - 4, (c) - 1, (d) - 2
4. (a) - 4, (b) - 2, (c) - 3, (d) - 1

Que. 120 Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm?

1. Peter Haggett
 2. Von Thunen
3. Thomas Kuhn
4. John K. Wright

Que. 121 Who introduced the word "geography"?

1. Carl Ritter
2. Richard Hartshorne
3. Galileo
4. Erathosthenese

Que. 122 Assertion (A): The nature offers numerous possibilities for human being within the set limits.
Reason (R): Human beings are free in taking all decisions but enjoy to make decisions on various
possibilities in nature.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Que. 123 The term used "to collect the information about an object and a place without physical contact" is
called :

1. Modulation
2. Communication
3. Amplification
4. remote sensing

Que. 124 Geostationary satellites have,

1. same distance from earth's centre

2. same angle with geodetic stations
3. same mass as global weight
4. same speed as earth's rotation

Que. 125 What can GIS NOT be used to visualize?

1. Patterns
2. Tables
3. Trends
4. Relationships

Que. 126 Which of the following might be considered as the fourth dimension in GIS?

1. Time
 2. Location
3. Scale
4. Space

Que. 127 By which of the following is the 'Boundary model' sometimes referred?

1. Topological data model

2. Temporal data model
3. Topological discrete model
4. Temporal discrete model

Que. 128 Which of the following statements are true?

A. Natural phenomena are usually fields.
B. Man-made phenomena are usually objects

1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A and nor B

Que. 129 A positive correlation is present when _______

1. Two variables move in opposite directions

2. Two variables move in the same direction.
3. One variable goes up and one goes down
4. Several variables never change.

Que. 130 If mean, median, mode and standard deviation are known for a given data set, the Pearson's first
skewness coefficient is equal to

1. 3(Mean−Median)
σ
2. 3(Mean−Mode)
σ
3. 3(Mean+Medium)
σ
4. 3(Mean+S tan darddeviation)
Mean

Que. 131 Which of the following is measured by the Lorenz curve?

1. Illiteracy
2. Unemployment
3. Population growth rate
4. Inequality of Income

Que. 132 Which of the following facts are true about the Aravalli Mountain range?
(i) It was formed in Cambrian age.
(ii) It is considered residual mountain at present.
(iii) It is mainly made of Igneous rocks.
(iv) It extends from south-west to north-east direction.

1. ii and iv
2. i, ii, iii and iv
3. iii and iv
4. i and ii

Que. 133 Which of the following is/are tributary/ tributaries of Mahanadi?

1. Seonath
2. Hasdeo
3. Indravati
4. Subranarekha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 4

Que. 134 Which of the following river has its origin in the Satopanth Glacier above Badrinath?

1. Alaknanda
2. Bhagirathi
3. Penganga
4. Wainganga

Que. 135 Streams found in the Vindhya mountain range follow which type of drainage pattern?

1. Dendritic Drainage Pattern

2. Parallel drainage pattern
3. Trellis Drainage Pattern
4. Rectangular Drainage Pattern

Que. 136 Which of the following states is the largest producer of lignite coal in India?

1. Gujarat
2. Jharkhand
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Uttar Pradesh

Que. 137 It is meant to create a safe and efficient freight transportation system in railways in the country.
Which is being discussed here?

1. North – South corridor

 2. Golden Quadrilateral
3. Eastern peripheral
4. Dedicated freight corridor (DFC)

Que. 138 Which among the following has the highest density of population as per 2011 census?

1. Lakshadweep
2. Pondicherry
3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
4. Daman and Diu

Que. 139 Consider the following statements:

1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Que. 140 Konyak tribe, is an ethnic group mainly residing in which of the following state?

1. Nagaland
2. Meghalaya
3. Manipur
4. Kerala

Que. 141 In the world of business, choosing the optimal location for an industry is a crucial decision. This is
where Alfred Weber's industrial location theory comes into play. Developed by a German
economist in the early 20th century, it aimed to identify the most cost-effective location for a manufacturing
plant by considering key factors that influence production costs. Weber's theory rested on several assumptions
to simplify the real-world complexities. He envisioned a homogenous landscape with uniform transportation
costs and a single product supplied to a single market. Raw materials were assumed to be located at specific
points, and labor was evenly distributed with wages varying across locations. With these assumptions in
mind, Weber identified three main factors influencing industrial location: Transportation Costs: As per Weber,
minimizing transportation costs held the key to optimal location. He differentiated between weight-losing and
weight-gaining materials during production. Industries using weight-losing materials, like steel or sugar, were
best located near the raw material source to minimize transportation costs of the heavier input. Conversely,
industries dealing with weight-gaining materials, like furniture, should ideally locate between the raw
material source and the market to balance transportation costs for both inputs and finished goods. Labor
Costs: Weber acknowledged that labor costs varied across locations, and industries could benefit from
locating in areas with lower wages. However, this benefit had to be weighed against the increasing
transportation costs associated with moving further from markets or raw materials. Agglomeration
Economies: Weber recognized the potential benefits of clustering with other industries. These "agglomeration
economies" offered advantages like access to a larger pool of skilled labor, specialized services, and shared
infrastructure, leading to cost savings and efficiency gains. To visualize the interplay of these factors, Weber
utilized the isodapane concept. An isodapane is a line connecting points with equal total transportation costs
from a specific location, considering both the raw materials and the market. By analyzing the intersection of
isodapenes for different factors, the theory aimed to identify the location with the minimum total cost. It's
important to acknowledge the limitations of Weber's theory. His assumptions don't necessarily reflect the
complexities of the real world, where factors like government policies, environmental regulations, and
technological advancements also significantly impact location decisions. Additionally, the theory focuses
primarily on cost minimization, neglecting other aspects like product quality, market accessibility, and brand
image. Despite these limitations, Weber's theory serves as a valuable foundation for understanding the key
factors influencing industrial location decisions. It highlights the importance of considering transportation
costs, labor costs, and agglomeration economies when making such strategic choices. By adapting and
building upon his ideas, businesses can continue to refine their location strategies and navigate the dynamic
landscape of the industrial world.

Which of the following is a limitation of Weber's industrial location theory?

1. It focuses solely on transportation costs.

2. It doesn't consider the impact of government policies.
3. It assumes all industries use weight-losing materials.
4. It prioritizes labor costs above all other factors.

Que. 142 An isodapane in Weber's theory represents:

1. A line connecting points of equal transportation costs.

2. A line demonstrating varying labor costs.
3. A region with abundant natural resources.
4. A graph showing market demand for a product.

Que. 143 What is the term for the benefits gained by industries when they locate near each other?

1. Market diversification.
2. Agglomeration economies.
3. Isodapane effects.
4. Weight-gaining advantages.

Que. 144 Which of the following is a key assumption of Weber's industrial location theory?

1. Transportation costs vary depending on the distance traveled.

2. Industries can locate anywhere without impacting costs.
3. Labor costs are the same across all regions.
4. Raw materials are found in unlimited quantities across the landscape.

Que. 145 According to Weber, an industry that uses weight-losing materials would ideally locate.

1. Close to the source of the raw materials.

2. Close to the market for the finished product.
3. In an area with the highest labor costs.
4. At a point halfway between the raw materials and the market.
Que. 146 The Earth's atmosphere isn't a static blanket of air; it's constantly in motion, influenced by a
delicate balance between stability and instability. Understanding this balance is crucial for
predicting weather patterns, and it all boils down to how air parcels rise and fall. In a stable atmosphere, air
resists vertical movement. Imagine a warm pancake held flat by a lid. This stability often occurs when the
temperature decreases with height slower than a specific rate called the adiabatic lapse rate. Under these
conditions, rising air cools faster than its surroundings, becoming denser and sinking back down. Stable air is
associated with calm, clear skies and minimal cloud formation. Pollutants and haze can linger near the ground
due to the lack of vertical mixing. Instability arises when the opposite happens. Imagine poking a hole in the
pancake lid, allowing the warm air to rise rapidly. In an unstable atmosphere, the temperature decrease with
height is greater than the adiabatic lapse rate. This means rising air remains warmer than its surroundings,
leading to further ascent, expansion, and cooling. This upward motion, known as convection, fuels cloud
formation and can lead to precipitation and even severe weather like thunderstorms. Several factors influence
atmospheric stability. Temperature plays a key role, with warm air generally being less dense and more prone
to rising. Moisture also plays a part. In a dry atmosphere, a larger temperature decrease is needed for
instability compared to a moist one. This is because condensation releases heat, allowing rising moist air to
remain warmer for longer. The presence of high and low-pressure systems further influences stability. High-
pressure systems generally correspond to stable conditions, while low-pressure systems are associated with
instability and the potential for weather development. Understanding atmospheric stability and instability is
crucial not only for weather forecasting but also for various other fields. For instance, pilots need to be aware
of stable and unstable air masses to navigate safely, and understanding the role of moisture in instability is
vital for fire weather prediction. By recognizing the delicate balance at play, we gain a deeper appreciation for
the dynamic nature of our atmosphere and its influence on our world.

How does a high-pressure system generally influence atmospheric conditions?

1. It promotes instability and potential for storms.

2. It suppresses vertical air movement, leading to stable conditions.
3. It increases temperature significantly, leading to instability.
4. It has no predictable effect on stability.

Que. 147 What role does condensation play in atmospheric instability?

1. It releases heat, making rising air warmer and more buoyant.

2. It pulls rising air downwards, promoting stability.
3. It increases the density of air parcels, making them less likely to rise.
4. It has no significant effect on atmospheric stability.

Que. 148 Which type of weather is often associated with an unstable atmosphere?

1. Clear, calm days.

2. Foggy mornings.
3. Thunderstorms.
4. Persistent haze.

Que. 149 In a stable atmosphere, rising air parcels tend to:

1. Become warmer than their surroundings and continue rising

2. Become cooler than their surroundings and sink back down.
3. Expand, cool, and form clouds.
4. Remain at the same temperature as their surroundings.
Que. 150 Which of these situations promotes atmospheric stability?

1. Air temperature decreasing quickly with height.

2. Warm air rising into colder surroundings.
3. Air temperature decreasing slowly with height.
4. Moist air rising and rapidly cooling
 COURSE ID STUDENT MOBILE NO.

NAME: 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

DATE: 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

SIGNATURE: 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

TEST FORM CODE 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8

A B C D E F 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

FILL CIRCLES COMPLETELY (CORRECT MARK: A , INCORRECT: A A A ). ERASE COMPLETELY TO CORRECT.

1. A B C D E 31. A B C D E 61. A B C D E 91. A B C D E 121. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 32. A B C D E 62. A B C D E 92. A B C D E 122. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 33. A B C D E 63. A B C D E 93. A B C D E 123. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 34. A B C D E 64. A B C D E 94. A B C D E 124. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 35. A B C D E 65. A B C D E 95. A B C D E 125. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 36. A B C D E 66. A B C D E 96. A B C D E 126. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 37. A B C D E 67. A B C D E 97. A B C D E 127. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 38. A B C D E 68. A B C D E 98. A B C D E 128. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 39. A B C D E 69. A B C D E 99. A B C D E 129. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 40. A B C D E 70. A B C D E 100. A B C D E 130. A B C D E

11. A B C D E 41. A B C D E 71. A B C D E 101. A B C D E 131. A B C D E

12. A B C D E 42. A B C D E 72. A B C D E 102. A B C D E 132. A B C D E

13. A B C D E 43. A B C D E 73. A B C D E 103. A B C D E 133. A B C D E

14. A B C D E 44. A B C D E 74. A B C D E 104. A B C D E 134. A B C D E

15. A B C D E 45. A B C D E 75. A B C D E 105. A B C D E 135. A B C D E

16. A B C D E 46. A B C D E 76. A B C D E 106. A B C D E 136. A B C D E

17. A B C D E 47. A B C D E 77. A B C D E 107. A B C D E 137. A B C D E

18. A B C D E 48. A B C D E 78. A B C D E 108. A B C D E 138. A B C D E

19. A B C D E 49. A B C D E 79. A B C D E 109. A B C D E 139. A B C D E

20. A B C D E 50. A B C D E 80. A B C D E 110. A B C D E 140. A B C D E

21. A B C D E 51. A B C D E 81. A B C D E 111. A B C D E 141. A B C D E

22. A B C D E 52. A B C D E 82. A B C D E 112. A B C D E 142. A B C D E

23. A B C D E 53. A B C D E 83. A B C D E 113. A B C D E 143. A B C D E

24. A B C D E 54. A B C D E 84. A B C D E 114. A B C D E 144. A B C D E

25. A B C D E 55. A B C D E 85. A B C D E 115. A B C D E 145. A B C D E

26. A B C D E 56. A B C D E 86. A B C D E 116. A B C D E 146. A B C D E

27. A B C D E 57. A B C D E 87. A B C D E 117. A B C D E 147. A B C D E

28. A B C D E 58. A B C D E 88. A B C D E 118. A B C D E 148. A B C D E

29. A B C D E 59. A B C D E 89. A B C D E 119. A B C D E 149. A B C D E

30. A B C D E 60. A B C D E 90. A B C D E 120. A B C D E 150. A B C D E