QATAR

PROMETRIC
QUESTIONS FOR
BASIC
PARAMEDIC

1. At what age does the respiratory system begin to feel the effects of aging?
A.) 10
B.) 30
C.) 40
D.) 20

2. What is the most common complaint for the elderly patient with a respiratory emergency?
A.) Congestion

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 B.) Wheezing
C.) Coughing
D.) Dyspnea

3. Which is NOT considered a complicating factor when assessing an elderly patient?

A.) Hard to determine if acute or chronic
B.) Suffer from more than one condition
C.) Pain sensors are diminished
D.) Over reporting of symptoms

4. What can a seizure be mistaken for in an elderly patient?

A.) Dementia
B.) Stroke
C.) Syncope
D.) Dysrhythmia

5. What is the most common cause of aortic dissection in the elderly patient?
A.) Syphilis
B.) Arteriosclerosis
C.) Congenital defect
D.) Connective-tissue disorder

6. What age marks the beginning of the "old-old" period?

A.) 65
B.) 55
C.) 85
D.) 75

7. What is the primary presentation of geriatric abuse?

A.) Unexplained memory loss
B.) Unexplained trauma
C.) Unexplained illness
D.) Unexplained medications

8. Which condition is an inflammation of the lining of the stomach?

A.) Mallory-Weiss tear
B.) Gastritis
C.) Esophageal varices
D.) Peptic ulcer

9. What is the average reduction in the weight of the brain in the elderly patient?
A.) 2-3%
B.) 5-6%
C.) 3-4%
D.) 6-7%

10. What is typically involved with a bowel obstruction in the elderly patient?
A.) Stomach
B.) Small bowel
C.) Large bowel
D.) Colon
11. What can be an especially important indicator of the elderly patient's diseases?

A.) Eye sight

B.) House condition

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 C.) Mental status
D.) Medications
12. What is an acute alteration in mental functioning that is often reversible?

A.) Dementia
B.) Senile dementia
C.) Senility
D.) Delirium
13. Which factor predisposes the elderly to hyperthermia?

A.) Drugs that interfere with heat production

B.) CNS disorders
C.) Accident exposure
D.) Low or fixed income
14. What makes the elderly more likely to sustain a brain injury than the young?

A.) Decreased brain size

B.) Increased skull size
C.) Decreased skull size
D.) Increased brain size
15. Which type of syncope can occur following emotional stress?

A.) Cardiac
B.) Vasovagal
C.) Orthostatic
D.) Vasodepressor
16. What condition results from a blood clot in the leg lodging itself in the patient's lung?

A.) Pulmonary embolism

B.) Pneumonia
C.) Cancer
D.) Pulmonary edema
17. Which medication is NOT considered a common cause of toxicity in the elderly patient?

A.) Methylprednisolone
B.) Inderal
C.) Hydrochlorothiazide
D.) Elavil
18. What is the increase in the size or bulk of an organ that occurs with age?

A.) Hypotrophy
B.) Fibrosis
C.) Hypertrophy
D.) Spondylolysis

19. How much fluid should be given over a 10-20 minute period to treat a pediatric patient for
hypovolemic shock?

A.) 30 mL/kg
B.) 20 mL/kg
C.) 40 mL/kg
D.) 50 mL/kg
20. Which is NOT a common illness/injury for a child between 6-12 years old?

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 A.) Dehydration
B.) Fractures
C.) Burns
D.) Drowning

21. Which direction should the examination of a 9 month old progress?

A.) Back-to-front
B.) Toe-to-head
C.) Head-to-toe
D.) Front-to-back

22. What is the most common mechanism of injury in pediatric trauma emergencies?

A.) Motor vehicle accidents

B.) Burns
C.) Drowning
D.) Firearms

23. Which should NOT trigger suspicion of child abuse?

A.) Delay in seeking help for the child

B.) Child inappropriately dressed
C.) Injuries in various stages of healing
D.) Fracture in a 15 year old child

24. Which is NOT an objective of medication therapy in pediatric cardiac arrest?

A.) Correction of hypoxemia

B.) Deceleration of the heart rate
C.) Correction of metabolic acidosis
D.) Suppression of ventricular extopy

25. What mechanism of head injury is NOT commonly seen in a school-aged child?

A.) Bicycle accidents

B.) Falls from trees
C.) Sporting events
D.) Auto-pedestrian accidents

26. What is the biggest risk associated with vomiting in a child?

A.) Obstruction
B.) Dehydration
C.) Malnutrition
D.) Aspiration

27. What medication should be administered to a seizing child?

A.) Neurontin
B.) Epinephrine
C.) Diazepam
D.) Dopamine

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28. What is the normal pulse rate of a 6 year old?

A.) 90-120
B.) 70-110
C.) 60-90
D.) 100-160

29. What is the most commonly injured organ in children?

A.) Spleen
B.) Intestine
C.) Liver
D.) Stomach

30. What should be done first when treating a child for an asthma attack?

A.) Establish an airway

B.) Administer supplemental, humidified oxygen
C.) Administer a steroid preparation
D.) Administer an inhaled beta agonist

31. Which type of seizure occurs as a result of a sudden increase in body temperature?

A.) Meningitis
B.) Epileptic
C.) Febrile
D.) Hypoxic

32. Which age group should be interviewed outside of the parent's presence?

A.) 12-15 years

B.) 6-12 years
C.) 3-5 years
D.) 1-3 years

33. What is characteristic of croup?

A.) Drooling
B.) Slow onset
C.) Child prefers to sit up
D.) Occasional stridor

34. What is the skin condition of a child who is severely dehydrated?

A.) Dry and ashen

B.) Moist and red
C.) Normal
D.) Dry, cool, mottled

35. Which location should be used for vascular access only in a life-threatening event in a
pediatric patient?

A.) Scalp vein

B.) Arm vein

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 C.) Foot vein
D.) External jugular vein

36. What is the primary emotional response of a child to an emergency?

A.) Fear
B.) Sadness
C.) Guilt
D.) Anger

37. At what age should the anterior fontanelle be diminished?

A.) 9 months
B.) 6 months
C.) 3 months
D.) 12 months

38. Which is NOT a true statement about the difference between a child's and an adult's airway
management?

A.) The epiglottis is U-shaped and extends into the pharynx

B.) The vocal cords are short and concave
C.) The child's larynx is slightly lower in the neck
D.) The narrowest portion of the airway is at the level of the cricoid cartilage in children less than 8
years

39. What should have happened to a child's weight in relation to the birth weight between the
ages of 1-5 months?

A.) Doubled
B.) Remain the same
C.) Tripled
D.) Quadrupled

40. What is the peak age for SIDS to occur?

A.) 2-4 months

B.) 1 month - 1 year
C.) 8 months - 2 years
D.) 6-9 months

41. If a documented fever is present in a child of less than 3 months, what should be assumed
is the cause until proven otherwise?

A.) Reye's syndrome

B.) Meningitis
C.) Croup
D.) Epiglottitis

42. Who is NOT generally a sexual abuser?

A.) Stranger to the child

B.) Someone known to the family
C.) Family member
D.) Someone the child trusts

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43. When should the child be questioned about their emergency?

A.) 3-5 years

B.) 6-9 months
C.) 1-3 years
D.) 2-6 months

44. Which condition would NOT lead the paramedic to use Rapid Cardiopulmonary Assessment?

A.) Respiratory rate of less than 60

B.) Altered level of consciousness
C.) Heart rate greater than 180 for child under 5 years
D.) Fever with petechiae (small skin hemorrhages)

45. When should the child's respiratory rate be taken?

A.) After the examination

B.) Before the examination
C.) Do not take the respiratory rate
D.) During the examination

46. Which is a symptom of septic shock?

A.) Tachycardia
B.) Mottled skin
C.) Poor feeding
D.) Ill appearance

47. What is wheezing in a child under the age of one year frequently due to?

A.) Bronchiolitis
B.) Asthma
C.) Epiglottitis
D.) Tonsillitis

48. Which type of fracture is characterized by a bulging projection at the fracture site?

A.) Bend
B.) Greenstick
C.) Buckle
D.) Yellowstick

49. Which is a non-cyanotic problem associated with congenital heart disease?

A.) Altered mental status

B.) Drowsiness
C.) Irritability
D.) Inconsolable crying
50. What is the primary treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease?

A.) Morphine pump

B.) Spinal tap
C.) Walking around
D.) IV antibiotics

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51. Which is NOT true in regards to preserving evidence with a sexual assault victim?

A.) Handle clothing as little as possible

B.) Do not examine the perineal area
C.) Bag each item separately
D.) Clean all of the patient's wounds

52. Which condition involves fluid filled pockets and is sometimes associated with ovulation?

A.) Ectopic pregnancy

B.) Ovarian cysts
C.) Cystitis
D.) Appendicitis

53. What is the interior lining of the uterus called?

A.) Labia
B.) Perineum
C.) Endometrium
D.) Urethra

54. Which side-effect can occur with IUD usage?

A.) Heart attack

B.) Uterine infection
C.) Pulmonary embolism
D.) Hypertension

55. What should be used to determine how regular a patient's periods tend to be?

A.) Patient's past experience

B.) National average time between
C.) National average length
D.) Patient's family history

56. What is the most common cause of nontraumatic abdominal pain for the gynecological
emergency patient?

A.) Pelvic inflammatory disease

B.) Ovarian cysts
C.) Ectopic pregnancy
D.) Mittleschmertz

57. Which is NOT important when dealing with the victim of sexual assault?

A.) Examine gentialia when hemorrhage is present

B.) Offer a cover to the patient
C.) Details of the attack
D.) Professionalism and calm approach

58. Which organ is the female gonad?

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 A.) Fallopian tube
B.) Uterus
C.) Ovary
D.) Cervix

59. Which should NEVER be done when dealing with vaginal bleeding of unknown origin?

A.) Pack the vagina with gauze

B.) Start IV of lactated Ringer's solution
C.) Apply antishock trousers
D.) Put pressure over the laceration

60. What is the approximate size of an unpregnant uterus?

A.) 5 cm
B.) 15 cm
C.) 10 cm
D.) 20 cm

61. What hormone dominates during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

A.) Progesterone
B.) PH
C.) LH
D.) Estrogen

62. Which is the name of the hole in the heart that closes as a result of pressure which stops
blood flow from the right to left atrium at birth?

A.) Foramen magnum

B.) Ductus venous
C.) Ductus arteriosus
D.) Foramen ovale

63. Which term means a woman who is pregnant for the first time?

A.) Primigravida
B.) Multigravida
C.) Multipara
D.) Primipara

64. What is the circulatory makeup of the umbilical cord?

A.) Two arteries and one vein

B.) Two arteries and two veins
C.) One artery and one vein
D.) One artery and two veins

65. Which is NOT a management tool used with a patient suspected of having an ectopic pregnancy?

A.) Apply antishock trousers

B.) Administer high-flow oxygen
C.) Administer blood thinners
D.) IV of lactated Ringer's solution

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66. What gestational age can be assumed if fetal movements can be palpated upon exam?

A.) 16
B.) 20
C.) 14
D.) 18

67. Which is NOT a predisposing factor to abruptio placentae?

A.) Extremely long umbilical cord

B.) Abdominal trauma
C.) Preeclampsia
D.) Maternal hypertension

68. Which condition involves the uterus turning inside out after delivery?

A.) Uterine embolism

B.) Uterine rupture
C.) Uterine hemorrhage
D.) Uterine inversion

69. Which presentation makes vaginal delivery impossible?

A.) Breech
B.) Vertex
C.) Occiput posterior
D.) Transverse

70. What should NOT be done with a patient who has a prolapsed cord?

A.) Administer high flow oxygen

B.) Check the cord for pulsations
C.) Push the cord back in the vagina
D.) Put mother in Trendelenburg position

71. What is the organ that supports the fetus during intrauterine development?

A.) Ovum
B.) Placenta
C.) Umbilical cord
D.) Amniotic fluid

72. If labor begins after which week of gestation is labor considered full term?

A.) 37th
B.) 35th
C.) 36th
D.) 38th

73. Which stage of labor begins with complete dilation of the cervix and ends with delivery of the fetus?

A.) Third
B.) First

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 C.) Second
D.) Fourth

74. What should be administered to the patient suffering from eclampsia in which a seizure seems
imminent?

A.) Tylenol
B.) Valium
C.) Cilium
D.) Sudrol

75. Which type of abortion is characterized by partial passage of fetal tissue?

A.) Criminal
B.) Spontaneous
C.) Incomplete
D.) Threatened

76. How long does the labor last in a precipitous delivery?

A.) More than 9 hours

B.) 6-9 hours
C.) 3-6 hours
D.) Less than 3 hours

77. What is the ideal patient position when taking vital signs of the pregnant patient?

A.) Right side

B.) Prone
C.) Left side
D.) Suspine

78. Which type of placenta previa has occurred when the placenta is adjacent to the cervical os but does
not extend over it?

A.) Total
B.) Marginal
C.) Complete
D.) Partial

79. What is involved with suspine-hypotensive syndrome?

A.) Extreme weight of the uterus on the vena cava

B.) Extreme weight of the uterus on the cervix
C.) Extreme weight of the uterus on the placenta
D.) Extreme weight of the uterus on the sacrum

80. At the end of which gestational month may the fetus be able to survive if born?

A.) 3rd month

B.) 5th month
C.) 6th month
D.) 4th month

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81. What questions are important when pregnancy has been confirmed?

A.) Postnatal care

B.) Parity care
C.) Prenatal care
D.) Gravidity care

82. How much blood loss minimum occurs within the first 24 hours after delivery in postpartum
hemorrhage?

A.) 1,000 mL
B.) 500 mL
C.) 700 mL
D.) 900 mL

83. Which method of tocolysis is NOT generally practiced in the field setting?

A.) Epidural
B.) Beta agonist
C.) Sedation
D.) Hydration

84. What is the upper level of a fetal heart rate that indicates fetal distress during delivery?

A.) 110 bpm

B.) 90 bpm
C.) 100 bpm
D.) 120 bpm

85. How far from the baby should the first umbilical cord clamp be placed?

A.) 15 cm
B.) 10 cm
C.) 20 cm
D.) 5 cm

86. Which is characterized by a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or greater in a pregnant

patient who is normally normotensive?

A.) Eclampsia
B.) Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C.) Suspine-hypotension syndrome
D.) Preeclampsia

87. What is the part of the baby that is born first called?

A.) Descending
B.) Protruding
C.) Presenting
D.) Deluding

88. What should be done with every pregnant patient who presents with abdominal pain?

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 A.) Give a mild sedative
B.) Laid on the left side for rest
C.) Given two aspirin
D.) Examine by a physician

89. How should the patient suffering from an abortion be treated?

A.) Same as any hypovolemic shock patient

B.) Same as any normal delivery patient
C.) Same as any congestive heart failure patient
D.) Same as any ectopic pregnancy patient

90. What percentage increase occurs in cardiac output of a pregnant patient?

A.) 50%
B.) 60%
C.) 40%
D.) 30%

91. What is NOT true about infants born to mothers with uncontrolled blood sugar due to
gestational diabetes?

A.) Tend to be large

B.) Tend to have trouble regulating body temperature
C.) Tend to be premature
D.) Tend to be subject to hypoglycemia

92. Which is NOT true in regards to the premature neonate's susceptibility to heat loss?

A.) They have a relatively small surface area and comparatively small body weight
B.) They have inadequate subcutaneous stores of insulating fat
C.) They cannot shiver and must use other warming mechanisms
D.) They have not sufficiently developed the needed control mechanisms to regulate body
temperature

93. How many chest compressions per minute should be performed on a neonate?

A.) 120
B.) 180
C.) 160
D.) 140

94. How much of the lung fluid is removed in the vaginal delivery via chest compressions?

A.) 2/3
B.) 1/3
C.) 1/4
D.) 1/2

95. Which is one of the most common problems in the period immediately following the birth of
the premature neonate?

A.) Cardiac
B.) Musculature

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 C.) Reflexive
D.) Airway

96. How should supplemental oxygen initially be administered to a neonate in distress?

A.) Positive pressure

B.) Bag-valve mask
C.) Blow across the face
D.) Endotracheal intubation

97. How long should suctioning last maximum in a distressed neonate?

A.) 10 seconds
B.) 40 seconds
C.) 20 seconds
D.) 30 seconds

98. What is the first step in caring for the neonate?

A.) Airway management

B.) Prevention of heat loss
C.) Cutting the umbilical cord
D.) Assessment of the neonate

99. Which item is NOT involved in the first step of resuscitating the neonate?

A.) Oxygen
B.) Suction
C.) Warming
D.) Drying

100. What is a baby who is less than one month in age?

A.) Premature
B.) Infant
C.) Toddler
D.) Neonate

101. How long after birth should the umbilical cord clamps be placed?

A.) 60-75 seconds

B.) 45-60 seconds
C.) 15-30 seconds
D.) 30-45 seconds

102. What does the first A in APGAR stand for?

A.) Agitation
B.) Apathy
C.) Appearance
D.) Articulation

103. What is the ideal location for administering medications to the neonate?

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 A.) Intraosseous
B.) Umbilical vein
C.) IV line
D.) Endotracheal tube

104. How long must schizophrenic symptoms be present before a diagnosis can be made?

A.) 6 months
B.) 18 months
C.) 12 months
D.) 24 months

105. What is the most important part of assessing the behavioral emergency patient?

A.) Interview the patient

B.) Control the situation
C.) Understand the situation
D.) Restrain the patient

106. Which is a mood disorder characterized by feelings of hopelessness and malaise?

A.) Anxiety
B.) Schizophrenia
C.) Paranoia
D.) Depression

107. What position should be used to restrain the violent patient on the stretcher?

A.) Left side

B.) Back
C.) Stomach
D.) Right side

108. Which patient would NOT be considered high risk for suicide?

A.) Patient between 25 and 30 years old

B.) Giving away personal belongings
C.) Living alone or in isolation
D.) Divorced or widowed patient

109. When should the paramedic enter the scene of domestic violence?

A.) Arrival of secondary paramedics

B.) When the patient emerges
C.) When the victim emerges
D.) Arrival of the police officer

110. Which is NOT a sign of an anxiety attack?

A.) Trembling
B.) Hypoventilation
C.) Fear of going crazy
D.) Urinary frequency

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111. Which type of organic cause of a behavioral problem results from actual damage to brain
cells?

A.) Drug abuse

B.) Medical illness
C.) Dementia
D.) Trauma

112. What is the single most important factor in dealing with the disturbed patient?

A.) Paramedic's attitude

B.) Paramedic's strength
C.) Paramedic's training
D.) Paramedic's backup

113. Which piece of information is NOT needed to assess the behavioral emergency?

A.) Patient's past life situation

B.) Patient's affect and physical signs
C.) Precipitating situation
D.) Patient's mental status

114. What should NOT be done when dealing with a pediatric patient in crisis?

A.) Separate the child from the parents for treatment

B.) Make explanations brief and simple
C.) Be truthful with the child
D.) Allow the child to keep a favorite toy

115. Which causes the patient to sense perceptions that have no basis in reality?

A.) Hallucinations
B.) Delusions
C.) Delusions
D.) Delirium

116. Which is a recommended way to avoid injury when in a room with a hostile patient?

A.) Keep furniture between you and the patient

B.) Use a blanket to wrap up the patient
C.) Hold a blanket away from your body
D.) Hold a folded blanket in front of your arm

117. Which type of behavioral problem arises from problems within the person?

A.) Interpersonal
B.) Organic
C.) Intrapsychic
D.) Environmental

118. How many people should be available minimum to restrain the unarmed, violent patient?

A.) 4
B.) 6

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 C.) 3
D.) 5

119. Which act allows emergency personnel to find out if they have been exposed to an
infectious disease while rendering aid?

A.) The Ryan White Act

B.) Americans with Disabilities Act
C.) The Disease Control Act
D.) Occupational Safety Act

120. Which is NOT considered a part of basic personal protective equipment?

A.) Resuscitation equipment

B.) HEPA respirators
C.) Disposable gloves
D.) Heat resistant helmets

121. What is designed to protect emergency personnel from communicable diseases?

A.) Infection control

B.) Precaution control
C.) Submersion control
D.) Detection control

122. Which type of AV block is indicated by a PR interval of more than 0.21 seconds?

A.) Third-degree
B.) Fourth-degree
C.) Second-degree
D.) First-degree

123. Which type of axis deviation is said to occur when the calculated axis of the heart's
electrical energy equals or exceeds +105 degrees?

A.) Lower
B.) Left
C.) Upper
D.) Right

124. Where is the V1 lead placed?

A.) Midway between V2 and V4

B.) Anterior axillary line at the same level as V4
C.) Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
D.) Fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum

125. What is disconnected to increase amplitude of the deflection?

A.) Chest lead

B.) Limb lead
C.) Left lead
D.) Ground lead

126. What QRS complex characterizes a right bundle branch block?

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 A.) Greater than or equal to 0.42 second
B.) Greater than or equal to 0.32 second
C.) Greater than or equal to 0.22 second
D.) Greater than or equal to 0.12 second

127. What should be done immediately after the tracing from the portable 12 lead ECG machine
is recorded?

A.) Turn on the machine

B.) Examine the tracing
C.) Perform patient pass-off
D.) Restock equipment for next call

128. Which lead does NOT detect an anterior ischemia?

A.) I
B.) V4
C.) II
D.) V2

129. Where on the full circle is the aVR lead placed?

A.) 120 degrees

B.) 330 degrees
C.) 210 degrees
D.) 90 degrees

130. Which type of block renders the ECG relatively useless for detecting injury?

A.) Left bundle branch

B.) Right bundle branch
C.) Third-degree AV
D.) First-degree AV

131. Which leads should be placed first when using the portable 12 lead ECG machine?

A.) Lead V1
B.) Four limb leads
C.) Grounding lead
D.) Lead V2

132. What condition results from oxygen deprivation to the heart muscles and typically causes
abnormalities in repolarization?

A.) Myocardial ischemia

B.) Myocardial injury
C.) Myocardial transfer
D.) Myocardial infarction

133. How many leads are required to detect bundle branch blocks?

A.) 8
B.) 10

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 C.) 6
D.) 12

134. How many electrodes are require as a minimum to detect the electrical activity of the
heart?

A.) 2
B.) 4
C.) 5
D.) 3

135. Where are the electrodes placed in Lead I?

A.) Negative on right arm, positive on left leg

B.) Negative on left arm, positive on right arm
C.) Negative on left arm, positive on right leg
D.) Negative on right arm, positive on left arm

136. Which is all of the instantaneous vectors occurring during a cardiac cycle?

A.) Resultant intermediate axis

B.) Resultant cardiac vector
C.) Resultant murmur vector
D.) Resultant axis deviation

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