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Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2023


OPEN MOCK TEST - 5 (Code-A)
Test Date : 23/04/2023

ANSWERS
1. (4) 41. (2) 81. (2) 121. (3) 161. (2)
2. (4) 42. (4) 82. (1) 122. (2) 162. (3)
3. (3) 43. (3) 83. (1) 123. (3) 163. (4)
4. (3) 44. (2) 84. (1) 124. (3) 164. (3)
5. (3) 45. (1) 85. (3) 125. (2) 165. (3)
6. (1) 46. (1) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (2)
7. (1) 47. (2) 87. (3) 127. (4) 167. (2)
8. (3) 48. (2) 88. (2) 128. (4) 168. (4)
9. (4) 49. (1) 89. (1) 129. (1) 169. (3)
10. (1) 50. (4) 90. (1) 130. (4) 170. (2)
11. (3) 51. (3) 91. (1) 131. (3) 171. (3)
12. (1) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (1) 172. (3)
13. (1) 53. (4) 93. (1) 133. (2) 173. (1)
14. (1) 54. (3) 94. (2) 134. (1) 174. (2)
15. (2) 55. (3) 95. (2) 135. (3) 175. (3)
16. (2) 56. (3) 96. (1) 136. (2) 176. (3)
17. (3) 57. (2) 97. (2) 137. (2) 177. (3)
18. (1) 58. (3) 98. (2) 138. (2) 178. (1)
19. (3) 59. (3) 99. (2) 139. (3) 179. (3)
20. (1) 60. (4) 100. (2) 140. (4) 180. (4)
21. (2) 61. (3) 101. (3) 141. (1) 181. (2)
22. (3) 62. (4) 102. (3) 142. (3) 182. (2)
23. (4) 63. (4) 103. (4) 143. (2) 183. (3)
24. (1) 64. (2) 104. (1) 144. (3) 184. (4)
25. (4) 65. (4) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (1)
26. (3) 66. (4) 106. (4) 146. (1) 186. (3)
27. (2) 67. (4) 107. (3) 147. (2) 187. (2)
28. (1) 68. (3) 108. (3) 148. (3) 188. (3)
29. (2) 69. (4) 109. (1) 149. (2) 189. (1)
30. (3) 70. (2) 110. (3) 150. (4) 190. (2)
31. (3) 71. (1) 111. (2) 151. (3) 191. (3)
32. (2) 72. (3) 112. (4) 152. (4) 192. (3)
33. (3) 73. (4) 113. (1) 153. (4) 193. (4)
34. (3) 74. (1) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194. (1)
35. (2) 75. (3) 115. (2) 155. (1) 195. (3)
36. (4) 76. (4) 116. (1) 156. (1) 196. (3)
37. (3) 77. (3) 117. (1) 157. (2) 197. (4)
38. (2) 78. (3) 118. (3) 158. (2) 198. (3)
39. (1) 79. (1) 119. (4) 159. (4) 199. (2)
40. (4) 80. (2) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (4)
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION-A 6. Answer (1)
1. Answer (4) Hint & Sol.:
Hint & Sol.: For super elastic collision coefficient that to every action there is equal and opposite
of restitution is greater than 1. reaction and action and reaction pair act on
different bodies.
2. Answer (4)
7. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Hint: a = (g sin + g cos )
Sol.: a = (g sin30° + g cos30°)
Units of surface tension are N/m, J/m2 and kg/s2. = (5 + 5)
3. Answer (3) = 10 m/s2
Hint: F = 6 rv v = u + at
Sol.: [ rv] = [MLT 2] 0 = 30 10t
[ rv3] = [MLT 2] [LT 1]2 t=3s
= [ML3T 4] 8. Answer (3)
4. Answer (3) Hint:
Hint: Sol.: T = m(g + a)

Sol.: Let L be the length of escalator,


Work done by tension = T s cos0°
Speed of man w.r.t. escalator

Speed of escalator
9. Answer (4)
Hint: Ideal p-n junction diode produces zero
Speed of man w.r.t. ground
resistance when forward biased whereas it
produces infinite resistance when reverse biased.
Sol.:

5. Answer (3)
Hint: At t = 0 inductor act as infinite resistance
Sol.:
i=8A
10. Answer (1)
Hint: For elastic collision

u1 + v1 = u2 + v2

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Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

Sol.: u1 + v1 = u2 + v2 15. Answer (2)


10 + 6 = 4 + v2 Hint:
v2 = 12 m/s Sol.:
11. Answer (3)

Hint:

Sol.:

r = 5 cos45°

=0
12. Answer (1) 16. Answer (2)

Hint: Time of flight Hint:

Sol.:
Sol.:
17. Answer (3)

Hint:

13. Answer (1) Sum of infinite terms of G.P

Hint:

Sol.:
Sol.:

14. Answer (1)


Hint: At equilibrium

Sol.:
18. Answer (1)

Hint:
m1 = m2

Sol.:

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Comparing equation (1) and equation (2)

19. Answer (3) 22. Answer (3)


Hint & Sol.: Level of water will remain same Hint: Q = nC T
because when ice melts it will convert to that much
Sol.: Q = W + U
volume of water that was displaced by it while
floating. Work done by gas in polytropic process is
20. Answer (1)
m
Hint: T 2 U = nCV T
keff
Sol.:

Hence,

23. Answer (4)

Hint:

Sol.:

24. Answer (1)


Hint: At steady state capacitor act as infinite
resistance.
Sol.:
21. Answer (2)
Hint: Beat frequency =

Sol.: Beat frequency =

Potential difference across 5 F is 7 × 1 = 7 V

Potential energy

= 122.5 J

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Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

25. Answer (4)

Hint:

Sol.: A = (3R)2 R2
=8 R2

26. Answer (3)


Sol.: 30. Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Most of light is diffracted between two
first order minima

27. Answer (2)


= 4.4 × 10 3 rad
Hint: Power factor
31. Answer (3)
Sol.: At resonance Z = R Hint & Sol.: The material is semiconductor.
Power factor = 1 32. Answer (2)
28. Answer (1)
Hint: For maxima x = n
Hint:
For minima

Also Sol.: Maximum possible path difference between


waves is nearly 2.5 , there will be 5 maximas on
screen for x = ± , x = ± 2 and x = 0
Sol.:
Also there will be 4 minimas on screen for

33. Answer (3)


Hint: TV 1 = constant
Sol.: Taking log on both sides
29. Answer (2)
ln T + ( 1) ln V = Constant
Hint: Shift

Sol.:
34. Answer (3)
hc hc
Hint: eV0
0

Sol.:

8 + (8 x) = 12 + x
16 12 = 2x By equation (1) and (2)

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.:

0 =8
35. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.:

38. Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.:
=X+Y

It is a NOR gate
OR Truth table
X Y Z

0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
Truth table suggests it is a NOR Gate.
SECTION-B
36. Answer (4)
Hint: LC = 1 MSD 1 VSD
Sol.: n VSD = (n 1) MSD
39. Answer (1)
Hint: N = N0e t

LC = 1 MSD 1 VSD Mean life =

Sol.: N = N0e t

37. Answer (3)


Hint: Break down voltage is 6 V.
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Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

40. Answer (4)


Hint: E = h and then it is stable equilibrium

Sol.: U = x2 6x
Sol.:

F= (2x 6) = 0
x=3
41. Answer (2)
Hint:
Sol.:
Which is positive
At x = 3 it is stable equilibrium
46. Answer (1)
Hint: R = R0 A1/3

Sol.:

v = 7.5 m/s upwards


42. Answer (4)

Hint & Sol.:


47. Answer (2)
43. Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Area = Length × Breadth
Hint: =i+e A
= 55.3 × 24
Sol.: 65° + 45° + A = 180°
= 1327.2 m2
A = 70°
Rounding off to two significant digits = 13 × 102 m2
=i+e A
48. Answer (2)
= 45° + 45° 70° = 20°
44. Answer (2) Hint: At highest point vertical component of
velocity is zero.
Hint:

Sol.:
vH = 8 cos60° = 4 m/s
Sol.: 49. Answer (1)

Hint:

45. Answer (1)

Hint: At equilibrium F = 0 i.e.


v= r
and point of contact is instantaneous centre of
and if then it is unstable
rotation.

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Sol.: Sol.: a = Ktn

50. Answer (4)

Hint:

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A
51. Answer (3)
Hint: 1 mol gas at STP = 22.4 L
Sol.: CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O
2 mol O2 forms 1 mol CO2 = 22.4 L CO2 at STP
4 mol O2 forms 2 mol CO2 = 44.8 L CO2 at STP
52. Answer (4)
Hint: For same n + , orbital having greater value
of n has greater energy.
Sol.:
Orbital 55. Answer (3)
n+
Hint:
3d 3+2=5
5s 5+0=5 Sol.:
4f 4+3=7
6p 6+1=7
Energy order : 6p > 4f > 5s > 3d
53. Answer (4)
Hint: It is difficult to remove electron from 2s orbital
than 2p orbital.
Sol.: Hi order :
Li < Be > B < C < N > O < F. 56. Answer (3)
54. Answer (3)
Hint:
Hint: Shape of molecule depends on the numbers
of lone pairs and bond pairs on central atom.
Sol.: Sol.:

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57. Answer (2) 61. Answer (3)


Hint: With increase in number of gaseous moles Hint & Sol.: Magnesium and calcium bicarbonate
entropy increases. decompose on heating into hydroxide and
Sol.: Bond dissociation is an endothermic carbonate respectively and get precipitate out
process. therefore, considered as cause of temporary
hardness.
For the reaction H2(g) 2H(g) both H and S
62. Answer (4)
are positive.
Hint & Sol.: Corresponding hydrate halides of Be
58. Answer (3) and Mg on heating suffer hydrolysis.
Hint: Due to common ion effect, degree of 63. Answer (4)
dissociation of weak electrolyte becomes
Hint: Shape of sp3 hybridised molecule is
negligible.
tetrahedral.
Sol.:
Sol.:

s << 0.1 2s + 0.1 0.1


Ksp = [Pb2+][OH ]2
1.2 × 10 15 = (s) (0.1)2
s = 1.2 × 10 13 M Bridge hydrogen atoms are above and below the
59. Answer (3) plane.
Hint: Extent of reaction for exothermic equilibrium 64. Answer (2)
decreases with increase in temperature. Hint & Sol.:
Sol.: On increasing the pressure, equilibrium
shifts towards the side having lesser number of
gaseous moles.
Extent of reaction for
IUPAC name : 1-chloro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
A(g) + B2(g) AB2(g) will be maximum at low
65. Answer (4)
temperature and high pressure.
60. Answer (4) Hint:
Hint: Algebraic sum of oxidation number of each
element in ion is equal to the charge on the ion.
Sol.: Sol.:

Species Oxidation number of


underlined atom
66. Answer (4)
H4SiO4 4 (+1) + x + 4 ( 2) = 0 Hint: Lesser is stability of alkene, more will be the
x = +4 heat of hydrogenation.
Sol.:
Hg2Cl2 2x + 2 ( 1) = 0
x = +1
ClO4 x + 4 ( 2) = 1
x = +7
KMnO4 (+1) + (x) + 4 ( 2) = 0
x=+7

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Maximum heat of hydrogenation is of 74. Answer (1)


Hint: Pepsin converts proteins into amino acids.
Sol.:
67. Answer (4)
Enzyme Enzymatic reaction
Hint: In Fe0.93O, total positive charge on Fe2+ and
Fe3+ ions must be equal to the negative charge on Invertase Sucrose Glucose +
O2 ion. Fructose
Sol.: Let x is the number of Fe2+ ions in 93 cations.
Pepsin Proteins Amino acids
x × 2 + (93 x) × 3 = 2 × 100
x = 79. Zymase Glucose Ethyl alcohol +
CO2
Fraction of Fe2+ ions in the crystal
Diastase Starch Maltose
68. Answer (3)
75. Answer (3)
Hint: Gmix < 0 and Smix > 0 for every solution.
Hint:
Sol.: For ideal solution both Hmix and Vmix are
process.
zero.
Sol.:
69. Answer (4)
Hint: i = 1 +n
Sol.:
i = 1 0.4 + 5 × 0.4
76. Answer (4)
= 2.6
70. Answer (2) Hint: is a bidentate ligand
Hint: 3 mol electrons liberate 1 mol Al. Sol.: Halide ions are weak field ligands and
Sol.: m = zQ generally form outer orbital complex.
is strong field ligand and form inner orbital
complex in [Co(C2O4)3]3
Q = 1 F.
77. Answer (3)
71. Answer (1)
Hint: If 0 < P then pairing does not take place
Hint & Sol.: Lesser is the reduction potential more
before filling eg orbitals.
is the reducing power therefore, minimum
reduction potential among the given metal is of Sol.: For octahedral complex having 0 <P
potassium. is not possible.
72. Answer (3)
78. Answer (3)
Hint: for first order Hint: NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq) N2(g) + 2H2O(l) +
NaCl(aq)
Sol.:
Sol.:

= 60 s.
Ba(N3)2 Ba + 3N2
73. Answer (4)
(NH4)2SO4 + 2NaOH 2NH3 + 2H2O + Na2SO4
Hint: For zero order,
79. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.:
Sol.: 100
Element Cr Mn Fe Co
0.41 1.57 0.77 1.97

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Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

80. Answer (2)


1.
Hint: 2.

Sol.: 3.
SECTION-B
86. Answer (1)
Hint: Dual nature of matter is negligible in
macroscopic bodies.
Sol.: The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty
principle is significant for motion of microscopic
81. Answer (2) objects.
Hint: Aryl halides and vinyl halides have double 87. Answer (3)
bond characters in C X bonds, so C X bond Hint: Species containing unpaired electrons are
breaking is difficult. paramagnetic while with no unpaired electrons are
diamagnetic.
Sol.: will give fastest SN2 among the
given molecules as the transition state formed is Sol.:
stabilised by bond.
Species Bond order Magnetic nature
82. Answer (1)
Hint: O2 2 Paramagnetic
Sol.: The reducing groups of glucose and fructose 1.5 Paramagnetic
are involved in glycosidic bond formation
therefore, sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
1 Diamagnetic
83. Answer (1)
Hint: The polymer formed by more than one type 2.5 Paramagnetic
of monomeric unit are copolymer.
Sol.: N2 3 Diamagnetic
Polymer Monomer unit
2.5 Paramagnetic
Buna-N Buta-1,3-diene and acrylonitrile
Polystyrene Styrene 88. Answer (2)

Polyacrylonitrile Acrylonitrile Hint: G = H T S

PVC Vinyl chloride


Sol.: At equilibrium G = 0

84. Answer (1) .


Hint & Sol.:
89. Answer (1)
Hint: On adding two reactions at equilibrium their
equilibrium constants get multiplied to give new
equilibrium constant.
Sol.:

85. Answer (3)


Hint: But-2-ene shows geometric isomerism.
Sol.: Possible alkenes formed by the 90. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: MgSO4 and BeSO4 are readily soluble
dehydrohalogenation of are in water due to high hydration enthalpies.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

91. Answer (1) 97. Answer (2)


Hint: Borax is Na2B4O7·10H2O
Sol.: Hint & Sol.: Maximum sweetness value as
compared to cane sugar is of Alitame.

98. Answer (2)


92. Answer (4)
Hint: Percentage of Br Hint: 0° and 120° dihedral angles belong to
eclipsed form of ethane.

Sol.:
Sol.: Percentage of Br

93. Answer (1)


Hint: Triclinic crystal system is the most
unsymmetrical crystal system.
Sol.:
Crystal Parameters
system
Trigonal a = b = c, = = 90° Most stable conformer of ethane is staggered
Triclinic a b c, 90° having 60° dihedral angle.
Tetragonal a=b c, = = = 90°
99. Answer (2)
Monoclinic a b c, = = 90º, 90°
Hint: Aniline undergoes diazotization on reaction
94. Answer (2)
with NaNO2 + HCl at 0 5°C
Hint:
Sol.:

Sol.:
95. Answer (2)
Hint: HF forms hydrogen bonding.
Sol.:
Hydrogen HF HCl HBr HI
halides
Boiling point/K 293 189 206 238
96. Answer (1) 100. Answer (2)

Hint: Hint:
Sol.:
Sol.:

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Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 108. Answer (3)
101. Answer (3) Hint: UTRs are required for efficient translation
Hint: Enclosed within the integuments is a mass process.
of cells called the nucellus. Sol.: The UTRs are present at bo -end (before
Sol.: Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve -end (after stop codon).
food materials. 109. Answer (1)
102. Answer (3) Hint:
Hint: This disorder is caused by mutation in the as a template strand in transcription.
gene that codes for the enzyme phenylalanine Sol.: The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
hydroxylase. catalyses the polymerisation only in one direction,
Sol.: Pleiotropic gene is single gene that can
exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions. An 110. Answer (3)
example of this is phenylketonuria, which occurs Hint: It can be transmitted from parents to the
in humans. offspring when both the partners are carrier for the
103. Answer (4) gene (or heterozygous).
Hint: Female heterogamety is seen in birds. Sol.: Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosome-linked
Sol.: In birds, the females have one Z and one W recessive disease. The mutated gene Hbs causes
chromosome, whereas males have a pair of Z- one change in amino acid sequence of -chain of
chromosomes besides the autosomes. haemoglobin. It replaces glutamic acid present at
6th position by valine.
104. Answer (1)
111. Answer (2)
Hint: The residual, persistent nucellus is called
perisperm. Hint: Primary productivity can be divided into
gross primary productivity and net primary
Sol.: In some seeds such as black pepper and productivity.
beet, remnants of nucellus are persistent.
Albuminous seeds retain a part of endosperm as it Sol.: Secondary productivity is defined as the rate
is not completely used up during embryo of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
development (e.g. wheat, maize, barley, castor, 112. Answer (4)
sunflower). Hint: In amensalism, one species is harmed
105. Answer (3) whereas the other is unaffected.
Hint: A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose Sol.: The interaction where one species is
sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a benefited and the other is neither benefited nor
nucleoside. harmed is called commensalism.
Sol.: - 113. Answer (1)
phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. Hint: When energy flows from a particular trophic
106. Answer (4) level to the next higher trophic level, some energy
Hint: Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant is always lost as heat at each step.
organic material. Sol.: Pyramid of energy is always upright and can
never be inverted.
Sol.: Sporopollenin can withstand high
temperatures and strong acids and alkali. Pollen 114. Answer (3)
grains are well preserved as fossils due to Hint: Primary succession is a process that starts
sporopollenin. Intine in pollen grain is a thin layer in an area where no living organisms existed.
made up of cellulose and pectin.
Sol.: The correct sequence of stages of primary
107. Answer (3) succession in aquatic ecosystem is
Hint: The i gene of lac operon codes for the Phytoplankton Submerged plant stage
repressor. Submerged free floating stage Reed swamp
Sol.: The lac operon consists of one regulatory stage Marsh meadow stage Scrub stage
gene and three structural genes. Forest

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

115. Answer (2) Sol.: Zoological parks, botanical gardens and


Hint: A population has certain attributes that an wildlife safari parks are ex-situ conservation
individual organism does not possess. strategies.
Sol.: An individual may have birth and death, but 121. Answer (3)
a population has birth rates (natality), death rates Hint: Volvox and Chara are green algae.
(mortality) and sex ratio. Sol.: The common forms of phaeophyceae are
116. Answer (1) Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum and
Hint: Any species growing exponentially under Fucus.
unlimited resource conditions can reach enormous 122. Answer (2)
population densities in a short time.
Hint: They are the smallest living cells known and
Sol.: When we plot population density in relation can survive without oxygen.
to time, graph results in a J-shaped curve in
Sol.: Mycoplasma are organisms that lack cell
exponential growth of a population.
wall.
117. Answer (1)
123. Answer (3)
Hint: Acetobacter aceti (a bacterium) is used in
Hint: China rose and mustard are examples of
production of acetic acid.
alternate phyllotaxy.
Sol.: Aspergillus niger (a fungus) is used in
Sol.: Calotropis and guava are examples of
production of citric acid.
opposite phyllotaxy.
118. Answer (3)
Whorled phyllotaxy is found in Alstonia.
Hint: Crop varieties bred by hybridisation and
selection for insect pest resistance are as follows: 124. Answer (3)
Sol.: Hint: Dianthus and Primrose are examples of free
central placentation.
Crop Variety Insect Pest Sol.: Mustard and Argemone are examples of
Brassica Pusa Gaurav Aphids parietal placentation.
125. Answer (2)
Flat bean Pusa sem 2 Jassids, Aphids
and fruit bores Hint: This pressure is responsible for pushing up
water to small heights in the stem.
Okra Pusa sawani Shoot and fruit
Sol.: This positive pressure in roots is called root
Pusa A-4 borers
pressure.
119. Answer (4) 126. Answer (3)
Hint: Global species diversity of fishes is more Hint: This element is also required for uptake and
than species of birds. utilisation of Ca2+.
Sol.: Sol.: Boron is required for membrane functioning,
pollen germination, cell differentiation and
carbohydrate translocation.
127. Answer (4)
Hint: Condensation and coiling of chromatin fibres
begin during leptotene stage.
Sol.: The correct sequence of phases of prophase I
is as follows:
Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene
Diakinesis.
128. Answer (4)
120. Answer (2) Hint: Chromosomes get aligned along metaphase
Hint: Threatened animals and plants are taken out plate or equatorial plate before the splitting of
from their natural habitat and placed in special centromere.
setting where they can be protected and given Sol.: Chromosomes move to equator in
special care and is called ex-situ conservation. metaphase.

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129. Answer (1) the electron transport chain in the cyclic flow of
Hint: Colletotrichum is a member of fungi group electrons.
also called imperfect fungi. Sol.: The stroma lamellae membrane lacks PS II
Sol.: Mucor, Rhizopus and Albugo are the as well as NADP reductase enzyme.
members of Phycomycetes. 139. Answer (3)
130. Answer (4) Hint: C4 plants have a greater productivity of
Hint: These also provide index to the plant species biomass.
found in a particular area. Sol.: C4 plants lack a process called
Sol.: Flora contains the actual account of habitat photorespiration because of the mechanism that
and distribution of plants of a given area. increases the concentration of CO2 at the enzyme
site.
Monographs contain information on any one
taxon. 140. Answer (4)
131. Answer (3) Hint: In the most crucial step of Calvin cycle, CO2
is utilised.
Sol.: The sub-metacentric chromosome has
centromere slightly away from the middle of the Sol.: Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the
chromosome resulting into one shorter arm and Calvin cycle where CO2 is utilised for the
one longer arm. carboxylation of RuBP.
132. Answer (1) 141. Answer (1)
Hint: The endoplasmic reticulum which has Hint: Auxins are widely used as herbicides
granular surface is found in association with Sol.: 2, 4 - D (2, 4 - dichlorophenoxyacetic) is a
nucleus. synthetic auxin and is widely used to kill
Sol.: RER is continuous with the outer membrane dicotyledonous weeds.
of the nucleus. It is used to prepare weed free lawns by gardeners.
133. Answer (2) 142. Answer (3)
Hint: The autumn wood is darker and has higher Hint: This is a substrate level phosphorylation.
density. Sol.: During the conversion of succinyl CoA to
Sol.: The spring wood is lighter in colour and has succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised.
lower density. It is also called early wood. 143. Answer (2)
134. Answer (1) Hint: Thalassemia, phenylketonuria and sickle-
Hint: Monocot stem has a large number of cell anaemia are the examples of autosome-linked
scattered vascular bundles. disorders.
Sol.: Sol.: Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
a characteristic of dicot stem. disorder which shows transmission from
unaffected carrier female to some of the male
135. Answer (3)
progeny. It shows criss-cross inheritance.
Hint: This organism is responsible for causing red
144. Answer (3)
tide of sea.
Hint: It is a test cross.
Sol.: Gonyaulax is an example of dinoflagellates.
Sol.: Genotype of parent generation.
SECTION-B
Yellow seeds Yy
136. Answer (2)
Green seeds yy
Hint: Main plant body in bryophytes produces
gametes.
Sol.: The main plant body of the bryophyte is
haploid and it is called gametophyte.
137. Answer (2)
Hint: Psilotum is an example of class Psilopsida in
Pteridophytes.
Sol.: Equisetum and Selaginella are examples of
Sphenopsida and Lycopsida respectively.
138. Answer (2)
Hint: The excited electron does not pass on to
NADP+ but is cycled back to PS I complex through

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Phenotypes ratio Yellow seeds : 148. Answer (3)


Green seeds 1 : 1 Hint: Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan
145. Answer (2) have been initiated to save these major rivers of
Hint: Decomposition involves breakdown of the our country.
detritus.
Sol.: The Ministry of Environment and Forests has
Sol.: Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action
detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This Plan.
process is called as catabolism. Anabolism is the
synthesis of complex substances from simpler 149. Answer (2)
ones. Hint: Ozone is found in the upper part of the
146. Answer (1) atmosphere called the stratosphere.
Hint: Splicing is required to remove introns and
Sol.: Ozone depletion is occurring widely in the
join exons after transcription in eukaryotes.
stratosphere.
Sol.: Electrophoresis, blotting and hybridisation
are involved in the DNA fingerprinting 150. Answer (4)
147. Answer (2) Hint: A toxic substance accumulated by an
Hint: Pusa Sadabahar a variety of chilli was organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, and
developed to make it resistant against chilli mosaic is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level.
virus, tobacco mosaic virus and leaf curl.
Sol.: Biomagnification refers to increase in
Sol.: In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic
virus and powdery mildew was induced by levels.
mutations.

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A Sol.: The canal passing through the midbrain is
151. Answer (3) called cerebral aqueduct. The dorsal portion of the
midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings
Hint: Ten years less than the approximate life called corpora quadrigemina.
span of crocodile
155. Answer (1)
Sol.: In human beings, menstrual cycle ceases
around 50 years of age; that is termed as Hint: Troponin is found attached with tropomyosin
menopause. The first menstruation that begins at Sol.: The motor unit consists of a motor neuron
puberty is called menarche. along with muscle fibres connected to it. Calcium
152. Answer (4) ion binds, with a subunit of troponin present on
tropomyosin.
Hint: White muscle fibres mainly perform
anaerobic respiration 156. Answer (1)
Sol.: White muscle fibres have larger diameter, Hint: More than the number of phalanges in both
less number of mitochondria, more amount of hindlimbs
sarcoplasmic reticulum and less quantity of Sol.: The skull is composed of two sets of bones
myoglobin. cranial and facial, that totals to 22 bones. Cranial
153. Answer (4) bones are 8 in number.
Hint: This is an ill-effect of STIs. They form the hard protective outer covering,
cranium for the brain. The facial region is made up
Sol.: Pelvic inflammatory disease, abortions, still- of 14 skeletal elements which form the front part of
births, ectopic pregnancies are some of the ill- the skull. A single U-shaped bone called hyoid is
effects of STIs. present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is
The possible ill-effects of the use of contraceptives also included in the skull. Each middle ear
are nausea, abdominal pain, breakthrough contains three tiny bones malleus, incus and
bleeding, irregular menstrual bleeding or even stapes, collectively called ear ossicles.
breast cancer. 157. Answer (2)
154. Answer (2) Hint: Main reason of ventricular filling is joint
Hint: It connects ventricles of brain diastole

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Sol.: All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed Sol.:


state, i.e., they are in joint diastole. As the bicuspid
and tricuspid valves are open, blood from the
pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left
and the right ventricles respectively through the
left and right atria. During atrial systole, there is an
increase in flow of blood into the ventricles by
about 30 per cent.
158. Answer (2)
Hint: Release of ovum occurs in this phase
Sol.:

163. Answer (4)


Hint: Exclude homopolymers of glucose
Sol: Glycogen, cellulose and starch are
homopolymers of glucose. Inulin is a
homopolymer of fructose.
164. Answer (3)
Hint: Inbreeding depression occurs due to
continued inbreeding
Sol.: Inbreeding depression occurs due to
continued inbreeding. Whenever this becomes a
problem, selected animals of the breeding
population should be mated with unrelated
superior animals of the same breed. This usually
helps to restore productivity and fertility.
165. Answer (3)
159. Answer (4) Hint: Present only in RNA
Hint: Foetal ejection reflex Sol.:
Sol.: Oxytocin released from posterior pituitary is
a peptide hormone produced by hypothalamus. It
plays an important role in milk ejection as well as
in child birth.
160. Answer (3)
Hint: Fertilisation occurs in fallopian tube
Sol.: In a female undergoing tubectomy, fusion of
male and female gametes (sperm and ova) will not
occur. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian
tube is removed or tied up through a small incision
in the abdomen or through vagina.
161. Answer (2)
Hint: This ganglion supplies nerves to antennae
and compound eyes.
Sol.: The brain of cockroach is represented by
supra-oesophageal ganglion. Both supra-
oesophageal and sub-oesophageal ganglia are
parts of brain ring.
162. Answer (3) Uracil (Pyrimidine)
Hint: Membrane present at the base of scala 166. Answer (2)
media Hint: Poikilotherm

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Sol.: The members of class Chondrichthyes are One secondary spermatocyte forms 2 spermatids
characterised by after IInd meiotic division.
(a) Viviparity and internal fertilisation 120 secondary spermatocytes will form 120 × 2
(b) In males, pelvic fins bear claspers = 240 spermatids
(c) Cold blooded animals 171. Answer (3)
167. Answer (2) Hint: Secreted by adrenal cortex
Hint: Latin, annulus : little ring
Sol.: Aldosterone, the main mineralocorticoid in
Sol.: Annelids are triploblastic, metamerically our body, regulates the balance of water and
segmented and coelomate animals. electrolytes in our body.
Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess lateral
ANF is secreted by the wall of atria of heart and is
appendages, parapodia. Nephridia helps in
a vasodilator. It as a check on RAAS.
osmoregulation and excretion in annelids. The
mouth of molluscs contains a file-like rasping Adrenaline is secreted by adrenal medulla in
organ for feeding, called radula. response to stress of any kind and during
168. Answer (4) emergency situations.
Hint: Immune response mediated by T- Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland and plays a
lymphocytes is responsible for graft rejection very important role in the regulation of 24-hour
Sol.: Grafts from just any source an animal, (diurnal) rhythm of our body.
another primate, or any human beings cannot be 172. Answer (3)
made since the grafts would be rejected sooner or Hint: Bicephalic means having two heads.
later. Tissue matching, blood group matching are
Sol.: There are 12 pairs of ribs. Each rib is a thin
essential before undertaking any graft/transplant
flat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral
and even after this the patient has to take immune-
column.
suppressants all his/her life. The body is able to
-mediated It has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end
immune response is responsible for the graft and is hence called bicephalic. First seven pairs of
rejection. ribs are called true ribs. Dorsally, they are attached
169. Answer (3) to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected
to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Hint: Haemopoiesis also occurs here
The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate
Sol.: Differentiation of immature lymphocytes into directly with the sternum but join the seventh rib
antigen-sensitive lymphocytes occurs in primary with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are called
lymphoid organs i.e., bone marrow and thymus. vertebrochondral (false) ribs. Last 2 pairs (11th and
The secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites 12th) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are
for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen, therefore, called floating ribs.
which then proliferate to become effector cells.
173. Answer (1)
170. Answer (2)
Hint: Feature of Kwashiorkor
Hint: One parent cell form four daughter cells after
a complete meiosis in the process of Sol.: Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous
spermatogenesis. deficiency of protein and calories. It is found in
Sol.: infants less than a year in age. This often happens
if the mother has second pregnancy when the
older infant is still too young.
replaced too early by other food which is poor in
both proteins and caloric value. Growth and
development of brain and mental faculties are
impaired.
174. Answer (2)
Hint: Respiratory minute volume
Sol.: 10,000 mL Amount of air inspire/expire
per minute (RMV)
500 mL is tidal volume

is his rate of respiration

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175. Answer (3) 181. Answer (2)


Hint: Macrophage is a phagocytic cell Hint: Excludes pancreatic enzyme
Sol.: Monocytes (macrophage) and neutrophils Sol.:
are phagocytic WBCs. Eosinophils participate in
allergic reactions of the body and basophils Enterokinase is secreted by the intestinal
release inflammatory mediators. mucosa which activates trypsinogen into
176. Answer (3) trypsin.
Hint: This cell lacks nucleus. Carboxypeptidase is a pancreatic enzyme that
Sol.: A mature RBC lacks nucleus and other cell helps in protein digestion.
organelles such as mitochondria hence, it cannot Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme that converts
respire aerobically. proteins into peptones and proteoses.
177. Answer (3)
182. Answer (2)
Hint: Hormone secreted by adrenal medulla
Sol.: The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline Hint: Natural property of normal cells
and noradrenaline. It stimulates the process Sol.: In our body, cell growth and differentiation is
named glycogenolysis i.e., breakdown of glycogen highly controlled and regulated. In cancer cells,
resulting in an increased concentration of glucose there is breakdown of these regulatory
in blood. Glucagon also stimulates glycogenolysis. mechanisms. Normal cells show a property called
PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone while calcitonin contact inhibition by virtue of which contact with
is a hypocalcemic hormone. other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone while glucagon Cancer cells appear to have lost this property.
is a hyperglycaemic hormone. Cells sloughed from malignant tumors reach
Aldosterone increases blood pressure level while distant sites through blood, and where they get
ANF decreases blood pressure levels. lodged in the body, they start a new tumor there.
178. Answer (1) This property called metastasis, is the most feared
Hint: Evolution has a random probability. property of malignant tumors.
Sol.: Evolution is not a directed process in the Proto-oncogenes have been identified in normal
sense of determinism. It is a stochastic process cells, which when activated lead to oncogenic
based on chance events in nature and chance transformation of cells.
mutation in the organisms. 183. Answer (3)
179. Answer (3)
Hint: Backbone of double helical structure
Hint: Antagonistic to calcitonin
Sol.: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Sol.: Each restriction endonuclease functions by
Ca2+ levels in the blood. PTH acts on bones and
stimulates the process of bone resorption finds its specific recognition sequence, it will bind
(dissolution/demineralisation). PTH also to the DNA and cut each of the two strands of the
stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal double helix at specific points in their sugar -
tubules and increases Ca2+ absorption from the phosphate backbones.
digested food. It is thus, clear that PTH is a 184. Answer (4)
hypercalcemic hormone, i.e., it increases the Hint: Equals to the number of bones in pectoral
blood Ca2+ levels. Along with TCT, it plays a girdle in an adult man
significant role in calcium balance in the body.
Sol.: Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood
180. Answer (4)
delivers approximately 4 mL of CO2 to the alveoli
Hint: Compound epithelium has more than one
in an adult man under normal physiological
layers of cells
conditions and every 100 mL of oxygenated blood
Sol.: delivers approximately 5 mL of O2 to the tissues in
an adult man under normal physiological
Simple epithelium Lining for body
conditions.
cavities
185. Answer (1)
Compound Protective in function
Hint: Adrenal gland
epithelium
Sol.: Nicotinic receptors are mostly present in
Columnar epithelium Helps in secretion and adrenal glands, which when stimulated release
absorption adrenaline.

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SECTION-B because congestion of the lungs is one of the main


186. Answer (3) symptoms of this disease. Heart failure is not the
same as cardiac arrest (when the heart stops
Hint: Having high recognition sites will cleave the beating) or a heart attack (when the heart muscle
plasmid is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood
Sol.: In order to link the alien DNA, the vector supply).
needs to have very few, preferably single, 192. Answer (3)
recognition sites for the commonly used restriction
enzymes. Presence of more than one recognition Hint: It is called blind spot.
sites within the vector will generate several Sol.: Blind spot is a point in eye, which is not
fragments, which will complicate the gene cloning. sensitive to light and it is located slightly above and
187. Answer (2) medial to the posterior pole of the eyeball.
Hint: It is an active form. 193. Answer (4)
Sol.: Hint: Feature of mammals
Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor. Sol.: Embryonal care and protection are better in
Angiotensinogen is an inactive form secreted viviparous organisms in comparison to oviparous
by liver. animals.
Histamine is a vasodilator. 194. Answer (1)
Rennin is secreted from gastric mucosa of Hint: Feature of modern man
infants. Sol.: Among the stories of evolution of individual
188. Answer (3) species, the story of evolution of modern man is
most interesting and appears to parallel evolution
Hint: When filtrate comes towards medulla it
of human brain and language.
becomes hypertonic
Homo erectus ate meat. Agriculture came around
Sol.:
10,000 years back. Cranial capacity of
permeable to water and almost impermeable to
Neanderthal man was 1400 cc while that of Homo
sapiens was 1350 cc.
is permeable for electrolytes and impermeable for
water. 195. Answer (3)
189. Answer (1) Hint: Includes autoimmune disease
Hint: DNA is negatively charged Sol.: Transgenic models (animals) exist for
Sol.: According to question, the size of DNA diseases such as
fragments are fibrosis and rheumatoid arthritis.
d>c>a>b 196. Answer (3)
Due to larger size, DNA fragment (d) will remain Hint: LH helps in maintaining the corpus luteum
more closer to the cathode so, the position of Sol.: In MOET, a cow is administered hormones,
these fragments from anode to cathode side of gel with FSH-like activity to induce follicular
would be, b, a, c, d. maturation and super-ovulation.
190. Answer (2) 197. Answer (4)
Hint: This test results in DNA amplification in- Hint: Dust and industrial exposure
vitro.
Sol.: In cement industry and specially those
Sol.: PCR test can detect disease when there is a involving grinding of stones, the dust inhaled is too
very small amount of pathogens in our body.
During a PCR test, a small amount of genetic with.
material in a sample is amplified multiple times.
Long exposure can lead to inflammation resulting
Widal test is used to confirm typhoid.
in proliferation of fibrous tissue.
191. Answer (3)
198. Answer (3)
Hint: Feature of cardiac arrest.
Hint: Progestasert belongs to the same category
Sol.: Heart Failure: Heart failure means the state
of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively Sol.: LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD.
enough to meet the needs of the body. It is CuT, Cu7 and multiload-375 are copper-releasing
sometimes called congestive heart failure IUDs.
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199. Answer (2) 200. Answer (4)


Hint: Male gamete is haploid Hint: Cytokine barrier
Sol.: Meiocyte is a cell who will undergo meiosis. Sol.: Virus infected cells secrete a protein called
It is diploid. interferon, which stimulates adjacent non-infected
The chromosome number in meiocyte of cells to produce translation inhibiting protein. This
human is 46 and genetic constitution of a male protein inhibit protein synthesis in non-infected
gamete may be either 22 + X or 22 + Y cells.

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