EGCSE English Language 2022 Exminer Report

EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ESWATINI
EGCSE
EXAMINATION REPORT
FOR
ENGLISH LANGUAGE (6873)
YEAR
2022
EGCSE 2022 ENGLISH LANGUAGE EXAMINATION REPORT
Table of Contents
Subject Code: Name of Component: Page No:
6873 English Language P1 ………….. 3-9
6873 English Language P2 ………….. 10 - 17
6873 English Language P3 ………….. 18 - 25
6873 English Language P4 ………….. 26- 34
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EGCSE ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Paper 6873/01
Reading and Writing
General Comments
In 2022, the candidates registered for the examination were 15050, a huge drop when compared with
2021 where there were more than 22000 candidates. Generally, the performance was almost similar to
last year's performance. 2022 saw the highest score being 43 out of 50 and the lowest score being 02
out of 50.
Comments on Specific Questions
Exercise 1
Generally, this exercise was poorly performed by most candidates because they were familiar with the
subject which then interfered with their reading.
(a) What is telecommunications?
Expected response: It is communications at a distance by technological means,

(particularly through electronic signals or electronic waves.)
Comment
This was an accessible question to most candidates.
(b) How is has the role of telecommunication in the world changed?
Expected response: It has changed from being an option to a way of life/ it has
changed from a want to a need.
Comment
Most candidates were able to access this one as well save for those who described the changes
in communication because of the latest technology thus missing the answer.
(c) Give two ways in which people's attitude to communication have changed over the past
20 years.
Expected response: (i) they no longer have patience
(ii) they want feedback instantly
Comment
This was an accessible question to most candidates, but some candidates were not giving
people's attitude but were giving the advantages of the internet nowadays and its speed in
getting things done.
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(d) How does an email reach its recipient?
Expected response: As long as the receiving and sending devices are connected to
the internet.
Comment
Most candidates lost marks for this question because their answers were incomplete for
example, ‘as long as both devices were connected’ which left a question as to where they were
connected. Some did not have ‘both’ devices mentioned but only mentioned one which rendered
their answers incorrect.
(e) Which medium of communication is common globally?
Expected response: cellphone/mobile phone
Comment
This was an accessible question.
(f) In what way have mobile phones changed over the years?
Expected response: they were barely portable but now they have become smaller/
they are now smaller as compared to the large ones
Comment
The change was not brought out as it was expected that the comparison between mobile
phones long ago and now be brought out.
(g) Why do you think some people might need more than one mobile phone for different
purposes?
Expected response: so that they can transact, work and do other activities
supported by the devices they own.
Comment
This question proved to be problematic as most candidates came with answers outside of the
passage like ' they want to have two sim cards/ they do not want to mix business with pleasure
etc.
(h) Mention two ways in which human beings benefit from telecommunication apart from
socialising.
Expected response: (i) people can improve their lives/online studying
(ii) people can get global opportunities like jobs/getting news and
awareness of natural disasters.
Comment
The question was accessible to some candidates while some dwelt on socialising.
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(i) Give four ways in which telecommunications has changed business.
Expected responses:
(i) companies stretch beyond borders
(ii) companies grow into multi-national corporations
(iii) online trading
(iv) electronic commerce
(v) business transactions/ transact (any 4)
Comment
This question was accessible to most candidates; however, some candidates gave the
advantages of telecommunications in general.
Exercise 2
This question proved to be inaccessible to most candidates, most of them scoring as little as 2 out of 8.
Differences with humans
1. have fewer muscles to define expressions
Most candidates omitted ‘to define expressions’ which made them not to score since this was
key to the answer.
2. do not speak our language
Candidates left out ‘our’ in their answers making it look like animals do not have a language yet
they do it is only that they do not speak ours. This led them to not scoring.
Bad Effects of chaining dogs
3. solitary confinement/ruins dog's nature as a social animal (underlined part was key)
4. creates behavioural problems/loses its mind
5. becomes vicious
6. becomes dangerous to children and innocent people/creates unsafe neighbourhoods
7. torments the dog (any 3)
Regulations for good chaining
8. temporary tethering/ not more than 3 hours at a time
9. continually in owner's sight
10. at least 6 months old
11. access to fresh food and water

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12. provide shelter/ not outside during extreme weather conditions
13. tether by leather or nylon collar or body harness
Comment
This exercise was largely inaccessible to candidates because they never paid attention to the
key words of the sub-headings which led them to writing incorrect/irrelevant responses under
the headings.
Exercise 3
Most candidates scored above 6 out of 8 marks in this exercise which demonstrated that it was
accessible to most candidates. However, some did not perform so well.
(a) A
(b) A
(c) C
(d) B
(e) C
(f) D
(g) B
(h) D
Exercise 4
Generally, this question was inaccessible to most candidates. Most scored between 2 and 3 marks.
(a) What advantage did the writer have when she decided to finally take up motorbike
riding?
Expected response: The writer had taken a couple of beginners' motorbike riding
lessons in the past.
Comment
The question was accessible to most candidates.
(b) What first step did she take towards fulfilling her long-time interest?
Expected response: obtaining a learner's licence
Comment
Most candidates were able to score here save for some who wrote that the writer wrote a list of
things she wanted to do.
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(c) What was the major reason for her not to take up motorcycling?
Expected response: The culture of motorbiking does not harmonise well with the
traditional expectations (of being a woman)/(of who I am
predetermined to be.
Comment
Some candidates omitted the word ‘expectations’ but referred to traditions which spoiled the
answer. Otherwise, the question was accessible.
(d) What is the writer's attitude towards the view held by society on women bikers?
Expected response: she detests/hates/is against such beliefs/defiant/rebellious/

resents it.
Comment
The question was a challenge to most candidates as most were giving the writer's feelings as
opposed to attitude.
(e) How does she show her individual freedom to society?
Expected response: she proudly plasters the proverbial 'rebel' sticker on her forehead/
she wears a pink tutu/she wears a pink skirt
Comment
The question was accessible
(f) Explain the following words and phrases as used in the passage.
(i) ‘… for fear of colouring out of the lines’ paragraph 4 lines 17-18
Expected response: afraid of breaking rules/ scared of being different/ fear of

not conforming
Comment
Candidates were explaining the words in isolation which did not convey the meaning as
intended by the writer thus this question was inaccessible.
(ii) ‘... motorcycling has become part of my self-love process’ (paragraph 6 lines 8-9)
Expected response: it has helped her through her journey of self-appreciation/helped

her in her journey to putting herself first/it has been therapeutic.
Comment
Candidates missed this one as they dwelt on the writer's love of biking but forgot to mention that
it was therapy for her. They were supposed to explain the ‘self-love’.
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(g) The writer has discovered many pleasures in motor cycling. Give two of these.
Expected responses: (i) she feels the wind all around her
(ii) lasting/enduring friendships are formed
(iii) more in touch with nature
(iv) being completely in the moment (any 2)
(h) Explain how the saying, ‘the only thing we have to fear is fear itself' is true for the writer.
Expected response: She has discovered that what she feared about riding actually
makes motorbiking exciting/exhilarating.
Most of the candidates missed this question, they did not understand the saying.
Exercise 5
Write a summary highlighting the symptoms of money anxiety and how to help someone out of it.
Symptoms
1. if one thinks about money in the morning, last thing at night (and in between)
2. interferes with daily function
3. hiding one's financial status/not discussing money publicly
4. unable to have financial conversations with your partner/family members
5. denying yourself basic needs/hoarding/excessive spending
6. continually flouting good spending rules (any 3)
How to help
7. being a financially accountability partner/offer sustainable help
8. educate yourself
9. read reputable articles/do some research
10. do not make assumptions from outside
11. make conversations a safe space so they could feel comfortable talking to you
12. financial advisor to help with budgetting and saving (any three)
Comment
The question was accessible to some candidates. Some candidates wasted words by writing on the
causes of not having money such that when it got to the symptoms they had already exhausted their
number of words leading to them scoring 2 or 3 points at the end.
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Recommendations
1. It is recommended that students be taught reading in the classroom and how to analyse the
writer's language and intentions.
2. Meanings of words should be taught in the context of the given passage to enhance
understanding.
3. When comparing things, students should be taught to bring out both sides of the things
compared in order to score.
4. Students must be taught/trained on question analysis so they understand what they have to do
or how to present their answers.
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Paper 6873/02
Continuous Writing
General Comments
This paper consists of three exercises: exercise 1, exercise 2 and exercise 3. Exercise 1 and exercise 2
are compulsory then for exercise 3 candidates choose one question out of 3. The questions consist of
directed writing tasks: Exercise 1 and 2 which are directed writing tasks and Exercise 3 waa
free/creative writing.
The total mark in this paper is 50.
The highest score obtained this year 2022 was 44/50 which is not the same high score for the year
2021. The highest score for 2021 was 47/50.
Noticeably, 19 candidates scored below 10 while 95 candidates scored above 40. When compared to
the preious year’s performance the paper average.
Comments on Specific Questions
Exercise 1
Your sister, Zine, is planning a trip to a place you have visited on several occasions. She requested
information from you.
Write a letter giving your sister your impressions of the place.
 What you found amazing
 What you disliked about the place
 Improvements needed
Your letter should be 150-200 words long.
You will receive 7 marks for content, and up to 7 marks for style and accuracy of language.
Expectations
The task required the candidates to write a friendly or informal letter. The purpose was to inform or give
details about a place of interest that they have visited on several occasions. The audience was a sister,
Zine, so the register is informal. Informal language and tone were key.
A salutation was expected. For example, ‘Dear Zine or sister’
In the introduction, a portrayal of social distance (greeting), and purpose were expected.
In the body candidates were compelled to adequately develop all the bullet points.
 What you found amazing

 What you disliked about the place
 Improvemets needed
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The letter was supposed to be a page or 150-200 words long.
A conclusion was required as a form of closure. It had to be influenced by the purpose, that is to say,
candidates were expected to conclude by saying anything relevant to what she or he was writing about
or pass regards or state hopes for the future.
The sign off had to be relevant to the audience, ‘your sister’.
Good responses
 Candidates wrote an informal letter

 Candidates fully developed all prompts and displayed independence of thought.
 Candidates used a chatty tone or informal register.
 Candidates used descriptive words to paint a vivid picture of the place of interest.
Poor responses
 Candidates did not write an informal letter.

 Candidates did not show awareness of the audience hence they used a formal tone.
 Candidates did not address all bullets but focused on one or two bullets.
 Candidates listed and did not develop the bullets.
 Candidates did not analyse the question thus they created their own questions.
 Candidates used poor language and showed unawareness of mechanical accuracy.
 Candidate did not paragraph their work.
Overall perfomance
This question was friendly for most candidates. Most candidates were able to give good responses and
adequately developed the given ideas or bullets, however, their command of the language was poor as
most of them used poor expressions. Worth noting in this question is that some candidates did not
develop all bullets, as some focused on the first and second bullet and totally ignored the last bullet.
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Exercise 2
There has been an ongoing debate about the use of online learning due to the pandemic that has
brought the world to a standstill.
Below are some comments from concerned citizens:
‘Not all of us have

‘It reaches a large
access to the
number of students
internet’
at once’
‘It allows a majority of

students to have access ‘Face to face
to information ‘ interaction is
necessary’
Write an article for your local newspaper expressing your views concerning this issue.
Your article should be 150-200 words long.
The comments above may give you some ideas, but you are free to use ideas of your own.
You will receive 7 marks for content, and up to 7 marks for style and accuracy of language.
Expectations
Cndidates were expected to write an argumentative or persuasive article. They were expected to write
a feature article and express their views on the issue of the use of online learning and persuade in a
convincing manner. The stand of the candidate had to be clear from the onset up until the end. A
formal register was expected. In the body, the candidate was allowed to use any of the different styles
of argumentative writing as long as the voice was solid.
Introduction
Candidates were expected to briefly give background on the issue at hand or background information
and then take a stand.
The body
The candidates were expected to be clear on which stand he or she was advocating for. The
candidates were given the liberty to use any style as long as the piece of writing was persuasive. For
example, the candidates were allowed to:
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 State their opinion using taught persuasive techniques and not acknowledge the other side of the
argument, however, in this case, the voice was expected to be loud and clear and candidates ought
to have shown a good command of the language so that the stance was stated clearly and there
was no dispute about it. That is when the candidate decides to be self-centred and only argue his
point and not acknowledge the other side of the argument.
 Acknowledge contrasting views, refute them then present their own in a persuasive manner and
make sure their voice is prominent; ensure to bring in their own view to cement their stance.
 The candidate was permitted to defend his or her stand and support it with statistics, research
findings, examples or illustrations and also acknowledge the other side but be clear that they are
not in support by providing a watertight argument.
 Put forward their opinions and fully support them convincingly and in passing just acknowledge
opposing views without further entertaining them etc.
Conclusion
The candidate was expected to restate or reaffirm stand and it be in sync with what the candidate
stated in the introduction and the body.
Good responses
 Candidates displayed understanding of the task.

 Candidates understood the bone of contention: the issue of the use of online learning.
 Candidates took a clear stand from the introduction to the conclusion. Candidates used their
own style to persuade and sell their point of view.
 Candidates presented developed ideas clearly using a persuasive tone.
 Candidates displayed independence of thought.
 Candidates used good language; appropriate persuasive techniques.
Poor responses
 Candidates did not write an article.

 Candidates did not understand the bone of contention. Some created their own questions and
argued on the premises that online learning has brought the world to a standstill.
 Candidates did not take a clear stand, candidates discussed and gave partial responses.
 Candidates did not use persuasive language.
 Candidates used poor language.
 Candidates did not write developed paragraphs.
 Candidates took the speech prompts as they were and did not develop them.
 Candidates wrote dialogues throughout the article.
Overall perfomance
This question was poorly done as most candidates did not take a clear stand from the introduction,
others discussed the speech bubbles and sat on the fence. Most candidates did not give well
developed paragraphs.
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Exercise 3
Write about 2- 2½ pages on ONE of the following:
1. Describe your ideal parent and how he/she can have a positive impact on your life.
2. Write a story about a rich man who unexpectedly loses a lot of his money.
3. Discuss how the public transport system can be improved.
Question 1
Describe your ideal parent and how s/he can have a positive impact on your life.
Ideal: imagined, perfect, most suitable
Expectations
Candidates were expected to write positive things or aspects about the imagined parent and also
describe how s/he can have a positive impact on their lives.
The description had to paint a vivid picture and candidates were expected to use descriptive language
to achieve such.
Candidates had to show awareness of the tense used as they described and bring forth the impact.
An introduction, body, conclusion and proper paragraphing were expected.
Good responses
 Candidates wrote a descriptive essay.

 Candidates described an ideal or imaginary parent and further wrote how he/she could impact
them.
 Candidates used the appropriate tense to capture the tone of the descriptive essay.
 Candidates used a descriptive tone including figurative language, strong verbs, adverbs and
adjectives.
 Material was excellently developed using the correct grammar.
Poor responses
 Candidates did not write a descriptive essay; others wrote a narrative and others wrote an
expository.
 Candidates failed to understand the term ‘ideal’ as some only focused on the physical appearance
of the parent.
 Candidates did not capture both aspects of the question as candidates described the ideal parent
and did not address the ‘how’ aspect.
 Candidates failed to decipher the appropriate tense.
 Candidates failed to use a descriptive tone.
 The candidates failed to capture the essence of the verb ‘can’, which touches on later and
possibility.
 Material was not adequately developed.
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Overall perfomance
This question was poorly done, most leaners described parents they already have and failed to capture
both aspects of the question. However, the few that understood the question did exceptionally well.
Question 2
Write a story about a rich man who unexpectedly loses a lot of money.
Expectations
Money: wealth, property, investment; money is a measure of wealth
Candidates were expected to tell a story about a rich man who unexpectedly loses a lot of money. The
protagonist or main character was expected to be a rich man and should lose money in an unexpected
way. Candidates were expected to be creative in their story telling skill. A plot twist was expected. The
candidate was met in his or her own ground of ‘rich’
An introduction, body, conclusion and proper paragraphing were vital. Ideas had to be well-developed
and the right register us;
GOOD RESPONSES
 Candidates wrote a narrative essay. Good responses took the descriptive narrative approach.
 Candidates captured the theme of the story and wrote realistic stories.
 Candidates included all the elements of the story; characters, setting and a clear plot.
 Candidates used rich language (including, strong verbs, figurative language, adjectives, and
adverbs)
 Material was excellently developed.
 Candidates observed mechanical accuracy.
POOR RESPONSES
 Candidates did not write a story but discussed what a rich man is and what it is to be rich.
 Those who wrote stories did not capture all the elements of the story and some did not give their
characters names.
 Candidates did not capture the theme of the story.
 Candidates wrote unrealistic stories. For instance, the rich man would withdraw ten million from the
ATM and carry that amount around in a suitcase.
 Candidates wrote work that was not adequately developed and did not punctuate properly.
Overall perfomance
This question was fairly done as most candidates were able to write along the given storyline. Most
candidates wrote narratives and gave a clear description of the main character and how he was rich,
they further showed how this rich man lost his money unexpectedly.
Question 3
Discuss how the public transport system can be improved.
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Expectations
Discuss: give me more information or strategies that can be used to improve the public transport
system; explore
The task required that candidates write an informative piece of writing due to the way it was structured.
There was no controversy in the statement or question. The how part was key. The candidates were
expected to explore or give information on the strategies that can be used to improve the transport
system.
The question demanded that candidates be informative, factual and realistic.
An introduction, body, conclusion and proper paragraphing were expected. Ideas had to be well-
developed, and the right register used.
Good responses
 A good response was one that used an expository approach, unearthing different strategies of
improving the public transport system and developing each strategy at length.
 Candidates merged problems of the public transport system and from there gave solutions.
 Candidates wrote well developed paragraphs giving evidence to their suggestions.
 Candidates displayed independence of thought.
 Candidates used good language.
Poor responses
 Candidates wrote a discursive essay; some wrote argumentative pieces of writing.

 Candidates wrote advantages and disadvantages of using public transport.
 Candidates wrote wanting paragraphs using very poor language.
 Candidates failed to analyse the question thus they answered a fraction of the question explaining
what public transport is.
Overall perfomance
This question was poorly done as most candidates were misled by the term ‘discuss ‘and thus most of
them wrote a discursive essay. Other candidates wrote argumentative essays by creating an
unnecessary controversy in a question. Of note is that those very few candidates who analysed the
question accordingly and wrote expository essays did exceptionally well.
Overall perfomance of candidates in the component
The paper seemed to be challenging to the candidates due to poor question analysis. Therefore, most
candidates failed to meet the examiner’s expectations. This was dominant in Exercise 3 question 1 and
question 3 yet those were the longer compositions with more marks.
Recommendations
 The skill of question analysis should be emphasised as most learners were disadvantaged because
they did not apply that skill.
 Candidates should be exposed to all types of essays or compositions.
 Candidates should be encouraged to display independence of thought especially in persuasive
tasks.
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 Candidates should be encouraged to read in order to expose themselves to a variety of writing

strategies.
 The syllabus should be fully covered and correctly interpreted so that candidates can be exposed to
all needed skills.
 Teaching grammar in context is also advised so that leaners can be exposed to the appropriate
language used in a variety of contexts.
 Mechanical accuracy should be encouraged.
 Candidates should be discouraged from using SiSwati words and direct translations from SiSwati
 The culture of reading should be inculcated.
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Paper 6873/03
Listening Comprehension
General Comments
The 2022 Examination proved to be fairly accessible to a majority of candidates compared to that of the
previous year. The subject matter was generally friendly hence there was no unfamiliar vocabulary
which might have challenged their performance. The marks ranged from 0 to 29, with a majority of
candidates scoring between 10 to 19 marks. Exercise 4 proved to be challenging for some candidates.
Very few candidates were able to score above 20 out of the total of 30 marks.
Poor spelling, not observing the conventions of writing proper nouns and expressions and unclear
handwriting were contributing factors to the poor performance of the candidates. It is of great concern
that candidates are becoming poorer in spelling as the years go by. Teachers are therefore advised to
pay more attention to their learners’ spelling and find ways to assist them. Seemingly, most candidates
were able to use their time efficiently as there were few blank spaces which might have been an
indication that some of them might have been unsure of the correct responses.
This component tests the skill of listening with understanding, selecting and organizing your responses
and listening for specific information. Candidates’ responses indicated that some of them had difficulty
attaining what the assessment objectives demand.
Comments on specific questions
Exercise 1
This exercise was fairly accessible, a majority of the candidates scored maximum marks even though it
was a bit tricky for some and ended up scoring nothing.
Question 1
Why is Mandla nervous?
Expected response: It’s Mandla’s first time to go for an interview.
Candidates’ responses: ‘it was his first time to go for an interview, he had to go for an interview for the
first time, first time to go for an interview, his first time to go for an interview’.
These responses were acceptable and scored marks as long as spellings were all correct and they
were not expected to omit ‘first time’ in their responses. These responses were also expected not to
omit the personal pronoun ‘he or his.’
Common responses that did not score marks were: ‘interview, attend interview, he is going for an
interview, as well as enterview’.
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Question 2
This question was also accessible.
How did Colonel Thomas Dlamini win our hearts?
Expected response: He walked 100 laps around his garden to raise funds (for Eswatini Health
Services)
Candidates’ responses: walked 100 laps around his garden to raise funds.
This response was acceptable even without the Eswatini Health Services. However, other candidates
wrote responses such as: walked 100 lambs, 100 lamps, 100 labs as well as 1000 laps which did not
score marks.
Question 3
What was used to determine the stage of development of the mountain pass?
Expected response: Carbon Dating
Common responses that could not score marks were: carbon, carbonating, carbone, darting,
carbonate and carbon eight. All these responses could not score marks because of spelling mistakes
and missing words. This, however, was a fairly accessible question for most learners.
Question 4
This question proved to be a bit challenging for most candidates.
Besides flying the aircraft, what else does Andile do? Give two details.
Expected responses:
(i) Make calculations on wind speed or weather.
(ii) Make route recommendations.
Candidate’s responses: calculations on speed, calculations on wind, calculations, route

accommodations, root recommendations, rout recommandations.These responses could not score
marks mainly because of spelling errors and for being incomplete.
Exercise 2
This exercise was well done and very accessible for candidates.
Item 1
Purpose
Expected responses: Safety
Security
Candidate’s common responses: safty, securities
These responses could not score marks because of spelling errors.
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Item 2
Rear-view camera
Expected response: wide angle
Candidate’s common response: wild angle, wide angled
The first response could not score marks because of spelling mistakes and the second one was
acceptable. This item was fairly accessible.
Item 3
Blind spot monitoring
Expected responses: Collision
Lanes
Candidate’s common responses that did not score marks: (i) colision
(ii) collision
(iii) lines
(iv) lains
This item in the questions could not be done well by some candidates because of spelling mistakes and
not perceiving what the answer was.
Item 4
Forward crash monitoring
Expected response: impending
Common responses that could not score a mark: inpending, pending, impernding
These responses could not score a mark because of spelling errors.
Item 5
Safety exit assist
Expected responses: children
getting
Common responses that could not score marks: childrens, geting.
Others used synonyms for getting such as moving and stepping which could not score marks.
Otherwise this was a fairly accessible item in the question.
Exercise 3
Generally, this exercise was fairly accessible.
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Item 1
What your hair reflects
Expected response: brittle
This proved to be inaccessible to a majority of candidates due to spelling errors .The incorrect spelling
included ‘brutal’, ‘beauty’, ‘brittlee’, ‘breetle’ etc.
Item 2
Health reasons
Expected response: consume
This part was fairly accessible to the candidates. Those who failed to score gave answers such as
‘consumer’, ‘consum’etc.
Expected response: Iron
This part was fairly accessible to the candidates. Those who failed to score gave answers such as ‘ion’,
‘nutrition’, ‘protein’etc.
Item 3:
Off balance
Expected response: surgery
This part was generally accessible. Candidates who failed to score gave incorrect spellings such as
‘sugary’, ‘sergury’, ‘surgeon’ etc.
Expected response: hormonal
The second detail ‘hormonal’ was fairly accessible. However, candidates who did not score a mark
gave incorrect answers such as ‘homone’, ‘homorn’, ‘hormonial’ etc.
Item 4
Lifestyle
Expected response: damage
This part was extremely well attempted with only a few candidates giving incorrect responses such as
‘damaged’, ‘demage’ etc.
Expected response: moisturised
This was fairly accessible to most candidates with only a few failing to score a mark as a result of
writing inaccurate spelling.
Expected response: enhances
This item proved to be challenging to a majority of candidates. Candidates who failed to score a mark
wrote incorrect answers such as ‘inhences’, ‘hence’, ‘enhernces’ etc.
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Expected response: growth
This part was extremely well attempted by a majority of candidates with only a few giving incorrect
responses such as ‘grow’ etc.
Expected response: overlap
This part was fairly accessible. A majority of candidates were able to write the correct spelling of
‘overlap’.
Exercise 4
This exercise proved challenging for most candidates.
1 What is the importance of being grateful? Give two details.

Expected responses:
(i) (makes people to) feel more, positive emotions/ emotionally.
Many candidates scored on this item. However, those who omitted the adverb, ‘more’
and the noun, ‘emotion’ failed to score.
Others failed to score because of wrong spellings such as; positive, positive, positive.
There were those candidates who failed to score because they wrote wrong responses
such as; ‘help people to feel more positive experiences.’
Some could not score because they used the homophone ‘fill’ instead of ‘feel’.
(ii) Relish good experiences.
Few candidates who wrote this response were able to get it correct.
(iii) Improve one’s health.
This was a common response amongst the candidates. However, some failed to score
due to wrong spelling of ‘health’. They wrote; ‘helth’, ‘healt’. They were those who
added a –y to ‘health’, thus changing the part of speech which made them not to score.
Some omitted –l ending up writing an existing word, ‘heath’ which also did not score.
(iv) Deal with adversity.
Only a few candidates gave this response and they were able to score a mark.
(v) Build strong relationship/relations.
This was common response amongst the candidates. However, some could not score
due to wrong spellings. For example, ‘buld’, ‘buid’, ‘relashionship’, ‘relationship’,
‘relashinship’.
Some substituted ‘strong’ with ‘positive’. Others substituted ‘relationship’ with attitude’.
2 What is the impact of gratitude on problem solving?

Expected response: (Positive people) respond (more) effectively/effective (to problems)/
(When people see a problem) they kick into solution mode (rather than despair)
A few candidates were able to score in this item. Those who failed to score substituted,
‘effectively’’ with ‘positive’’.
For the second option, they failed to score because they gave an incomplete response, leaving
out ‘mode’. Some were writing ‘mood’ instead of ‘mode’. Some candidates were using wrong
prepositions. For example, ‘it’, ‘in’, ‘at’, ‘on’, ‘with’.
22
3 Give the expression used to show that gratitude is nurtured.

Expected response: tiny seed that takes root and grows
This question proved to be the most challenging for most candidates. They could not pick the
expression. Those who attempted this question, wrongly spelt ‘tiny’. They wrote ‘time’, ‘tinny’.
Other responses were incomplete. For example, ‘tiny seed that takes root’.
4 How does gratitude build one’s character?
Expected response: helps people communicate better/stimulates better communication.
Most candidates scored in this question and those who could not score gave responses
such as: ‘stimulate’, ‘stimulate communication’. Some omitted the adjective ‘better’, while others
substituted ‘better’ with either ‘good’ or ‘positive’. There were those who could not score due to
spelling errors. For example: ‘stimulat’, ‘sitimulate’, ‘stimulate’, ‘beter’, ‘communication’. Others
substituted ‘communication’ with ‘character’, ‘attitude’ and ‘condition’.
5 What positive emotions are evoked by gratitude? Give two details.
Expected response: Happiness and Empathy
Most candidates could not score because they were not able to get both items correct. They
could not differentiate between positive and negative emotions. Also, some could not because
of spelling mistakes, for example: instead of ‘happiness’ they wrote ‘heppiness’, ‘ hapnes’, ‘
happeness’, ‘hapieness’. Instead of empathy they wrote ‘emphathy’ and ‘ermpathy’.
Exercise 5
1 Where is the Sahara Desert located?
Expected response: North Africa
Most candidates could not score as they failed to punctuate correctly as this was a proper noun.
Most wrote small letter ‘n ’for North and small letter ‘a’ for Africa. Others were let down by the
spelling as they wrote: Nourth Afrika.
Some wrote: North of South Africa, West North Africa, South Africa, North America thus failing
to score the mark. Some failed to identify the correct answer as they simply listed the different
countries which were mentioned.
2 In which country is the highest point of the desert?
Expected response: Chad
This was also a proper noun which some candidates to recognize since they wrote small letter
‘c’ which resulted in them forfeiting the mark. Others failed to spell correctly since they wrote
Chard ,chud ,child ,china.
3 What makes the summer extremely hot?
Expected response: lack of/no cloud cover/low humidity
Quite a huge number of candidates were able to identify the correct response. However,some
could not score because they wrote lake, cloth cover, plant cover,. Others were let down by the
spelling of humidity as they wrote hummidity, humidy, humid.
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4 How do trees survive in the desert?
Expected response: form deep roots to find water for survival
This question was a bit challenging for quite a number of the candidates as they simply wrote
‘form deep roots’ without explaining how the deep roots help the trees to survive . Others wrote
‘fall dip’ which completely distorted the meaning. Some instead of writing ‘deep’, wrote ‘long’.
Some were let down by direct translations from SiSwati as they wrote ‘’fetch/hunt water ,thus
they could not score the mark.
5 Why are desert mammals fairly small?
Response :they don’t lose too much water/they don’t easily get dehydrated
This question proved to be inaccessible for most candidates. Some failed to spell lose as they
wrote loose ,loss ,use .Others wrote ‘’much ,to much ,so much, more instead of too much.
Others said they lose too much water instead of the negative they ‘don’t lose’
Others simply wrote ’they don’t become dehydrated’ omitting the word easily in their answers.
6 How do physical adaptations of the camel enable it to be a ship of the desert?

Give two details.
Expected response: Fatty deposits in its hump enable it to travel through the desert for days
without food and water.
Thick lips enable it to eat leaves of thorny plants/dry grass/salty plants.
Thick paw pads enable it to traverse the rocky terrain
Slit nostrils to protect nose from sand storms.
Heavy eyebrows and lashes to protect eyes from sand storms. (any 2)
This question was the most challenging as it required two aspects .Most candidates failed to
score as the wrote one aspect of the answer. Most wrote ‘thick lips’, ‘stick lips’ ‘tick lips’, ‘leaps’
without writing the thick lips helped the camel. Some, instead of writing leaves of thorny plants
wrote ‘thorny leaves/tony plants/thony plants/solid plants’. Some simply wrote ‘can go for days
without food and water’ without mentioning the physical adaptations. Others wrote ‘heavy
eyebrows’ and left out the lashes. Some wrote slit nostrills protect noise thus failing to score.
Recommendations
 Extensive reading is key. Most candidates could hear the answers but failed to write the
responses correctly.
 Candidates should be taught inferential skills since when looking at the paper, there is more of
listening and then inferring rather than just picking answers.
 Teachers should give constant practise so that learners get used to the listening rather than
waiting for the exam
 Grammar and principles of grammar should be also taught in schools
 Teachers should teach learners how to listen, they should teach the listening skill rather than
just making them to listen and then grading their work.
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 The speaking of English should be reintroduced in schools.

 Teachers should encourage learners to use clear and legible handwriting.
 Learners should avoid too much cancelling /overwriting.
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Paper 6873/04
Oral Communication
General Comments
The overall performance of candidates showed a slight improvement from that of 2021. Most
candidates were above average due to the familiarity of the subject matter in most of the cards.
Exposure to the basics of the language proved to be a huge advantage once again.
The card that was most accessible was Card E - Homework. The card proved to be the easiest and it
did not discriminate since every candidate was exposed to homework. Card A – Food Security and
Card B – Global Warming were accessible too although they were discriminating at some point since
both of them required candidates to have some background information on the subject matter.
Nonetheless, candidates were able to respond relevantly and at length using information from relevant
subjects (Geography, Agriculture, Food and Nutrition, etc). Card D – Fashion also proved to be
accessible and candidates were able to contribute at length in the conversation. Card C – Outdoor
Recreation was least popular and at times misconstrued because some examiners channeled
candidates to talk about sports.
Question Analyses
Card A – FOOD SECURITY
Card A was most popular and easily accessible because candidates know a lot about food production
and its availability since most of them are exposed to farming practices. This card proved to be very
friendly to learners and those examined on it did very well. Candidates were able to narrate their
personal experiences in relation to food security at home, in the country and the whole world. It was
noted that a majority of candidates who performed well were those who talked about sources of food in
the country, advantages of having enough food, food export and how it improves the country’s
economy, crime rate being reduced since food will be available. It was interesting to note that such
responses proved that the candidates understood what food security was. However, weak candidates
misinterpreted the phrase ‘food security’ to mean providing security for food/protecting it from being
stolen.
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Card B – GLOBAL WARMING
This card was also accessible, but proved much friendly to those candidates doing subjects like
Agriculture and Geography. Those candidates did exceptionally well since they displayed vast
knowledge on the subject matter. They were able to use precise words and expressions such as
‘depletion of the ozone layer’, ‘greenhouse gases’, ‘carbon sinks’, ‘heatwaves’, ‘fossil fuels’, etc. The
card proved to favor even the average candidates; they were able to sustain the conversation,
explaining the causes, describing the effects and bringing up solutions on how organizations and
individuals can help reduce global warming. It is worth mentioning that some candidates were not able
to name organisations that help fight against global warming, however with the knowledge they had,
they were able to create names of organisations and also suggested what can be done by governments
and industries to curb global warming. Non-exposure to the concept affected the general performance
hence the weak candidates were only able to give the definition and list the causes and effects, failing
to elaborate or even cite relevant examples. It was noted that most examiners interfered a lot with the
candidates’ responses, probing them a lot and interrupting with the candidates’ own views regarding the
topic mainly because they were eager to learn more from the candidates, resulting to candidates losing
focus. Examiners should be careful not to do this
Card C – OUTDOOR RECREATION
At face value the card was easily accessible but the candidates had difficulties unpacking the word
‘recreation’ when expressing themselves; they only considered outdoor activities and disregarded the
recreational part. The subject matter of the card seemed familiar one way or the other to all candidates.
A majority talked a lot about sporting activities as outdoor recreation simply because most of them are
only exposed to sports which take place outside in the open such as netball, soccer, athletics, etc. At
times they would fail to bring out the fun/pleasure out of such activities since the sports are done at
school as extra-curricular. Also, some examiners and candidates would talk of ‘outdoors activities’ when
referring to a number of outdoor activities. Outstanding candidates spoke about hiking, fishing, skiing,
biking, cycling and hunting expeditions. They were able to sustain the conversation by describing how
passionate they were about these and further discussed the advantages of engaging in outdoor
activities and provided suggestions on how to encourage citizens to engage more in outdoor activities.
Card D – FASHION
Particularly a popular and easily accessible card to candidates. A majority of candidates were able to
talk about popular fashion trends with some candidates even mentioning fashion icons, fashionable
clothes, cars, cellphones and hairstyles although the examiner limited the discussion to dressing.
Hence, a majority of candidates dwelt much on the dress code while some of them would stray and talk
about formal wear, casual wear, traditional regalia and worse school uniform. In addition, some
candidates were heard using the phrase ‘wearing formally’ instead of dressing formally. The
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candidates, however, had a lot to say since they were exposed to fashionable clothes on social media
and television. It is worth noting that the term ‘fashion’ is very broad but the definition and the bullet
points seemed to channel the candidates to speak about ways of dressing yet other candidates
understood that could also mean popular trends in cars, cellphones, housing and a lot more. A few
candidates would list the fashion trends but fail to describe them or rather describe the effects of
fashion on our lives. It was noticeable that most examiners selected this card for females mostly
because they believed that girls understand fashion much better than boys so they would relate yet it
was a different case. Boys also did exceptionally well.
Card E – HOMEWORK
Card E was the most popular of all the five cards. Most candidates who received this card performed
exceptionally well. The conversations were quite long and informative on how learners perceived
homework. Candidates who were given this card were at ease to talk about their personal experiences
of doing homework and were able to voice out their opinions and observations with regard to
homework. The candidates were also able to respond to change in direction of the conversation talking
about how homework has benefited them, giving advice to their schoolmates. This angle got them
talking at length. However, there was a misconception on the second bullet point ‘importance of
discipline’ where some learners talked about being punished for not doing homework instead of
mentioning points like ‘being focused, meeting deadline or avoiding distractors.’ It was also noted that
some examiners as well as candidates would say ‘homeworks’ when referring to too much homework
which is grammatically incorrect.
Points of concern regarding examiners
 In some instances, examiners failed to lead or prompt candidates towards the right direction.
 Some Examiners had challenges in following the marking criteria. They were either too lenient or
too severe when awarding marks. Examiners should always refer closely to the marking criteria for
each and every candidate for proper allocation of marks.
 If there are two or more examiners in the centre, they should first coordinate their understanding of
the marking criteria beforehand to reach a common ground.
 Also worth noting is that examiners had a tendency of offsetting candidates by asking them tricky
questions channeling them to their own (the examiners) school of thought.
 Some examiners’ line of questioning demanded candidates to either agree or disagree hence
making it difficult for candidates to express their own viewpoints if they were not similar to those of
the teacher-examiner.
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 Some centres made the test seem like an interview or a question and answer session, as a result
candidates sounded intimidated by such.
Conduct of the Oral Exam
Conducting the exam has greatly improved except for a few challenges that were noted.
Part A
This is where the Examiner is expected to begin the recording by giving the candidate’s name and
number. Examiners were inconsistent in a few centres, in that some examiners gave a wrong
examination number or a wrong name to a particular candidate. Sometimes they allowed candidates to
introduce themselves, of which they would do, but then forget to give their examination numbers.
Examiners are urged to always use the Attendance Register to verify candidates’ names and numbers
and call these out when introducing the candidates. A number of examiners also failed to use this part
to briefly explain what was going to happen in the course of the exam. In some centres, where there
were two or more examiners, the examination was not well coordinated. You would find that one
examiner would follow the procedure correctly while the others did not. Examiners are advised to
coordinate their understanding of the Examiner’s Notes before conducting the examination so that a
common standard is applied to all candidates.
Part B
This is the Warm-Up Session. It was a challenge for some Examiners. Some sessions were
conspicuously long while others were shorter than the stipulated 2-3 minutes. Some examiners
discussed all the cards or rather the contents of each card in this section, which is discouraged.
Examiners are advised to discuss general issues (ask few questions about candidates, the school, etc)
that will put candidates at ease and help them get used to the examination situation. After that the
examiner should then decide which card will be given to the candidate. However, it is worth noting that
most examiners were able to use the warm-up effectively.
Part C
Handing the Assessment Card to the candidate was not done satisfactorily by some Centres. At this
point, the Examiner should mention which card has been selected for the candidate. This process
should always be on record, and the Examiner must pause the recording. This should be indicated by
saying ‘the recording will now be paused’. This allows the external moderator to know that the
candidate was given time to study the card.
Part D
The Main Part of the test which is assessed, showed a great improvement. Some centres failed to
adhere to the stipulated time, which is about 6-9 minutes. The conversations were conspicuously long
29
or rather too short. Examiners are reminded to expertly control candidates so that they do not stretch
the conversations for too long. In case of short conversations, it was partly because the Examiners did
not clarify the prompts for the candidates as they would stick rigidly to the given prompts or those
particular candidates had difficulty expressing themselves.
In some instances, Examiners simply read the prompts as they were on the card then asked the
candidates what they thought about them. When the candidates were confronted with such, they had
difficulty in expressing their views without the examiner’s guidance. Others were made to make long
presentations without the examiner’s assistance in making the conversation flow. This is strongly
discouraged as the test is supposed to be a conversation between the candidate and the examiner, not
a presentation. Examiners should always remember that they are there to guide each candidate
through the conversation and should always appear interested in what the candidate is saying. The
expectation is that the examiner should then allocate marks accordingly.
Some centres did not arrange the recordings on the CDs numerically as they appeared on the
attendance register. The summary form should also follow that order. A few centres submitted CDs with
incomplete recordings, with missing candidates or no sound. Having said that, centres are urged to
listen to the recordings and create back-up before submitting them to ECESWA.
Paperwork
This year a number of mistakes were encountered and they included the following:
 Using a pencil when filling in the summary form – always use ink.
 Wrong calculation of marks on the Summary Forms – it is advisable to cross-check if the

calculations have been done correctly.
 Some candidates had no marks in the Summary Forms yet they appeared in the recording and
also on the MS1. The distribution of marks on the Summary Forms is very important for
moderation purposes. In case of internal moderation, examiners are advised to provide the
distribution too.
 Some Centres did not write the numerical scores on the MS1 Form, but only shaded. On the
other hand, other centres did not shade the zeros for scores like 10, 20 and 30.
 Absent candidates were not marked appropriately in the Attendance Registers and MS1 Form –
always make sure that absent candidates are marked appropriately, do not leave blank spaces.
 Always submit the Attendance Register. The duplicate should remain at the centre as a form of
back-up copy.
30
Centres are reminded to always submit all relevant material to ECESWA – marked Attendance
Register, completed Summary Form, all recorded CDs with labels and MS1 Form. The MS1 Form must
have numerical scores transferred correctly from the Summary Form and shaded appropriately and
neatly. In addition, the MS1 Form should have the unlisted page even if there are no candidates written
there.
Recorded CDs
Generally, recording has greatly improved. However, there were still a few centres where problems
were encountered. These included the following:
 Some CDs were inaudible (volume too low especially the candidate’s part) – centres are urged
to check their CDs for audibility before submission and also ensure that every candidate is
clearly audible.
 Other centres submitted empty CDs – Examiners should always check their recordings before
submission.
 Some centres did not submit all the candidates’ recordings while for other centres some
conversations did not run up to the end – centre must ensure that all candidates appear on the
recording before submitting to ECESWA.
 In some centres, there was a lot of background noise, either from the recording equipment or
external noise.
 For a few centres, the recording was just one long file for all the candidates, instead of separate
files for each candidate, labelled with his/her examination number and name. This helps to see
that all candidates are present in the recording.
 Examiners/teachers are also encouraged to label candidates number and name in the
recordings for easy identification.
 Examiners are advised to arrange candidates in the CDs in the order in which they appear in the
Attendance Register.
Conversations
In this section as well, there was great improvement, except for only a few instances as compared to
the previous years. These included some of the following:
 Indicating candidate number and name was not consistent in some centres;
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 In some centres, explanation of the exam procedure was not applied in the same way to all the
candidates - Examiners are reminded to consult the Examiner’s/Teacher’s Notes to ensure they
conform to the expectations of conducting the exam. It is expected that a common standard
procedure is applied to all the candidates;
 Some examiners did not use the warm up sessions to select the appropriate card for the
candidates. Examiners are encouraged to use this part of the exam to select the appropriate
card for the candidates;
 Some warm up sessions were rather too long, resulting to the main part of the exam being
short;
 Some examiners conducted the oral exam as if it was a question and answer session, or a
presentation yet it is supposed to be a conversation. In some instances, a candidate will present
from bullet one to the last bullet without the Examiner’s guidance or intervention which then
sounded like a rehearsed presentation;
 Examiners are encouraged to ask ‘open’ questions which allow candidates to respond at length
and should not interrupt with their own views;
 Some examiners/teachers did not simplify the prompts for the candidates, sometimes resulting
to weak candidates being stuck and not knowing how to proceed with the examination. It is
important to simplify the prompts to the candidates so that even the weak candidates can be
able to say something on the issue being discussed. It is also equally important to unpack and
simplify the stem of the question to ensure that each candidate understands what it means;
 If it becomes apparent that the candidate finds the topic difficult or inappropriate, it is
permissible to move into more productive areas, rather than to stick rigidly to the Examiner’s
prompts;
 Examiners are reminded that the purpose of the oral session is to examine candidates, as such,
they should be given more time to talk than the examiners themselves;
 Most importantly, examiners are encouraged to read and follow the guide stipulated in the
Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes. Furthermore, to conduct oral tests effectively, good examiners
should familiarise themselves with the Oral test before the test is conducted.
Conclusion
Examiners are applauded for the splendid work done in the 2022 English Language Oral Examination.
Nevertheless, examiners are encouraged to continue with the spirit of working as a team whilst
preparing the candidates and conducting the exam together. It is worth mentioning that centres must
32
ensure that their recording equipment is in good condition and also check audibility levels before
recording begins. Moreover, centres that have two or more examiners are advised to conduct internal
workshops beforehand so that a common working criterion is applied by all examiners when awarding
marks. Last but not least, examiners are encouraged to seek advice every time they face internal
problems when conducting the exam before submitting relevant material to ECESWA.
33

EGCSE English Language 2022 Exminer Report

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ESWATINI

ENGLISH LANGUAGE (6873)

Subject Code: Name of Component: Page No:

6873 English Language P1 ………….. 3-9

6873 English Language P2 ………….. 10 - 17

6873 English Language P3 ………….. 18 - 25

6873 English Language P4 ………….. 26- 34

EGCSE ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Reading and Writing

Comments on Specific Questions

(a) What is telecommunications?

Expected response: It is communications at a distance by technological means,

This was an accessible question to most candidates.

(b) How is has the role of telecommunication in the world changed?

Expected response: (i) they no longer have patience

(ii) they want feedback instantly

(d) How does an email reach its recipient?

(e) Which medium of communication is common globally?

Expected response: cellphone/mobile phone

This was an accessible question.

Expected response: (i) people can improve their lives/online studying

(i) Give four ways in which telecommunications has changed business.

(i) companies stretch beyond borders

(ii) companies grow into multi-national corporations

(iii) online trading

(iv) electronic commerce

(v) business transactions/ transact (any 4)

Differences with humans

1. have fewer muscles to define expressions

2. do not speak our language

Bad Effects of chaining dogs

4. creates behavioural problems/loses its mind

6. becomes dangerous to children and innocent people/creates unsafe neighbourhoods

7. torments the dog (any 3)

Regulations for good chaining

8. temporary tethering/ not more than 3 hours at a time

9. continually in owner's sight

10. at least 6 months old

11. access to fresh food and water

12. provide shelter/ not outside during extreme weather conditions

13. tether by leather or nylon collar or body harness

The question was accessible to most candidates.

Expected response: obtaining a learner's licence

Expected response: she detests/hates/is against such beliefs/defiant/rebellious/

(e) How does she show her individual freedom to society?

The question was accessible

Expected response: afraid of breaking rules/ scared of being different/ fear of

Expected response: it has helped her through her journey of self-appreciation/helped

(ii) lasting/enduring friendships are formed

(iii) more in touch with nature

(iv) being completely in the moment (any 2)

2. interferes with daily function

3. hiding one's financial status/not discussing money publicly

4. unable to have financial conversations with your partner/family members

5. denying yourself basic needs/hoarding/excessive spending

6. continually flouting good spending rules (any 3)

7. being a financially accountability partner/offer sustainable help

9. read reputable articles/do some research