1.

__________ is the process of forecasting an organisations future demand for, and supply of,
the right type of people in the right number.
A. Human resource planning
B. Recruitments
C. Human resource management
D. Human capital management

2. Which of the following factors state the importance of the human resource planning?
A. Creating highly talented personnel
B. International strategies
C. Resistance to change and move
D. All of the above

3. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?

A. Political and legislative issues
B. Economic factors
C. Technological changes
D. None of the above

4 _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet future
needs of the organization.
A. Demand forecasting
B. Supply forecasting
C. Environmental forecasting
D. None of the above

5 which of the below given options are the forecasting techniques used?
A. Ration trend analysis
B. Delphi technique
C. Staffing projections

A. A & c
B. B & c
C. A, b & c
D. A & b

6. The final process of a job analysis is the preparation of two statements, namely,
A.job observation and job description
B.job specification and job observation
C.job description and job specification
D.none of the above

7.a list, consisting of job duties and responsibilities, part of

A) job descriptions
B) job analysis
C) job specifications
D) both a and c

8.determining the type of people, which a company needs for job is referred as
A) job descriptions
B) job analysis
C) job specifications
D) both a and c

9. _____________ is a process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to

apply for jobs
A) selection b) induction c) recruitment d) orientation
10. _______________ can be defined as process of choosing the right person for the right job.
A) selection b) recruitment c) induction d) orientation

11. ______________ is the application form to be filled by the candidate when he goes for
recruitment process in the organisation.
A) job application b) formal application c) application blank d) none
of the above

12. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
A. Training
B. Development
C. Education
D. All of the above

13. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?

A. Improves morale
B. Helps people identify with organisational goals
C. Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co – ordination
D. None of the above

14. Which of this is a step in training process?

A. Ksa deficiency
B. Provide proper feedback
C. Obstacles in the system
D. Use of evaluation models

15. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training needs
assessment?
A. Consideration of current and projected changes
B. Rating scales
C. Interviews
D. Questionnaires

16. _________ seeks to examine the goals of the organisation and the trends that are likely to
affect these goals.
A. Organisational support
B. Organisational analysis
C. Person analysis
D. Key skill abilities analysis

17. Which of these is the benefit of needs assessment?

A. Assessment makes training department more accountable
B. Higher training costs
C. Loss of business
D. Increased overtime working

18. Which of these is an off – the – job training method?

A. Television
B. Job rotation
C. Orientation training
D. Coaching

Q.19. Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee’s current
And/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards?
A) recruitment b) employee selection
C) performance appraisal d) employee orientation
Q.20. The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance
appraisal is to
Motivate employees to _
A) apply for managerial positions
B) remove any performance deficiencies
C) revise their performance standards
D) enroll in work-related training programs

Q.21. In most organizations, which of the following is primarily responsible for appraising an
Employee’s performance?
A) employee’s direct supervisor b) company appraiser
C) human resources manager d) eeo representative

Q.22. Supervisors should provide employees with feedback, development, and incentives
Necessary to help employees eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform well.
A) true b) false

Q.23. Which of the following is not one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective
Employee goals?
A) assigning specific goals
B) assigning measurable goals
C) assigning challenging but doable goals
D) administering consequences for failure to meet goals

Q.24. Smart goals are best described as _

A) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely
B) straight forward, meaningful, accessible, real, and tested
C) strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely
D) specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and tested
Q.25. All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee’s performance except _
A) assisting with career planning
B) correcting any work-related deficiencies
C) creating an organizational strategy map
D) determining appropriate salary and bonuses

Q.26. Which of the following is most likely not a role played by the hr department in the
Performance appraisal process?
A) conducting appraisals of employees
B) monitoring the effectiveness of the appraisal system
C) providing performance appraisal training to supervisors
D) ensuring the appraisal system’s compliance with eeo laws

Q.27. What is the first step in the appraisal process?

A) giving feedback b) defining the job
C) administering the appraisal tool d) making plans to provide training

Q.28. All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale except_,
A) generic dimensions of performance b) performance of ‘actual duties
C) performance of co-workers d) achievement of objectives

29. the performance appraisal measurement error, in which the prejudices of rater distort the
results of rating is classified as
A) rater bias
B) halo effect
C) contrast error
D) sampling error
30: the type of central tendency error occurs while appraising performance, when employee's
rating falls at higher side of scale is classified as
A) strictness error
B) leniency error
C) halo effect
D) contrast error

31: the type of central tendency error occur while appraising performance when employee rating
falls at lower side of scale is classified as
A) halo effect
B) contrast error
C) strictness error
D) leniency error

32: the performance appraisal error in which the poor performers also gets average rating like
well performers is classified as
A) recency effect
B) primacy effect
C) central tendency error
D) rater bias

33: the appraising performance measurement error which results when whole job is rated on the
basis of selected job criterion is classified as
A) contrast error
B) sampling error
C) rater bias
D) halo effect

Q.34 grievance redressal, discipline, collective bargaining are_______________ of hrm.

a. Integration function
 b.procurement function
c.development function
d. Behavioural function
Q.35 concept of mbo was first developed by
A. Peter drucker
B. Douglas mcgregor
C. Henry fayol
D. Clayton p. Alderfer

Q.36 industrial discipline ordinarily does not imply

A. Observance of company’s rules and regulations
B. Cooperating with management and co-workers
C. Active participation in union activities
D smooth discharge of duties and responsibilities

Q.37 which is a form of participative management?

A. Information-sharing
B. Associative participation
C. Consultative participation
D. All of the above

Q.38 social factor having a potent bearing on hrm practices in india includes
A. Caste system
B. Doctrine of karma
C. Customs and traditions
D. All of the above

Q.39 the objectives of workers’ participation in management do not ordinarily include

A. Promotion of collective bargaining
B. Promotion of industrial harmony
C. Promotion of industrial democracy
D. Promotion of productivity

Q.40. Which form of participative management promotes “semi-autonomous work-groups”?

A. Quality of work life
B. Quality circle
C. Tqm
D. Quality group

Q.41 industrial action generally does not include

A. Strike
B. Lock-out
C. Demonstration
D. Bandh

Q.42 a team is evaluated on features like –

A. Co-operation / confrontation avoiding / common objectives
B. Openness of view and unwritten procedure systems
C. Regular review / appropriate leadership
D. All above

Q.43. Human due diligence means investigation of –

A. Management team / staff
B. Structure / issues / managerial capacity of a potential partner
C. Both (a) + (b)
D. Financial due diligence
Q.44 what influences the bank employees’ attitude on work culture?
A. Educational qualification
B. Ownership of bank
C. Location of the branch
D. All above

Q.45 employee accountability is strengthens in

A. Hr audit
B. Hr training
C. Succession planning
D. Hr functions

Q.46 the main barriers of communications are –

A. Organisational + semantic
B. Personal + psychological + resistance to new ideas
C. Both (a) + (b)
D. Organisational / psychological

Q.47 promotion is basically a reward for –

A. Efficiency
B. Seniority
C. Physical fitness
D. Retention

Q.48 competency mapping is possible through approaches like –

A. Job analysis / workforce skills analysis / supply and demand analysis
B. Job analysis / gap analysis / solution analysis
C. Gap analysis / solution analysis + (a)
D. Both (a) + (b)

Q.49. According to briggs (1981) effectiveness in grievance handling exists where the
procedure facilitates:
A. Openness and honesty
B. Conflict management and agreement clarification
C. The ability to handle individual and collective disputes through the same procedure
D. An easy movement (where necessary) to disciplinary procedures

Q.50. The term industrial relations means –

A. Relationship between management and labor
B. Relationship between organization and employees
C. Relationship that grows out of employment
D. All above

Q.51. Collective bargaining is a procedure regulated by agreements between their –

A. Bargaining agents and employers
B. Employees and employees
C. Employers and employers
D. Labour officer and trade unions

Q.52. When any discipline becomes ineffective or less-effective?

A. Longer time spending in action
B. Discipline is handled impersonally
C. Aware of rules and performance criteria
D. Only (a) and (b)

Q.53. Lockout is a weapon available to –

A. Employees
B. Trade unions
C. Employers
D. Government

Q.54 how the conflicts within employers and employees can be settled or prevented?
A. Voluntary method
B. Government machinery
C. Statutory measures
D. All above

Q.55 the word workers participation in management means –

A. Sharing the decision making powers
B. Sharing the decision making with lower results of the employees
C. Sharing the day to day working with higher ranks of persons
D. Sharing the financial decision making powers with representative of workers

Q.56. What is the role of the trade-union in collective bargaining?

A. To protect jobs and real earnings
B. Better conditions of work life for workers
C. Fighting against any possible, exploitations
D. All above

Q.57. Which of the following is herzberg’s hygine factors?

(a) recognition at work place
(b) reasonable salary
(c) responsibility for work
(d) sense of achievement
Q.58.who has called the scientific management a ‘rabble hypotheses?
(a) peter f. Drucker
(b) elton mayo
(c) douglas mcgregor
(d) none of the above

Q.59. ‘red hot stove’ rule of disciplinary action was suggested by

(a) douglas mcgregor
(b) dale yader
(c) richard p. Calhoon
(d) fred luthans

Q.60. Which one is part of michael porter’s generic strategies?

(a) cost leadership strategy
(b) focus strategy
(c) differentiation strategy
(d) all the above

Q.61. Human values in regard to management development do not include

(a) dignity and forgiveness
(b) arrogance and anger
(c) gratitude and gentleness
(d) humility and honesty

Q.62. Management development is concerned with learning of

(a) mechanical skills
(b) specific job skills
(c) conceptual and creative skills
(d) all the above

Q.63. According to robert l. Katz, which one is not managerial skills .

(a) technical
(b) human
(c) conceptual
(d)written

Q.64. A system of industrial relations where social and labour issues are discussed between trade
unions and management at enterprise level is:
(a) bipartism
(b) tripartism
(c) social dialogue
(d) none of the above

Q.65. Which one is not a part of m.c. kinsy’s 7’s frame work?
(a) standards
(b) structure
(c) skills
(d) strategy

Q.66 in ------ training, a training centre is set-up and actual job conditions are duplicated or
simulated in it
A. Classroom
B. Apprenticeship
C. Internship
D. Vestibule
Q.67. ----- is the process of imparting or increasing knowledge or skill of an employee to do a
particular job.
A. Training
B. Development
C. Motivation
D. Leadership

Q.68. Management development –

A. Is a short term in nature
B. Focuses on employees’ current job
C. Is an informal activity
D. Aims at overall development of a manager

Q.69. Relative worth of a job is known by

A. Job design
B. Job analysis
c. Job evaluation
d. Job change

Q.70. Quantitative job evaluation method are

A. Ranking method
B. Point rating method
C. Factor comparison method
D. Both (b) and (c)

Q.71. Qualitative job evaluation method are

A. Ranking
B. Grading
C. Point rating
D. Both (a) and (b)

Q.72. Process of studying and collecting information about a job is known as

A. Hrp
B. Job design
C. Job analysis
D. Job evaluation

Q.73.which pay is one of the most crucial pay given to the employee & also shown in the pay
structure?
A. Performance
B. Strategic
C. Bonus
D.commission

Q.74. ________ executives take a full part in the strategic planning process.
A.training & development
B.human resource
C.quality control
D.production

Q.75. What name is given to the practice of appointing staff on a worldwide basis regardless of
national origin?
A.regio-centric.
B. Geo-centric.
C. Poly-centric.
D. Ethno-centric.
Q.76 which of the following is not a key challenge in international human resource
management?
A) language and cultural differences
B) legal and regulatory compliance in one's own country
C) managing a diverse workforce
D) domestic market fluctuations

Q.77 expatriates are employees who:

A) are citizens of the host country
B) work in their home country only
C) are sent to work in a foreign country
D) work in international organizations only

Q.78 the process of adjusting to a new culture and work environment in a foreign country is
known as:
A) cultural immersion
B) cultural adaptation
C) cultural shock
D) cultural assimilation

Q.79.which staffing approach emphasizes the use of host-country nationals to manage

subsidiaries?
A) ethnocentric approach
B) polycentric approach
C) geocentric approach
D) regiocentric approach

Q.80. Which of the following is not a primary reason for using expatriates in international
assignments?
A) knowledge transfer
B) cost savings
C) control and coordination
D) career development

Q.81.the practice of paying expatriates a salary that is adjusted to reflect the differences in the
cost of living between the home and host countries is known as:
A) foreign service premium
B) equalization payment
C) hardship allowance
D) cost-of-living allowance

Q.82.which of the following is not a common challenge in managing virtual teams in

international settings?
A) communication barriers
B) time zone differences
C) cultural differences
D) limited access to technology

Q.83 which term refers to the practice of blending home-country and host-country practices into
unique solutions for managing human resources in multinational corporations?
A) localization
B) standardization
C) hybridization
D) adaptation

Q.84. Which of the following is a key role of the international human resource manager?
A) ensuring compliance with domestic labor laws only
B) facilitating cultural integration
C) focusing solely on home-country policies
D) minimizing diversity within the workforce

Q.85 which of the following is an example of an ethical issue in hrm?

A) offering competitive salaries to attract top talent
B) providing comprehensive training programs for employees
C) falsifying employee performance evaluations
D) implementing diversity and inclusion initiatives

Q.86 ethical hrm practices primarily focus on:

A) maximizing profits for the organization
B) ensuring fairness and equity for employees
C) exploiting labor for cost reduction
D) exercising strict control over employee behavior

Q.87. Which of the following is not a typical reason for employee separation?
A) retirement
B) resignation
C) termination
D) promotion

Q.88. The process of managing an employee's departure from the organization in a manner that
preserves the organization's reputation and minimizes disruption is known as:
A) employee engagement
B) employee integration
C) employee separation
D) employee retention

Q.89.which of the following is a key benefit of effective employee integration processes?

A) decreased employee morale
B) increased turnover rates
C) improved employee engagement and retention
D) reduced productivity

Q.90. Which of the following strategies can help reduce employee turnover?
A) providing competitive compensation and benefits
B) ignoring employee feedback and concerns
C) promoting a toxic work culture
D) micromanaging employees' every move

Q.91. In the context of employee integration, socialization refers to:

A) the process of familiarizing new employees with company policies and procedures
B) introducing new employees to key stakeholders within the organization
C) the informal process of learning the company's culture and norms
D) administering personality tests to new hires

Q.92. Which of the following is not a potential consequence of ineffective employee separation
processes?
A) damage to the organization's reputation
B) loss of valuable knowledge and skills
C) increased employee engagement and morale
D) negative impact on employee morale and productivity

Q.93. Which term refers to the process of retaining employees within the organization?
A) succession planning
B) talent acquisition
C) employee engagement
D) employee separation

Q.94. Which of the following is a potential consequence of ineffective employee integration?

A) increased employee engagement
B) enhanced organizational culture
C) high turnover rates
D) improved team collaboration

Q.95. What is the primary objective of performance management?

A) identifying and firing underperforming employees
B) improving organizational profitability
C) enhancing employee development and performance
D) maximizing employee benefits

Q.96. Which of the following is not a typical step in the performance management process?
A) setting performance expectations and goals
B) conducting employee disciplinary actions
C) providing feedback and coaching
D) evaluating employee performance

Q.97what is the purpose of performance appraisals in performance management?

A) to assign blame for poor performance
B) to identify training needs for employees
C) to provide an opportunity for managers to exercise power over employees
D) to evaluate and document employee performance

Q.98. Which performance appraisal method involves comparing an employee's performance with
that of other employees?
A) behaviorally anchored rating scales (bars)
B) management by objectives (mbo)
C) forced distribution
D) critical incident technique

Q.99. Which type of performance appraisal is characterized by the use of specific examples of
behavior to evaluate employee performance?
A) graphic rating scales
B) behavioral observation scales
C) critical incident technique
D) 360-degree feedback

Q.100. What is the purpose of providing feedback in performance management?

A) to punish employees for poor performance
B) to document employee shortcomings
C) to reinforce desired behavior and correct performance deficiencies
D) to ignore employee contributions

Q.101. Which performance management approach emphasizes setting clear, measurable, and
achievable goals?
A) behaviorally anchored rating scales (bars)
B) management by objectives (mbo)
C) 360-degree feedback
D) forced ranking

Q.102.what is the purpose of a performance improvement plan (pip)?

A) to acknowledge exceptional employee performance
B) to document employee grievances
C) to outline specific steps for employees to improve their performance
D) to facilitate employee termination
Q.103.which of the following is a potential consequence of ineffective performance
management?
A) enhanced employee engagement
B) improved organizational productivity
C) high turnover rates
D) strengthened organizational culture

Q.104. Which performance management component involves aligning individual goals and
performance with the overall objectives of the organization?
A) performance evaluation
B) performance feedback
C) performance planning
D) performance development