Please note that there are questions within this set that test material that may not

have been covered in your lecture; unless otherwise specified, lecture examinations will only include material covered within lecture.

human anatomy & physiology sampler questions

Immune System Function 21-01. Which a. b. c. d. of the following is characteristic of antibodies? they are carbohydrates they are composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains they have three binding sites per antibody monomer they cannot be transferred from one person to another

21-02.

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens (also called human leukocyte associated, or HLA, antigens) are unique to each persons body cells. These self-antigens aid in the detection of foreign invaders. MHC class II antigens are found on a. red blood cells only b. all nucleated cells c. B-lymphocytes and some T-lymphocytes d. antigen-presenting cells e. {c} and {d} Which statement is true about T cells? a. They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells. b. Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2. c. Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines. d. They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins. The antigenic determinant of a foreign substance is the a. epitope b. antibody c. complement factor d. perforin Antibody functions include all of the following except a. binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms b. cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood cell types are properly matched c. linking soluble antigens together so that they precipitate d. targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cytolysis

21-03.

21-04.

21-05.

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21-06.

The anaphylactic reaction is a(n) __________ allergic reaction. a. immediate hypersensitivity b. delayed hypersensitivity c. prolonged Which of the following is true about the number of binding sites per functional antibody unit? a. IgD has four binding sites. b. IgA has six binding sites. c. IgG has six binding sites. d. IgM has ten binding sites. Which a. b. c. d. of the following is a localized, nonspecific response to infection? allergy humoral immunity autoimmunity inflammation

21-07.

21-08.

21-09.

Select the correct statement about complement. a. A specific immune mechanism is often involved in directing complement to its target. b. Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, secondary, and alternate. c. The membrane attack complex (MAC) consists of complement proteins C3a through C5. d. Complement proteins C1 through C9 are exclusively in the classical pathway. T lymphocytes develop in the bone marrow and attain immunologic competency in the a. spleen b. liver c. lymph nodes d. thymus Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disease? a. exposure of previously hidden self-antigens to the adaptive immune system b. a second exposure to an allergen c. mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present d. cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens

21-10.

21-11.

21-12.

This is the predominant Ig class in body secretions; hence it is called the secretory antibody. a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM Which type of antibodies can cross the placenta and confer passive immunity on the fetus/neonate? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM Occurring as a pentamer, this is the first antibody to be produced. a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM Which a. b. c. d. Select a. b. c. d. type of antibodies are involved in allergic reactions? IgA IgE IgG IgM the correct statement about antigens. Self-antigens is another term for incomplete antigens. The largest type of antigen is called a hapten. Only very small antigens exhibit reactivity. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may thus cause the formation of more than one antibody.

21-13.

21-14.

21-15.

21-16.

21-17.

The formation of antigen-antibody complexes might trigger the complement cascade at C1. This is called the a. classical pathway b. alternative pathway c. C3-convertase inhibitor pathway The primary immune response a. occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response b. occurs when memory cells are stimulated c. is another term for immunological memory d. has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

21-18.

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21-19.

When a macrophage presents antigen to a lymphocyte, it does so in context of __________. a. interleukin-1 b. MHC c. PHA d. mitogen e. GALT Select the correct statement about the role of the nervous system in regulating the immune response. a. Many immune cells have receptors for neurotransmitters. b. The ability of ones state of mind to influence immune function is now accepted as proven by the medical community. c. There is no evidence that the nervous system can influence the immune system. d. {a} and {b} Polio vaccine confers __________ on the subject. a. passive immunity b. active immunity c. natural immunity d. monoclonal antibodies C3b molecules coat a microorganism and roughen its surface, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytose it. The phenomenon is called a. diapedesis b. agglutination c. opsonization d. chemotaxis __________ T-cells destroy cells infected with virus. a. Angry b. Helper c. Suppressor d. Regulatory e. Cytotoxic Grafts a. b. c. d. between identical twins are autografts allografts isografts xenografts

21-20.

21-21.

21-22.

21-23.

21-24.

21-25.

Plasma cells are derived from a. NK cells b. monocytes c. B-lymphocytes d. lymphokines

21-26.

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called a. haptens b. antibodies c. allergens d. reagins Although we mostly associate eosinophil function with allergic reactions, the cell was originally evolved to deal, most effectively, with a. antigen-antibody complexes b. helminth infections c. pyrogens The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by a. vasodilatation b. vasoconstriction c. mobilization of phagocytes d. production of complement and interferon

21-27.

21-28.

21-30.

The chief antibody-mediated mechanism used against cellular antigens, such as bacteria, is a. neutralization. b. interferon production. c. complement fixation. d. agglutination. Which a. b. c. d. Select a. b. c. d. of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response? disposes of cellular debris and pathogens sets the stage for repair processes prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue replaces injured tissues with connective tissue the correct statement about phagocytic cells. Macrophages release defensins during killing. The respiratory burst characterizes eosinophil phagocytosis. Neutrophils may destroy themselves when they phagocytize large quantities of a foreign substance. Kupffer cells are a type of neutrophil.

21-31.

21-32.

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21-33.

In clonal selection of B cells, which entity determines which B cells will eventually become cloned? [ N.B.: As worded, this is a proximate question. ] a. macrophage b. antibody c. antigen d. lymphocyte

21-35.

Clonal a. b. c. d. Which a. b. c. d.

selection of B cells results in the formation of plasma cells. cannot occur in the presence of antigens. occurs during fetal development. only occurs in the secondary immune response. of the following is not an autoimmune disease? systemic lupus erythematosus multiple sclerosis glomerulonephritis type II diabetes

21-36.

21-37.

________ are released by activated T cells and macrophages to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area. a. Perforins b. Interleukin 1 proteins c. Cytokines d. Interleukin 2 proteins Innate a. b. c. d. immune system defenses include plasma cells. phagocytosis. T cells. B cells.

21-38.

21-39.

Select the correct statement about inflammation. a. Leukopenia-inducing factors are released by damaged tissues. b. Aspirin and other anti-inflammatory substances act by promoting histamine release. c. Only the lymphocyte functions in the transport and release of the mediators of inflammation at the site of injury. d. Exudate is the cause of localized edema.

21-41.

Graft a. b. c. d.

rejection may be caused by using a xenograft. total body irradiation. treatment with antilymphocyte serum. use of immunosuppressive drugs. respond to the initial antigen challenge by immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies. forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell. reducing its size. producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells.

21-42.

B cells a. b. c. d.

21-43.

Delayed hypersensitivities a. include anaphylactic shock, a systemic vasodilation that results in inadequate blood delivery to all tissues. b. do not involve T cells. c. include allergic contact dermatitis. d. are mediated by B cells. Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction? a. anaphylaxis b. cytotoxic hypersensitivity c. allergic contact dermatitis d. immune complex hypersensitivity Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms? a. keratin b. phagocytes c. gastric juice d. cilia Which a. b. c. d. of the following is associated with passive immunity? long-term immune protection infusion of weakened viruses booster shot passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

21-44.

21-45.

21-46.

21-47.

The antibody molecule is held together by ________ bonds. a. sodium b. hydrogen c. amino acid d. disulfide

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21-48.

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity. a. The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism. b. A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body. c. Immunological memory is established by passive immunization. d. Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of specific immunity that use antibodies. Which a. b. c. d. of the following is not a type of T cell? suppressor helper cytotoxic antigenic

21-49.

21-50.

Monoclonal antibodies are used for the diagnosis of all of the following except a. rabies. b. juvenile diabetes. c. pregnancy. d. hepatitis. Natural killer (NK) cells a. are a type of phagocyte. b. are cells of the specific immune system. c. are also called cytotoxic T cells. d. can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated. Antibody functions include all of the following except a. binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms. b. targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis. c. linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution. d. cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched. Helper T cells a. bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin. b. function in the adaptive immune system activation. c. release B7 proteins. d. often function to decrease the immune response. B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the a. spleen. b. lymph nodes. c. thymus. d. bone marrow.

21-51.

21-52.

21-53.

21-54.

21-55.

Suppressor T cells a. may function in preventing autoimmune reactions. b. decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases. c. are the most thoroughly understood T cells. d. release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells.

21-57.

The system that recognizes foreign molecules and acts to immobilize, neutralize, or destroy them is the a. lymphatic system. b. integumentary system. c. immune system. d. renal system. ________ determine(s) what specific foreign substances our adaptive immune system will be able to recognize and resist. a. The type of antigen b. Memory cell production c. Our genes d. Enzymes present at the time of the invasion Interferons a. interfere with viral replication within cells. b. act by increasing the rate of cell division. c. are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold. d. are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus. The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called a. chemotaxis. b. diapedesis. c. margination. d. phagocytosis. Which a. b. c. d. of the following is characteristic of complete antigens? reactivity with an antibody small molecules inhibit production of antibodies contain many repeating chemical units

21-58.

21-59.

21-60.

21-61.

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21-62.

Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency. a. The most common form of immunodeficiency is graft versus host disease. b. Hodgkins disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children. c. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is an acquired condition. d. The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of ________ to attract white blood cells to the scene. a. histamine b. complement c. cytokines d. prostaglandins

21-63.

21-66.

________ predominate at the sites of chronic infections. a. Eosinophils b. B cells c. Macrophages d. Basophils Phagocyte mobilization involves a. diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall. b. monocytes as the most active phagocyte. c. mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas. d. margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues.

21-67.

21-68.

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of the immune system by a. pinocytosis. b. natural killer cells. c. T lymphocytes. d. B lymphocytes. Immediate hypersensitivities a. are also called type IV hypersensitivities. b. include anaphylaxis, triggered by a second (or later) exposure to an allergen to which the individual has been sensitized. c. are adaptive immune responses. d. include allergic contact dermatitis. Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies. a. Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection. b. The most potent agglutinating agent is IgG. c. Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together. d. Antibodies may directly destroy invaders.

21-69.

21-70.

21-74.

The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the a. cytotoxic cells. b. plasma cells. c. suppressor cells. d. helper cells.

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21-75.

Fever a. decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy. b. is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous. c. causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication. d. production is regulated by chemicals that reset the bodys thermostat to a higher setting.

21-77.

Select the correct statement about the prevention of immune attack on self. a. Tolerance to self is due to the action of foreign antigens that inactivate the immune response to ones own tissues. b. Tolerance is developed during fetal life. c. Neutrophils capable of binding to self-antigens are chemically inactivated. d. The development of tolerance is specific to B cells only. Interleukin ________ inhibits or turns down the immune response. a. 10 b. 13 c. 4 d. 7 Cytotoxic T cells a. self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized. b. function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations. c. are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells. d. require the double recognition signal of MHC I plus MHC II on the target cell in order to function. Select a. b. c. d. Which a. b. c. d. the correct definition about tissue grafts. Isografts are between identical twins. Xenografts are between individuals of the same species. Allografts are between different species. Autografts are between two genetically identical individuals. of the following is not characteristic of the adaptive immune system? It is specific for a given organ. It is antigen-specific. It has memory. It is systemic.

21-78.

21-79.

21-80.

21-81.

The following statements are true/false: Answer {a} if true, {b} if false. 21-91. 21-92. 21-93. 21-94. 21-95. 21-96. 21-97. 21-98. Antibodies and complement fixation mediate delayed hypersensitivity reactions. Immune responses are sometimes not beneficial to the body Some immunocompetent cells will never be called to duty during our lifetime. A graft from a monkey to a human is an allograft. The soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies. Autoimmune diseases are more common in men than women. The B lymphocyte population is capable of producing antibodies against at least 106 different antigens. Perforins are cytolytic molecules used by NK cells.

21-101. 21-102. 21-103.

Antigens can be complete or incomplete. Tolerance for self-antigens is abnormal. The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis.

21-105. 21-106. 21-107. 21-108. 21-109. 21-110. 21-111.

Adaptive immunity is provided only by lymphocytes that secrete antibodies. Atopy is an inherited tendency to spontaneously develop immediate (type I) allergies to certain environmental antigens. The mechanism of the lethal hit of cytotoxic T cells involves a protein called perforin. Fever is seldom beneficial because it speeds up the cellular metabolic rate and will not allow antigen-antibody reactions to occur. Cellular ingestion and destruction of particulate matter is called phagocytosis. Monoclonal antibodies can be specific for several antigenic determinants. Substances capable of triggering the adaptive immune system and provoking an immune response are called antigens.

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21-114.

Somatic recombination by B cells allows each B cell to form its own unique antibody genes.

21-117. 21-118. 21-119.

The respiratory burst produced by some macrophages releases free radicals. A transfusion reaction is a subacute hypersensitivity to foreign red blood cells. During fetal development, all lymphocytes that do not react to self-antigens are destroyed.

Answers 21-01. 21-02. 21-03. 21-04. 21-05. 21-06. 21-07. 21-08. 21-09. 21-10. 21-11. 21-12. 21-13. 21-14. 21-15. 21-16. 21-17. 21-18. 21-19. 21-20. 21-21. 21-22. 21-23. 21-24. 21-25. 21-26. 21-27. 21-28. b e b a b a d d a d b a c e b d a d b d b c e c c a b a 21-41. 21-42. 21-43. 21-44. 21-45. 21-46. 21-47. 21-48. 21-49. 21-50. 21-51. 21-52. 21-53. 21-54. 21-55. a d c c b d d d d c d d b d a 21-77. 21-78. 21-79. 21-80. 21-81. b a c a a 21-105. 21-106. 21-107. 21-108. 21-109. 21-110. 21-111. b a a b a b b 21-74. 21-75. a d 21-101. 21-102. 21-103. a b a 21-35. 21-36. 21-37. 21-38. 21-39. a d c b d 21-66. 21-67. 21-68. 21-69. c c b b 21-30. 21-31. 21-32. 21-33. c d c c 21-57. 21-58. 21-59. 21-60. 21-61. 21-62. 21-63. c a a a a d c 21-91. 21-92. 21-93. 21-94. 21-95. 21-96. 21-97. 21-98. b a a b a b a a 21-117. 21-118. 21-119. a a b 21-114. b

Answer key last updated (bold) 2007.08.02

21-70. a, d

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