Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

SB I CLERK PRELI M S M ODEL TEST- 3

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-5): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by

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(1), (2), (3) and (4) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there is
any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
(1) Children whose movements / (2)have been severe restricted are at a higher
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risk / (3) of experiencing feelings of loneliness, / (4) depression and anxiety
during the pandemic. / (5) NO ERROR.
1) have been severe restricted are at a higher risk 2) NO ERROR

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3) Children whose movements
d
4) depression and anxiety during the pandemic
5) of experiencing feelings of loneliness,
2. (1) It was discussed by the Defence Ministers that it / (2)has to be an overall
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solution to the entire issue / (3) which bring this situation to the fore. Within
those guidelines / (4), we are discussing how to actually achieve it on the ground.
/ (5) NO ERROR.
C
1) has to be an overall solution to the entire issue 2) NO ERROR
3) we are discussing how to actually achieve it on the ground
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4) which bring this situation to the fore. Within those guidelines

5) It was discussed by the Defence Ministers that it
3. Federation of Indian Export Organizations (1) / President said the trend (2) /
reflected the rising (3) / competitive of domestic exporters. (4) / NO ERROR (5)
1) NO ERROR 2) competitive of domestic exporters 3) reflected the rising
4) Federation of Indian Export Organizations 5) President said the trend
C
4. The States have been asked to (1) / follow a staggered approach to avoid crowding
(2) / at the session sites and even plan break-up sessions (3) / if a staggered
approach is not effective. (4) / NO ERROR (5)
1) The States have been asked to
2) follow a staggered approach to avoid crowding
3) at the session sites and even plan break-up sessions
4) if a staggered approach is not effective 5) NO ERROR
5. The pathogens are commonly (1) / implicate as causative agents (2) / of healthcare
associated infections because of (3) / their ability to develop resistance to
antibiotics. (4) / NO ERROR (5).
1) their ability to develop resistance to antibiotics
2) implicate as causative agents 3) NO ERROR
4) of healthcare associated infections because of
5) The pathogens are commonly
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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

Directions (6-10): In the given question, a statement with a blank has been
given, followed by three words out of which one or more than one can complete
the sentence grammatically and contextually. Find the word (s) which can fill the
blank and choose the option accordingly.
6. Demonstrate your __________ and understanding of your children’s problems.
i. apathy ii. empathy iii. concern
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) II and III 4) I and II 5) I and III
7. Economists have proved notoriously ________ at predicting the upturns and
downturns within the country.

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i. triumphant ii. competent iii. inept
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I and II 5) I and III
8. According to Aristotle, poetry ________ who may be either better or worse or the
same as they are in actual life.
i. imitates ii. vibrates
ha iii. elevates
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I and II 5) I and III
9. The act is natural and ________ the attention of the audience through surprise.
i. deviates ii. attracts iii. deliberates

10.
1) Only I

E
2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I and II 5) I and III
Interpretation and judgement have often been placed in __________ as the two
d
ends or functions of criticism.
i. isolation ii. felicitation iii. opposition
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I and II 5) I and III
ee

Directions (11-16): Given sentences are not in their exact position. Rearrange
them to make a coherent paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. Second, the age of entry and the attempts allowed to appear for the preferred
C
service should be substantially reduced; third, the examination process should
be compressed.
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B. The IAS and other services should start attracting at a much younger age
some of the best products of our finest educational institutions.
C. In order to achieve this, first, a national campaign should be mounted to
motivate the brightest to take the plunge;
D. The recruits should spend their most productive years serving the nation, not
in the arduous examination process
E. But none of these can be achieved without a decisive political push from the
C
highest level.
F. Besides, merit should be valued as much as diligence.
11. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
1) F 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
12. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) B 4) F 5) D
13. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
1) D 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) D
14. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) D 3) C 4) E 5) F
15. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) F 4) D 5) C
16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) F 3) C 4) D 5) B

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

Directions (17-19) : In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/Phrases. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C
and in the second column the sentence/phrase are D, E and F. A sentence/
phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another with another
sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the
sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically
and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given format a correct
sentence after combination, mark (5), i.e. “None of these” as your answer.

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17. COLUMN I
A. He prided himself as a born-again Muslim who would free
B. The proportion of the outgo used for food, other things being equal,
C. India is trying to make a transition to renewable energy to provide for 40% of
total consumption,
COLUMN II
ha
D. while Pakistan is still struggling to reduce power shortage negatively impacting
its economy.
E. is the best measure of the material standard of living of a population.

E
F. a relief not just for France’s political centrists but also for its allies in Europe
and America.
d
1) A-F and C-D 2) B-D and C-E 3) A-D and B-E
4) A-E and C-F 5) None of the above.
18. COLUMN I
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A. Across the country, even if mainly in the north and now in Karnataka too,
there are gangs of volunteers
B. Central banks raise interest rates to ‘anchor’ high inflationary expectations
C
when temporary price shocks,
C. The largely contact-intensive segment of trade, hospitality, transport,
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communication
COLUMN II
D. ‘experience effect’ of male-dominated financial sector employees.
E. to whom the work of harassment, intimidation and local killing has been
“outsourced”.
F. on account of drought or disruption in global supply chains, entail the risk of
getting transmitted into actual inflation.
C
1) A-F and C-D 2) B-D and C-E 3) A-E and B-F
4) A-F and C-F 5) None of the above
19. COLUMN I
A. The French political landscape, historically dominated by the centre-right
B. The “demolition of law”, which is the best way to describe this bulldozer violence,
C. Economic theories explain this divergence by stating that women are ‘more
pessimistic’ than men,
COLUMN II
D. comes with a fig leaf of legitimacy, of the clearing of illegally-occupied land.
E. attributing the pessimism to the difference in their innate characteristics and
lack of education.
F. conservatives and centre-left socialists, has undergone a major transformation.
1) A-F and C-D 2) B-D and C-E 3) A-D and B-E
4) A-E and C-F 5) None of the above.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

Directions (20-22): In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in

bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the emboldened part are given as (1),
(2), (3) and (4), which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative out of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct,
your answer will be option (5), i.e., “No correction required”. 
20. The university research department stumbles up something new and made a big
discovery because of it.
1) stumbles something up new 2) stumbled new something upon
3) stumbling upon some news
4) stumbled upon something new 5) No correction required

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21. The villagers complained about the noise from the daily bells rings practices
from the church and asked if it could somehow be muffled.
1) bell rings practice from 2) bell ringing practice since
3) bell ringing practice from
4) bells ringing practice by 5) No correction required
22. The flash on your camera may not be able to light the entire subject at distances
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of less than 40 centimetres.
1) may not be abled to light 2) cannot able to be light 3) not be able to
4) may not be light 5) No correction required
Directions (23-30) : Read the following passage and answer the following questions

E
based on the given passage. Some of the words are highlighted which would help
you to answer some of the questions given.
d
Forests around the world face increased pressures from timber companies,
agricultural businesses, and local populations that use forest resources. Some
environmentalists, from rich nations especially, also raise concerns about
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increasing populations placing excessive burdens on the world’s resources as the

current major source of environmental problems. This makes for a worrying
situation for third world development and poverty alleviation. However, an
C
environment-only approach risks blaming the victims. While humans are largely
responsible for many problems of the planet today, not all humans have the same
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impact on the environment. It is important to consider, for example, that the

consumption of just the world’s wealthiest fifth of humanity is so much more
than the rest of the world, as highlighted at the beginning.
Thus, putting emphasis on population growth in this way is perhaps over-
simplistic. However, this does not mean we can be complacent about future
population burdens. Sustainability is critical for the world’s majority to develop
without following the environmentally damaging processes of the world’s currently
industrialized nations. Also adding to the ____________is that resource usage is
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not necessarily fixed. That is, while there may be a finite amount of say oil in the
ground, we may have not discovered it all, and further, overtime the use of those
resources may increase in efficiency (or inefficiency). This means a planet could
sustain a high population (probably within some limits) but it is a combination of
things like how we use resources, for what purpose, how many, how the use of
those resources change over time, etc, that defines whether they are used
inefficiently or not and whether we will run out of them or not.
The above just scratches the surface, but highlights the interconnectedness
of humanity, the environment and all other forms of life. We cannot take the
environment for granted. Humanity has a responsibility not only to each other,
but to the environment as well, as the environment has long sustained us and
can only continue to do so if we do not destroy it. Technological solutions, such as
more environmentally friendly technologies, while extremely important, do not
address underlying political, social and economic causes. Just as doctors highlight
the need to prevent illnesses in the first place, and resort to cures when needed,
so too do we need to understand these deeper issues in a more holistic manner.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

The interconnectedness needs more recognition if environmental degradation,

poverty and other global problems can begin to be addressed. Concentrating on
one dimension without others is like those blind men looking at just a part of the
elephant. A form of environmentalism that ignores humanity as an integral part
of the solution, of economic dogma that forgets about our basic needs, and of
forms of development that ignore environmental concerns all add up to numerous
problems for the world’s people and fragile ecosystems. Some of these problems
are so big we do not even see them even when we think our eyes are open.
23. What is the major concern of the passage?
1) The major concern is about the increase in population.
2) Excessive burden on the natural resources.

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3) Sustainable development is required in developing countries.
4) Increased pressures from timber companies.
5) All the above options are correct.
24. What do you think will happen to the environment if we continue our actions?
1) The environment will eventually rebuild itself.
ha
2) We will exhaust the natural resources without any alternatives.
3) Sustainable development will take place in the future.
4) More political and diplomatic solutions arise
5) The environment has long sustained us and can only continue to do so if we do

25.
not destroy it.

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What are the “deeper issues” that we need to understand as mentioned in the
d
passage?
1) We need to understand that doctors resort to cures only when needed.
2) Concentrate on blind people who look at some part of elephant.
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3) Everyone in the world need to understand environment degradation and poverty.

4) Socio economic problems created by political causes.
5) None of the above
26. According to the passage , pick out the correct reason that a planet can sustain?
C
1) The planet can provide resources for all the years to come.
2) That all resources could end to a particular level of population, for a time that
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is finite.
3) A planet can sustain all the activities of humans.
4) All the options are correct.
5) Climate change is the single most serious threat facing our planet today.
27. Not every human being has a similar impact on environment, what might be the
reason for it?
1) Because there are humans who are contributing towards sustainable
development.
C
2) As it is unethical to call a human being responsible for the damage of
environment
3) Human beings also have more other impacts than on nature.
4) Because the wealthy developed nations complain about the environmental
pollution is due to the third world countries.
5) None of the above
28. What is the main idea of the passage?
1) The passage urges the humanity to look over environment and poverty.
2) The importance of sustainable development
3) Conservation of natural resources and look for alternative technological
solutions.
4) All the above 5) Both 2 & 3
29. Pick out the synonym of the word “fragile” from the given passage.
1) Durable 2) Delicate 3) Able 4) Firm 5) tough
30. Fill the blank that is most appropriate to the given passage
1) uniformity 2) Complexity 3) Credibility 4) Need 5) simplicity

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
The following table shows the percentage distribution of total students
participated in different sports (Cricket, Volley ball and Tennis) from
different colleges in the year 2021.
Colleges Students Cricket Volleyball Tennis

A 2500 32% 38% 30%

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B 2000 30% 45% 25%

C 1500 42% 38% 20%

D 1600 40% 25% 35%

31.
ha
What is the total number of students participating in all the colleges together?
1)7600 2)7500 3)7400 4)6800 5)6500
32. What is the respective ratio between the total number of students participating in

2)18:19

E
the college A Volleyball to that of tennis same college?
1)15:13 3)19:15 4)13:17 5)11:9
d
33. What is the difference between the total number of students who play volleyball
from college B and cricket from college C?
ee

1)270 2)250 3)240 4)280 5)230

34. What is the total number of students who play tennis from all the colleges together?
1)2170 2)2150 3)2140 4)2180 5)2110
C
35. The total number of students who play tennis from all the colleges together is
approximately what percent of the total number of students both college C and D
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together?
1)57 2)60 3)64 4)68 5)61
Direction (36-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
There are 500 Persons in a party and all of them like different Types of
Biryanis. There are 3 types of Biryanis i.e Wings Biryani, Dum Biryani , and
C
Joint Biryani.70 people like Wings Biryani only, 65 people like all three types of
Biryani only, There are 265 persons like Wings Biryani and 260 persons like Dum
Biryani. 50 persons like Wings and Dum only, 85 persons like both Dum and Joint
Biryani only.
36. What is the ratio between the number of persons who like Wings and Dum only to
that of Dum and Joint Biryani only?
1)14:13 2)18:19 3)19:15 4)10:17 5)11:13
37. What is the total number of persons who like Joint Biryani?
1)320 2)360 3)325 4)260 5)340
38. What is the number of the person who likes only one type of Biryani?
1)210 2)220 3)230 4)260 5)240
39. The persons who like Dum Biryani is what percent more or less than the total
number of persons who attend the party?
1)42 2)46 3)45 4)40 5)48

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

Direction (40-49): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the
following questions.
1 7 55 45
40. of of of of 576 =?
11 18 21 10
1)270 2)220 3)280 4)260 5)240
41. 36 × 45 ÷9 + 800 – 575 + 5625 =?
1)480 2)420 3)380 4)460 5)440
42. 85 × 6 – 425 = ? ×13 +20

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1)2 2) 6 3)5 4)4 5)8
43. (493 ÷ 17) + (464 ÷16) – ( 450 ÷ 15)= ?
1)32 2) 36 3)25 4)34 5)28
44. 38 + 27 × 19 - 3 6859 = ?

45.
1)532 2) 536
350 ÷ 7 × 9 – 295 = 31×?
ha 3)525 4)534 5)528

1)2 2) 6 3)5 4)4 5)8

46. 192 +
9

E
× 240 - 129 = ? +176
d
16
1)191 2) 196 3)195 4)194 5)198
ee

?
47. (45% of 1600 - 18 ) ÷ 36 ×2 =
5
1)193 2) 199 3)195 4)197 5)198
C
48. 36% of 250 + 44 % of 350 = ?
1)244 2) 249 3)245 4)247 5)248
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49. 55 % of 200 + 189 -22 % of 350 =?

1)224 2)226 3)225 4)222 5)228
Direction (50-54): In the given question two equations numbered I and II are
given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
50. I. x2-10x +21=0
II. y2 -16y+63 = 0
C
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
2
51. I. x -26x +153 = 0
II. y2 + 17y + 72 =0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
2
52. I. x + 26x +169 = 0
II. y2 -22y+121=0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
2
53. I. x +28x+171 =0
II. y2+25y +156=0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation
2
54. I. x +27x+176 =0
II. y2 +33y+272 =0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

55. Trinadh invested Rs.40000 in scheme A offering 30% P.a. Compound interest for
2years compounded .annually. He also invested Rs. 30000 in scheme B offering
20% p.a. compounded interest for 2years compounded annually respectively. What
is the difference between the interests he earned from the both schemes?
1)14400 2)14500 3)14700 4)14800 5)14600
56. A vessel contains alchol and water in the ratio 5:1 respectively. If the 18 liters
mixture is taken out and replaced with 54 liters of alchol and then the resultant
mixture becomes twice of the initial mixture, then find the inital quantity of
mixture?
1)33 2)35 3)34 4)38 5)36
57. The Length and Speed of Train M are X meters and 108kmph.It crosses a Platform

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that is 60% less than the Length of the train M in 28 sec. If the train N crosses
the same platform in 24 sec running at the speed of 90kmph, then find the time
taken by train M to cross-train N running in the same direction? (in sec)
1)191 2) 196 3)192 4)194 5)198
58. In a class number of girls are 25% less than the number of boys. If the number of
ha
girls and number of boys is increased by 20 % and 10% respectively, then the
total number of students in the class increased by 80, then find the total number
of students in the class?
1)560 2) 566 3)565 4)504 5)528
59.

E
60 Men can do a piece of work in 5 days and 50 women can do the same in 9days.
In how many days 24 men and 34 women will complete the whole work together?
d
2 3 2 2 2
1)2 2) 6 3)5 4)4 5)8
7 7 7 7 7
60. A boat covers 117km downstream and back in 16hours.The ratio of the speed of
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the boat in still water and the speed of the current is 8:5respectively, then find
the time taken by the boat to cover 270 km upstream?
1)30 2)33 3)34 4)38 5)36
C
61. The average of 50 students in a school is 32 years. If the age of 3 teachers whose
age is m years, (m+7) years, and (m+3) years is included, then the average is
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increased by 2 years, then find the age of the older teacher?

1)64 2)67 3)71 4)74 5)68
62. A and B started a business with total investment of Rs.10000 each. After 9months,
A added 60% more while B withdrew 20% of her initial investment. At the end of
the year, the profit share of B out of the total profit of Rs.4815 is 1710, then find
the initial investment made by A?
1)4000 2)5000 3)7000 4)8000 5)6000
C
63. A shopkeeper marked up his article 80% above the cost price and sold it after two
2
successive discounts of 25% and 22 %.If he would have given a discount of only
9
4
44 %, then he would have gained Rs.495 less, then find the cost price of the
9
article?
1)9400 2)5000 3)9900 4)8000 5)9800
64. Nandu spends 20% of his income on education,24% of the remaining on sports.He
spend Rs.3090 on spending on food after spending amount on sports and 60% of
the remaining amount on entertainment. If he left with Rs1500 after spending on
entertainmen, then find his monthly salary?
1)11400 2)11250 3)11900 4)11800 5)11700
65. The respective ratio among the present ages of A ,B and C is 4:5:7,If the sum of
their present age is112 years, then what would be the sum of the ages of B and C
together after 5years?
1)94 2)97 3)99 4)80 5)983
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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

REASONING
Direction (66-69): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows with equal distance between
them and facing each other row-1 A, B, C, D and E are facing the North direction
and row-2 P, Q, R, S and T are facing the South direction but not necessarily in
the same order.
B sits third to the right of E. The one who is facing B sits second to the left of
R. Two persons are sitting between P and S, who is not facing B. The one who sits
second to the right of Q is facing the immediate neighbor of C. T doesn’t sit at any

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end. A is facing either P or Q and sits left side of D.
66. How many persons sit between S and one who faces E?
1) Two 2) None 3) One 4) Three 5) More than three
67. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) R 2) B 3) P 4) Q 5) A
68.

69.
ha
Which of the following pair sits at an extreme ends?
1) B-R 2) Q-D 3) P-B 4) P-E
Which of the following person sits second to the left of S?
5) T-C

1) R 2) P 3) S 4) T 5) No one

E
Direction (70-72): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
d
E, F, G, H, K, L, M, N and O are belong to one family, M is sister-in-law of H,
who is son of F. O is grandmother of K. E is nephew of H. F has two children’s. L
and H are married couple. N is mother-in-law of L. K is daughter of H. N is parent
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of G.
70. How is H related to O?
1) Brother 2) Son-in-law 3) Daughter 4) Daughter-in-law 5) Son
71. How is F related to E?
C
1) Father 2) Mother 3) Grandfather4) Grandmother
5) Father-in-law
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72. If R is the son of L then how is E related to R?

1) Brother 2) Sister 3) Uncle 4) Father 5) Cousin
73. If 2 is added to each odd digit of a number and ‘1’ is added to each even digit of a
number ‘72548365’ and arrange in ascending order within the number, then
which of the following will be the sum of the second digit from the left end and
third digit from right end of the new number thus formed?
1) 10 2) 12 3) 11 4) 13 5) 16
Direction (74-77): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
C
questions.
Eight persons namely M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are born same year in four
different months those are January, April, July and September on two different
dates those are 6th and 15th of each month and only one person born in each
date but not necessarily in the same order.
M is born in the month which has an even number of days but not an even
numbered date. Two persons are born between M and O, who is born before M.
Number of persons born between O and S is same as between S and N. Q is born
in January month. Two persons are born between R and P. More than two persons
are born between S and R. Q and T are born on same date. N does not born on
April month.
74. How many persons are born between Q and T?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) None 5) More than three
75. Which of the following person is born in July month?
1) T 2) R 3) O 4) Both 1 and 2 5) Both 1 and 3

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

76. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) M 2) S 3) P 4) T 5) Q
77. Which of the following pair is born in the same month?
1) P-T 2) O-M 3) S-N 4) R-M 5) Q-T
78. How many pairs of letters are there in the word “TESTMONIALS” which has as
many letters between them as we have in the English alphabetical series from
both forward and backward direction?
1) Five 2) Three 3) Two 4) Four 5) More than five
Direction: (79-82) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.

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Eight boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are arranged in a stack one above
another each box contains different number of five rupee coins those are 8, 12,
15, 17, 20, 21, 23, and 25 but not necessarily in the same order.
Three boxes are there between R and the box having 20 coins. Two boxes are
there between Q and U and their total sum of rupees is 175. Two boxes are there
ha
between P and the box contains 15 coins. Box V contains the prime number of
coins. Box S contains 12 coins which is immediately above to box that contains
even number of coins and above to box that contains 15 coins. Three boxes are
there between box S and box V, which is below to S. Box W is immediately below U

E
and contains either 21 or 17 coins. Box V is immediate to box T,which is
immediately below to Q. Difference between coins of box P and box T is 2 and box
d
T has more coins than P.
79. Which of the following box has 8 Coins?
1) U 2) Q 3) P 4) R 5) W
ee

80. How many boxes are there between box S and box Q?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three 4) Five 5) One
81. How many rupees those box V and box R contains?
1) 110 rupees 2) 135 rupees 3) 175 rupees 4) 125 rupees 5) 100 rupees
C
82. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
Sr

1) S-25 2) V-8 3) Q-20 4) T-12 5) W-21

Direction: (83-85) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Point A is 3m South of Point B, which is 7m East of Point C. Point E is 3m
East of Point D, which is 6m South of Point C. Point G is 7m East of Point F. Point
F is 9m North of Point E.
83. If Point M is middle of Point C and Point D, then what is the total distance
between Point M and Point B?
C
1) 9m 2) 10m 3) 11m 4) 12m 5) 13m
84. What is the direction of Point E with respect of Point C?
1) South 2) North-East 3) South-East 4) North-West 5) South-West
85. What is the shortest distance between Point A and Point G?
1) 42 m 2) 43 m 3) 44 m 4) 45 m 5) 46 m
Direction: (86-89) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Nine persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a linear row some of
them are facing the north direction while some of them are facing the south
direction with equal distance between them, not more than two persons facing
same direction sit together but not necessarily in the same order.
M sits fourth to the left of Q. Three persons are sitting between R and Q. P
sits immediately right of N. Persons who sit at extreme ends facing the same
direction as Q. O and P are facing the opposite directions. P sits fourth to the left
of L but both are not immediate to either M or R. L is facing the north direction. N
sits left of K. S sits second to the left of O, who is immediate to both Q and L. K

10
Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

sits right side of S. O is facing opposite direction of L. Immediate neighbors of P

are facing the same direction but opposite to P.
86. How many persons are sitting between S and one who sits second to the left of K?
1) Two 2) None 3) One 4) Three 5) More than three
87. Which of the following person sits third to the left of O?
1) P 2) R 3) M 4) L 5) S
88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) M-L 2) Q-R 3) O-R 4) R-P 5) L-P
89. Which of the following pair is sitting an extreme ends?
1) K-S 2) R-K 3) S-M 4) R-M 5) P-S

r’s
Directions: (90-92) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
90. Five friends viz. A, B, C, D and E who are seated around a circular and facing the
centre which one sits second to the left of D?
Statement I: A sits third to the left of B. D and E are immediate neighbors of
each other. C sits second to right of E.
ha
Statement II: B sits second to right of C. Both E and A are immediate neighbors
of C.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

E
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
d
3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
ee

the question.
5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
91. In a college six different subjects, viz. Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology, English
C
and Mathematics are taught on six different days of the same week, starting from
Monday ends Saturday. Which day Botany was taught?
Sr

Statement I: Two subjects are taught between Chemistry and Mathematics.

Mathematics is taught before Zoology. Chemistry is taught on after when Physics
is taught. Chemistry is not taught on Saturday.
Statement II: Two subjects are scheduled between the subjects of Botany and
Zoology. Mathematics is taught immediately after Physics.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
C
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
92. Six Bags A, B, C, D, E and F each bag having different weights, then which is the
second heaviest?
Statement I: Bag B is heavier than C and D. The weight of Bag C is 28kg. Bag E is
heavier only than bag A.
Statement II: Only three Bags are lighter than C. The weight of Bag B is 32kg
which is 2 kg less than Bag F.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
11
Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 3

3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to

answer the question.
4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
93. Which word can be formed with the second, fourth, seventh and ninth letters of
the word “EXPERIENCED” using each letter only once. If only one word is formed
then what is the third letter of the word. If no word is formed ‘Y’ is answer and
more than one word is formed ‘Z’ is the answer?
1) E 2) X 3) C 4) Y 5) Z

r’s
Direction: (94-96) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
E@RT6YA#SD2G£91K3JN%8BD$BN7W¥V8B^N5FX©6
EC
94. How many such numbers are there in the given arrangement which is immediately
followed by consonant and preceded by a symbol?
1) Three 2) One
ha 3) Four 4) Two 5) Five
95. Which of the following element is seventh to the left of nineteenth from the right
end?
1) 9 2) G 3) N 4) K 5) 3

E
96. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on
the above arrangement?
d
6AS, 2£K, J%$, ?
1) BWV 2) NW¥ 3) BW8 4) 7¥^ 5) NW^
Direction: (97-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the
ee

given questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a square table and four
persons are sitting at corner facing the center and the remaining four persons
are sitting in the middle facing away from the center but not necessarily same
C
order.
D sits third to the left of G. Only one person sits between D and E. A sits
Sr

second to the left of C and doesn’t sit at any corner of the table. F sits second to
the left of B and not immediate to either G or A.
97. Which of the following person sits third to the left of F?
1) D 2) A 3) E 4) G 5) B
98. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) E 2) H 3) C 4) A 5) D
99. Which of the following person sits second to the left of the one who sits third to
C
the right of B?
1) C 2) G 3) D 4) E 5) H
100. Which of the following statement is ‘TRUE’?
1) H sits second to the right of B 2) G sits third to the right of F
3) B sits opposite to A 4) D sits second to the right of C
5) E sits third to the left of C

KEY
1.1 2.4 3.2 4.5 5.2 6.3 7.3 8.1 9.2 10.3 11.4 12.3 13.4
14.3 15.2 16.2 17.1 18.3 19.2 20.4 21.3 22.5 23.5 24.2 25.3 26.2
27.1 28.4 29.2 30.2 31.1 32.3 33.1 34.5 35.4 36.4 37.1 38.2 39.5
40.5 41.1 42.3 43.5 44.1 45.3 46.1 47.3 48.1 49.4 50.4 51.1 52.2
53.5 54.3 55.1 56.5 57.3 58.1 59.2 60.1 61.3 62.5 63.3 64.2 65.1
66.3 67.1 68.3 69.5 70.2 71.3 72.5 73.2 74.1 75.5 76.2 77.4 78.5
79.4 80.5 81.4 82.5 83.2 84.3 85.4 86.4 87.2 88.3 89.4 90.1 91.4
92.5 93.4 94.2 95.4 96.5 97.2 98.2 99.4 100.4

12