KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, KOLKATA REGION

SESSION ENDING EXAM- 2022-23

CLASS- IX Max. Marks: 80
SUBJECT-SCIENCE FOR PRACTICE Time- 3 hours
General Instructions:
i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some
questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers
to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each.
Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each.
Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks
each with sub-parts.
SECTION A

Q. No. Questions Marks

1 10°C temperature is equal to 1
a. 163K
b. 10K
c. 183K
d. 283K
2 When heat is supplied to a solid substance 1
a. The kinetic energy of particles increases
b. The potential energy of particles increases
c. The kinetic energy of particles decreases
d. The potential energy of particles decreases
3 Which of the following are not physical changes? 1
i. Melting of ice
ii. Burning of candle
iii. Electrolysis of water
iv. Evaporation of water
a. i. and iii.
b. ii. And iii.
c. ii. And iv.
d. iii. And iv.
4. What will be the mass of 1 mole of nitrogen atoms? 1
a. 14g
b. 28g
c. 7g
d. 21g
5 What will be the chemical formula of Potassium carbonate? 1
a. KCO3
b. K2CO3
c. K2CO2
d. KCO
6 Protons, Neutron and Electrons are present in Chlorine atom in the 1
sequence
a. 17, 17, 18
b. 17, 18, 17
c. 18, 17, 17
d. 17, 17, 17
7 1

Identify the parts 1 and 4

a. Mitochondria and Nucleus
b. Chloroplast and Nucleus
c. Vacuole and Nucleus
d. Mitochondria and Chloroplast

8 1

Identify the above diagram.

a. Parenchyma
b. Collenchyma
 c. Sclerenchyma
d. Xylem Vessel
9 S=ut+1/2at2 is called 1
a. Velocity-time equation
b. Distance-time equation
c. Position-velocity equation
d. None of the above
10 A box of mass 10kg is pulled by a force of 20N, the acceleration of 1
box is
a. 2 m/s2
b. 1 m/s2
c. 0.2 m/s2
d. 0.1 m/s2
11 The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation 1
a. depends on mass of earth only
b. depends on radius of earth only
c. depends on both mass and radius of earth
d. is independent of mass and radius of the earth
12 Work done by a coolie standing with luggage on his head is 1
a. zero
b. positive
c. negative
d. none of these
13 The distance travelled by the wave during time in which any particle 1
of the medium completes one vibration about its mean position is
called
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. wavelength
d. none of these
14 Velocity-time graph for a moving object is found to be curved line, 1
then its acceleration is
a. constant
b. variable
c. zero
d. none of these
15 Flexibility in plants is due to 1
a. Parenchyma
b. Collenchyma
c. Sclerenchyma
d. Chlorenchyma
16 1
 Identify the above element on the basis of electron dot structure.
a. Sodium
b. Magnesium
c. Silicon
d. Phosphorus
Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting theappropriate option given
below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is False but R is true.
17 Assertion: The valency of an atom of fluorine is 7. 1
Reason: The number of electron present in the outermost shell of an
atom are known as the valence electrons.
18 Assertion: A Eukaryotic cell possess a well defined nucleus. 1
Reason: A nucleus is absent in prokaryotes.
19 Assertion: Position time graph of a object is a straight line parallel to 1
the time axis.
Reason: The object is at rest.
20 Assertion: A cycle can be pushed easily but the same force is not 1
able to push a bus.
Reason: Inertia of cycle is more than that of the bus.

SECTION B

21 Why Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid? 2
22 What is the mass of 0.5mole of water molecule? 2
23 Draw a velocity-time graph for the following: 2 (1+1)
a. Body moving with a constant velocity
b. Uniform accelerated motion
24 A bullet train is moving with a velocity of 180km/hr and it takes 5 second 2
to stop after the brakes are applied. Find the force exerted by the brakes
on the wheel of train if its mass with the wagan is 2000kg.
25 Write any two difference between mass and weight. 2
26 Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch a prey. 2

SECTION C

27 a. What is Avogadro’s number? 3

b. Find the number of moles of 48g of oxygen gas. (1.5+1.5)
28 The composition of two atoms A and B is given 3
ATOM A ATOM B (1+1+1)
17 protons 17 protons
18 neutrons 20 neutrons
17 electrons 17 electrons
 a. What are the mass numbers of A and B?
b. Identify the elements A and B.
c. Are the elements A and B Isotopes or Isobars?

29 3
(1.5+1.5)

Observe the above diagram carefully and answer the following

questions:
a. Identify A, B and C
b. Write any one function of a, b and c

30 A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1m/s2 3

for 2min. Find: (1.5+1.5)
a. The speed acquired
b. The distance travelled
31 Give reasons for the following: 3
a. The carpet is beaten with the stick to remove the dust particle. (1+1+1)
b. The sailor jumps in forward direction, the boat moves backward.
c. When a tree is vigorously shaken, then some of the leaves fall
from the trees.
32 A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6seconds. Find 3
a. The velocity with which it was thrown up (1+1+1)
b. The maximum height it reached
c. Its position after 4 seconds.
33 a. Write any 3 uses of multiple reflection of sound. 3
b. Write any 3 uses of ultrasound. (1.5+1.5)

SECTION D

34 i. What is the kinetic energy of an object? Write an expression 5 (2+3)

for the kinetic energy of an object.

ii. Take a rubber band. Ask a friend to hold one of its end. You
hold the other end and move away from your friend. Now,
release the rubber band.
a. What happened?
b. How did the rubber band acquire energy when stretched?
c. Would the rubber band acquire energy when it is compressed?
35 5
(1+3+1)

a. Which popular model is shown in the figure

b. List 3 postulates of the model.
c. Name three sub atomic particles.

36 a. Differentiate between striated, unstriated and Cardiac muscles 5 (3+2)

on the basis of their structure and location in the body.
b. Write any two functions of epidermis in plants.
OR
Write one function of xylem and phloem.

SECTION E

37 Anything that occupies some space, having mass and volume is 4

called matter. The purest form of matter is called an element. An (1+1+1+1)
element is a substance which cannot be split up into two or more
simpler substances by the usual chemical methods of applying heat,
light or electric energy.

A pure substance consists of a single type of particles. All the

elements and compounds are pure substances because they
contain only one kind of particles. e.g. Hydrogen, Carbon, Oxygen,
Carbon-monoxide, Copper, Gold, Silver.
A pure substance has a fixed composition as well as a fixed boiling
 point and melting point. The presence of impurities generally
increases the melting and boiling point of the pure substances.
i. Which among the following is not a compound?
a. Methane
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Salt solution
d. Ammonia
ii. Write two examples of homogenous substance.
iii. A substance composed of two or more elements chemically
combined with one another in a fixed proportion is known
as
a. Homogeneous mixture
b. Heterogeneous mixture
c. Compound
d. Solution
iv. Which among the following is an example of
heterogeneous mixture?
a. Petroleum
b. Soft drink
c. Sugar solution
d. Muddy water

38 Prokaryotic cells were the first form of life on Earth, characterised 4(1+1+1+1)
by having vital biological processes. They are simpler and smaller
than eukaryotic cells, and lack nucleus and other membrane-bound
organelles. The DNA of a prokaryotic cell consists of a single
circular chromosome that is in direct contact with the cytoplasm.
The nuclear region in the cytoplasm is called the nucleoid. Most
prokaryotes are the smallest of all organisms ranging from 0.5 to
2.0 µm in diameter.
i. Which type of cell were the first form of life on Earth.
a. Prokaryotes
b. Eukaryotes
c. Both
d. None of the above
ii. Prokaryotic cell contains
a. Nucleus
b. Chloroplast
c. Mitochondria
d. Poorly developed nuclear region
iii. Write one difference between Prokaryotic cell and Eukaryotic
cell.
iv. Which cell is smaller, Prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
39 FERTILIZERS AND SOIL ACIDITY 4(1+1+1+1)
Soil acidification is a natural process in high rainfall environments
where leaching slowly acidifies soil over time. Intensive agriculture
can speed up soil acidification through many processes – increasing
leaching, addition of fertilizers, removal of produce and build-up of
soil organic matter. Of all the major fertilizer nutrients, nitrogen is
the main nutrient affecting soil pH, and soils can become more
acidic or more alkaline depending on the type of nitrogen fertilizer
used. Nitrate-based products are the least acidifying of the nitrogen
fertilizers, while ammonium-based products have the greatest
potential to acidify soil. Soil acidification due to use of phosphorus
fertilizers is small compared to that attributed to nitrogen, due to
the lower amounts of this nutrient used and the lower acidification
per kg phosphorus. Phosphoric acid is the most acidifying
phosphorus fertilizer. Potassium fertilizers have little or no effect on
soil ph.
Fertilizer use: Use of mineral or organic fertilizers in agriculture
increases inputs of nutrients to soils, and the form in which the
nutrients are applied and their fate in the soil-plant system
determine the overall effects on soil pH. Macronutrients (N, P,
potassium (K), and S) have the major effects on pH as they are
added in much larger quantities to soil than micronutrients.
i. Identify any two reasons behind soil acidity
ii. When excess fertilisers are put on the soil, the soil may
become acidic. Critically analyse the fact that why is it
important to farmers that the soil does not become too
acidic?
iii. Write one difference between fertilizer and manure.
iv. Which of the following macronutrients are provided by
fertilizers?
a. Nitrogen
b. Potassium
c. Phosphorus
d. All of the above