Keystone Universe of Education

Chapters: 1 to 14 Std 12 : Physics Date : 28/03/24

Total Marks : 40 chap 4 Time : 1 hr
Section A
//X
• Choose correct answer from the given options. [Each carries 1 Mark] [40]
® N
1. Consider a uniform electric fiel d E = 3 ´ 103 kˆ . The electric flux of this field through a square
e
C
of 20 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to yz plane is ...... Nm2/C.
(A) 90 (B) 120 (C) 60 (D) zero
2. Figure shows the electric field lines of four points charges A, B, C and D.
Which charge has the maximum magnitude ?
(A) C charge B
(B) B charge
(C) A charge
A D
(D) D charge C

3. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3.52 ´ 10–7 C. What is the
number of electrons transferred ?
(A) 1.1 ´ 1012 (B) 2.2 ´ 1012 (C) 4.4 ´ 1012 (D) 5.5 ´ 1012
4. The potential at the point B in the given figure is ...... V.
(A) 30 C1 = 2 mF C2 = 3 mF
(B) 50 VA = 40 V VC = 10 V
(C) 22 A B C
(D) 25
5. A charge Q is placed at the centre of circle of radius 10 cm. Find the work done in moving a charge
q between any two points lying on the arc of this circle.
(A) KQqJ (B) 0.1 KQqJ (C) 0.5 KQqJ (D) 0 J
6. The dielectric strength of air is ......
(A) 3 ´ 109 V/cm (B) 3 ´ 109 V/mm (C) 3 ´ 109 V/mm (D) 3 ´ 109 V/m
7. Unit of mobility in terms of fundamental units is ......
(A) kg–1 s–2A (B) kg s2A (C) kg–1 s2A (D) kg–1 s2A–1
1
8. A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular cross-section of 1 cm ´ cm is connected to a battery
2
across opposite faces. The resisatnce will be ......
(A) Maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm ´ 1 cm.
1
(B) Maximum when battery is connected across 1 cm ´ cm faces.
2
1
(C) Maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm ´ cm .
2
(D) Same irrespective of three faces.
9. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of current carrying long solenoid. Which
of the following is true ?
(A) The electron path will be circular about the axis.
(B) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.
Wishat
(C) The electron will experience a force You - All
45° to The
the Best
axis and hence execute a helical path.
(D) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.
 of the following is true ?
(A) The electron path will be circular about the axis.
(B) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.
(C) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence execute a helical path.
(D) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.

10. An electron is moving at a speed of 3.2 ´ 107 m/s in a magneitc field of 12 ´ 10–4 T perpendicular to the
direction of motion of electron. The radius of the path of the electron is ...... cm. (e = 1.6 ´ 10–19 C and me
= 9 ´ 10–31 kg)
(A) 30 cm (B) 13 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 26 cm
11. A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 250 turns. It carries a current of
5 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid ?
(A) 3.14 ´ 10–3 T (B) 6.28 ´ 10–3 T (C) 62.8 ´ 10–3 T (D) zero
12. The galvanometer has a resistance of 18 W. Calculate the value of shunt to increase the range of
galanometer by 10 times.
(A) 4 W (B) 1 W (C) 3 W (D) 2 W
13. A bar magnet having pole strength qm and magnetic moment m is divided into two equal parts
along its length. The new pole strength is ..... and the magnetic moment is ...... respectively.
m q q m
(A) qm , (B) m , m (C) m , (D) qm, m
2 2 2 2
14. A solenoid has a core of a material with relative permeability 400. The windings of solenoid are
insulated from the core and carry a current of 2 A. If the number of turns is 1000 per metre, the magnetic
field B inside the solenoid is ...... T.
(A) 1.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.8 (D) 2.0
15. The dimensional formula of self inductance is ......
(A) [M1 L1 T–2 A–2] (B) [M1 L2 T–2 A–2] (C) [M–1 L–1 T2 A2 ] (D) [M1 L–1 T–1 A–2]
16. As shown in the figure a bar magnet is moving towards a stationary coil with constant speed v. The
direction of induced current in the coil observed by the observer on R.H.S. is ......
(A) Anticlockwise v Coil
(B) Clockwise S N
(C) Current changes its direction randomly Bar magnet Observer
(D) Induced current will not be produced

17. A circular coil of area 2 cm2 is placed in a magnetic field of 3T perpendicularly. The coil has 10 turns
and 5 W resistance. Now the coil is removed from magnetic field in 0.2 s. The value of induced charge
flowing through the coil is ......
(A) 1.1 mC (B) 1.9 mC (C) 1.2 mC (D) zero
18. A pure inductor of 25.48 mH and a pure resistor of 8 W are connected in series with an A.C. source
of frequency 50 Hz. The phase difference between current (I) and voltage (V) in this circuit is ...... .
(A) 45° (B) 30° (C) 60° (D) 90°
19. The charge of the capacitor in L-C oscillatory circuit, when the energy associated with inductor and
capacitor are equal is ...... . [Q0 is the initial charge on the capacitor].
Q0 Q0 Q0
(A) (B) Q0 (C) (D)
2 3 2

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20. The output of a stepdown transformer is measured to be 24 V when connected to a 12 watt light
bulb. The value of peak current (Im) is ...... A.
(A) 1.41 (B) 0.71 (C) 2 (D) 2.83
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® ®
21. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic wave, the direction of
propagation of electromagnetic wave is along(Ch-8)
® ® ® ® ® ®
(A) B (B) E (C) B ´ E (D) E ´ B
22. Frequency range of visible light is ......
(A) 400 THz to 700 THz (B) 400 GHz to 700 GHz
(C) 400 MHz to 700 MHz (D) 400 kHz to 700 kHz
23. Which of the following diode is in reverse bias ?
+5V
R
(A) R (B)
–10V

+10V

(C) (D) –12V

+5V R R

–5V
24. Two diodes are shown in figure. In forward biasing resistance of diodes is 50 W and in reverse biasing
it is infinite. Find the current flowing through 120 W ?
(A) 20 mA D1

D2 130W
(B) 25 mA

(C) 32 mA 140W

(D) 16 mA 6V 120W

25. A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the following in a sequence :

a, a, b–, b–, a, a, a, a, b–, b–, a, b+, b+, a
Then Z of the resulting nucleus is
(A) 76 (B) 78 (C) 82 (D) 74
26. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is
(A) 4.5 ´ 1013 J (B) 1.5 ´ 1013 J (C) 0.5 ´ 1013 J (D) 4.5 ´ 1016 J
l1
27. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown the figure. The ratio of the wavelength r = is given
l2
by ......
3 –E
(A) r =
4 l2
1 4
(B) r = – E
3 3
4 l1
(C) r =
3 –2E
2
(D) r =
3
–3E
28. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is – 3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies
are, respectively :
(A) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV (B) – 3.4 eV, – 3.4 eV (C) – 3.4 eV, – 6.8 eV (D) 3.4 eV, – 6.8 eV
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 The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is – 3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies
are, respectively :
(A) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV (B) – 3.4 eV, – 3.4 eV (C) – 3.4 eV, – 6.8 eV (D) 3.4 eV, – 6.8 eV
29. ) In hydrogen atom an electron makes a transition from 5th orbit to 3rd orbit. The change in the
angular momentum for this electron is ......
h h 3h 5h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
p 2p p p
30. In experiment of photoelectric effect width of slit is equal to de-Broglie wavelength. Beam of light is
incident normal to plane and by using detector D it is detected. Which of the following best represent
number of electron (N) and position of detector (y) ?
Y

d
(A)
N Screen
d y=0

Y
D
d
(B)
N

d
(C)
N

d
(D)
N

31. An a-particle and proton are accelerated from rest under potential difference of 200 V. Find ratio of

æ lp ö
their de-Broglie wavelength ç ?
è la ÷ø
1 1
(A) 2 (B) 2 2 (C) (D)
2 2
32. ) How much is the de-Broglie wavelength for an electron accelerated by an 100 V potential difference ?
(A) 0.123 nm (B) 123 nm (C) 12.3 nm (D) 0.123 cm
33. Consider sunlight incident on a pinhole of width 103 Å. The image of the pinhole seen on a screen
shall be
(A) a sharp white ring.
(B) different from a geometrical image
(C) a diffused central spot, white in colour.
(D) diffused coloured region around a sharp central white spot.
34. In Young’s experiment if mica disc of thickness t and refractive index m is placed in the path of one
ray coming out of slit, fringes will move ...... distance on the screen.
d D d D
(A) (m – 1)t (B) (m – 1)t (C) (m – 1)D (D) (m – 1)
D d d
35. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world, contained in a circular horizon. If the
4
refractive index of water is and the fish is 12 cm below the water surface, the radius of this circle
3
(in cm) is ...... Wish You - All The Best
36
(A) 36 2 (B) 4 5 (C) 36 7 (D)
7
 A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world, contained in a circular horizon. If the
4
refractive index of water is and the fish is 12 cm below the water surface, the radius of this circle
3
(in cm) is ......
36
(A) 36 2 (B) 4 5 (C) 36 7 (D)
7
36. Which of the following colors pass through the prism ?
mB = 1.49, mG = 1.41, mR = 1.27
(A) All three
(B) Blue Blue
Green
(C) Red
Red
(D) Green

37. Which of following are not electromagentic waves ?

(A) X-rays (B) Gamma rays (C) Cathode rays (D) Infrared rays
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38. Given magnetic field equation is B = 3 ´ 10–8 sin[wt – kx + f] j then appropriate equation for electric
ic
®
field ( E ) will be ......
^ ^
(A) 3 ´ 10–9 sin(wt – kx + f) k (B) 9 sin(wt – kx + f) k
^ ^
(C) 16 ´ 10–9 sin(wt – kx + f) k (D) 20 ´ 10–9 sin(wt – kx + f) k
39. Current of 50/p Hz frequency is passing through an A.C. circuit having series combination of
resistance R = 100W and inductor L = 3 H. The phase difference between the voltage and current
is .....
(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°
40. A light bulb and an open coil inductor are connected to an ac source through a key as shown in
figure. The switch is closed and after some time, an iron rod is inserted in to the interior of the
inductor. The glow of the light bulb ...... .
(A) increase
(B) unchanged
(C) decrease
D) increase and decrease

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 KEYSTONE UNIVERSE OF EDUCATION

12TH CHEM GUJCET PAPER-5

Class 12 - Chemistry
Time Allowed: 1 hour Maximum Marks: 40

41
. The depression in freezing point for 1M urea, 1 M glucose and 1 M NaCl are in the ratio of [1]

a) 1:1:2 b) 3:2:2

c) 1:1:1 d) 1:2:3
[1]
42 Which of the following colligative property is used to find the molar mass of proteins?
a) Osmotic pressure b) RLVP

c) Elevation in boiling point d) Depression in freezing point

43
. 0.1 M solution of urea, at a given temperature, is isotonic with: [1]

a) 0.1 M glucose solution b) 0.1 M BaCl2 solution

c) 0.1 M NaCl solution d) 0.02 M KCl solution

44
. Which among the following form nearly ideal solutions? [1]

a) Chloroform and benzene b) Benzene and Toluene

c) Alcohol and water d) Acetone and aniline

45
. Which of the following is correct for spontaneity of a cell? [1]

a) ΔG = +ve, Eo = -ve b) Δ G = +ve, Eo = 0

c) ΔG = -ve, Eo = +ve d) Δ G = -ve, Eo = 0

46
. Solutions of two electrolytes X and Y are diluted. Molar conductivity of X increases 25 times whereas that of Y [1]
increases 1.5 times. Which one is a stronger electrolyte?

a) X b) None of the above

c) Both X and Y d) Y
47
. Consider the following standard electrode potential values: [1]
3+ − 2+ ∘
Fe (aq)
+ e → Fe (aq)
E = +0.77 V

− + − 2+ ∘
MnO + 8H + 5e → Mn + 4H2 O(l) E = +1.51 V
4 (aq) (aq)

What is the cell potential for the redox reaction?

a) -2.28 V b) +2.28 V

c) +0.74 V d) -0.74 V
48
. What is the molar conductance at infinite dilution for sodium chloride if the molar conductance at infinite [1]

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 dilution of Na+ and Cl- ions are 51.12 × 10-4 S cm2/mol and 73.54 × 10-4 Scm2/mol respectively?

a) 198.20 S cm2/mol b) 175.78 S cm2/mol

c) 22.42 S cm2/mol d) 124.66 S cm2/mol

49
. In the presence of a catalyst, the activation energy of a reaction is lowered by 2 kcal at 27°C. The rate of reaction [1]
will increase by

a) 20 times b) 28 times

c) 14 times d) 2 times
50. In a chemical reaction X → Y, it is found that the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of X is [1]
increased four times. The order of the reaction with respect to X is

a) 1

2
b) 2

c) 1 d) 0

51. The reaction 2A → B is first order in A with a rate constant of 2.8 determining 10–2s–1. How long will it take [1]
for A to decrease from 0.88 M to 0.14 M?

a) 76 s b) 44 s

c) 66 s d) 50 s
52. For the reaction A → products, at [A] = 0.4 M , t1/2 = 24 s and at [A] = 0.2 M , t1/2 = 12 s . The unit [1]
for the rate constant is

a) S-2 b) mol L-1s-1

c) L2/mol2/s d) S–1

53. Lanthanoid contraction is a caused due to: [1]

a) Poor shielding effect of 4f electron b) Effective nuclear charge

c) Size of 4f orbitals d) Atomic number

54. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI, iodide ion is [1]
oxidised to:

a) IO −
3
b) IO-

c) I2 d) IO
−
4

55. Haemoglobin and chlorophyll contain: [1]

a) Fe and Mg b) Fe and Mn

c) Fe and Co d) Mg and Fe
56. Out of the following transition elements, the maximum number of oxidation states are shown by [1]

a) Mn (Z = 25) b) Sc (Z = 21)

c) Cr (Z = 24) d) Fe (Z = 26)
57. The formula of the coordination compound Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is [1]

a) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]CI2 b) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)CI]CI2

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 c) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl3 d) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]CI

58. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by the given complex? [1]

[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

a) Coordination isomerism b) Geometrical isomerism

c) Ionisation isomerism d) Optical isomerism

59. Which of the following is a polydentate ligand? [1]

a) C 2 O4
2−
b) EDTA4-

c) NH3 d) H2N - CH2 - CH2 - NH2

60. Lithium tetrahydridoaluminate is represented as: [1]

a) Al2[LiH4]3 b) Li[AlH4]2

c) Al[ LiH4] d) Lithium tetrahydridoaluminate is

represented as: Li[AlH4]

61. Inversion of configuration occurs in [1]

a) SN1 as well as SN2 reaction b) SN1 reaction

c) Neither SN2 nor SN1 reaction d) SN2 reaction

62. Benzylic halides contains: [1]

a) sp3-hybridized carbon atom, next to an b) sp2-hybridized carbon atom next to an

aromatic ring bonded to a halogen. aromatic ring.

c) sp3-hybridized carbon atom next to carbon- d) a halogen atom bonded to an alkyl group.
carbon double bond.
63. When a haloalkane with β – hydrogen atom is heated with alcoholic solution of potassium hydroxide then: [1]

a) All of these b) elimination of halogen atom from α –

carbon

c) elimination of hydrogen atom from β– d) alkene is formed as a product

carbon
64. Major product formed in the following reaction [1]
CH3

CH3 − C − Br + NaOCH3 →
|

CH3

a) CH3

|
b) CH3

CH3 − C = CH2 CH3 − C − ONa

|

CH3

c) CH3

|
CH3

|
d) CH3

CH3 − C − O − C − CH3 CH3 − C − OCH3

| | |

CH3 CH3 CH3

65. Alcoholic compounds react: [1]

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 a) only as nucleophiles. b) both as nucleophiles and electrophiles.

c) only as electrophiles. d) None of these

66. The compounds that is most difficult to protonate is: [1]

a) b)

c) d)

67. In the reaction [1]

a) Phenols are acidic in nature. b) They can donate a proton to a stronger base

c) Cleavage of O - H bond d) All of these

68. Aspirin is obtained by the acetylation of which of the following compounds? [1]

a) Acetyl salicylic acid b) Salicylaldehyde

c) Salicylic acid d) Phenol

69. One mole of a symmetrical alkane on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular mass of [1]
44u. The alkene is:

a) 1 – butene b) 2 – butene

c) Propene d) Ethene
70. Give the products of the reaction [1]
+ 2+
H3 O ,H g

P hC ≡ C M e −−−−−−−→?

a) PhCH2CH2CHO b) PhCOCH2CH3

c) PhCOCOMe d) PhCH2COCH3

71. For making a distinction between 2 – pentanone and 3 – pentanone the reagent to be employed is: [1]

a) K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4 b) SeO2

c) Zn – Hg/HCl d) Iodine/NaOH
72. Which of the following does not give Cannizaro reaction? [1]

a) (CH3)3 C - CHO b) (CH3)2 CH - CHO

c) HCHO d)

73. Which of the following reagents would not be a good choice for reducing an aryl nitro compound to an amine? [1]

a) Fe and HCl b) LiAlH4 in ether

c) Sn and HCl d) H2 (excess)/Pt

74. Reaction of nitrous acid with aliphatic primary amine in cold acidic solution gives: [1]

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 a) A diazonium salt b) A nitrite

c) A dye d) An alcohol
75. Hoffmann Bromamide Degradation reaction is given by: [1]

a) b)

c) CH3 - C ≡ N d) O

||

C H3 − C H2 − C − N H2

76. Among the following, which has the highest value of pKb? [1]

a) b)

c) d)

77. In disaccharides, if the reducing groups of monosaccharides i.e. aldehydic or ketonic groups are bonded, these [1]
are non-reducing sugars. Which of the following disaccharide is a non-reducing sugar?

a) b)

c) d)

78. Maltose is made of: [1]

a) ∝ -D-glucose b) ∝ - D-glucose and β - D -glucose

c) Glucose and fructose d) D-fructose

79. The vitamins are generally stored in the body in the [1]

a) abdomen b) muscles

c) liver and adipose tissue d) pancreas

80. In the ring structure of glucose, the anomeric carbon is: [1]

a) C-4 b) C-3

c) C-1 d) C-2

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81. Remnants of nucellus are persistent during seed development in:
a) pea b) groundnut c) wheat d) black pepper
82. The wall layer of microsporangium which nourishes the pollen grain is:
a) epidermis b) endothecium c) middle layers d) tapetum
83. Which one of the following is WRONGLY matched?
(a) Transcription – Writing information from DNA to t-RNA
(b) Translation – Using information in m-RNA to make protein
(c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis
(d) Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter
84. Study the given diagram and choose the correct option against ‘A’ and ‘B’

a) A-Egg apparatus; B-Polar body b) A-Antipodals; B-Egg apparatus

c) A-Synergids; B- Egg apparatus d) A-Central cell; B-Antipodals
85. Which of the following statements about Untranslated regions is/are true?
I. present on rRNA
II. present on mRNA at 3’ position only
III. present on mRNA at 5’ position only
IV. present on mRNA at both 3’ and 5’position
V. not required in translation process.
VI. Required for efficient translation process.
a) I only b) II and V c) III and VI d) IV and VI
86. Which of the following statements regarding sex determination are true?
In addition to autosomes –
I. Male grass hoppers have one less sex chromosome than females.
II. Male birds have one more sex chromosome than female.
III. Number of sex chromosomes is equal in male and female birds.
IV. Male grass hoppers have one additional sex chromosome than females.
V. Male and female grass hoppers have the same number of sex chromosomes.
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and IV d) III and V
87. What is the smallest part of a DNA molecule that can be changed by a point mutation?
a) Oligonucleotide b) Codon c) Gene d) Nucleotide
88. When both the parents are of blood group AB, children would be of blood group
(a) A, B, AB and O (b) A, B and AB (c) A and B (d) A, AB and O
89. Which of the following techniques serves the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease?
a) Recombinant DNA Technology, Serum Analysis, ELISA
b) Urine analysis, Serum Analysis, ELISA
c) Recombinant DNA Technology, PCR, ELISA
d) PCR, Serum Analysis, Urine analysis
90. The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because
(a) one organism has given rise to another (b) they share a common ancestor
(c) they perform the same function. (d) the have biochemical similarities.
91. The diagrammatic representation of the operation of natural selection of different traits is shown
below. Identify (i), (ii) and (iii).

(a) i – Stabilizing; ii – Disruptive; iii – Directional (b) i – Directional; ii – Disruptive; iii – Stabilizing
(c) i – Stabilizing; ii – Directional; iii – Disruptive (d) i – Directional; ii – Stabilizing; iii – Disruptive
92. What percentage of the human genome actually codes for proteins?
(a) less tha12% (b) less than 20% (c) less than 2% (d) less than 30
93. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.

a) A. DNA, B. H1 histone, C. Histone octamer b) A. Histone octamer, B. DNA, C.H1 histone

c) A. DNA, B. Histone octamer, C. H1 histone d) A. Histone octamer, B. H1 histone, C. DNA
94. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of
(a) Hershey and Chase (b) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
(c) Hargobind Khorana (d) Griffith.
95. After about how many years of formation of earth, life appeared on this planet?
(a) 50 million years (b) 500 million years (c) 50 billion years (d) 500 billion years
96. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
(a) Australopithecus Ramapithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus
(b) Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus
(c) Ramapithecus Homo habilis Australopithecus Homo erectus
(d) Australopithecus Homo habilis Ramapithecus Homo erectus
97. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with
short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a
lumbering gait and stooped posture was
(a) Homo habilis (b) Neanderthal human (c) Cromagnon human (d) Ramapithecus
98. Adaptive radiation refers to
(a) evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(b) migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
(c) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
(d) adaptations due to geographical isolation
 99. Which of the following vector-borne diseases are caused by Aedes mosquitoes?
(a) Ascariasis and Filariases (b) Malaria and Sleeping sickness
(c) Dengue and Chikungunya (d) Kala azar and Filariasis
100. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro-organisms in human
body?
(a) Tears (b) Monocytes (c) Skin (d) PMNL-neutrophils
101. Breeding of crops to increase the levels of essential nutrients, is called
(a) biofortification. (b) biomagnification. (c) bioinformatics. (d) biotechnology.
102. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to
(a) three ‘X’ chromosomes (b) three copies of chromosome 21
(c) monosomy (d) two ‘Y’ chromosomes
103. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(a) physical process (b) mechanical process (c) chemical process (d) biological process
104. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of
(a) Ligases (b) Restriction enzymes (c) Probes (d) Selectable markers
105. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualized after staining with
(a) Acetocarmine (b) anilineblue (c) ethidiumbromide (d) bromophenolblue
106. Smack and Crack are produced from
(a) Cannabis sativa and Papaver somniferum (b) Cannabis sativa and Atropa belladonna
(c) Erythroxylon coca and Atropa belladonna (d) Papaver somniferum and Erythroxylum coca
107. Swiss cheese is ripened by
(a)Propionibacterium shermanii (b) Fungi
(c) Yeast (d) Trichoderma
108. Monascuspurpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of
(a) ethanol
(b) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
(c) citric acid
(d) blood cholesterol lowering statins.
109. A tumor inducing plasmid widely used in the production of transgenic plants is that of
(a) Escherichia coli (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
110. Which of the following steps are catalyzed by Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(a)Denaturation of template DNA.
(b)Annealing of primers to template DNA.
(c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA.
(d)All of the above
111. How does the activated Bt toxin kill the insect?
(a) The Bt toxin kills by inactivating the cellular enzyme essential for life processes.
(b)Bt toxin kills by binding to the epithelial cells present in the midgut which creates pores
that cause cell swelling and lysis.
(c) Bt toxin kills by disrupting cells cycle.
(d) Bt toxin kills by disrupting the cellular respiration machinery
112. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.
(b) It serves as a selectable marker.
(c) It is isolated from a virus.
(d) It remains active at high temperature
113. _____is based on the antigen-antibody interaction.
(a) PCR (b) Autoradiography (c) ELISA (d) RNAi
114. The patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes for treating ADA
deficiency, as
(a) enzymes cannot be transferred to patients through vectors.
(b) genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal.
(c) lymphocytes cannot be cultured in laboratory.
(d) RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotes.
115. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the
concerned country and its people is called
(a) Biodegradation (b) Biopiracy (c) Bio-infringement (d) Bioexploitation
116. α1-antitrypsin is
(a) an antacid (b) an enzyme
(c) used to treat arthritis (d) used to treat emphysema
117. E. coli bacteria grew in 15NH4Cl medium for several generations are allowed to grow in 14NH4Cl
medium. After 2generations, the bacteria centrifuged in CsCl. The result of the density gradient of DNA
is
(a) only hybrid DNA
(b) both hybrid and heavy DNA
(c) both heavy and light DNA
(d) both hybrid and light DNA
118. Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production
of antibiotics?
(a) Parasitism (b) Mutualism
(c) Commensalism (d) Amensalism
119. When a particular species and its related species face extinction, the phenomenon is known As:
(a) Co-invasion (b) Co-extinction (c) Over-exploitation (d) Fragmentation
120. Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?
(a) Mango (b) Wheat (c) Groundnut (d) Rice