P (1) (2) d θ θ I 45° 90° 90° P r (1) (2) : Physics: Hints and Solutions
P (1) (2) d θ θ I 45° 90° 90° P r (1) (2) : Physics: Hints and Solutions
P (1) (2) d θ θ I 45° 90° 90° P r (1) (2) : Physics: Hints and Solutions
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Physics : Hints and Solutions
Pre-Medical
Magnetic field due to wire (3) :- 11. Direction of magnetic fields at point A and C is
opposite but having same magnitude so magnetic
µ I µ I
B3 = 0 ( sin 0° + sin 90° ) = 0 field at these points is zero.
4πd 4πd
(2)
Magnetic field due to wire (4)
µ I µ I
I
B4 = 0 ( sin 0° + sin 90° ) = 0 B A
4πd 4πd O I
Net magnetic field at point ‘O’ due to wire (3) a (1)
and (4)
C D
µ0 I µ0 I µ0 I
B0 = B3 + B4 = + =
4πd 4πd 2πd a
9. Magnetic field due to wire (1) & (2) is zero, 12. B1 = B2 = B3 = B4 = B (say)
because point P lies on the axis of these wires Resultant magnetic field
P BA
i 2i A B
d d P
13.(a)
5I (6–x) x 2I
B = (B2 − B1 ) BB
µ (2i) µ0 i Suppose magnetic field at the distance x from 'B'
∴B= 0 − is zero so at that point magnetic field due to
2πd 2πd wires A and B will be equal in magnitude.
µ0 i BA = BB
= = B .........(1)
2πd
µ0 (5I) µ (2I)
After switching off 2i current, magnetic field = 0
remain due to wire (1) only :- 2π(6 − x) 2πx
µ i 5 1 12
B1 = 0 = B ⊗ [from (1)] = ; x= cm
2πd 2(6 − x) x 7
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a/2
BA (b) tan45°= (3)
A B d S R
(b) × x P
d=
a
(4)
5I 2I 2 tan 45°
6+x BB I O
(2)
a
When current is in opposite direction the = 45° 45°
2 d
magnetic field will not be zero between wires A P Q
( B1 = B2 = B3 = B4
and B. Suppose it is zero at point 'P' then a/2 M a/2
BA = BB = B = magnetic (1)
a
µ0 (5I) µ (2I) field at ‘O’ due to
= 0
2π(6 + x) 2πx
each side)
5 1
= ; x = 4 cm µ0 I
2(6 + x) x B= (sin 45° + sin 45°)
4π(a / 2)
a/2
14. (a) tan60°=
d µ0 I 1 1 2 µ0 I
B= + =
R 4π(a / 2) 2 2 2πa
B4 = B1 + B2 + B3 + B4 = 4B
(1) 2 µ0 I 2 2 µ0 I
(2) ∴ B4=4B=4= =
2πa πa
O
OR
60° 60°
d I Use polygon result, put n = 4
P Q
a/2 M a/2(3) (c) tan30°=
a/2
a d
a a T S
d= =
2 tan 60° 2 3
( B1 = B2 = B3 = B = magnetic field at ‘O’ due U O R
to each side)
30° 30°
µ I P Q
B = 0 (sinθ1 + sinθ2)
4πd a
µ0 I
B= (sin60° + sin60°) a 3a
4π(a / 2 3) d= =
2 tan 30° 2
µ0 I 3 3 3
= + (B1 = B2 = B3 = B4 = B5 = B6 = B = magnetic
2πa 2 2
3µ0 I field at O due to each side)
= µ0 I
2πa B= (sin 30° + sin 30°)
B3 = B1 + B2 + B3 = 3B 3a
4π
3µ I 9µ I 2
∴ B3 = 3B = 3 0 = 0
2πa 2πa µ0 I1 1 µ0 I
OR
B= 2 + 2 =
2 3 πa 2 3πa
µ I π π
Bn = n 0 tan sin B6 = B1 + B2 + B3 + B4 + B5 + B6 = 6B
πa n n
µ0 I 3 µ0 I
n=3 B6 = 6 =
2 3 πa πa
3µ I π π 9 µ0 I
B = 0 tan sin =
πa 3
3
2 πa OR
Use polygon result, put n = 6
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Physics : Hints and Solutions
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BEGINNER'S BOX - 2 4. Case I :- Current in same direction
1. Current and number of turns are equal for both
µ0 NI µ0 NI
coils, so Bi = +
B R 2R1 2R2
1 r/2 1
B0 ∝ ⇒ 1 = 2 = =
R B2 R1 r 2
R2 I
2. Magnetic field at centre of coil (N=1)
µ I O I
Bo = 0 ....... (1) R1
2R
From = 2πR put R = in equation (1)
2π
µ0 I µ Iπ µ0 NI 1 1
B0 = = 0 = +
2( / 2π) 2 R1 R2
4π × 10−7 × 3.14 × 3.14 –6 µ0 NI R2 + R1
B= = 2 × 10 T = ------ (1)
6.28 2 R1 R2
3. (I = constant = constant)
Case II :- Current in opposite direction
µ0 NI
B0 = N (2πR) = µ0 NI µ NI
2R Bii = − 0
2R1 2R2
NR = = constant
2π
N 1 R2 I
B0 ∝ ----- (1) N∝ ------ (2)
R R O I
From (1) & (2)
R1
When N given...... B ∝ N2
µ0 NI 1 1
= −
1 2 R1 R2
When R given.... B∝
R2
µ0 NI R2 − R1
According to this question N is given. = ------ (2)
2 2 R1 R2
B 1
= ; B' = 9B ; field becomes 9 times
B' 3 From (1) & (2)
OR Bi R + R1 30 + 10 2
µ I = 2 = =
B0 = 0 ...(i) Bii R2 − R1 30 − 10 1
2R
5. Magnetic field at centre is zero
µ NI
B '0 = 0 B1 = B2
2r
µ0 N1 I1 µ0 N2 I2 (2) (1)
∴ N × 2πr = 2πR =
2R1 2R2 O
R
R1 R2
r= Given that
N
(I1 = I2, N1 : N2 = n1 : n2,
µ0 NI.N
∴ B '0 = R1 : R2 = 2 : 1)
2.R
N1 I R
µ I = 2 × 1
B '0 = N2 0 , N2 R 2 I1
2R
n1 R1
⇒ = ( I1 = I2)
B '0 = N2 B 0 n2 R2
here N = 3
n1 2
=
∴ B '0 = 9B0 n2 1
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6. (i) (a) Magnetic field due to straight parts is zero (b) Point 'O' is located on the extended axis of
because point 'O' lies on their extended axis. straight parts so magnetic field at ‘O’ will be
Magnetic field due to circular arc at point 'O' :- zero.
µ Iα For circular arc (1):-
B0 = 0 (Where α = π ) ;
4πR I (2)
µ0 I( π) µ0 I
B0 = = ⊗ (1) 2R
4πR 4R
R
I R O
O B1 =
µ0 I( π) µ0 I
=
4πR 4R
(b) Magnetic field due to straight wire (1) and (3):-
For circular arc (2):-
µ0 I
B1 = (sin 0° + sin 90°) µ0 I( π) µ0 I
4πR B2 = = ⊗
4R(2R) 8R
µ0 I
B3 = (sin 0° + sin 90°) ⊗ So net magnetic field at point 'O' :-
4πR
µ I µ I µ I
Magnetic field due to circular arc (2) B0 = B3 – B4 = 0 – 0 = 0
4R 8R 8R
µ 0 Iα
B2 = , (iii) (a) Magnetic field at 'O' due to straight wire :-
4πR
(1) (3) µ0 I µ I
(where α = π/2) I Bwire = and Bloop = 0
2πR 2R
µ0 I( π 2) µ0 I (2) R
B2 = = ⊗ So net magnetic field at point 'O' :-
4πR 8R 90° B0 = Bwire+ Bloop
So net magnetic field R O
at point 'O' :-
B0 = (B1 – B3) + B2 R O
µ0 I
B0 = ⊗ I
8R
(ii) (a) Point 'O' is located on the extended axis of µ0 I µ0 I µ0 I 1
B0 = + = +1
straight parts so their magnetic field at 'O' will be 2πR 2R 2R π
zero. Magnetic field due to circular arc :- (b) Due to both straight wire B is in same
µ Iα direction
B= 0 µ0 I µ0 I
4πR Bwire= B1 += B2 B1 = ,B2
4πR 4πR
(2)
µ I
2R Bwire= 0
2πR
O
3
R
(1)
R O
For arc (1) :-
µ 0 Iπ µ 0 I i
B1 = = ( α = π) 1 2
4πR 4R
µ0 I
For arc (2) :- and Bloop = ⊗
2R
µ 0 Iπ µ I
B2 = = 0 ( α=π) So net magnetic field at point 'O':-
4R(2R) 8R
B0 = Bloop – Bwire( Bloop> Bwire)
So net magnetic field at point 'O' :-
µ0 I µ0 I µ0 I 1
µ0 I µ0 I 3 µ0 I = = – 1 – ⊗
B0 = B1 + B2 = + = 2R 2πR 2R π
4R 8R 8 R
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(iv)(a) Due to wire (1) and (2) magnetic field at 'O' is in So net magnetic field at point 'O' :-
same direction so µ0 I 3µ0 I
B0 = B1 + B2 = +
(1) 4πR 8R
I
I R (3) =
µ0 I 2
+ 3
8R π
(2) (b) Point 'O' is located on the extended axis of
µ0 I µ I straight parts (4) and (6), so B4=B6=0
B1 = (sin 0° + sin 90°) = 0 = B2 ⊗
4πR 4πR Magnitude and direction of magnetic field at 'O'
due to wire (1) and (3) is same so
Magnetic field due to circular arc:-
µ I µ I
µ I( π) µ I B1 = 0 (sin0° + sin90°) = 0 =B3
B3 = 0 = 0 ⊗ 4πR 4πR
4πR 4R
Due to circular arc (2) and (5) magnetic field at
So net magnetic field at point 'O' :-
'O'
B0 = (B1 + B2 + B3) ⊗ circular arc (2) and (5) is same so :-
µ0 I µ I µ I µ0 I µ0 I I
B0 = + 0 + 0 = + (2)
4πR 4πR 4R 2πR 4R (1)
µ0 I 1 1 R O (6)
= + ⊗
2R π 2 R
(b) Due to wire (1) and (2) direction and (5)
magnitude of field at 'O' is same
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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B1 = B2=0 B
Magnetic field due to circular arcs (3) and (4) I1
µ Iα
B3 = 0 and I O
4πR A C
r
I (4)
I2 D
I(R2 ) 10 2I
I1 = = I =
(R1 + R2 ) 15 3
(1) (2)
IR1 I
(3) I2 = =
R1 + R 2 3
2R
∴ Net magnetic field at the centre :-
60° R
µ µ 2I I µ0 I
(B0)net 0 = (I1 – I2) = 0 – = ⊗
O 4r 4r 3 3 12r
9. Decrease in field value with respect to centre
µ 0 Iα
B4 = ⊗, ∆Bx = B0 – Bx
4π(2R)
π I
(where α = ) x
3
So net magnetic field at point 'O' :-
B0 BX
µ0 I( π 3) 1 µ I
B0 = (B3 – B4) = 1– = 0
4πR 2 24R
3 x2
7. Magnetic field at 'O' due to circular arc (2) and (3) = B0 – B0 1 −
is same in magnitude but direction is opposite. 2 R2
So their net magnetic field is zero.
3 x2
= B0 .
(1) 5A 2 R2
R Fractional decrease in field value (Where x <<< R)
(2) (3)
O
∆B x 3 x2
R = (limit < 5%)
B0 2 R2
(4) 5A
1 3 x2 R
Due to straight parts (1) and (4) magnitude and ⇒ = ⇒x = ±
100 2 R2 150
direction of magnetic field is same at 'O' so
µ I
BEGINNER'S BOX - 3
B1 = 0 (sin0° + sin90°) =B4 1. Field inside the conductor
4πR
µ Ir R
net magnetic field at point 'O' :- Bin = 0 , where r =
2 2
µ I 2π R
B0 = B1 + B4 = 0 µ0 I(R / 2) µ0 I
2πR = = ... (1)
2 4πR
µ0 (5) 50µ0 2π R
= = T
2π × 5 × 10 –2 π Field outside the conductor :-
= 2 × 10–5 T µ0 I
Bout = , where r = 2R
8. Magnetic field at the centre due to arc ABC and 2π r
ADC :-
µ0 I µ I
µ I µ I = = 0 ... (2)
BABC = 0 1 ⊗ , BADC= 0 2 2π ( 2R ) 4πR
4r 4r
Both arc are connected in parallel with source, From (1) & (2)
so V= IR = constant
Bin 1
=
Bout 1
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2. Field outside the conductor 5. (a) Magnetic field inside the conductor :-
µ I µ0 Ir µ0 r I
5 × 10–6 = 0 , where r = 2R Bin = =
2 2 πR2
2πr 2πR
µ0 I µ0 r I
5 × 10–6 = …
.. (1) = (J), (Where J= current density)
2π(2R) 2 πR2
4π × 10 –7 × 2 × 10 –3 × 100
I =
2
–8
= 4π × 10 T
O 2R
R 2R (b) Magnetic field outside the conductor :-
P 3 µ0 I I
Bout = [ J = ⇒ I = J(πR2)]
2πr πR2
Field inside the conductor :- µ0 J( πR2 ) µ JR2
µ0 I r R 2R = = 0
Bp = , where r = R − = 2πr 2r
2 3 3
2π R
4π × 10 –7 × 100 × (3 ×10 –3 )2
µ I ( 2R / 3 ) 1 µ0 I 1 20 =
= 0 = = (20)×10–6= µT 2 × 4 × 10 –3
2 3 πR 3 3
2πR
3. Field inside cross- section of 9π
= × 10–8 T
conductor 2
b
I BEGINNER'S BOX - 4
r 2. Magnetic field at axial mid point of solenoid X
O
and Y:–
a
N
B = µ0nI where n =
µ0 I r 2 − a2 Magnetic field at axial mid point of new solenoid
Bp =
2πr b2 − a2 2N
B' = µ0n'I, (where n' = = n) = µ0nI = B
2
[a=R, b=2R, r = 3R/2] 3. As the solenoids are identical, the currents in Q
µ0 I ( 3R / 2 ) − ( R )
2 2 and R will be same and will be half the current in
5 µ0 I
= = .
3R ( 2R )2 − ( R )2 36 πR P. The magnetic field within a solenoid is given
2π
2 by B = µ0nI. Hence the field in Q will be equal to
4. Magnetic field at surface of conductor :-
the field in ‘R’ and will be half the field in ‘P’ i.e.
µ I
BS = 0 = B will be 1.0T.
2πR
BEGINNER'S BOX - 5
Inside conductor distance r from centre :-
1. Magnetic force on moving charge :-
µ0 Ir
µ I r
Bin = = 0 Here :-
2πR 2 2πR R
⇒ v||B
r ⇒ θ = 0°
∴ B in = B S
R Fm = qvBsinθ
Bin 1 ∴ Fm = 0
= , (BS = B)
B 2 2. Velocity of charge is perpendicular to the
B magnetic field so magnetic
Bin =
2 force on charge :-
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y-axis Type Concept rp : rd : r
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2πm m 11. Time period of circular motion of charge does
8. (a) T = ⇒T∝
qB q not depends on angle of projection with the field
mp 2mp 4mp direction so when angle of projection is 60° then
⇒ TP : Td : Tα = : : time period remains same.
e e 2e 12.
=1:2 :2 (a) E = 0, B = 0 ⇒ Fnet = 0 (always)
qB q
(b) f = ⇒ f∝ (b) E = 0, B ≠ 0 ⇒ Fnet = 0 (may be when v ||
2πm m
B or v anti || B )
e e 2e
⇒ fp : fd : fα = : : (c) E ≠ 0,B ≠ 0 ⇒ Fnet = 0 (may be when
mp 2mp 4mp
Fe = −Fm )
1 1
:
=1:
2 2 (d) E ≠ 0, B = 0 ⇒ Fnet = Fe ≠ 0 (always non zero)
=2:1 : 1 So possible conditions of electric and magnetic
qB q field for zero net force on moving charge are (a),
(c) ω = ⇒ ω∝
m m (b) and (c)
e e 2e
⇒ ωp : ωd : ωα= : : 13. v = Constant
mp 2mp 4mp
|a | = 0
1 1
=1: : | Fnet |= 0 In condition (a), (b), (c) net force
2 2
=2: 1:1 on a moving charge may be zero but in (d)
9. Radius of helical path Fnet ≠ 0 , a ≠0 ⇒ v ≠ constant (always)
mv sin θ 14. In (a),(b),(c) charge may moves along straight line
r=
qB with constant speed (as v = may be constant)
v In (d) if charge is projected with parallel to
electric field (v||E) or anti parallel ( v anti|| E )
then it moves along on straight line with
60° accelerated motion (speed↑) or retarded
B
(q,m) motion (speed↓)
E≠ 0
1.67 × 10−27 × 4 × 105 × 3 / 2
→
= = 1.2 cm
1.6 × 10−19 × 0.3 ⊕ v (θ = 0°) (speed ↑) ( v || E )
Pitch of helical path :- Fe
2πm
Fe (θ = 180°) (speed ↓) ( v anti||E )
p = (v cosθ)T, [where T =
qB
] v ⊕
15. (a), (b), (c)⇒ Speed may be constant
4 × 105 × cos 60° × 2 × 3.14 × 1.67 × 10−27
≈ 4.35cm
1.6 × 10−19 × 0.3 (d) ⇒ Speed never be constant
10. Radius of helical path
16. v ⊥ B , so apply right hand palm rule to find
y-axis
B v out direction of magnetic force. Hence cosmic
particles deflected towards east.
θ
60° x-axis B N
(+e,mp)
mv sin θ v
r= , where θ = (90°–60°) = 30° W E
qB Fm
1.67 × 10−27 × 2 × 106 × sin 30°
= = 0.1m
1.6 × 10−19 × 0.104 S
Time period of proton
OR
2π m 2 × 3.14 × 1.67 × 10 −27
–7
Fm → (v × B)
T= = =6.28×10 s
qB 1.6 ×10−19 × 0.104 Fm → ( −kˆ × ˆj) =ˆi east
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17. Sense of path gives an idea of direction of B N
magnetic force (i.e. centripetal force), along +y–
direction. Now direction of external magnetic v B[vt.downwards]
field can be find out by right hand palm rule. W E
+
Hence magnetic field direction along +z–direction. Fm e Fe E
y-axis
S
B
(ACW in xy plane)
Fm Fe = −Fm ⇒| Fnet |=0,| a |=0⇒ v = constant
Fm Now right hand palm rule gives the direction of
OR magnetic field in that region.
e– v e– v →
x-axis 21. Fm = ± q (v × B)
Therefore direction of magnetic field is given by
Fm ⇒ + ( k̂ × î ) = + ĵ , ⇒ along + y direction
right hand palm rule.
OR 22. According to right hand palm rule electron beam
will be deflected upwards.
Fm → (v × B)
ˆ (to obtain the direction of magnetic
ˆj → −(iˆ × k) Bwire
force along y-axis, magnetic field should be 90° V
vertically upwards. i.e. along z-axis. I
18. Nature of both type of rays are unlike and they Fm e–beam
are moving in opposite direction in same OR
transverse field so they are deflected in same
Fm → (v × B)
direction according to
Fm → −( −ˆi × ˆj) =kˆ (vertically upwards)
Cathode Positive
rays rays
→
E≠0
23.
B≠0
→
Anode Cathode ⊕ → Fe
v = 0 at t = 0
Due to electric force charge moves along straight
Discharge tube line and parallel to the magnetic field (v||B) .
So no magnetic force exerts on it during motion.
Fm = ± q( v × B ) or right hand palm rule. BEGINNER'S BOX - 6
19. According to right hand palm rule positive
1. Magnetic field produced by solenoid is along its
charges moves on ACW circular path in ⊗ B and axis so magnetic force on conductor given as
negative charges moves on CW circular path in Fm = BIL sinθ=(2.5 × 10–2) (5) (5 × 10–2) sin 30°
= 31.2 × 10–4 N
⊗ B so the path shown in figure is of electron
2. L and B both are perpendicular to each other,
(negative charge) so magnetic force on wire 'LN' given
× f N
B=5T
× × ×
× × × →
L I
× × ×
×× ×
× × Where |L|=10cm
→
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3. Magnetic force on wire ABCDEF in uniform 5. Magnetic force per unit length
magnetic field given as Fm = I (L × B) , where L µ I I
fm = 0 1 2 .....(1)
is the displacement between free ends of the 2πd
conductor from initial to final point. µ (2I ) (2I2 ) 8µ0 I1I2
f'm = 0 1 = .........(2)
2π ( d 2 ) 2πd
z from (1) & (2)
f'm = 8fm = 8 × 2 × 10–3 = 16 × 10–3 N/m
6. Resultant force on '' length of wire Q
I Fnet = (ƒR – ƒP), (ƒR >ƒP)
i
→ µ (6) (4) µ0 (2) (4)
B = 0 – × 10×10–2
→ y 2π (2) 2π (2)
L
x f = 16 × 10–8 N, towards right
7. Force on 10 cm length of wire AD :-
L = () î , B = (B) ĵ A B
L⊥ B
Fm = BIL (iˆ × ˆj) 25A 15A 10cm.
ˆ = BI, along +z direction
= BI (k)
4. FPQ = I Bsinθ = IB sin90° = IB ...(1) D C
25cm
5cm
FQR = I'B sin30°
µ0 × 25 × 15 × (10 × 10−2 )
Q FAD = ....(1)
2π × 5 × 10 –2
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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where λ ⇒ mass per unit length (kg/m)
θ=120°⇒Mnet= M2 + M2 + 2MM cos120° =M
At balanced condition of wire ‘Q’ :-
µ I I
fm = W' ⇒ 0 1 2 = λg S N
2πh
[from (1) & (2)]
M M
µ0 I1I2 4π × 10−7 × 50 × 25
h= = = 3.33 mm
2πλg 2π × 0.075
9. At balanced condition of free wire :- N S
I1=100A
(fixed) (e) S M N
2cm. According to polygon rule of vector addition if all
(free) vector can be represented by sides of polygon in
i2
sequence the resultant (sum) of all vectors is zero
fm = λg so Mnet = 0
µ0 I1I2 S N
= λg
2πd N N
2πλgd (f)
I2 = (λ = 2×10–3 kg/m)
µ0 I1 S S
2 × 3.14 × 2 × 10−3 × 9.8 × 2 × 10−2 S N
=
−7
4π × 10 × 100
= 19.6 A, in free wire
BEGINNER'S BOX - 7
1. Magnetic moment of a bar magnet is a vector
quantity. So net magnetic moment of following
system of two bar magnets of magnetic moments so total magnetic moment :-
M1 and M2 respectively.
Mnet = (2M)2 + (2M)2 =
2 2M
N
2. Magnetic moment of bar magnet :–
S N
θ –m +m
S N M = m
M1
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(b) Perpendicular to its length :- 4. Magnetic field at centre of square
S N 2 2µ0 I
B= ..... (1)
A πa
/2 /2
O I
For each part :-
' =
2 a
m' = m (A' = A) Magnetic moment
Magnetic moment of each part M = Ia
2
.....(2)
M' = m(/2) M Ia2 ( πa)
=
M B 2 2µ0 I
M' =
2
πa3 B
Sp. Note :- [Divide equation (2) by (1)] M =
2 2µ0
A bar magnet of magnetic moment ‘M’ cuts into
‘n’ equal parts then magnetic moment of each 5. Magnetic moment of current carrying loop given
M as M = I A
part becomes : M' =
n
3 a2 3a2
3. If a flexible magnet of magnetic moment ‘M’ is (a) AT = ⇒ MT = I
4 4
bent into any shape then magnetic moment of
3 I2
new shape always decreases as effective length ⇒ MT = (where = 3a)
36
always decreases (but pole strength remains (b) AS = a ⇒ MS = I(a )
2 2
same) I 2
⇒ MS = (where = 4a)
16
–m +m ⇒ M=m
3 a2 3 3 a2
(c) AH = 6 ⇒ MH = I
4 2
–m
3I2
(a) /2
M' = m ( 2 ) ⇒ MC =
24
(where = 6a)
AC = πR ⇒ MC = I(πR2)
2
M' = M 2 (d)
90°
+m I 2
/2 ⇒ MC = (where = 2πR)
4π
M' = m(/2) 6. I = Constant = Constant
/2 60° /2
(b) M Magnetic moment of coil N(2πR)
+m –m M' =
/2 2 =
2π
M' = m(2R), M = NI(πR2) NR = = constant
where = πR 1
M ∝ NR2 ----(1) N∝ ------ (2)
R R
(c) M' = 2m(/π),
+m –m From (1) & (2)
R 2M 1
M' = N → given ⇒ M ∝
π N
Effective length R → given ⇒ M∝R
of system is zero
(d) O so magnetic M1 N2 2
So = = =
moment is also M2 N1 1
R zero
64
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1 τACW
7. From Q.No. (6) M ∝ ⇒ Nmin = 1 ⇒ Mmax
N
8. Magnetic moment is an axial vector and axis of
both the coils are perpendicular to each other.
So their magnetic moments also perpendicular to
τCW
each other. 60°
2 2
Mnet = (M) + (M) =
2M The torque needed to maintain the needle in this
position
BEGINNER'S BOX - 8 τACW = τCW
1. In non-uniform magnetic field. F≠0 (always) and = MB sin 60°
τ=0 (may) or τ≠0 (may) so needle may 3 MB
experiences force and torque. = ......... (2)
2
ˆi ˆj kˆ from (1) & (2)
2. τ= M × B = 50 0 0 τ= 3 W
0.5 3 0 8. τ = MB(cosθ1 – cosθ2)
= 2.5 × 0.2 (cos0° – cos180°) = 0.5 [1–(–1)] = 1J
= (0) î –(0) ĵ + (150) k̂ N–m = 150 k̂ N–m 9. τ = MB(cosθ1 – cosθ2) = NI(πR2)B(cos0° – cos90°)
3. τ = BINA = NIπR B
2
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1 Therefore T2 > T1 (always time period in
(b) From I = Ktanθ , tan θ ∝ difference combination is more than the sum
K combination of two magnets.
(I = same in series combination) 7. Time period of thin rectangular bar magnet
KA > KB I ml2
T = 2π Where I =
tanθA < tanθB ⇒ θA < θB MBH 12
I
3. Time period of bar magnet T = 2π I
MBH T∝ ........ (1) [BH → same]
M
m 2 Case I Cutted parallel to its length :-
Where I = , Moment of Inertia of bar
12 Mass → half and length → same
magnet
M=m*, magnetic moment of bar magnet
BH = Bcosθ, Horizontal component of earth
field. for each part Moment of inertia → I′ = I
2
So T does not depends on length of suspension
fibre
1 Magnetic moment → M′ = M
4. Time period of bar magnet T ∝ 2
BH T´ ∝
(I,M→ same) I/2
........(2)
Towards equator BH ↑ ⇒ T ↓ M/2
1 MB H from (1) and (2)
5. f= ; f ∝ BH ∝ B cos θ ; Time period of each part T´ = T
2π I
Special note :- If bar magnet cuts into 'n' equal
f2 parts parallel to its length then time period of
f ∝ Bcos θ ; (I, M→ same) B ∝
2
each part becomes. T´ = T
cos θ
Case - II Perpendicular to its lenth :-
B1 f12 cos θ2 20 × 20 cos 60° 16
= = =
B2 f22 cos θ1 15 × 15 cos 30° 9 3 Mass → half, length → half
I
T1 T2 from (1) and (2) Moment of inertia → I′ =
8
M
6. I M I M Magnetic moment → M′ =
2
S N S N
N N S I/8
S T´ ∝ ......... (3)
I 2M I 2M M/2
From (1) and (3)
Msystem = 2M + M = 3M Msystem = 2M–M = M
T
Isystem = 2I Isystem = 2I Time period of each part T´ =
2
I If bar magnet broken into 'n' equal parts
T = 2π Isystem → same, BH→ same)
MBH perpendicular to its length then time period of
each part becomes
1 T1 M2
T∝ ; = T
M T2 M1 T' =
n
T1 M T 1
= = ; 1
T2 3M T2 3
OR BEGINNER'S BOX - 11
I1 + I2 Baxis 2KM / d3 2
In sum combination T1 = 2π 1. − −
(M1 + M2 )BH Beq. KM / d3 1
In difference combination µ 2M µ0 M
2. Baxis = Beq. ⇒ 0 =
I1 + I2 4π x3 4π y3
T2 = 2π
(M1 − M2 )BH
2 1 x3 2 x
= ⇒ = ⇒ = 21/3
3 3 3 1 y
x y y
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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3. In east of wire magnetic field due to wire BW and BEGINNER'S BOX - 12
magnetic field due to earth BH are in opposite 4. For solenoid B = µni
direction so there is possible location of nutral
3
point. 4π = µ 10 2
N 2π × 10 = µ
–3
BW µ 2π × 10−3
Now µr = =
BW BH µ0 4π × 10−7
3
µ r = 5 × 10
BH W × NP
E
I χ = µ r – 1; χ = 4999
BW
BW
S 5. Flux φ = BA
2KM φ = (µ HA)
5. BH =
d3 5 –4
3.14 × 10 = µ 1600 × 0.2 × 10
1/3 1/3
2KM −7
2 × 10 × 6.75 –4
d = µ = 9.8 × 10
BH 5 × 10−5
µ 9.8 × 10−4
= 0.3 m. = 30 cm. ∴ µr = =
6. BP > BQ µ0 4π × 10−7
N µ r = 780.25
BW ∴ χ = µ r – 1 = 779.25
BH BW 8. φ = BA
BH 4 × 10–4 = µ 1600 × 4 × 10–4
BH W E
Q I P 1
BW µ= ; µ = 0.625 × 10–3 Wb/Am
1600
d d
BW (BP>BQ)
S
1 + 2
R 5m
x = 3R µ0 I1 µ0 I2
Bx 1 B 8 =
B −
= ⇒ 0 = 2πd 2πd
B0 8 Bx 1
µ0
6. B ∝ N (for = constant)
2
= (I1 – I2)
2πd
µ0 I 2Br
9. B= ⇒ I= µ0
2r µ0 = (5 – 2.5) = µ0/2π
2π(5 2)
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µ 0 Ni N
13. B= 29. B = µ0 .I
2R 2πR m
µ0i µ0 i 1
14. B= ⇒ d= = 4π × 10−7 × 1000 ×
2πd 2πB 4π
B0 10–4 (Wb/m2)
15. Bx = 3/2
x2 N
1 + 2 30. B = µ0 .I (given Rm = 10 cm)
R 2πR m
x=R nN
31. B = µ0 i nN = total turns
B0 B0 B 1
3/2 L
∴ Bx
= = ⇒ x = B ∝ D°
(1 + 1)3/2 (2)3/2 B0 2
32. B = µ0ni
µ0 NIR 2
18. Bx = B 2 n2 i 2 n
2(r 2 + R 2 )3 2 = ; n2 = 1 , i2 = 2i1
B1 n1 i1 2
R2
If r >> R then <<< 1 (negligible)
r2
=
( n1 / 2 )(2ii ) = 1
µ0 NIR 2 µ0 NIR 2 1 n1 i1
Bx −
2 32 3
⇒ Bx ∝ 3
2(r ) 2r r B2 = B1 = B
19. (B0)net = 0 33. B = µ0ni
µ0 I1 µ0 I2 B2 n2 i2 100 × (i 3)
= = =
2r1 2r2 B1 n1 i1 200 × i
⊗
1
B2 = × 6·28 × 10–2 = 1·05 × 10–2 Wb/m2
I(ACW) 8A(CW) 6
O P
34. r= ⇒ P = qBr
qB
P∝q (B, r → same)
pP q P 1 e 1
8 I = = = =
= pα q α 2 2e 2
0.1 0.08
qB
8 × 0.08 36. f=
= I = 6.4A, ACW 2πm
0.1
q
24. B1 = B3 = 0 (Point lies on axis of wire) f∝
m
µ i 90
B2 = 0 × i 37. F = qνB ⇒F∝q (v, B → same)
2R 360 1 2
3 mv
38. r=
µ i qB
B2 = 0 ⊗ 90°
8R R mβ = me mα = 4mρ
27. Apply B = µ0ni qβ = qe qα = 2qe
1
N rβ < rα ,C∝ (∴ Cβ > Cα )
n= r
2mqVacc.
According to the question, 39. r=
qB
N/2 N
=
n' = According to the question
/2
r∝ m
∴ B remains same
r1 m1
N =
28. B = µ0 I r2 m2
µ ( 2N )( 2I ) r12 m1
B' = 0 = 4B =
r22 m2
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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42. r=
mv sin θ
=
v sin θ 61. Fm = BiLeff (L ⊥ B)
qB (q / m)B
i
1 3 × 105 1
× × = 5 × 10 m = 0.5 cm
–3
= 8
10 0.3 2
43. Kinetic energy of charge particle is always 6
constant, if it enters perpendicular in uniform
magnetic field. f
8
2mE k
44. r= Leff = 62 + 82 = 10
qB
–2
Fm = 10 × 3 × 10 × 10
r∝ m (q, B, Ek. → same) = 3N
or m ∝ r
2
2 R
m1 r1
= fQ
m2 r2
qB 63.
45. f= fP
2πm
mv
46. r= (v, B → same) fnet⇒(towards left)
qB
m like currents always attracts to each other
r∝
q µ0 I1 I2 4π × 10−7 × 10 × 10
64. f= = = 2 × 10–4N
rA m A q B 24a.m.u. 2e 24 2πd 2π × 10 × 10−2
= × = =
rB m B q A 22a.m.u.
e 11 (Like currents → Attraction)
50. rp : rd : rα 65. F= m (
I L×B )
m
r∝ A (i)
q
1 2 4 3
: : =1: 2 : 2
1 1 2
B (f)
54. Use RHPR to find direction of magnetic force. 4 C
y |Fm |= BIL , where L ⊥ B
5
v ⊥ B wire = 5 × 10 × = 2.5N
I 100
x 66. When direct current flows in spring, any two
O adjacent turns having the current in same
+Q
direction so there is attractive magnetic force
OR between them hence spring contracts.
µ0 I
Fm → (v × B) 70. B = –––– (1)
2R
ˆ = +ˆj = y − axis
Fm → (iˆ × −k)
2
M = I (πR ) –––– (2)
divide eqn. (2) by (1)
(current carrying wire produces cross field
M I ( πR 2 )2R
=
therefore −k̂ is taken in vector product) B µ0 I
Fm → +ˆj = + y − axis 2πBR 3
M =
µ0
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72. I = ef 2
1 B H2 T1
µ 0 eω 4πrB 0 88. T∝ ⇒ =
,
74. B0 = ⇒ω= BH B H1 T2
4πr µ0 e
µ0 ef 1 60
78. B= Τ1 = = = 1.5 sec
2r f1 40
79. M B ⇒ τ =0 B H2 1.5 2 3 2
= =
83. W90° = MB (1 – cos 90°) B H1 2.5 5
= MB (1 – 0) = MB
W60° = MB (1 – cos 60°) 9
⇒ B H2 = × 0.1 × 10−5 T
1 MB 25
= MB (1 – )=
2 2 89. BC = BH tan30°
W90° = n W60°
1
MB = 0.34 × 10–4 ×
MB = n ∴ n=2 3
2
85. BH = B cosθ ∝ cosθ (θ1 = 30°, θ2 = 45°) BH
M
B H1 cos 30 3 /2 0
3
= = 0
=
B H2 cos 45 1/ 2 2
1 MB H
87. f= ∝ BH BC
2π I
BH ∝ f2 –5
BC = 1.96 × 10 T
2 2
B H2 f2 10 1
= = = 4 119. Curie law χm ∝
B H1 f1 5 T
=
B H2 4B H1 ⇒ B H2 = 4 × 0.3 = 1.2 G 120. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
from stronger to the weaker part of the field.
∆B = 1.2 – 0.3 = 0.9
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I I 25. Acceleration of charged particle
16. T = 2π , T' = 2π q
MB H M(B H − B) =
a (E + v × B)
m
⇒ T' = 2T = 4s
q
OR Released from rest ⇒ a = E = a0 (west)
m
I ma 0
T= 2 π ⇒ E = (west)
MB H e
1 when it is projected towards north, acceleration
T∝ due to magnetic force = 2a0
BH
2ma 0
BH 2 Therefore magnetic field = (down)
T1 ev 0
=
T2 B H1
Direction of magnetic field
2 (24 − 18) 6 1 Fm → (v × B)
= = =
T2 24 24 2 ˆ
−ˆi → (ˆj × −k)
T2 = 4 second
The direction of magnetic force is towards west,
17. Magnetic moment of the diamagnetic atom is for that the direction of magnetic field is vertically
zero. downward ( −k̂ )
18. Here= FAB 0, = FBC F and 26. Let magnetic pole strength be m then
FNet = 0 (In uniform magnetic field net force on M = m
current carying loop is zero). In new situation
FNet =FAB + FBC + FCA = 0= 0 + F + FCA =
0 ⇒ FCA = −F 60° π
M' = 2r sin (m) where r =
2 3
2 1 3m 3M
=
M ' 2m = =
19. ⇒ Speed decreases π 2 π π
e
27. Net magnetic field, B = B12 + B22
2 2
µ0 I1 µ0 I2
20. A is feebly repelled ⇒ A is diamagnetic
= +
2πd 2πd
B is feebly attracted ⇒ B is paramagnetic
C is strongly attracted ⇒ C is ferromagnetic µ0
= I12 + I22
D remains unaffected ⇒ D is non-magnetic 2πd
21. Here τ= M × B= 0 ( M ↑↑ B) 28. Magnetic field due to a circular loop
Also parallel currents attract each other. µ0 NI
B= Where N → no. of loops
mv 2 mv 2r
22. = qVB ⇒ R=
R qB q e
I= = = ne
1 v qB 2πmν T 1/ n
So ν = = = ⇒ B=
T 2πR 2πm e µ0 ne
1 1 B= (Here N =1 as e– makes only one loop)
Kinetic energy K = mv 2 = m (2πRν) =
2
2r
2 2
29. 'B' due to segment '1'
2π2mν2R2
µ0 I
mv 2 mv 2 2mK B1 = [sin 90° + sin θ] (– k̂ )
23. = qvB ⇒ R = = 4πR
R qB qB
µ0 I
q2 B1 = (– k̂ ) = B3
For same R and B, K ∝ 4πR
m
B due to segment '2'
K' ( 2e )2 m µ0 I ˆ
= × = 1⇒ K' = 1 MeV B2 = ( − i)
1MeV ( 4m ) e2 4R
71
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OR
2
Trick
1 I
I 3
I i µ0 IiL 1 1
=Fnet − (Attractive)
a 2π a b
so 'B' at center B c = B1 + B2 + B3 b
−µ0 I 2kˆ −µ0 I ˆ 33. Magnetic susceptibility = χ
⇒ BC = î + = ˆ
( πi + 2k)
4R π 4πR It is negative for diamagnetic materials only
34. For points inside the wire
µ 0 Ir
= B (r ≤ R)
2πR 2
For points outside the wire
30. 60° µ0 I
= B (r ≥ R)
2πr
according to the question
µ0 I(a / 2)
τ= M × B
B 2
=
| τ| MB
= sin θ NIAB sin θ = 0.20 Nm = 2πa =1:1
B' µ0 I
mv 2mK 2π(2a)
31. R= = R
qB qB 35. Since = 2πR = n(2πr) ⇒ r =
n
Rα = Rp µ0 i
For one turn B = and
4m α k a 4m p K p 2R
∴ = 2 2 µ ni µ 0 n2 i
q 2α B2 qp B For n turn B ' = 0 ⇒ = B′ = n2 B
2r 2R
4m p k α m p (1MeV ) 36. τ = MB sin 60° .....(1)
⇒ 2
= ⇒ Kα = 1MeV
4e e2
W = MB (1 – cos60°) .....(2)
FBC From (1) and (2)
τ 3 /2
B C = ⇒τ= W 3
FAB FCD W 1/2
eB
32. I i L 37. f=
2πm
1.76 × 1011 × 3.57 × 10−2
A D f= Hz
L 2 × 3.14
f = 109 Hz or 1 GHz
FAD 38. tanθ1 =
tanθ
cos α
FAB = iB (Attractive)
tan θ tan θ
µ0 I µ iI & tanθ2 = =
FAB = i(L). (←) = 0 (←) cos(90 – α ) sin α
L π
As sin θ + cos θ = 1
2 2
2π
2
So cot θ2 + cot θ1 = cot θ
2 2 2
FBC (↑) and FAD (↓) ⇒ cancels each other
FCD = iB (Repulsive) 39. Work = MB[cos θ1 – cos θ2]
µ0 I µ iI
FCD = i(L) (→) = 0 (→) Work = MB[cos 0 – cos 180°]
3L 3π
2π W = NiAB[1 – (–1)]
2
µ 0 iI µ iI 2µ 0 iI W 9.1 µJ
⇒ Fnet = – 0 =
π 3π 3π
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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µ0 i1 i2
40. F= = force per unit length I1 1
2πd
=
( µ0 i ) i µ0 i2 = F
F1 = θ2
2
2πd 2πd 270°
i θ1=90°
F1[due to wire A]
I2
F2[due to wire C]
⇒ θ1 I1 =θ2 I2
2 2 µ0 i2
=
Fnet F +F
1 2 = µ0 I1 θ1
2πd B1 =
41. When current source is switched on, magnetic 4 π r
⇒ B1 =
B2
µ0 I1 θ1
field sets up between poles on electromagnet. B2 =
4 π r
Diamagnetic material, due to its tendency to
B1 and B2 are in opposite directions, hence
move from stronger to weaker field, is thus resultant field at centre is zero.
repelled out. 47. µr = χm + 1 = 599 + 1 = 600
42. In northern hemisphere dip is +ve and in Tm
µ = µoµr = 4π × 10–7 × 600 = 2.4π × 10–4
southern hemisphere dip is –ve. A
µ 0 id N
48. B = µ0 I
π 2 : d ≤ R
2 R
43. B=
µ0i : d>R = 4π × 10−7 ×
100
× 2.5
2πd (0.5)
B = 6.28 × 10–4 T
L
49. M = I (πr ) Where, r =
2
2π
2
L IL2
d ⇒ M = I (π) =
d=R 2π 4π
qH 1 50. Inside a current carrying cylindrical conductor,
44. =
qα 2
µ0 I
mv B= r
r= 2πR2
qB
1 Outside the conductor,
For same momenta, r ∝
q
µ0 I 1
rH q α 2 B= ∴B∝
= = 2πr r
rα q H 1
µ0 Ni B
45. B=
2πr
B1 N1 r2 200 20
= = = 1:1
B2 N2 r1 100
40
R1 1 I2 θ1 r
46. = = = R
R 2 2 I1 θ2
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e¯ V=105 m/s y
A
51. z
0.2 m F=qVB
BAB I
P
56. BNet
5A B
BBC d
µ i
F = ev 0 x
2πr B C
I
O r
θ θ r=R
F F 60. Since, M = IA
55. Fnet
z ∴ M1 = M2 ⇒ I1 πr12 = I2 πr22
2
I1 r2 4
x ⇒
= =
I2 r1 1
d d
F=
µ 0 i2 61.
(
F = q v×B )
2π d 2 + z
Since v and B are parallel
µ 0 i2
FNet = 2F cos θ = 2 ∴ θ = 0°
2π d 2 + z 2
Fm = Bqv sin0° = 0
z µ 0 i2 z
= = ∴ Original path
d2 + z2 π(d2 + z 2 )
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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µ0 Ia 2 65. Straight current carring wire produces circular
62. B =
2 (a2 + x2 )3/2 magnetic field.
a
x
5A 10A
66.
d fm(N/m)
3I x (x,y)
B
(free) y
I
I
w'(N/m)
µ 0 3I µ 0 I
fm= w' =
2πx 2πy
fm = λg ..... (1)
3y = x
If direction of current is reversed in any one wire
then direction magnetic force/unit length is also B1
reversed so instantaneous acceleration of wire B 10.
is B2
µ0i
(At t=0) (wire 'B') B= Bnet = B12 + B22
I 2R
B
= 8 2T and B1 = B2 = =4 2T
fm w' 2
(4 2 ) + (4 2 )
2 2
fnet = fm + w' ∴ BNet = = 8T
fnet = fm + λg 2mE K m
15. r= , r∝
λa = λg + λg [from (1)] qB q
a = 2g ↓ or away from the fixed wire 'A'.
1 1
µ i θ∝C∝ ∴θ∝
5. B1 = B3 = 0 () r r
4πa
1amu 4amu 16amu
rH+ : rHe+ : r0++ =
: :
e e 2e
4I3 =1:2:2
+
Radius of H is smallest. So it will deflect
+ ++
a maximum but deflection of He and O is equal.
16. qνBsinθ = mg
2
I a P B =
mg
1 qv sin θ
B2 = B4 = 0 mg
Bmin = (θ= 90°)
µ i qv
∴ BNet = B1 + B3 = 0 ()
2πa
17. Fnet = 0 may be when
3 x2
6. Fractional decrease f =
2 R2 |Fe ||= −Fm |. Check by ˆi,ˆj,kˆ
5 3 x2 x2 1 mv
= 2
⇒ 2= 18.
= r (v,B → same)
100 2 R R 30 qB
R
x = rA m A q B
30 = ×
rB m B q A
7. V1 = V2 ⇒ I1R1 = I2R2 (Both arcs in parallel)
1 24 24 e
I1ρ =I2 ρ 2 = ×
A A rB 22 2e
⇒ I11 = I2 2 rB = 44 cm
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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22. τ = MB sin 90° m
L∝
q
L1 : L2 : L3 : L4
16amu 12amu 4amu 1amu
N S = : : :
2e e 2e e
= 8 : 12 : 2 : 1
a so L2 is maximum for C+
= MB +y(j)
= NIAB
3a2 B(k)
4 2 (
= I B N = 1)
35. +z(k) +x(i)
23. τ =MB sin90° = (NIA) (µ0 ni)
Fe(–i) v(–i) vi F ei Ei
S N (–)ve (+)ve
M B Fm(–j)
In the presence of electric field rest (+) ve ions
I moves parallel and rest (–)ve ions moves
26. χ= antiparallel to the electric field due to Fe.
H
Now magnetic force on ions :-
I
3 × 10–4 =
4 × 104 (+) ve ions
27.
I = 12 A/m
µ r = χ + 1; µ r = 1 + 0.003
( )
Fm ⇒ + î × kˆ ⇒ – ĵ
( )
−3
28. Volume =
Mass
=
75 × 10
= 10–5 Fm ⇒ – − î × kˆ ⇒ – ĵ
Density 7.5 × 103
Both ions deflect in –y direction.
Magnetic Moment 9 × 10−7
I= = −6
=0.09A/m2 36. θ = 30°
Volume 10 × 10
29. Energy loss in 1 hour →
B y →
= Area × Volume × time × frequency v
250 × 10 × 3600 × 50
= = 1200 J × 50 30°
7500 60° x
= 60000 J = 6 × 104 J
31. A stretching force or a tension force
mv sin θ
r=
mv Bq
34. Distance L ∝ r ∝
qB
2πm
T=
B Bq
Bq
38. f=
2πm
39. B1 ⊥ B2
q,v L1 µ0 2 2 4π × 10−7
L2 (B0 =
)net I1 +=
I2 32 + 42
L3 2R 2 × 2π × 10−2
–5
= 5 × 10 T
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µ0 ev µ0 ev 2πm
40. B= ⇒r= = × vx
4π r 2 4πB Bq
2π1.67 × 10−27
v = × 2 × 105
r ∝ 8.35 × 10−2 × 1.6 × 10−19
B
= 0.157 m
41. τ = NIABsin90° ( M ⊥ B ) 47. By right hand palm rule
A
30°
N S Lcos30° L
L
C B
2
Lsin30°
3
N = 1, A =
4
direction of Fm is inward
3 2
τ = (1) i B AC & outward for AB
4
Now
2 4τ
=
3iβ L
FCB = BI (sin 180°) = 0
2
1/2
τ
=2 BIL 3
3iB FAC = ⊗
2
µ0 I 2Br
42. V = IR, B= ⇒ I= FAB + FAC + FCB =
0
2r µ0
∴ FAB = −FAC
2Br ρ(2πr) ρ ρ (2πr)
= , =
R = ,
µ0 A A A 3BIL
∴ FAB =
2
4Bρπr 2
= (B,ρ,A → same)
µ0 A 52. Diamagnetic materials moves from stronger
magnetic field region to weaker magnetic field
V ∝ r2 region.
V1 r1 2r
2
4
2
Fm
= = =
V2 r2 r 1
B/2 (weak)
44. Bnet = µ 0ni mg
−7
4π × 10 × 5 × 400 × 8 –3
= −2
= 8π × 10 T B(strong)
80 × 10
2πm
45. Time period =
Bq ⇒ Body of the frog behaves as diamagnetic.
vy=4×105m/s
55. µp ≠ 0, µf ≠ 0 & µd = 0
5
vx=2×10 m/s 59.
M q
=
L 2m
B=8.35×10–2m/s
Distance along x = pitch
78
Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
Pre-Medical
(v) Anticlockwise
G C
(vi) No induced current
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BEGINNER'S BOX - 3 e 1 dφ 1 dB
6. =
i = = A ( φ= BA )
1. Induced emf does not depend on nature of coil, it R R dt R dt
1 Metal loop
=5+3 = 8m/s
=0+ × 9.8 × 1
2
v2 = Relative velocity in same direction
= 4.9 m
= 5 – 3 = 2m/s
But acceleration due to induced current a < g
e2 v 2 2
= ⇒ e2 = × 16 = 4 mV So that distance < 4.9 m
e1 v 1 8
∆φ 10 − 2 8
−dφ d 8. induced charge q =
= =
3. e= =– (5t2 – 4t +1) = – (10t – 4) R 2 2
dt dt
= 4.0 C
= – (10 × .2 – 4) = – (2 – 4) = 2V
dB
9. E(2πR) = πR 2
4. dt
F=constant R dB
φ=–Kt+C
E= = 1 × 10–2 × 2 = 0.02 V/m
2 dt
BEGINNER'S BOX - 4
dφ ∆I 2 −1
A toB ⇒ = +K⇒ e (–K) 1. e = – L = –5
dt ∆t = –1.0V
5
dφ 2. (I2 = –2A, I1
B to C ⇒ =0⇒e=0
dt
= 2A , ∆I = I2 – I1)
dφ
C to D ⇒ = –K ⇒ e = +K
dt ∆I −2 − 2
e=– L = –2 = 8V
∆t 1
∆φ −∆(NBA)
5. e =– =
∆t ∆t dI
3. e = –L ,
dt
∆B 2 ∆B
= −NA =– N(πr ) ∆t
∆t dI
if e = 0 then =0
dt
–2 2 4 − 2
= – 50 × 3.14 × (2× 10 )
3.14 2te–t + t2(–e–t) = 0
2 te–t (2 – t) = 0
= – 50 × 3.14 × 4 × 10–4 =– 0.04 V
3.14
t = 2sec.
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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dI E -t/λ 5 0.001 × 18
I = (e ) = e−
dt L 5 × 10−3 5 × 10−3
4.
2 3 = 103 (e–3.6) = 1000 × .0273 = 27.3 A/sec.
t
0 1 L
7. I = I0/2 so t = T = 0.693
R
0.7 × 8.4 × 10−3
= 1m sec
dI 6
0 to 1, = +K ⇒ e = – LK = – α
dt L 1 L λ L
8. = = =λ =,Q CV
dI CVR CV R Q R
1 to 2, = –K ⇒ e = + LK = + α
dt time
⇒
–1
= (current)
dI ch arg e
2 to 3 = +K ⇒ e = – LK = – α
dt
e
+α 9. +
–
open ckt.
0
t
–α
At switch on t = 0, L ⇒ open circuit
5. L = µ0n2A ⇒ i3 = 0
L ∝ (n & A Constant) E 10 10
current i1 = i2 = = = =3.3i1 = i2
R1 + R 2 1 + 2 3
L2 2 2
= ⇒ = L2 = 2 = 4H = 3.3 A, i3 = 0
L1 1 BEGINNER'S BOX - 6
6. L = µ0n2A = µ0n2V ⇒ L ∝ V e 1 dI
1. i2 = 2 ⇒ i2 = M 1
When all linear dimensions are increased by a R2 R2 dt
factor 3, they will become four times
dI1 i2 R 2 0.4 × 5
⇒ = = = 4 A/s
h dt M 0.5
(φ ) 9.0 × 10−5
b 2. (φ2)T=MI1 ⇒ M = 2 T = =3 × 10–5 H
I1 3.0
L ' V ' (4 ) (4b) (4h) MdI1
= = = 64 ⇒ L' = 64L d
L V bh 3. e2 = – = –M (I0sinωt) = – MI0ω cosωt
dt dt
Increased by factor 63 4. Peak value e0 = MI0ω (From above question)
7. φ = LI
= MI0(2πf)
= 2 × 5.8 = 11.6 Wb = 1.5 × 1 × 2π × 50 = 150πV
BEGINNER'S BOX - 5 5. M ∝ N1 N2 (In question N1N2 = constant)
L µ NN A
1. RC and , time constant 6. M= 0 1 2
R
1 4π × 10−7 × 2000 × 1.2 × 10−3 × 300
is angular frequency at resonance in a.c. =
LC 0.3
L 10 =
dI I2 − I1
2. I = I0 (1 – e–t/λ) λ= R= 5 = 2 sec ∆I1 ( −4)
em= –M =–96π × 10 × –5
dI =−2 − 2
∆t 0.25
E = −4
= (1 – e–t/λ) = 1(1 – e–2/2) = (1 – e–1)
R = 4.8 × 10 V
–2
L 8 × 10−3 x2
3. λ= = = 2ms 7. Use trick : M ∝ in
R 4 x out
dI E dI E 5
5. = (e-t/λ), at t=0 = = 0.25 A/sec. 8. (i) (a) ACW, (b) Zero, (c) CW
dt L dt L 20
L 5 × 10−3 .001 (ii) (a) ACW, (b) Zero,
6. λ= = =
R 18 3.6 (c) CW (seen from right side)
(iii) (a) L to N, (b) Zero, (c) N to L
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BEGINNER'S BOX - 7 7. Use effective length
1. (i) No flux cutting ⇒ No EMI
(iv) Q to P
(v) N will be at LP
1 × 10−3 × 4 µ0 Iva2
= = 2 × 10–2 m/s Clockwise (CW) enet = (always non zero)
2 × 10 × 10−2 2πx ( x + a )
5. Distance travelled by the loop in t =2s BEGINNER'S BOX - 8
= (1cm/sec) × 2 sec = 2cm 1. e → max ⇒ φ → min = 0, When magnetic field
is parallel to plane of coil.
So that flux of the loop is increasing
2. e0 = NBAω
e = Bv = 0.6 × 1 × 10–2 × 5 × 10–2
1800
–4 =60 × .5 × 20 × 10 × 10–4 × 2 × π × =113 V
= 3 × 10 V 60
At t = 10s loop will be completely inside in the BEGINNER'S BOX - 9
magnetic field B 1. To reduce eddy current
φ = contant ⇒ e = 0 (No emi) P 11 × 90
2. Efficiency = out × 100 = × 100 = 90%
Pin 220 × 5
2 2
B v
6. Fext = ⇒ Fext ∝ v straight line 3. Working of transformer is based on mutual
R induction
B 2 2 v 2 4. Application of eddy current
Pmech = ⇒ Pm ∝ v2 parabola
R (i) Induction furnace,
(ii) Electric Brakes
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2. φ = BA cos 0° = BA = 0.01 × 10 = 10 Wb
3
dφ −2NBA 2NBA
e=– − =
− =t
∆B 4 −1 dt t
4. e=A = 2 = 3 volt
∆t 2 (Only magnitude)
−4 −4
∆φ 5.5 × 10 − 5 × 10 2 × 200 × 0.8 × 70 × 10−4
7. q= = = 5 × 10–6 C =
R 10 0.1
∆φ NBA = 22.4 volt
8. q= ⇒ q =
R R 25. Magnetic energy
qR 32 × 10 × 200 −6
1 2
B= = = 0.566T UB = LI ∝ I2 ⇒ I U B
NA 100 × π(6 × 10−3 )2 2
∆φ (A – A1 ) I2 U2 1 1 1
9. e= = –B 2 = = = = ⇒ I2 = 1
∆t ∆t I1 U1 4 2 2
2
(2πr = 4 ⇒ r = ) t is equal to Half life period therefore :
π
L 10
A1 = Asquare = (22 × 10–2)2 t = 0·693 = 0·693 × = 3·5 sec.
R 2
2
2 × 22 L
A2 = Acircular = 3·14 × × 10−2 26. λ= = 4 sec. L = µ0n2A ⇒ L ∝
3 ⋅ 14 R
e = –6·6 mV ρ
R= ⇒R ∝
10. e=
8
(1Wb = 10 Mexwell) A
,
12 × 10+3 × 10 –8
= = 0·6 mV
0⋅2
∆φ 2NBA
11. q= = ⇒ ⇒
R R
2NBA
12. e= L1L 2 L R1 R 2 R
t Lp = = , Rp = =
L1 + L 2 4 R1 + R 2 4
1000 × (0.4 × 10−4 ) × (500 × 10−4 ) × 2
= = 0.04V
0.1 L/4 L
= = 4 sec.
R/4 R
15. Speed of beam is constant so current is also
constant. Due to this no current induced. 28. Nφ = LI
( v=constant ⇒ I =constant ⇒ φ =constant Nφ 100 × 5 × 10−5
L= = = 2.5 × 10–3 H
I 2
dφ
⇒ = 0 ⇒ e = 0)
dt 1 2 1 –3 2 –3
U= LI = (2.5 × 10 ) (2) =5 × 10 J
2 2
16. Current in wire is constant so flux is also
constant I = const ⇒ B = const ⇒ φ = constant OR
⇒ NO EMI U = (φtotal)I/2
∆φ µ0 N2 πr 2
20. q= ∴ q ∝ (∆t)°
R 29. L = = µ0n2πr2 r2
21. φ1 = NBA φ2 = –NBA
L' = µ0n π (2r)2 = 2L ⇒ two times
2
∆φ = –2NBA 2
⇒ inductance increases by 100%.
83
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− t
R LdI dt
31. I = I0 1 − e L 42. e= ⇒ L=e
dt dI
12 60
9I0 − t
5
1 L= × = 15 H
= I0 1 − e 5 ⇒ e =
–t
48 1
10 10
1 2 E
After taking log both the sides 44. U= LI , where I0 =
2 R
t = loge10 = 2.3 sec.
46. Self inductance of solenoid
∆I (1.5) − (1) µ N2 A
33. e=L = 60 × 10–6 × L= 0 ⇒ L ∝ N2
∆t 0.1
= 300 × 10–6 V L 40
47. λ= = = 5 second
R 8
e 300 × 10−6 LdI e 5
=
i = = 0.5 Amp. 48. e= ⇒L= =
R 600 × 10−6 dt (dI / dt) (1 / 10−3 )
–3
= 5 × 10 = 5mH
34. At t = 0 49. Current becomes half of its peak value in half life
time
V 10 10 5 L 300 × 10−3
I= = = = A T= × 0·693 = × 0.693
R net 6+8 14 7 R 2
= 0.1 sec.
35. In parallel combination
50.
–t/
i= i0 (1 – e λ )
1 1 1 1
= + + 5V
L L1 L2 L3 i0 = = 1 amp.
5Ω
1 1 1 3
= + + = = 1H L 10
3 3 3 3 l= = = 2 sec.
R 5
L
36. λ= = 2 × 10–3 sec at t = 2 sec.
R
i = 1(1 – e–2/2)
L
= 0.5 × 10–3 sec. i = (1 – e–1)
R + 90
52. In both cases (a) & (b) M is constant
(2 × 10–3) R = (0.5 × 10–3)(R + 90) dI1
–3 For (a) e2 = M
R = 30Ω L = 2 × 10 × 30 = 60 mH dt
37. Magnetic energy e2 2 ×10−3 –4
M= = = 4 × 10 H
(dI1 dt) 5
1 2 1 1
UB = LI = (LI)I [ φ = LI] = φI dI2
2 2 2 For (b) e1=M =4 × 10–4 × 2 = 8 × 10–4 V
dt
38. Self inductance of toroid is given by
N2 B1 A 2
53. M=
µ N2 A µ N2 πr 2 µ N2 r 2 I1
L= 0 = 0 = 0
2πR m 2πR m 2R m
2 2 µ 0 I 2
L∆I e = (1)
41. e= − ⇒ L= − πL I
∆t ( ∆I ∆t)
2 2 µ 0 2
8 =
L= − =
−0.2H πL
(2 / 0.05)
= 0.2 H (only positive value) 2
M∝
L
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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−2
dφ dI dφ 2 × 10 75. Effective length of the loop = 2R
61. φ=MI ⇒ =M ⇒M = = =2H
dt dt dI 0.01
perpendicular component of velocity to effective
64. M=K L1L 2 here (K = 1) length vsinθ
e = B( × v)
so M = L1L 2
e = B2R v sin θ
VS N S 1 1
66. = = ⇒ VS = × VP 76. For rotating conducting rod emf accross its end is
VP N P 20 20
1
2500 e= Bω2
VS = volt 2
20
1
67. Transfarmer cannot works on dc supply. So eOP = Bω(4)2 = 8Bω2
2
dφ d
68. e=– =– (10t2 – 50t + 250) = –(20t–50) 1
dt dt ∴ eOQ = 2
Bω(2) = 2Bω
2
2
Put t = 3 sec therefore ePQ = eOP¯ eOQ
e = –(20 × 3 – 50) = –10V 2
ePQ = 6Bω
µ0 N1 N2 A
69. M= 77. An emf will induce in that close loop in such a
way that it opposes the motion of rod.
1
70. eox = Bω2 79. ∆φ = 0 (due to motion inside a uniform magnetic
2
field)
1 ∴e=0
eoy = Bω2
2
87. e0 = NBAω
1 1 91. Induced electric field in this loop
exy = Bω2 – Bω2 = 0
2 2 dB
E(2πR) = πR2 (r = R, on the surface)
1 1 dt
71. e = Bω2 = B (2πf)2
2 2 R dB
E= = 2 × 10–2 × 0.2 = 4 × 10–3 v/m
1 2 dt
= (6.28 × 10–3) (2 × 3.14 × 50)(1)2=1 V
2 Force applied by this electric field
F = qE = 2 × 4 × 10–3 = 8 × 10–3 N
Bv /4
73.
P
Bv Q
Bv /4
Using KVL
Bv Bv
VP+ − Bv + = VQ
4 4
Bv
VP – VQ =
2
VP – VQ is positive so VP > VQ
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dφ φtotal = L i = 4 ⇒ L = 1H
dr
8. φ = (B)(πr ) ⇒ e =
2
= (B)(2πr) 17. For Loop 1
dt dt
= (0.025)(2π)(2 × 10–2)(10–3) = πµV dφ dB dB
εind =− =−A cos 0° = −πr 2
dt dt dt
dφ
9. =i = dt 100t 200
= = 0.5A For Loop 2, εind = 0 as no flux linkage
R 400 400
∆φ 1
dI 18. =
q ⋅ ∆t
10. Voltage across inductor V = L
dt ∆t R
∆φ 2 ∆i 1
11. q = ⇒ ∆φ = qR q=µ0 nNπr ∆t R ∆t
R
= area under the curve 4 1
4 × 0.1 q= 4π × 10−7 × 2 × 104 × 100 × π × (10−2 )2 × 2
× 0.05
= × 10 = 2 weber .05 10π
2 q = 32 µC
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19. Just after switch closed then µ0 I1 2
( πR 2 )
R φ12 B1 A 2 2R1
E
=
M = =
R I1 I1 I1
R
µ0 πR 22
Here E = 18V, R = 9Ω M=
2 R1
18
I = E/R = = 2A
9 R 22
1 2 M∝
20. Magnetic potential energy = LI R1
2
28. Just after closing the switch, inductor will behave
1 −3
⇒ 25 × 10 = L(60 × 10−3 )2 like open circuit.
2
⇒ L = 13.89 H E
⇒ Current thorugh battery i =
4R
21. Given
∆φ 20 − 10
N = 800, A = 0.05 m2, B = 5 × 10–5 T 29. ∆q = = = 2 coulomb
R 5
∆t = 0.15 s
30. B= 0.5 T
( φ − φi ) (0 − NBA)
As e = − f =
−
∆t ∆t
800 × 5 × 10−5 × 5 × 10−2
= = 0.02 V 1m
0.1
22. Eddy current effect is not used in electric heater
Angle between B & A is zero
2
Bω2 0.1 (10 ) ( 0.5 )
23. E= = = 0.125 V φ = B.A. cos 0
2 2
= 0.5 × (1) × 1
24. φ = 5t2 + 3t + 60
= 0.5 Wb
dφ
31.
–2 –2
|ε| = = 10t + 3 [MLT A ] = Magnetic permeability
dt
32. L = 4H
At t = 4 sec.
di (2 − 4)
|ε| = 40 + 3 = 43 volt ε = −L = −4 = –4(–2) = 8 V
dt 1
1
25. =
ε B ωr2 1 2
2 33. E = LI
2
1 120 2
ε= × (0.4 × 10−4 ) × 2π (1) 1
2 60 = × 10 × 12
2
ε = 0.8π × 10 = 2.512 × 10 V
–4 –4
10
= =5J
26. 220 × ip = 44 2
44 1 34. φ = 2t3 + 4t2 + 2t + 5
⇒ i p= = = 0.2A
220 5
dφ
emf = = 6t2 + 8t + 2
dt
= 6 × 52 + 8 × 5 + 2
27. R2
= 192 V
I1
R1 R12 >> R
87
®
Physics : Hints and Solutions
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Ldi L1L 2
VA – 3 × 2 – + 10 = VB 7. = 2.4 and L1 + L2 = 10
dt L1 + L 2
3. At t → ∞ sec L1 – L2 = 4 = 2H
–2(∞)
I1 = I0(1 – e ) = I0 (1 – 0) = I0
11. enet = Bv + Bv = 2Bv
At t = 1 sec Bv B
e2 − 1
I2 = I0 (1 – e–2(1)) = I0 2 10−3 ×100
e E 100 − 100×10−3 1
13. I = I0e–t/λ
= e–tR/L = e = e–1 =
R 100 e
I1 e 2
= 2
I2 e −1
4. P = VI
P 2200 watt
I= = = 0.1 amp
V 22000 volt
power loss = I2R = (0.1)2 (10) = 0.1watt
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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T 1 200 2
Irms = = 1 Amp
∫ 0
I20 sin2 ωt dt =I20 T
2 2 × 200
2 4. XC = 212 Ω
I0 2
=
⇒ Hav = R I rms R .....(i)
2 Irms = 1.03 A
However, in case of DC, HDC = I2 R...(ii) I0 = 1.46 A
I = Irms so from equation (i) and (ii) HDC = Hav If the frequency is doubled the capacitive
AC produces same heating effects as DC of value reactances is halved the consequently the current
I = Irms. This is also why AC instruments which
is doubled.
are based on heating effect of current give rms
value. 1
5. Z = XC =
3. The average value of a.c. for a cycle is zero. So a 60 × 2π × 60 × 10−6
d.c. ammeter will always read zero in a.c. circuit. V 110
Irms = rms = × 2π × 36 = 2.49 A
I0 Z 104
4. I = I0 sin ωt = I0 sinωt 6. (a) Opposition to current is constant with
2
π π× T T 1 frequency then circuit will be resistive Circuit
ωt = t= = =
4 4 × 2π 8 50 × 8
element – resistor.
–3
= 2.5 × 10 s
5. (a) i = 3.5 sin (628t + 30°) (b) In graph b oppose to current ∝ f
89
®
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π XL XC 1
8. φ= tan φ = 13. For circuit A tan φ = ; tan φ =
4 R R ωCR
X
1= L XL = R = 314Ω 1 1
R = −6
= =1
200 × 500 × 10 × 10 1
ωL = 314 Ω 314 × L = 314
L = 1H π
φ=
4
12
9. Resistance of coil R = = 3Ω
4 π π
for circuit B; φ = for circuit C; φ =
When connected to A.C. 2 2
12 π
Impedence Z = = 5Ω for circuit D; φ = (Pure L – C circuit)
2.4 2
2 2 2
Z = R + XL X L 200 × 5
2 for circuit E; tan=
φ = =1
25 = 9 + XL R 1000
XL = 4Ω ⇒ ωL = 4 π
φ=
4 4 4
L = = = 0.08H
ω 50
BEGINNER'S BOX - 3
10. Z= R2 + X L 2 V 50
1.=
I= = 2.5A
Z 2 × 10 2
Z= 100 + (800 × 10−3 × 300)2 ; Z = 240.2Ω
XL – XC = 10Ω
100Ω 100Ω
Potential drop at combination of L & C
~
240V, 50Hz
2. The three current equations are, V = iRR,
di L dV 1
V=L and = iC
Z= 2 2
100 + 100 = 100 2Ω dt dt C
=V0 =
2VRMS 2(240)V V0 V
so iR = sinωt , iL = – 0 cosωt and iC =
(a) Maximum current R ωL
1 1 R
fR = = cos φ =
2π LC 2π 0.12 × 480 × 10 −9 Z
2 1 R
= 6.63 × 10 Hz = ⇒ Z = 2R = 200Ω
2 Z
1 L 1 0.12
(b) Q = = = 21.7 V 200 1
R C 23 480 × 10−9 =
I = = Amp
Z 2 × 200 2
BEGINNER'S BOX - 4 (b) P = VI cos φ
1. P = VI cos φ
200 1 1
= × × = 50Watt
P 600 3 2 2 2
cos φ=
= =
VI 5 × 160 4 100 4
6. Wattless current = I sin φ = × =16Amp
2. (a) H = i2Rt 5 5
220
V 25 5 7. (a) Irms = = 2.2Amp
i=
= = Amp 100
Z 2 ×5 2 2
(b) Net power consumed P=i R=2.2 × 2.2 × 100
2
= 484 Wattt
5 8. V2 = VL2 + VR2
H= × 4 × 80 = 4000 J
2 VL2 = V2 – VR2
2 2 2
5 3 VL = 130 – 50 = (130 + 50) (130 – 50)
(b) Wattless current= I sinφ= × =2.12 Amp
2 5 = 180 × 80; VL = 120 V
π BEGINNER'S BOX - 5
3. φ= 1. Energy is shared equally between L and C
3
X X T 3T 5T
tan φ = ⇒ = 3 at t = , , .......
R R 8 8 8
T = 2π LC
X= 3R
π LC 3π LC 5π LC 7π LC
V So t = ; ; ;
Impedence Z of this circuit = = 1kΩ 4 4 4 4
I 200 × 10−6
2. (i) maximum I = Q0ω =
Z= X 2 + R2 2 × 10−3 × 5 × 10−6
= 2Amp
10 = R + X ⇒ 10 = R + 3R
6 2 2 6 2 2
(ii) Q = 200 µC
1 200 = 200 cos ωt
R= × 103 = 500 Ω
2 ωt = 0°; So current I = Q0ω sin ωt = 0
So = x = ; X = 500 3 Ω (iii) Q = Q0 cos ωt
(b) P = VI cos φ Q = 100 µC; Q0 = 200 µC
sin(2 × 100πt)
I2rms = 3I
2 ∴ sin (100πt) cos (100πt) =
2
Irms = 3I = 3 × 2 V = 60 sin (200π t)
Irms = 3.46 A compare from
2. E = E0 cos ωt V = VO sin ωt
1 VO = 60 volt,
Given, E0 = 10V, t = sec., f = 50Hz
600 ω = 200π
1 2πf = 200π
E = 10 cos (2π × 50 × )
600 f = 100 Hz
π
E = 10 cos E = 5 3 V 2V0 2 2Vrms 2 2 × 220
6 8. =
Vavg = = = 198V
π π 3.14
3. 2π (phase difference) ≡ T(Time difference)
12. Peak voltage in primary V0 = 2 Vrms = 100 2
T
1 rad (PD) ≡ (Time difference) Vs N2 N
2π = ⇒ Vs = s × Vp
Vp N1 Np
π T π
So, (PD) ≡ × (Time difference)
4 2π 4 Vs = 5 × 100 2 = 500 2V
T 1 15. XL = 2πfL
= ⇒ time difference = s
8 50 × 8
XL ∝ f (graph straight line)
or time difference = 2.5 ms.
1 1
4. I = 3 + 4 sin ωt XC = ; XC ∝
2πfC C
(i) square = 9 + 16 sin ωt + 24 sinωt
2
OR
∴ XL = ωL = 104 × 10–3 = 10 Ω
XL ∝ f, f becomes 8 times, so XL also becomes 8
42. Impedance of series circuit
times, so current becomes 1/8 times and lagging
by 90° from V (pure inductive circuit) Z= R 2 + (X L − X C )2
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1 R
49. f= 65. Power factor cos φ =
2π LC Z
VL = I XL (Changed) R R
69. Power factor = cosφ = =
VC = I XC (Changed) Z R + X 2L
2
I=
8 L
=
PF = 0.8
10
8. In RL circuit
,
XL
4. Given e = E0 sin ωt tan φ =
R
i = I0 sin (ωt – φ)
3
So phase difference = φ tan φ =
3
power factor = cosφ
By formula tanφ = 1
V0 = 200 2 ; ω = 100; C = 10 F
–6
6. VL–VC V
φ i=
0 200 2 × 100 × 10−6
VR i0 = 2 2 × 10−2 A
V 2 = VR2 + ( VL − VC )
2
i0 2 2 × 10−2
i=
rms =
2 2
VR2 + ( VL − VC )
2
V= –2
2 × 10 A = 20 mA
V = VR2 VL = VC 1/2
T /2 V 2 dt + T V 2 dt
10. Vrms
∫ 1 ∫T /2 2
= 0
V = VR ∴ [VL – VC = 0]
T
given V = 220V Here V1 = V0 and V2 = 0
VR = 220V 1/2 1/2
T 1 V
V 220 Vrms = V02 × = 0
i= i= 2 T 2
R 100
22 V0
i= i = 2.2A Vrms =
10 2
OR 11. XL = 20Ω at 50Hz
At resonance
Thus at 100Hz XL becomes = 40Ω
Vapplied = VR
VR Z = R 2 + X 2L = 302 + 402 =50Ω
so I =
R Vrms 200
=
I rms = = 4A
Z 50
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Physics : Hints and Solutions
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12. In case-1 15. When capacitor is filled with mica then
XC capacitance C increases so XC decreases
L is removed tan φ =
R In case (b) XC ↓ so voltage across capacitor
π XC decreases. so Va > Vb
tan = ...(i)
3 R
16. Pure resistor Resistor & Inducer
In case-2 circuit circuit
XL
C is removed tan φ =
R R R L
π X
tan = L ...(ii)
3 R
By equation (i) and (ii)
~
(Phasor diagram)
XL XC R
= ⇒ XL = XC (Condition of resonance)
R R φ
R XL
Power factor = Z
Z
Z = R at resonance, hence P.F = 1
AC source Impedance = Z
i0 v0 π
13. i rms = v rms = φ=
2 2 3 =P ' V.I.cos φ
1 1 1 1 V2 V
=i rms = =
v rms = P= =P ' V. .cos φ
2× 2 2 2× 2 2 R Z
Average power (Pav) = VrmsIrms cosφ V2 R
⇒ V = PR
2
P' =
·
1 1 π 1 Z Z
⇒ × cos = × cos(60)
2 2 3 4 (From phasor diagram)
1 1 1 (PR)R
= × = P' =
4 2 8 Z2
2
R
P' = P
Z
1 1
17. XC = = = 58.8 Ω
14. ωC 340 × 50 × 10 –6
XL = ωL = 340 × 20 × 10–3 = 6.8 Ω
~ Z = R 2 + (X C − X L )2
Brightness of the bulb ∝ I
= 402 + (58.8 − 6.8)2 = 4304 Ω
• decreases when an iron rod is inserted in the
2
coil as impedance of circuit increases. (Z↑, V
P = i2rms R = rms R
I↓) Z
2
• increases when frequency of the AC source 10 / 2 50 × 40
= × 40 = = 0.47 W
is decreased as impedance of circuit 4304 4304
decreases.
So best answer (nearest answer) will be (1)
• Increases when number of turns in the coil is
18. Input voltage, V(t) = V0sinωt
reduced as impedance of circuit decreases.
dq dV
• increases when a capacitance of reactance For capacitor, I(t) = =
C =
ωCV0 cos ωt
dt dt
XC = XL is included in the circuit as
⇒ Current I(t) leads voltage V (t) by 90°
impedance of decreases.
Also, Capacitor does not consume any energy
over a full cycle.
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19. For better tuning, Q-factor must be high. 26. Impedance, z = 2
R +X 2
L
ωo L 1 L 1 L
∴ Q= = = XL↑, Z ↑, I ↓
R LC R R C
VL − VC 100 − 40 3
20. tan φ = = = or φ = 37° I0
VR 80 4 =
I RMS = 10A
2
4
Power factor = cosφ = cos 37° = or 0.8
5 40 V 10 V 40 V
21. Here L C R
1 1
=
XC = = 31.84Ω VRMS = VR2 + (VL − VC )2
ωC 314 × 100 × 10−6
= 50 V
(XC − X L ) + R2
2
Z=
VRMS 50 V
= ( 31.84 − 6.28 )
2
+ ( 50 ) = 56Ω
2 Z= = = 5Ω
I RMS 10 V
2 2
v 10 ω ωL 50
=P rms =
R ×=
50 0.79watt 28. =
Q = ⇒ ∆ω
= R /=
L = 8 rad / sec
Z 2 × 56 ∆ω R 4
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30. Peak voltage is 2 times rms voltages in ac.
2mH
31. ω =100
ω 100 50 34.
=
ν = = Hz
2π 2π π
Resonance frequency
1 1 1
=
ν0 = 200V, 50Hz
2π LC 2 π 10 × 10 × 10−6
50 For AC XL = ωL For DC, ω = 0
= Hz
π X1 = 100π × 2 × 10
–3
XL = ωL
32. According to question
X1 = 0.2 πΩ X2 = 0
V = Vm sin ωt
X1 = 0.628 Ω
I = Im sin (ωt – π/2) = –Im cos ωt
35. Irms Vrms = P
Pinst. = VI Irms × 200 = 100
1
2 Irms =
∴ Pinst. = –(Vm sin ωt) (Im cos ωt) × 2
2
− Vm I m 1
= sin(2ωt) So, Ipeak = I rms 2= × 2
2 2
i 1
= = 0.707 A
33. 2
90°
VC
V 2 ×R 220 1
Ploss = = sin 45° = = 0.5 A
Z2 220 2 2
10. Compare V = 20 cos 2000 t from
2 V 2 R 10 × 10 × 5
Z= = = 50Ω
Ploss 10 V = V0 cos ωt
20
Now Z2 =R 2 +X 2L V0 = 20, ω = 2000, Vrms =
2
2 2 2
50=25+ X 2L ⇒ X L =5 Ω Now Z = R + (XL –XC )
Total resistance R = 6 + 4 = 10Ω
5 5
2πfL = 5 ⇒ f = =
2πL 2π × 10 × 10−3 XL = ωL = 2000 × 5mH
f = 80 Hz XL = 10Ω
R 1
5. Power factor cosφ = XC = = 106/2000 × 50
Z ωC
XC = 10Ω
Z = min at resoanance in LCR circuit
∴ Z2 = (10)2 + (10–10)2
1
ωL = so value of Z is equal in RL & RC V 20
ωC Total amount =
I = = 2A
circuit Z 2 10
so cosumed power P1 = P2 < P3 Now reading of voltmeter
6. According to current flow capacitor is V=IZ
1 20
= Hz VR = volt
π × 10−4 2
Z = R = 10Ω
c
Now λ=
f 20 2
∴I= = = 1.41
2 × 10 2
λ =3 × 10 × π × 10 = 9.42 × 10 m
8 –4 4
or
V = IRcoil = 1.41 × 4 = 5.6 volt
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Physics : Hints and Solutions
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13. Tank circuit π
15. VL leads I by angle
C 2
VL = imωLsin(ωt + π / 2)
L VL =ω
im Lcos ωt
1 Imax = Qω
–3
VC= 2 × 10
2π ×10 × 2 × 10 –6
3
1.5 × 10−6 × 60
Imax = = 0.6A
Solve it VC 0.16 V 15 × 10−3 × 1.5 × 10−6
π
14. VC lags I by angle
2
im
=
∆VC sin(ωt − π / 2)
ωC
i
∆VC =
− m cos ωt
ωC
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Physics : Hints and Solutions ®
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ω 9π × 1014 8
speed v = = = 3 × 10 m/s
k 3π × 106
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Physics : Hints and Solutions
Pre-Medical
22. (a) Radio wave (ii) ≈ 10 m (ii)
2
24.
–2
(b) Microwave ≈ (iii) 10 m (iii) R → Radio λ↓
–4 m → Micro
(c) Infrared radiations ≈ (iv)10 m (iv)
–10 I → Infrared
(d) X- ray (i) ≈ Å = 10 m (i)
V → Visible
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
U → UV ray
23. Wave is propagating along –z direction
X → X-ray
E = 3jˆ v / m
G → γ-ray
E 3
B0 = 0 =
C 3 × 108 λm > λI > λX > λγ
25. B = 3 × 10–8 cos (1.6 × 103 x + 48 × 1010 t)
= 10 × 10–9 î T = 10 î nT
ω 48 × 1010
C= = 3
= 3 × 108 m / s
k 1.6 × 10
C = E0 / B0
E = 3 × 10–8 × 3 × 108 = 9 N/C
∴ E = 9 cos (1.6 × 103x + 48 × 1010 t)
B0 1
26. = = µ0 ε0
E0 c
102