131 Physics

CANDIDATES' ITEM RESPONSE ANALYSIS
REPORTON THE ADVANCED CERTIFICATE

OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION
(ACSEE) 2023
PHYSICS
CANDIDATES' ITEM RESPONSE ANALYSIS
REPORTON THE ADVANCED CERTIFICATE
OF SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION
(ACSEE) 2023
131 PHYSICS
Published by:
The National Examinations Council of Tanzania,
P.O. Box 2624,
Dar es Salaam, Tanzania.
© The National Examinations Council of Tanzania, 2023
All rights reserved
ii
Table of Contents
FOREWORD ............................................................................................................ v
1.0 INTRODUCTION ......................................................................................... 1
2.0 ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE IN EACH
QUESTION IN 131/1 PHYSICS 1................................................................ 3
2.1 Question 1: Measurement .......................................................................... 3
2.2 Question 2: Mechanics (Projectile Motion) ............................................. 10
2.3 Question 3: Mechanics (Uniform Circular Motion) ................................ 16
2.4 Question 4: Mechanics (Newton’s Laws of Motion) ............................... 22
2.5 Question 5: Heat (Thermometers and First Law of Thermodynamics) ... 28
2.6 Question 6: Heat (First Law of Thermodynamics) .................................. 33
2.7 Question 7: Environmental Physics ......................................................... 38
2.8 Question 8: Current Electricity ................................................................ 42
2.9 Question 9: Electronics (Semiconductors, Logic Gates & Op-Amps) .... 47
2.10 Question 10: Electronics (The Band Theory of Solids, Semiconductors
& Transistors) .......................................................................................... 53
3.0 ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN EACH
QUESTION IN 131/2 PHYSICS 2.............................................................. 60
3.1 Question 1: Fluid Dynamics .................................................................... 60
3.2 Question 2: Vibrations and Waves........................................................... 70
3.3 Question 3: Properties of Matter .............................................................. 79
3.4 Question 4: Electrostatics......................................................................... 87
3.5 Question 5: Electromagnetism ................................................................. 94
3.6 Question 6: Atomic Physics ................................................................... 100
QUESTION IN 131/3 PHYSICS 3............................................................ 111
4.1 Question 1: Mechanics ........................................................................... 112
4.1.1 Physics 3A .......................................................................................... 112
4.1.2 Physics 3B .......................................................................................... 120
4.1.3 Physics 3C .......................................................................................... 125
4.2 Question 2: Heat..................................................................................... 131
4.2.1 Physics 3A .......................................................................................... 132
iii
4.2.2 Physics 3B .......................................................................................... 139
4.2.3 Physics 3C .......................................................................................... 145
4.3 Question 3: Current Electricity .............................................................. 151
4.3.1 Physics 3A .......................................................................................... 152
4.3.2 Physics 3B .......................................................................................... 160
4.3.3 Physics 3C .......................................................................................... 166
5.0 ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN EACH TOPIC . 173
6.0 CONCLUSION AND RECOMMENDATIONS ...................................... 173
6.1 Conclusion ................................................................................................. 173
6.2 Recommendations...................................................................................... 174
APPENDIX I: The Candidates’ Performance in Each Topic in Physics 1 & 2 in
ACSEE 2023 ................................................................................. 176
APPENDIX 1I: The Candidates’ Performance in Each Topic in Actual
Practical Papers 3A, 3B and 3C in ACSEE 2023 ......................... 177
iv
FOREWORD
The report on Candidates’ Item Response Analysis (CIRA) on the 2023
Advanced Certificate of Secondary Examination (ACSEE) has been prepared
to provide feedback to different education stakeholders and the general public
on the performance of candidates in Physics subject. It also aims to show the
extent to which the instructional goals and objectives of teaching and learning
Physics were met.
The analysis shows that the general performance of the candidates in Physics
subject was good since the majority (97.74%) of the candidates passed while a
few (2.26%) failed. This good performance was obtained in 9 out of 12 topics
examined. These topics are Environmental Physics, Measurement, Heat,
Electronics, Current Electricity, Mechanics, Properties of Matter, Fluid
Dynamics and Electrostatics. However, three topics; Vibrations and Waves,
Atomic Physics and Electromagnetism had average performance. Moreover,
there was no topic with weak performance.
Factors that contributed to the candidates’ good performance include adequate
knowledge of the subject matter, ability to explain theories, laws and principles
of Physics and understanding the scientific methods to solve problems. The
analysis also reveals that there were some candidates with weak performance.
These candidates faced various challenges including: lack of skills for solving
numerical problems, failure to describe different terminologies and applying
inappropriate formulae and procedures in analysing various concepts, failure to
abide by the given instructions in assembling the apparati when performing
experiments and lack of practical skills.
The National Examinations Council of Tanzania believes that this report will
help education stakeholders such as students, teachers and parents to take
appropriate teaching and learning interventions to enable students obtain the
required skills and knowledge so as to improve candidates’ performance in the
future examinations administered by the Council.
Finally, the Council would like to express its sincere appreciation to all who
participated in the preparation of this report.
Dr Said A. Mohamed
EXECUTIVE SECRETARY
v
1.0 INTRODUCTION
The Physics examination adhered to the 2019 Physics subject

Examination Format which is based on the 2010 Physics Syllabus. The
examination comprised of three papers namely; 131/1 Physics 1 and
131/2 Physics 2 which were theory papers and 131/3 Physics 3, the
practical paper.
The theory paper 1 comprised of Sections A and B with a total of ten

(10) questions. Section A had seven (7) short answer questions which
carried 10 marks each. Section B consisted of three (3) structured
questions, each carrying 15 marks. The candidates were required to
answer all questions in Section A and two (2) questions from Section B.
The theory paper 2 had six (6) structured questions. The candidates
were required to answer five (5) questions. Each question carried 20
marks. The practical paper 3 had three alternative papers, namely
131/3A Physics 3A, 131/3B Physics 3B and 131/3C Physics 3C. Each
of these papers consisted of three questions. Question 1 carried 20
marks while questions 2 and 3 carried 15 marks each. The candidates
were required to sit for either alternative papers and answer all
questions.
A total of 23,153 candidates sat for the ACSEE 2023 in Physics subject
out of which 22,589 (97.74%) passed while 522 (2.26%) failed. The
candidates’ performance in the Physics Examination 2023 has increased
by 0.26 per cent compared to that of 2022 in which 97.48 per cent of
candidates passed. This substantial increase in percentage was
contributed by the candidates’ good performance in the tested concepts
including the improvement observed in four topics which appeared to
have weak or average performance in previous years. Table 1 shows the
topics with improved performance in 2023 compared to 2022.
1
Table 1: Candidates’ Improved Performance in 4 Topics in ACSEE 2023
Compared to 2022
ACSEE 2022 ACSEE 2023
Percentage of Candidates
who scored 35 % or above
who scored 35 % or above

Number of Questions
Number of Questions
Remarks
Remarks
Topic
S/n
1. Heat 3 56.02 Average 3 80.91 Good

2. Current Electricity 2 46.05 Average 2 72.63 Good
3. Fluid Dynamics 1 47.50 Average 1 66.37 Good
4. Electrostatics 1 58.50 Average 1 63.44 Good
In addition, Figure 1 illustrates the candidates’ performance according

to grades for two consecutive years 2022 and 2023.
Figure 1: Candidates’ performance according to grades

2
Figure 1 shows that in 2023 there is an increase in the percentage of
candidates who scored grades A, B and C and a decrease in those who
scored grades D, E, S and F as compared to 2022. This reveals a normal
distribution curve across the grades.
The next part shows the analysis of the candidates’ performance on

each question in 131/1 Physics 1, 131/2 Physics 2 and 131/3 Physics 3.
The analysis shows what the candidates were required to do, as well as
the strengths and weaknesses of their responses. Samples of the
candidates’ answers have been extracted from their scripts to illustrate
their responses. Subsequently, figures and tables have been used to
illustrate the respective cases. The performance is ranked as weak,
average or good if the performance of candidates lies in the range of 0
to 34, 35 to 59 or 60 to 100 per cent respectively. The colours; green,
yellow and red have been used to represent good, average and weak
performances respectively. The report also contains appendices I and II
showing the candidates’ performance in different topics.
Finally, it provides a conclusion and recommendations that may help to

improve teaching and learning of the Physics subject.

QUESTION IN 131/1 PHYSICS 1
This paper comprised a total of 10 questions each carrying 10 marks.

The pass mark was 3.5 marks. Six (6) topics were examined which are:
Measurement (Physical Quantities and Errors), Mechanics (Projectile
motion, Uniform Circular motion and Newton’s laws of motion), Heat
(Thermometers and First law of Thermodynamics), Environmental
Physics, Current Electricity and Electronics (The band Theory of
Solids, Semiconductors, Transistor, Logic gates & Operational
Amplifiers). The candidates’ response analysis for each question is as
follows:
2.1 Question 1: Measurement
The question comprised of two parts (a) and (b). In part (a), the
candidates were required to (i) differentiate between dimension and
3
F = kAρA x , where F, V, A, ρ and k are the
force acting on the body, speed, surface area, density and dimensionless
constant respectively. In part (b), they were required to determine the
F
possible percentage error of P from the relation P = , where F is a
πR 2
force and R the radius given that the percentage error of F and R are
± 2 and ± 1 respectively.
The question was attempted by 23,153 (100%) candidates and its

performance was good since a few candidates (4.26%) failed by scoring
from 0 to 3.0 marks and the majority (86.08%) scored high marks (from
6.0 to 10), while 9.66 per cent scored average marks (from 3.5 to 5.5).
Figure 2 provides the graphical presentation of the candidates'
performance in question 1.
Figure 2: Candidates' performance in question 1 of paper 1
Analysis of data reveals that, 86.08 per cent of the candidates who
scored higher marks (6.0 to 10) correctly differentiated dimension from
dimensional formula with the provision of relevant examples. Most of
them had good analytical skills in applying the method of dimension to
deduce the value of x in the given expression. However, some of these
candidates had wrong perception in formulating the required expression
4
to find the percentage error of pressure and therefore, their marks
ranged from 6.0 to 10 depending on the ability of each candidate in
describing the concept. Extract 1.1 is a sample of candidates’ correct
responses to this question.
5
Extract 1.1: A sample of correct responses to question 1 of paper 1
In Extract 1.1, the candidate provided correct responses about errors in

measurement as required.
Some candidates (9.66%) who scored from 3.5 to 5.5 marks provided
proper responses but lacked adequate explanations and appropriate
computational skills. Consequently, a few candidates did not exhaust all
steps in deducing the required expression to find the percentage error of
F
pressure, P. One candidate for example wrote: P =
πR 2
ln P = ln F − ln π − 2 ln R then
6
∆P ∆F 2∆R 2 2(1)
= − = − = −1. Such a response indicated that the
P F R 2 1
candidate lacked the knowledge about maximizing errors. The
∆P ∆F 2∆R
candidate was supposed to take = + then multiplying it by
P F R
100 % on both sides to get
∆P  ∆F   ∆R 
× 100% =  × 100%  + 2 × 100%  which ends up with
P  F   R 
∆P
× 100% = ±(2% + 2(1)% ) = ± 4% .
P
The responses of 308 (4.26%) candidates who scored from 0 to 3 marks

had several weaknesses. Most responses had a mixture of correct and
incorrect explanations and procedures of analysing the possible
percentage error of pressure and ended up scoring low marks. One
candidate for example wrote: Dimension is the physical quantity that
represents the relationship of physical quantities while dimensional
formula is the formula that represents the physical quantities. All these
statements were incorrect. Moreover, some of them wrongly used the
square bracket for example [Area] = [L2 ] [ ]
or Area = L2 instead of
[Area] = L2 to represent dimensions. On the other hand, 244 (1.05%)
candidates who scored zero diverged from the subject matter. Such
candidates failed to apply the methods of dimension and error in the
F
expressions F = kAρA x and P = to deduce the values of x and
πR 2
possible percentage error of P respectively. Extract 1.2 is an example of
a weak response to this question.
7
8
Extract 1.2: A sample of an incorrect response to question 1 of paper 1
In Extract 1.2, the candidate wrongly related the term dimension with
the type of force and applied incorrect procedures to determine the
percentage error of pressure.
9
2.2 Question 2: Mechanics (Projectile Motion)
The question had two parts, (a) and (b). In part (a), the candidates were
required to show how the horizontal range will be affected when its
initial velocity is doubled by a given angle of projection, θ . In part (b),
the candidates were given the velocity of an aircraft of 150 km/hr
travelling at the altitude of 250 m which dropped a luggage of food to
flood victims isolated on a patch of land below the aircraft. Candidates
were required to determine (i) the time which the luggage should be
dropped before the aircraft is directed overhead and (ii) the speed of the
luggage as it reaches the ground.
A total of 23,153 (100%) candidates attempted this question and the

general performance was good since 76.69 per cent of the candidates
got the pass mark or above. Data analysis reveals that, 54.97 per cent of
the candidates scored from 6 to 10 marks and 21.72 per cent scored
from 3.5 to 5.5 marks while 23.31 per cent failed by scoring from 0 to 3
marks. Figure 3 shows the performance of the candidates in this
question.
The candidates (54.97%) who scored from 6 to 10 marks described

correctly projectile motion parameters and its applications in real life. In
part (a), most of these candidates used correct formula and procedures
to analyse how the horizontal range of a projectile is affected when the
initial velocity is doubled while the angle of projection remains
constant. Answers like: if the initial velocity of a projectile is doubled
10
the range will be four times the initial horizontal range prevailed in
their responses. In part (b), they described the motion of an aircraft by
drawing a clear and well labelled diagram to evaluate the time which
supplies were dropped and the velocity of the luggage as it reaches the
ground. However, some of these candidates (21.72%) who scored 3.5 to
5.5 marks lacked mathematical skills to analyse correctly the speed and
time which the luggage should be dropped before an aircraft is directed
overhead. Extract 2.1 represents a sample of candidates’ correct
response to this question.
11
12
Extract 2.1: A sample of correct responses in question 2 of paper 1
In Extract 2.1, the candidate applied the correct formula and procedures
to obtain the time of flight and speed of luggage as it reaches the
ground.
The candidates (23.31%) who scored from 0 to 3 marks had weaknesses

in their responses. Some responses presented were either wrong or
partially analysed. Other candidates only responded to part (a) of this
question. Whereas, candidates who scored 0 marks went astray from the
subject matter. Some of these candidates for example derived the
Vo2 sin 2θ
formula for the horizontal range such as R =
g
13
v0 sin θ
t= and v = vgt to determine the time and velocity
g
respectively. These candidates failed to understand that a horizontal
projection had an angle 𝜃𝜃 = 0, so in substituting this value in the
Newton’s second equation of motion we obtain
1 1
y = v0 sin θt + gt 2 = gt 2 and finally the expression to find time
2 2
2y
becomes t = . Moreover, they could manipulate and insert the
g
values of Vx = V0 cosθ and Vy = V0 sinθ - gt in the formula
V = Vx2 + Vy2 that finds the speed of the luggage as it reaches the
ground. Extract 2.2 shows one of the incorrect responses to this
question.
14
15
In Extract 2.2, the candidate drew an incorrect diagram and applied
incorrect formulae and procedures to obtain incorrect responses of time
and speed of the luggage.
2.3 Question 3: Mechanics (Uniform Circular Motion)
The question consisted of two parts (a) and (b). In part (a), the
candidates were required to determine the least coefficient of friction at
which the car with a speed of 40 m/s will be able to negotiate the
unbanked curve of radius 500 m without sliding. In part (b), the
candidates were given a stone of mass 1 kg attached to a string of length
1 m which was whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 0.6 m at a
constant speed. The candidates were required to calculate (i) the tension
in the string and (ii) the maximum number of revolution per second it
can make.
A total of 23,151 (99.99%) candidates attempted this question and their

scores were as follows: 29.0 per cent scored from 0 to 3 marks, 17.25
per cent scored from 3.5 to 5.5 marks and 53.75 per cent scored from 6
to 10 marks. Generally, the candidates’ performance in this question
was good as 71 per cent scored above 3.0 marks. Figure 4 summarizes
the performance of the candidates in this question.

16
Candidates (53.75%) who performed well in this question had adequate
knowledge to give the correct responses. In part (a), most of these
candidates correctly applied the formula and procedure to determine the
least coefficient of friction which allows the car to negotiate the curve
without sliding. In part (b), they applied computational skills to draw
and resolve the diagram in formulating expressions to compute the
tension and maximum number of revolutions per second. Extract 3.1 is
a sample of such a correct response.
17
18
In Extract 3.1, the candidate applied the correct formula, procedures and
free-force diagram to evaluate the least coefficient of friction, tension
and maximum number of revolutions per second.
On the other hand, 29 per cent of the candidates who scored 0 to 3

marks had inadequate knowledge of uniform circular motion
specifically, the motion of a curved road and the concept of motion in a
horizontal circle. They failed to apply mathematical skills to solve most
parts of the question. In part (a) for example some of these candidates
v2 g×r
used wrong formulae such as µ = µ=
r v2
v2
µ= v2 >
rg
µrg
v2
µ= is used to determine the least coefficient of
r×g
19
friction. In part (b), most of them lacked knowledge and skills to deduce
the vertical and horizontal components of tension such as Tcosθ = mg
mv 2
and Tsinθ = respectively. Another weakness was observed by
r
some candidates who applied incorrect formulae for instance
r tan θ
r 2 = vg tan θ and ω= instead of v 2 = rg tan θ and
g
g tan θ
ω= respectively. As a result, they obtained incorrect values
r
of tension and a maximum number of revolutions per second. Extract
3.2 is a sample of a candidates’ incorrect response to this question.
20
Extract 3.2: A sample of an incorrect response to question 3 in paper 1
21
Extract 3.2 shows that the candidate lacked knowledge of the key
concepts of uniform circular motion, specifically the resolution of
formulae for tension and maximum number of revolutions.
2.4 Question 4: Mechanics (Newton’s Laws of Motion)
This question had two parts (a) and (b). Part (a) required the candidates
to (i) give two daily life examples where Newton’s first law of motion
is applicable and (ii) find the force required to keep the conveyor belt
moving at a speed of 5 cm/s, if a sand drops vertically at the rate of 100
g/s on it. In part (b), the candidates were given the following figure
showing the system of forces being at equilibrium and required to
determine the maximum force Q if the friction on the block cannot
exceed 12 N.
The question was attempted by 23,153 (100%) candidates whose scores

were as follows: 35.13 per cent scored from 0 to 3 marks, 46.13 per cent
scored from 3.5 to 5.5 marks and 18.74 per cent scored from 6 to 10
marks. These scores imply that the general performance in this question
was good as 64.87 per cent scored from 3.5 to 10 marks. Figure 5 is a
graphic representation of these scores.
22
Although the question was well performed by a majority (64.87%) of

the candidates, more than one third (35.13%) scored low (0 to 3) marks
in this question. In part (a), some candidates gave irrelevant examples
where Newton’s first law of motion applies. Such responses includes:
Kicking of a soccer ball at rest, pushing of a swing from rest to start
oscillating, pull or push of some doors. The candidates were required to
respond as follows: When a car suddenly starts passengers in it tend to
fall backward, when a man jumps into a moving car he falls backward,
an athlete runs some distance before executing a jump, when a moving
bus suddenly stopped the passengers in it tend to fall forward, the mud
from the wheels of a moving vehicle flies of tangentially and tightening
of seat belts in a car when it stops quickly. In addition, some candidates
failed to recall and apply Newton’s second equation of motion by
R v×f 100 g/s mv − mu
writing = and F = = 20 N instead of F = or
v v 5 cm/s t
dm
F=v to find the force required to keep the belt moving. In part (b)
dt
they encountered difficulties in describing the diagram and applying the
correct formula and procedures in answering the question. Some of
these candidates scored 2 to 3 marks depending on the relevance of
their responses. Moreover, candidates who scored a zero mark diverged
from the demand of the question. Most of them skipped part (b) while
other candidates provided inappropriate responses to part (a). Such
incorrect responses indicate that most candidates had inadequate
23
knowledge of the subject matter. Extract 4.1 is an example of a
candidate who provided irrelevant responses.
24
In Extract 4.1, the candidate provided irrelevant responses in part (a)

and applied incorrect formula and procedures in part (b) to resolve
equilibrant forces on a body.
The candidates (18.74%) who scored from 6 to 10 marks understood

and interpreted the question correctly. In part (a), most of these
candidates identified daily life examples where Newton’s first law of
motion applies. Moreover, they applied the expression of Newton’s
second equation of motion to determine the force required to keep the
belt moving. In part (b), they used mathematical skills to resolve the
tension of determining the maximum value of force Q. However,
candidates’ scores varied due to their diverse strengths in identifying
25
examples where Newton’s first law of motion is based and interpreting
the system of forces in the given figure. Extract 4.2 is a sample of a
correct response to question 4.
26
27
In extract 4.2, the candidate correctly specified daily life examples of
Newton’s first law of motion and evaluated the required values of
forces.
2.5 Question 5:Heat (Thermometers and First law of Thermodynamics)
This question consisted of two parts (a) and (b). In part (a), the
candidates were required to (i) calculate the temperature of the escaping
air from the suddenly bursting tyre, if before bursting the car tyre has a
pressure of 4 atmospheres at a room temperature of 27ºC. In part (b),
they were required to (i) distinguish between triple point of water and
thermometric property as used in heat and (ii) calculate the temperature
as measured on the scale of the resistance thermometer which
corresponds to a temperature of 70ºC on the gas thermometer when the
resistance Rθ of a particular resistance thermometer at a Celsius
temperature θ as measured by a constant volume gas thermometer is
given by Rθ = 2.50 × 10 −4 θ 2 + 0.1850θ + 40.0.
The question was attempted by 23,152 (99.99%) candidates and their

performance was good since less than one third (23.44%) candidates
failed by scoring from 0 to 3 marks and more than a half (50.86%) of
the candidates scored higher marks (from 6 to 10), while 25.70 per cent
scored average marks (from 3.5 to 5.5). Figure 6 shows the performance
of the candidates in question 5.
28
The candidates (50.86%) who scored high marks (6 to 10) were
competent in describing thermodynamics processes especially in
adiabatic process. In part (a), most of these candidates applied the
correct formula P γ −1T − γ = K to determine the temperature of the
escaping air. In part (b), they correctly distinguished the triple point of
water from thermometric property and applied the correct formula
 R −R 
θ =  θ 0
 × 1000 C to determine the temperature as measured on
 R100 − R0 
the scale of resistance thermometer at 700C. However, their scores
varied due to inadequate knowledge of temperature scales as they failed
to analyse the concept correctly. Extract 5.1 is a sample of a candidate's
correct response.
29
30
Extract 5.1 shows a response from a candidate who had adequate
knowledge of adiabatic equations and mathematical skills as he/she
applied the correct formula to obtain the required answer.
The responses of the candidates who scored from 0 to 3 marks had

several weaknesses. Most of these candidates presented inappropriate
responses in analysing the asked concepts. Furthermore, candidates who
scored zero lacked mathematical skills in applying formulae based on
thermodynamic processes. Consequently, they lacked knowledge of
thermometric properties of a substance and therefore, failed to describe
thermodynamic scale of temperature. Other candidates in this category
provided irrelevant responses. One candidate for example wrote: Triple
point of water is a point where 0 0 C of water is raised to 100 0 C while
thermometric property is the ability of a substance to apply
thermometer at different condition. This candidate had inadequate
knowledge about triple point of water which is a point at which vapour,
liquid and solid states of a substance co-exist in equilibrium while
thermometric property is a physical property which varies linearly and
continuously with change in temperature. In addition, some of these
candidates applied wrong formulae like Boyle’s law equation, PV=K
and Pressure law equation PT −1 = K instead of adiabatic equation
P γ −1T − γ = K or T1γ P11− γ = T2γ P21− γ to determine the temperature of the
escaping air. Extract 5.2 is a sample of an incorrect response to this
question.
31
Extract 5.2: A sample of an incorrect response to question 5 of paper1
32
In Extract 5.2, the candidate applied the gas equation Pv = nRT instead
of adiabatic equation T1γ P11− γ = T2γ P21− γ for calculating the temperature of
the escaping air. In part (b), the candidate failed to apply knowledge of
thermometric property of a substance in the given expression to
determine the required temperature.
2.6 Question 6: Heat (First law of Thermodynamics)
candidates were required to (i) give the meaning of reversible process as
applied in the thermodynamics and (ii) distinguish isobaric process
from isochoric process. In part (b) it was given that, 1 g of water
becomes 1671 cm3 of steam when subjected to pressure of 1.013 × 105
Pa. The candidates were required to calculate (i) the external work done
and (ii) the increase in internal energy of the system.
The question was attempted by 23,153 (100%) candidates and their

to 3 marks as presented in Figure 7.
Figure 7 reveals that the candidates’ general performance in this

question was good because 80.88 per cent of the candidates scored
above 3 marks.
33
The candidates (56.23%) who scored high marks (6 - 10) had adequate
knowledge about the application of First law of Thermodynamics in
real life. In part (a), most of these candidates correctly described
thermodynamic processes by explaining the meaning of reversible,
isochoric and isobaric processes. Subsequently, some candidates used
diagrams to distinguish the two concepts. In part (b), they applied
mathematical skills to organise the data in calculating the external work
done required to convert 1 g of water into vapour and the increase in
internal energy of the system. However, some of the candidates who
scored average mark skipped part (b) (ii) while others described
reversible, isobaric and isochoric processes interchangeably. Extract 6.1
is a sample of a candidates’ correct response.
34
35
In Extract 6.1, the candidate correctly explained the meaning of
thermodynamic processes and applied the correct formula and
procedures to determine the external work done and increase in internal
energy of the system.
In contrast, 19.12 per cent of the candidates who scored low marks (0 -
3) demonstrated lack or inadequate knowledge of the tested concepts.
These candidates either failed to give the meaning of the terms or
provided responses which had unclear explanations. One of these
candidates for example wrote: reversible process is any process in
which heat supplied to the system change automatically and equal to
external work done. Another candidate wrote: ‘Isobaric process is the
process of pressure while isochoric process is the process of volume.
This candidate failed to understand that in isobaric process pressure
remain constant because when heat energy is added to the system, both
the internal energy of the gas and external work increases while
isochoric process occur at constant volume because all heat added
increases only the internal energy of the system. Further, analysis
reveals that, most of the candidates in this category applied irrelevant
nR
m
formula such as density = , P1V1γ = P2 V2γ and W =
v 1− γ
( )
P1V1 - P2 V2γ
instead of W = P (V2 − V1 ) and Q = ∆U + W to compute the external

work done and internal energy of the system. Extract 6.2 shows
incorrect responses given by one of these candidates.
36
In Extract 6.2, the candidate provided responses which do not fulfil the
demands of the question by applying incorrect formula and procedures
in performing calculations.
37
2.7 Question 7: Environmental Physics
candidates were required to analyse three possible solutions to the side
effects of global warming. Part (b) required the candidates to (i) explain
briefly four major causes of water pollution and (ii) state three
disadvantages of using solar energy.
A total of 23,153 (100%) candidates attempted this question and the

general performance was good since 92.20 per cent of the candidates
scored from 6 to 10 marks and 5.98 per cent scored from 3.5 to 5.5
marks while a few candidates (1.81%) failed by scoring from 0 to 3
marks. Figure 8 shows the performance of the candidates in this
question.
Figure 8: Candidates performance in question 7 of paper 1
The analysis of candidates' responses reveals that most of the candidate

scored high marks in this question. This shows that the candidates had
adequate knowledge of environmental Physics specifically in
environmental pollution and energy from the environment (solar
energy), as illustrated in Extract 7.1.
38
The candidates (92.2%) who scored high marks (from 6 to 10) provided
clear and detailed answers which were featured with appropriate
examples. These candidates had adequate knowledge on the
environmental physics specifically in the part of environmental
pollution and energy from the environment (solar energy). In part (b) (i)
for example, they identified the sources of water pollution in
agriculture, settlement and industries, thermal pollution and
deforestation which leads to excessive soil erosion. Generally, it was
observed that most of these candidates were consistent, neat and precise
in providing their responses with a few grammatical errors due to good
mastery of the English Language. However, varied accuracies of
explanations and examples caused some candidates to score higher
marks than others. Extract 7.1 is a sample of good response from one of
these candidates in this question.
39
In Extract 7.1, the candidate provided responses on the concepts of

global warming, water pollution and solar energy which suited the
requirements of the question.
40
The responses of a few (1.81%) candidates who scored low marks (0 to
3) had some errors. Some responses contained correct points which had
unclear explanations. On the other hand, repetition of some points was a
common attribute in some candidates’ responses. In part (a) for example
they interchanged the concepts of analysing the possible solutions about
the side effects of global warming with major causes of water pollution
in part (b) (i). These candidates failed to understand that the use of
clean alternative energy sources such as solar and wind, reduces
deforestation which minimizes carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and
implementations of the international agreements of the state such as
Kyoto Protocol Agreement (KPA) that aims to minimize the emission
of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere are among the solutions to the
side effects of global warming. In part (b), they lacked knowledge that,
the discharge of sewage from coastal settlements (sometimes untreated)
into coastal water generates a direct health hazard from recreational
bathers as well as marine organisms. In addition, land drainage from
urban areas, industries and waste disposal sites into rivers and lakes
often contaminated with heavy metals or hydrocarbons are the sources
of water pollution. Furthermore, deforestation leads to excessive soil
erosion that increases silt load in rivers and coastal water leading to
coral leaf destruction are pollutants in the environment. However, 100
(0.43%) candidates who scored zero misinterpreted the question and
provided irrelevant responses. Some of these candidates for example
defined global warming instead of analysing possible measures to
encounter the problem. Extract 7.2 is an example of one of the incorrect
Extract 7.2: A sample of the an incorrect response to question 7 of paper 1

41
In Extract 7.2 the candidate listed irrelevant responses on the side
effects of global warming and causes of water pollution without
explaining it as demanded by the question.
2.8 Question 8: Current Electricity
This question had three parts: (a), (b) and (c). Part (a) required the
candidates to (i) identify two conservation laws embodied in
Kirchhoff’s laws by stating its physical significance and (ii) explain
why is it safe for a bird to stand on a high voltage wire without being
harmed. Part (b) required the candidates to study the circuit diagram
given in Figure 2 and apply Kirchhoff’s rules to find the values of
current I1, I2 and I3.
In part (c), the candidates were required to (i) compute the voltage
across the capacitor of 1 μF used in a television circuit where the
frequency and the current flowing through it are 1000 Hz and 2 mA
(r.m.s) respectively and (ii) determine the current flowing when an a.c
voltage of 20 V (r.m.s) and frequency of 50 Hz is connected to a
capacitor in 8 (c) (i).
This was an optional question attempted by 9,519 (41.11%) candidates

whose scores were as follows: 50.50 per cent scored from 9 to 15
marks, 21.86 per cent scored 5.5 to 8.5 marks and 27.64 per cent scored
from 0 to 3 marks. These data are summarised in Figure 9.
42
Figure 9 shows that the general performance in this question was good
since 72.36 per cent of the candidates passed by scoring from 5.5 to 15
marks.
Candidates (50.50%) whose marks ranged from 9 to 15 had enough

knowledge of Kirchhoff’s rules and alternating current. Most of the
candidates in this category identified correctly the conservation laws
embodied in Kirchhoff’s rules by stating its physical significance. This
shows that they had adequate knowledge of the concept of electrical
conduction in metals. Moreover, they analysed electrical network by
applying the Kirchhoff’s rules to find the values of the current.
However, 21.86 per cent of the candidates scored average marks (from
5.5 to 8.5) since they provided relatively appropriate responses with
diverse strengths in explaining, computing and analysing features of
electrical network. Extract 8.1 represents a sample of a correct response
to this question.
43
44
In Extract 8.1, the candidate correctly applied Kirchhoff’s rules and

appropriate formulae from a.c theory to compute the voltage and current
across the capacitor.
The responses of the candidates (27.64%) who scored from 0 to 5 marks

comprised of several weaknesses. Most of the candidates in this group
lacked mathematical skills in evaluating the concepts. The notable
weaknesses include: failure of identifying conservation laws embodied
in Kirchhoff’s rules, providing partial explanations of a bird standing on
a high voltage wire without being harmed and providing a mixture of
correct and incorrect responses in part (c). Moreover, they failed to
interpret the given circuit diagram to evaluate the values of the current
thus they gave diverse responses. Some candidates for example used
V
Ohm’s law I = instead of Kirchhoff’s rules and the formulae
R
1 E
Xc = and I V = V to determine currents and voltage across the
2ππf XC
capacitor. Other candidates in this category drew incorrect circuit
diagrams with inappropriate directions of current flow and incorrectly
applied Kirchhoff’s rules to compute the values of currents I1, I2 and I3.
45
Extract 8.2 is a sample of an incorrect response from one of these
candidates.
46
In part (a) of extract 8.2, the candidate partially identified two

conservation laws. In part (b), he/she applied incorrect formulae and
procedures in computing the values of currents.
2.9 Question 9: Electronics (Semiconductors,Logic Gates & Op-Amps)
This question was divided into three parts (a), (b) and (c). Part (a)
required the candidates to (i) comment on the argument that the
electrical conductivity of a semiconductor depends on temperature
variation, (ii) draw a circuit diagram showing a reverse biased diode
and (iii) give reason why there is a very little current flow in the circuit
drawn in 9 (a) (ii). Part (b) required the candidates to (i) study the
circuit in Figure 3 and find the gain of the amplifier and (ii) generate the
truth table for the logic gates in Figure 4.
Figure 3
Figure 3
47
Figure 4
Part (c) required the candidates to (i) give the meaning of a voltage
follower and state one importance of it and (ii) draw a diagram to show
an operational amplifier (Op-Amp) as a voltage follower.
This was an optional question. The question was attempted by 19,794

candidates equivalent to 85.49 per cent and the distribution of their
scores is shown in Figure 10.
Figure 10 shows that 25.23 per cent of the candidates scored from 0 to 5
marks; 30.98 per cent scored from 5.5 to 8.5 marks while 43.79 per cent
scored marks ranging from 9 to 15 marks. The data analysis reveals that
the general performance in this question was good because 74.77 per
cent of the candidates scored above 5 marks.
48
The candidates who scored high marks correctly stipulated the
argument about the effects of varying temperature on electrical
conductivity of a semiconductor. Most of them demonstrated their
drawing skills of a reverse biased diode with detailed explanations
about the presence of very little current flow in the circuits drawn.
Consequently, they successfully applied an expression of non-inverting
 Rf 
operational amplifier  A = 1 +  to determine the voltage gain and
 R1 
create the truth table of the given logic circuit. However, some
candidates (30.98%) faced difficulties in drawing the diagram of an OP-
Amp circuit and in describing the logic gates to generate a truth table
and therefore they scored average marks. Extract 9.1 is a sample of
candidates' correct response.
49
50
In Extract 9.1, the candidate drew the correct truth table, circuit
diagrams and applied the correct formula and procedure to determine
the tested concepts.
Although the candidates' performance in this question was good, 25.23

per cent of the candidates scored low marks (0 - 5). Some of these
candidates had inadequate knowledge of semiconductors, OP-Amp and
digital electronics. A further loss of marks was observed among those
who lacked skills to study, draw and analyse the circuit diagrams. Some
candidates for example wrote that: the electrical conductivity of a
semiconductor increases with an increase in temperature. They also
drew a transistor circuit instead of a reverse biased diode by
interchanging the polarity of P-side connected to the cathode and N-side
to the anode. Another observed weakness in their responses was lack of
computational skills to recall and express correctly the formula that
determines the gain of the amplifier by substituting the values of Rf and
 R 
R1 interchangeably in the formula  A = 1 + f 
 R1 
51
 R   10 
Gain =  A = 1 + 1  = 1 +  = 1.1 instead of
 
R f   100 

100
Gain = A = 1 + = 11. However, a widely notable error observed in
10
most scripts of 442 (2.23%) candidates who scored zero marks was
failure to construct the truth table. Some of these candidates also drew a
non-inverting amplifier as a voltage follower instead of Op-Amps
without stating its importance. One candidate for example defined:
voltage follower as the flowing of charge from one plate to another
whose importance is to transport current, charge and create potential
difference. Others stated that voltage follower is the voltage of an Op-
Amp when an Op-amp is used without the effect of feedback. In
R
addition, application of incorrect formulae such as A r = i and
Rf
Rf
Ar = A − prevailed in their responses. Extract 9.2 is a sample of
Ri
incorrect responses.
52
Extract 9.2: A sample of incorrect responses to question 9 of paper 1
In Extract 9.2, the candidate drew an incorrect truth table, a reverse

biased diode and provided irrelevant responses to other parts of the
question.
2.10 Question 10: Electronics (The Band Theory of Solids,

Semiconductors & Transistors)
This question had three parts (a), (b) and (c). Part (a) required the
candidates to (i) sketch the circuit symbol for NPN transistor showing
the direction of convectional current (ii) identify the condition which
makes a semiconductor diode behaves as an open switch. Part (b)
53
0.5 Ω and output resistance of 45 Ω .
In part (c), the candidates were required to (i) explain the purpose of
barrier potential difference in P-N junction and (ii) identify two
advantages of junction diode and sketching its characteristic curve
which shows the way it can act as a rectifier.

per cent scored from 5.5 to 8.5 marks while 27.90 per cent scored from
0 to 5 marks. Figure 11 summarizes the performance of the candidates
in this question.
The analysis of data reveals that the overall performance in this

question was good as 72.10 per cent of the candidates scored above 5
marks. The candidates (42.85%) who scored from 9 to 15 marks
comprehended and interpreted the question correctly. Most of them
sketched a correct circuit symbol for a NPN transistor showing that they
had sufficient knowledge of transistors, semiconductors and its mode of
operation. Some candidates for example wrote: Semiconductor diode
behaves as an open switch when the diode is reverse biased because a
reverse biased diode has infinite resistance and conducts no current.
Insulators do not conduct electricity under ordinary condition, because
54
output voltage I R
Av = ⇒ A v = C O to determine the voltage gain
input voltage I B Ri
of a common emitter amplifier. Extract 10.1 shows a sample of the
correct response to this question.
55
56
In Extract 10.1, the candidate correctly applied the concepts of

transistors, semiconductors and junction diode to analyse all parts of the
question.
However, candidates (29.25%) who scored marks ranging from 5.5 to

8.5, provided relevant responses which had some errors. Some of these
errors included: failure to show the direction of a convectional current
in the circuit symbol of a NPN transistor, providing inappropriate
conditions that make a semiconductor diode to behave as an open
57
switch, failure to explain the significance of barrier potential difference
in the P-N junction and sketching its characteristic curve.
Among 1,413 (27.9%) candidates who scored 0 to 5 marks, 562

candidates corresponding to 3.31 per cent scored 0 marks. Major
weaknesses observed in the responses of those who scored zero marks
included: failure to describe the concepts of band theory of solids,
semiconductors and transistor circuits. Most of the candidates drew a
block diagram of the transistor instead of the circuit symbol for NPN
transistor. Furthermore, they applied incorrect formulae such as:
I R I R
β = B instead of Av = β o or A v = C O to evaluate the voltage gain
Ic Ri I B Ri
of amplifier. Moreover, other candidates in this category provided
inappropriate explanations about the application of semiconductor
diodes and its advantages. Some candidates for example wrote: The
advantage of a junction diode is that it acts as a switch and as an
amplifier while others wrote; the purpose of the barrier potential
difference in a P-N junction is to allow further movement of electrons
between two bands. These candidates lacked knowledge that a barrier
potential opposes more diffusion of charges across the junction and its
magnitude becomes very small when the flow ceases. However, some
of these candidates scored 5 marks because they correctly sketched the
circuit symbol of a NPN transistor and provided sufficient explanations
in part (a) (ii) or (b) (i). Extract 10.2 is a sample of incorrect responses
to this question.
58
Extract 10.2 A sample of incorrect responses to question 10 of paper 1
In Extract 10.2, the candidate provided irrelevant responses on the

tested concepts.
59
The 131/2 Physics 2 contained six (6) structured questions, which were
set from six topics. The topics included Fluid Dynamics, Vibrations and
Waves, Properties of Matter, Electrostatics, Electromagnetism and
Atomic Physics. Each question carried 20 marks. The analysis of each
question is as follows:
3.1 Question 1: Fluid Dynamics
candidates to (i) give the meaning of laminar flow as used in fluid
dynamics (ii) state continuity equation for the incompressible fluid
flowing through the pipe and (iii) identify two assumptions made to
develop an equation in 1 (a) (ii). In part (b), they were given 0.56
seconds taken by a steel ball bearing of diameter 8.0 mm to fall through
oil at steady speed over a vertical distance of 0.2 m and they were
required to determine the (i) weight of the ball (ii) upthrust on the ball
and (iii) the viscosity of the oil. In part (c) they were given a large tank
which contains water to a depth of 1m and water emerges from the
small hole in the side of the tank 20 cm below the level of the surface.
The candidates were tasked to calculate (i) the speed at which water
emerges from the hole (ii) the distance from the base of the tank at
which water strikes the floor on which the tank is standing.
The question was attempted by 23,001 candidates, equivalent to 99.34

per cent and their scores were as follows: 33.63 per cent scored from 0
to 6.5 marks, 36.37 per cent scored from 7 to 11.5 marks while 30.00
per cent scored from 12 to 20 marks. Figure 12 illustrates overall
performance of this question.
60
The data shows good candidates’ performance in this question, since

76.37 per cent scored above 6.5 marks.
The analysis reveals that 677 (33.63%) candidates who scored low
marks (0 – 6.5) faced difficulties in answering the question. In part (a),
most of the candidates failed to give the meaning of a laminar flow, to
state the continuity equation and assumptions made to develop the
continuity equation. Some of their responses for example were:
Laminar flow is the type of flow in which the speed is constant
throughout the flow instead of Laminar flow is the type of flow in which
the velocities of all particles in any given streamline are always the
same. Likewise, in part (b) some of them applied incorrect formulas in
4
determining the weight of the ball as F = 6πηr instead of W = πr 3 ρg .
3
However, for those who applied the correct formula, they failed to
identify the required height between the depth of water in the tank (1 m)
and height from the surface of water to the hole (20 cm) in determining
the speed at which water emerged from the hole. Moreover, some of
these candidates provided the correct formula but they used the height
in centimetres instead of metres as required in the expression v = 2 gh
which led them provide incorrect values in part (c). Extract 11.1
illustrates a sample of incorrect responses.
61
62
63
64
In extract 11.1, the candidate wrote the incorrect meaning of Laminar

flow and the description of continuity equation. The assumptions made
to develop the continuity equation were also incorrect. In addition,
he/she used inappropriate concepts and applied incorrect formula to
obtain the weight, upthrust and viscosity of the oil in part (b).
Furthermore, he/she used incorrect height to determine the speed at
which water emerges from the hole and the distance from the base of
the tank to which water strikes the floor in part (c).
65
However, 30 per cent of the candidates who attempted this question
scored high marks (12 – 20). Most of these candidates correctly
provided the meaning of the laminar flow, the continuity equation for
the incompressible fluid flow and assumptions that they made to
develop the continuity equation. They also applied the correct formula
to determine the weight of the ball, the upthrust on the ball and the
viscosity of the oil. Consequently, their computational skills enabled
them to obtain the correct values of the weight of the ball, the upthrust
and the viscosity of oil. Moreover, some of them used the concept of
Torricelli’s theorem to determine the speed at which water emerges
from the hole and the distance from the base of the tank to the point
where water strikes the floor. Extract 11.2 shows correct responses to
this question.
66
67
68
Extract 11.2: A sample of correct responses to question 1of paper 2
In Extract 11.2, the candidate provided the correct meaning of laminar

flow and the continuity equation for the incompressible fluid flowing
through the pipe. In addition, the candidate identified assumptions made
69
to develop the continuity equation. In part (b), the candidate applied the
correct equation to determine the weight, the upthrust and viscosity of
the oil. The candidate also sketched a clear diagram in part (c) and
applied the correct formula to calculate the required speed and the
distance.
3.2 Question 2: Vibrations and Waves
This question comprised of three parts (a), (b) and (c). Part (a) required
the candidates to (i) give two points which differentiate stationary wave
from a progressive wave (ii) state the principle of superposition as
applied in wave motion and (iii) determine the phase difference in
radians from a given progressive wave equation
 20 
y = 0.4 sin  200πt − πx  between a point 0.25 m from the fixed point
 17 
and a point 1.1 m from the same fixed point when y is in metre and t in
seconds. In part (b), they were required to (i) explain the reason that
changes in pressure will not affect the velocity of sound and (ii)
calculate the temperature at which the velocity of sound in air becomes
twice than the velocity in air at 0 ℃. Part (c) required the candidates to
(i) give reasons for an empty vessel to produce more sound than a filled
one and (ii) compute the wavelengths and frequencies of the three
lowest frequency modes of vibrations from a closed organ pipe of
length 0.68 m.
A total of 20,306 candidates, equivalent to 87.73 per cent attempted this

question and their scores were as follows; 46.86 per cent scored from 0
to 6.5 marks, 32.32 per cent scored from 7 to 11.5 marks and 20.82 per
cent scored from 12 to 20 marks. The score was average since 53.14 per
cent of the candidates attempted the question scored from 7 to 20
marks. Figure 13 illustrates the candidates’ performances in this
question.
70
The analysis of the scores shows that 46.86 per cent of the candidates
scored low marks (0 – 6.5). These candidates provided inappropriate
responses which contained various weaknesses. Such weaknesses
included: failure to differentiate a stationary wave from a progressive
wave and recall the correct formula to determine the phase difference
between two fixed points. In addition, they failed to compare the
 t x
progressive wave equation y = a sin 2π  −  with the given
T λ 
 20 
expression y = 0.4 sin  200πt − πx  to determine the phase
 17 
difference. Some of the candidates for example applied the correct
2ππΔ
formula Δθ = Δx = 1.1 cm
λ
instead of ∆x = 1.1 cm − 0.25 cm
π radian or 180o. Likewise, others wrote: phase difference,
2πt 2πx
k= or 200π radians while others wrote: phase difference φ =
λ λ
2πx 20πx
instead of = . Another observed weakness was failure to
λ 17
associate the relationship of pressure and density to give a reason why
change in pressure does not affect the velocity of sound in air. These
71
candidates failed to understand that, change in pressure causes change
γP ∆P
in density as prescribed in the equation v = . Since the term
ρ ∆ρ
always remains constant then changes of pressure do not affect the
velocity of sound. Consequently, few candidates failed to apply the
correct relationship of velocity and absolute temperature. They wrote
v1 v2 p1v1 p2v2
for instance: = , = and V ∝ T instead of V ∝ T or
T1 T2 T1 T2
v2 T
= 2 ended with incorrect responses. Moreover, some of these
v1 T1
candidates failed to identify how the magnitude of amplitude varies
with the intensity of a sound wave. These candidates provided incorrect
reasons that make an empty vessel to produce more sound than a filled
one. One of the candidates for example wrote: An empty vessel
produces more sound than the filled one because the empty vessel
produce a high pitch compared to filled one. In addition, they applied
n T 4
incorrect formulae such as f = instead of λ3 = L and
2L µ 5
c
f3 = to determine the wavelength and frequency respectively.
λ3
Extract 12.1 is a sample of incorrect responses to this question.
72
In Extract 12.1, the candidate failed to give the correct features which
distinguish the stationary wave from a progressive wave. The candidate
failed to show the relationship of pressure and density to explain why
change of pressure in air does not give any effect on the velocity of
sound. Furthermore, the candidate explained the concept of echo as the
reason for the empty vessel to produce more sound than the filled one
which was incorrect.
A few candidates (20.82%) scored high marks (12 – 20) as they

demonstrated their competence on the subject matter. Most of these
candidates differentiated a progressive wave from a stationary wave and
deduced correctly the principle of superposition of waves. Furthermore,
they applied the correct formula to determine the phase difference
between two points from the given expression. In part (b) and (c), they
applied their numerical skills to compute temperature, wavelengths and
frequencies. Whereas, most of the candidates who scored average marks
(7 – 11.5) attempted some parts of the question and skipped other parts.
Extract 12.2 is a sample of a candidate's correct responses.
73
74
75
76
77
78
In Extract 12.2, the candidate correctly distinguished a stationary wave

from a progressive wave, stated the principle of superposition of waves
and calculated the phase difference. The candidate also applied the
correct formulae and procedures to provide the correct responses in part
(b) and (c).
3.3 Question 3: Properties of Matter
candidates to (i) give the meaning of modulus of elasticity and modulus
of rigidity as used in properties of matter and (ii) calculate the shearing
strain and shearing stress of an aluminium cube having dimensions of
4cm x 4cm x 4cm and modulus of rigidity of 2.08 x 1010 N/m2 when
subjected to a tangential force and its top face sheared by a length of
0.012 cm with respect to the bottom. In part (b), they were given a
rubber cord of a catapult having a cross- sectional area of 2 mm2 and
79
initial length of 0.2 m, stretched to 0.24 m in order to fire a small object
of mass 10 g and they were required to compute, (i) the energy stored in
the rubber and (ii) the initial velocity of the object as it just leaves the
catapult. In part (c), they were required to (i) give brief explanations on
the classification of the materials based on their elastic properties and
(ii) give a reason that makes spring balances to show wrong readings
after they have been used for a long time.
scores were as follows: 29.20 per cent scored from 0 to 6.5 marks,
34.08 per cent scored from 7 to 11.5 marks and 36.72 per cent scored
from 12 to 20 marks. These scores indicate that the candidates'
performance in this question was good as 70.80 per cent of them scored
from 7 to 20 marks. Figure 14 presents a summary of the candidate’s
performance.
In attempting this question, 36.72 per cent of the candidates scored high
marks (12 – 20). These candidates interpreted correctly the demands of
the question. Most of them gave the correct meaning of the terms
modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity as used in properties of
matter. They showed their competence by applying the correct formula
and procedure to calculate shear strain and shear stress. Another noted
strength in their responses was the acquisition of knowledge about the
concepts of strain energy. This enabled them to apply the correct
formula to calculate the energy stored in the rubber and the initial
velocity of the object as it just leaves the catapult but also to classify
80
materials into Ductile, Brittle and Elastomers. Extract 13.1 presents an
example of correct responses from one of these candidates.
81
82
83
In Extract 13.1 the candidate correctly provided the meaning of

modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity and calculated the
shearing strain, shearing stress, extension and energy stored. The
candidate applied the principle of mechanical energy to relate the
kinetic energy and the elastic energy stored in the rubber. Likewise, the
candidate sketched the correct diagrams to classify the materials based
on their elastic properties.
The candidates (29.20%) who scored low marks (0 - 6.5) marks

provided inappropriate responses to this question. Most of them
confused the definition of the terms modulus of elasticity and modulus
of rigidity. They also applied incorrect formulae to determine shearing
strain, shearing stress, energy stored and initial velocity of the object as
it just leaves the catapult. Most of these candidates failed to interpret the
information of the given data in their responses. In part (b) for example
some candidates used 0.24 m as the extension instead of 0.04 m while
mv 2 1 1
others applied the formula: force mg = instead of Fe = mv 2 to
r 2 2
determine the initial velocity of the object. In part (c), most of these
candidates faced difficulties in classifying materials based on the elastic
properties. One of these candidates for example wrote: elastic materials
are divided into three parts which are plastic material, cooper wire and
silver wire while another candidate wrote: spring balance show wrong
readings because of being not calibrated to zero reading for a long
time. These candidates failed to understand that plastic, copper and
silver are examples of materials which belong to one of the three classes
84
which are ductile materials, brittle materials and elastomers materials.
Similarly, if a material is repeatedly stressed and unstressed, it becomes
weaker such that the strain produced by a given amount of stress
increases. Due to this reason, the spring balances which have been used
for a long time give wrong readings. Extract 13.2 portrays a sample of
an incorrect response to this question.
85
In Extract 13.2 the candidate provided incorrect meaning of modulus of

elasticity and modulus of rigidity. In part (b), the candidate applied
1
incorrect formula of energy: E = × stress × strain instead of:
2
1
E = Fe to find the energy stored in the rubber. In part (c), the
2
candidate provided the terminologies of elasticity instead of classifying
the materials based on their elastic properties.
86
3.4 Question 4: Electrostatics
This question consisted of three parts (a), (b) and (c). In part (a), the
candidates were required to (i) distinguish between electric dipole and
dipole field and in (ii) they were given an electric dipole which consists
of two charges of +20 µC and -20 µC separated by a small distance of
‘2a’ in a free space and were required to calculate the electric field
intensity at a point on the axial line of the dipole at a distance of 10 cm
from the centre of the dipole. In part (b) the candidates were given
Figure 1 which has two points; A and B in it and they were required to
(i) identify by giving reasons the point at which the electric field
intensity is expected to be high
Figure 1
−16
and (ii) find the charge on the ball having a mass of 8.4 × 10 kg
suspended in a uniform electric field of 2.6 × 10 4 V/m. In part (c), the
candidates were required to (i) give the meaning of the term electric
potential and (ii) calculate the electric potential at the surface of a silver
nucleus of radius 3.4 × 10 −14 m given that the atomic number of silver
and charge ‘e’ on proton are 47 and 1.6 × 10 −16 respectively.
This question was attempted by 16,137 candidates, which corresponds

to 69.72 per cent. The analysis of data reveals that 36.56 per cent of the
candidates scored from 0 to 6.5 marks, 35.94 per cent scored from 7 to
11.5 marks while 27.50 per cent scored from 12 to 20 marks. These
scores shows that 63.44 per cent of the candidates scored from 7 marks
and above which portrays good performance. Figure 15 summarizes the
candidates' performance in this question.
87
The analysis of data reveals that among 16,137 (69.70%) candidates

who attempted this question, 36.56 per cent scored low marks (0 – 6.5).
This was mainly caused by partial understanding of the subject matter.
Most of these candidates lacked knowledge to describe the concepts of
electric field of a point charge and electric field intensity for simple
symmetrical charge distribution. In part (a) they failed to distinguish
electric dipole from dipole field but also to use the correct formulae to
calculate the electric field intensity. Some of these candidates for
e
example applied the incorrect formula such as E = k 2 instead of
r
2P
E P = k 3 . Another noted weakness in their responses was observed in
x
part (b) where they were required to identify the point at which the
electric field intensity was expected to be high. Most candidates chose
point B as they failed to understand that, electric field intensity is more
at a point/place where the electric lines of force are closely spaced.
Moreover, in part (c) some of these candidates lacked knowledge about
the concept of electric potential due to a charge distribution. These
1 r 4π r
candidates applied incorrect formulae such as and
4πε o q εo q
1 q
instead of to calculate the electric potential. Extract 14.1 is a
4πε ο r
sample of incorrect responses to this question.
88
Extract 14.1: A sample of incorrect responses to Question 4 of Paper 2
89
In Extract 14.1, the candidate provided incorrect responses on electric
dipole, dipole field and electric field intensity. The candidate failed to
apply the concepts of Coulomb’s law, gravitational force and electric
potential to determine the charge on the ball and electric potential at the
surface of a silver nucleus respectively.
Moreover, 27.50 per cent of the candidates who scored high marks (12
– 20) had enough knowledge about the subject matter. They gave clear
descriptions which distinguished electric dipole from a dipole field. In
addition, most of such candidates applied appropriate formula to
calculate the electric field intensity. They also used their knowledge
about electric field and electric potential to identify correctly the point
where the electric field is stronger. Most of these candidates applied
appropriate formulae and procedures to calculate the electric field
intensity and electric potential. Generally, the variation of scores in this
question was caused by the candidates’ differences in providing
irrelevant responses in some parts of the question. Extract 14.2, presents
a sample of correct responses provided by one of these candidates.
90
91
92
In Extract 14.2, the candidate correctly distinguished the electric dipole

from dipole field. The candidate also applied the correct formula to
calculate the electric field intensity and electric potential at the surface
of the silver nucleus radius. Moreover, the candidate provided the
correct meaning of electric potential and identified the point where the
electric field intensity is high.
93
3.5 Question 5: Electromagnetism
This question had three parts: (a), (b) and (c). Part (a) required the
candidates to (i) explain the production of magnetic field in a moving
coil galvanometer and (ii) differentiate a wire carrying current from
another wire carrying no current. In part (b), the candidates were
required to (i) identify four factors which affect the magnitude of force
exerted by the magnetic field on the charge and (ii) describe with the
aid of a well labelled diagram the principle, construction and mode of
action of a moving coil galvanometer. Part (c) required the candidates
to (i) explain the reason of the force that a current carrying conductor
experiences in magnetic field and (ii) calculate the strength of the
magnetic field produced if a force of 1.09 × 10 −11 N is acting on a proton
which enters a magnetic field with a speed of 3.4 × 10 7 m/s in a
direction perpendicular to the field.
The analysis reveals that 13,801 (59.62%) candidates attempted this

question. Among them, 45.29 per cent scored from 0 to 6.5 marks,
44.38 per cent scored from 7 to 11.5 marks and 10.33 per cent scored
from 12 to 20 marks. Despite having a reasonable number of candidates
(45.29%), who failed the general candidates’ performance in this
question was average as more than a half passed by scoring 7 marks or
above. Figure 16 presents these scores.
100
90
80
70
60
50 45.29 44.38
40
30
20 10.33
10
0
0 - 6.5 7 - 11.5 12 - 20
Scores

94
The candidates (45.29%) who scored from 0 to 6.5 marks had several
mistakes including provision of unclear explanations about the:
production of magnetic field in a moving coil galvanometer, factors that
affect the magnitude of force exerted by magnetic field on the charge
and reasons that makes a current carrying conductor to experience a
force in a magnetic field. In part (a) (ii) for example one candidate
wrote: the wire carrying current contain more electrons while the wire
carrying no current contain more neutrons than electrons which are at
rest. This candidate failed to understand that a wire carrying a current
contains free electrons which move in a definite direction such that it
produces magnetic fields while a wire not carrying current does not
produce any magnetic field because it contain electrons which are in
random motion such that their average velocity in a particular direction
is zero. Another shortcoming observed in part (b) (ii) was that most of
the candidates provided incorrect diagrams of the moving coil
galvanometer without providing basic features such as two half ring
magnets with opposite poles, coil in soft iron cylinder core, pivoted
spring, scale and a pointer. In part (c), some of these candidates applied
mv 2
incorrect formulae such as: = Bqv instead of F = Bev sin θ or
r
F
B= to calculate the magnetic field strength which leds them to
ev sin θ
provide incorrect responses. Extract 15.1 represents a sample of
incorrect responses to this question.
95
In Extract 15.1, the candidate incorrectly explained the force of

attraction as the source of a magnetic field, but also the responses given
in part (a) (ii), (b) (i) and (c) (i) were incorrect. The candidate failed to
provide a diagram which could be used to describe the principle,
construction and mode of action of a moving coil galvanometer.
96
v
B= to calculate the
F
strength of the magnetic field.
The candidates (10.33%) who scored marks ranging from 12 to 20,

portrayed a good knowledge of the concept of electromagnetism. They
were competent because they analysed correctly the tested concepts.
Most of them provided a clear description of the production of magnetic
field in a moving coil galvanometer. One candidate for instance wrote:
the curved poles and the soft iron cylinder produces the magnetic field
in the air gap such that the coil is always parallel to the field
experiencing a constant torque whose magnitude is given by τ = BANI .
Other candidates in this category presented a well labelled diagram of a
moving coil galvanometer and a description of its working principle and
mode of action. Moreover, these candidates gave reasons which make a
current carrying conductor experience force in a magnetic field. The
reasons they provided included: when current flows in a conductor free
electrons drift in a definite direction such that it tend to experience a
force in the magnetic field which is transmitted to the conductor as a
whole.
However, a number of candidates (44.38%) scored average marks (7 –
11.5) as they provided irrelevant responses especially in the parts which
required sketching of a diagram and use of mathematical skills to
analyse the tested concepts. In part (c) (i) for example some candidates
wrote: Because the current is attracted by a magnetic force, because of
the attraction between the magnetic lines of force and electrons of the
current carrying conductor. Moreover, some of these candidates
applied the correct formula such as: F = qVB sin θ but failed to analyse
and substitute the data correctly in calculating the strength of a
magnetic field. Extract 15.2 represents a sample of correct responses
from one of the candidates.
97
98
99
Extract 15.2: A sample of correct responses to Question 5 of Paper 2
In Extract 15.2, the candidate applied correct formula and appropriate

procedures in performing calculations. However, the candidate sketched
a diagram of a moving coil galvanometer without indicating the basic
features such as pointer, cylindrical soft iron core and the pivoted
spring.
3.6 Question 6: Atomic Physics
candidates to (i) explain the stability of an atom is related to its binding
energy and (ii) use the given nuclear reaction equation:
4
7
3 Li +11H →2 24 He + 17.3MeV 2 He in a.m.u, when the
100
7 1
2 Li and 1 H are 7.0186 a.m.u and 1.00813 a.m.u
respectively. In part (b), they were required to (i) give reasons that
make a neutron be a most effective bombarding particle in nuclear
3
reactions and (ii) determine the time taken for of its original mass of
4
radioactive substance with half-life of 30 days to disintegrate. Part (c)
required the candidates to determine (i) the work function of the metal
and (ii) the stopping potential for the photoelectrons ejected by a longer
wave length in an experiment which accounts for the photoelectric
effect phenomenon in which students noted some electrons in
hydrogen-like atoms (Z= 3) making transition from fifth to fourth orbit
and from fourth to third orbit such that the resulting radiations were
incident normally on a metal plate ejecting photoelectrons given that the
stopping potential for the photoelectrons ejected by a shorter
wavelength is 3.96 V.

scores were distributed as follows: 43.82 per cent scored from 0 to 6.5
marks; 38.80 per cent scored from 7 to 11.5 marks and 17.38 per cent
scored from 12 to 20 marks. This indicates that the general performance
in this question was average since 56.18 per cent of the candidates
scored from 7 to 20 marks. Figure 17 summarizes the candidates’
performance in this question.
Figure 17: Candidates' scores in question 6 of paper 2
101
The candidates (43.82%) who scored from 0 to 6.5 marks provided
insufficient descriptions. In part (a) (i), some candidates provided
relevant explanation on how stability of an atom is related to its binding
energy but scored zero in part (a) (ii). In part (b) (i) for instance they
provided a reason that makes neutron to be a most effective bombarding
particle in nuclear reactions but they scored zero in part (b) (ii). These
candidates revealed poor understanding of the subject matter as they
failed to identify criteria for stable and unstable nucleus such that they
3
could determine the time taken for of its original mass of radioactive
4
substance with the half-life of 30 days to disintegrate. Some candidates
3
for example directly used the given fraction instead of using the
4
t
N0 − N 3 N 1 N  1 T
formula = which leads to = and =   as a
N0 4 N0 4 N0  2 
remaining fraction of mass in analysing the time taken, t given that T =
30 days. In part (c), most of these candidates failed to account for the
photoelectric effect phenomenon for deducing the work function for
stopping potential of a metal. They used Bohr’s equation of the
1  1 1 
hydrogen atom for example = RH  2 − 2  instead of the Bohr’s
λ  n1 n2 
1  1 1 
model for hydrogen-like atoms = Z 2 RH  2 − 2  and the Einstein
λ  n1 n2 
hc
quantum theory equation = W0 + eV to determine the tested
λ
concepts. Extract 16.1 represents a sample of incorrect responses to this
question.
102
103
104
105
In Extract 16.1, the candidate provided inappropriate responses in most

n
N 1
parts of the question and applied wrong formulae such as o =  
N 2
n
N 1
instead of =   to find the time taken but also, the wavelength
No  2 
equation of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom instead of the wavelength
equation of Bohr’s model for hydrogen-like atoms and ended up getting
incorrect values of work function and stopping potential.
Despite having some knowledge of atomic Physics specifically in the

Structure of the Atom, Nuclear physics and Quantum physics some
candidates got average scores (from 7 to 11.5 marks) due to: failure to
provide a detailed clarification in part (a) (i) and (b) (i) and lack of
mathematical skills to recall theories and laws to establish expressions
used in solving the tasks. However, 17.38 per cent of the candidates
who scored high marks (12 – 20) had a good understanding about the
relation of nuclear mass and binding energy as they applied the given
4
data to determine the mass of 2 He
3
of the original mass of a radioactive substance to
4
disintegrate. Therefore, such candidates correctly applied the hydrogen
106
1 
 1 1
like atoms equation  and the photoelectric effect
= Z 2 R H  2 − 2
λ 
 n1
 n2
hc
phenomenon equation for a longer wavelength = W0 + eV1 to
λ1
evaluate the work function and stopping potential respectively. Extract
16.2 is a sample of correct responses to this question.
107
108
109
110
In Extract 16.2, the candidate correctly provided the relationship

between binding energy and the stability of an atom and applied
formulae correctly to find the mass of helium nucleus. In addition the
candidate provided relevant descriptions about a neutron being the most
effective bombarding particle as well as establishing the required
expressions/formulae to compute time, work function and the stopping
potential for the ejected photoelectrons.

Physics Paper 3 had three alternatives of Actual Practical Papers which

are 131/3A Physics 3A, 131/3B Physics 3B and 131/3C Physics 3C.
Each alternative paper comprised of three questions. Question 1 carried
20 marks while questions 2 and 3 carried 15 marks each. Question 1
was set from the topic of Mechanics; question 2 from Heat and question
3 was from Current Electricity. The candidates’ response analysis for
each question is as follows:
111
4.1 Question 1: Mechanics
This part consisted of three questions derived from the topic of

Mechanics. It is a collection of questions from each alternative papers,
Physics 3A, 3B and 3C. The analyses of these questions are as follows:
A total of 23,141 (100%) candidates attempted these questions. Among

them, 20.44 per cent scored from 0 to 6.5 marks, 20.52 per cent scored
from 7 to 11.5 marks and 59.04 per cent scored from 12 to 20 marks.
The analysis reveals that the candidates’ general performance in these
questions was good as 79.56 per cent of the candidates scored 7 marks
or above. Figure18 summarizes candidates’ performance.
Figure18: Candidates' performance in question 1 of paper 3
4.1.1 Physics 3A
The candidates were required to perform an experiment according to the

following instruction:
(a) Tie up the given metal ring suspended from the retort stand, then
tie a pendulum bob at the lower position of the ring as shown in
Figure 1.
112
Figure 1
(b) Starting with the length L = 30 cm, displace the bob slightly side
way and then release it in such a way that it oscillates in a
horizontal plane. Determine the time, t for 20 complete
oscillations and the value of T.
(c) Repeat the procedure in 1 (a) and (b) for L = 40 cm, 50 cm, 60 cm
and 70 cm in each experiment and record the value of t and T.
Questions
(i) Tabulate the results of L, t, T, and T2

(ii) Plot a graph of L (cm) against T2 (s2).
(iii) From the graph, read and record the value of L at T2 = 0.
(iv) What is the significance of the value obtained in 1(iii)?
(v) What is the aim of doing this experiment?
The candidates (59.04%) who scored high marks (12 – 20) had
adequate knowledge of the tested concepts in Mechanics. Most of them
were competent in setting the experiment, collecting the data, analysing
and applying mathematical skills to obtain the required solution. They
also used the collected data and followed the required procedures of
plotting the graph of L against T2. Moreover, some of them correctly
interpreted the plotted graph by reading and recording the value of L at
T2 = 0 which helped them to state the significance of the value of L
obtained and the aim of doing the given experiment. Extract 17.1 is a
sample of the candidate’s correct responses.
113
114
Extract 17.1: A sample of correct responses to question 1 of paper 3A
115
In Extract 17.1, the candidate collected the correct data in the table of
results and used them to plot the graph of L (cm) against the T2 (s2).
Then, he/she applied the equation of a period of oscillation of the
simple pendulum to obtain the equation which related to the graph
plotted. Similarly, this candidate obtained the value of L when the value
T2 = 0 and stated correctly its significance and aim of doing the
experiment.
A few candidates (20.44%) scored low marks (0 – 6.5). Most of these

candidates had insufficient practical skills in setting the length of the
cotton thread from the metal ring to the point of attachment as
instructed in Figure 1. Another noted weakness in their responses was
candidates’ lack of mathematical skills of using the theory of a simple
pendulum in deducing the required equation of simple pendulum when
attached with a metal ring and a bob. These candidates were required to
L
recall the equation of a simple pendulum T = 2π such that by
g
adding with the diameter of the ring, d and the distance from the centre
of the bob to the point at which the bob is attached to the ring, c they
L+d+c
could get the expression T = 2π . Using numerical skills the
g
g 2
candidates could obtain the required equation L = T − (d + c ) in
4π 2
which the significance of the value of L at T2 = 0 is the
L − intercept = −(d + c) . In addition, the graphs presented by these
candidates lacked some of the basic features such as the title of the
graph, the axes, the proper scales and the best fit lines. Moreover, some
of these candidates plotted the graph to determine the slope instead of
the intercept which led them to provide incorrect responses in other
parts of the question. Extract 17.2 is a sample of incorrect responses to
this question.
116
117
118
Extract 17.2: A sample of incorrect responses to question 1 of paper 3A
In Extract 17.2, the candidate failed to indicate the units used in the
table of results and plotted the graph without units in horizontal axis
and recorded the value of L at T2 = 0 without stating its significance.
Moreover, the aim of performing this experiment provided by the
candidate was not correct.
119
4.1.2 Physics 3B
In this question, the candidates were required to examine the

oscillations of a simple pendulum using the given apparatus. The
candidates were required to proceed as follows:
(a) Suspend a pendulum bob from the length L equals to 0.90 m and
displace it through a small angle so that it swings parallel to the
edge of the bench.
(b) Determine the time, t for 20 oscillations and the corresponding
periodic time, T.
(c) Repeat the procedures in 1 (a) and (b) above for the values of L =
0.70 m, 0.50 m, 0.30 m, and 0.10 m.
Questions
(i) Record your readings in a table including the values of log L and
logT.
(ii) Plot a graph of log10 T against log10 L.
(iii) Use the graph in 1 (ii) to resolve the values of constants n and k
from the equation Ln = Tk −1 .
The analysis of data reveals that 59.04 per cent of the candidates scored
high marks (12 – 20). These candidates had adequate knowledge to
perform the experiment correctly. Most of them used numerical skills to
relate the given equation and the results from the graph to obtain the
value of n and k. In addition, they collected and tabulated correctly the
table of results and used proper procedures in plotting and interpreting
the graph. Furthermore, most of these candidates applied the given
n
equation Ln = Tk −1 to establish the equation T = kL after which they
applied logarithmic function on both sides to obtain the equation
log10 T = n log10 L + log k . Furthermore, they interpreted this equation
by relating it with the general equation of a straight line y = mx + c to
obtain the significance of the slope of the graph and the value of
log10T − intercept . The correct responses were as follows: slope = n ≈
(0.5 ± 0.05) and log10 T − intercept = log10 k ≈ 0.2 to 0.38 which gives the
120
value of k ≈ 1.58 to 2.4. Extract 18.1 is a sample of a candidates’
correct responses.
121
Extract 18.1: A sample of correct responses to question 1 of paper 3B
122
In Extract 18.1, the candidate tabulated the correct data in the table of
results and drew the graph with the required aspects. He/she applied
numerical skills to deduce the necessary equations for analysing the
values of n and k from the graph.
However, 20.44 per cent of the candidates scored low marks (0 – 6.5)
due to several weaknesses. Such weakness include: Lack of knowledge
of using stop a watch for recording the time t (s) for 20 oscillations as a
result they incorrectly determined the periodic time, T and failed to
present the data graphically. Another mistake was the failure to abide to
the important features when drawing a graph which include; the title,
the axes, the scales used and the slope indication. Furthermore, some of
the candidates failed to: analyse the information from the graph and to
deduce the intended equation which could lead them to the correct value
of n and k. Extract 18.2 is an example of one of the candidates’
incorrect responses.
123
Extract 18.2: A sample of incorrect responses to question 1 of paper 3B
124
In Extract 18.2, the candidate failed to collect the time t for 20
oscillations in seconds and drew an incorrect graph. The candidate also
failed to derive the required equation in order to obtain the values of n
and k from the graph.
4.1.3 Physics 3C
The candidates were provided with a half metre rule, metre rule, two
retort stands and two pieces of threads. The candidates were required to
proceed as follows:
(a) Set up the apparatus as shown in the following figure 1 with the
length of threads L= 60cm.The flat side of the ruler with a scale
must be horizontal.
Figure 1
(b) Set the threads very near to the ends; such that, distance d is 50
cm. Displace the ends of the ruler through a small angle along
the horizontal plane so that it swings. Determine the time, t for
20 complete oscillations and the corresponding periodic time, T.
Also to record the distance d between the threads.
(c) Without removing the retort stands, adjust the threads 5cm from
each end to make the distance d = 40cm, then repeat the
125
procedure in 1 (b). Continue moving the threads from each end
by 5cm to obtain a total of five readings.
Questions
1 -1
(i) Tabulate the values of d (m), t(s), T(s) and (m ).
d
1 -1
(ii) Plot a graph of T(s) against (m ).
d
(iii) Use the graph in 1 (ii) and the equation
3
0.31π L
d= + Constant , determine the value of acceleration
T g
due to gravity, g.
Data analysis reveals that 59.04 per cent of the candidates who scored
high marks (12 – 20) had adequate knowledge of the subject matter.
Most of these candidates demonstrated their practical skills in
performing the experiment. They managed for example to set up the
given apparati as instructed, they collected the data which was in a good
range and presented it in the tabular form. Another competence which
verified their skills was the interpretation of data collected in plotting
the graph of period T (s) against the reciprocal of distance d (m-1) where
by most of them got it right. Moreover, some of these candidates used
0.31π L3
the plotted graph and the given equation d = + constant to
T g
analyse the slope and acceleration due to gravity g. Extract 19.1 is a
sample of a correct response to this question.
126
127
Extract 19.1 A sample of correct responses to question 1 of paper 3C.
128
In Extract 19.1, the candidate presented the correct data in tabular form
and plotted the correct graph containing all aspects. The candidate also
deduced the value of the slope and used it to determine the acceleration
due to gravity, g.
A few candidates, (20.44%) scored low marks (0 – 6.5) due to various

reasons. Most of these candidates faced difficulties in setting the given
apparatii to start oscillations of the entire system. It was noted that,
some of them displaced the ruler along the vertical plane when
recording the time, t for 20 oscillations as a result they obtained
incorrect values of the periodic time, T. In addition, they drew graphs
using incorrect data values without indicating some of the important
aspects such as; the title, axes, scales, the best line and slope indication.
Another candidates’ weakness noted in their responses was failure to
suggest the suitable scale based on the data collected. This affected
most of the candidates when transferring the data to choose the points
when drawing the best-fit line. However, variation of marks occurred
because some of the candidates failed to deduce the relationship
031π L3
between T and d-1 from the given equation, d = + constant
T g
L3 1
to formulate the equation T = 0.31π + A used to determine the
g d
slope and acceleration due to gravity g. Extract 19.2 is a sample of a
candidates’ incorrect responses to the question.
129
130
Extract 19.2: A sample of an incorrect response to question 1 of paper 3C
In Extract 19.2, the candidate tabulated the incorrect values of time t (s)
for 20 complete oscillations and failed to change the values of distance
d in a metre as instructed in 1 (i). The candidate also lacked skills of
using proper scales to transfer the data into the graph and ended with
incorrect values of slope and acceleration due to gravity, g.
4.2 Question 2: Heat
This part contained three questions from the topic of Heat. It is a

collection of questions from three alternatives papers, physics 3A, 3B
and 3C. The analysis of these questions is as follows:
The questions were attempted by 23,141 candidates equivalent to 100

per cent, out of which 16.95 per cent scored from 0 to 5 marks, 26.19
131
to 15 marks. This shows that the candidates’ performance in these
questions was good since 83.05 per cent scored from 5.5 to 15 marks.
Figure 19 presents a summary of candidates' performance in this
question.
100
90
80
70
56.86
60
50
40
30 26.19
16.95
20
10
0
0-5 5.5 - 8.5 9 - 15
Scores
4.2.1 Physics 3A
The candidates were provided with a beam balance, thermometer,

calorimeter with its lid and stirrer and a hot liquid labelled B. They
were then required to:
(a) Weigh an empty calorimeter with its lid and stirrer and record its
mass as M1.
(b) Fill the calorimeter to about two-thirds full with a liquid B that has
been heated to a temperature of about 85 oC.
(c) While stirring, insert the thermometer and start the stopwatch.
Read and record the temperature after every 2 minutes intervals as
the liquid cools under forced conditions to a temperature of about
55 oC.
(d) After cooling the liquid B to about 55 oC, remove the thermometer
and weight the calorimeter with its contents and record its mass as
M.
(e) Find the mass of liquid B and record it as M2.
132
Questions
(i) Tabulate your results of time (seconds) and the temperature in

(oC).
(ii) Plot a cooling curve for liquid B.
(iii) Draw the tangent at the temperature of 70 oC and obtain the rate of
cooling of liquid B.
dθ
(iv) Use the equation (M 2 C B + 400M 1 ) = 10.096Js −1 and the value
dt
obtained in 2 (iii) to calculate the specific heat capacity of liquid B
(CB).
More than a half (56.86%) of the candidates who attempted this

question scored high marks (9 - 15). Most of the candidates had enough
knowledge of performing an experiment involving the rate of cooling
under forced convection. Their responses illustrated their skills of
collecting data and plotting the graph of the cooling curve. This
suggests that these candidates had good masterly of the subject matter
especially in the concept of Newton’s law of cooling. Candidates also
were able to show the necessary features in plotting the graph including
the title of the graph, the scales, the axes with their respective units and
the best curve. Moreover, some of them obtained the correct value of
the rate of cooling by drawing the correct tangent in the curve at the
temperature of 70 oC and used the value obtained and the given relation
to calculate the specific heat capacity of liquid B.
The scores of the candidates (26.19%) who scored average (5.5 – 8.5)
marks varied due to their diverse ability in organizing and analysing
their responses. Some of them for example lacked computational and
drawing skills which led to loss of marks. Furthermore, they lacked
mathematical skills to associate the tangent obtained at a temperature of
70 o C and the rate of cooling of liquid B with the equation
dθ
(M 2 C B + 400M 1 ) = 10.096Js −1 to evaluate the required specific heat
dt
capacity of liquid B. Extract 20.1 provides a sample of a candidate’s
correct response.
133
134
135
Extract 20.1: A sample of correct responses to question 2 of paper 3A
In Extract 20.1 the candidate correctly collected the data, plotted the
graph and determined the rate of cooling at 70 oC as well as the specific
heat capacity of liquid B.
On contrary,16. 95 per cent of the candidates scored low marks (0 – 5)

due to a number of reasons that included: Failure to follow instruction
on how to measure and record the data by using either a thermometer,
beam balance or stopwatch. In recording the values of time, t for
instance one candidate wrote: t = 2.18 s, t = 4.73 s, t = 6.81 s e.t.c.
showing that he/she was taking the readings in minutes instead of
converting it to seconds. In addition, a notable weakness observed in
most scripts was the candidates’ inadequate skills of drawing cooling
136
curves without showing the important features. Moreover, candidates’
poor scales, wrong transferring of points from the table of results to the
graph and incorrect tangents at 70 oC to obtain the rate of cooling of
liquid B affected most of the candidates. Extract 20.2 is a sample of
candidates' incorrect responses to this question.
137
138
In Extract 20.2, the candidate tabulated incorrect data values of mass,

time and temperature. The candidate also failed to draw a cooling curve
and to determine the rate of cooling at 70 oC and the specific heat
capacity of liquid B.
4.2.2 Physics 3B
The candidates were provided with hot water, metal foil, wooden block,
thermometer, stopwatch, marker pen, rubber bands, copper calorimeter
with its lids, stirrer and kerosene lamp/Bunsen burner. The candidates
were required to proceed as follows:
139
(a) Cover the outer surface of the calorimeter with the meter foil
provided and use the rubber bands to hold the metal foil tightly on
the calorimeter.
(b) Use a marker pen; indicate a mark of about two-thirds inside the
calorimeter.
(c) Fill the calorimeter with hot water of about 90 oC to the mark
indicated in 2 (b).
(d) Cover the calorimeter with its lid when the stirrer and
thermometer are inserted.
(e) While stirring, start the stopwatch when the temperature of the
liquid in the calorimeter is about 80 oC. Read and record the
temperature of the liquid after every 2 minutes until it reaches 60
o
C.
(f) Empty the calorimeter, remove the metal foil and carefully
blacken the outer surface of the calorimeter using the soot from a
kerosene lamp/ Bunsen burner provided. Repeat the procedures in
2 (c) up to (e).
Questions
(i) Tabulate your results.

(ii) Using the same axis, plot the cooling curves for the blackened
calorimeter with its content and for the calorimeter with metal foil
together with its content.
(iii) From each of the curves, read and record the time taken for hot
water to cool from 80 oC to 60 oC.
(iv) What is the implication of the results in 2 (iii).
(v) What is the aim of doing this experiment?
The candidates (56.86%) who scored high marks (9 - 15) correctly

applied the thermometer and stopwatch in recording the respective data.
Consequently, they were able to use the collected data to draw the graph
of cooling curves taking into consideration all important aspects such as
the tittle, the scale, the axes, the best curves connecting the most
accurate points and the extrapolated time for both curves. Moreover,
some of them stated correctly the implication of the difference in time
taken for the hot water to cool from 80 oC to 60 oC for two curves. One
candidate for example wrote: The blackened body cools faster than the
140
foiled one. This is because the blackened calorimeter is a good radiator
and foiled calorimeter is a good reflector of radiant energy. However,
26.19 per cent of the candidates who scored average marks provided
inappropriate responses with multiple errors while others skipped some
parts of the question. Extract 21.1 is a sample of candidates’ correct
141
142
Extract 21.1: A sample of correct responses to question 2 of paper 3B
In Extract 21.1 the candidate correctly collected the data, plotted the
cooling curves, determined the time taken in all conditions and stated
the aim of performing the experiment.
A few candidates (16.95%) scored low marks (0 – 5) as they had

inadequate knowledge about Newton’s law of cooling in finding the
experimental results. Most of these candidates failed to apply the skills
associated for measuring the intended physical quantities. This defect
was observed by some of the candidates who lacked accuracy in
recording the data values and in transferring data into the graph. Further
analysis shows that the nature of graphs plotted by these candidates was
straight lines instead of cooling curves while other graphs missed the
key features. Consequently, they failed to analyse the data and interpret
the graph to state the implication of the results to give a conclusion.
Extract 21.2 is a sample of a candidate’s incorrect responses.
143
144
Extract 21.2 A sample of incorrect responses to question 2 of paper 3B
In Extract 21.2, the candidate provided irrelevant responses and failed

to indicate the unit of temperature in the table of results and wrote an
incorrect title of the graph. The candidate also plotted incorrect graph
without units on both axes.
4.2.3 Physics 3C
The candidates were provided with the following apparatus: Copper

calorimeter, kerosene lamp/ bunsen burner, a metal foil, thermometer,
145
hot water, stopwatch, stirrer, lid, a container with 250 ml of hot water of
about 85 oC and a wooden base. The candidates were required to
proceed as follows:
(a) Carefully blacken the outer surface of the calorimeter using soot
from a kerosene lamp/Bunsen Burner and set up the given
apparatus as required.
2
(b) Fill to about of the blackened calorimeter with hot water
3
whose initial temperature is 85 oC.
(c) Stir constantly the hot water in the calorimeter then read and
record the temperature t of water at one minute intervals until it
has fallen to about 75 oC.
(d) Empty the water in the calorimeter and cover the outer surface
of the calorimeter with the metal foil provided and repeat the
procedures in 2 (b) to (c).
Questions
(i) Draw the set-up of your experiment.

(ii) Tabulate the results obtained in 2 (c) and (d).
(iii) Plot the cooling curves for both the blackened calorimeter with
its contents and the calorimeter covered with the metal foil
together with its contents in the same axis.
(iv) From each of the curves plotted in 2 (iii), read the time taken by
the hot water to cool from 80 oC to 75 oC.
(v) Compare the results obtained in 2 (iv). Give a reason for your
answer.
The candidates (56.86%) who scored high marks (9 - 15) had a great
understanding of the subject matter. Most of these candidates followed
the necessary procedures in setting the given apparatus to obtain the
correct data with proper units. In addition, they plotted graphs which
contained important aspects such as tittle, scales and axes. However,
their marks varied because some of them lacked skills of transferring of
data values into graphs to join the points when drawing the best curves.
Moreover, some of them analysed and interpreted the graphical data by
146
providing correct reasons on the difference in the time taken. Extract
22.1 is a sample of a candidates' correct responses to this question.
147
Extract 22.1: A sample of correct responses to question 2 of paper 3C
148
In Extract 22.1, the candidate measured and recorded correctly the
values of temperature and time. The candidate also used the collected
data to plot the correct cooling curves.
The candidates (16.95%) who scored low marks (0 – 5) had several

weaknesses. Their responses contained a mixture of correct and
incorrect answers. Most of these candidates drew diagrams without
providing some of the important features such as: tittle of the graph,
labelling of the vertical and horizontal axes, the scales, and the correct
transferred data to provide the best curves. Lack of mathematical skills
affected most of these candidates as they failed to analyse the obtained
data and give the comparison of the time taken to cool from 80 oC to
70oC in each case. Extract 22.2 is a sample of the candidates’ incorrect
responses.
149
150
Extract 22.2: A sample of incorrect responses to question 2 of paper 3C
In Extract 22.2, the candidate provided an unlabelled diagram of

colorimeter with its contents. The candidate also provided the table of
results with the values of time in descending order instead of ascending
order. Lastly, he/she plotted incorrect curves showing the cooling rate
of hot water in the calorimeter.
4.3 Question 3: Current Electricity
This question was from the topic of Current Electricity and contained
three sub questions from three alternative papers. The analysis of the
three questions is as follows:
151
The questions were attempted by 23,141 candidates equivalent to 100
per cent and their scores are as follows: 27.10 per cent scored below 5.5
marks, 34.22 per cent scored from 5.5 to 8.5 marks and 38.68 per cent
scored 9 marks or above. The general performance of candidates in
these questions was good as 72.90 per cent scored above 5.0 marks.
Figure 20 summarizes the candidates’ performance in the questions.
4.3.1 Physics 3A
The candidates were provided with a battery E, a key K, ammeter A,

Voltmeter V, resistance box S, unknown resistance R and pieces of
connecting wires. They were asked to proceed as follows;
(a) Connect the given components in a series except the voltmeter

which should be connected in parallel with the unknown resistor.
(b) Set the resistance of 10Ω in a resistance box. Close the key and
record the readings of the ammeter and voltmeter.
(c) Repeat the procedures in 3 (b) each time by setting the resistance
to 15 Ω, 20 Ω, 25 Ω, and 30 Ω.
Questions
(i) Draw a circuit diagram for the connection.

(ii) Tabulate the results obtained in 3(b) and (c).
(iii) Plot a graph of Voltage (V) against Current (I).
(iv) Compute the value of the unknown resistance.
152
The analysis reveals that 38.68 per cent of the candidates who
attempted this question scored high marks (9 – 15). These candidates
were conversant enough with the theory of electric conduction in
metals. Most of them connected the circuit correctly as indicated in
their circuits diagrams presented. They also recorded data correctly in
the table of results and transferred them correctly into the graphical
presentation which had all the necessary requirements on the graph such
as; the tittle of the graph, the axes with their respective units, the scales,
the slope indication and the coordinated best line which passed through
the origin. Some of the candidates were able to analyze the information
and provide the required unknown resistance. Extract 23.1 shows a
sample of correct responses provided by a candidate.
153
154
Extract 23.1 A sample of correct responses to question 3 of paper 3A
In Extract 23.1, the candidate provided the correct circuit diagram and
obtained correct data in a tabular form. The candidate also plotted the
correct graph and obtained the correct value of the slope. In addition,
the candidate interpreted the value of the slope to obtain the correct
value of unknown resistance.
Contrary, the candidates (27.10%) who scored low marks (0 – 5) had

inadequate knowledge about the subject matter. Some of them
155
presented an incorrect circuit diagram while others failed to read the
ammeter and voltmeter according to the scale as indicated in their table
of results. Another weakness observed in some candidates’ responses
was presenting larger values of either current or voltage than the
maximum value provided by the cell. Furthermore, they failed to
transfer the obtained data from the table of results when plotting the
graphs. In addition, some of these candidates were negligent of some
key aspects when drawing the graphs in their responses. They also
failed to analyse the data and interpret the plotted graphs to determine
slope and unknown resistance. Extract 23.2 is a sample of an incorrect
response.
156
157
158
In Extract 23.2, the candidate drew the circuit showing the voltmeter
connected in series instead of being in parallel with the unknown
resistor R. The readings of the voltmeter presented by the candidate
were larger than the maximum value of the voltage supplied by the
battery E as instructed. In addition, this candidate drew an incorrect
graph with an infinite slope contrary to the Ohm’s law.
159
4.3.2 Physics 3B
The candidates were required to determine the e.m.f. of the given dry
cell E using ammeter A, resistance box R, switch K, masking tape and
pieces of connecting wires. In order to achieve the task, the following
instructions were given:
(a) Carefully set up the circuit as required using the given

apparatuses.
(b) Start with R = 2Ω, close the switch and record the current I from
the ammeter.
(c) Repeat the procedure in 3 (b) for the values of R = 4 Ω, 6 Ω, 8 Ω
and 10 Ω.
Questions
(i) Draw a well labelled circuit diagram of your connections.

1
(ii) Tabulate the obtained data including the value of .
I
1
(iii) Plot a graph of R against .
I
(iv) Use the graph in 3 (iii), determine the e.m.f. of the dry cell E.
The candidates (38.68%) who scored high marks (9 – 15) were

conversant with the concept of current electricity. They followed
correctly the given instructions and paid great attention on setting and
drawing the required circuit diagram. Most of these candidates had
ability to collect and present the data with their respective units in a
tabular form. In plotting the graph, they showed all the key aspects on
plotting the graph including: the title, the axes with their units, the
scales and the slope indication with the coordinates. In addition, some
of these candidates used the graphical analysis to determine the e.m.f of
the dry cell. Extract 24.1 provides a sample of a correct response from
one of these candidates.
160
161
162
In Extract 24.1, the candidate presented the correct data and drew the
correct circuit showing the labelled symbols as provided in this
question. The candidate also drew the correct graph although it had an
unlabelled horizontal axis. In addition, the candidate related the graph
with Kirchhoff’s second law equation of the circuit and ended with an
appropriate value of e.m.f from the slope of the graph.
A total of 27.10 per cent of the candidates scored low marks (0 – 5).
Most of these candidates lacked knowledge of electric conduction in
163
metals. Some of them failed to set-up the given electrical components
based on the given instructions and ended with incorrect data values.
Most of these candidates also failed to transfer the obtained data into
graphs. They also did not include some of the key aspects when plotting
the graphs such as: the title, the axes, the slope indication, the scales
and the best line which contributed to loss of marks. Another weakness
in their responses was lack of numerical skills whereby they failed to
use the plotted graph in analysing and evaluating the e.m.f of the dry
cell. Extract 24.2 is a sample of a candidates’ incorrect responses to the
question.
164
Extract 24.2: A sample of incorrect responses to question 3 of paper 3B
In Extract 24.2, the candidate provided an incorrect circuit diagram

indicating parallel connection of the ammeter with the resistance box R.
In addition, the candidate obtained an incorrect value of the current
165
corresponding to the value of resistance provided. The candidate also
plotted an incorrect graph and obtained an incorrect value of the slope.
4.3.3 Physics 3C
In this question the candidates were required to determine the e.m.f. and
internal resistance of a cell using an ammeter, voltmeter, switch, dry
cell, rheostat, masking tape and connecting wires. The candidates were
asked to proceed as follows:
(a) Connect the circuit using the given apparatuses. Close the switch
and adjust the rheostat so that the cell supplies a current of 0.4A.
Read the Voltmeter and record the value of voltage, V.
(b) Repeat the procedures in 3 (a) for the values of current, I equal to
0.6A, 0.8A, 1.2A, and 1.6A. Read and record the value of voltage,
V in each case.
Questions
(i) Draw a well labelled diagram of the circuit you connected.
(ii) Record your results in a tabular form.
(iii) Plot a graph of V (volts) against I (amperes).
(iv) Formulate the equation governing this experiment.
(v) Determine the internal resistance, r and the e.m.f, E of the cell.
The analysis of data reveals that 38.68 per cent of the candidates scored
high marks (9 – 15). These candidates had a good understanding about
the theory of electric conduction in metals. Most of these candidates
followed the correct procedures for connecting the given electrical
devices to collect the data. Some of these candidates provided a well
labelled circuit diagram and presented the collected data in a tabular
form. Good mathematical skills were a key factor which contributed to
candidates’ high scores. Some of these candidates used a graphical
method to analysis and determine the e.m.f and internal resistance of the
dry cell. Extract 25.1 shows a candidates’ correct responses to this
question.
166
167
168
Extract 25.1: A sample of correct responses to question 3 of paper 3C.
In Extract 25.1, the candidate correctly presented the data and used it to
plot the graph. The candidate also obtained the slope and V – intercept
which he/she used to determine the internal resistance and e.m.f of the
dry cell.
The responses of the candidates (27.10%) who scored low marks (0 – 5)

had several weaknesses. The notable weaknesses included: failure of
169
the candidates to connect the given ammeter and voltmeter and other
electrical components appropriately. These candidates lacked
knowledge that an ammeter should be connected in series with a resistor
or a cell while a voltmeter should always be in a parallel connection.
Moreover, some of these candidates lacked skills of reading an ammeter
and a voltmeter while others failed to interpret the given instructions to
draw the circuit diagram of an experimental set up. Failure to design a
proper circuit led to obtaining incorrect data. Further analysis revealed
that, most of these candidates faced difficulties in selecting a suitable
scale when drawing graphs and points of the best line to determine the
slope. Extract 25.2 presents a candidate's incorrect responses to this
question.
170
171
Extract 25.2: A sample of incorrect responses to question 3 of paper
3C
In Extract 25.2, the candidate showed a series connection of the

voltmeter instead of a parallel connection to the cell. He/she also
presented large values of voltage compared to the expected ones and
ended up with incorrect values of internal resistance and e.m.f of the
cell.
172
TOPIC
The analysis of candidates’ performance in each topic shows that the

candidates had good performance in 9 out of 12 topics tested in the
theory papers. These topics were Environmental Physics (98.19%),
Measurement (95.74%), Heat (78.72%), Electronics (73.44%), Current
Electricity (72.36%), Mechanics (70.85%), Properties of Matter
(70.80%), Fluid Dynamics (66.37%) and Electrostatic (63.44%). The
candidates demonstrated competence in the subject matter as they
correctly analysed the examined concepts. However, the candidates
performed averagely in 3 topics namely Atomic Physics (56.18%),
Electromagnetism (54.71%) and Vibrations and Waves (53.14%). The
average performance was a result of the candidates’ inappropriate
explanations, misinterpretation of the questions and insufficient
knowledge and skills in the prescribed topics.
In Physics Paper 3, three topics namely Heat (85.05%), Mechanics

(79.56%) and Current Electricity (72.90%) were well performed. Good
performance in these topics was attributed to the candidates' adequate
knowledge of the subject matter, good practical and analytical skills in
collecting the data, describing and analysing the concepts to draw
conclusion. Furthermore, candidates had good drawing skills and were
able to follow instructions when assembling various apparatus
associated in the respective experiments in their responses. The
candidates' performance in each topic is summarized in Appendix I and
II.
6.0 CONCLUSION AND RECOMMENDATIONS
6.1 Conclusion
The analysis done revealed that, majority (97.74%) of the candidates

passed the examination. These candidates identified the requirement of
each question and had adequate knowledge of the subject matter. They
also mastered computational skills in questions that involved the use of
formulae and procedures to obtain the correct answers. Another factor
that contributed to good performance was the skills of interpreting
173
diagrams. Most of these candidates had the ability of studying,
interpreting and applying the relevant formulae in the given figures to
analyse different concepts. Most of the candidates, for example,
performed well on Question 4 of Physics Paper 2 and Question 4, 8 and
9 of Physics Paper 1. These questions involved diagrams.
Further, the analysis revealed that the few (2.26%) candidates who
failed faced difficulties in answering some questions. Lack of
mathematical skills, failure to explain and apply theories, laws and
principles of physics to analyse various concepts affected most of the
candidates. They also failed to establish and apply proper formulae and
procedures when performing calculations. Some of them provided
irrelevant responses in few parts of the questions especially the
structured questions and skipped other parts. It was also observed that
poor mastery of practical skills contributed to the weak performance.
Most of the candidates, for instance, ignored the important aspects to
consider when drawing graphs such as providing the title of the graphs,
units, axes with their respective S.I units, scales used, transfer of points,
best line or curve and slope indication which would help them score
high marks. Furthermore, they failed to interpret the plotted graph and
analyse the data to provide a conclusion.
6.2 Recommendations
In order to improve the performance in Physics subject, teachers are

strongly advised to:
(a) Guide students to explain and apply theories, laws and principles
of electromagnetism, atomic physics and vibrations and waves.
(b) Assist students to investigate the structure of the magnetic field

for a long straight conductor and analyse the motion of a charged
particle moving in a magnetic field.
(c) Help students to account for the photoelectric effect phenomenon

and deduce stopping potential, threshold frequency and work-
function of a metal.
174
(d) Guide students to derive expressions for progressive and
stationary wave motion and deduce the principle of superposition
of waves.
(e) Lead students in groups to compute and analyse the Neutron (N)
and Proton (Z) ratio and plot the graph of N against Z for
radioactive elements.
175
APPENDIX I: The Candidates’ Performance in Each Topic in Physics 1 & 2
in ACSEE 2023
2023 EXAMINATION PAPER
who Scored an
Percentage or
Average of 35
Percentage of
Candidates
S/n.
Number of
Questions
Remarks
Above
Topic
1. Environmental Physics 1 98.19 Good
2. Measurement 1 95.74 Good
3. Heat 2 78.72 Good
4. Electronics 2 73.44 Good
5. Current Electricity 1 72.36 Good
6. Mechanics 3 70.85 Good
7. Properties of Matter 1 70.80 Good
8. Fluid Dynamics 1 66.37 Good
9. Electrostatics 1 63.44 Good
10. Atomic Physics 1 56.18 Average
11. Electromagnetism 1 54.71 Average
12. Vibrations and Waves 1 53.14 Average
176
APPENDIX 1I: The Candidates’ Performance in Each Topic in Actual
Practical Papers 3A, 3B and 3C in ACSEE 2023
Percentage of
Candidates who
Number of
S/n. Topic Scored an Average Remarks
Questions
of 35 Percentage
or Above
Heat Good
1. 1 83.05
Mechanics Good
2. 1 79.56
Current Electricity Good
3. 1 72.90
177

131 Physics

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

131 Physics

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

131 Physics

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CANDIDATES' ITEM RESPONSE ANALYSIS

REPORTON THE ADVANCED CERTIFICATE

© The National Examinations Council of Tanzania, 2023

All rights reserved

The Physics examination adhered to the 2019 Physics subject

The theory paper 1 comprised of Sections A and B with a total of ten

ACSEE 2022 ACSEE 2023

who scored 35 % or above

1. Heat 3 56.02 Average 3 80.91 Good

In addition, Figure 1 illustrates the candidates’ performance according

Figure 1: Candidates’ performance according to grades

The next part shows the analysis of the candidates’ performance on

Finally, it provides a conclusion and recommendations that may help to

2.0 ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE IN EACH

This paper comprised a total of 10 questions each carrying 10 marks.

2.1 Question 1: Measurement

The question was attempted by 23,153 (100%) candidates and its

Figure 2: Candidates' performance in question 1 of paper 1

In Extract 1.1, the candidate provided correct responses about errors in

The responses of 308 (4.26%) candidates who scored from 0 to 3 marks

A total of 23,153 (100%) candidates attempted this question and the

Figure 3: Candidates' performance in question 2 of paper 1

The candidates (54.97%) who scored from 6 to 10 marks described

The candidates (23.31%) who scored from 0 to 3 marks had weaknesses

2.3 Question 3: Mechanics (Uniform Circular Motion)

A total of 23,151 (99.99%) candidates attempted this question and their

Figure 4: Candidates' performance in question 3 of paper 1

On the other hand, 29 per cent of the candidates who scored 0 to 3

2.4 Question 4: Mechanics (Newton’s Laws of Motion)

The question was attempted by 23,153 (100%) candidates whose scores

Although the question was well performed by a majority (64.87%) of

In Extract 4.1, the candidate provided irrelevant responses in part (a)

The candidates (18.74%) who scored from 6 to 10 marks understood

2.5 Question 5:Heat (Thermometers and First law of Thermodynamics)

The question was attempted by 23,152 (99.99%) candidates and their

Figure 6: Candidates' performance in question 5 of paper 1

The responses of the candidates who scored from 0 to 3 marks had

2.6 Question 6: Heat (First law of Thermodynamics)

The question was attempted by 23,153 (100%) candidates and their

Figure 7: Candidates' performance in question 6 of paper 1

Figure 7 reveals that the candidates’ general performance in this

instead of W = P (V2 − V1 ) and Q = ∆U + W to compute the external

A total of 23,153 (100%) candidates attempted this question and the

Figure 8: Candidates performance in question 7 of paper 1

The analysis of candidates' responses reveals that most of the candidate

In Extract 7.1, the candidate provided responses on the concepts of

Extract 7.2: A sample of the an incorrect response to question 7 of paper 1

2.8 Question 8: Current Electricity

This was an optional question attempted by 9,519 (41.11%) candidates

Candidates (50.50%) whose marks ranged from 9 to 15 had enough

In Extract 8.1, the candidate correctly applied Kirchhoff’s rules and

The responses of the candidates (27.64%) who scored from 0 to 5 marks

In part (a) of extract 8.2, the candidate partially identified two

2.9 Question 9: Electronics (Semiconductors,Logic Gates & Op-Amps)

This was an optional question. The question was attempted by 19,794

Figure 10: Candidates' performance in question 9 of paper 1

Although the candidates' performance in this question was good, 25.23

In Extract 9.2, the candidate drew an incorrect truth table, a reverse

2.10 Question 10: Electronics (The Band Theory of Solids,

A total of 16,995 (73.4%) candidates attempted this question and their