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QP CODE : 1027

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka


MBBS Phase – II (CBME) Degree Examination - 06-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER II (RS-4)


Q.P. CODE: 1027
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 55 year old male patient presented with retrosternal pain radiating to left arm, dyspnoea
and sweating of sudden onset. Patient is a known smoker for the last 20 years
a) What is the provisional diagnosis?
b) Write in detail about the morphological changes of the organ involved
c) Write the biochemical markers indicative of the condition
d) Mention the complications of the disease

2. A 60 year old man developed loss of weight, upper abdominal pain, anorexia and
hematemesis in the last three months. An endoscopy was done which revealed an
exophytic mass in the gastric region.
a) What is the probable diagnosis?
b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis
c) Describe in detail the morphology of the lesion
d) Describe the mode of spread

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks


3.1. Describe the etiology and morphology of chronic Pyelonephritis
4.2. Classify testicular tumours and write about the morphology of Seminoma
5.3. List the malignant tumours of thyroid and describe papillary carcinoma of thyroid
6. Discuss the stages in the evolution of Lobar pneumonia and list the complications
7. Etiology and morphological features of carcinoma cervix
8. Etiology and pathogenesis of pyogenic osteomyelitis

9. Discuss the etiology, serum markers and outcome of chronic active hepatitis
10. Types and morphology of Renal cell carcinoma
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Labelled microscopic diagram of Osteoclastoma
12. Write a note on Glioblastoma multiforme

13. Describe the morphology of Basal cell carcinoma of skin


14. Three important prognostic factors of breast carcinoma
15. Cardiac vegetations
16. Describe the morphology of pleomorphic adenoma
17. Describe the morphology of Bronchiectasis
18. List the types of Gall stone and write three complications
19. Renal complications of diabetes mellitus
20. Describe the morphology of Phyllodes tumour of breast

Page 1 of 3
QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Ferruginous bodies are seen in
A. Silicosis
B. Byssinosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Bagassosis

21 ii) All of the following are true about Adult Polycystic kidney disease EXCEPT
A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Hypertension is rare
C. Can be associated with cysts in liver, lungs and pancreas
D. Pyelonephritis common

21 iii) Lymphoid aggregates is seen in which parotid tumour


A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Warthins tumour
C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

21 iv) Anti-Gliadin antibodies are detected in


A. Tropical sprue
B. Whipples disease
C. Celiac disease
D. Intestinal Lymphoma

21 v) In cirrhosis of liver, collagen is laid down by


A. Hepatocytes
B. Hepatic stellate cells
C. Biliary epithelial cells
D. Kupffer cells

22 i) Which of the following is not a malignant tumour of germ cell origin


A. Mature teratoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Dysgerminoma
D. Embryonal carcinoma

22 ii) Most common site for medulloblastoma is


A. Medulla
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebrum
D. Spinal cord

22 iii) Histological hallmark of Paget’s disease of nipple is


A. Caseous necrosis
B. Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells
C. Atypical lobular hyperplasia
D. Desmoplasia

22 iv) MEN IIB syndrome includes all EXCEPT


A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Marfanoid features
C. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
D. Pheochromocytoma

22 v) Bone tumor arising from diaphysis is


A. Ostogenic sarcoma

Page 2 of 3
QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Giant cell tumour
D. Ewing sarcoma

******

Page 3 of 3
QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – II (CBME) Degree Examination - 25-Feb-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER II (RS-4)


Q.P. CODE: 1027
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. 40 year police constable gives history of epigastric pain and it is relieved after eating
certain food, for the last six months. Now he is presenting with dark coloured stools.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe the etiology, pathogenesis and microscopic feature of this condition
c) Write its complications

2. 60 year female presented with right flank pain and weight loss with fatigue for 3 month
duration. Ultrasound scan shows renal mass in the upper pole measuring 4.3 x 4 cm. urine
microscopy of the patient shows plenty of RBCs.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe the pathogenesis and microscopic variants of the disease
c) Add a note on spread of this disease

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks


3.1. Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
4.2. Osteosarcoma.
5.3. Bronchiectasis.
6. Carcinoma penis.
7. Endometrial hyperplasia.

8. Lobular carcinoma Breast.


9. Hashimotos thyroiditis.
10. Classify CNS tumors.
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Classification of cirrhosis of liver

12. Microscopic picture of Malignant Melanoma.

13. Write three morphological features of urothelial carcinoma of urinary bladder


14. Psammoma bodies.
15. Pagets disease of Bone.
16. Barretts esophagus.
17. Gross features of Seminoma.
18. Microscopic picture of Pleomorphic adenoma of salivary gland.
19. Verocay bodies.
20. Linitis plastica.

Page 1 of 3
QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Struma ovarii means
A. Germ cell tumour of ovary
B. Ovarian malformation
C. Endometriosis of ovary
D. Krukenberg tumour

21 ii) Glomus tumor


A. Salivary gland tumour
B. Benign mesenchymal neoplasms in subungual region
C. Renal tumour
D. Ovarian tumour

21 iii) Gynecomastia
A. Enlargement of male breast
B. Abnormal breast in female
C. Fat necrosis of breast
D. Ectopic breast tissue

21 iv) Anchovy Sauce type of pus seen in


A. Lung abscess
B. Amoebic liver abscess
C. Brain abscess
D. Pancreatitis

21 v) Dukes staging is for


A. Carcinoma stomach
B. Carcinoma oesophagus
C. Carcinoma colon
D. Carcinoma pancreas

22 i) Aphthous ulcer seen in


A. Mouth
B. Skin
C. Stomach
D. Colon

22 ii) Ghon’s Focus seen in


A. Skin
B. Tongue
C. Brain
D. Sub pleural lung

22 iii) All are germ cell tumors EXCEPT


A. Dysgerminoma
B. Embryonal Carcinoma
C. Krukenberg Tumour
D. Teratoma

22 iv) Psammoma bodies seen in


A. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
B. Follicular carcinoma thyroid
C. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
D. Oncocytic carcinoma thyroid

22 v) Rodent ulcer means


A. Squamous cell carcinomatous ulcer
B. Basal cell carcinoma
Page 2 of 3
QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Ulcerative colitis

******

Page 3 of 3
QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – II (CBME) Degree Examination - 18-May-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER II (RS-4)


Q.P. CODE: 1027
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 50 year male with history of chronic alcohol consumption, presented with distended
abdomen. Ultrasound scan show reduced size of liver
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe the pathogenesis and progression of this condition
c) Complications of this condition

2. A chronic smoker with history of exertional dyspnoea and weight loss, died of road
accident. On autopsy his both lungs is voluminous with rib markings on its surface.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe its different types
c) What are its complications

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks


3.1. Pathogenesis of Atherosclerosis.
4.2. Gross and microscopic features and Acute post infectious Glomerulo nephritis.
5.3. Enumerate etiology and types of cardiomyopathies.
6. Germ cell tumours of Testis.
7. Morphological types of carcinoma cervix.
8. Gross and microscopy of Hydatidiform mole.
9. Benign fibroepithelial neoplasms of Breast.
10. Pathogenesis of simple and multinodular goiter.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


11. Berry aneurysm.

12. Malignant Nephrosclerosis.

13. Tumour markers of carcinoma breast.


14. Mention three types of renal stones.
15. Morphology of basal cell carcinoma.
16. Aneurysmal bone cyst.
17. Oligodendroglioma.
18. Microscopic picture of Adenomyosis.
19. Pleomorphic adenoma of salivary glands
20. Name three thyroid malignancies.

Page 1 of 3
QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Causes of Hypercalcemia
A. Graves disease
B. Primary hyper parathyroisism
C. Carcinoid
D. Medullary carcinoma

21 ii) Mucin seen in


A. Lobular carcinoma breast
B. Comedo carcinoma breast
C. Colloid carcinoma breast
D. Fibrocystic disease breast

21 iii) Granulomas seen in all EXCEPT


A. Tuberculosis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Sarcoidosis

21 iv) Epulis is
A. Localised swelling of gums
B. Benign breast lesion
C. Benign skin tumour
D. Benign thyroid tumor

21 v) Desmoids is most likely to arises from


A. Ovary
B. Cervix
C. Scar
D. Endometrium

22 i) Marfans syndrome
A. Disorders of connective tissue
B. Disorders of thyroid
C. Disorders of calcium metabolism,
D. Vit-D deficiency

22 ii) Cryptorchidism
A. Hydrocele
B. Thyroid deficiency
C. Adrenal deficiency
D. Undescended testis

22 iii) Malignancy, most commonly arising from renal pelvis is


A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Transitional cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Adeno carcinoma

22 iv) Osteoid seen in


A. Enchondroma
B. Osteogenic sarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Paget diseases of bone

22 v) Markers of Epithelial carcinoma


A. Desmin
B. Vimentin
Page 2 of 3
QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
C. Cytokeratin
D. S-100

******

Page 3 of 3
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - DEC 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (Revised Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1057
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 9 = 18 Marks
1. Classify ovarian tumors. Discuss tumors of germ cell origin.
2. Enumerate ulcerative lesions of intestine. Write differences between ulcerative colitis and
Crohn’s disease.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Grave’s disease
4. Transitional cell carcinoma-bladder
5. Small cell tumors of lung
6. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
7. Atheroma – pathogenesis
8. Pathology of Rheumatic Heart Disease
9. Kidney in Hypertension
10. Morphological types of TB lung
11. REAL classification of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
12. Fibro-Lamellar carcinoma liver

SHORT ANSWERS 16 x 2 = 32 Marks


13. Helicobacter pylori
14. Borderline tumors of ovary
15. Barret’s oesophagus
16. Pericarditis
17. Fallot’s tetrology
18. Wilm’s tumor
19. Gynaecomastia
20. Osteoid Osteoma
21. Peutz Jegher syndrome
22. Down’s syndrome
23. List Asbestos related diseases.
24. Aetiology of breast cancer
25. Carcinoma in situ
26. Prognostic markers in breast carcinoma
27. Leukoplakia
28. Neuroblastoma
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - JUNE 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (Revised Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1057
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 9 = 18 Marks
1. Define Emphysema. Discuss types of emphysema.
2. Define and classify cirrhosis. Discuss causes of micronodular cirrhosis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
4. Gross and microscopy of Hepatocellular carcinoma
5. Pyogenic osteomyelitis
6. Pathogenesis of glomerulo-nephritis
7. Aetiology and pathology of carcinoma cervix
8. Serological markers of viral hepatitis
9. Dissecting aneurysm
10. Multinodular goiter
11. Hepatoblastoma
12. Pathology of Rheumatic Heart Disease

SHORT ANSWERS 16 x 2 = 32 Marks


13. Sezary syndrome
14. KW lesion in kidney
15. Paget’s disease of breast
16. Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin’s lymphoma
17. Etiology of breast carcinoma
18. Staging of colon cancer
19. Microscopy in mixed tumor of parotid
20. Atherosclerosis – gross lesions
21. Meningioma – types
22. Pheochromocytoma
23. Renal cell carcinoma – microscopy
24. Serological markers in testicular tumors
25. Aetiology of skin cancer
26. Name the giant cell lesions of bone.
27. Acute pancreatitis – gross and microscopy
28. Non-small cell tumors of lung
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE II Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks


Pathology-Paper -II
(Revised SCHEME)
QP Code: 1057
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 9 = 18 Marks
1. Classify testicular tumors. Discuss etiopathogenesis and morphological features of Seminoma.
Add a note on role of tumor markers in testicular tumors.
2. Define peptic ulcer. Discuss etiopathogenesis, morphology and complications of peptic ulcer
disease.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Microscopic assessment of myocardial infarction
4. Hashimoto thyroiditis
5. Bronchiectasis
6. Hodgkin lymphoma
7. Carcinoid tumor
8. Pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis
9. Cirrhosis of liver
10. Phylloides tumor
11. Osteoclastoma
12. Tabulate differences between tuberculous meningitis and pyogenic meningitis

SHORT ANSWERS 16 x 2 = 32 Marks


13. Histopathologic variants of lung carcinoma

14. Complication of atheroma

15. Gross changes in systemic hypertensive heart disease

16. Aschoff bodies

17. Diagrammatically represent 4 forms of vegetative endocarditis

18. Cholelithiasis

19. Graphically represent serologic markers in acute hepatitis A

20. Hydatiform mole

21. High risk HPV (Human Papilloma Virus)

22. Enlist pre-malignant lesions of skin

23. Classify ovarian sex-cord stromal tumors

24. Basal cell carcinoma

25. Neuroblastoma

26. Endometrial hyperplasia

27. Enlist bone forming tumors

28. Microscopic findings in Glioblastoma multiforme

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - DECEMBER 2015
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (Revised Scheme II)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Write autopsy findings in a patient dying of Cirrhosis.
2. Classify bone tumors. Write about types, gross and microscopy of Osteosarcoma.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Trophoblastic tumors
4. Thyroid adenoma
5. Fibrocystic disease of breast
6. Acid peptic disease
7. Burkit’s lymphoma
8. Lab investigations in a case of Myocardial infarction
9. Asbestos induced lung diseases
10. Hashomoto’s thyroiditis
11. Leiomyoma sites, histological types, gross and microscopy
12. Sequelae of Rheumatic Heart disease

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Libman – Sack’s endocarditis
14. Renal osteodystrophy
15. Renal lesions in Diabetes Mellitus
16. Sequelae of Hepatitis B infection
17. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
18. Ewing’s sarcoma
19. Phyllodes tumor
20. Immuno histochemistry and its role in diagnosis of Tumors – list four tumors.
21. Hyperbilirubinaemia
22. Flea bitten kidney
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - DEC 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Enumerate the different Ulcerative Lesions of Intestine. Describe the etiopathogenesis of
Inflammatory Bowel disease. Tabulate the differences between Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative
Colitis. (3+3+4 = 10 marks)
2. A 48 years old lady presented with Bleeding per Vagina. Per Speculum examination showed an
Ulceroproliferative growth involving the external os which bleeds on touch.
a) What is the most probable diagnosis and why?
b) What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition?
c) Add a note on screening method for this condition. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Vegetations of Heart
4. Kidney lesions in Diabetic Nephropathy
5. Phaeochromocytoma
6. Pathogenesis and morphology of Grave’s disease – Thyroid
7. Etiopathogenesis of Bronchial Asthma
8. Fibroadenoma – Breast
9. Rheumatoid Arthritis
10. Basal Cell Carcinoma
11. Meningioma
12. Ewing’s Sarcoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Amoebic Liver Abscess – morphology
14. Components of Fallot’s Tetrology
15. Molluscum Contagiosum
16. Causes for Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
17. Microscopic features of Schwannoma
18. Paget’s disease of Bone
19. Krukenberg tumour
20. Prognostic factors in Breast Carcinoma
21. Lesions associated with H. Pylori
22. Pilomatrixoma
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - Dec - 2017
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define and classify Cirrhosis. Describe the morphological features and complications of Alcoholic
Liver disease.
2. Classify tumours of Breast. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and pathology of Infiltrating Duct
Carcinoma.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Features and complications of Fallot’s Tetralogy
4. Pathogenesis and complications of Bronchiectasis
5. Morphology of Pleomorphic Adenoma
6. Role of Helicobacter Pylori in Gastric Ulcer
7. Pathogenesis and morphology of Crohn’s disease
8. Adult Polycystic Kidney disease
9. Discuss in brief etiopathogenesis of Malignant Melanoma.
10. Carcinoid syndrome
11. Grave’s disease
12. Pathogenesis, morphology and radiological features of Osteoclastoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Morphology of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia
14. Gross and microscopic features of Dysgerminoma
15. Tubercular Osteomyelitis
16. Types of Renal Calculi
17. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
18. Role of HbA1C estimation in Diabetes
19. Cryptorchidism
20. Causes of Hydronephrosis
21. Leukoplakia of Oral Cavity
22. Importance of Reid index
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - JUNE 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. A 10 years old boy presented with history of Sore Throat followed by Migratory Poly-arthritic and
Subcutaneous Nodules.
a) What is your probable diagnosis?
b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis.
c) Mention the morphological features in the target organ.
2. Classify Bone tumours. Discuss the pathogenesis and morphological features of Osteosarcoma.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Morphology of different stages of Pneumonia
4. Write a brief note on Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.
5. Etiopathogenesis of Peptic Ulcer
6. Etiopathogenesis and pathology of Alcoholic Liver disease
7. Morphology of Rodent Ulcer
8. Pheochromocytoma
9. Gross and microscopic features of Multinodular Goitre
10. Light microscopy in Minimal change disease
11. Morphology of Seminoma
12. Schirrhous Carcinoma of Breast

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Retinoblastoma
14. Types of Emphysema
15. Microscopic features of Wilm’s tumour
16. Cholelithiasis
17. Morphology of Amoebic Liver Abscess
18. Barrett’s Oesophagus
19. Causes of Splenomegaly
20. Meckel’s Diverticulum
21. Krukenberg tumour
22. Enumerate Cystic diseases of Kidney.
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - JUNE 2017
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Classify Ovarian tumours. Describe the pathology of Papillary Serous Cyst-adenocarcinoma of
Ovary. (2+8)
2. A 10 year old boy developed Migratory Arthritis of Large Joints and features of Pancarditis, after 10
days, following episode of Pharyngitis.
a) What is the probable diagnosis?
b) Describe the etiopathogenesis of underlying disorder. (2+8)

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Gastric Carcinoma
4. Alcoholic Liver disease
5. Bronchial Asthma
6. Germ Cell tumours of Ovary
7. Complications of Gall Stones
8. Thyrotoxicosis
9. Intestinal Amoebiasis
10. Lung Abscess
11. Premalignant Lesions of Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Skin
12. Pyogenic Meningitis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
14. Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid
15. Kidney changes in Malignant Hypertension
16. Classification of Hodgkin’s disease
17. Causes for Splenomegaly
18. Phaeochromocytoma
19. Colloid Goitre
20. Fibroadenoma – Breast
21. Leiomyoma – Uterus
22. Scar Endometriosis
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - DECEMBER 2015
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (Revised Scheme II)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Write autopsy findings in a patient dying of Cirrhosis.
2. Classify bone tumors. Write about types, gross and microscopy of Osteosarcoma.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Trophoblastic tumors
4. Thyroid adenoma
5. Fibrocystic disease of breast
6. Acid peptic disease
7. Burkit’s lymphoma
8. Lab investigations in a case of Myocardial infarction
9. Asbestos induced lung diseases
10. Hashomoto’s thyroiditis
11. Leiomyoma sites, histological types, gross and microscopy
12. Sequelae of Rheumatic Heart disease

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Libman – Sack’s endocarditis
14. Renal osteodystrophy
15. Renal lesions in Diabetes Mellitus
16. Sequelae of Hepatitis B infection
17. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
18. Ewing’s sarcoma
19. Phyllodes tumor
20. Immuno histochemistry and its role in diagnosis of Tumors – list four tumors.
21. Hyperbilirubinaemia
22. Flea bitten kidney
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - DEC 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Enumerate the different Ulcerative Lesions of Intestine. Describe the etiopathogenesis of
Inflammatory Bowel disease. Tabulate the differences between Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative
Colitis. (3+3+4 = 10 marks)
2. A 48 years old lady presented with Bleeding per Vagina. Per Speculum examination showed an
Ulceroproliferative growth involving the external os which bleeds on touch.
a) What is the most probable diagnosis and why?
b) What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition?
c) Add a note on screening method for this condition. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Vegetations of Heart
4. Kidney lesions in Diabetic Nephropathy
5. Phaeochromocytoma
6. Pathogenesis and morphology of Grave’s disease – Thyroid
7. Etiopathogenesis of Bronchial Asthma
8. Fibroadenoma – Breast
9. Rheumatoid Arthritis
10. Basal Cell Carcinoma
11. Meningioma
12. Ewing’s Sarcoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Amoebic Liver Abscess – morphology
14. Components of Fallot’s Tetrology
15. Molluscum Contagiosum
16. Causes for Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
17. Microscopic features of Schwannoma
18. Paget’s disease of Bone
19. Krukenberg tumour
20. Prognostic factors in Breast Carcinoma
21. Lesions associated with H. Pylori
22. Pilomatrixoma
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - Dec - 2017
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define and classify Cirrhosis. Describe the morphological features and complications of Alcoholic
Liver disease.
2. Classify tumours of Breast. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and pathology of Infiltrating Duct
Carcinoma.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Features and complications of Fallot’s Tetralogy
4. Pathogenesis and complications of Bronchiectasis
5. Morphology of Pleomorphic Adenoma
6. Role of Helicobacter Pylori in Gastric Ulcer
7. Pathogenesis and morphology of Crohn’s disease
8. Adult Polycystic Kidney disease
9. Discuss in brief etiopathogenesis of Malignant Melanoma.
10. Carcinoid syndrome
11. Grave’s disease
12. Pathogenesis, morphology and radiological features of Osteoclastoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Morphology of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia
14. Gross and microscopic features of Dysgerminoma
15. Tubercular Osteomyelitis
16. Types of Renal Calculi
17. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
18. Role of HbA1C estimation in Diabetes
19. Cryptorchidism
20. Causes of Hydronephrosis
21. Leukoplakia of Oral Cavity
22. Importance of Reid index
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - DEC-2018
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define and classify Cirrhosis. Discuss the pathology and complications of Alcoholic Cirrhosis.
(4+3+3 = 10 marks)
2. A 58 years old lady presented with ill defined Hard Breast Lump which was fixed to underlying
muscle. Axillary Lymphnodes were enlarged.
a) What is your diagnosis and why?
b) What are the histological types of this Lesion?
c) Add a note on prognostic factors in this condition. (2+5+3 = 10 marks)

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
4. Types and morphology of Renal Cell Carcinoma
5. Pathogenesis of Insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus
6. Astrocytoma
7. Teratoma – Ovary
8. Multinodular Goitre
9. Ulcerative Colitis
10. Phyllodes tumour
11. Carcinoid tumour
12. Retinoblastoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Urine findings in Acute Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
14. Chondroblastoma
15. Rhabdomyosarcoma
16. Small Cell Carcinoma of Lung
17. Microscopic features of Lobular Carcinoma Breast
18. Medullary Carcinoma Thyroid
19. Psammoma Bodies
20. Granulosa Cell Tumour – Ovary
21. Leukoplakia – Oral Cavity
22. Hirschsprung disease
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE II Degree Examination – 13-Dec-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY - PAPER – II (RS2 & RS3)


QP Code: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. A 30-year-old male developed sudden onset of fever with chills. On examination, the physician
detected cardiac murmurs. His blood culture was positive for gram positive organisms. He had a
past history of pharyngitis followed by carditis when he was 5 years old.

a) What is your diagnosis?

b) What is the aetiopathogenesis of this condition?

c) Describe the morphology of the disease.

d) Enumerate the complications associated with this condition.

2. Define diabetes mellitus. Discuss the types, pathogenesis and pathology of diabetes mellitus.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Cirrhosis of liver.
4. Compare (in a tabular format) ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease
5. Malignant melanoma
6. Osteosarcoma
7. Paget’s disease of bone
8. Classification of ovarian tumors
9. Renal cell carcinoma
10. Emphysema
11. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
12. Pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Morphology of bronchiectasis
14. Fibroadenoma
15. Precancerous lesions of esophagus
16. Types of meningioma
17. Causes of lymphadenitis.
18. Benign prostate nodular hyperplasia
19. Warthin’s tumor
20. Hydronephrosis
21. Classify Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Name the characteristic neoplastic cells seen in this condition.
22. Enumerate the risk factors of atherosclerosis.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - 25-Feb-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER - II (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the etiopathogenesis and morphology of Carcinoma Stomach.
2. Describe the macroscopic and microscopic appearances of Myocardial infract. Briefly discuss the
laboratory diagnosis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Acute pancreatitis
4. Prognostic factors of Breast carcinoma
5. Mechanism of Glomerular injury
6. Write short notes on Asbestosis.
7. Hydatidiform mole
8. Malignant melanoma
9. Pathogenesis and pathology of Hashimoto thyroiditis
10. Medulloblastoma
11. Pathogenesis of Rheumatoid arthritis
12. Classification of Germ cell tumors of testis.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Morphology of Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma
14. Definition and morphology of Leukoplakia.
15. Cervical carcinoma in situ
16. Berry aneurysm
17. Morphology of Giant cell tumor of bone
18. Complications of Bronchiectasis
19. Schwannoma
20. Endometriosis
21. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
22. Cryptorchidism and its complications
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - 06-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER - II (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define Cirrhosis. Classify and describe the pathology and complications of alcoholic liver cirrhosis.
2. Describe the etiopathogenesis, pathology and complications of Gastric carcinoma.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Pathogenesis of Atherosclerosis
4. Seminoma
5. papillary carcinoma of thyroid
6. Ulcerative colitis
7. Fibrodenoma of breast.
8. Chronic Pyelonephritis (CPN).
9. Barrett’s esophagus
10. Endometrial hyperplasia
11. Premalignant conditions of the skin
12. Classify bone tumors.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Name four brain tumors
14. Krukenberg tumor
15. Emphysema.
16. Causes of hydronephrosis
17. Teratoma ovary.
18. Name the pigmented lesions of the skin
19. Paraneoplastic syndromes of small cell carcinoma of the lung
20. Paget disease of breast
21. Rickets.
22. Mention types of renal stones.
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - JULY-2018
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Classify tumours of the Ovary. Describe the morphological features of Mucinous tumours of the
Ovary.
2. Enumerate Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary diseases. Discuss the etiopathogenesis of Emphysema
and add a note on its complications.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Laboratory diagnosis and complications of Myocardial Infarction
4. Warthin’s tumour
5. Linitis Plastica
6. Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s disease
7. Pathogenesis of Type II Diabetes Mellitus
8. Nephrotic syndrome
9. Endometriosis
10. Discuss briefly about Pre-neoplastic Lesions of Skin
11. Papillary Carcinoma Thyroid
12. Seminoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Define Aneurysm and mention the causes.
14. Morphological features and radiological appearance of Osteosarcoma
15. Paget’s disease of Bone
16. Morphology of Tuberculoid Leprosy
17. Morphology of Hepatocellular Carcinoma
18. Horseshoe Kidney
19. Morphology of Hydatidiform Mole
20. Morphology of Phyllodes tumour
21. Pituitary Adenoma
22. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - 01-Aug-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER - II (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss the etiology, pathology and complications of Nephrotic syndrome.
2. Describe the etiopathogenesis, morphology and complications of Infective endocarditis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Peptic ulcer disease
4. Silicosis
5. Cholelithiasis
6. Benign prostastic hyperplasia
7. Morphology of Meningioma
8. Classification of ovarian tumors.
9. Paget disease of bone
10. Hepatocellular carcinoma
11. Melanoma.
12. Astrocytoma.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Morphological forms of Bronchiectasis
14. Morphology of cystic teratoma of ovary
15. Enumerate the conditions that cause COPD.
16. Gynecomastia
17. Liver abscess
18. Microscopic appearance of Papillary carcinoma thyroid
19. Precancerous conditions of GIT
20. Contracted kidney
21. Bowens disease
22. Name the tumors of the lung.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - 10-Jul-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100

PATHOLOGY – PAPER - II (RS-3)


Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. 70 year old male, complaints of loss of appetite and weight loss since 6 months. Clinical
examination revealed a mass palpable in the epigastric region. Upper GI endoscopy showed an
ulceroproliferative growth in lesser curvature of stomach
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe etiopathogenesis and morphology of this condition
2. What is myocardial infarction? Discuss the etiopathogenesis with morphology. Add note on
laboratory diagnosis

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Osteogenic sarcoma
4. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
5. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
6. Bronchial asthma
7. Seminoma testis
8. Chronic pyelonephritis
9. Medulloblastoma
10. What is cirrhosis of liver? Describe morphology
11. Squamous cell carcinoma of skin
12. Pathogenesis of type II diabetes mellitus with late complications

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Name three causes of massive splenomegaly
14. Morphology of chronic cholecystitis
15. Give three examples of surface epithelial tumours of ovary
16. What is nephrotic syndrome? Name the commonest cause in children
17. Microscopy of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
18. Enumerate the stages of pneumonia
19. Microscopy of atherosclerosis
20. Fibroadenoma of breast
21. Astrocytoma
22. Gross and microscopy of hepatocellular carcinoma
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - JUNE 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. A 10 years old boy presented with history of Sore Throat followed by Migratory Poly-arthritic and
Subcutaneous Nodules.
a) What is your probable diagnosis?
b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis.
c) Mention the morphological features in the target organ.
2. Classify Bone tumours. Discuss the pathogenesis and morphological features of Osteosarcoma.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Morphology of different stages of Pneumonia
4. Write a brief note on Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.
5. Etiopathogenesis of Peptic Ulcer
6. Etiopathogenesis and pathology of Alcoholic Liver disease
7. Morphology of Rodent Ulcer
8. Pheochromocytoma
9. Gross and microscopic features of Multinodular Goitre
10. Light microscopy in Minimal change disease
11. Morphology of Seminoma
12. Schirrhous Carcinoma of Breast

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Retinoblastoma
14. Types of Emphysema
15. Microscopic features of Wilm’s tumour
16. Cholelithiasis
17. Morphology of Amoebic Liver Abscess
18. Barrett’s Oesophagus
19. Causes of Splenomegaly
20. Meckel’s Diverticulum
21. Krukenberg tumour
22. Enumerate Cystic diseases of Kidney.
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - JUNE 2017
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Classify Ovarian tumours. Describe the pathology of Papillary Serous Cyst-adenocarcinoma of
Ovary. (2+8)
2. A 10 year old boy developed Migratory Arthritis of Large Joints and features of Pancarditis, after 10
days, following episode of Pharyngitis.
a) What is the probable diagnosis?
b) Describe the etiopathogenesis of underlying disorder. (2+8)

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Gastric Carcinoma
4. Alcoholic Liver disease
5. Bronchial Asthma
6. Germ Cell tumours of Ovary
7. Complications of Gall Stones
8. Thyrotoxicosis
9. Intestinal Amoebiasis
10. Lung Abscess
11. Premalignant Lesions of Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Skin
12. Pyogenic Meningitis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
14. Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid
15. Kidney changes in Malignant Hypertension
16. Classification of Hodgkin’s disease
17. Causes for Splenomegaly
18. Phaeochromocytoma
19. Colloid Goitre
20. Fibroadenoma – Breast
21. Leiomyoma – Uterus
22. Scar Endometriosis
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS (Phase - II) Degree Examination - JUNE-2019
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Pathology – Paper II (Revised Scheme II)
Q.P. CODE: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss aetiopathogenesis and pathology of glomerulonephritis.
2. Define emphysema. Discuss etiopathogenesis, types and gross and microscopy of
emphysema.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Enumerate factors causing skin cancer. Write gross and microscopy of basal cell carcinoma.
4. Classify testicular tumors. Describe gross and microscopy of Seminoma.
5. Urolithiasis
6. Etiopathogenesis of atherosclerosis
7. Clinical manifestation of portal hypertension
8. Kidney changes in RPGN
9. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
10. Hepatocellular carcinoma – gross and microscopy
11. Alcoholic liver disease
12. Factors influencing Pneumoconiosis, add a note on silicosis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. HPV and cancer
14. Coarctation of Aorta
15. Bowen’s disease
16. Condyloma accuminatum
17. Complications of Myocardial infarction
18. Pneumonia alba
19. Causes of splenomegaly
20. Dermoid cyst
21. Factors affecting prognosis of breast cancer
22. Complications of diabetes mellitus
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE II Degree Examination – 20-Nov-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY - PAPER - II (RS3)


QP Code: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Classify ovarian neoplasms. Describe serous tumors of ovary in detail.
2. Write the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus. Classify diabetes mellitus. Describe the
pathogenesis for type II DM.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Bronchiectasis
4. Rheumatic heart disease

5. Papillary carcinoma thyroid

6. Classification of Hodgkins lymphoma

7. Neonatal hepatitis
8. Warthins tumor
9. Phylloides tumor
10. Acute tubular necrosis
11. Osteoarthritis

12. Medulloblastoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Patent ductus arteriosus
14. Consequenses and complications of myocardial infarction

15. Hyaline membrane disease

16. Morphology of iodine deficiency goiter

17. Microscopy of amoebic colitis

18. Morphology of alcoholic liver disease

19. Pyogenic meningitis

20. Pagets disease of bone – morphology

21. Microscopy of seminoma

22. Differences between nephritic and nephrotic syndrome

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE II Degree Examination – 22-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY - PAPER - II (RS3)


QP Code: 1082
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. Describe the pathogenesis, gross, microscopy and complications of gastric ulcer.

2. Classify ovarian tumours. Describe the gross and microscopy of mature cystic teratoma of
ovary.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks

3. Gross and microscopy of myocardial infarction.


4. Gall stones.

5. Causes of acute pancreatitis.

6. Chronic pyelonephritis.

7. Pathogenesis of Type I Diabetes Mellitus.

8. Coal workers pneumoconiosis.


9. Hashimoto thyroiditis.

10. Tetralogy of Fallot.


11. Emphysema.

12. Rickets.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. Three causes of splenomegaly.

14. Three types of renal cell carcinoma.

15. Three central nervous system tumours.

16. Chocolate cyst.

17. Prognostic factors in breast cancer.

18. Tophi

19. Three precancerous lesions of skin.

20. Cryptorchidism.

21. List three gestational trophoblastic diseases.

22. Microscopy of papillary carcinoma thyroid.

*****

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