RADIO NAVIGATION

1. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:

a) the plane of polarisation is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter.
b) the electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
c) the magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
d) both the electrical and magnetic components are parallel to the aerial.

2. The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is the frequency?

a) 1.5 KHz.
b) 1.5 GHz.
c) 1.5 MHz.
d) 15 MHz.

3. According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally
transmit?
a) HF/VHF.
b) MF/HF.
c) HF.
d) LF/MF.

4. What gives the greatest error in ADF:

a) Coastal effect.
b) Night effect.
c) Static interference from thunderstorms.
d) Quadrantal error.

5. When considering the propagation of ADF transmissions night effect is most

pronounced:
a) at dusk and dawn.
b) during the long winter nights.
c) at or near the coast.
d) when flying at low altitude.

6. An aircraft heading 3150M shows an NDB bearing 1800 on the RMI. Any quadrantal
error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
a) zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI.
b) at a maximum.
c) at a minimum.
d) zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR.
7. An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation
indicator where 1 dot = 20 deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the
instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is
10 NM wide)
a) 6.0
b) 3.0
c) 4.5
d) 1.5

8. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300o, the track selector (OBS)
reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:
a) left with FROM showing.
b) right with TO showing.
c) right with FROM showing.
d) left with TO showing.

9. The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:

a) phase comparison between a 108 MHz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable
signal
b) phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an
amplitude modulated variable signal
c) phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a
frequency modulated variable signal
d) phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 MHz variable
signal.

10. The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.250 glide slope at a ground speed of 140 kt is
approximately:
a) 850 FT/MIN.
b) 800 FT/MIN.
c) 670 FT/MIN.
d) 700 FT/MIN.

11. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz
modulation notes from both the localiser and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication
will show:
a) Fly right and fly down.
b) Fly left and fly down.
c) Fly right and fly up.
d) Fly left and fly up.

12. Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

a) 112.10 MHz.
b) 108.25 MHz.
c) 110.20 MHz.
d) 109.15 MHz.
13. In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
a) The radar frequency used.
b) The number of revolutions performed by the radar antenna per minute.
c) The number of pulses transmitted per second.
d) The time between each transmission of pulses.

14. Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by
a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps =
pulses per second)
a) 375 pps.
b) 782 pps.
c) 308 pps.
d) 405 pps.

15. The accuracy of a DME:

a) is approximately ±0.5nm.
b) decreases with increase of range.
c) increases with increase of altitude.
d) is approximately ±2 nm.

16. Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

a) The principle of echo return is not used in secondary radar.
b) The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources.
c) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static
returns.
d) The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources.

17. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar
when using the weather beam?
a) Stratus.
b) Cirrocumulus.
c) Cumulus.
d) Altostratus.

18. Which of the following lists information required to input a way point or Phantom Station
into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
a) Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the way point or Phantom Station
b) Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the way point or Phantom
Station
c) Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the way point or Phantom Station
d) Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the way point or Phantom Station
19. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which
permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
a) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits
of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.
b) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is
equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.
c) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is
equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.
d) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is
Equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids.

20. In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate
position?
a) GPS/rho.
b) Rho/theta.
c) Rho/rho.
d) GPS/theta.

21. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:

a) VOR/DME
b) twin VOR
c) twin DME
d) any of the above

22. The colour of a VORTAC which is not in use by the FMC is:
a) Magenta.
b) Amber.
c) Cyan.
d) Green.

23. In an FMS, how does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
a) The pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME
Area navigation control panel.
b) The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the
system itself tunes the DME stations providing the best angular position
lines.
c) The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the
aircraft's normal VHF NAV selector.
d) The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it
always tunes the DME stations closest to the aircraft position.

24. The FMS database can be:

a) altered by the pilots between the 28-day updates.
b) read and altered by the pilots.
c) only read by the pilots.
d) altered by the pilots every 28 days.
25. Components of the FMS are:
1. CDU ( Control and Display Unit ).
2. Database.
3. FMC ( Flight Management Computer ).
4. Electronic check-lists.
5. GPWS mode controller.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is ;

a) 1 , 2 , 3.
b) 3 , 4.
c) 1 , 3.
d) 1 , 2 , 4 , 5.

26. In relation to the GPS satellite navigation system, the term inclination denotes the angle
between the:
a) orbital plane and the equatorial plane.
b) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite.
c) orbital plane and the earth's axis.
d) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite.

27. An all-in-view satellite navigation receiver is one which:

a) monitors all 24 satellites.
b) tracks selected satellites.
c) selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four.
d) tracks the closest satellites.

28. In GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a) reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors.
b) determine satellite range.
c) eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors.
d) remove receiver clock error.

29. In the NAV message, the "ephemeris" refers to the exact:

a) Position and orbit of all the satellites in the constellation.
b) Position and orbit of all the satellites in the same orbit.
c) Position and orbit of the observed satellite.
d) The observed satellite clock corrections.

30. What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an

accurate independent 3-D position fix?
a) 5.
b) 2.
c) 4.
d) 6.
31. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include ;
a) static interference - station interference - latitude error.
b) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system.
c) height error - station interference - mountain effect.
d) coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect.

32. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:

a) phase comparison
b) envelope matching
c) beat frequency discrimination
d) difference in depth of modulation

33. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic
variation:
a) at the VOR
b) at the aircraft location
c) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
d) at both the VOR and aircraft

34. An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a
serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
a) 1.5° or more
b) 2.5 or more
c) 10° or more
d) less than 10°

35. The three main components of VOR airborne equipment are ;

a) Demodulator, Antenna, CDU.
b) Receiver, Phase comparator, Range gate.
c) Display, Pulse generator, phase comparator.
d) Receiver, Antenna, Display.

36. An NDB transmits a signal pattern which is;

a) a 30 Hz polar diagram
b) omni-directional
c) a bi-polar
d) a beam rotating at 30 Hz

37. The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject
replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
a) transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
b) pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft
c) pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
d) aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed
from each other
38. A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
a) 100 MHz
b) 100 GHz
c) 1000 MHz
d) 10 MHz

39. In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment
(DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
a) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
b) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
c) When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
d) When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit

40. Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?

a) It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
b) It can provide a magnetic bearing
c) It can provide DME distance
d) It is of no use to civil aviation

41. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 30 glide path at a
groundspeed of 120 kt?
a) 950 FT/MIN
b) 600 FT/MIN
c) 550 FT/MIN
d) 800 FT/MIN

42. What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker
beacon?
a) blue - amber - white
b) amber - white - green
c) white - amber - blue
d) blue - green – white

43. The maximum range obtainable from ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is
approximately:
a) 400 NM
b) 300 NM
c) 200 NM
d) 100 NM

44. Which of the following equipment uses primary radar principles?

a) Global Positioning System (GPS)
b) Airborne weather radar (AWR)
c) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
d) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
45. In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar
systems operate?
a) SHF
b) UHF
c) EHF
d) VHF

46. Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of ;

a) secondary radar in the VHF band.
b) primary radar in the UHF band.
c) secondary radar in the SHF band.
d) primary radar in the SHF band.

47. On a colour Air Weather Radar display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:
a) amber
b) red
c) yellow
d) blue

48. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information
transmitted is:
a) altitude based on regional QNH
b) aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
c) height based on QFE
d) flight level based on 1013.25 hPa

49. Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate
transponder malfunction?
a) 4096
b) 9999
c) 0000
d) 7600

50. The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

a) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
b) an emergency
c) radio communication failure
d) transponder malfunction

51. Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the
Transponder?
a) IDENT (Identification)
b) NORMAL
c) OFF
d) STBY (Standby)
52. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of
greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by:
a) colour zones being closest together
b) blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour
c) large areas of flashing red colour
d) iso-echo areas which are coloured black

53. A frequency of airborne weather radar is ;

a) 9375 MHz.
b) 93.75 MHz.
c) 9375 kHz.
d) 9375 GHz.

54. Which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide

position information that is available to civil aircraft?
a) UHF
b) SHF
c) EHF
d) VHF

55. In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:
a) must be in range
b) has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
c) does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
d) does not have to be in range when entered or used

56. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
a) A DME station sited on the flight route
b) An ADF sited on the flight route
c) A VOR station sited on the flight route
d) A DME station sited across the flight route

57. Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

a) +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time
b) +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time
c) +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight
d) +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time

58. Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area
Navigation System?
a) Wind velocity
b) True airspeed; drift angle
c) Cross-track distance; along-track distance; angular course deviation
d) Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
59. Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between
2 en-route waypoints from RNAV equipment?
a) ETO
b) ETD
c) ATA
d) Elapsed time on route

60. One of the benefits of RNAV is ;

a) RNAV allows pilots to manage horizontal and vertical separation with other
aircrafts without obtaining any ATC clearance.
b) RNAV allows to obtain ATC clearance by HF radio without the requirement to
establish any radio contact.
c) RNAV allows aircraft to take a more direct flight path without requiring to
fly over ground based facilities.
d) RNAV allows to fly at RNAV flight level with a 500 ft separation.

61. The basic principle of operation of the ILS is the difference in depth of modulation (
DDM ) between the 90 Hz and 150 Hz lobes. A DDM of zero indicates ;
1. the higher tone lobe is received at a higher strenght than the lower tone lobe.
2. the exact runway centreline.
3. the aircraft is on the glidepath.
4. a balance between modulations.

a) 1 and 3.
b) 2 , 3 and 4.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 1 , 2 and 4.

62. The Doppler Navigation System is based on;

a) radar principles using frequency shift.
b) radio waves refraction in the ionosphere.
c) phase comparison from ground station transmissions.
d) Doppler VOR ( DVOR ) Navigation System.

63. The inputs of information used to achieve the RNAV required accuracy may be ;
1. NDB
2. IRS
3. VOR/DME
4. GNSS

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is ;

a) 2 , 3 and 4.
b) 1 , 2 and 3.
c) 2 and 4.
d) 1 , 2 , 3 and 4.
64. The principle of operation of an ILS is;
a) the phase comparison.
b) the difference between the frequencies of the two tones.
c) the difference in depth of modulation.
d) modulation of the ILS frequency by the amplitude of two modulating signal.

65. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
a) the surface of the runway
b) less than 50 ft
c) less than 100 ft
d) less than 200 ft

66. By which of the following flight deck equipment are the waypoints inserted into an FMS
RNAV-system by the pilot?
a) Symbol generator.
b) Control Display Unit.
c) Navigation display.
d) Course deviation indicator.

67. 3D RNAV fixing gives you:

a) 2D RNAV plus speed control.
b) 2D RNAV plus time guidance.
c) horizontal and vertical profile guidance.
d) horizontal, vertical profile and time guidance.

68. A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation
systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
a) ADF.
b) DME.
c) VOR.
d) weather radar.

69. An inertial navigation system ;

a) can only operate when interfacing with the radionavigation equipments.
b) can only operate when communicating with ground installations.
c) can operate as stand-alone equipment without any interface with other
navigation equipments.
d) can only operate when interfacing with the GPS equipment.

70. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS),
data relating to V1 , VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
a) performance database.
b) air data computer.
c) navigation database.
d) auto flight computer.
71. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:
a) in the fin
b) on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
c) on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
d) under the fusalage

72. A radio wave is:

a) an energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic
field.
b) an electrical field alternating with a magnetic field
c) an energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic
field.
d) an energy field with an electrical component

73. A primary radar operates on the principles of:

a) phase comparison
b) continuous wave transmission
c) pulse technique
d) transponder interrogation

74. The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What frequency band is this signal?
a) VLF.
b) UHF.
c) MF.
d) HF.

75. A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by a ___
aerial.
a) magnetic
b) parabolic
c) horizontal
d) vertical
76. Refer to the figure below. The phase difference between the two signals is:

a) 0900
b) 1800
c) 3600
d) 00, that is they in-phase

77. When considering the propagation of ADF transmissions night effect is most
pronounced:
a). at dusk and dawn
b). during the long winter nights
c). at or near the coast
d). when flying at low altitude

78. A long range NDB is likely to transmit on ___ and be classified as ___. Select the answer
to complete this statement. 190 kHz to 1750
a). 200 KHz; A2A
b). 800 KHz; A2A
c). 200 KHz; A1A
d). 1800 KHz; A1A

79. On the QDR of 0750 (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 2950, the
relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
a). 140.
b). 040.
c). 220.
d). 320

80. The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR:

a). Is always directed towards the aircraft.
b). Is like a figure-of-eight.
c). Is a pencil beam.
d). Rotates at 30 revolutions per second (30 Hz).
81. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300o, the track selector (OBS)
reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:
a). left with FROM showing
b). Left with TO showing
c). right with FROM showing
d). Right with TO showing

82. Refer to the diagram of a VOR deviation indicator below. Assume that the indicator is set
to define the centerline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90 nm from the VOR and inbound
to the facility. At the time of observation, the aircraft was located on radial:

a) 063
b) 253
c) 245
d) 243

83. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 150 Hz than 90 Hz
modulation notes from both the localizer and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication
will show:
a). Fly right and fly down
b). Fly left and fly down
c). Fly right and fly up
d). Fly left and fly up

84. For a category one ILS glide path of 3.3 degrees the coverage is:
a). 1.49 to 5.77 degrees
b). 1.49 to 5.94 degrees
c). 1.65 to 5.77 degrees
d). 1.65 to 5.94 degrees

85. The MIDDLE MARKER BEACON of an ILS facility transmits on a frequency of:
a). 300 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second
b). 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
c). 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
d). 75 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second
86. The main factor which affects the maximum range of pulse radar is:
a). the size of the radar screen
b). the pulse repetition frequency
c). the aerial system size
d) the frequency of the radar transmission

87. A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200

pulses/second will have a maximum range of approximately: (Given that speed of light is
162,000 nautical miles/second).
a). 270 NM
b). 135 NM
c). 69 NM
d). 27 NM

88. A VOR and DME are frequency paired. The DME identification ends with Z. This
denotes that:
a). The two beacons are co-located
b). The beacons are supporting the same site but are not co-located
c). The beacons are greater than 2000 m apart
d). The beacons are at the same location but are more than 1000 m apart

89. The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmission and reject
replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
a). transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
b). pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
c). aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed
from each other
d). pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft

90. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:
a). the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector
b). the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength
c). the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency
d). the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

91. RNAV routes are:

a). usually specified by waypoints co-incident with point source aids such as VOR,
DME or NDB facilities
b). specified by waypoints defined as a position in latitude and longitude based
on the WGS 84 system
c). selected according to TCAS inputs
d). none of the above are correct
92. With regard to RNAV, what are hybrid navigation systems?
a). RNAV systems which use and merge information from a selection of self-
contained and externally referenced navigation system
b). VOR/DME system
c). Loran C system
d). GNSS

93. With VOR/DME basic area navigation, the displacement of the CDI needle represents:
a) angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 50 off track)
b) angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 100 off track)
c) distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 5 nm off track)
d) distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 10 nm off track)

94. Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

a) "± 1.0 nm for 95% of the flight time"
b) "± 5.0 nm for 95% of the flight time"
c) "± 10.0 nm for 99% of the flight time"
d) "± 0.5 nm for 99% of the flight time"

95. The FMS is composed of:

a) the command display unit and the flight management computer
b) the automatic flight control system and the power management controls system
c) the flight management computer only
d) the EFIS and EICAM displays

96. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS),
data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
a) auto flight computers
b) air data computer
c) navigation database
d) performance database

97. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS),
data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
a) air data database
b) navigation database
c) performance database
d) auto flight database

98. In relation to the GPS satellite navigation system , the term inclination denotes the angle
between the:
a) orbital plane and the equatorial plane
b) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite
c) orbital plane and the earth's axis
d) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite
99. What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellites orbit in the NAVSTAR
GPS constellation?
a) 55°
b) 40°
c) 35°
d) 60°

100. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a) differentiate between satellites
b) pass satellite ephemeris information
c) pass satellite time and ephemeris information
d) pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information

101. What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

a) To control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users
b) To monitor the satellites in orbit
c) To maintain the satellites in orbit
d) Degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users

102. What is the minimum number of GPS satellites required to “Receiver Autonomous
Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)”?
a) 6.
b) 5.
c) 4.
d) 3.

103. The Doppler effect is:

a) the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter and receiver
b) the change in frequency caused by the movement of a receiver
c) the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter
d) the change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter
and receiver