Physics 1 - F6 - 2017
Physics 1 - F6 - 2017
Physics 1 - F6 - 2017
org/
131/1 PHYSICS 1
(For Both School and Private Candidates)
Instructions
2. Answer ten (10) questions choosing four (4) questions from section A and three (3) questions from
each of sections B and C.
Page 1 of 6
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1. (a) Give the meaning of the following terms as used in error analysis:
(i) Absolute error. (01 mark)
(ii) Relative error. (01 mark)
(b) The force ‘F’ acting on an object of mass ‘m’, travelling at velocity ‘V’ in a circle of radius ‘r’
mV 2
is given by; F = r . If the measurements are recorded as: m =(3.5±0.1) kg, V = (20±1) m/s,
r = (12.5±0.5) m; find the maximum possible
(i) Fractional error. (03 marks)
(ii) Percentage error in the measurement of force. (02 marks)
(c) Show how you will record the reading of force, ‘F’, in part (b) (03 marks)
2. (a) (i) Define the term dimensions of a physical quantity. (01 mark)
(ii) Identify two uses of dimensional equations. (02 marks)
(b) (i) What is the basic requirement for a physical relation to be correct? (01 mark)
(ii) List two quantities whose dimension is [ML2 T-1 ]. (01 mark)
(c) (i) The frequency ‘f’ of vibration of a stretched string depends on the tension ‘F’, the length
‘l’ and the mass per unit length μ of the string. Derive the formula relating the physical
quantities by the method of dimensions. (03 marks)
3g
(ii) Use dimensional analysis to prove the correctness of the relation 𝜌 = 4RG , where by 𝜌
= density of the earth, g = acceleration due to gravity, R = radius of the earth and G =
gravitational constant. (02 marks)
3. (a) (i) Why does the kinetic energy of an earth satellite change in the elliptical orbit? (02 marks)
(ii) Give two factors which determine whether a planet has an atmosphere or not. (02 marks)
(b) A spacecraft is launched from the earth to the moon. If the mass of the earth is 81 times that of
the moon and the distance from the centre of the earth to that of the moon is about 4.0×105 km;
(i) Draw a sketch showing how the gravitational force on the spacecraft varies during its
journey. (03 marks)
(ii) Calculate the distance from the centre of the earth where the resultant gravitational force
becomes zero. (03 marks)
4. (a) (i) Justify the statement that ‘If no external torque acts on a body, its angular velocity will not
be conserved’. (02 marks)
(ii) A car is moving with a speed of 30 ms-1 on a circular track of radius 500m. If its speed is
increasing at the rate of 2ms-2; find its resultant linear acceleration. (03 marks)
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(b) An object of mass 1kg is attached to the lower end of a string 1m long whose upper end is fixed
and made to rotate in a horizontal circle of radius 0.6m. If the circular speed of the mass is
constant, find the;
(i) Tension in the string. (03 marks)
(ii) Period of motion. (02 marks)
5. (a) A 75kg hunter fires a bullet of mass 10g with a velocity of 400ms-1 from a gun of mass 5kg.
Calculate the;
(i) Recoil velocity of the gun. (02 marks)
(ii) Velocity acquired by the hunter during firing. (03 marks)
(b) A jumbo jet travelling horizontally at 50ms-1 at a height of 500m from sea level drops a luggage
of food to a disaster area.
(i) At what horizontal distance from the target should the luggage be dropped? (03 marks)
(ii) Find the velocity of the luggage as it hit the ground. (02 marks)
6. (a) The equation of simple harmonic motion is given as x = 6sin10𝜋t + 8cos10𝜋t, where x is in
centimeter and t in second. Determine the;
(i) Amplitude. (03 marks)
(ii) Initial phase of motion. (02 marks)
(b) (i) Show that the total energy of a body executing simple harmonic motion is independent of
time. (2.5 marks)
(ii) Find the periodic time of a cubical body of side 0.2m and mass 0.004kg floating in water
then pressed and released such that it oscillates vertically. (2.5 marks)
(b) A mass of an ideal gas of volume 400cm3 at 288K expands adiabatically. If its temperature falls
to 273K;
(i) Find the new volume of the gas. (02 marks)
(ii) Calculate the final volume of the gas if it is then compressed isothermally until the
pressure returns to its original value. (04 marks)
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(ii) Stainless steel cooking pans fitted with extra copper at the bottom are more preferred?
(1.5 marks)
9. (a) (i) What is the advantage of using a greater length of potentiometer wire? (02 marks)
(ii) Why is a Wheatstone bridge not suitable for measuring very high resistance? (02 marks)
(b) Study the circuit diagram in Figure 1 then answer the questions that follow:
Figure 1
If the value of R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = 1.0Ω, R5 = 2Ω, E2 = E3 = 4V, E1 = 2.0V, calculate the;
(i) Current flowing through the circuit. (04 marks)
(ii) Potential difference, Vab. (02 marks)
10. (a) (i) List two factors on which the resistivity of a material depends. (01 mark)
(ii) A wire of resistivity 𝜌 is stretched to double its length, what will be its new resistivity?
Give reason for your answer. (1.5 marks)
(b) (i) Why a high voltage supply should have high internal resistance? (02 marks)
(ii) Justify the statement that ‘it is not possible to verify Ohm’s law by using a filament lamp’.
(1.5 marks)
(c) A potential difference of 4V is connected to a uniform resistance wire of length 3.0m and
cross-sectional area 9×10-9, when a current of 0.2A is flowing in the wire. Find the;
(i) Resistivity of a wire. (2.5 marks)
(ii) Conductivity of a wire. (01 mark)
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(b) Study Figure 2 then construct a truth table showing the output P, Q and R.
(4.5 marks)
Figure 2
(c) (i) List three basic elements of a communication system. (1.5 mark)
(ii) Explain the advantage of using optical fibre systems than coaxial cable system in
telecommunication processes. (02 marks)
(b) (i) Outline two factors on which electrical conductivity of a pure semiconductor depends.
(02 marks)
(ii) How does the forbidden energy gap of an intrinsic semiconductor vary with increase in
temperature? (01 mark)
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Figure 3
Calculate
(i) The peak voltage. (2.5 marks)
(ii) The period. (02 marks)
(c) A change of 100 𝜇A in the base current produces a change of 3 mA in the collector current.
Calculate:
(i) The current amplification factor, 𝛽 (1.5 marks)
(ii) The current gain, 𝛼 (1.5 marks)
14. (a) (i) State three sources of heat energy within the interior of the earth. (03 marks)
(ii) Discuss two advantages of windbreaks to plant environment. (02 marks)
(b) Briefly explain the major causes of the following types of environmental pollution:
(i) Water pollution. (2.5 marks)
(ii) Air pollution. (2.5 marks)
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