BLOCK 1 Quiz 1 7.

The __________ served as the primary spokes-

entity for the nine (9) PRBs making up the Philippine
1. According to Rule V of PRBoA Resolution No. 05- Technology (i.e. Non-Engineering) Professions.
07, what is the registration fee for initial registration, A. PRBCB
renewal, or request for reinstatement? B. PRBCE
A. P500.00 C. PRBRES
B. P1,000.00 D. PRBoA
C. P1,500.00
D. P2,000.00 8. Under the Mnemonics of PRC given by PRC, what
does P stands for
2. The sum of the total number of hours A. Professionalism and Integrity
accomplished from the entire FOP Total number of B. Patriotism and Integrity
hours shall not be less than the required _______. C. Professionalism and Unity
A. 3,840 hours D. Patriotism and Excellence
B. 3,850 hours
C. 3,860 hours 9. How many years of experience are required for
D. 3,870 hours the members of the PRC?
A. A.8 years
3. The following are qualifications of being a member B. 9 years
of the Professional Regulatory Board except one. C. 5 years
A. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines. D. 6 years
B. Be a holder of a degree in Bachelor of
Science in Architecture conferred by a 10. It means the act of conceiving, choosing and
school, college or university in the developing the type, disposition, arrangement and
Philippines or abroad that is recognized proportioning of the structural elements of an
and/or accredited by the Commission on architectural work giving due consideration to safety,
Higher Education (CHED). cost-effectiveness, functionality and aesthetics.
C. Has never been convicted of any crime A. Structural Planning
involving moral turpitude. B. Structural Building
D. Be at least 24 years of age. C. Structural Evolution
D. Structural Conceptualization
4. What does PRC stand for?
A. Professional Regulation Commission 11. SPLBE stands for:
B. Philippine Regulation Commission A. Special Professional Licensure Board
C. Philippine Regulatory Commission Examinations
D. Professional Regulatory Commission B. Senior Practice Licensure Board
Examinations
5. In case of a vacancy in the PRBoA, how are C. Specific Partnership Licensure Board
replacements appointed? Examinations
A. By the President of the Philippines D. Selective Performance Licensure Board
B. By the IAPOA through an election Examinations
C. By the PRC Chairman
D. By the Secretary of the DPWH 12. According to Rule II of PRBoA Resolution No.
05-07, what percentage of the owners,
6. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 0507, what shareholders, members, incorporators, directors, or
action must a non-registered architectural firm or executive officers of a registered architectural firm
entity take upon receipt of a written notice of non- must be registered and licensed architects?
registration from the Board? A. 50%
A. Continue operating without changes. B. 75%
B. Immediately apply for registration C. 90%
C. File an appeal with the Board. D. 100%
D. Cease engagement in the practice of
architecture.
13. A post-baccalaureate, pre-licensure experience B. ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL
of 2 years required of a graduate of architecture prior REGULATORY BOARD OF
to taking the licensure examination, consisting of a ARCHITECTURE
variation of experiences in the different phases of C. ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF
architectural service. ARCHITECTURE
A. Architectural Experience D. ARTICLE V Final Provisions
B. Architectural Specialization
C. Diversified Architectural Experience 18. According to Article III SECTION 15. Rating in
D. Diversified Architectural Specialization the Licensure Examination. - To be qualified as
having passed the licensure examination for
14. It pertains to the existing official national architects, a candidate must obtain a weighted
organization of all architects of the Philippines in general average of _________, with no grade lower
which all registered Filipino architects shall be than fifty percent (50%) in any given subject.
members without prejudice to membership in other A. 60%
voluntary professional associations; B. 70%
A. Continuing Professional Development C. 75%
B. Securities of Exchange D. 80%
C. Commission
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional 19. What action can the Board take against
Organization of Architects architectural firms or entities found violating
the rules and regulations?
15. Which of the following professionals can A. Issue a warning letter.
compose the remaining 25% ownership of B. Offer a grace period for compliance.
architectural firms or entities, as stated in Rule II of C. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of
PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07? Registration
A. Filipino citizens without any professional D. Impose a fine without further consequences.
license
B. Foreign architects 20. What permit is required for foreign architects to
C. Filipino lawyers who are not members of the be allowed to engage in professional architecture
Integrated Bar of the Philippines projects in the Philippines?
D. Filipino allied technical or technological A. Special/Temporary Permit
professionals separately registered and B. Sanitary Permit
licensed by the concerned boards and C. Safety Permit
the Commission. D. Sales Tax Permit

16. Which of the following entities is required to 21. What Article in Republic Act No.9266 contains
renew their registration every three (3) provisions regarding the composition and functions
years? of the Professional Regulatory Board of
A. Individual architects only Architecture?
B. Architectural partnerships only A. ARTICLE III EXAMINATION,
C. Architectural firms, companies, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
partnerships, corporations, or B. ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL
associations REGULATORY BOARD OF
D. Non-registered and non-licensed persons ARCHITECTURE
involved in architectural practice C. ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF
ARCHITECTURE
17. This article outlines the requirements and D. ARTICLE V Final Provisions
procedures for the examination, registration, and
licensure of architects in the Philippines, detailing 22. What do you call the list that shows the names
the qualifications for applicants, subjects covered by and place of business of all registered
the examination, passing criteria, issuance of professional architects?
professional identification, and the regulatory A. Directory
framework for maintaining and enforcing B. Schedule
professional standards. C. Roster
A. ARTICLE III EXAMINATION, D. Record
REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
23.CHED shall prepare and promulgate the Identification Card in the manner hereinafter
necessary rules and regulations needed to provided and shall thereafter comply with the
implement the provisions of this Act within how many provisions of this Act.”?
days in accordance to Section 17? A. SECTION 25. Registration of Architects
A. 15 working days Required
B. 30 days B. SECTION 30. Prohibition in the Practice of
C. 60 days Architecture
D. 90 days C. SECTION 26. Vested Rights: Architects
Registered When this Law is Passed.
24.What is the acronym of CPD in Section 28 Article D. SECTION 31. Liability of Representatives of
IV? Non-Registered Persons.
A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Certificate in Professional Development 35. In SECTION 31. Liability of Representatives of
C. Community Planning & Development Non-Registered Persons. It shall be unlawful for
D. Campus Planning Design any person or firm or corporation to seek to avoid
the provisions of this Act by having a
25. FOP stands for: representative or employee seek architectural work
A. Final on Practice in their behalf, unless and until, such persons
B. Finance on Permits have duly qualified and are duly __________,
C. Formality of Performance otherwise, both those represented and
D. Field of Practice representative, the employer and the employee
shall be deemed guilty of violation of this Act.
A. Forbid
True or False B. Registered/licensed
C. Noted
False 26. The licensure exam does not need to be D. First
related to the syllabus of CHED.
False 27. There are 46 professions that have a 36. In SECTION 37. Limitation to the Registration of
PRBo. a Firm, Company, Partnership, Corporation or
True 28. You can file a case to the PRC Association. The practice of ___________ is a
regarding licenses. professional service, admission to which shall be
True 29. PRC has the right to keep a database determined upon the basis of individual personal
on those who took and will take license qualifications.
exams. A. Engineering
True 30. PRBo can inquire for help from other B. Accountancy
institutions regarding filled cases related to C. Architecture
the license. D. Communications
False 31. The law is called the PCR
Modernization Act Dec 50, 2000. 37. What Section in Article IV Practice of
False 32. If one part of the law is not related to the Architecture contains “Persons not registered as an
case the case is still valid. architect shall not claim nor represent either
False 33. The PRBo alone can suspend licenses. services or work as equivalent to those of a duly
qualified registered architect, or that they are
-------------------------------------------------------------------- qualified for any branch or functions of function of
34. What Section in Article IV Practice of architectural practice, even though no form of the
Architecture contains “No person shall practice title "Architect" is used.”
architecture in this country, or engage in preparing A. SECTION 35. Positions in Government
architectural plans, specification or preliminary data Requiring the Services of Registered and
for the erection or alteration of any building located Licensed Architects.
within the boundaries of this country or use the title B. SECTION 27. Reciprocity Requirements.
"Architect," or display or use any title, sign, card, C. SECTION 34. Non-Registered Person
advertisement, or other device to indicate such Shall Not Claim Equivalent Service
person practices or offers to practice architecture, D. SECTION 33. Ownership of Plans,
or is an architect, unless such person shall Specifications and other Contract
have received from the Board a Certificate of Documents.
Registration and be issued a Professional
38. According to the Section 30 Article VI, when such 43. According to Article III Section 14, the
actions are deemed a misdeed, how much will examination shall cover the following subjects
the fine offender may face? except:
A. P20,000.00 A. History and Theory of Architecture;
B. P200,000.00 Principles of Planning and Architectural
C. P2,000,000.00 Practice;
D. P20,000.00 B. Structural Design, Building Materials, and
Architectural Specifications, and Methods of
39. In Section 33 Article IV, What should be duly Construction and Utilities;
signed, stamped or sealed, as instruments of C. Architectural Surveying
service, are the intellectual property and documents D. Architectural Design and Site Planning
of the architect?
A. Drawings and specifications and other 44. In Article III SECTION 24. Re-issuance or
contract documents Replacement of Revoked or Lost Certificates of
B. Blueprints Registration Professional Identification Card or
C. Working Drawing Special and Temporary Permit.- The Board may,
D. All of the above after the expiration of ______ years from the date of
revocation of a Certificate of Registration,
40. In SECTION 35. Positions in Government Professional Identification Card or
Requiring the Services of Registered and Licensed special/temporary permit, and upon application and
Architects. Within _ years from the effectiveness of for reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate
this Act, all existing and proposed positions in the validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration
the local and national government, whether career, and in so doing may, in its discretion, exempt the
permanent, temporary or contractual and applicant from taking another examination.
primarily requiring the services of an architect shall A. 3
be filled only by registered and licensed B. 2
architects. C. 6
A. 2 D. 4
B. 3
C. 4 45. In Article III SECTION 20. Seal, Issuance and
D. 10 Use of Seal, A duly licensed architect shall affix the
seal prescribed by the Board bearing the
41. What Section in Article IV states that only the registrant's name, registration number and title
Architect-of-record is fully responsible for all _______ on all architectural plans, drawings,
architectural plans, specifications, and other specifications and all other contract documents
documents issued under their seal or authorized prepared by or under his/her direct supervision.
signature? A. Architect
A. Section 35 B. Mr./Mrs.
B. Section 34 C. Designer
C. Section 33 D. Engineer
D. Section 32
46. The Architecture Act of 2004 is also known as
42. In Section 13 of Article III, which is not part of the A. Republic Act No. 8293
qualifications of applicant for examination? B. Republic Act No. 9266
A. He/she is a Filipino citizen or a citizen of a C. Republic Act No.545
foreign country D. Republic Act No.3866
B. He/she is of good moral character
C. He/she is a holder of a degree of Bachelor of 47. What official body formulates rules and
Science in Architecture regulations relating to signing and sealing of
D. He/she has been convicted of any drawings, specifications, and other documents
criminal offense involving moral registered by Architects?
turpitude A. Board of Architecture
B. Professional Regulation Commision
C. United Architects of the Philippines
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional
Organization of Architects
48. It is the art, science or profession of planning, B. ARTICLE III: EXAMINATION,
designing and constructing buildings in their totality REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
taking into account their environment, in C. ARTICLE IV: PRACTICE OF
accordance with the principles of utility, strength and ARCHITECTURE
beauty D. ARTICLE V: FINAL PROVISIONS
A. Architecture
B. Engineering 54. SEC stands for
C. Interior Designing A. Special Exchange Commission
D. HomePlanning B. Security Enforcement Commision
C. Secured Exchange Contract
49. ____________ means a sole proprietorship, a D. Securities of Exchange Commission
partnership or a corporation registered with the
proper government agencies. 55. _____________ means an architect registered
A. House of the President and licensed under this Act, who is directly and
B. LawFirm professionally responsible and liable for the
C. Architectural Firm construction supervision of the project.
D. Hospital
A. Architect-in-charge of construction
50. _______________ means the architect B. Architect-of-record
registered and licensed under this Act, who is C. Consulting Architect
directly and D. Architect-of-construction
professionally responsible for the total design of the
project for the client and who shall assume 56. According to Sec 36 of article IV “It shall be
the civil liability for the plans, specifications and unlawful for any unregistered person to collect a fee
contract documents he/she has signed and for architectural services except: _____
sealed.
A. Architect-in-charge of construction A. as student collecting a fee for his/her own
B. Architect-of-record service
C. 5 B. as an employee
D. Consulting Architect C. As an employee collecting a fee as a
E. Architect-of-construction representative of a Registered Architect.
D. As citizen
51. DTI stands for;
A. Department of Trade and Industry 57. A group of newly licensed architects and their
B. Department of Technology and Innovation friends wanted to put-up an architectural firm. How
C. Department of Trust Fund and Income many percent of the corporation should be owned
D. Department of Tourism Involvement by the Architects?

52.____________ means the architect registered A. atleast seventy-five percent (75%)

and licensed or permitted to practice under this B. At least twenty-five percent (25%)
Act, who is professionally and academically C. At least sixty-five percent (65%)
qualified and with exceptional or recognized D. At least seventy-three percent (73%)
expertise or specialization in any branch of
architecture. 58. Who is responsible for enforcing the IRR of RA
A. Architect-in-charge of construction 9266?
B. Architect-of-record
C. Consulting Architect A. Secretary of Justice
D. Architect-of-construction B. Commission and the Board
C. Architects
D. Contractors
53. Under what article does the “Powers and
Functions of the Board” fall under?
A. ARTICLE II: PROFESSIONAL 59. The SEC 43 of The Architecture Act of 2004
REGULATORY BOARD OF states that :” This Act shall not be construed to
ARCHITECTURE affect or prevent the practice of any other legally
recognized profession.”
 A. True D. 100%
65. Section 21. Effectivity – This Act shall take effect
after days following its publication in the Official
60. According to Sec 37 of the article VI, who can
Gazette or in two (2) newspapers of general
only form among themselves, or together with allied circulation, whichever is earlier.
technical professionals and obtain registration as a
firm, company, partnership, association or a. 15 days
corporation for the practice of architecture?
b. 30 days
A. Registered and licensed Filipino Architect
c. 60 days
B. Newly passed Filipino Architects
d. 90 days
C. Newly Graduate Filipino Architects
D. Filipino Architecture Apprentice
61. It refers to the author or authors of a set of 66. In accordance to Section 14. Authority to Use
architectural plans or specifications who are in Income, the Commission is authorized to use its
charge of their preparation, whether made by them income not exceeding the amount of a year for a
personally or under their immediate supervision period of five (5) years after the effectivity of this Act.
A. Autorship a. P4, 500, 000.00
B. Leadership
C. Board b. P45,000.00
D. Commission c. P45,000,000
62. It means a duly notarized written contract or d. P4,500.00
equivalent public instrument stipulating the scope of
services and guaranteeing compensation of such
services to be rendered by an architect registered
67. How many sections does the Republic Act No.
and licensed under this Act;
8981 has?
A. Commission
a. 19
B. Service Agreement
C. Autorship b. 20
D. Architectural Agreement
c. 21
63. Which of the following is not included in the
scope of practice of architecture? d. 22

A. Physical and planning and the design

B. Construction 68. Section 15. Penalties for Manipulation and Other
C. 7 Practices in the Conductof Professional
D. Restoration or alteration of a building or a Examinations
group of buildings a. Corrupt
E. None of the above
b. Unjustified

64. According to Rule II of PRBoA Resolution No. c. Erroneous

05-07, what percentage of the owners shareholders,
d. Criminal
members, incorporators, directors, or executive
officers of a registered architectural firm must be
registered and licensed architects? 69. Section 20. Repealing Clause – Republic Act.
No. 546, Presidential Decree No. 223, as amended
A. 50%
by , Republic Act No. 5181, and Executive
B. 75%
Order No. 266, Series of 1995 are hereby repealed.
C. 90%
Section 23 (h) of Republic Act No. 7836, Section 4
(m & s). Section 23 of Republic Act No. 7920, and b. CHED
Section 29 of Republic Act No. 8050, insofar as it
c. DOF
requires completion of the requirements of the
Continuing Professional Education (CPE) as a d. DOLE
condition for the renewal of the license, are hereby
repealed. All other laws, orders, rules and
regulations or resolutions and all parts thereof 73. PRC stands for:
inconsistent with the provisions of this Act are
hereby repealed or amended accordingly. a. Professional Regulation Commission

a. Presidential Decree No. 657 b. Philippine Regulation Commission

b. Presidential Decree No. 656 3 c. Philippine Regulatory Commission

c. Presidential Decree No. 576 d. Professional Regulatory Commission

d. Presidential Decree No. 765

74. Under Section 7 of Republic Act 8981, PRC has
a function to administer and conduct the licensure
70. In accordance to Section 18: Transitory examinations of the various regulatory boards in
Provisions, the incumbent executive director shall accordance with the rules and regulations
serve the position of without the need of new promulgated by the Commission; determine and fix
appointment. the places and dates of examinations; use publicly
a. Assistant Commissioner or privately-owned buildings and facilities for 4
examination purposes; conduct more than one (1)
b. Chairperson licensure examination provided the following except:
c. Commissioners a. when there are two (2) or more examinations
given in a year, at least one (1) examinations shall
d. Director
be held on weekdays (Monday to Friday)
b. if only one (1) examination is given in a year, this
71. What section states that, “Any provision of this shall be held only on weekdays
Act or the application of such provision to any person
c. the Commission is also authorized to require the
or circumstances is declared invalid or
completion of a refresher
unconstitutional, the remainder of this Act or
application of such provisions to other persons or course where the examinee has failed to pass three
circumstance shall not be affected by such (3) times, except as otherwise provided by law
declaration.”
d. none of the above
a. Section 17. Implementing Rules and Regulations
b. Section 18. Transitory Provisions Commissioners
c. Section 19. Separability Clause 75. What is the period of validity for the Certificate of
d. Section 20. Repealing Clause Registration issued to architectural firms or entities,
according to Rule III of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-
07?
72. In accordance to Section 11. Person to Teach a. 1 year
Subjects for Licensure Examination on all
Professions, all subjects for licensure examinations b. 2 years
shall be taught by persons who comply with the other c. 3 years
requirements of what Philippine Government
Agency? d. 5 years

a. DEPED
76. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what institutes based on the passing ratio and overall
action must a non-registered architectural firm or performance of students in board examinations
entity take upon receipt of a written notice of non-
registration from the Board? b. To exercise administrative supervision over the
various professional regulatory boards and its
a. Continue operating without changes. members
b. Immediately apply for registration c. To adopt and promulgate such rules and
regulations as may be necessary to effectively
c. File an appeal with the Board.
implement policies with respect to the regulation and
d. Cease engagement in the practice of practice of the professions;
architecture
d. None of the above

77. Under “F” of Section 7 of the Republic Act 8981,

80. PRC is required to submit and recommend to the
the PRC have the custody of all the records of the
President of the Philippines the names of
various boards including the following except:
licensed/registered professionals for appointment as
a. Examination papers members of the various Professional Regulatory
Boards from among those nominated to fill up
b. Minutes of deliberation vacancies pursuant to the provisions of Executive
c. Examination results Order No. 496, Series of 1991

d. Records of failed examinees a. True

78. According to Section 9, (c.) To hear and 83. Statement 1: Under Section 7 of Republic Act
investigate cases arising from violations of their 8981, the PRC has the power to administer,
respective laws, the rules and regulations implement and enforce the regulatory policies of the
promulgated thereunder and their Codes of Ethics national government with respect to the regulation
and, for this purpose, may issue summons, and licensing of the various professions and
subpoena and subpoena duces tecum to alleged occupations under its jurisdiction including the
violators and/or witnesses to compel their enhancement and maintenance of professional and
attendance in such investigations or hearings: occupational standards and ethics and the
Provided, That, the decision of the Professional enforcement of the rules and regulations relative
Regulatory Board shall, unless appealed to the thereto
Commission, become final and executory after from Statement 2: They have the power to perform any
receipt of notice of judgment or decision. and all acts, enter into contracts, make such rules
a. 15 days and regulations and issue such orders and other
administrative issuance as may be necessary in the
b. 30 days execution and implementation of its functions and
the improvement of its services
c. 60 days
a. First statement is true; Second statement is False
d. 90 days
b. First statement is False; Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
79. Which of the following is not included in the
powers, functions, and responsibilities of the d. statements are False
Commission under Republic Act 8981?
a. To adopt and institute a comprehensive rating
system for universities, colleges, and training
84. Under Section 4 of Republic Act 8981, the b. First statement is False; Second statement is True
President shall appoint the commission for how
c. Both statements are True
many years?
d. Both statements are False
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7 88. The PRBoA was fully reconstituted as of March
30, 2007, in full compliance with
d. 8
a. R.A. No. 545
b. R.A. No. 9266
85. Section 2 entitled “Statement of the Policy” of
c. R.A. No. 1581
Republic Act No. 8981 states that, “The members of
the Professional Regulatory Boards shall receive d. R.A. No. 386
compensation equivalent to, at least, two salary
grades lower than the salary grade of the
Commissioners: Provided, That the Chairperson of 89. Which of the following is not a purpose of the
the Regulatory Board shall receive a monthly PRBoA?
compensation of two steps higher than the members
of the Board, and: Provided, further, That they shall a. Suspension of any member of the Board
be entitled to other allowances and benefits provided
b. Regulation and Licensing
under existing laws”.
c. Administration of the Architecture Licensure
b. False
Examination
d. Implementation and Enforcement of the Republic
86. Which of the following PRBoA Resolutions call Act No. 9266
for the conversion of the Logbook of Diversified
Experience in Architecture as a downloadable form
from the United Architects of the Philippines 90. What section states that “Any law enforcement
website? agency shall, upon call or request of the Commission
or of any Professional Regulatory Board, render
a. PRBoA Resolution No. 10 Series of 2021
assistance in enforcing the regulatory law of the
b. PRBoA Resolution No. 17 Series of 2012 profession including the rules and regulations
promulgated thereunder by prosecuting the violators
c. PRBoA Resolution No. 12 Series of 2008 thereof in accordance with law and the rules of
d. PRBoA Resolution No. 05 Series of 2010 court.”
a. Section 10

87. Statement 1: Under Section 7 of Republic Act b. Section 14

8981, PRC has the power to hold in contempt in c. Section 17
erring party or person only upon application with a
court of competent jurisdiction. d. Section 12

Statement 2: They have no power to perform such

other functions and duties as may be necessary to
91. Under Section 3 of the Republic Act No. 8981,
carry out the provisions of Republic Act 8981, the
“There is hereby created a three-man commission to
various professional regulatory laws, decrees,
be known as the Professional Regulation
executive orders and other administrative issuance.
Commission”. This is composed of the following
a. First statement is true; Second statement is except:
False
a. 1 full time chair person
b. 2 full time commissioners 95. Section 9. Powers, Functions and of the Various
Professional Regulatory Boards
c. 1 part time commissioner
a. Regulations
d. Both a and b
b. Occupation
92. Section 10. Compensation of the Members of the c. Responsibilities
Professional Regulatory Boards – The members of
d. Appropriations
the Professional Regulatory Boards shall receive
compensation equivalent to, at least, lower than the
salary grade of the Commissioners: Provided, That
the Chairperson of the Regulatory Board shall
receive a monthly compensation of two steps higher
than the members of the Board, and: Provided,
further, that they shall be entitled to other allowances
and benefits provided under existing laws.
a. one salary grades
b. two salary grades
c. three salary grades
d. four salary grades

93. What action can the Board take against

architectural firms or entities found violating the rules
and regulations?
a. Issue a warning letter.
b. Offer a grace period for compliance.
c. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of
Registration
d. Impose a fine without further consequences.

94. As stated in PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, this

group is responsible for issuing Certificates of
Registration to architectural firms or entities.
a. The Integrated and Accredited Professional
Organization of Architects (IAPOA).
b. The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).
c. The Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC) through the Board.
d. The Department of Trade and Industry (DTI)
BLOCK 1 Quiz 2 A. Works of foreign authors who have their
habitual residence in the Philippines
1. Who appoints the Director General, Deputies B. Works first published in another country but
Director General, Directors, and Assistant also published in the Philippines within sixty
Directors? days, irrespective of the nationality or
A. The President residence of the authors.
B. The Secretary of Trade and Industry C. Filipino author whose work is first published
C. The Civil Service Law outside of the Philippines
D. The Office itself D. Audio-visual works the producer of
which has his headquarters or habitual
2. Which refers to the document issued by the PRC residence in the Philippines
signifying that the person named therein has
complied with all the legal and procedural 7. This refers to a body created to promote and
requirements for such issuance, including, in ensure the continuous improvement of
appropriate cases, passing the licensure professionals, in accordance with national, regional
examination or registration without examination? and international standards of practice.
A. Certificate of Registration A. CPD Council
B. CPD credit unit B. AIPO/Accredited Integrated Professional
C. Professional ID Organization
D. Authorship C. Professorial Chair
D. CPD Body
3. Why is the CPD Council Secretariat created?
A. To manage the finances of the CPD 8. The making of one (1) or more copies, temporary
Councils. or permanent, in whole or in part, of a work or a
B. To conduct and deliver CPD programs. sound recording in any manner or form without
C. To provide technical, administrative, and prejudice to the provisions of Section 185 of this Act
operational support to the CPD Councils (Sec. 41 [E], P.D. No. 49a).
and PRBs in implementing CPD A. Replication
programs. B. Reproduction
D. To set the fees for CPD programs. C. Recreation
D. Regeneration
4. Defined as original intellectual creations in the
literary and artistic domain also referred to work. 9. Deferment for complying to minimum credit units
A. Works of Government of an architect due to unforeseen circumstances
B. Literary and Artistic Works should not exceed how many months?
C. Derivative Works A. 12 months
D. Pseudonym Works B. 6 months
C. 18 months
5. Which of the following is NOT a function, power, D. 24 months
and responsibility of the CPD Council?
A. Evaluate and act on applications for 10. What is the consequence of not recording an
accreditation of CPD Providers and their assignment, license, or other instrument relating to
CPD Programs. patents within the specified time frame?
B. Develop and evaluate the CPD Programs A. It becomes void against any subsequent
and ensure cohesiveness and quality. purchaser or mortgagee.
C. Conduct researches, studies and B. It remains valid but cannot be enforced in
benchmarking for international alignment of court.
the CPD Programs. C. It is automatically extended for another
D. Issue operational guidelines, with the three months.
approval of the PRC and the PRB D. It is considered as pending until the
concerned. recording is completed.

6. According to Sec. 221. Points of Attachment for

Works under Sections 172 and 173. The protection
afforded by this Act to copyrightable works under
Sections 172 and 173 shall apply to:
11. The Professional Track is divided into 5 different 16. What options are available for registered
major areas which are? professionals working abroad to earn CPD credits?
A. Design, Building Technology, Sustainability, A. They cannot earn CPD credits while
Ethics, Interior Design working abroad
B. Design, Building Science, Environment, B. They can only earn CPD credits through
Sustainability, Tropical Design accredited providers
C. Design, Building Science, Practice, C. They can earn CPD credits through both
Sustainability and Environment, Others accredited and non-accredited providers
D. Design, Building Utility, Practice, D. They can earn CPD credits only through
Sustainability and Environment, Others non-accredited providers

12. The natural person whose name is indicated on 17. It means any visible sign designated as such in
a work in the usual manner as the author shall, in the the application for registration and capable of
absence of proof to the contrary, be presumed to be distinguishing the origin or any other common
the author of the work. This provision shall be characteristic, including the quality of goods or
applicable even if the name is a pseudonym, where services of different enterprises which use the sign
the pseudonym leaves no doubt as to the identity of under the control of the registered owner of the
the author. collective mark.
A. SEC. 219. Presumption of Ownership. A. Trade name
B. SEC. 219. Presumption of Property, B. Trademark
C. SEC. 219. Presumption of Composition. C. Mark
D. SEC. 219. Presumption of Authorship. D. Collective Mark

13. This refers to the creation of scholarly ideas/work 18. What is the consequence of not recording an
such as technical or professional books, instructional assignment, license, or other instrument
materials, design and the like. relating to patents within the specified time frame?
A. Research A. It becomes void against any subsequent
B. Accreditation purchaser or mortgagee.
C. Authorship B. It remains valid but cannot be enforced in
D. Composition court.
C. It is automatically extended for another
14. How is the second member of the CPD council three months.
selected if there is no national organization of deans D. It is considered as pending until the
or department chairpersons for the relevant field? recording is completed.
A. The PRC appoints the second member
directly. 19. Can CPD credits earned in excess of the
B. The PRB concerned chooses the second required amount be carried over to the next
member from their existing members. compliance period?
C. The second member is selected through a A. Yes, without any exceptions
public examination. B. Yes, with the exception of credits earned
D. The PRB submits a list of three qualified from doctorate or master’s degree
individuals from the academe, and the programs
PRC designates the second member C. No, they cannot be carried over
from this list. D. No, unless approved by the CPD Council

15. What is a work created by an officer or employee 20. This refers to the quality assured national system
of the Philippine Government or any of its for the development, recognition and award of
subdivisions and instrumentalities, including qualifications at defined levels, based on standards
government-owned or controlled corporations as of knowledge, skills and values, acquired in different
part of his regularly prescribed official duties? ways and methods by learners and workers.
A. Work of the Government of the A. Pathways and Equivalencies
Philippines B. Philippine Qualifications Framework
B. Work of the Administration of the Philippines C. ASEAN MRA
C. Work of the Philippine Government D. National Standards for Quality Assurance
D. Work of the Republic of the Philippines
21. Which of the following is not under the Sec. 222. activities, to renew their licenses, while the
Points of Attachment for Performers. remaining 90 units can be obtained through
The provisions of this Act on the protection of self-directed learning.
performers shall apply to performers who
are not nationals of the Philippines but whose False 29.According to RA 8293, intellectual
performances are: property rights are granted indefinitely,
A. Take place in the Philippines without any limitations on their duration.
B. Are incorporated in sound recordings that False 30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows
are protected under this Act professionals to renew their licenses
C. Take place outside of the Philippines without completing any CPD units if they
D. Which has not been fixed in sound can demonstrate significant contributions to
recording but are carried by broadcast their field through published works or
qualifying for protection under this Act patents.
22. In Sec. 200. Sale or Lease of Work. - In every False 31. Under RA 8293, the protection of
sale or lease of an original work of painting or intellectual property rights extends to ideas
sculpture or of the original manuscript of a writer or and concepts themselves, regardless of
composer, subsequent to the first disposition thereof their expression in tangible form.
by the author, the author or his heirs shall have an
True 32. Failure to comply with CPD
inalienable right to participate in the gross proceeds
requirements may result in the non-renewal
of the sale or lease to the extent of how many
or suspension of a professional license
Percentages?
under the CPD Act of 2016.
A. Two percent (2%)
B. Five percent (5%) False 33. According to the CPD Act of 2016,
C. Ten percent (10%) professionals can obtain CPD units by
D. Twelve percent (12%) attending social events and networking
activities relevant to their field, even if they
23. During what day of the month should the CPDC are not officially accredited by the
for Architects be mandated to have meetings? Professional Regulation Commission
A. 3rd Saturday (PRC).
B. 2nd Wednesday
C. 2nd Tuesday
D. 3rd Wednesday --------------------------------------------------------------------

1. What is the purpose of CPD for registered and

TRUE OR FALSE
licensed professionals under the PRC?
True 24. According to RA 8293, patents protect
a. To increase government revenue.
inventions or discoveries, granting the
b. To ensure professionals keep learning and
patent holder exclusive rights to use and
improving their skills.
sell the invention for a limited period.
c. To create unnecessary bureaucratic hurdles.
True 25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the d. To restrict professional development.
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC) is responsible for accrediting CPD
providers and programs. 2. What are some activities or programs through
which professionals can earn CPD credits?
True 26.infringement is the unauthorized use of a. Only attending international conferences.
intellectual property. b. Only reading professional journals.
True 27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer c. Participating in programs initiated by the PRC
to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of and the PRB
articles, granting their creators exclusive d. Attending recreational events.
rights to reproduce and distribute them.
False 28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires
professionals to complete a minimum of
120 CPD units within a two-year cycle, with
at least 30 units earned from accredited
3. What penalties could professionals face for 9. What is the timeline for CPD credit requirements
fraudulent acts related to CPD? for renewing the Professional Identification Card
a. Warning letters only (PIC) from July to December 2017?
b. Suspension or revocation of professional a. No CPD credits required.
registration b. 30% of total CPD credits required.
c. Monetary fines c. 60% of total CPD credits required.
d. No penalties for fraudulent acts
d. 100% of total CPD credits required.

4. Which of the following are NOT included in the

CPD programs? 10. What is the primary role of government
a. Informal Learning agencies and private companies in relation to
b. Non-Formal Learning CPD?
c. Self-directed Learning
a. They have no role in CPD.
d. Interactive Learning
b. They should hinder professional development.
c. They should include CPD in their plans for
5. Who are the people that constitute the CPD developing their employees.
Council? d. They should discourage professionals from
a. Chairman, Secretary, and Members participating in CPD activities.
b. Chairman, First Member, and Second Member
c. Director, Chairman, and Member
d. Director, Chairman, and Secretary 11. What does the "Separability Clause" in Section
17 of R.A. 10912 mean?
6. This refers to learning that has been acquired in a. It ensures professionals separate their personal
addition or alternatively to formal learning, and professional lives.
educational and training arrangements a. Lifelong b. It allows for the removal of invalid parts of
Learning the CPD rules without affecting the rest.
b. Informal Learning c. It ensures professionals separate from their
c. Formal Learning employers.
d. Non-formal Learning d. It allows professionals to separate themselves
from CPD requirements.
7. How many credit units are creditable for Self-
learning and/or Lifelong Learning per compliance
period? 12. What is the purpose of the "Repealing Clause"
a. 45 in Section 18 of R.A. 10912?
b. 17.5 a. To repeal the CPD requirement altogether.
c. 10 b. To ensure old laws are not changed.
d. 25 c. To cancel or change old laws conflicting with
R.A. 10912.
d. To increase bureaucracy.
8. Can overseas architects also participate in any
CPD Program/Activities?
a. Yes but cannot be credited for applying credit 13. When do the rules (IRR) of R.A. 10912 start to
units. apply according to the "Effectivity" section?
b. Yes, through attending programs of a. Immediately upon approval by the CPD Council.
accredited CPD Providers. b. 30 days after publication in the Official Gazette.
c. No since they are not here in the Philippines. c. 15 days after being fully published in the
d. No since they cannot apply for credit units. Official Gazette or in a widely read newspaper
in the Philippines.
d. After one year of publication.
14. Refers to a non-degree post graduate training 19. 31. The PRBOA Resolution No. 4 Series of
program such as externship, residency and 2017 is the Operational Guidelines in the
fellowship in specialty and sub-specialty program/s Implementation of RA 10912 for Architects.
or diplomates conferred by an organization or a. True
society recognized by the pertinent government b. False
authority.
a. Specified Training 20. All architects are required to comply with certain
b. Specialization CPD credit units in a compliance period, how many
c. Specialty Training years is this compliance period?
d. Special Degree a. 5
b. 3
15. Refers to planned and systematic processes c. 2
that provide confidence in the design, delivery and d. 6
award of qualifications within an education and
training system, and is a component of quality 21. There is no age limit in complying with CPD
management that is focused on ensuring that credit units.
quality requirements will be fulfilled. a. True, as long as you are able you may comply.
b. True, as long as you want to renew your
a. Qualified Background license.
b. Prior Learning c. False, senior citizens are not qualified.
c. Lifelong Learning d. False, it is a personal decision to comply.
d. Quality Assurance
22. You cannot gain CPD credit units by travelling.
16. Refers to a person’s skills, knowledge and a. True
competencies that have been acquired through b. False
work experience, training, independent study,
volunteer activities and hobbies, that may be 23. Winning an International Award is equivalent to
applied for academic credit, as requirement of a a. Full CU for 10 compliance period
training program or for occupational certification. b. Full CU for 3 compliance period
a. Prior Learning c. Full CU for 5 compliance period
b. Lifelong Learning d. Full CU for 4 compliance period
c. Formal Learning
d. Specialty Training 24. It is hereby created at the PRC Central and
Regional Offices to provide technical, administrative,
17. Refer to structured or unstructured learning
and operational support to the CPD Councils and the
initiatives, which make use of the internet and other
PRBs in the implementation of the CPD Programs.
web-based Information and Communications
a. Secretariat
Technology solutions.
a. Online Learning Activities b. First Member
b. Online Learning c. Second Member
c. Digital Training d. Chairperson
d. Digital Learning Activities
25. Every CPD Council shall be composed of?
18. Refer to what a learner can be expected to a. Chairman and 3 Members
know, understand and/or demonstrate as a result of b. Chairperson and 2 members
a learning experience; LEARNING OUTCOMES c. Chairperson and Secretariat
a. Effective Experience d. President and Chairperson
b. Resulting Outcomes
c. Learning Outcomes
d. Learning Turnover
26. He/She shall exercise general supervision and 3. Which of the following accurately describes the
control over the staff of CPD Secretariat. authority of the Director General in
a. Chairperson seeking assistance, as outlined in Section 15?
b. The First Member A. The Director General has no authority to seek
c. Executive President assistance from external entities.
d. Executive Director B. The Director General can only seek
assistance from government departments.
C. The Director General has the authority to
27. The first and second members shall have a term
seek assistance from technical, scientific, or
of office of how many years?
other qualified officers and employees from
a. 1 year
various government entities when
b. 2 years necessary for matters related to the Act's
c. 3 years enforcement.
d. 4 years D. The Director General can seek assistance
only from privately owned corporations.
28. One of the function of the Secretariat is to release
the Certificate of Accreditation ("COA") of qualified 4. What restrictions are placed on officers and
CPD providers, the Certificate of Accreditation of employees of the Office regarding patents,
Program/s ("COAP"), and the Certificate of Credit utility models, industrial designs, and marks, as per
Units (CCU) for self-directed and/or lifelong learning. Section 19?
a. True A. They are authorized from applying or acting
b. False as an attorney or patent agent.
B. They are only allowed to apply for patents
during their employment.
1. What function is NOT mentioned among the C. They can acquire patents, utility models, or
functions of the Intellectual Property Office marks only through purchase.
according to Section 5? D. They are prohibited from acquiring
A. Granting patents patents, utility models, or marks during their
B. Implement human resource development employment and for one year after leaving
plans their position, except through
C. Managing technology transfer hereditary succession.
D. Encouraging the use of patent information
5. What constitutes prior art according to Section
24?
2. Which of the following statements accurately A. Only materials made available to the public
describes the retention and utilization of in the Philippines before the filing date or priority
funds by the Director General, based on the date of the application.
provided information? B. Everything made available to the public
A. The Director General requires approval from worldwide after the filing date or priority date of
government agencies to retain and utilize funds the application.
collected by the Office. C. Everything made available to the public
B. The retained funds can only be used for worldwide before the filing date or priority
personal expenses of the Director General. date of the application, including earlier
C. The Director General has the autonomy to applications filed in the Philippines.
use the retained funds for various office D. Only materials made available to the public
operations without separate approval. in the Philippines after the filing date or priority
D. The retained amount will be commingled with date of the application.
the Office's annual budget for operational
expenses.
6. Who holds the right to a patent according to 12. The permission granted under Subsection 187.1
Section 28? shall not extend to the reproduction of
A. Only the inventor. the following except?
B. The inventor, their heirs, or assigns. A. A compilation of data and other materials
C. Only the heirs of the inventor. B. A work of architecture in the form of building
D. The government. or other construction
C. An entire book, or a substantial part thereof,
7. What are the components required for a patent or of a musical work in graphic form
application according to Section 32? by reprographic means
A. The application must include a request, D.None of the above
description, and necessary drawings, but claims
and an abstract are optional. 13. Defined by Subsection 171.2 as a work which
B. The application must be in English only, and has been created by two (2) or more
it must include a description and necessary natural persons at the initiative and under the
drawings. direction of another with the understanding
C. The application must include a request, that it will be disclosed by the latter under his own
description, necessary drawings, one or name and that contributing natural
more claims, and an abstract, and it can be persons will not be identified.
in either Filipino or English. A. Collective work
D. The application must include a request and B. Collaborative work
an abstract, but description, drawings, and C. Partnership work
claims are optional. D. Joint work

8. What elements are required for the filing date of a 14. In Sec. 200. Sale or Lease of Work. - In every
patent application according to Section sale or lease of an original work of
40? painting or sculpture or of the original manuscript of
A. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant a writer or composer, subsequent to
identification, and a description with one or the first disposition thereof by the author, the author
more claims in Filipino only. or his heirs shall have an inalienable
B. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant right to participate in the gross proceeds of the sale
identification, and a description with one or or lease to the extent of how many
more claims in English only. percentage?
C. An indication of seeking a Philippine A. Two percent (2%)
patent, applicant identification, and a B. Five percent (5%)
description with one or more claims in either C. Ten percent (10%)
Filipino or English. D. Twelve percent (12%)
D. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant
identification, and a description with one or 19. What is defined as the natural person who has
more claims in any language. created the work?
A. Author
10. What is the term of a patent according to Section B. Writer
54? C. Creator
A. 10 years from the filing date of the D. Maker
application.
B. 15 years from the filing date of the
application.
C. 20 years from the priority date of the
application.
D. 20 years from the filing date of the
application.
21. What is required before a license can be granted
under Section 95? 25. What happens if a technology transfer
A. The petitioner must file a petition with the arrangement does not conform with the provisions of
Intellectual Property Office. Sections 87 and 88, according to Section 92?
B. The petitioner must obtain authorization from a. It remains enforceable regardless of non-
the patent owner on any terms. conformance.
C. The petitioner must make efforts to obtain b. It becomes automatically enforceable without
authorization from the patent owner on registration.
reasonable commercial terms but without any c. It becomes automatically unenforceable
time constraint. unless approved and registered with the
D. The petitioner must make efforts to obtain Documentation, Information and
authorization from the patent owner on Technology Transfer Bureau.
reasonable commercial terms within a d. It needs approval from the Director General
reasonable period of time, but if of the Intellectual Property Office to be
unsuccessful, a license may still be granted. enforceable.

22. What action can be taken in cases involving 26. What are the required elements that must be
highly technical issues according to Section 64? included in a petition for compulsory
a. The case will be automatically heard by a licensing, according to Section 98?
committee of three. a. Name and address of the petitioner only
b. The party filing the motion will decide on the b. Name and address of the petitioner,
committee's composition. respondents, and patentee
c. The Director of Legal Affairs may order a c. Name and address of the petitioner,
committee of three to hear and decide the respondents, and patentee, along with the
case. statutory grounds for compulsory licensing
d. The case will be referred to a regular court for d. Name and address of the petitioner,
resolution. respondents, and patentee, along with the
statutory grounds for compulsory licensing
23. Under what circumstances can damages be and the relief prayed for
recovered for acts of infringement according
to Section 80? 27. What types of assignments are permissible
a. Damages can be recovered regardless of the under Section 104?
infringer's knowledge of the patent. a. Assignment of the entire right, title, or interest
b. Damages can be recovered only if the only
infringer knew of the patent before b. Assignment of an undivided share only
committing the infringement. c. Both assignment of the entire right, title,
c. Damages can be recovered if the infringer or interest and assignment of an undivided
had reasonable grounds to know of the patent. share
d. Damages can be recovered if the infringer d. Assignment limited to a specified territory only
acknowledges the patent in their advertising.
29. What are the rights and limitations of joint owners
24. What action does the court take if it finds a patent of a patent according to Section 107?
or any claim to be invalid in an a. Joint owners can grant licenses without
infringement case according to Section 82? consent but must share proceeds equally.
a. The court may ignore the invalidity and b. Joint owners cannot make, use, or sell the
proceed with the infringement case. invention individually.
b. The court may suspend the case pending c. Joint owners can make, use, sell, or
further review of the patent's validity. import the invention individually but cannot
c. The court shall cancel the patent or claim grant licenses or assign their rights without
and notify the Director of Legal Affairs. consent.
d. The court may issue a warning to the patent d. Joint owners have equal rights to grant
holder. licenses without consent
 34. Which of the following statements regarding the
30. Under Section 115, when can two or more opposition of trademark is FALSE according to SEC
industrial designs be included in the same 134?
application? a. Any person who believes that he would be
a. When they are completely unrelated damaged by the registration of a mark may,
b. When they belong to different sub-classes of upon payment of the required fee and within
the International Classification. thirty (30) days
c. When they relate to different sets of articles. b. Opposition shall be in writing and verified by
d. When they relate to the same sub-class of the oppositor or by any person on his behalf
the International Classification or to the who knows the facts
same set or composition of articles. c. Copies of certificates of registration of marks
registered in other countries or other supporting
31. It means any visible sign designated as such in documents shall be filed along with its english
the application for registration and capable of translation if not in english.
distinguishing the origin or any other common d. The director of Legal Affairs may not
characteristic, including the quality of goods or extend the time for filing an opposition.
services of different enterprises which use the sign
under the control of the registered owner of the 35. A certificate of registration shall remain in for how
collective mark. many years?
a. Trade name a. 2 years
b. Trademark b. 5 years
c. Mark c. 8 years
d. Collective Mark d. 10 years

32. Under SEC 123, these are the reasons a mark 36. Which of the following statement regarding the
cannot be registered EXCEPT? Assignment and Transfer of Application and
a. Consists of immoral, deceptive or scandalous REgistration if FALSE under SEC 149?
matter, or matter. a. An application for registration of a mark, or its
b. Is identical with a registered mark belonging registration, may be assigned or transferred
to a different proprietor or a mark with an earlier with or without the transfer of the business using
filing or priority date. the mark
c. Is likely to mislead the public, particularly as b. Such assignment or transfer shall, however,
to the nature, quality, characteristics or be null and void if it is liable to mislead the
geographical origin of the goods or services. public, particularly as regards the nature,
d. None of the above. source, manufacturing process, characteristics,
or suitability for their purpose, of the goods or
33. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for services to which the mark is applied.
the application of a trademark registration according c. Assignments and transfers shall have no
to Section 124.1? effect against third parties until they are
a. A request for registration recorded at the Office.
b. The appointment of an agent or d. None of the above.
representative, if the applicant is not domiciled
in the Philippines 37. Which of the following statements regarding the
c. Declaration of actual use of the mark limitations to actions for infringement is
within three years from the filing date FALSE according to SEC 159?
d. Where the applicant claims color as a a. A registered mark shall have an effect
distinctive feature of the mark, a statement to against any person who, in good faith,
that effect before the filing date or the priority date, was
using the mark for the purposes of his
business or enterprise
b. Where an infringer who is engaged solely in
the business of printing the mark or other
 infringing materials for others is an innocent b. The court may impound sales invoices and
infringer, the owner of the right infringed shall be other documents evidencing sales during the
entitled as against such infringer only to an pendency of the action upon the complainant's
injunction against future printing. application.
c. Where the infringement complained of is c. In cases where there is shown actual intent to
contained in or is part of paid advertisement the mislead the public or defraud the complainant,
remedies of the owner of the right infringed as the damages may be doubled at the discretion
against the publisher or distributor of such of the court.
newspaper, magazine, or other similar d. The complainant may not be granted
periodical or electronic communication shall be injunction upon proper showing of
limited to an injunction against the presentation trademark infringement.
of such advertising matter in future issues
d. There shall be no infringement of trademarks 40. Which of the following actions would NOT be
or trade names of imported or sold drugs and considered as unfair competition according to
medicines allowed under Section 72.1 of this Section 168 of R.A. No. 166a?
Act, as well as imported or sold off-patent drugs a. Giving goods the general appearance of
and medicines goods of another manufacturer, likely to
influence purchasers to believe they are from a
38. Which of the following actions constitutes different source.
trademark infringement according to Section 155 of b. Employing means calculated to induce the
R.A. No. 166a? false belief that one is offering the services of
a. Using a reproduction, counterfeit, copy, or another who has already established such
colorable imitation of a registered mark services in the public's mind.
without consent in connection with the sale, c. Making false statements in the course of
offering for sale, distribution, or advertising trade that discredit the goods, business, or
of goods or services, likely to cause services of another.
confusion, mistake, or deception. d. Using a registered trademark without
b. Reproducing, counterfeiting, copying, or consent in connection with the sale, offering
colorably imitating a registered mark and for sale, distribution, or advertising of goods
applying it to labels, signs, prints, packages, or services, likely to cause confusion,
wrappers, receptacles, or advertisements mistake, or deception.
intended for use in commerce, causing
confusion, mistake, or deception.
c. Using a trademark that is similar to a
registered mark, but with consent from the
owner, for advertising purposes without causing
confusion, mistake, or deception.
d. Reproducing a registered mark for personal
use without intent to sell or advertise
goods or services, regardless of the likelihood
of confusion, mistake, or deception.

39. Which of the following statements regarding

actions, damages, and injunction for trademark
infringement is NOT true according to Section 156 of
R.A. No. 166a?
a. The owner of a registered mark may recover
damages based on either the reasonable profit
lost due to infringement, the profit gained by the
infringer, or a reasonable percentage of the
infringer's gross sales or the value of services in
connection with the infringement.
BLOCK 1 GROUP 5 7. Under Book I: Title VI, Future spouses may donate
up to _______ of their present property to each other
1. Under Book I: Title 1, It is referred to as the fitness in their marriage settlements.
to be the subject of legal relations. It is inherent in A. One-half
every natural person and is lost only through death. B. One-third
A. Capacity to Act C. One-fourth
B. Civil Personality D. One-fifth
C. Juridical Capacity
D. Juridical Person 8. It is referred to as the dwelling house where a
person and his family reside, and the land on which
2. What is considered the habitual residence of it is situated.
natural persons for the exercise of civil rights and the A. Family Home
fulfillment of civil obligations? B. Family House
A. Domicile C. Family Dwelling
B. Address D. Family Abode
C. Home
D. Lodging 9. If adultery is committed around conception and it’s
highly improbable the child is the husband’s due to
3. The following is considered as void marriages ethnic reasons, the child is presumed legitimate.
except: A. True
A. Those involving killing of a spouse B. False
B. Incestuous marriages
C. Those without proper authorization 10. According to Book I: Title XIV, Absence can be
D. Marriages contracted under age 13 for declared if _________ pass without news of the
males and females absentee, or five years if someone is managing their
property.
4. Public officials must respect freedom of religion A. Four years
and refrain from questioning the religious beliefs of B. Three years
applicants or their churches when issuing C. Two years
authorizations. D. One years
A. True
B. False 11. The Civil code of the Philippines is also known
as?
5. The petition for legal separation must be filed A. Republic act 386.
within _________ of becoming aware of the cause B. Republic act 368
and within five years of the cause occurring. The trial C. Republic act 863
cannot occur until six months after filing the petition. D. Republic act 638
A. Three months
B. One year 12. Which standard of evidence is sufficient to prove
C. Nine months the act complained of in a separate civil action
D. 2 years brought to demand civil liability arising from a
criminal offense when no criminal proceedings are
6. By default, the wife administers conjugal instituted during the pendency of the civil case?
property, unless otherwise stipulated in the A. Beyond a reasonable doubt
marriage settlement or specified by law B. Clear and convincing evidence
A. True C. Preponderance of evidence
B. False D. Absolute certainty
13. What legal presumption arises when someone 17. What obligation does the owner of a piece of land
is in actual possession of property under a claim of have regarding defensive works to check waters or
ownership, according to Article 433 of the Civil the reconstruction of such works due to a change in
Code of the Philippines? the course of the waters?
A. Conclusive presumption of ownership A. The owner must make the repairs or
B. Rebuttable presumption of ownership construction himself.
C. Disputable presumption of ownership B. The owner must permit others to make
D. Absolute presumption of ownership the repairs or construction at their
expense.
14. What does Article 437 of the Civil Code of the C. The owner is not obligated to take any
Philippines state regarding land ownership? action.
A. The owner of a parcel of land is only the D. The owner must sell the land to avoid the
owner of its surface. obligation
B. The owner of a parcel of land is the owner
of its surface and everything above it. 18. What conditions must be met for the owner of the
C. The owner of a parcel of land is the servient estate to request a change in the
owner of its surface and everything location or manner of an easement, according to
under it. Article 629 of the Civil Code?
D. The owner of a parcel of land is not allowed A. The owner of the servient estate must
to construct any works or make plantations demonstrate inconvenience or obstruction
and excavations on it. caused by the easement.
B. The owner of the dominant estate must
15. Which of the following statements is true initiate the request for change.
regarding a duly registered trademark or C. The owner of the servient estate must offer
tradename? an equally convenient alternative at their
A. It is owned by the government bureau or expense.
office where it is registered. D. Both a and c
B. It is owned by the person, corporation,
or firm registering the same. 19. According to art. 663 when the owner of a
C. It is owned jointly by all parties using the building supported by a party wall desires to
trademark or tradename. demolish the building, what option does he have
D. It is owned by the first person who uses it in regarding his part-ownership of the wall, and
commerce. what cost is he responsible for in this situation?
A. He may demolish the building without any
16. How is the time of possession computed in responsibility for the party wall.
order to acquire easements by prescription as B. He may demolish the building and retain his
stated in Article 621? part-ownership of the party wall.
A. In positive easements, from the day the C. He may demolish the building and
easement was granted by the owner of the renounce his part-ownership of the party
servient estate. wall, bearing the cost of all repairs and
B. In positive easements, from the day the work necessary to prevent any damage
owner of the servient estate began to caused to the party
exercise it. wall by the demolition.
C. In negative easements, from the day the D. He may only demolish the building with the
easement was granted by the owner of the consent of the other party wall owner.
servient estate.
D. In negative easements, from the day the
owner of the dominant estate forbade the
act to the owner of the servient estate by
an acknowledged instrument.
20. Under Article 677, what conditions must be 25. A type of succession that which results from the
complied with before constructions can be built designation of an heir, made in a will executed in the
or plantings made near fortified places or fortresses? form prescribed by law
A. Compliance with local zoning regulations A. Legitime
B. Approval from the local government B. Testamentary Succession
C. Compliance with special laws, C. Legal/ Intestate Succession
ordinances, and regulations relating to D. Testator
fortified places or Fortresses
D. Payment of a special tax or fee 26. It is a part of the testator's property which he
cannot dispose of because the law has reserved it
21. ___________ and other real rights over property for certain heirs who are, therefore, called
are acquired and transmitted by law, by donation, by compulsory heirs.
estate and intestate succession, and in A. Legitime
consequence of certain contracts, by tradition. They B. Testamentary Succession
may also be acquired by means of prescription. C. Legal/ Intestate Succession
A. Succession D. Testator
B. Ownership
C. Donation 27. It is a type of succession that is determined by
D. Will law in the absence of a valid will.
A. Legitime
22. It is a mode of acquisition by virtue in which the B. Testamentary Succession
property, rights, and obligations to the extent of the C. Legal/ Intestate Succession
value of the inheritance of a person are transmitted D. Testator
through his death to another or others either by his
will or by operation of law. 28. "Decedent" is the general term applied to the
A. Succession person whose property is transmitted through
B. Will succession, whether or not he left a will. If he left a
C. Occupation will, he is also called the ________.
D. Donation A. Legitime
B. Testamentary Succession
23. It is an act whereby a person is permitted, with C. Legal/ Intestate Succession
the formalities prescribed by law, to control to a D. Testator
certain degree the disposition of this estate, to take
effect after his death. 29. What is the type of relationship that is constituted
A. Succession by the series of degrees among ascendants and
B. Will descendants?
C. Occupation A. Generation
D. Donation B. Heir
C. Direct
24. It is an act of liberality whereby a person D. Collateral
disposes gratuitously of a thing or right in favor of
another, who accepts it. 30. What is the type of relationship that is constituted
A. Succession by the series of degrees among persons who are not
B. Will ascendants and descendants, but who come from a
C. Occupation common ancestor?
D. Donation A. Generation
B. Heir
C. Direct
D. Collateral
31. A type of contract created by the court when no 37. __________is a juridical necessity to give, to do,
such official contract exists between the or not to do.
parties and there is a dispute between them. A. Contract
A. Quasi-Delicts B. Prestation
B. Quasi-Contracts C. Obligation
C. Antichresis D. Credit
D. Negotium Gestio
38. It is the alternative dispute resolution mechanism
32. A payment in money or in services in which parties agree to submit their legal disputes
A. Obligation to an arbitrator or panel of arbitrators instead of
B. Usurious Transactions going to court.
C. Prestation A. Arbitration
D. Consignation B. Guaranty
C. Compromise
33. In legal terms, means a contractual provision that D. Insurance
stipulates a specific penalty or consequence in case
of a breach of contract. 39. By the contract of loan, one of the parties delivers
A. Penal Clause to another, either something not consumable so that
B. Liquidated damages the latter may use the same for a certain time and
C. Payment by Cession return it, in which case the contract is called a
D. Condonation _________________?
A. Loan
34. Involves an exchange of promises or B. Lease
performances between parties typically involving an C. Commodatum
exchange of goods, services, or payments. D. Deposit
A. Onerous Contracts
B. Remuneratory Contracts 40. It is a type of security interest where a debtor (the
C. Contracts of Pure Beneficence pledgor) offers an asset or property as collateral to
D. Rescissible Contracts secure a debt or obligation owed to a creditor (the
pledgee).
35. These obligations are not founded on positive A. Pledge
law but on principles of fairness and natural justice. B. Mortgage
While they do not grant a right to enforce their C. Chattel Mortgage
performance through legal action, if the obligor D. Antichresis
voluntarily fulfills them, the recipient is authorized to
retain what has been delivered or rendered.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Unenforceable Contracts
C. Void and Inexistent Contracts
D. Natural Obligations

36. It is a legal principle that prevents a person from

asserting a claim or right that contradicts what they
have previously stated or agreed upon, especially if
others have relied on their previous words or actions.
A. Trusts
B. Estoppel
C. Beneficiary
D. Lease
BLOCK 2 Quiz 1
8. What assistance shall law enforcement agencies
1. How many full-time Commissioners are there in render concerning the regulatory law of a
the Professional Regulation Commission? profession?
A. One A. Administrative support
B. Two B. Financial assistance
C. Three C. Legal assistance
D. Four D. Enforcement assistance

2. What is the penalty for accessories involved in the 9. For how long is the Commission authorized to use
manipulation of professional examinations? its income for the computerization program?
A. Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one A. 3 years
day to 4 years B. 10 years
B. Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00 C. 5 years
C. Removal from office D. 12 years
D. Both A and B
10. What is the primary purpose of the licensure
3. When do the rules and regulations, Code of examinations for architects?
Ethical Conduct, and Standards of Professional A. To ensure that architects adhere to global
Practice become effective? standards of practice.
A. Immediately upon publication B. To foster professional growth and
B. After 60 days development.
C. After 13 days C. To recognize the importance of
D. After 15 days architects in nation building.
D. To nurture competent and virtuous
4. How many regional offices does the Professional architects.
Regulation Commission have in the Philippines?
A. 6 11. How much is the Commission authorized to use
B. 10 its income for the computerization program
C. 16 annually?
D. 20 A. P50,000,000.00
B. P40,000,000.00
5. Who is responsible for verifying the registration C. P45,000,000.00
status of architects before featuring them in D. P30,000,000.00
publications or broadcasts?
A. The architects themselves 12. Which clause ensures that the guidelines
B. The readers or viewers remain valid even if certain parts are deemed
C. Authors and media personalities unconstitutional or invalid?
D. The government regulatory board A. Effectivity Clause
B. Separability Clause
6.Which laws are repealed by the enactment of the C. Repealing Clause
Modernization Act? D. Compliance Clause
A. Republic Act No. 546 only
B. Presidential Decree No. 223 only 13. They are the architect directly responsible for
C. Republic Act No. 7836 only the total design of a project and liable for plans and
D. Republic Act No. 546, Presidential specifications.
Decree No. 223, Republic Act No. 5181, A. Architecture-in-charge of construction
and others. B. Architect-of-record
C. Consulting Architect
7. Which clause ensures that the guidelines remain D. Site Architect
valid even if certain parts are deemed
unconstitutional or invalid?
A. Effectivity Clause
B. Separability Clause
C. Repealing Clause
D. Compliance Clause
14. The following are the subjects for the 20. This encompasses planning, design,
examination. Which of the following is not? supervision, and administration related to building
A. History and Theory of Architecture; construction. Architects coordinate processes,
Principles of Planning and Architectural engage in consultations, and prepare detailed
Practice specifications. This practice applies globally,
B. Urban Design and Architectural Interiors regardless of residency, and architects may lead
C. Architectural Design and Site Planning projects individually or within organizations.
D. Visual Techniques A. General Agreement in Architecture
B. General Practice of Architecture
15. What happens to the remainder of the C. General Provision of Architecture
Modernization Act if any provision is declared invalid D. General Agreement of Architects
or unconstitutional?
A. The entire Modernization Act is invalidated. 21. The following act/s is/are prohibited in the
B. The remainder of the Modernization Act practice of architecture.
is not affected by the declaration. A. Offering architectural services without being
C. The Modernization Act is repealed. registered/licensed, or does not hold a
D. New provisions are added to the temporary/special permit
Modernization Act. B. Using a forged/fake Certificate of
Registration or PRC ID
16. What is the penalty for accessories involved in C. Impersonating a registered and licensed
the manipulation of professional examinations? Architect using his/her name or a different
A. Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one name
day to 4 years D. All of the above
B. Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00
C. Removal from office 22. What should a foreign national (allowed to
D. Both a and b engage in the practice of architecture in the
Philippines) get in order to avoid and protect
17. To be qualified as having passed the licensure themself against accusations of negligence?
examination for architects, a candidate must obtain A. Professional Liability Insurance
a weighted general average of ____%, with no grade B. Malpractice Insurance
lower than ____% in any given subject. C. Philhealth ID
A. 60%, 75% D. Both A & B
B. 70%, 50%
C. 75%, 60% 23.All successful candidates in the examination shall
D. none of the above be required to take an_____ of profession before
any member of the Board, any government official
18. The Board shall submit to the Commission the authorized by the Commission or any person
ratings obtained by each candidate within ____ authorized by law to administer this, prior to entering
calendar days after the examination, unless upon the practice of the profession.
extended for just cause. A. Issuance of Certificates of Registration
A. 30 B. Professional Identification Card
B. 15 C. Seal
C. 31 D. Oath
D. 28
24. What is the primary duty of the Commission and
19. What penalty may be imposed on a person who the Board concerning the enforcement of this Act?
manipulates licensure examination results? A. To provide legal advice.
A. Imprisonment of 3 years B. To render assistance to law enforcement
B. Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to agencies.
12 years C. To prosecute violators.
C. Fine of P10,000.00 D. To declare unconstitutional clauses.
D. Both a and c
25. What discrepancy did PRC BOA Resolution No.
01 (S. 2000) acknowledge regarding the
implementation of the requirement for diversified
experience?
A. Lack of mentor information
B. Absence of training period details
C. Insufficient hours rendered documentation
D. All of the above

True or False

False 26. The licensure exam does not need to

be related to the syllabus of CHED.
False 27. There are 46 professions that have a
PRBo.
True 28. You can file a case to the PRC
regarding licenses.
True 29. PRC has the right to keep a database
on those who took and will take license
exams.
True 30. PRBo can inquire for help from other
institutions regarding filled cases related to
the license.
False 31. The law is called the PCR
Modernization Act Dec 50 2000.
False 32. If one part of the law is not related to
the case the case is still valid.
False 33. The PRBo alone can suspend
licenses.
BLOCK 2 Quiz 2 D. Protection of Undisclosed Information

1. Refers to learning activities such as online 4. Which Bureau hear and decide opposition to the
training, local/international seminars/non degree application for registration of marks; cancellation of
courses, institution/company-sponsored training trademarks; subject to the provisions of Section 64,
programs, and the like, which did not undergo CPD cancellation of patents, utility models, and industrial
accreditation but maybe applied for and awarded designs; and petitions for compulsory licensing of
CPD units by the respective CPD Council. patents;
A. Formal learning; A. The Bureau of Patents;
B. Non Formal learning; B. The Bureau of Trademarks;
C. Informal learning; C. The Bureau of Legal Affairs;
D. Self-directed learning; D. The Documentation, Information and
Technology Transfer Bureau;
2. The members of the Commission as well as the
chairperson, vice chairperson and members of the 5. Refers to the formal or official approval granted to
PRBS: a person, a program or an organization, upon
A. are disqualified as an Individual CPD meeting essential requirements of achievement
provider, or as an incorporator, partner or standards, including qualifications or unit(s) of a
officer of a Firm Partnership / Corporation qualification, usually for a particular period of time,
offering CPD programs during their as defined by an accrediting agency.
incumbency. This prohibition extends to A. Accreditation
members of their families and relatives B. Continuing Professional Development or
within the fourth degree of consanguinity or CPD
affinity. Further, this disqualification extends C. Competence
until three years from their separation from D. Certificate of Credit Units (“CCU”)
the
B. are qualified as an Individual CPD provider, 6. Under Section 7.3. “Term of Office”, The Director
or as an incorporator, partner or officer of a General and the Deputies Director General shall
Firm Partnership / Corporation offering CPD be appointed by the President for a term of five (5)
programs during their incumbency. years and shall be eligible for reappointment only
C. are disqualified as an Individual CPD once: Provided, That the first Director General shall
provider, or as an incorporator, partner have a first term of how many years?
or officer of a Firm Partnership / A. Five
Corporation offering CPD programs B. Six
during their incumbency. This C. Seven
prohibition extends to members of their D. Eight
families and relatives within the fourth
degreAe of consanguinity or affinity. 7. According to Section 7. CPD Council. The
Further, this disqualification extends chairperson of the CPD Council shall be the member
until one year from their separation from of the PRB so chosen by the PRB concerned to sit
the service. in the CPD Council and the following functions:
D. are disqualified as an Individual CPD A. The second member shall be the president
provider, or as an incorporator, partner or or officer of the AIPO/APO duly authorized
officer of a Firm Partnership / Corporation by its Board of Governors/Trustees. In the
offering CPD programs during their absence of the AIPO/APO, the PRB
incumbency. This prohibition does not concerned shall submit within ten working
extends to members of their families and days from notification of such absence, a list
relatives within the fourth degree of of three recommendees from the national
consanguinity or affinity. professional organizations. The PRC shall
designate the first member within thirty days
3. The term "intellectual property rights" consists of from receipt of the list.
the following, except; B. The first member shall be the president or
A. Patents officer of the national organization of deans
B. Graphic Design or department chairpersons of schools,
C. Layout-Designs (Topographies) of colleges or universities offering the course
Integrated Circuits requiring the licensure examination. In the
 absence of such organization, the PRB 11. Refers to a status gained after a person has
concerned shall submit, within ten working been assessed to have achieved learning
days from notification of such absence, a list outcomes or competencies in accordance with the
of three recommendees from the academe. standard specified for a qualification title and is
The PRC shall designate the second proven by a document issued by a recognized
member within twenty working days from agency or body.
receipt of the list. A. Professional
C. The CPD Council member sitting as B. Qualification
representative of the APO/AIPO or the C. Quality
academe can participate in the deliberation D. Prior Learning
where the application of the APO/AIPO or
the academe as CPD provider or any of its 12. The implementing rules and regulation (IRR)
CPD program is under evaluation. shall be published by the PRC and the PRBs, in
D. The CPD Council shall hold regular consultation with
meetings once a month on dates to be A. PRCBOA
fixed by them. Special meetings may be B. AIPO/APO
called by the CPD Council Chairperson C. CPD Council
or upon written request of a member of a D. Board Members
CPD Council at least three days prior to
the said meeting 13. Who owns the right to a patent if an invention is
jointly made by two or more persons?
8. In which situation is the importation of a copy of a A. Only the first person who filed the
work permitted without the authorization of the application
copyright owner? B. Each person individually
A. For personal use if copies are C. The person with the most significant
unavailable in the Philippines contribution
B. For educational institutions regardless of D. All of the above
availability
C. For commercial resale purposes 14. What is the renewal period for certificates of
D. For distribution to libraries only registration?
A. Five years
9. A national system for developing, recognizing, B. Ten years
and awarding qualifications based on standards C. Fifteen years
acquired through different methods. D. Twenty years
A. Philippine Qualifications Framework
(PQF) 15. What action can the court take in case of
B. Continuing Professional Development infringement?
(CPD) A. Issue a warning
C. ASEAN Mutual Recognition Arrangement B. Impose a fine
(ASEANMRA) C. Grant an injunction
D. ASEAN Qualifications Reference D. None of the above
Framework (AQRF)
16. This Section is about the Act repealing or
10. What does the term "Bureau" refer to in the modifying all laws, decrees, executive orders, and
context of patent matters? other administrative issuances, or portions of them,
A. The Director of Patents that conflict with its requirements.
B. The Patent examiner A. Effectivity
C. The Bureau of Patents B. Separability
D. The Director General C. Repealing
D. Fraud Relating to CPD

17. Under the CPD Provider Completion Report

(Section 5), the submission of the Completion
Report shall be attached in what Annex?
A. Annex A
B. Annex B
 C. Annex C TRUE OR FALSE
D. Annex K
True 24. According to RA 8293, patents protect
18. According to Section 61.1 of RA 8293, who can inventions or discoveries, granting the
file a petition to cancel a patent in the Philippines? patent holder exclusive rights to use and
A. The Director of Legal Affairs of the IPO sell the invention for a limited period.
B. Anyone with an interest in the patent
C. Only the true inventor True 25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the
D. Anyone Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC) is responsible for accrediting CPD
19. What is NOT a ground for canceling a patent providers and programs.
according to Section 61.1 of RA 8293?
A. The invention is already known to the public True 26.infringement is the unauthorized use of
B. The patent description is unclear intellectual property.
C. The invention is useful
D. The invention violates public order or True 27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer
morality to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of
articles, granting their creators exclusive
20. Sustainable Structures, Disaster Resilience, rights to reproduce and distribute them.
Green Architecture, and Renewable Energy are
CPD programs that falls under what category? False 28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires
A. Design professionals to complete a minimum of
B. Practice 120 CPD units within a two-year cycle, with
C. Environment and Sustainability at least 30 units earned from accredited
D. Others activities, to renew their licenses, while the
remaining 90 units can be obtained through
21. Which chapter of the Intellectual Property Code self-directed learning.
of the Philippines deals with compulsory licensing?
A. Chapter X False 29.According to RA 8293, intellectual
B. Chapter XI property rights are granted indefinitely,
C. Chapter XII without any limitations on their duration.
D. Chapter XIII
False 30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows
22. Based on the section on trademarks, service professionals to renew their licenses
marks, and trade names, what is the consequence without completing any CPD units if they
of not filing a declaration of actual use within three can demonstrate significant contributions to
years of a trademark application? their field through published works or
A. The mark will be automatically assigned to a patents.
competitor.
B. The applicant will need to pay a higher False 31. Under RA 8293, the protection of
registration fee. intellectual property rights extends to ideas
C. The application will be converted into a and concepts themselves, regardless of
utility model application. their expression in tangible form.false
D. The registration will be cancelled.
True 32. Failure to comply with CPD
23. Which date is NOT included for the Renewal of requirements may result in the non-renewal
PIC in the transitory period? or suspension of a professional license
A. July – December 2016 under the CPD Act of 2016.
B. January – June 2017
C. January – December 2018 False 33. According to the CPD Act of 2016,
D. January 2019 – onwards professionals can obtain CPD units by
attending social events and networking
activities relevant to their field, even if they
are not officially accredited by the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC).
 C) Minimal effort
BLOCK 2 Group 5 D) No standard is specified

. According to the provided explanation, what does 7. How does the Civil Code address contractual
Republic Act No. 386, known as the obligations in professional relationships?
"Civil Code of the Philippines," regulate? A) By providing exemptions for professionals
A) Criminal matters B) By emphasizing flexibility in contracts
B) Civil relations, rights, and obligations C) By requiring professionals to fulfill their
C) Political activities contractual duties
D) Economic policies D) By prohibiting contracts in professional
settings
2. In the context of professional practice, what is
emphasized by Article 19 of the Civil 8. What role do professionals often play in dispute
Code? resolution, according to the Civil Code?
A) The importance of confidentiality A) They are prohibited from involvement in
B) The need for continuous professional disputes.
development B) They facilitate negotiations between
C) The obligation to act with justice and parties.
honesty C) They have no influence on the resolution
D) The necessity of seeking legal advice process.
D) They act as judges in legal proceedings.
3. What does Article 20 of the Civil Code state
regarding individuals who cause harm to 9. What penalty may professionals face for acting
others? unethically, as per the Civil Code?
A)They must indemnify the affected party if A) No penalty is specified
the harm was caused B) Monetary fines only
negligently or willfully. C) Exemplary damages
B) They are not held accountable if the harm D) Suspension of professional license
was unintentional.
C) They are automatically exempt from any 10. What is the purpose of Article 386 of the Civil
liability. Code, as explained in the introduction?
D) They can only be held liable if the harm A) To establish criminal penalties
resulted from intentional actions. B) To regulate political activities
C) To provide a legal framework for civil
4. According to Article 21 of the Civil Code, what matters
should professionals consider when D) To govern economic policies
conducting their work?
A) Personal interests 11. Article 19 marks the beginning of a chapter in the
B) Legal regulations only Civil Code entitled?
C) Morals, good customs, and public policy A) Human Relation
D) Professional reputation only B) Human Relations
C) Humans Relation
5. What is the significance of ethical obligations in D) Humans Relations
professional practice, as outlined by the
Civil Code? 12. Architects have a role to play in addressing
A) They are not relevant to professional social and environmental issues through
conduct. their work.
B) They only apply to certain professions. A) Honesty and Good Faith
C) They limit professional autonomy. B) Equitable Design
D) They ensure accountability and C) Social Responsibility
trustworthiness D) Professionalism and Ethics

6. Under the Civil Code, what standard of care is 13. Architects must accurately present their
expected from professionals? qualifications and capabilities, providing truthful
A) Exceptional skill and care and transparent information to clients and
B) Average skill and care stakeholders.
 A) Honesty and Good Faith C) Article 1174
B) Equitable Design D) Article 20
C) Social Responsibility
D) Professionalism and Ethics
20. What Article does this belong: Every obligation
14. Architects must act ethically in their interactions whose performance does not depend
with clients, colleagues, and the public, upon a future or uncertain event, or upon a past
and they should prioritize the interests of their event unknown to the parties, is
clients. demandable at once?
A) Honesty and Good Faith A) Article 21
B) Equitable Design B) Article 1173
C) Social Responsibility C) Article 1174
D) Professionalism and Ethics D) None of the Above

15. Architects have a responsibility to design spaces 21. According to Article 1159, what force do
that are just and fair for all users. This obligations arising from contracts have?
includes considering accessibility for people with A) Moral force
disabilities B) Legal force
A) Honesty and Good Faith C) Voluntary force
B) Equitable Design D) Ethical force
C) Social Responsibility
D) Professionalism and Ethics 22. How is an obligation defined in contrast to a
contract?
16. What Article states this: "The creditor has a right A) By meeting of the minds
to the fruits of the thing from the time B) By judicial necessity
the obligation to deliver it arises. However, he shall C) By moral obligations
acquire no real right over it until the D) By contractual duties
same has been delivered to him."?
A) Article 1167 23. What conditions make an obligation binding
B) Article 1160 according to the article?
C) Article 1164 A) Violation of law only
D) Article 1172 B) Violation of morality only
C) Violation of law, morality, or public policy
17. What is the legal situation that arises when D) Violation of tradition only
someone does something for the benefit of
another person without a formal agreement in place? 24. What actions make someone liable for damages
A) Casual Contract according to Article 1170?
B) Adhesion Contract A) Fraud, negligence, or delay
C) Quasi-contract B) Honesty, diligence, and timeliness
D) Unilateral Contract C) Good faith and compliance
D) Contractual disputes only
18. TRUE OR FALSE: "Those who in the
performance of their obligations are guilty of fraud, 25. How is fraud defined in Article 1170?
negligence, or delay, and those who in any manner A) Honest representation
contravene the tenor thereof, are not B) Deceptive representation
liable for damages." C) Concealing information
A) TRUE D) Misleading allegations
B) FALSE
C) SOMETIMES TRUE 26. What behavior constitutes negligence according
D) SOMETIMES FALSE to the article?
A) Behaving prudently
19. It imposes a legal obligation on individuals to B) Exercising due diligence
compensate others for any harm or C) Safeguarding others from harm
damage they cause through their actions. D) Falling below legal standards for
A) Article 1168 safeguarding others
B) Article 19
27. In Article 1173, what does the fault or negligence
of the obligor consist of?
A) Acting in good faith 34. What does Article 2176 demand regarding
B) Exceeding the duty's requirements responsibility for acts or omissions?
C) Omitting required diligence A) It demands payment for damages caused by
D) Following contractual obligations unforeseen events
B) It demands payment only for one's own acts
28. When does the standard of care become that of or omissions
a "good father of a family" according to C) It demands payment for acts or omissions
Article 1173? of persons for whom one is responsible
A) When specified by law D) It absolves individuals from responsibility for
B) When not specified by law or contract any acts or omissions
C) When specified by the contract
D) When specified by the parties involved
35. Who is responsible for events that were foreseen
29. What determines the level of diligence required but inevitable?
in performing an obligation according to A) Only the person directly involved
Article 1173? B) Only the person responsible for the obligation
A) The nature of the duty C) Both the person directly involved and the
B) The time and place person responsible for the obligation
C) The people involved D) None of the above
D) All of the above
36. What does Article 1174 specify about the
30. According to the article, what standard should responsibility for unforeseeable events?
the level of care correspond to? A) It imposes strict liability
A) That of a reasonable person B) It absolves individuals from any
B) That of a prudent individual responsibility
C) That of a professional C) It requires assumption of risk
D) That of a contractual agreement D) It requires payment for damage done

31. In what cases can a person be held responsible 37. Who is demandable for the obligation imposed
for events that could not be foreseen? by Article 2176 according to Article 1174?
A) Only when expressly specified by the law A) Only the person directly involved
B) Only when declared by stipulation B) Only the person responsible for the obligation
C) Both when expressly specified by the law C) Both the person directly involved and the
and when declared by stipulation person responsible for the obligation
D) None of the above D) None of the above

32. What is the condition under which a person is 38. What is the significance of "nature of the
obliged to pay for damage done? obligation requires the assumption of risk"?
A) When the damage could have been foreseen A) It extends liability to unforeseeable
B) When the damage was inevitable events
C) When there is fault or negligence involved B) It limits liability to foreseeable events
D) When the nature of the obligation C) It clarifies the type of obligation being
necessitates payment discussed
D) It absolves parties from responsibility
33. According to Article 1174, who is exempted from
responsibility for unforeseen events? 39. What is necessary for a person to be responsible
A) Anyone acting under a contractual obligation for damage caused by fault or
B) Anyone acting under a legal obligation negligence?
C) No person is exempted A) The damage must be inevitable
D) Persons who have declared their B) The damage must be unforeseeable
assumption of risk C) There must be fault or negligence
involved
D) None of the above
40. How does Article 1174 define the responsibility
for damage caused by acts or
omissions?
A) It imposes strict liability regardless of fault
B) It requires proof of intent to cause harm
C) It obliges payment for the damage done
D) It absolves individuals from any liability
 7. Which clause ensures that the guidelines remain
BLOCK 3 Quiz 1 valid even if certain parts are deemed
unconstitutional or invalid?
1. A post-baccalaureate, pre-licensure experience of A. Effectivity Clause
2 years required of a graduate of architecture prior B. Separability Clause
to taking the licensure examination, consisting of a C. Repealing Clause
variation of experiences in the different phases of D. Compliance Clause
architectural service.
A. Architectural Experience 8. What assistance shall law enforcement agencies
B. Architectural Specialization render concerning the regulatory law of a
C. Diversified Architectural Experience profession?
D. Diversified Architectural Specialization A. Administrative support
B. Financial assistance
2. What is the penalty for accessories involved in the C. Legal assistance
manipulation of professional examinations? D. Enforcement assistance
A. Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one
day to 4 years 9. For how long is the Commission authorized to use
B. Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00 its income for the computerization program?
C. Removal from office A. 3 years
D. Both a and b B. 10 years
C. 5 years
3. When do the rules and regulations, Code of D. 12 years
Ethical Conduct, and Standards of Professional
Practice become effective? 10. What is the primary purpose of the licensure
A. Immediately upon publication examinations for architects?
B. After 60 days A. To ensure that architects adhere to global
C. After 13 days standards of practice.
D. After 15 days B. To foster professional growth and
development.
4. How many regional offices does the Professional C. To recognize the importance of
Regulation Commission have in the Philippines? architects in nation building.
A. 6 D. To nurture competent and virtuous
B. 10 architects.
C. 16
D. 20 11. How much is the Commission authorized to use
its income for the computerization program
5. Who is responsible for verifying the registration annually?
status of architects before featuring them in A. P50,000,000.00
publications or broadcasts? B. P40,000,000.00
A. The architects themselves C. P45,000,000.00
B. The readers or viewers D. P30,000,000.00
C. Authors and media personalities
D. The government regulatory board 12. SPLBE stands for:
A. Special Professional Licensure Board
6.Which laws are repealed by the enactment of the Examinations
Modernization Act? B. Senior Practice Licensure Board
A. Republic Act No. 546 only Examinations
B. Presidential Decree No. 223 only C. Specific Partnership Licensure Board
C. Republic Act No. 7836 only Examinations
D. Republic Act No. 546, Presidential D. Selective Performance Licensure Board
Decree No. 223, Republic Act No. 5181, Examinations
and others.
13. It pertains to the existing official national 19. FOP stands for:
organization of all architects of the Philippines in A. Final on Practice
which all registered Filipino architects shall be B. Finance on Permits
members without prejudice to membership in other C. Formality of Performance
voluntary professional associations; D. Field of Practice
A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Securities of Exchange 20. The following are qualifications of being a
C. Commission member of the Professional Regulatory Board
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional except one.
Organization of Architects A. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines.
B. Be a holder of a degree in Bachelor of
14. Which of the following entities is required to Science in Architecture conferred by a
renew their registration every three (3) years? school, college or university in the
A. Individual architects only Philippines or abroad that is recognized
B. Architectural partnerships only and/or accredited by the Commission on
C. Architectural firms, companies, Higher Education (CHED).
partnerships, corporations, or C. Has never been convicted of any crime
associations involving moral turpitude.
D. Non-registered and non-licensed persons D. Be at least 24 years of age.
involved in architectural practice
21.In case of a vacancy in the PRBoA, how are
15. What happens to the remainder of the replacements appointed?
Modernization Act if any provision is declared invalid A. By the President of the Philippines
or unconstitutional? B. By the IAPOA through an election
A. The entire Modernization Act is invalidated. C. By the PRC Chairman
B. The remainder of the Modernization Act D. By the Secretary of the DPWH
is not affected by the declaration.
C. The Modernization Act is repealed. 22. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what
D. New provisions are added to the action must a non-registered architectural firm or
Modernization Act. entity take upon receipt of a written notice of non-
registration from the Board?
16. What action can the Board take against A. Continue operating without changes.
architectural firms or entities found violating B. Immediately apply for registration
the rules and regulations? C. File an appeal with the Board.
A. Issue a warning letter. D. Cease engagement in the practice of
B. Offer a grace period for compliance. architecture.
C. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of
Registration 23.All successful candidates in the examination shall
D. Impose a fine without further consequences. be required to take an_____ of profession before
any member of the Board, any government official
17. What permit is required for foreign architects to authorized by the Commission or any person
be allowed to engage in professional architecture authorized by law to administer this, prior to entering
projects in the Philippines? upon the practice of the profession.
A. Special/Temporary Permit A. Issuance of Certificates of Registration
B. Sanitary Permit B. Professional Identification Card
C. Safety Permit C. Seal
D. Sales Tax Permit D. Oath

18. What is the acronym of CPD in Section 28 Article 24. What is the primary duty of the Commission and
IV? the Board concerning the enforcement of this Act?
A. Continuing Professional Development A. To provide legal advice.
B. Certificate in Professional Development B. To render assistance to law enforcement
C. Community Planning & Development agencies.
D. Campus Planning Design C. To prosecute violators.
D. To declare unconstitutional clauses.
25. What discrepancy did PRC BOA Resolution No.
01 (S. 2000) acknowledge regarding the
implementation of the requirement for diversified
experience?
A. Lack of mentor information
B. Absence of training period details
C. Insufficient hours rendered documentation
D. All of the above

True or False

False 26. The licensure exam does not need to

be related to the syllabus of CHED.
False 27. There are 46 professions that have a
PRBo.
True 28. You can file a case to the PRC
regarding licenses.
True 29. PRC has the right to keep a database
on those who took and will take license
exams.
True 30. PRBo can inquire for help from other
institutions regarding filled cases related to
the license.
False 31. The law is called the PCR
Modernization Act Dec 50 2000.
False 32. If one part of the law is not related to
the case the case is still valid.
False 33. The PRBo alone can suspend
licenses.
BLOCK 3 Quiz 2 6. The Director General shall exercise the following
powers and functions EXCEPT:
1. What types of cases does the Bureau of Legal A. Manage and direct all functions and
Affairs hear and decide on? activities of the Office, including the
A. Only trademark registration promulgation of rules and regulations to
B. Only patent cancellations implement the objectives, policies, plans,
C. Opposition to trademark registration, programs and projects of the Office.
cancellation of trademarks, and more B. Coordination with other agencies of
D. Only utility model applications government in relation to the
2. This is an act mandating and strengthening the enforcement of intellectual property
continuing professional development program for all rights.
regulated professions, creating the continuing C. Establish policies and standards for the
professional development council, appropriating effective, efficient, and economical
funds therefore, and for other related purposes. operations of the department in accordance
A. Republic Act No. 11902 with government programs.
B. Republic Act No. 10912 D. Prioritizing the establishment of fees for the
C. Republic Act No. 1032 filing and processing of an application for a
D. Republic Act No. 1203 patent, utility model or industrial design or

3. What functions shall the Patent and Trademark 7. Refers to the card bearing the registration
Administration Services perform among others? number, dates of issuance and expiry, duly signed
A. Maintain registers of assignments, merging, by the Chairperson of the Commission issued to a
licenses, and bibliographic on patents and registered professional upon payment of fees.
trademarks A. Professional Regulatory Card
B. Collect maintenance fees, issue certified B. Professional Identification Card
copies of documents in its custody and C. Identification Card
perform similar other activities D. Certificate of Registration Card
C. Hold in custody all the applications filed with
the office, and all patent grants, certificate of 8. One of the following QUALIFICATION is that the
registrations issued by the office, and the Director General and the Deputies Director General
like must be natural born citizens of the Philippines, and
D. All of the above at least of the age of?
A. 45 years of age
4. The quality assured national system for the B. 35 years of age
development, recognition, and award of C. 55 years of age
qualifications at defined levels, based on standards D. 25 years of age
of knowledge, skills, and values, acquired in different
ways and methods by learners and workers. 9. Under the Republic Act 8293 The Intellectual
A. Pathways and Equivalencies Property Code, what Section contains The Bureau
B. Quality Assurance of Patents?
C. Qualification A. Section 9
D. Philippine Qualification Framework B. Section 7
C. Section 5
5. All matters required to be published under this Act D. Section 8
shall be published in the Office's own publication to
be known as the ______. 10. On the Administrative level; Which aspect of
A. Watermark infrastructure is focused on through the procurement
B. Logo of the Office of facilities/equipment and allocation of working
C. Seal of Office space?
D. The IPO Gazette A. Upgrading of Physical Infrastructure
B. Enhancement of IT infrastructure
C. Improvement of human infrastructure
D. Communication drive
11. The first Director General shall have a first term 16. Refers to contracts or agreements involving the
of ________ years. Appointment to any vacancy transfer of systematic knowledge for the
shall be only for the unexpired term of the manufacture of a product, the application of a
predecessor. process, or rendering of a service including
A. Eleven (11) years management contracts; and the transfer,
B. Eighteen (18) years assignment or licensing of all forms of intellectual
C. Seven (7) years property rights, including licensing of computer
D. Two (2) years software except computer software developed for
mass market.
12. The Bureau of Trademarks conduct studies and A. Intellectual Transfer Arrangements
research in the field of trademarks in order to assist B. Transfer of Documents Agency
the Director General in formulating policies on the? C. Technology Transfer Arrangements
A. Administration and examination of D. Contract and Sales Management
trademarks.
B. Administration of fees and Trademarks 17. What is a Mandatory requirement in the renewal
C. Administration of tax and revenue of the Professional Identification Cards (PICs) of
D. Administration of Legal examinations of registered and licensed professionals under the
transaction regulation of the Commission?
A. Continuing Professional Development
13. In Section 8.2.4 Accreditation of CPD Programs; (CPD)
When applying for accreditation of a program to the B. Professional Examination
CPD Council, what information should the CPD C. Work Experience
provider indicate for monitoring purposes? D. Training Seminars
A. The number of participants in the program
B. The location of the program 18. In Section 5. Rule 14. Presumptive Approval:
C. The duration of the program What happens to CPD programs that are duly
D. The number of times the program will be submitted for accreditation if no feedback is received
offered from the CPD Council after 10 (Ten) working days?
A. They are automatically rejected
14. Related Rights shall be appealable to the Court B. They are deemed approved
of Appeals in accordance with the Rules of Court; C. They are put on hold indefinitely
and those in respect of the decisions of the Director D. They are returned to the CPD providers for
of Documentation, Information and Technology revision
Transfer Bureau shall be appealable to the?
A. Secretary of Department of Justice 19. In which type of agreement is Continuing
B. President of the Philippines Professional Development (CPD) a recognition and
C. Secretary of Trade and Industry eligibility requirement for professionals intending to
D. International Trademark officer practice in certain countries?
A. Bilateral agreements
15. What does the “Office” refer to under this Act? B. Unilateral agreements
A. Intellectual Understanding C. Multilateral agreements
B. Intellectual Property Rights D. Non-agreements
C. Intellectual Property Bureau
D. Intellectual Property Office 20. This sector conducts studies and research in the
field of patents to assist the Director General in
formulating policies on the administration and
examination of patents.
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. Bureau of Internal Revenue
C. Bureau of Customs
D. Bureau of Patents
21. In Annex “A” on the administrative level; What False 28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires
is the purpose of establishing the CPD professionals to complete a minimum of
Accreditation System as part of the enhancement 120 CPD units within a two-year cycle, with
of IT infrastructure? at least 30 units earned from accredited
A. To provide free CPD courses for activities, to renew their licenses, while the
professionals remaining 90 units can be obtained through
B. To facilitate online CPD transactions like self-directed learning.
filing of applications for accreditation
C. To create a social media platform for False 29.According to RA 8293, intellectual
professionals to connect property rights are granted indefinitely,
D. To organize physical CPD events only without any limitations on their duration.
False 30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows
22. This sector accepts, review, and decide on professionals to renew their licenses
applications for accreditation of collective without completing any CPD units if they
management organizations or similar entities can demonstrate significant contributions to
A. Bureau of Copyright and Other Related their field through published works or
Rights patents.
B. Bureau of Trade and Industry
C. Bureau of Treasury False 31. Under RA 8293, the protection of
D. Bureau of Finance and Statistics intellectual property rights extends to ideas
and concepts themselves, regardless of
23. Intellectual Property Rights consist of...? their expression in tangible form.
A. Copyright and Related Rights,
True 32. Failure to comply with CPD
Trademarks and Service Marks,
requirements may result in the non-renewal
Geographic Indications, Industrial
or suspension of a professional license
Designs
under the CPD Act of 2016.
B. Copyright Rights, Trademarks and
Geographic Designs, Industrial Designs False 33. According to the CPD Act of 2016,
C. Trademarks and Service Marks, Mountain professionals can obtain CPD units by
Range, Circuit Designs attending social events and networking
D. Copyright and Related Patents, Services, activities relevant to their field, even if they
Geography, Industrial Work are not officially accredited by the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC).
TRUE OR FALSE

True 24. According to RA 8293, patents protect

inventions or discoveries, granting the
patent holder exclusive rights to use and
sell the invention for a limited period.
True 25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the
Professional Regulation Commission
(PRC) is responsible for accrediting CPD
providers and programs.
True 26.infringement is the unauthorized use of
intellectual property.
True 27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer
to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of
articles, granting their creators exclusive
rights to reproduce and distribute them.
BLOCK 3 Group 5 7. According to Article 1350, in which type of contract
is the cause understood to be the
1. According to Article 1173, what constitutes the
prestation or promise of a thing or service by the
fault or negligence of the obligor?
other party?
a) Failure to disclose facts
a) Onerous contracts
b) Taking improper advantage of power
b) Remuneratory contracts
c) Omission of diligence required by the
c) Pure beneficence contracts
nature of the obligation
d) Voidable contracts
d) Usurious transactions
8. What does Article 1364 state as a reason for the
2. What standard of care is required of a person
courts to order the reformation of an
obligated to give something, as per Article
instrument?
1163?
a) Mutual mistake of the parties
a) Proper diligence of a good father of a
b) Fraudulent action by one party
family
c) Lack of skill or negligence in drafting the
b) Ordinary care
instrument
c) Care of a reasonable person
d) Failure of the instrument to disclose the real
d) Expert care
agreement
3. Under what circumstances are individuals liable
9. According to Article 1371, what is principally
for damages, as stated in Article 1170?
considered to judge the intention of the
a) Fraud, negligence, or undue influence
contracting parties?
b) Delay, negligence, or fraud
a) Written terms of the contract
c) Exaggerations in trade
b) Oral agreements made during negotiation
d) Fraud, negligence, or delay
c) Contemporaneous and subsequent acts
d) Testimony of witnesses
4. The fundamental prerequisites for a contract's
10. Which principle is mentioned in Article 1375
existence, as outlined in Article 1318, are?
regarding the interpretation of words in a
a) Offer, acceptance, and consideration
contract?
b) Consent, object certainty, and cause of
a) Literal interpretation
the obligation
b) Interpretation most in keeping with the
c) Mutual agreement, performance, and
nature and object of the contract
enforcement
c) Interpretation in favor of the party who caused
d) Registration with the court
obscurity
d) Interpretation favoring the party with greater
5. As stated in Article 1315, at what point in the
legal expertise
process do contracts reach a state of perfection
and become legally binding?
11. According to Article 1380, under what
a) By mere consent
circumstances may contracts validly agreed upon be
b) By payment of consideration
rescinded?
c) By signing a written agreement
a) When there has been a mutual mistake of the
d) By performance of all obligations
parties
b) When there has been undue influence by one
6. According to the provisions delineated in Article
party
1338, what specific actions or behaviors are
c) When there has been a failure to express the
`deemed to qualify as constituting fraudulence within
true intention of the parties
the context of the legal framework?
d) When there has been fraud, mistake, or
a) Taking improper advantage of power
undue influence
b) Failure to disclose facts
c) Usual exaggerations in trade
12. What type of contracts are listed in Article 1390
d) Insidious words or machinations inducing
as voidable or annullable, even without
a contract
harm to the contracting parties?
 a) Onerous contracts submit their controversies to one or more arbitrators
b) Gratuitous contracts for decision”. What article is it?
c) Rescissible contracts a) Art. 2042
d) Inadequate contracts b) Art. 2937
c) Art. 2043
13. According to Article 1723, within what period d) Art. 2938
must the action for damages due to defects in
construction be brought following the collapse of a 18. These two articles governed Article 2171, where
building? the rights and obligations of the finder of
a) Five years lost personal property.
b) Ten years a) Articles 619 and 620
c) Fifteen years b) Articles 613 and 614
d) Twenty years c) Articles 719 and 720
d) Articles 713 and 714
14. What does Liquidated Damages mean?
a) Liquidated damages refer to the 19. In legal terms, what do exemplary or corrective
predetermined sum of money agreed upon damages serve as, according to Article
by parties in a contract as compensation for 2229?
a specific breach of contract. a) Exemplary or corrective damages are
b) Liquidated damages are funds set aside by a imposed solely for the benefit of the affected
company for potential losses in case of a parties.
sudden market downturn. b) Exemplary or corrective damages are
c) Liquidated damages are damages caused by punitive measures meant to bankrupt the
a spillage of liquid substances during defendant.
transportation or handling, resulting in financial c) Exemplary or corrective damages are
loss. imposed as a form of public deterrence or
d) Liquidated damages are penalties imposed education, in addition to other types of
by a court for criminal actions involving the damages like moral, temperate, liquidated,
illegal sale of alcoholic beverages. or compensatory damages.
d) Exemplary or corrective damages are only
15. According to Art. 204, By guaranty a person, applicable in cases involving physical injury or
called the_______, binds himself to the property damage.
creditor to fulfill the obligation of the principal debtor
in case the latter should fail to do so. 20. According to Art. 2046, how are the appointment
a) guarantee of arbitrators and the procedure for arbitration
b) guarantist governed?
c) guarantor a) They are governed by the provisions of
d) guarantinator rules of court promulgated by the Supreme
Court.
16. These shall be liable for damages for the death b) They are determined solely by the parties
of, or injuries suffered by, any person by involved in the arbitration.
reason of the defective condition of roads, streets, c) They are subject to the discretion of the
bridges, public buildings, and other public President of the country.
works under their control or supervision, EXCEPT? d) They are outlined in the Constitution of the
a) Provinces Philippines.
b) Districts
c) Cities 21. According to Art. 2192, if damages result from a
d) Municipalities defect in construction mentioned in Article
1723, who can the third person suffering damages
proceed against?
17. In this Article it states that “The same persons a) The owner of the property
who may enter into a compromise may b) The local government authority
 c) Any third party involved in the construction liability arising from negligence under the Penal
process Code.
d) The engineer, architect, or contractor b) Art. 2177 emphasizes that civil liability arising
involved in the construction from negligence under the Penal Code
overrides any fault or negligence under civil law.
22. What defines an aleatory contract according to c) Art. 2177 highlights the distinction
Art. 2010? between responsibility for fault or
a) An aleatory contract is one where both parties negligence and civil liability under the Penal
agree to perform their obligations Code, while preventing double recovery of
simultaneously, without regard to any uncertain damages for the same act or omission.
events. d) Art. 2177 stipulates that plaintiffs are entitled
b) An aleatory contract involves one party to recover damages twice for the same act or
committing to give or do something in omission of the defendant, provided they
exchange for something the other party will demonstrate fault or negligence under both civil
give or do, dependent on an uncertain event and criminal law.
or one occurring at an indeterminate time.
c) An aleatory contract is characterized by the 26. Which of the following best describes the legal
exchange of goods or services that are concept outlined in Article 2142?
guaranteed to be of equal value, regardless of a) Quasi-contracts are formed through mutual
any uncertain events. agreement between two parties.
d) An aleatory contract pertains exclusively to b) Quasi-contracts are established through
agreements involving the sale or transfer of real unlawful and involuntary actions.
estate properties that are subject to c) Quasi-contracts arise from unilateral acts
unpredictable market fluctuations. to prevent unjust enrichment or benefit
at the expense of another.
23. According to Article 2229, what are exemplary or d) Quasi-contracts primarily aim to enforce strict
corrective damages intended for? liability in contractual agreements.
a) To compensate for specific financial losses
incurred by a party. 27. According to Art. 2176, what is the term used to
b) To provide an example of proper conduct in a describe fault or negligence that causes damage to
contractual agreement. another party when there is no pre-existing
c) To serve as a deterrent and promote the contractual relation between them?
public good through punishment or a) Contractual liability
correction. b) Exemplary damages
d) To cover damages resulting from accidents or c) Quasi-delict
unforeseen circumstances. d) Liquidated damages

28. Article 11 of the Civil Code of the Philippines

provides that “Customs which are contrary to
24. According to Article 2199, what is the term used law, ______ order or ______ policy shall not be
to describe compensation for pecuniary countenanced.”
loss that one has duly proved? a) private order or public policy
a) Punitive damages b) private order or private policy
b) Nominal damages c) public order or public policy
c) Liquidated damages d) public order or private policy
d) Actual or compensatory damages

25. Which statement accurately describes the legal

principle outlined in Art. 2177 of the Civil
Code of the Philippines?
a) Art. 2177 establishes that responsibility for
fault or negligence is synonymous with civil
29. Article __ of the Civil Code of the Philippines 34. Which of the following statements best reflects
provides that “Judicial decisions applying or the legal obligation regarding the behavior
interpreting the laws, or the Constitution shall form a towards neighbors and other persons?
part of the legal system of the Philippines.” a) Individuals are free to disregard the dignity
a) 7 and privacy of others without consequences.
b) 8 b) Individuals must respect the dignity,
c) 9 personality, privacy, and peace of mind of
d) 10 their neighbors and others, without
exceptions.
30. What is the legal responsibility of an individual c) Individuals are only required to respect the
who intentionally or negligently causes harm privacy of their neighbors but not their dignity or
to another person? personality.
a) They shall be exempt from any liability. d) Individuals may disregard the privacy of
b) They shall be entitled to compensation from others unless it results in a criminal offense.
the injured party.
c) They shall be subject to criminal charges only. 35.How is civil personality extinguished?
d) They shall indemnify the injured party for a) By marriage
the damage. b) By migration to another country
c) By death
31. According to Article 22 of the Civil Code of the d) By reaching retirement age
Philippines, if a person intentionally causes
loss or injury to another in a manner contrary to 36.What are the two categories in which property
morals, good customs, or public policy, they are can be classified?
exempt from compensating the injured party. a) Universal and particular
a) True b) Public dominion and private ownership
b) False c) Tangible and intangible
d) Real and personal
32. According to the Civil Code of the Philippines,
what obligation does an individual have if they 37.Which of the following are considered property of
intentionally or negligently cause harm to another public dominion?
person, contrary to law? a) Personal belongings and household items
a) They are absolved of any responsibility. b) Buildings and structures owned by individuals
b) They must seek forgiveness from the injured c) Items reserved for personal use
party. d) Roads, canals, ports, and other
c) They must indemnify the injured party for infrastructure constructed by the State, as
the damage. well as properties intended for public
d) They have the option to negotiate a service or national development.
settlement with the injured party.
38.What presumption does actual possession under
33.In what scenario would a defendant be held liable claim of ownership raise, and how must the true
for indemnity, even if the damage to owner proceed to recover the property?
another's property was not caused by their fault or a) It raises a conclusive presumption of
negligence? ownership, and the true owner must resort to
a) If the defendant proves their innocence judicial process for recovery.
beyond doubt. b) It raises a disputable presumption of
b) If the plaintiff fails to prove the extent of the ownership, and the true owner must resort
damage. to judicial process for recovery.
c) If the defendant derived benefits from the c) It raises a rebuttable presumption of
act or event causing the damage. ownership, and the true owner must take
d) If the damage occurred due to an possession forcibly.
unforeseeable natural disaster.
 d) It raises no presumption of ownership, and
the true owner must negotiate directly with the
possessor for recovery.

39. Under what circumstances can a person be

deprived of their property, and what action
should the courts take if the requirement is not first
complied with?
a) Property can only be taken by competent
authority for public use and upon payment
of just compensation; if this requirement is
not met, the courts shall protect and
possibly restore the owner to possession.
b) Property can be seized without compensation
if deemed necessary by the authorities; the
courts will not intervene.
c) Property can be taken for public use with or
without compensation as decided by the
government; the courts have no jurisdiction in
such matters.
d) Property can be taken by any individual with
sufficient power and influence; the courts will
not interfere in such matters.

40. who owns the structures built, plants planted, or

crops sown on someone else's land
a) The person who built or planted them
b) The owner of the land
c) The government
d) The person who made the improvements or
repair