Practice Test 1

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 18

Practice Test 1

Section I
The Exam

AP® Environmental
Science Exam
SECTION I: Multiple-Choice Questions

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Instructions

At a Glance Section I of this examination contains 100 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only
the ovals for numbers 1 through 100 on your answer sheet.
Total Time
1 hour and 30 minutes
Number of Questions Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet.
100 No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use
Percent of Total Grade the booklet for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested
60% answers is best, completely fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Give
Writing Instrument only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous
Pencil required mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question and answer.

Sample Question Sample Answer

Chicago is a A B C D E
(A) state
(B) city
(C) country
(D) continent
(E) village

Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy.
Do not spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and
come back to the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected
that everyone will know the answers to all the multiple-choice questions.

About Guessing

Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answers to questions about
which they are not certain. Multiple choice scores are based on the number of
questions answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers, and
no points are awarded for unanswered questions. Because points are not deducted
for incorrect answers, you are encouraged to answer all multiple-choice questions.
On any questions you do not know the answer to, you should eliminate as many
choices as you can, and then select the best answer among the remaining choices.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

10 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam


Section I

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Section I
Time—One hour and 30 minutes
Part A

Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered questions or statements immediately following it. Select
the one lettered choice that best answers each question or best fits each statement and then fill in the corresponding oval on
the answer sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.

Questions 1-5 refer to the structure of the Questions 6-10 refer to the following soil layers.
atmosphere.
(A) A horizon
(A) Troposphere (B) B horizon
(B) Stratosphere (C) E horizon
(C) Thermosphere (D) O horizon
(D) Mesosphere (E) Bedrock
(E) Stratopause
6. Silt and sand are concentrated here
1. The layer that contains the earth’s daily weather
7. Litter layer, mostly undecayed materials
2. Extends from 50–85 km above Earth
8. The deep, underlying non-soil materials
3. The earth’s ozone layer exists in this layer of the
atmosphere 9. The layer where minerals that were leached out of layers
above accumulate
4. The highest layer of the atmosphere (above 80 km)
10. A mixture of soil, loam, and detritus; the topsoil
5. The layer of the atmosphere that’s heated by infrared
radiation from the earth

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Practice Test 1 | 11
Section I

Questions 11-15 refer to the following five Questions 16-20 refer to the following risks to human
age-structure pyramids. health.

(A) (A) Radon


(B) Asbestosis
(C) Malaria
(D) Earthquake
(E) AIDS

16. The virus that causes this disease is transmitted


(B)
through bodily fluids

17. Can cause massive destruction

18. Caused by microscopic fibers of a mineral


(C)
19. Radiation that causes lung cancer

20. Caused by a protozoan carried by mosquitoes

(D)

(E)

11. A country that is growing slowly

12. A country at zero population growth

13. A country that is losing many of its young adults to


diseases like AIDS

14. A rapidly growing population

15. A country showing a population decline

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

12 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam


Section I

Questions 21-25 refer to the following soil types. Questions 26-30 refer to the following atmospheric
pollutants.
(A) Desert soil
(B) Grassland soil (A) Carbon monoxide
(C) Tropical rain forest soil (B) Nitrogen dioxide
(D) Pine forest soil (C) Sulfur dioxide
(E) Deciduous forest soil (D) Photochemical oxidant
(E) Suspended particulate matter
21. Soil that has a substantial organic layer; fire helps to
break down plant material in this layer 26. Is involved in the formation of nitric acid

22. Soil composed of litter and humus; this soil is acidic 27. Dust or soot
due to the accumulation of needles
28. Ozone
23. Soil is rocky, very dry, and contains almost no organic
matter 29. Is involved in the formation of sulfuric acid

24. Soil is acidic and contains very little organic matter 30. Health effects include reduced blood oxygen levels
despite large plant populations

25. Soil is rich in humus and partially decayed leaves

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Practice Test 1 | 13
Section I

Part B

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select
the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

31. The goal of the second stage of a waste water treatment 32. Which of the following organisms are the first to be
plant is to adversely affected by thermal pollution in a stream?
(A) remove the large solid material (A) Trees along the bank
(B) aerate the water (B) Insect larvae in the water
(C) make muddy water clear (C) Large fish migrating upstream
(D) remove chemicals such as DDT or PCBs (D) Birds drinking the water
(E) lower the amount of organic material in the water (E) Bacteria in the water

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

14 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam


Section I

Questions 33-36 refer to the following passage and graph.


A scientist placed 100 fish eggs into each of seven solutions with different pH values. After 96 hours the number of survivors
was counted and converted into a percent. The percent surviving is given in the graph below.
80

70

60

50
Percent
Surviving
40

30

20

10

0
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
pH Value

33. Which of the values below best represents the LD50 in 35. Which of the following best describes the goal of the
this experiment? above experiment?
(A) 6.0 (A) To test the hypothesis that the bigger the fish, the
(B) 4.0 smaller the pH tolerance range.
(C) 4.5 (B) To observe how many fish would hatch at different
(D) 3.0 pH values.
(E) 2.5 (C) To find out how many fish live in streams with
different pH values.
34. At what pH value do the fewest fish hatch? (D) To understand how acid rain affects life in streams.
(A) 7.0 (E) To see what chemical is best at changing the pH of
(B) 6.0 water.
(C) 3.5
36. The pH value is a measure of the
(D) 2.0
(E) 1.0 (A) amount of heavy metals in the water
(B) BOD of the water
(C) concentration of oxygen in the water
(D) concentration of hydrogen ions in the water
(E) depth the scientist can see under the water

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Practice Test 1 | 15
Section I

37. Which of the following laws created the Superfund 42. Oxygen-depleted zones of the oceans, such as the one
program? at the mouth of the Mississippi River, are most likely
caused by
(A) Comprehensive Environmental Response,
Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) (A) large numbers of fish that are using up all the
(B) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act oxygen in the water
(C) Clean Air Act (B) a reduction in the plant life in rivers that empty into
(D) Federal Water Pollution Control Act the ocean near the dead zone
(E) National Environmental Policy Act (C) excessive fertilizers carried into the ocean, which
cause algal blooms that lower the oxygen levels
38. Later fall frosts and the northward migration of some (D) thermal pollution in the ocean
tree and plant species may indicate which of the (E) acid precipitation falling on the ocean
following global changes?
43. One potential benefit to using genetically modified foods
(A) Increased global temperatures
is
(B) The effects of more ultraviolet light from the sun
(C) A reduction in the volume of ice at the North and (A) the improved yields of crops
South Poles (B) the release of unwanted genes to other plants or
(D) Changes in global precipitation patterns animals
(E) Flooding of areas near the ocean (C) their growth in monoculture will reduce biodiversity
in an area
39. High infant mortality rates are likely to occur in (D) unknown effects on the ecosystem into which they
countries that have are released
(A) a strong and stable economy (E) the potential greater need for fertilizers
(B) high levels of education for adults
44. Which of the following compounds would probably supply
(C) a stable food supply
the greatest amount of useful energy to humans?
(D) high levels of infectious diseases
(E) safe drinking water (A) The exhaust from a car
(B) Unrefined aluminum ore
40. Composting is a process that produces (C) A glass bottle
(A) useful plastic products (D) Heat used to warm a home
(B) a nutrient-rich soil conditioner (E) A liter of gasoline
(C) manure
45. Which of the following choices gives the geologic eras
(D) lower-grade paper products
in the correct sequence, from the oldest to the most
(E) materials used in construction
recent?
41. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT (A) Cenozoic—Mesozoic—Paleozoic—Precambrian
(A) Energy can be converted from one form to another. (B) Precambrian—Paleozoic—Mesozoic—Cenozoic
(B) Energy input always equals energy output. (C) Paleozoic—Precambrian—Cenozoic—Mesozoic
(C) Energy and matter can generally be converted into (D) Paleozoic—Cenozoic—Precambrian—Mesozoic
each other. (E) Mesozoic—Paleozoic—Precambrian—Cenozoic
(D) The laws of thermodynamics can be applied to
46. Which of the following figures most accurately gives
living systems.
the percent of the world’s solid waste produced by the
(E) At each step of an energy transformation, some
United States?
energy is lost to heat.
(A) 50 percent
(B) 40 percent
(C) 33 percent
(D) 10 percent
(E) 5 percent

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

16 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam


Section I

47. Which of the following correctly describes conservation 52. An increase in the amount of UV light striking the
easement? earth as a result of ozone loss will cause which of the
following?
(A) It is a process that conserves soil from erosion.
(B) This is a binding agreement that preserves land (A) Global climate change
from further development in exchange for tax (B) Increased skin cancer rates in humans
write-offs. (C) Lowering of ocean water levels
(C) This agreement allows a developer to add new (D) An increase in CO2 in the atmosphere
land to a housing project with little input from (E) A change in the North Atlantic Current
neighbors.
(D) This practice prevents the breakdown of stream 53. Ozone in the troposphere can result in all of the
banks. following EXCEPT
(E) This is a method of building a landfill to minimize (A) eye irritation
runoff. (B) lung cancer
(C) bronchitis
48. The highest priority of the Clean Water Act is to provide
(D) headache
(A) funds to increase recycling participation (E) emphysema
(B) guidance in toxic chemical disposal
(C) funds to reclaim old strip mines 54. Which of the following describes the amount of energy
(D) policies to lessen the amount of oil spills in the that plants pass on to herbivores?
ocean (A) The amount of solar energy in a biome
(E) policies to attain fishable and swimmable waters (B) The First Law of Thermodynamics
in the United States (C) The Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of an area
(D) The Second Law of Thermodynamics
49. Which of the following best describes changes in
(E) The number of steps in the food web
the genetic composition of a population over many
generations? 55. The second law of thermodynamics relates to living
(A) Evolution organisms because it explains why
(B) Mutation (A) matter is never destroyed but it can change shape
(C) Natural selection (B) living cells come from other living things
(D) Emigration (C) plants need sunlight in order to survive
(E) Biomagnification (D) all living things must have a constant supply of
energy in the form of food
50. Women have fewer and healthier children when all of
(E) the amount of energy flowing into an ecosystem is
the following are true EXCEPT
the same as the amount flowing out of that system
(A) they have little education
(B) they live where their rights are not suppressed 56. Acid deposition most severely affects amphibian species
(C) they have access to medicine and health care because amphibians
(D) the cost of a child’s education is high (A) do not care for their young
(E) they have access to birth control (B) are not mammals
(C) need to live in both terrestrial and aquatic habitats
51. “The maximum number of a species that can be
(D) seldom reproduce
sustained in an ecosystem.” This phrase best defines
(E) eat only small insects
(A) the carrying capacity
(B) an ecotone
(C) the upward curve of a population graph
(D) natural selection
(E) a community

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Practice Test 1 | 17
Section I

57. All of the following are internal costs of an automobile 63. Biological reserves are areas that allow countries to
EXCEPT
(A) concentrate agricultural production in one area
(A) car insurance (B) set aside critical habitats to ensure the survival of
(B) fuel species
(C) pollution and health care costs (C) control the flow of rivers and storm waters
(D) raw materials and labor (D) provide grazing land in order to ensure economic
(E) new tires growth
(E) obtain needed minerals from underground mines
58. Scrubbers are devices installed in smoke stacks to
64. Which of the following countries has the largest
(A) reduce the amount of materials such as SO2 in the
population?
smoke they discharge
(B) clean out the stack so smoke can move rapidly (A) Japan
upwards (B) United States
(C) reduce the amount of sulfur in coal before it is (C) Brazil
burned (D) China
(D) clean out the boilers for more efficient operation (E) Russia
(E) reduce the amount of toxic ash produced
65. Which of the following phases of the hydrologic cycle
59. After ore is mined, the unusable part that remains is requires the input of solar energy?
placed in piles called
(A) Percolation
(A) overburden (B) Bioremediation
(B) seam waste (C) Precipitation
(C) leachate (D) Condensation
(D) tailings (E) Evaporation
(E) reclamation
66. Full cost pricing of a refrigerator would include
60. All of the following are economic goods EXCEPT
(A) adding the cost of employee salaries to the total cost
(A) a swing set (B) the refrigerator’s total impact on the environment
(B) computer repair service (C) the cost of transporting the refrigerator to the retail
(C) food store
(D) a walk in the woods (D) the value of the refrigerator if it was donated to a
(E) a ticket to a game nonprofit group
(E) changing the color of the refrigerator at a later date
61. Which fuel contains the greatest amount of sulfur?
67. A certain chemical has a concentration of 10 ppm in
(A) Wood
water. Which statement most accurately describes its
(B) Natural gas
concentration?
(C) Oil
(D) Nuclear reactor fuel rods (A) There are 10 molecules of the chemical in one
(E) Coal million molecules of water.
(B) There are 10 million molecules of the chemical in
62. Which of the following items includes the others? the sample.
(A) Renewable resources (C) There are 10 million molecules of the chemical in a
(B) Natural resources 1-liter beaker.
(C) Economic resources (D) There are 10 molecules of water in one million
(D) Manufactured capital molecules of the chemical.
(E) Labor (E) There are 10 molecules of the chemical in 10
million molecules of water.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

18 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam


Section I

68. During a society’s postindustrial state, the population 73. The chemical actions that produce compost would best
will exhibit be described as
(A) rapid growth with a low birth rate and high death (A) photosynthesis
rate (B) augmentation
(B) slow rate of growth with slowing birth rate and a (C) respiration
low death rate (D) decomposition
(C) a rapid growth rate with high birth rate and low (E) nitrification
death rate
(D) a zero growth rate with a low birth rate and a low 74. Which of the sources below would produce non-point
death rate source pollution?
(E) a slow rate of growth with a high birth rate and a (A) The smoke stack of a factory
high death rate (B) A volcano
(C) A pipe leading into a river from a sewage treatment
69. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of old-
plant
style landfills?
(D) A car’s exhaust pipe
(A) They generate gases that can be recovered and used (E) A large area of farmland near a river
as fuel.
(B) Bad odors come from these landfills. 75. A nation’s gross domestic product describes
(C) Toxic wastes leach into ground water. (A) the amount of public transportation
(D) Subsidence of the land after the landfill is filled. (B) the ability to provide health care
(E) They create an eyesore in the neighborhood. (C) the amount of goods it imports
(D) the amount of its economic output
70. The international treaty concerning endangered species
(E) the quality of its environment
(CITES) has tried to protect endangered species by
which of the following steps? 76. Which of the following mining operations requires
(A) Making more countries keep these species in zoos people and machinery to operate underground?
(B) Paying the debts of member countries in order to (A) Mountain top removal
relieve the pressure to sell endangered species (B) Contour stripping
(C) Developing a list of endangered species and (C) Dredging
prohibiting trade in those species (D) Area stripping
(D) Providing member countries with a police force to (E) Shaft sinking
uphold the CITES treaty
(E) Restoring endangered habitats 77. A country’s total fertility rate (TFR) best expresses
which of the following?
71. Country A had a birth rate of 12 per 1,000 in 2000 and a
death rate of 9 per 1,000 in the same year. Which of the (A) The life expectancy of women in the country
following is the correct rate of growth for the year 2000? (B) The average number of babies born to women
between the ages of 14 and 45
(A) 36.0 percent (C) The total economic value of all foreign and
(B) 27.0 percent domestic services
(C) 4.0 percent (D) The number of babies under one year of age who
(D) 3.0 percent die per 1,000
(E) 0.3 percent (E) The total use of contraceptives in the country
72. Salt intrusion into freshwater aquifers; beach erosion;
and the disruption of costal fisheries are all possible
results of which of the following?
(A) Rising ocean levels as a result of global warming
(B) More solar ultraviolet radiation on the earth
(C) More chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere
(D) Reduced rates of photosynthesis
(E) Use of the oceans as waste disposal area
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Practice Test 1 | 19
Section I

78. The wastes stored in Love Canal contaminated the 82. The one area that does NOT store a lot of phosphorus is
surrounding area by all of the following methods
(A) rocks
EXCEPT
(B) water
(A) leaching into the ground water (C) atmosphere
(B) fumes from burning the wastes (D) living organisms
(C) flowing in the sewers (E) guano (bird droppings)
(D) runoff into a nearby stream
(E) spilled drums of waste 83. The addition of oxygen to the early earth’s atmosphere
most likely occurred through the process of
79. The distinct building blocks of matter are called
(A) volcanic outgassing
(A) mixtures (B) photosynthesis
(B) isotopes (C) meteorite impact
(C) atoms (D) respiration by animals
(D) electrons (E) bubbling geysers
(E) compounds
84. Which processes do scientists use to estimate
80. In sea water, carbon is mostly found in the form of environmental risks to humans?
(A) phosphoric acid I. Animal studies
(B) carbon disulfide II. Epidemiological studies
(C) bicarbonate ions III. Statistical Probabilities
(D) methane gas (A) I only
(E) glucose (B) II only
(C) I and II only
81. Acid rain and snow harm some areas more than other
(D) I and II only
areas because certain areas
(E) I, II, and III
(A) have more bacteria in the soil than others
(B) have less of an ability to neutralize the acids
(C) are at a higher elevation than the unaffected areas
(D) are closer to lakes than the unaffected areas
(E) have more complex food webs than the unaffected
areas

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

20 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam


Section I

Questions 85-88 refer to the following graph. 86. The BOD at mile 12 is approximately
1,200 (A) 700 ppm
(B) 220 ppm
1,000 (C) 200 ppm
(D) 175 ppm
BOD Level (ppm)

800 (E) 50 ppm

600 87. The BOD test is designed to directly measure


(A) how much light can pass to the bottom of the stream
400 (B) the amount of nitrates in the water
(C) how rapidly the water is moving
200 (D) the amounts of coliform bacteria
(E) the rate at which oxygen is being consumed by
0 microorganisms
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
Stream Mile 88. Anaerobic bacteria, sludge worms, and fungi are most
likely to be found in which part of this stream?
A group of students did a biological oxygen demand (A) 0 to 5 miles
study along a 30-mile section of a stream. The data they (B) 10 to 15 miles
obtained is given in the graph above. (C) 25 to 30 miles
(D) 10 to 20 miles
85. Which of the following best describes the type of (E) 15 to 20 miles
pollution at mile 0?
(A) Point source
(B) Thermal inversion
(C) Acid deposition
(D) Secondary pollutant
(E) Deep well

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Practice Test 1 | 21
Section I

89. Riparian zones are important parts of lands because they 93. Which of the following best describes the effects of a
are thermal inversion?
(A) the area where most cattle feed when they graze (A) Cold ocean water moves to the surface and warm
(B) an area of diverse habitats along the banks of rivers water sinks.
(C) important buffers against wind (B) Warm, polluted air rises and mixes with cool upper
(D) areas where varying amounts of light cause air, and pollutants escape.
different layers of plant growth (C) Warm river water cools when it enters the ocean.
(E) the origins of rivers (D) Polluted air at the surface cannot rise because it is
blocked by warm air above it.
90. Which of the following is a disadvantage of fish (E) Cool air descends onto a city and lowers nighttime
farming? temperatures.
(A) It can produce large volumes of fish for food.
94. Shifting taxes to tax pollution and waste rather than
(B) It can allow for genetic engineering, which leads to
taxing the cost of products will allow people to
bigger yields.
(C) It is very profitable. (A) maximize profit
(D) It can lead to large die-offs due to disease. (B) increase the tax base in a city
(E) It can reduce the pressure to harvest wild species. (C) use tax money for local schools
(D) shift to a pattern of more sustainable development
91. Which of the following philosophies would be (E) keep the cost of collecting taxes down
advocated by someone with the “environmental
wisdom” point of view? 95. Which of the following molecules is most damaging to
stratospheric ozone?
(A) As the planet’s dominant species, we are most
important. (A) H2O
(B) All economic growth is good. (B) CO2
(C) Society can use resources at an uncontrolled pace. (C) Chlorofluorocarbons
(D) We will do best when humans manage the planet. (D) N2O
(E) All species are important and we are not in charge. (E) SO2

92. The form of nitrogen that plants can use directly is


(A) nitrates
(B) nitrites
(C) guano
(D) N2 gas
(E) methane

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

22 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam


Section I

96. Which of the following series of numbers demonstrates 99. Which of the following is a trace element necessary for
exponential growth? plant growth?
(A) 200, 199, 198, 197, 196… (A) Carbon
(B) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9… (B) Nitrogen
(C) 2, 4, 8, 16, 32… (C) Phosphorous
(D) 1, 3, 9, 27, 81… (D) Magnesium
(E) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10… (E) Potassium

97. Samples of atmospheric gases from past eras can most 100. Concerns that people of color and poor people are
easily be obtained from which of the following sources? unevenly exposed to environmental pollution are most
likely to be addressed by people who believe in the
(A) Methane gas trapped in oil reserves
(B) Different types of sedimentary rock (A) earth stewardship view
(C) Gases trapped in polar ice caps (B) planetary manager view
(D) Tree ring measurements (C) ecofeminist point of view
(E) Mud samples from eutrophic lakes (D) the environmental justice movement
(E) sustainability point of view
98. Acid deposition on soil kills beneficial decomposers;
which of the following cycles would be most affected by
the loss of decomposers?
(A) Sulfur cycling
(B) Phosphorus cycling
(C) Hydrologic cycling
(D) Nitrogen cycling
(E) Temperature cycling

END OF SECTION I

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Practice Test 1 | 23
Section II

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
SECTION II
Time—90 minutes
4 Questions

Directions: Answer all four questions, which are weighted equally; the suggested time is about 22 minutes for answering each
question. Where calculations are required, clearly show how you arrived at your answer. Where explanation or discussion is
required, support your answers with relevant information and/or specific examples.

1. According to the United States Energy Information 2. The map below shows two cities: City X and City Z,
Administration, the consumption of natural gas by the separated by several kilometers.
United States increases at 8 percent per year. It receives
its supplies from a variety of international and domes- City X City Z
tic locations. Natural gas is used in the home, industry,
and in the generation of power.
(a) Calculate the approximate number of years Site B Site C Site D
it would take to double the consumption of Site E
natural gas in the United States. Show all
work. Site A
(b) Describe one method by which natural gas Students from a high school in between the two cities
is recovered and transported. studied soil pH values at the sites labeled A through E
(c) Describe two benefits to the environment on the map. The results of the pH study are given in
that would occur if the United States the following table:
switched from coal to natural gas-fired
electric power generation. Site pH value
(d) Some people advocate increasing the use A 6.2
of coal versus natural gas for the produc- B 5.6
tion of electricity. Explain one argument
that the proponents of coal might use to C 5.0
justify their position. D 4.5
(e) Discuss one non-hydrocarbon fuel alterna- E 4.3
tive and describe ONE of its drawbacks.
(a) Describe one point source for the pollution
that caused the change in the soil’s pH as
shown. Include in the description a fuel
that could create the pollution.
(b) Identify one primary and one secondary
pollutant that can cause the change in the
soil’s pH. Describe the process that causes
the change in the pH.
(c) Describe one possible method to reduce the
air pollutants that are causing the pH change.
(d) Describe one provision of the Clean Air
Act of 1990 that could be used to control
and reduce the emissions.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

24 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam


Section II

3. The following editorial is excerpted from a recent edition of the Hilltop Express:

Hilltop Express

New Pests Invade Farm


A new species of corn-infesting insect has The grubs live near the base of the plant and
recently been discovered in a local farmer’s feed on bacteria and other organisms living
field. Bill Jones stated: “Last week a section in the soil. She added that the beetle was
of my corn field was covered in small black resistant to the most common pesticide,
beetles. They can fly from plant to plant, and NOGrub. NOGrub, she commented, had
they eat large holes in the leaves. I called the been tried in another county and was not
county extension agent Sarah Smith and she found to be effective. The editors of the
came out and identified them. I’m going to Hilltop Express realize the potential
start spraying tomorrow morning.” In a dangers to the county’s most important
telephone interview with Sarah, she stated cash crop. We urge the county agents to
that this species was new to the county and recommend a series of new pesticide
has the potential for causing real damage to treatments to control this new menace to
the corn crop. She stated that the adults do our livelihood.
most of the damage to growing leaves.

(a) Describe how the beetle might have 4. Many endangered species live in areas where biodi-
become resistant to NOGrub. Assume that versity has been degraded by human activities. Species
NOGrub had been applied to a population such as the West Virginia spring salamander or the
of beetles in another county. California condor live in areas where the impact of
human activities has made these and other organisms
(b) Discuss two negative impacts of using
very rare.
chemical pesticides on the surrounding
ecosystem. (a) Discuss two human activities that cause
species to become endangered.
(c) Describe two other methods of controlling
the beetles without resorting to hu- (b) Describe two reproductive strategy char-
man-made chemical pesticides. acteristics that make a species prone to
extinction.
(d) One strategy for combating pests is Inte-
grated Pest Management (IPM). (c) Describe one economic and one legislative
(i) Describe IPM. action that attempt to save endangered
(ii) Explain one benefit and one difficulty species.
in using IPM to control this outbreak.

STOP
END OF EXAM
––––––––––––––––––

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Practice Test 1 | 25
Completely darken bubbles with a No. 2 pencil. If you
Diagnostic Test Form Side 1 make a mistake, be sure to erase mark completely.
Erase all stray marks.

1. YOUR NAME: 5. YOUR NAME


(Print) Last First M.I. First 4 letters of last name FIRST MID
INIT INIT
SIGNATURE: DATE:

HOME ADDRESS:
(Print) Number and Street A A A A A A

E-MAIL: B B B B B B
City State Zip C C C C C C
PHONE NO.: SCHOOL: CLASS OF: D D D D D D
(Print)
E E E E E E
OpScan iNSIGHT™ forms by Pearson NCS EM-255325-1:654321 F F F F F F
IMPORTANT: Please fill in these boxes exactly as Printed in U.S.A.
shown on the back cover of your test book. G G G G G G
© TPR Education IP Holdings, LLC
H H H H H H

2. TEST FORM 3. TEST CODE 4. PHONE NUMBER I I I I I I

J J J J J J
K K K K K K

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 L L L L L L

6. DATE OF BIRTH 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 M M M M M M

MONTH DAY YEAR 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 N N N N N N

JAN 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 O O O O O O

FEB 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 P P P P P P

MAR 0 0 0 0 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 Q Q Q Q Q Q

APR 1 1 1 1 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 R R R R R R

MAY 2 2 2 2 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 S S S S S S

JUN 3 3 3 3 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 T T T T T T

JUL 4 4 4 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 U U U U U U

AUG 5 5 5 V V V V V V

SEP 6 6 6 8. OTHER W W W W W W

OCT 7 7 7 7. SEX 1 A B C D E X X X X X X

NOV 8 8 8 MALE 2 A B C D E Y Y Y Y Y Y

DEC 9 9 9 FEMALE 3 A B C D E Z Z Z Z Z Z

Begin with number 1 for each new section of the test. Leave blank any extra answer spaces.

SECTION 1

1 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 51 A B C D E 76 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 52 A B C D E 77 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 53 A B C D E 78 A B C D E

4 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 54 A B C D E 79 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 55 A B C D E 80 A B C D E

6 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 56 A B C D E 81 A B C D E

7 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 57 A B C D E 82 A B C D E

8 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 58 A B C D E 83 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 59 A B C D E 84 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 60 A B C D E 85 A B C D E

11 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 61 A B C D E 86 A B C D E

12 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 62 A B C D E 87 A B C D E

13 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 63 A B C D E 88 A B C D E

14 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 64 A B C D E 89 A B C D E

15 A B C D E 40 A B C D E 65 A B C D E 90 A B C D E

16 A B C D E 41 A B C D E 66 A B C D E 91 A B C D E

17 A B C D E 42 A B C D E 67 A B C D E 92 A B C D E

18 A B C D E 43 A B C D E 68 A B C D E 93 A B C D E

19 A B C D E 44 A B C D E 69 A B C D E 94 A B C D E

20 A B C D E 45 A B C D E 70 A B C D E 95 A B C D E

21 A B C D E 46 A B C D E 71 A B C D E 96 A B C D E

22 A B C D E 47 A B C D E 72 A B C D E 97 A B C D E

23 A B C D E 48 A B C D E 73 A B C D E 98 A B C D E

24 A B C D E 49 A B C D E 74 A B C D E 99 A B C D E

25 A B C D E 50 A B C D E 75 A B C D E 100 A B C D E

You might also like