ACADEMIC SESSION : 2024-25

CLASS : XI
TARGET : JEE
(MAIN+ADVANCED) 2026
DATE : 19-05-2024 DURATION: 3 HOURS MAX. MARKS : 300

Note : Make sure that you have filled your Class-X (Science + Mathematics) % , Mobile No.,
Medium of Study, Date of Birth, Category, NTSE Level, Board of the School you have
appeared from Class-X and Choice of Study Centre in Objective Response Sheet
(ORS).

CANDIDATE NAME : APPLICATION FORM NUMBER

PLEASE READ THE NEXT PAGE OF THIS BOOKLET FOR THE INSTRUCTIONS.

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 I M P O R TA N T I N S TR U C T I O N S

1. This booklet is your Question Paper.

2. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be used.
3. Write your Name & Application Form Number in the space provided in the first page of this
booklet.
4. No rough sheets will be provided by the invigilators. All the rough work is to be done in the
blank space provided in the question paper.
5. No query related to question paper of any type is to be put to the invigilator.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET (ORS)
 Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure (BUBBLES)
 The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the
examination.
 Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.
 Write your name, Application form number and the name of the examination centre and sign
with pen in the space provided for this purpose on the original. Do not write any of these
details anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your roll number.
 Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the
Objective Response Sheet (ORS).
 Do not forget to mention your paper code and Application Form Number neatly and clearly
in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet (ORS) / Answer Sheet. ¼ORS
 Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.
 Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
 Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.
 The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here
 There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble.
 The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened
and not darkened bubbles are evaluated. Marks distribution of questions is as follows.
Marks to be awarded
S.No. Subject Nature of Questions No. of
Correct Wrong Total
Questions
PART-I Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
1 to 50 50 3 0 150
(Maths)
PART-II Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
51 to 15 3 0 45
65 (Physics)
PART-III Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
66 to 15 3 0 45
80 (Chemistry)
PART-IV Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
81 to 20 3 0 60
100 (Mental
Ability)
Zero marks „0‟ If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 MATHEMATICS
PART-I
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 150)
 This section contains FIFTY (50) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

1. Which of the following is a factor of (x +y)3 – (x3 + y3) ?

2 2 2 2 2
(A) x + y + 2xy (B) x + y – 2xy (C) 3xy (D) xy

2. There are three prime numbers. The product of first two number is 1891 and last two number is 7991. Find
the first number
(A) 61 (B) 41 (C) 31 (D) 43

3. There are 50 tickets numbered from 1 to 50 in a box. Probability of drawing a ticket bearing prime number
is
13 3 17
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
50 10 50

3 5
4. If x  and y = x3, then y satisfies the quadratic equation
2
(A) y  18y + 1 = 0 (C) y  18y  1 = 0 (D) y + 18y  1 = 0
2 2 2 2
(B) y +18y + 1 = 0

5. To draw a histogram to represent the following frequency distribution

Class 5-10 10-15 15-25 25-45 45-75

Frequency 6 12 10 8 15

The adjusted frequency for the class interval 25-45 is

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 3

6. A flag staff 5m. high stands on a building 25 m. high. An observer is at a height of 30 m; which is some
distance away from flag staff top. The base of building subtended twice an angle of bottom of flag staff at
eye of observer . Find distance of observer from top of flag.
150 3 3 3 75
(A) (B) 5 (C) 5 (D)
4 2 2 2

7. The sides (in cm) of a right triangle containing the right angle are 5x and 3x – 1. If the area of the triangle is
60 cm2. Find its perimeter.
(A) 30 (B) 35 (C) 40 (D) 45

8. If f(x) = x3 + px + q is divisible by x 2 + x – 2, then the remainder when f(x) is divided by (x + 1)

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) -4 (D) 1

9. Find the value of 56.08148 14.

407 407 107

(A) 4 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) None of these
5863 6993 6857

10. 182000 + 122000 – 52000 – 1 is divisible by

(A) 323 (B) 221 (C) 299 (D) 237

RSAT-19-05-24-3
11. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, DC = 30 cm and AB = 50 cm. If X and Y are, respectively the
mid-points of AD and BC, if ar (DCYX) = k ar (XYBA), then value of k is :
8 5 7 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 7 9 5

12. In the figure, a semi circle with centre O is drawn on AB. The ratio of the longest shaded area to the
smallest shaded area is
P

120 60
A O B
4  2 3 4  3 3 4  3 3 3  2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2  2 3 3  3 3 2  3 3 2  3 2
2 2 2
13. If x + y + z – xy – yz – xz = 0, then which of the following is true?
(A) x  y  z (B) x = y = z (C) x  y = z (D) x = y  z

14. In the diagram, AB is parallel to DC and ACE is a straight line. The value of x° is

(A) 35° (B) 30° (C) 40° (D) 45°

 22 
15. If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 72 m, find the radius of protractor.    
 7 
(A) 15 m (B) 14 m (C) 16 m (D) None of these

16. Which of the following is graph of x + y =0:

Y Y Y
Y
X X X
(A) (B) O (C) O (D) O
X
O

17. A point P is in the third quadrant and is at a distance of 4 units from the x-axis and 3 units from y-axis then
the co-ordinates of the point P are :
(A) (–3, –4) (B) (3, 4) (C) (–3, 4) (D) (3, – 4)

18. A test has 50 questions. A student scores 1 mark for a correct answer, -1/3 for a wrong answer, -1/6 for not
attempting a question. If the net score of a student is 32, the number of questions answered wrongly by
that student cannot be less than-
(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 3 (D) 9

19. Find the measure of angle y in the figure if P is the centre of the circle :

(A) 99° (B) 105° (C) 90° (D) 109°

RSAT-19-05-24-4
20. How many pairs of X and Y are possible in the eight digit number X 456789Y, if the number is divisible by
18.
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 11

21. The nature of the triangle formed by the lines x + y = 0, 3x + y – 4 = 0, x + 3y – 4 = 0 is

(A) scalene (B) isosceles (C) equilateral (D) no triangle formed

22. If the observations 20, 22, 23, 25, (x + 1), (x + 3), 36,38, 39 and 41 have median 30, then the value of x is :
(A) 28 (B) 29 (C) 30 (D) 32

23. If two opposite vertices of a square are (5,4) and (1,-6) then the coordinates of its two remaining vertices
are
(A) (-2,2) & (5,3) (B) (8,-3) & (-2,1) (C) (8,6) & (3,5) (D) (1,-3) & (2,5)

24. Square root of a number lies between 6 and 7. Then, the cube root of this number lying between
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 2.4 and 3.4 (C) 3 and 4 (D) None of these

25. The area of the whole surface of a certain cube is equal to the area of the curved surface of a certain
sphere. The ratio of their volumes is
(A) 6 (B) : 6 (C) 6:  (D) 6 : 

26. The coordinates of the points P and Q are respectively (4,–3) and (–1, 7). Then the abscissa of a point R
PR 3
on the line segment PQ such that = is :
PQ 5
18 17 17
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
5 5 8

27. In the figure shown, BEA = 100°. Point F is chosen inside DABE so that line FA bisects EAB and line
FB bisects EBA. The measure of BFA, is :

(A) 140° (B) 145° (C) 150° (D) 155°

QR
28. Two triangles ABC and PQR are similar, if BC : CA : AB = 2 : 3 : 4, then is :
PR
2 1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 2 2 3

29. A tree is broken at a height of 50 m from the ground in such a way that its top touches the ground at an
angle of 30º. The distance from the base of tree to the point where it touches the ground is :
0
(A) 100 m (B) m (C) 50 3m (D) 50 2m
3
1 1 1 1
30. Which is the greatest number amongst 2 2 ,3 3 ,8 8 and 9 9 ?
1 1 1 1
(A) 2 2 (B) 3 3 (C) 8 8 (D) 9 9 .

31. What is the HCF of x 2+5x+6 and x2+7x+12?

(A) x + 4 (B) x + 5 (C) x + 3 (D) x + 6

32. The triangle whose orthocenter, circumcentre and incentre coincides is known as:
(A) equilateral triangle (B) right triangle (C) isosceles triangle (D) None of these

RSAT-19-05-24-5
33. If AC passes through the centre of the circle, then the area of the shaded region in the given figure is
A

a O

a
B C
a 2
  a2   
(A) (3  ) (B) a2   1 (C) 2a2 (–1) (D) 1
2 2  2  2 

34. Two dice are thrown and sum of the numbers on two dice is noted. What is the probability that the sum is
neither 8 nor 7 ?
25 15 17 23
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 36 36 36
35. If D(3, –1), E(2, 6) and F(–5, 7) are the mid points of the sides of ABC, then find the area of the ABC.
(A) 90 sq. unit (B) 96 sq. unit (C) 98 sq. unit (D) 100 sq. unit

36. F(x) is a polynomial in x. When F(x) is divided by (x – 2), the remainder obtained is 3, when the same
polynomial is divided by (x – 3), the remainder obtained is 2. What is the remainder when F(x) is divided by
(x – 3) (x – 2)
5
(A) – x + 5 (B) – x + 7 (C) 0 (D) 5
3
3 6 9
37. The ascending order of the surds 2, 3, 4 is
9 3 9 3 3
(A) 6
4, 3, 2 (B) 4 , 2, 3 6
(C) 2, 6 3 , 9 4 (D) 6
3, 9 4, 3 2

38. , ,  are zeros of cubic polynomial x 3 – 12x2 + 44x + c. If , ,  are in A.P. then value of c is –
(A) 32 (B) – 48 (C) -42 (D) 36

39. If aabb is a four-digit number and also a perfect square, then the value of a + b is
(A) 12 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 9

40. For the data 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, …, 9, 9, the product of mean and mode equals to
(A) 9 (B) 45 (C) 57 (D) 285

41. From a point on the ground the angles of elevation of the bottom and the top of a transmission tower fixed
at the top of a 30m high building are 45° and 60°. Then the height of tower is___, (take 3  1.73 )
(A) 30 m. (B) 28.9 m. (C) 21.9 m. (D) 20 m.

42. Find the value of x for which (8x + 4), (6x – 2) and (2x + 7) are in A.P.
15 13 17 19
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3 3

43. A metallic spherical shell of internal and external diameters 4 cm. and 8 cm. respectively, is melted and
recast into the form of a cone of base diameter 8 cm. The height of the cone is
(A) 12 cm. (B) 14 cm. (C) 15 cm. (D) 18 cm.

44. The angles of a triangle are in A.P. and the number of degrees in the least is to the number of radians in
the greatest is 60 to c. Find the angles in degrees.
(A) 30º, 60º, 90º (B) 40º, 80º, 60º (C) 30º, 50º, 100º (D) 45º, 55º, 80º

45. Two angles of a polygon are right angles and each of the remaining angles is 150º. How many sides does
the polygon have ?
(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 10

46. If x – 3 is the GCD of x3 – 2x2 + px + 6 and x2 – 5x + q, then 6p + 5q =:

(A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 5

RSAT-19-05-24-6
47. Locus of the centre of rolling circle in plane is:
(A) Circle (B) Curve
(C) a line parallel to the plane (D) perpendicular to the plane

48. In the given figure ABCD is a square of side 14 cm. Find the area of the shaded region.

(A) 56 cm2 (B) 48 cm2 (C) 42 cm2 (D) 44 cm2

49. If the sum of three consecutive odd numbers is a perfect square between 200 and 400, then the root of this
sum is
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 19

50. Through the mid-point M of the side CD of a parallelogram ABCD, the line BM is drawn intersecting AC at L
and AD produced to E. What is the value of EL, if BL = 6 cm ?

(A) 3 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 36 cm

PHYSICS
PART-II
SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 45)
 This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

51. A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a metallic wire. If both the length and the radius of
the wire are doubled, the rate of heat developed in the wire
(A) Will be doubled (B) Will be halved
(C) Will remain the same (D) Will be quadrupled

52. The heating coils rating at 220 volt and producing 50 cal/sec heat are available with the resistances 55  ,
110 , 220  and 440 . The heater of maximum power will be of
(A) 440  (B) 220  (C) 110  (D) 55 

53. A ball whose density is 0.4 × 103 kg/m3 falls into water from a height of 9 cm . To what depth does the ball
sink
(A) 9 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 4.5 cm (D) 2.25 cm

54. The velocity of light in a medium is half of its velocity in air. If ray of light emerges from such a medium into
air, the angle of incidence, at which it will be totally internally reflected, is:
(A) 15º (B) 30 º (C) 45 º (D) 60 º

55. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in contact. The effective power of the
combination is:
(A) 1/9 diopter (B) 9 diopter (C) 8 diopter (D) None of these
RSAT-19-05-24-7
56. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and
increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop then, is
(A) Clockwise
(B) Zero
(C) Counter clockwise
(D) In a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop radii

57. According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction:

(A) The direction of induced current is such that it opposes the cause producing it
(B) The magnitude of induced e.m.f. produced in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of
magnetic flux
(C) The direction of induced e.m.f. is such that it opposes the cause producing it
(D) None of the above

58. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following plots represents the speed-time graph of the ball
during its height if the air resistance is ignored:
Speed

Speed

Speed
(A) (B) (C) Speed (D)
Time Time Time Time

59. A train moves from one station to another in 2 hours time. Its speed-time graph during this motion is shown
in the figure. The maximum acceleration during the journey is:

(A) 140 km h–2 (B) 160 km h–2 (C) 100 km h–2 (D) 120 km h–2

60. Two blocks are connected by a string as shown in the diagram. The upper block is hung by another string.
A force F applied on the upper string produces an acceleration of 2m / s 2 in the upward direction in both the
blocks. If T and T  be the tensions in the two parts of the string, then

(A) T  70.8N and T  47.2N (B) T  58.8N and T  47.2N

(C) T  70.8N and T  58.8N (D) T  70.8N and T   0

RSAT-19-05-24-8
61. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force P is
applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the block will be
Pm PM Pm
(A) P (B) (C) (D)
Mm Mm Mm

62. The echo of a gun shot is heard 8 sec. after the gun is fired. How far from him is the surface that reflects
the sound (velocity of sound in air = 350 m/s)
(A) 1400 m (B) 2800 m (C) 700 m (D)350 m

63. A machine which is 75 percent efficient, uses 12 joules of energy in lifting up a 1 kg mass through a certain
distance. The mass is then allowed to fall through that distance. The velocity at the end of its fall is (in
ms1 )
(A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 18 (D) 9

64. Two masses m1 and m 2 are attached to a string which passes over a frictionless smooth pulley. When
m1  10kg, m2  6kg, the acceleration of masses is

m2
m1
(A) 20 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 2.5 m/s2 (D)10 m/s2

65. The radii of two planets are respectively R1 and R 2 and their densities are respectively 1 and  2 . The
ratio of the accelerations due to gravity at their surfaces is
1 2
(A) g1 : g2  : (B) g1 : g2  R1 R2 : 1 2
R12 R22
(C) g1 : g2  R1 2 : R2 1 (D) g1 : g2  R1 1 : R2 2

CHEMISTRY
PART-III
SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 45)
 This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

66. Evaporation occurs only.

(A) After boiling (B) After extreme cooling
(C) At surface of a liquid (D) If boiling occurs at atmospheric pressure
67. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(A) CaCO3  CaO + CO2 (B) H2 + Cl2  2HCl
(C) CaO + 2HCl  CaCl2 + H2O (D) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O
68. All of these species have the same number of valence electrons as nitrate ion, except
(A) Carbonate ion (B) Bicarbonate ion (C) NF3 (D) SO3

69. Which of the following units of concentration is not temperature dependent?

(A) % w/v (B) N (C) M (D) m
70. (NH4)2SO4 salt is dissolved in water to give a solution, which is -
(A) Acidic (B) basic (C) neutral (D) none of these

RSAT-19-05-24-9
71. Which of the following is an example of matter?
(A) Joy (B) Light (C) Air (D) IR rays
72. The metal which cannot displace hydrogen from acid is -
(A) silver (B) sodium (C) calcium (D) magnesium
73. In the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid, acetic acid reacts with alcohol to produce -
(A) aldehyde (B) alcohol (C) ester (D) carboxylic acid
74. Which of the following salts can produce only two types of radicals?
(A) NH4HSO4 (B) CaOCl2 (C) NaKSO4 (D) Na (NH4) HPO4

75. Which of the following series represent only unsaturated hydrocarbons?

(A) C2H6, C3H8, C4H10 (B) C2H6, C3H6, C4H10 (C) C2H4 , C3H6, C4H6 (D) C2H4, C3H8, C4H6

76. The basicity of phosphorous acid

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
77. In the long form of periodic table, all the non-metals are placed in-
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
78. Find the molarity of 98% H2SO4 solution at 35ºC with density equal to 1.84 g/cc.
(A) 18 M (B) 18.4 M (C) 8.14 M (D) 4.18 M

79. Homoglgous series of Alkano is have a general formula

(A) CnH2nO2 (B) CnH2nO (C) CnH2n+1O (D) CnH2n+2O

80. Amount of water should be added in 20 mL ethyl alcohol to make its concentration 50 %
(A) 40 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 60 mL (D) 80 mL

MENTAL ABILITY
PART-IV
SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 60)
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

81. Some translated words in an artificial Language(in which the word order is not necessarily same) are given
below
mie pie sie good person sing
pie sie rie sing good lyrics
tie rie sie love good lyrics
What is the translation for „person love lyrics‟ ?
(A) pie tie rie (B) tie rie sie (C) rie mie tie (D) sie mie pie

82. In the given sequence, some letters are missing. Which of the given options can fill the blanks in the
correct order from left to right ?
ab_ab_aaa_bbaaa_bbbb
(A) abab (B) abba (C) aabb (D) baba

83. Identify the number in the position of “ ?” .

(A) 24 (B) 28 (C) 32 (D) 36

RSAT-19-05-24-10
84. Find the missing number.

(A) 184 (B) 210 (C) 241 (D) 425

85. If A, B, C, D are distinct decimal digits, then which of the following option is correct ?

(A) A = 3 B = 7 C = 5 D = 9 (B) A = 2 B = 3 C = 6 D = 5
(C) A = 3 B = 8 C = 6 D = 5 (D) A = 2 B = 3 C = 5 D = 7

86. Observe the following figure representing a balance.

7gm

9gm

Which of the following figure represents the correct balance ?

5gm 5gm
(A) (B)

8gm 8gm
(C) (D)

87. Choose appropriate option from given alternatives such that the relationship defined by „:‟ is preserved.
PNLJ : LIFC and VTRP : ________
(A) ROLI (B) SOLH (C) RPOM (D) DMEN

88. A coin is in a fixed position. Another identical coin is rolled around the edge of the first one. How many
complete revolutions will be made by the revolving coin before it reaches its starting position ?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

89. If South-East becomes North ; and North-East becomes West; then West becomes
(A) North – East (B) South – East (C) North – West (D) South – West

90. A cube is 6 cm in length, breadth and height. It is painted red on two opposite faces, black on the other two
opposite faces and green on the left over faces. It is then cut into 216 cubes of sides 1 cm. How many
small cubes have no face painted ?
(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 64 (D) 24
91. Find the odd-one out of the following terms :
(A) EF22 (B) GH24 (C) IJ38 (D) VW90

RSAT-19-05-24-11
92. Choose the conclusions which logically follows from the given statements.
Statement :
All the pens are papers
All the papers are boats
Some birds are boats.
Conclusion :
A. Some boats are pens B. Some birds are papers
C. None of the pens are birds
(A) Only A and B (B) Only A (C) Only C (D) Only A and C

93. Find the missing Number

5,12,24,36, ? ,
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 52 (D) 59

94. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of „M‟?

255,3610,4915,M,8125
(A) 5100 (B) 5420 (C) 6420 (D) 6422

95. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of „M‟ ?

L6 , O8 , R11 , M , X25 , A42, D75
(A) U15 (B) U16 (C) W14 (D) U14

96. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of „M‟ ?

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

97. If ‘’ means „X‟ ,‟‟ mean „†‟, „‟ means „+‟ and „  ‟ means „–‟then evaluate the following expression using
standard operator precedence.
56(8)   1
(A) 52 (B) 24 (C) 15 (D) 43

98. With what operators, should the symbols @ and < be replaced so that the following expression is valid.
100–8127 @ 3 < 6 = 115
(A) + and – (B) x and  (C) + and × (D)  and –

99. x is an integer such that it leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 3, leaves a remainder of 3 when
divided by 5, and leaves a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. What could be a possible value of x from
among the following options ?
(A) 53 (B) 68 (C) 74 (D) 83

100. In how many ways can you distribute 10 identical balls, into two non-identical boxes so that none are
empty ?
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

RSAT-19-05-24-12