JEE Main March 2021 Official Question Papers

JEE MAIN MARCH 2021
OFFICIAL QUESTION
NEET: JHARKHAND STATE COUNSELLING
PAPERS WITH
DETAILED SOLUTIONS
6 SETS HAVING 540 QUESTIONS WITH

DETAILED SOLUTIONS OF PHYSICS,
CHEMISTRY AND MATHEMATICS
3
16 March shift -1
Physics
Q. 1 The velocity - displacement graph describing the motion of a bicycle is shown in the figure.
The acceleration - displacement graph of the bicycle's motion is best described by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So the correct graph is

Q. 2 A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 500 MHz is traveling in a vacuum along y-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, The value of
electric fields at this point is :
(Speed of light )
are unit vectors along x,y and z directions.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
EM wave is traveling towards
Q. 3 In thermodynamics, heat and work are :
Option 1:
Intensive thermodynamic state variables
Option 2:
Point functions
Option 3:
Path functions
Option 4:
Extensive thermodynamic state variables
Correct Answer:
Path functions
Solution:
Heat and work are path-dependent quantities and Internal energy is the point function.
Q. 4 The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of three gases, 16 g of oxygen, 28 g of

nitrogen and 44 g of carbon dioxide at absolute temperature T. Consider R as universal gas
constant. The pressure of the mixture of gases is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 A 25 m long antenna is mounted on an antenna tower. The height of the antenna tower is 75
m. The wavelength (in meter) of the signal transmitted by this antenna would be :
Option 1:
100
Option 2:
400
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
200
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
Q. 6 Time period of a simple pendulum is T inside a lift when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves
upwards with an acceleration g/2, the time period of pendulum will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
When the lift is stationary
When the lift is moving upwards \Rightarrow Pseudo force acts downwards
So New time period
Q. 7 An RC circuit as shown in the figure is driven by a AC source generating a square wave. The
output wave pattern monitored by CRO would look close to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For
Charging graph
For
Discharging graph
So the correct graph is
Q. 8 For changing the capacitance of a given parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric material of
dielectric constant K is used, which has the same area as the plates of the capacitor. The
thickness of the dielectric slab is where 'd' is the separation between the plates of
parallel plate capacitor. The new capacitance (C') in terms of original capacitance is
given by the following relation :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 One main scale division of a vernier callipers is 'a' cm and nth division of the vernier scale
coincide with division of the main scale. The least count of the callipers in mm is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As nth division of the vernier scale coincide with division of the main scale
So
Where is the One main scale division of vernier calipers.
S0
So
Q. 10 A conducting wire of length 'l', area of cross-section A and electric resistivity is connected
between the terminals of a battery. A potential difference V is developed between its ends,
causing an electric current.
If the length of the wire of the same material is doubled and the area of cross-section is
halved, the resultant current would be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Initial resistance=
Q. 11 A block of 200 g mass moves with a uniform speed in a horizontal circular groove, with
vertical side walls of radius 20 cm. If the block takes 40 s to complete one round, the normal
force by the side walls of the groove is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
}
Given
Put the given values in equation (1)
Q. 12 A bar magnet of length 14 cm is placed in the magnetic meridian with its north pole pointing
towards the geographic north pole. A neutral point is obtained at a distance of 18 cm from
the center of the magnet. If the magnetic moment of the magnet is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From figure
Q. 13 For an electromagnetic wave traveling in free space, the relation between average energy
densities due to electric and magnetic fields is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using
and
We get
Q. 14 The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when
(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism
(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence
(D) When angle of emergence is double the angle of incidence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Option 1:
Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true
Option 2:
Only statement (D) is true
Option 3:
Statements (B) and (C) are true
Option 4:
Only statements (A) and (B) are true
Correct Answer:
Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true
Solution:
As shown in the above figure
The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when
(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism
(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base
i.e
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence
i.e i=e
Q. 15 A conducting bar of length L is free to slide on two parallel conducting rails as shown in the
figure
Two resistors and are connected across the ends of the rails. There is a uniform
magnetic field pointing into the page.An external agent pulls the bar to the left at a
constant speed v. The correct statement about the directions of induced currents and
flowing through and respectively is :
Option 1:
Both and are in anticlockwise direction
Option 2:
Both and are in clockwise direction
Option 3:
is in anticlockwise direction and is in clockwise direction
Option 4:
is in clockwise direction and is in anticlockwise direction
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As shown in the above figure

Q. 16 Four equal masses, m each are placed at the corners of a square of length (l) as shown in
the figure. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through A and parallel
to DB would be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we know
i.e
Q. 17 The maximum and minimum distances of a comet from the Sun are and
respectively. If the speed of the comet at the nearest points is
the speed at the farthest point is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 The pressure acting on a submarine is Pa at a certain depth. If the depth is

doubled, the percentage increase in the pressure acting on the submarine would be :
(Assume that atmospheric pressure is Pa density of water is

)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now the depth is doubled
Q. 19 The stopping potential in the context of photoelectric effect depends on the following
property of incident electromagnetic radiation:
Option 1:
Phase
Option 2:
Intensity
Option 3:
Frequency
Option 4:
Amplitude
Correct Answer:
Frequency
Solution:
From Einstein's equation for the photoelectric effect
we get
where
and
So
Stopping potential changes linearly with the frequency of incident radiation.
Q. 20 A block mass m slides along a floor while a force of magnitude F is applied to it at an angle
as shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction is Then the block's acceleration 'a' is
given by :
(g is acceleration due to gravity)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input A and B are 0 to 1 respectively, the output at Y
would be 'x'.
The value of x is ________.
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
So the answer is 0.
Q. 22 A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 250 V is applied to a series LCR circuit, in which ,
and The value of power dissipated at resonant condition is 'x'
kW. The value of x to the nearest integer is _________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
At resonance
Q. 23 Consider a 20 kg uniform circular disk of radius 0.2 m. It is pin supported at its center and is
at rest initially. The disk is acted upon by a constant force F = 20 N through a massless string
wrapped around its periphery as shown in the figure.
Suppose the disk makes a number of revolutions to attain an angular speed of 50 rad s-1.
The value of n, to the nearest integer, is ____________.
[Given : In one complete revolution, the disk rotates by 6.28 rad]
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
Q. 24 In the figure given, the electric current flowing through the resistor is 'x' mA.
The value of x to the nearest integer is ___________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 25 The first three spectral lines of H-atom in the Balmer series are given considering
the Bohr atomic model, the wave lengths of first and third spectral lines are related
by a factor of approximately 'x' .
The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___________.
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
For 1st line
For 3rd line
From equation (i) and (ii)
Q. 26 A fringe width of 6 mm was produced for two slits separated by 1 mm apart. The screen is
placed 10 m away. The wavelength of light used is 'x' nm.
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is ________.
Correct Answer:
600
Solution:
Q. 27
The resistance where and The percentage
error in R is x %. The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is _________.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Q. 28 A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity along X-axis, hits another ball of
mass 20 kg which is at rest. After collision, the first ball comes to rest and the second one
disintegrates into two equal pieces. One of the pieces starts moving along Y-axis at a speed
of 10 m/s. The second piece starts moving at a speed of 20 m/s at an angle (degree) with
respect to the X-axis .
The configuration of pieces after collision is shown in the figure. The value of to the
nearest integer is _______.
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
Before collision
After collision
Q. 29 The value of power dissipated across the zener diode connected in the circuit
as shown in the figure is x watt.
The value of x , to the nearest integer, is _______.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Q. 30 Consider a frame that is made up of two thin massless rods AB and AC as shown in the
figure. A vertical force of magnitude 10 N is applied at point A of the frame.
Suppose the force is resolved parallel to the arms AB and AC of the frame. The
magnitude of the resolved component along the arm AC is xN. The value of x, to the nearest
integer, is ____________.
[Given : ]
Correct Answer:
82
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 Given below are two statement : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A : Size of Bk3+ ion less than Np3+ion.
Reason R : The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
Option 1:
A is true but R is false
Option 2:
A is false but R is true
Option 3:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Option 4:
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Size of ion is less than that of due to lanthanoid contraction.
In a period from left to right ionic radius decreases and in actinide series it is due to
lanthanoid contraction.
Q. 2 Which among the following pairs of vitamins is stored in our body relatively for longer
duration ?
Option 1:
Thiamine and Ascorbic acid
Option 2:
Vitamin A and Vitamin D
Option 3:
Ascorbic acid and vitamin D
Option 4:
Thiamine and Vitamin A
Correct Answer:
Vitamin A and Vitamin D
Solution:
Vitamin-A & Vitamin-D pairs of Vitamins are stored in our body relatively for a longer duration.
Q. 3 Match List - I with List - II
List-1 Industrial process List - II Application
(a) Haber's process (i) synthesis
(b) Ostwald's process (ii) Aluminium extraction
(c) Contact process (iii) synthesis
(d) Hall - Heroult process (iv) synthesis

Option 1:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Option 2:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
Option 3:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Solution:
1. Haber's process is used for NH3 synthesis.
2. Ostwald's process is used for HNO3 synthesis using Pt catalyst.
3. Contact process is used for H2SO4 synthesis using N2O5 catalyst.
4. In the Hall-Heroult process, electrolytic reduction of impure alumina can be done. (Aluminium
extraction).
Q. 4 Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst ?
Option 1:
Cold dilute solution of
Option 2:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal
Option 3:
Sodium and liquid
Option 4:
Zinc chloride and
Correct Answer:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal
Solution:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal (H2 /pd/CaCO3 ) is lindlar catalyst.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (2)
Q. 5 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : The H-O-H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5o.
Reason R : The lone pair - lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair -
bond pair repulsion.
below :
Option 1:
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Solution:
The hybridisation of oxygen is water molecule is sp3. So electron geometry of water molecule is
tetrahedral and the bond angle should be 109°28" but as we know that lone pair-lone pair repulsion of
electrons is higher than the bond pair-bond pair repulsion because lone pair is occupied more space
around central atom than that of bond pair.
Q. 6 The functions of antihistamine are :
Option 1:
Antiallergic and Analgesic
Option 2:
Antiallergic and antidepressant
Option 3:
Antacid and antiallergic
Option 4:
Analgesic and antacid
Correct Answer:
Antacid and antiallergic
Solution:
The functions of antihistamine are Antacid and antiallergic.
Q. 7
The products "A" and "B" formed in above reactions are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 Among the following, the aromatic compounds are :
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
Option 1:
(A), (B) and (C) only
Option 2:
(B), (C) and (D) only
Option 3:
(A) and (B) only
Option 4:
(B) and (C) only
Correct Answer:
(B) and (C) only
Solution:
(A) Non-Aromatic
(B) Aromatic -
(C) Aromatic -
(D) Anti-Aromatic -
The aromatic compounds are (B) and (C) only.
List - I List - II
Name of Oxo acid Oxidation state of 'P'
(a) Hypophosphorous acid (i) +5
(b) Orthophosphoric acid (ii) +4
(c) Hypophosphoric acid (iii) +3
(d) Orthophosphorous acid (iv) +2
(v) +1
Option 1:
(a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (v), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 3:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (v), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Solution:
Q. 10
In the above chemical reaction, intermediate "X"and reagent/condition "A" are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction will be -
Therefore, option (1) is correct.
Q. 11 The process that involves the removal of sulphur from the ores is :
Option 1:
Roasting
Option 2:
Leaching
Option 3:
Smelting
Option 4:
Refining
Correct Answer:
Roasting
Solution:
In the roasting process, metal sulphide (MS) ore are converted into metal oxide and sulphur is removed
in the form of SO2 gas
Q. 12 Which of the following reaction DOES NOT involve Hoffmann bromamide degradation?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction given in Option (2) is not an example of Hoffman Bromamide degradation reaction. It is an
example of Haloform Reaction.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (2)

Q. 13 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Both CaCl2.6H2O and MgCl2.8H2O undergo dehydrationon heating.
Statement II : BeO is amphoteric whereas the oxides of other elements in the same group
are acidic.
below :
Option 1:
Statement I is false but statement II is true
Option 2:
Both statement I and Statement II are false
Option 3:
Statement I is true but statement II is false
Option 4:
Both statement I and Statement II are true
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The dehydration of hydrated chloride of calcium can be achieved. The corresponding hydrated chloride
of magnesium on heating suffer hydrolysis.
MgO, CaO, SrO, BaO All are basic oxides.
So, Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q. 14 Assertion A : Enol form of acetone exists in <0.1 % quantity. However, the
enol form of acetyl acetone exists in approximately 15% quantity.
Reason R : Enol form of acetyl acetone is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding,

which is not possible in enol form of acetone.
Choose the correct statement :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
Q. 15 A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a hydride with strongest reducing power
among group 15 hydrides. The element is :
Option 1:
Bi
Option 2:
As
Option 3:
Sb
Option 4:
P
Correct Answer:
Bi
Solution:
N, P are Non-Metal
As, Sb are Metalloid
Bi is Metal
Hydrides of group 15 elements are
NH3 , PH3 , AsH3 , SbH3 , BiH3
In NH3, the hydrogen atom gets a partial positive charge due to less electronegativity. But in BiH3, the
hydrogen atom gets a partial negative charge because hydrogen is more electronegative than bismuth.
BiH3 is a strong reducing agent than others because we know that H- is a strong reducing agent and Bi –
H bond dissociation energy is very less.
Statement I : The value for is
Statement II : is more stable in state than state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
Option 1:
Both statement I and statement II are correct
Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Option 4:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Solution:
The Eo value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is +1.74 V because the most stable oxidation state of lanthanide series
elements is +3.
It means Ce3+ is more stable than Ce4+
Statement I : H2O2 can act as both oxidising and reducing agent in basic medium.
Statement II : In the hydrogen economy, the energy is transmitted in the form of

dihydrogen.
In the light of above statments, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Option 1:
Both statement I and II are true
Option 2:
Statement I is true and statement II is false
Option 3:
Both statement I and II are false
Option 4:
Statement I is false and but statement II is true
Correct Answer:
Both statement I and II are true
Solution:
(a) H2O2 can act as oxidizing & reducing agent in both acidic & basic mediums.
(b) The basic principle of the hydrogen economy is the transportation and storage of energy in the form
of liquids or gaseous dihydrogen. The advantage of hydrogen economy is that energy is transmitted in
the form of dihydrogen and not as electric power.
Q. 18 In chromotography technique, the purification of compound is independent of :
Option 1:
Physical state of the pure compound
Option 2:
Solubility of the compound
Option 3:
Length of the column of TLC plate
Option 4:
Mobility or flow of solvent system
Correct Answer:
Physical state of the pure compound
Solution:
In the chromatography technique, the purification of a compound is independent of the physical state of
the pure compound.
Q. 19 The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence of O3 is :
Option 1:
Reducing smog
Option 2:
Global warming
Option 3:
Oxidising smog
Option 4:
Acid rain
Correct Answer:
Oxidising smog
Solution:
In presence of ozone(O3), oxidizing smog gets increased during the daytime because automobiles and
factories produce the main components of the photochemical smog (oxidizing smog) results from the
action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbon and nitrogen oxide.
Ozone is a strong oxidizing agent and can react with the unburnt hydrocarbons in the polluted air to
produce chemicals.
Example: NO is unburnt.
Q. 20
The product "P" in the above reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
DIBAL-H can not reduce double bond It can reduce cyclic ester.
The correct option is 4.
Q. 21 The decomposition of formic acid on gold surface follows first order kinetics. If the rate
constant at 300 K is and the activation energy
,the rate constant at 200 K is _______ . (Round off to the Nearest Interger).
(Given : )
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Q. 22 When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-Broglie
wavelength of emitted electrons is _______ . (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
Q. 23 is 10 % dissociated in water to and . The boiling point of a 10.0 molal aqueous
solution of is _____ . (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Molal elevation constant of water boiling point pure

water ]
Correct Answer:
106
Solution:
Q. 24 A 6.50 molal solution of has a density of 1.89 g cm -3. The molarity of the
solution is _____ mol dm -3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Atomic masses : ]
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
6.5 molal KOH = 1000g solvent has 6.5 moles KOH
so wt of solute = 6.5 × 56 = 364 g
wt of solution = 1000 + 364 = 1364
Q. 25 Two salts and have the same value of solubility product of . The
ratio of their molar solubilities i.e. _______(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 26 A certain element crystallies in a bcc lattice of unit cell edge length . If the same element
under the same conditions crystallies in the fcc lattice, the edge length of the unit cell in
will be ______.(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Assume each lattice point has a single atom]
[Assume ]
Correct Answer:
33
Solution:
Q. 27 Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic compound provides 420 g of and 210 g of

.The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in organic compound is 15.3 and
______respectively. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Alternative Method:
Liebig's method:
Q. 28 The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the
coordination sphere of the trans-complex of is _______. (Round off to the
Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we know that ethylene diamine is a bidentate ligand and ammonia is a monodentate ligand. It means
overall two ethylene diamine is required to replace the all neutral ligands (four ammonia) from the
coordination sphere of this complex.
Q. 29 For the reaction at If we start the
reaction in a closed container at 495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of B in the
equilibrium mixture is ______ millimoles. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
Q. 30
If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients,the value of c is ____(Round off to
the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Maths
Q. 1 If for and
then the value of n is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 If n is the number of irrational terms in the expansion of , then is
divisible by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let
For rational terms
Total rational terms =8
Total terms =61
Therefore total Irrational terms (n) =53
and n - 1 = 53 - 1 = 52
52 is divisible by 26.
Q. 3 The number of roots of the equation, in the interval is

equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4
Let a complex number satisfy Then, the largest
value of is equal to _________.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 The locus of the midpoints of the chord of the circle, which is tangent to the
hyperbola, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 Which of the following Boolean expression is a tautology ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 If for a>0, the feet of perpendiculars from the points A( a, -2a, 3) and B( 0, 4, 5) on the plane
lx + my + nz = 0 are points C( 0, -a, -1) and D respectively, then the length of line segment CD
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8
Let P be a plane lx + my + nz = 0 containing the line, If plane P
divides the line segment AB joining points A(-3, -6, 1) and B(2, 4, -3) in ratio K:1 then the
value of k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9
Let . Then, the system of linear equations has
Option 1:
No solution
Option 2:
A unique solution
Option 3:
Exactly two solutions
Option 4:
Infinitely many solutions
Correct Answer:
No solution
Solution:
Q. 10 The number of elements in the set is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
No. of solutions = 2
Q. 11 Consider three observations a, b and c such that If the standard deviation of

is d, then which of the following is true ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 12
Let Then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 Let a vector be obtained by rotating the vector by an angle 45o about the
origin in counterclockwise direction in the first quadrant. Then the area of triangle having
vertices and is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 14 Let the position vectors of two points P and Q be and
respectively. Let R and S be two points such that the direction ratios of lines PR and QS are (
4, -1, 2 ) and ( -2, 1, -2 ), respectively. Let lines PR and QS intersect at T. If the vector is
perpendicular to both and and the length of vector is units, then the
modulus of a position vector of A is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
dr's of normal to the plane containing P, T and Q will be proportional to :
Q. 15 If the normals drawn to the parabola, pass through the point then
'a' must be greater than :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For standard parabola
For more than 3 normals (on axis)
Q. 16 A pack of cards has one card missing. Two cards are drawn randomly and are found to be
spades. The probability that the missing card is not a spade, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 Let denote greatest integer less than or equal to x. If for
then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 Let the functions and be defined as :
and
Then, the number of points in R where is NOT differentiable is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At x = 0
L.H.L. is not equal to R.H.L. (Discontinuous)
At x = 1
L.H.L. = 6 = R.H.L.
Hence option (4)is correct
Q. 19
If is the solution of the differential equation,
then the maximum value of the function over R is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation is linear differential equation
Now
Q. 20 The range of for which the function
has
critical points, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Case I:
Case II:
Q. 21
Let the curve be the solution of the differential equation, If the
numerical value of area bounded by the curve and x-axis is thne the value
of is equal to ____________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 22
Let z and w be two complex numbers such that and Re
has minimum value. Then, the minimum value of for which is real, is equal to
___________________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
and
Q. 23
If then is equal to ______________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Q. 24
If the normal to the curve at a point is parallel to
the line then the value of is equal to ___________.
Correct Answer:
406
Solution:
Hence
Q. 25
Let and where
and be the identity matrix of order 3. If the determinant of the matrix is

then the value of is equal to ____________.
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
Q. 26 Let ABCD be a square of side of unit length. Let a circle centered at A with unit radius is
drawn. Another circle which touches and the lines AD and AB are tangent to it, is also
drawn. Let a tangent line from the point C to the circle meet the side AB at E. If the
length of EB is where are integers, then is equal to _______________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 27 The total number of matrices A having entries from the set such that the
sum of all the diagonal entries of is 9 , is equal to ___________.
Correct Answer:
766
Solution:
Total no. of ways = 1 + 9 + 8 X 63 + 63 X 4 = 766.
Q. 28 Consider an arithmetic series and a geometric series having four initial terms from the set
{11, 8, 21, 16, 26, 32, 4}. If the last terms of these series are the maximum possible four digit
numbers, then the number of common terms in these two series is equal to _____________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
GP : 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256, 512, 1024, 2048, 4096, 8192
A P : 11,16,21,26,31,36
Common terms : 16, 256, 4096 only
Q. 29 Let be a continuous function such that for all If

and then the value of is equal to __________.
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Q. 30 Let be defined as
Then, is equal to ____________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
16 March shift -2
Physics
Q. 1 For the given circuit, comment on the type of transformer used.
Option 1:
Step down transformer
Option 2:
Step - up transformer
Option 3:
Auxilliary transformer
Option 4:
Auto transformer
Correct Answer:
Step - up transformer
Solution:
Q. 2 Calculate the time interval between 33% decay and 67% decay if half-life of a substance is 20
minutes.
Option 1:
60 minutes
Option 2:
20 minutes
Option 3:
13 minutes
Option 4:
40 minutes
Correct Answer:
20 minutes
Solution:
From equation (1) and (2)
Q. 3 A mosquito is moving with a velocity and accelerating in

uniform conditions. What will be the direction of mosquito after 2s ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 The following logic gate is equivalent to :
Option 1:
NOR Gate
Option 2:
OR Gate
Option 3:
AND Gate
Option 4:
NAND Gate
Correct Answer:
NOR Gate
Solution:
The truth table for the given logic gate is given below
And this is equivalent to NOR gate
Q. 5 What will be the nature of flow of water from a circular tap, when its flow rate increased
from 0.18 L/ min to 0.48 L/ min ? The radius of the tap and viscosity of water are 0.5 cm and
10-3 Pa s, respectively.
(Density of water : 103 kg/m3)
Option 1:
Unsteady to steady flow
Option 2:
Remains steady flow
Option 3:
Steady flow to unsteady flow
Option 4:
Remains turbulents flow
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reynolds Number is given by
where
density of fluid ;
coefficient of viscocity
-velocity of flow
D- Diameter of pipe
So answer is
Q. 6 A resistor develops 500 J of thermal energy in 20 s when a current of 1.5A is passed through
it. If the current is increased from 1.5 A to 3 A, what will be the energy developed in 20 s.
Option 1:
2000 J
Option 2:
1500 J
Option 3:
500 J
Option 4:
1000 J
Correct Answer:
2000 J
Solution:
Using
Q. 7 The refractive index of a converging lens is 1.4. What will be the focal length of this lens if it
is placed in a medium of same refractive index? Assume the radii of curvature of the faces
of lens are R1 and R2 respectively.
Option 1:
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
Infinite
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Infinite
Solution:
Q. 8 The megnetic field in a region is given by A square loop of side d is placed

with its edges along the x and y axes. The loop is moved with a constant velocity
The emf induced in the loop is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. It is mounted rigidly as shown in the figure The
metal A has higher coefficient of expansion compared to that of metal B. When the
bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath it wll,
Option 1:
Neither bend nor shrink
Option 2:
Bend towards the right
Option 3:
Not bend but shrink
Option 4:
Bend towards the left
Correct Answer:
Bend towards the left
Solution:
therefore it Bend towards the left
Q. 10 The half life of is 2.7 days. The activity of 1.50mg of if its atomic weight is 198 g
mol-1 is,
Option 1:
535 Ci
Option 2:
240 Ci
Option 3:
357 Ci
Option 4:
252 Ci
Correct Answer:
357 Ci
Solution:
Using
we get
Now using the relation

Q. 11 Two identical antenna mounted on the identical towers are seprated from each other by a
distance of 45km. What should nearly be the minimum height of receving antenna to receive
the signals in line of sight?
(assume radius of earth is 6400km)
Option 1:
158.2m
Option 2:
79.1 m
Option 3:
19.77 m
Option 4:
39.55 m
Correct Answer:
39.55 m
Solution:
Q. 12 Calculate the value of mean free path for oxygen molecules at temperature and
pressure . Assume the molecular diameter 0.3nm and the gas is ideal.
Option 1:
102 nm
Option 2:
86 nm
Option 3:
58 nm
Option 4:
32 nm
Correct Answer:
102 nm
Solution:
Q. 13 A large block of wood of mass M = 5.99 kg is hanging from two long massless cords. A bullet
of mass m =10g is fired into the block and gets embedded in it. The (block + bullet) then
swing upwards, their centre of mass rising vertical distance h =9.8 cm before the pendulum
comes momentarily to rest at the end of it =s arc.The speed of the bullet just before the
collision is:
Option 1:
841.4 m/s
Option 2:
831. m/s
Option 3:
811.4 m/s
Option 4:
821.4 m/s
Correct Answer:
831. m/s
Solution:
From energy conservation,
Applying momentum conservation

Q. 14 Red light differs from blue light as they have:
Option 1:
different frequencies and same wavelengths
Option 2:
same frequencies and different wavelengths
Option 3:
different frequencies and different wavelength
Option 4:
same frequencies and same wavelenghts
Correct Answer:
different frequencies and different wavelength
Solution:
Red light and blue light have different wavelengths and different frequencies.
Q. 15 A charge Q is moving distance in the magnitude field . Find the value of workdone by
:
Option 1:
-1
Option 2:
zero
Option 3:
infinite
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
zero
Solution:
Since the force on a point charge by the magnetic field is always perpendicular to V
therefore Work by magnetic force on the point charge is zero.
Q. 16 The de-Brogile wavelength associated with an electron and a proton were calculated by
accelerating them through same potential of 100V. What should nearly be the ratio of their
wavelength?
Option 1:
1860 :1
Option 2:
Option 3:
41.4 :1
Option 4:
43:1
Correct Answer:
43:1
Solution:
Q. 17 Find out the surface charge density at the intersection of point x=3 m plane and x-axis in the
region of uniform line charge of 8nC/m lying along the z-axis in free space.
Option 1:
47.88 C/m
Option 2:
0.424 nC m-2
Option 3:
0.07 nC m-2
Option 4:
4.0 nC m-2
Correct Answer:
0.424 nC m-2
Solution:
Q. 18 Statement I : A cyclist is moving on an unbanked road with the speed of 7 kmh-1 and takes a
sharp circular turn along the path of radius of 2m without reducing the speed. The static
friction coefficent is 0.2. The cyclist will not slip and pass the curev ( g= 9.8 m/s2)
Statement II : If the road is bnaked at an angle of , cyclist will not slip and pass the curve
-1
of 2m radius with the speed of 18.5 kmh without slipping.
Option 1:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Option 2:
both statement I and statement II are false
Option 3:
both statement I and statement II are true
Option 4:
statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For statement I
Speed is lower than , hence it can take safe

turn.
For statement II
Speed is lower than , hence it can take safe turn.
So

Q. 19 Amplitude of a mass-spring which is executing smiple harmonic motion decreases with time.
If the mass =500g, decay constant = 20g/s then how much time is required for the amplitude
of the system to drop to half of its initial value?
(ln 2= 0.693)
Option 1:
0.034 s
Option 2:
15.01 s
Option 3:
34.65 s
Option 4:
17.32 s
Correct Answer:
34.65 s
Solution:
Q. 20 In order to determine the Young's modulus of a wire of radius 0.2cm ( measured using a
scale of least count = 0.001cm) and length 1m (measured using a scale of least count 1mm),
a weight of mass 1kg (measured using a scale of least count =1g) was hanged to get
enlogation of 0.5cm (measured using a scale of least count 0.001cm). What will be the
fractional error in the value of Young;s Modulus determined by this experiment?
Option 1:
9%
Option 2:
0.9 %
Option 3:
0.14 %
Option 4:
1.4 %
Correct Answer:
1.4 %
Solution:
Q. 21 A solid disc of radius 'a' and mass 'm' rolls down without slippingon an inclined plane making
an angle of with the horizontal. The acceleration of the disc will be where b is
_________ (rounded off to the nearest integer)
(g = accelertaion due to gravity)
( = angle shown in th =e diagram)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 22 If one wants to remove all the mass of earth to infinity in order to break it up completely.
The amount of energy that needs to be supplied will be where x is __________
(Rounded off the nearest integer)
(M is the mass of earth, R is the radius of earth, G is graviational constant)

Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 23 A deviation of is produced in the yellow ray when prism of crown and flint glass are
achromatically combined. Taking dispresive powers of crown and flint glass as 0.02 and 0.03
respectively and refractive index for yellow light for these glasses are 1.5 and 1.6
respectively. The refracting angles for crown glass prism will be __________(in degree)
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Given
For Achromatic combination
Q. 24 A force is applied on an intersection point x=2 plane and x-axis. The

magnitude of torque of this force about a point (2,3,4) is _______

Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
Q. 25 A body of mass 2kg moves under a force of . It starts from rest and was
at the origin initially. After 4s, its new coordination are (8,b,20). The value of b is _________
(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Q. 26 A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities
respectively. The compressebility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are
vibrating in their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the open pipe is
where x is ________

Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
where B is the bulk modulus
So x=4
Q. 27 For an ideal heat engine,the temperature of the source is . In order to have 60%
efficiency the temperature of the sink should be __________ (Rounded off to the nearest
integer)
Correct Answer:
-113
Solution:
Q. 28 A swimmer can swin with velocity of 12km/h in still water. Water flowing in a river has
velocity 6km/h. The direction with respect to the direction of flow of river water he should
swim in order to reach the point on the other bank just opposite to his starting point is
____________ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Q. 29 In a parallel plate capcitor set up, the plate area of capacitor is 2m2 and the plates are
separated by 1m. If the space between the plates are filled with a dielectric material of
thickness 0.5m and area 2m2 (see fig) the capacities of the set-up will be _____ .
(Dielectric constant of material =3.2)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 30 The energy dissipiated by a resistor is 10 mJ in 1s when an electric current of 2mA flows

through it. The resistance is _______
Correct Answer:
2500
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 Statement I: Sodium hydride can be used as an oxdising agent.
Statement II: The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen in pyridine makes it basic.
Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below:
Option 1:
Both statement I and statement II are false
Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are true
Option 3:
Statement I is true and statement II is false
Option 4:
Statement I is false and statement II is true
Correct Answer:
Statement I is false and statement II is true
Solution:
(1) NaH (sodium Hydride) is used as a reducing reagent
(2) In pyridine, due to free electron on N atom, it is basic in nature.
Hence statement I is false & II is true.
Q. 2 The INCORRECT statement regarding the structure of C60 is :
Option 1:
It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24 five-membered rings.
Option 2:
Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds.
Option 3:
The five-membered rings are fused only to six-membered rings.
Option 4:
The six-membered rings are fused to both six and five-membered rings.
Correct Answer:
It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24 five-membered rings.
Solution:
It contains 12 five-membered rings & 20 six-membered rings.
Q. 3 The secondary structure of protein is stabilised by:
Option 1:
Peptide bond
Option 2:
glycosidic bond
Option 3:
Hydrogen bonding
Option 4:
van der Waals forces
Correct Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Solution:
The secondary structure of protein includes two type :
(a) -Helix
(b) -pleated sheet
In -Helix structure, the polypeptide chain is coil around due to the presence of Intramolecular H-
Bonding.
Q. 4 An unsaturated hydrocarbon X on ozoonolysis gives A. Compound A when warmed with

ammonical sliver nitrate forms a bright sliver mirror along the sides of the test tube. The
unsaturated hydrocarbon X is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As (A) compound given positive tollen's test hence it may consist –CHO (aldehyde group). or it can be
HCOOH So for the given option :
Correct option is 4
Q. 5 The INCORRECT statements below regarding collodial solution is:
Option 1:
A collodial solution shows Brownian motion of collodial particles.
Option 2:
A floculating power of is more than that of
Option 3:
A collodial solution shows colligative properties
Option 4:
An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of collodial particles
Correct Answer:
An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of collodial particles
Solution:
The colloidal solution exhibits colligative properties.
An ordinary filter can not stop the flow of colloidal particles.
Flocculating power increases with an increase in the opposite charge of electrolyte.
Colloidal particles show Brownian motion.
The INCORRECT statement is "an ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of colloidal particles".
Q. 6 Which of the following reaction CANNOT be carried out with coke?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reduction of is carried out by electrolytic reduction of its fused salts.
ZnO, Fe2O3 & Cu2O can be reduced by carbon.
Q. 7
In the above reaction , the reagent "A" is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Alkaline
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Alkaline
Solution:
The reaction will be-
Correct option is 2
Q. 8 Identify the elements X and Y using the ionisation energy values given below:
Option 1:
X=F, Y=Mg
Option 2:
X=Mg, Y= Na
Option 3:
X=Mg, Y=F
Option 4:
X=Na, Y=Mg
Correct Answer:
X=Na, Y=Mg
Solution:
2nd I.E. of Alkali metals is higher than their respective period.
IE1 is very low but IE2 is very high due to the stable noble gas configuration of Na+.
Q. 9 Match the List I with List -II
The correct match is:
Option 1:
a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Option 2:
a-i, b-iv. c-iii, d-ii
Option 3:
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Option 4:
a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
Correct Answer:
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Solution:
The correct match is :
So, Option-(a)-(iii) ; (b)-(i) ; (c)-(iv) ; (d)-(ii)
Q. 10 Which of the following polymer is used in the manufacture of wood laminates?
Option 1:
cis-poly isoprene
Option 2:
Phenol and formaldehyde resin
Option 3:
Melamine and formaldehyde
Option 4:
Urea and formaldehyde resin
Correct Answer:
Urea and formaldehyde resin
Solution:
Urea-formaldehyde resin is used in the manufacture of wood laminates.
Q. 11 The correct statement about H2O2 are:
A. used in the treatment of effluents.
B. used as both oxidizing and reducing agents.
C. the two hydroxyl groups lie in the same plane
D. miscible with water
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
B,C and D only
Option 2:
A,B and D only
Option 3:
A, C and D only
Option 4:
A,B,C and D
Correct Answer:
A,B and D only
Solution:
(1) In H2O2 oxidation of oxygen is -1 Therefore acts both as oxidising and reducing agents.
(2) H2O2 is miscible in water due to intermolecular H-Bonding.
(3) H2O2 has open book structure in which both –OH groups are not on the same plane.
(4) H2O2 is used in the treatment of effluents.
So, correct statements about H2O2 are (A), (B) and (D) only.
Q. 12 Arrange the following metal complex/compounds in the increasing order of spin only
magnetic moment. Presume all the three, high spins system.
(Atomic numbers Ce= 58, Gd= 64 and Eu = 63)
Answer is:
Option 1:
c < a< b
Option 2:
a<b<c
Option 3:
a<c<b
Option 4:
b<a<c
Correct Answer:
a<c<b
Solution:
Therefore, Option 3 is correct.
Q. 13
The structure of X is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 14 Ammonolysis of Alkyl halides followed by the treatment with NaOH solution can be used to
prepare primary, secondary and tertiary amines. The purpose of NaOH in the reaction is:
Option 1:
to remove basic impurities
Option 2:
to remove acidic impurities
Option 3:
to activate NH3 used in the reaction
Option 4:
to increase the reactivity of alkyl halide
Correct Answer:
to remove acidic impurities
Solution:
During the reaction, HX (acid) is formed.
Hence, we use NaOH to remove this acidic impurity
Therefore, the correct answer is Option (2)
Q. 15 The green house gas/es is (are):
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. water vapour
D. methane
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Option 1:
A and B only
Option 2:
A and C only
Option 3:
A,C, and D only
Option 4:
A only
Correct Answer:
A,C, and D only
Solution:
The greenhouse gases are CO2, CH4 & H2O vapor.
So, (A), (C) and (D) only is correct.
Q. 16
Identify the reagent(s) 'A' and condition(s) for the reaction
Option 1:
A = Cl2 ; dark , Anhydrous AlCl3
Option 2:
A = Cl2 ; UV light
Option 3:
A = HCl, Anhydrous AlCl3
Option 4:
A= HCl , ZnCl2
Correct Answer:
A = Cl2 ; UV light
Solution:
For substitution at the allylic position in the given compound, the reagent used is Cl2 /UV light. The
reaction is free radical halogenation.
Q. 17 are known when x and y are:
Option 1:
x = Cl, Br and y = F, Cl , Br, I
Option 2:
x = Cl, Br and y = F, Cl , Br
Option 3:
x = F, Cl, Br and y = F, Cl , Br, I
Option 4:
x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl , Br, I
Correct Answer:
x = Cl, Br and y = F, Cl , Br
Solution:
Due to strong reducing nature of , FeI3 is ustable.
So, FeI3 does not exist.
Therefore y can not be I.
But y can be F, Cl, Br because halides of Fe2+ and Fe3+are stable.
So, x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br

Q. 18 Which of the folllowing is least basic?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 The exact volumes 1M NaOH solution required to neutralise 50mL 1M solution and
100 mL of 2M solution, respectively , are:
Option 1:
100 mL and 50 mL
Option 2:
100 mL and 200 mL
Option 3:
50 mL and 50 mL
Option 4:
100 mL and 100 mL
Correct Answer:
100 mL and 200 mL
Solution:
We know
Mole = Molarity X Volume.
Balanced Reaction will be-
Q. 20 The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with the atomic numbers, respectively, 33,53 and
83 are:
Option 1:
X, Y and Z are metals
Option 2:
X is metalloid , Y is non-metal and Z is a metal
Option 3:
X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal
Option 4:
X and Z are non - metals and Y is metalloid
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Correct option 2
Q. 21 A and B decomposes via first order kinetics with half - lives 54.0 min and 18.0 min
respectively.Starting from an equimolar non reactive mixture of A and B, the time taken for
the concentration of A to become 16 times that of B _________min (Rounded off to the
nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
108
Solution:
Given:
Q. 22 When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is mixed with 20mL of 0.12 M chromic sulpahte
solution, ______ moles of lead sulpahte precipiatate out. (Rounded off to the nearest
integer)
Correct Answer:
525
Solution:
Balanced reaction is-
Moles will be -
Q. 23 A 5.0 m mol dm-3 aqueous solution of KCl has a conductance of 0.55 mS when measured in
a cell of cell constant 1.3cm-1. The molar conductivity of this solution is _____ mSm2 mol-1
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Ans = 14
Q. 24 In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen , 0.1840g of ogranic compound gave 30 mL of

nitrogen collected at 287 K and 758nmn of Hg pressure. The percentage composition of
nitrogen in the compund is _________
Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
In Duma's method of estimation of Nitrogen. 0.1840 gm of an organic compound gave 30 mL of nitrogen
which is collected at 287 K & 758 mm of Hg.
Given ;
Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of Hg.
Hence actual pressure = (758 – 14) = 744 mm of Hg

V = 27.935 mL
22400 mL of N2 at STP weighs = 28 gm.
27.94 mL of N2 at STP weighs
Rond off. Answer = 19 %
Q. 25 Sulphurous acid has . The pH of

0.588 M is ________
(Round off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 26 At , 50g g of iron reacts with HCl to form FeCl2 . The evolved hydrogen gas expands
against a constant pressure of 1 bar. The work done by the gas during this expansion is
___________J.
[Given R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1. Assume , hydrogen is an ideal gas]
[Atomic mass of Fe is 55.85u]
Correct Answer:
2218
Solution:
Reaction:
Nearest integer = 2218
Q. 27 absorbs light of wavelength 498nm during a d-d transition. The octahedral

splitting energy for the above complex is _____ . (Round off to the nearest integer)
[Given ]
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Given:
The octahedral splitting energy
Ans = 4
Q. 28 Ga (atomic mass 70u) crystalline in a hexagonal close-packed structure. The total number of
voids in 0.581 g of Ga is ______ .
[Given ]
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
HCP structure: Per atom, there will be one octahedral void (OV) and two tetrahedral voids (TV).
Therefore, a total of three voids per atom is present in the HCP structure.
Therefore total no of atoms of Ga will be
Now, total Number of voids = 3 × total no. of atoms
Ans = 15
Q. 29 The number of orbitals with n=5, is ______ (Round off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
For, n = 5
l = (0, 1, 2, 3, 4)
If l = 0, m = 0
l = 1, m = {–1, 0, +1}
l = 2, m = {–2, –1, 0, +1, +2}
l = 3, m = {–3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3}
l = 4, m = {–4, –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3, +4}
5d, 5f and 5g subshell contain one-one orbital having
ml = +2
Total no. of orbitals = 3.
Ans = 3
Q. 30 At 363K, the vapour pressure of A is 21 kPa and that B is 18kPa. One mole of A and 2moles
of B are mixed. Assuming that this solution is ideal, the vapour pressure of the mixture is
__________ kPa (round off to the integer)
Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
An Ideal solution is prepared by mixing 1 mol A and 2 mol B.
According to Raoult's low
Maths
Q. 1 Let the length of intercepts on x-axis and y-axis made by the circle
, (a < 0) be and respectively. Then the shortest
distance from origin to a tangent to this circle which is perpendicular to the line
, is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2
If the points of intersection of the ellipse and the circle
lie on the curve then b is equal to :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
12
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Solve both we get
Q. 3 If (x,y,z) be an arbitary point lying on a plane P which passes through the points (42,0,0),
(0,42,0) and (0,0,42) the the value of expression
is equal to:
Option 1:
-45
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
39
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
92231
Plane passing through (42,0,0), (0,42,0), (0,0,42)
From intercept from, equation of plane is
Now, given expression is
Q. 4 Let where be twice differnetiable function such that

. If be defined as then the value of
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Add all the equation we get
Q. 5 Let C1 be the curve obtained by the solution of differential equation

. Let C2 be the solution of . If both the curve pass
along (1,1) then the area enclosed by the curves C1 and C2 is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Similarly
Q. 6 Let A = { 2,3,4,5 ...., 30} and be an equivalence relation on , defined by
, if only and only ad = bc. Then the number of ordered pairs which satisfy this
equivalence relation with ordered pair (4,3) is equal to:
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Q. 7 Let A denote the event that a 6-digit integer formed by 0,1,2,3,4,5,6 without repetition be
divisible by 3. The probability of event A is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Favourable cases :
Number divisible by 3 = Sum of digits must be divisible by 3
Case - I
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Number of ways = 6 !
Case - II
0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Number of ways = 5·5!

Case - III
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Number of ways = 5·5!
n(favourable) = 6! + 2·5·5! = 5! (6+10)
Q. 8
If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation ,
with then equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9
The maximum value of is
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10
Consider the integral where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than
or equal to x. Then the value of I is equal to:
Option 1:
9 (e-1)
Option 2:
45 (e-1)
Option 3:
9 (e+1)
Option 4:
45 (e+1)
Correct Answer:
45 (e-1)
Solution:
Q. 11
Let be such that function is continous at
x =0, where {x} = x - {x}, is the greatest ineger less than or equal to to x. Then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
no such exists
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
no such exists
Solution:
Function can't be continuous
Q. 12 Let and . If
and , then the value of
is equal to:
Option 1:
13
Option 2:
11
Option 3:
9
Option 4:
15
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
Q. 13 The least value of where z is complex number which satisfies the inequality
,is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 14 Given that the inverse trignometric functiontake principal values only. Then , the number of
real values of x which satsify is equal to:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Put x = 0, 1, –1 in the original equation We see that all values satisfy the original equation.
Number of solution = 3
Q. 15 Consider a rectangle ABCD having 5,7,6,9 points in the interior of the line segements AB, CD,
BC, DA respectively. Let be the number of triangles having these points from different
sides as vertices and be the number of quadrilaterals havings these points from different
sides as vertices. Then is equal to:
Option 1:
1890
Option 2:
795
Option 3:
717
Option 4:
1173
Correct Answer:
717
Solution:
Q. 16
If the foot of the perpendicular from point (4,3,8) on line
is (3,5,7) then the shortest distance between the line L1 and line
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 Let C be the locus of the mirror image of a point on the parabola with respect to
the line y=x. Then the equation of tangent to C at P (2,1) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 Let A (-1, 1), B ( 3,4) and C (2,0) be given three points. A line y = mx, m > 0, intersects lines AC
and BC at point P and Q respectively. Let A1 and A2 be the area of and
respectively, such that , then the value of m is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 19 Let be a quadratic polynomial with real coefficients such that
and leaves remainder 5 when it is divided by . Then the
value of is equal to :
Option 1:
11
Option 2:
15
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
9
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Q. 20 Let f be a real valued function, defined on R - {-1, 1} and given by
Then in which of the following intervals, function f(x) is increasing?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 For real numbers , , and if
where C is an arbitrary constant , then the value of is equal to:
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Now
Q. 22 Let n be a positive integer. Let
. If
then n is equal to :
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Q. 23
Let , a, b be in a G.P and be in a A.P, where a,b >0. Then 72(a+b) is equal to
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
1/16, a, b are in G.P., so
Q. 24 If the distance of the point (1, -2, 3) from the plane measured
parallel to the line, is then the value of |m| is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 25 Let upto n -
terms, where a>1. If and , then the value of a is equal to
______.
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Let
Q. 26 Let be a vector perpendicular to the vectors and . If

then the value of is equal to:
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
Q. 27
Let and be two matrices with real entities such that ,
where and . If and
, then the value of k is ____
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 28 Consider the statistics of two sets of observations as follows:
If the variance of the combined set of these two obseravtion is , then the value of n is
equal to __________
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Hence n = 5.
Q. 29 Let and be defined as
and ,
where a,b are non-negative real numbers. If (gof) (x) is continous for all , then a + b is
equal to ____
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 30 In , the length of sides AC and AB are 12 cm and 5cm respectively. If the area of
is and R and r are respectively the radii of circumcircle and incircile of
, then the value of (in cm) is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
17 March shift -1
Physics
Q. 1 An AC current is given by . A hot wire ammeter will give a reading
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 Two ideal polyatomic gases at temperatures and are mixed so that there is no loss of
energy. If and , and , and be the degrees of freedom, masses, number of
molecules of the first and second gas respectively, the temperature of mixture of these two
gases is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the final temperature of the mixture be T.
Since, there is no loss in energy.
Q. 3 When two soap bubbles of radii a and b (b > a) coalesce, the radius curvature of common
surface is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 A Carnot's engine working between 400 K and 800 K has a work output of 1200 J per cycle.
The amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle.
Option 1:
2400 J
Option 2:
1800 J
Option 3:
3200 J
Option 4:
1600 J
Correct Answer:
2400 J
Solution:
Q. 5 Two identical metal wires of thermal conductivities and respectively are connected in
series. The effective thermal conductivity of the combination is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 A current of 10 A exists in a wire of cross sectional area of 5 mm 2 with a drift velocity of

. The number of free electrons in each cubic meter of the wire is _________.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 A modern grand - prix racing car of mass m is travelling on a flat track in a circular arc of
radius R with a speed v. If the coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the track is
then the magnitude of negative lift acting downwards on the car is : (Assume forces
on the four tyres are identical and g = acceleration due to gravity)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 A polyatomic ideal gas has 24 vibrational modes. What is the value of ?
Option 1:
1.03
Option 2:
10.3
Option 3:
1.37
Option 4:
1.30
Correct Answer:
1.03
Solution:
Since each vibrational mode has 2 degrees of freedom hence total vibrational degrees of freedom =48
Q. 9 A mass M hangs on a massless rod of length l which rotates at a constant angular frequency.
The mass M moves with steady speed in a circular path of constant radius. Assume that the
system is in steady circular motion with constant angular velocity . The angular momentum
of M about points A is which lies in the positive z direction and the angular momentum
of M about point . The correct statement for this system is :
Option 1:
and are both constant in magnitude and direction
Option 2:
is constant, both in magnitude and direction
Option 3:
is constant in direction with varying magnitude
Option 4:
is constant, both magnitude and direction
Correct Answer:
is constant, both in magnitude and direction
Solution:
We know,
Now with respect to A, we always get direction
of along +ve z -axis and also constant magnitude as mvr. But with respect to B, we get constant
magnitude but continuously changing direction.
Q. 10 A selenoid of 1000 turns per metre has a core with relative permeability 500. Insulated
windings of the solenoid carry an electric current of 5 A. The magnetic flux density produced
by the solenoid is : (permeability of free space )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 If an electron is moving in the nth orbit of the hydrogen atom, then its velocity for the
nth orbit is given as :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know the velocity of the electron in the shell of
the hydrogen atom is given by
Q. 12 The thickness at the centre of a plano convex lens is 3 mm and the diameter is 6 cm. If the
speed of light in the material of the lens is . The focal length of the lens is
________.
Option 1:
0.30 cm
Option 2:
1.5 cm
Option 3:
15 cm
Option 4:
30 cm
Correct Answer:
30 cm
Solution:
Q. 13 The output of the given combination gates represents :
Option 1:
NAND Gate
Option 2:
NOR Gate
Option 3:
XOR Gate
Option 4:
AND Gate
Correct Answer:
NAND Gate
Solution:
Q. 14 For what value of displacement the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic
oscillation become equal ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 15 A triangular plate is shown. A force is applied at point P. The torque at point

P with respect to point 'O' and 'Q' are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Torque about 'O'
Torque about 'Q'
Q. 16 The varnier scale used for measurement has a positive zero error of 2.0 mm. If while taking
a measurement it was noted that '0' on the vernier scale lies between 8.5 cm and 8.6 cm,
vernier coincidence is 6, then the correct value of measurement is _______ cm.
(least count = 0.01 cm)
Option 1:
8.56 cm
Option 2:
8.54 cm
Option 3:
8.58 cm
Option 4:
8.36 cm
Correct Answer:
8.54 cm
Solution:
Positive zero error =0.2 mm
Main scale reading =8.5 cm
Vernier scale reading =
Final reading =8.5+0.06-0.02=8.54 cm

Q. 17 An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of wavelength of
electron to that of photon is : (c being the velocity of light)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for sometime after which it decelerates at a
constant rate to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t seconds, the total distance
travelled is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the car accelerate for time traveling distance and acquire maximum velocity v.
Then, [from the equation, ]
and [from the equation, v=u+a t ]
After this car decelerates for time to come to rest

Hence, [from the equation, ]
and [from the equation, u=v-a t ]
Also, total distance traveled,

Q. 19 Which level of the single ionized carbon has the same energy as the ground state energy of
hydrogen atom ?
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
The energy of H-atom is
for H-atom Z=1 for the ground state, n=1
Now for carbon atom (single ionized), Z=6
Q. 20 A boy is rolling a 0.5 kg ball on the frictionless floor with the speed of 20 ms -1 the ball gets
deflected by an obstacle on the way. After deflection it moves with 5% of its initial kinetic
energy. What is the speed of the ball now ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
Initial kinetic energy
After deflection, it moves with 5 % of
Now, let the final speed be 'v' m/s, then :
Q. 21 If N average force is exerted by a light wave on a non - reflecting surface of 30

2
cm area during 40 minutes of time span, the enrgy flux of light just before it falls on the
surface is ______ W/cm2 . (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
(Assume complete absorption and normal incidence conditions are there)
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
Q. 22 The angular speed of truck wheel is increased from 900 rpm to 2460 rpm in 26 seconds. The
number of revolutions by the truck engine during this time is ______.
(Assuming the acceleration to be uniform).
Correct Answer:
728
Solution:
We know,
Let the number of revolutions be N
Q. 23 Consider two identical springs each of spring constant k and negligible mass compared to
the mass M as shown. Fig . 1 shows one of them and Fig. 2 shows their series combination.
The ratios of time period of oscillation of the two SHM is where value of x is
___________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 24 Two blocks (m = 0.5 kg and M = 4.5 kg ) are arranged on a horizontal frictionless table as
shown in figure. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is . Then the
maximum horizontal force that can be applied on the larger block so that the blocks move
together is ________N. (Round off to the Nearest Integer) [Take g as 9.8 ms -2]
Correct Answer:
21
Solution:
Q. 25 The equivalent resistance of series combination of two resistors is 's'. When they are
connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is 'p'. If s = np,then minimum value for n is
_________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Q. 26 The following bodies,
(1) a ring
(2) a disc
(3) a solid cylinder
(4) a solid sphere
of same mass 'm' and radius 'R' are allowed to roll down without slipping simultaneously
from the top of the inclined plane. The body which will reach first at the bottom of the
inclined plane is _______.
[Mark the body as per their respective numbering given in the question]
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
for least time, k should be the least
and k is least for the solid sphere.

Q. 27
Four identical rectangular plates with length, and breadth, are
arranged as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance between A and C is The value
of x is _________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 28 For VHF signal broadcasting, _________km2 of maximum service area will be covered by an
antenna tower of height 30 m , if the receiving antenna is placed at ground. Let radius of the
earth be 6400 km. (Round off to the Nearest Integer) (Take as 3.14)
Correct Answer:
1206
Solution:
Q. 29 The radius in kilometer to which the present radius of earth (R=6400 km) to be compressed
so that the escape velocity is increased 10 times is ________.
Solution:
Q. 30 A parallel plate capacitor whose capacitance C is 14 pF is charged by a battery to a potential

difference V = 12 V between its plates. The charging battery is now disconnected and a
porcelin plate with k = 7 is inserted between the plates, then the plate would oscillate back
and forth between the plates with a constant mechanical energy of ________pJ.
(Assume no friction)
Correct Answer:
864
Solution:
and
Chemistry
Q. 1 Which of the following compound CANNOT act as a Lewis base ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Lewis base: Chemical species which has the capability to donate electron pairs.
In NF3 , SF4 , ClF3 central atom (i.e. N, S, Cl) having lone pair, therefore, act as lewis base.
In PCl5 central atom (P) does not have lone pair, therefore, does not act as a lewis base.
Therefore, the Correct option is (1)
Q. 2 With respect to drug-enzyme interaction, identify the wrong statement.
Option 1:
Allosteric inhibitor competes with the enzyme's active site
Option 2:
Non-Competitive inhibitor binds to the allosteric site
Option 3:
Competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme's active site
Option 4:
Allosteric inhibitor changes the enzyme's active site
Correct Answer:
Allosteric inhibitor competes with the enzyme's active site
Solution:
Drugs compete with the natural substrate for their attachment on the active sites of enzymes. Such drugs
are called competitive inhibitors.
Some drugs do not bind to the enzyme’s active site. These bind to a different site of enzyme which is
called allosteric site.
This binding of inhibitor at allosteric site changes the shape of the active site in such a way that substrate
cannot recognise it.
From above concept- Correct statement are-
2) Non-Competitive inhibitor binds to the allosteric site.
3) Competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme's active site
4) Allosteric inhibitor changes the enzyme's active site.
So, incorrect will be -
1) Allosteric inhibitor competes with the enzyme's active site
Therefore, Correct option is (1)
Q. 3 A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed in a solid is called a /an :
Option 1:
gel
Option 2:
aerosol
Option 3:
Solid sol
Option 4:
foam
Correct Answer:
Solid sol
Solution:
A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed in a solid is called a solid sol.
Q. 4 The absolute value of the electron gain enthalpy of halogens satisfies :
Option 1:
Cl> F > Br > I
Option 2:
F >Cl> Br > I
Option 3:
Cl> Br > F > I
Option 4:
I > Br >Cl> F
Correct Answer:
Cl> F > Br > I
Solution:
Given order of electron gain enthalpy (Absolute value) in NCERT-
Cl > F > Br > I
Chlorine has a higher electron gain enthalpy than fluorine due to less electron density.

Q. 5 The INCORRECT statement (s) about heavy water is (are)
(A) used as a moderator in nuclear reactor
(B) obtained as a by-product in fertilizer industry
(C) used for the study of reaction mechanism
(D) has a higher dielectric constant than water
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Option 1:
(C) only
Option 2:
(B) and (D) only
Option 3:
(D) only
Option 4:
(B) only
Correct Answer:
(D) only
Solution:
the correct statements about heavy water are
(A) used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor
(B) obtained as a by-product in the fertilizer industry
(C) used for the study of the reaction mechanism
But the incorrect statement about heavy water is
(D) has a higher dielectric constant than water.
because the dielectric constant of H2O is greater than heavy water.

Q. 6 What is the spin -only magnetic moment value (BM) of a divalent metal ion with atomic
number 25, in it's aqueous solution ?
Option 1:
5.26
Option 2:
5.0
Option 3:
zero
Option 4:
5.92
Correct Answer:
5.92
Solution:
Electronic configuration of the divalent metal ion having atomic number 25 is
Total number of unpaired electrons = 5
Q. 7
The product "A" in the above reaction is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reaction will be-
Q. 8
Product "A" in the above chemical reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Statement I : Retardation factor can be measured in meter/centimeter.
Statement II : value of compound remains constant in all solvants.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Rf = Retardation factor
Retardation factor is dimension less.
Note: Rf = value of different compounds are different.
So, Both statement I and statement II are false
Q. 10 Reducing smog is a mixture of :
Option 1:
Smoke, fog and
Option 2:
Smoke, fog and
Option 3:
Smoke, fog and
Option 4:
Smoke, fog and
Correct Answer:
Smoke, fog and
Solution:
Reducing or classical smog is the combination of smoke, fog, and SO2 .
Therefore, the Correct option is (4).
Q. 11 Which of the following reaction is an example of ammonolysis ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The process of cleavage of the C–X bond by the Ammonia molecule is known as ammonolysis.
So, only the following reaction is an example of Ammonolysis among the given options:
Q. 12 A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of electrons and forms three single bonds.
The shape of this molecule is :
Option 1:
trigonal pyramidal
Option 2:
planar triangular
Option 3:
see-saw
Option 4:
T-shaped
Correct Answer:
T-shaped
Solution:
A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of electrons and forms three single bonds.
2 L.P + 3 B.P = 5 (Hybridised Orbitals)
From VSEPR theory the hybridization will be sp3d fro 5 Hybridised Orbitals.
The shape of this molecule is T-shaped.
Q. 13 Hoffmann bromomide degradation of benzamide gives product A, which upon heating with
and gives product B.
The structures of A and B are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide gives product (A) which is Aniline. Aniline upon heating
with and gives a foul smelling Phenyl Isocyanide as the major product.
The reaction is represented below:
Therefore, the correct option is (3)
Q. 14 The correct order of conductivity of ions in water is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
has lower hydrated radius so its electrical conductivity is higher.
Therefore, the correct option is (3)
Q. 15 The point of intersection and sudden increase in the slope, in the diagram given below,
respectively, indicates:
Option 1:
and melting or boiling point of the metal oxide
Option 2:
and decomposition of the metal oxide
Option 3:
and decomposition of the metal oxide
Option 4:
and reduction of the metal oxide
Correct Answer:
and melting or boiling point of the metal oxide
Solution:
At intersection point and sudden increase in slope is due to melting or boiling point of the
metal.
Q. 16 Mesityl oxide is a common name of :
Option 1:
3- Methyl cyclohexane carbaldehyde
Option 2:
2, 4 - Dimethyl pentan -3-one
Option 3:
2-Methyl cyclohexanone
Option 4:
4-Methyl pent -3-en-2-one
Correct Answer:
4-Methyl pent -3-en-2-one
Solution:
Mesityl oxide is a common name of 4-Methyl pent-3-en-2-one.
Q. 17
The above reaction requires which of the following reaction conditions ?
Option 1:
623 K, 300 atm
Option 2:
623 K, Cu 300 atm
Option 3:
573 K, Cu, 300 atm
Option 4:
573 K, 300 atm
Correct Answer:
623 K, 300 atm
Solution:
Given in NCERT:
Chlorobenzene can be converted into phenol by heating in an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution at a
temperature of 623K and a pressure of 300 atmospheres.
So, from above the reaction, the Below reaction will be get without the aqueous medium.
Statement I : Potassium permanganate on heating at 573 K forms potassium mangabate.
Statement II : Both potassium permanganate and potassium manganate are tetrahedral

and paramagnetic in nature.
given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Statement I: Potassium permanganate on heating at 573 K forms potassium manganate.
The above reaction is correct.
Statement II : Both potassium permanganate and potassium manganate are tetrahedral and
paramagnetic in nature.
But potassium permanganate is not paramagnetic.
So,
Statement-I is correct.
Statement-II is incorrect.
Q. 19 Which of the following is correct structure of tyrosine ?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of Tyrosine amino acid is

Q. 20 Which of the following is an aromatic compound ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to the Huckel's rule,
If a cyclic, planar molecule has (4n+2) electrons, it is considered aromatic.
So, in the aromatic compounds, possible electrons are 2, 6,10...etc.
Now
1) 6 electrons are present, it is cyclic and planar.
2) 6 electrons are present, it is planar but not cyclic.
3) 4 electrons are present, it is planar but not cyclic.
4) 4 electrons are present, it is planar and cyclic.
So, Only option 1 following all conditions.
Q. 21 The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial pressure of 20 kPa in the vapour above water.
The moral solubility of oxygen in water is ___________ . (Round off to the
Nearest Integer)
[Given : Henry's law constant
Density of water with dissolved oxygen ]
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
The effect of pressure on the solubility of the gas in the liquid is given by Henry's law, which states that
the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the
solution at a definite temperature.
The solubility is taken as the mass of the gas dissolved per unit volume of the liquid. Thus, if m is the
mass of the gas dissolved per unit volume of the solvent and P is the pressure of the gas in equilibrium
with the solution, then
where K is the proportionality constant.
So,
Ans = 25
Q. 22 The standard enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and CaO are and
respectively.
For the reaction
the standard reaction enthalpy ___________kJ.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
230
Solution:
Given reaction is:
We know the standard reaction enthalpy formula-
= – 1675 –3 (–635)
= 230 kJ
Ans = 230
Q. 23 15 mL of aqueous solution of in acidic medium completely reacted with 20 mL of 0.03

M aqueous . The molarity of the solution is _________ (Round off to
Correct Answer:
24
Solution:
15 mL of aqueous solution of in acidic medium completely reacted with 20 mL of 0.03 M aqueous
.
From the above statement we can understand by law of equivalence that
So,
M1 x V1 x n1 = M2 x V2 x n2
MFe x 15 x 1 = 0.03 x 20 x 6
M = 0.24 M = 24 x 10-2 M
Ans = 24
Q. 24
In the above reaction, 3.9 g of benzene on nitration gives 4.92 g of nitrobenzene. The
percentage yield of nitrobenzene in the above reaction is ______%. (Round off to the Nearest
Integer).
(Given atomic mass : )
Correct Answer:
80
Solution:
Given reaction:
Theoretically calculation:-
So, from 78 g of benzene on nitration gives 123 g of nitrobenzene.
1 g of Benzene on nitration gives 123/78 g of nitrobenzene.
3.9 g of benzene on nitration gives 3.9 x(123/78) g of nitrobenzene.
3.9 g of benzene on nitration gives 6.15 g of nitrobenzene.
But the actual amount of nitrobenzene formed is 4.92 g.
Ans = 80
Q. 25 The mole fraction of a solute in a 100 molal aqueous solution is _________ . (Round off
to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Atomic masses ]
Correct Answer:
64
Solution:
100 molal aqueous solution means
there is 100 moles solute in 1 kg = 1000 gm water.
So,
moles of water = 1000/18 grams
Now,
Ans = 64
Q. 26 0.01 moles of a weak acid is dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M

solution. The degree of dissociation of HA is ________ (Rounded off to the Nearest
Integer). [Neglect volume change on adding HA. Assume degree of dissociation <<1]
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
0.01 moles of a weak acid HA (Ka = 2.0 x 10-6 ) is dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M HCl solution.
Because 0.01 >> x , for weak acid.

Given [Neglect volume change on adding HA. Assume degree of dissociation <<1]
Now,
After putting the value
Now,
Ans = 2
Q. 27 The reaction white phosphorus on boiling with alkali in inert atmosphere resulted inthe
formation of product 'A'. The reaction of 1 mol of 'A' with excess of in aqueous
medium gives ________mol (s) of . (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
The reaction of white phosphorus on boiling with alkali in the inert atmosphere resulted in the formation
of the product 'A'.
The reaction 1 mol of 'A' with an excess of AgNO3 in an aqueous medium gives 4 moles of Ag.
Ans = 4
Q. 28 A certain orbital has n =4 and mL = -3. The number of radial nodes in this orbital is
____________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
We know a formula:
Number of radial nodes = (n -l-1)
given n = 4, m= -3
So, l = 0,1,2,3
Now, we know
for only l = 3
m = - 3 to + 3,
So,
Number of radial nodes = (4 -3 -1) = 0
Ans = 0
Q. 29 For a certain first order reaction 32 % of the reactant is left after 570 s. The rate constant of
this reaction is ________ (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
We know, For 1st order reaction,
Given
For a certain first order reaction 32% of the reactant is left after 570 s.
So, at t = 570 sec
After putting the values-

Ans = 2
Q. 30 The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous mixture of 6.4 g of methane and 8.8 g of
carbon dioxide in a 10 L vessel at 27o C is _________kPa.
[Assume gases are ideal,
Atomic masses :
Correct Answer:
150
Solution:
Given,
V = 10 L, T = 27o C = 300 K
and
So, Convert Volume in cubic meter unit Because R in Pa unit has meter unit.
And
Asking about The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous mixture -
So, we know the formula -
Here, the mixture of gases is also a gas and moles will be total moles.
Now,
Ans = 150
Maths
Q. 1
The sum of possible values of x for is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
(Not possible)
Hence, x = -8
Q. 2
The value of , where denotes the gratest
integer is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 In a school, there are three types of games to be played. Some of the students play two
types of games, but none play all the three games. Which Venn diagrams can justify the
above statement ?
Option 1:
None of these
Option 2:
P and Q
Option 3:
Q and R
Option 4:
P and R
Correct Answer:
None of these
Solution:
is visible in all three venn diagram
Hence, Option (1)
Q. 4 Two dices are rolled. If both dices have six faces numbered 1,2,3,5,7 and 11, then the
probability that the sum of the numbers on the top faces is less than or equal to 8 is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Dice I : 1 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5,7
Dice I : 2 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5
Dice I : 3 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5
Dice I : 5 and Dice II : 1,2,3
Dice I : 7 and Dice II : 1
Q. 5 The system of equations and has

no solution if k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
But for k = -2, at least one out of are not zero
Hence for no solution, k = -2
Q. 6 Choose the incorrect statement about the two circles whose equations are given below :
and .
Option 1:
Distance between two centres is the average of radii of both the circles.
Option 2:
Circles have two intersection points
Option 3:
Both circles pass through the centre of each other
Option 4:
Both circles centres lie inside region of one another
Correct Answer:
Both circles centres lie inside region of one another
Solution:
Q. 7 Let and .
If then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 The equation of the plane which contains the y-axis and passes through the point is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Alternate
Q. 9 In a triangle PQR, the co-ordinates of the points P and Q are and
respectively. If the equation of the perpendicular bisector of PR is then
the centre of the circumcircle of the is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Equation of line PQ is
Slope of perpendicular bisector of PQ is 1 and passes through the mid point of P and Q.
Equation of perpendicular bisector of PQ is
y=x
Solving with 2 x - y +2 = 0 will give circumcenter of triangle PQR
Hence Circumcentre of triangle is (-2,-2).

Q. 10
Find the value of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 Which of the following statement is incorrect for the function for such that
Option 1:
has an inflection point at
Option 2:
is a strictly decreasing function
Option 3:
is an even function
Option 4:
is a strictly increasing function
Correct Answer:
is an even function
Solution:
Using
Adding (1) and (2)

Constant and even function
Q. 12 If the Boolean expression is a tautology, then Boolean expression

is equivalent to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 The inverse of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Taking both side
Q. 14 Team 'A' consists of 7 boys and n girls and Team 'B' has 4 boys and 6 girls. If a total of 52
single matches can be arranged between these two teams when a boy plays against a boy
and a girl plays a against a girl, then n is equal to :
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Total matches between boys of both team
Total matches between girls of both team

Now,
Q. 15 If the fourth term in the expansion of is 4480, then the value of x where
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16
If and det then a possible value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 If upto 100 terms, then

is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 The area of the triangle with vertices and is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 Which of the following is true for that satisfies the differential equation
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 The line is a tangent to the circle at the point and the centre of the
circle lies on Then the radius of the circle is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Slope of tangent is m1 = 2
Hence slope of normal from point A(2,5) to the centre of circle is

Tangent is perpendicuar to the normal
Q. 21 The maximum value of z in the following equation where

and for and is ______________.
Correct Answer:
904
Solution:
For maxima and minima
Hence maximum value of Z is

Q. 22 If is divided by 17 , then the remainder is _______________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Divide 2021 by 17 we get -2 as remainder
Q. 23
If and its first derivative with respect to x is
when x=1,where a and b are integers, then the minimum value of is

_________________.
Correct Answer:
481
Solution:
Let
Q. 24
If , then the value of is equal to
_______________.
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Now, characteristic roots of A are 2 and -1.

So, characteristic roots of are and 1 .
Hence,
Q. 25
If represents the greatest integer function, then the value of
is ____________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 26 If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes
and the point is
then the value of is ___________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Required plane is
which is satisfied by the point (-2,1,3).

Hence,
Thus, plane is
So,
Q. 27 If and such that and

then is equal to __________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 28 Let there be three independent events and . The probabolity that only occurs
is , only occurs is and only occurs is . Let 'p' denote the probability of none of
events occurs that satisfies the equation and . All
the given probabilities are assumed to lie in the interval
Then, is equal to _______________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Q. 29 The minimum distance between any two points and while considering point on
one circle and point on the other circle for the given circles' equations
and is
______________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 30
If the function is continuous at each point in its domain and
thne k is _________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
17 March shift -2
Physics
Q. 1 The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of various series. Which series of
hydrogen atomic spectra is lying in the visible region ?
Option 1:
Lyman series
Option 2:
Balmer series
Option 3:
Paschen series
Option 4:
Brackett series
Correct Answer:
Balmer series
Solution:
In the Balmer series the visible range of line spectra of Hydrogen atom exists.
Q. 2 Which one is the correct option for the two different thermodynamic processes ?
Option 1:
(a) only
Option 2:
(c) and (a)
Option 3:
(b) and (c)
Option 4:
(c) and (d)
Correct Answer:
(c) and (d)
Solution:
Option (b) is wrong, since in isothermal process T = constant
Option (c) & (d) matches isothermes &adiabatic formula :
Q. 3 Which one of the following will be the output of the given circuit ?
Option 1:
NAND Gate
Option 2:
XOR Gate
Option 3:
NOR Gate
Option 4:
AND Gate
Correct Answer:
XOR Gate
Solution:
A B A+B Y
0 0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 1
1 0 1 1 1
1 1 0 1 0
When the Inputs are different then we are getting high value and vice-versa, this happens in case of XOR
gate only.
We can refer XOR gate truth table for this -
Q. 4 If one mole of the polyatomic gas is having two vibrational modes and is the ratio of molar
specific heats for polyatomic gas then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
SInce the vibration modes = 2, so the D.O.F. = 2x2 = 4
Also there will be 3 rotational and 3 translational motion each.
Q. 5 What happens to the inductive reactance and the current in a purely inductive circuit if the
frequency is halved ?
Option 1:
Both, inducting reactance and current will be doubled.
Option 2:
Inductive reactance will be halved and current will be doubled
Option 3:
Inductive reactance will be doubled and current will be halved.
Option 4:
Both, inductive reactance and current will be doubled.
Correct Answer:
Inductive reactance will be halved and current will be doubled
Solution:
So when f will be halved, so the will be halved.

So, inductive reactance will be halved and current will be doubled
Q. 6 A geostationary satellite is orbiting around an arbitary planet 'P' at a height of 11 R above

the surface of 'P', R being the radius of 'P'. The time period of another satellite in hours at a
height of 2R from the surface of 'P' is __________. 'P' has the time period of 24 hours.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
List - I List - II
(a) Phase difference between current and voltage in (i) ;current

purely resistive AC circuit
leads voltage
(b) Phase difference between current and voltage in (ii) Zero

a pure inductive AC circuit
(c) Phase difference between current and voltage in (iii) ;current

a pure capacitive AC circuit
lags voltage
(d) Phase difference between current and voltage in (iv)

an LCR series circuit
Option 1:
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) -(ii)
Option 2:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) -(i)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) -(i)
Option 4:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) -(iv)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) -(iv)
Solution:
Q. 8 The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have resistances as shsown in the figure. A
galvanometer of resistance is connected across BD. Calculate the current through the
galvanometer when a potentail difference of is maintained across AC.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
A is directly connected to positive terminal of battery so, VA = 10 V and VC = 0 V
Let VB = x V and VD = y V
So,
By Nodal analysis at B and D -
on solving (1) & (2)
Q. 9 Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring
constants and respectively. If the maximum velocities during oscillations are equal,
the ratio of the amplitude of A and B is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10 Two identical blocks A and B each of mass m resting on the smooth horizontal floor are
connected by a light spring of natural length L and spring constant K. A third block C of mass
m moving with a speed v along the line joining A and B collides with A. The maximum
compression in the spring is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
After collision between C and A, C stops while A moves with speed of C i.e. v [in head on elastic collision,
two equal masses exchange their velocities]. At maximum compression, A and B will move with same
speed v/2 (From conservation of linear momentum).
Let x be the maximum compression in this position.
∴ KE of A-B system at maximum compression
From conservation of mechanical energy in two positions shown in above figure
Q. 11 A hairpin like shape as shown in figure is made by bending a long current carrying wire.
What is the magnitude of a magnetic field at point P which lies on the centre of the
semicircle ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 12 An object is located at 2 km beneath the surface of the water. If the fractional compression
is 1.36%, the ratio of hydraulic stress to the corresponding hydraulic strain will be
__________.
[Given : density of water is 1000 kgm -3 and g = 9.8 ms -2]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 A rubber ball is released from a height of 5 m above the floor. It bounces back repeatedly,
always rising to of the height through which it falls. Find the average speed of the ball.
(Take g = 10 ms -2).
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
If a ball is dropped from a height h on a horizontal floor, then it strikes with the floor with a speed.
Height of the ball after nth rebound : Obviously, the velocity of ball after nth rebound will be
Total distance travelled by the ball before it stops bouncing

Total time taken by the ball to stop bouncing
SO by putting the value 'e', ho and g, we can get average velocity
So,
Q. 14 A sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is rolling with an initial speed of 1 ms -1 goes up an
inclined plane which makes an angle of with the horizontal plane, without slipping. How
long will the sphere take to return to the starting point A ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 15 A carrier signal is an amplitude modulated by a message

signal and transmitted through an antenna. What will be the
bandwidth of the modulated signal?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 Two cells of emf 2E and E with internal resistance respectively are connected in
series to an external resistor R (see figure). The value of R, at which the potential difference
across the terminals of the first cell becomes zero is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travels with the speed of 300 ms -1 along the positive x-
axis. Each point of the wave moves to and fro through a total distance of 6 cm. What will be
the mathematical expression of this travelling wave ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So the equation that suits the following is -

Q. 18 A block of mass 1 kg attached to a spring is made to oscillate with an initial amplitude of 12
cm. After 2 minutes the amplitude decreases to 6 cm. Determine the value of the damping
constant for this motion. (take In 2 = 0.693)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 The velocity of a particle is . Its position is at ; then its

displacement after time is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 Two identical photocathodes receive the light of frequencies and respectively.

velocities of the photo-electrons coming out are and respectively, then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 A body of mass 1 kg rests on a horizontal floor with which it has a coefficient of static friction
. It is desired to make the body move by applying the minimum possible force F.N. The
value of F will be ____________.(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Take g = 10 ms -2 ]
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Q. 22 The electric field intensity produced by the radiation coming from a 100 W bulb at a distance
of 3 m is E. The electric field intensity produced by the radiation coming from 60 W at the
same distance is
Where the value of x = ___________________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 23 A boy of mass 4 kg is standing on a piece of wood having mass 5 kg. If the coefficient of
friction between the wood and the floor is 0.5, the maximum force that the boy can exert on
the rope so that the piece of wood does not move from its place is ________N.(Round off to
the Nearest Integer). [Take g = 10 ms -2]
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
Q. 24 Seawater at a frequency has permittivity and resistivity
Imagine a parallel plate capacitor is immersed in seawater and is driven by
an alternating voltage source Then the conduction current density
becomes times the displacement current density after time The value of x is
_________.
(Given : )
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Displacement current,
Where d is the distance between plates & conduction current
Divide equations (1) and (2)

Q. 25 The image of an object placed in air formed by a convex refracting surface is at a distnace of
10 m behind the surface. The image is real and is at of the distance of the object from
the surface. The wavelength of light inside the surface is times the wavelength in air.The
radius of the curved surface is The value of 'x' is ____________.
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
Q. 26 Suppose you have taken a dilute solution of oleic acid in such a way that its concentration
becomes 0.01 cm 3 of oleic acid per cm 3 of the solution. Then you make a thin film of this
solution (monomolecular thickness) of area 4 cm2 by considering 100 spherical drops of
radius Then the thickness of oleic acid layer will be
Where x is __________.
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
Q. 27
The electric field in a region is given by with The
flux of this field through a rectangular surface area 0.4 m 2 parallel to the Y-Z plane is
_________
Correct Answer:
640
Solution:
Q. 28 A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field If

Bohr's quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals vary with where
is ____________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 29 A capacitor is first charged to a potential difference of 10 V using a battery. Then

the battery is removed and the capacitor is connected to an uncharged capacitor of
The charge on in equilibrium condition is ___________. (Round off to the
Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Q. 30 The disc of mass M with uniform surface mass density is shown in the figure. The centre
of mass of the quarter disc (the shaded area) is at the position where x is __________. (Round
off to the Nearest Integer).
[where a is the radius of the disc]
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Mass per unit of quarter disc =
Using symmetry, For half disc, ycm =
Similarly, for half disc, along x-axis centre of mass, at x =

So, the centre of mass of quarter disc is =
Here, R = a, so -
So, x = 4
Chemistry
Q. 1 The common positive oxidation states for an element with atomic number 24, are :
Option 1:
+1 and +3
Option 2:
+1 to +6
Option 3:
+1 and +3 to +6
Option 4:
+2 to +6
Correct Answer:
+2 to +6
Solution:
The element with atomic number 24 is Cr (Z=24) .
Cr shows common oxidation states starting from +2 to +6.

Q. 2 The correct pair(s) of the ambident nucleophiles is (are) :
Option 1:
(A) only
Option 2:
(B) only
Option 3:
(A) and (C) only
Option 4:
(B) and (C) only
Correct Answer:
(A) and (C) only
Solution:
Ambident nucleophiles - More than one electron-donating side.
So, (A) and (C) are ambident nucleophiles.
Q. 3 Amongst the following, the linear species is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
These are structures of given species-
So,
is linear species.
Q. 4 The set of elements that differ in mutual relationship from those of the other sets is :
Option 1:
B – Si
Option 2:
Li – Mg
Option 3:
Be – Al
Option 4:
Li – Na
Correct Answer:
Li – Na
Solution:
Mutual relationships can be anything.
Li–Mg, B–Si, Be–Al show diagonal relationship but Li and Na do not show diagonal relationship as both
belongs to the same group and not placed diagonally.
Statement I : 2 - methylbutane on oxidation with KMnO4 gives 2- methylbutan - 2- ol.
Statement II : n - alkanes can be easily oxidised to corresponding alcohols with KMnO4.
Choose the correct option :
Option 1:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are correct
Option 4:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Solution:
Statement I : 2 - methylbutane on oxidation with KMnO4 gives 2- methylbutan - 2- ol.
The above statement I is correct.
Statement II : n - alkanes can be easily oxidised to corresponding alcohols with KMnO4.

Alkanes are very less reactive, tertiary hydrogen can oxidise to alcohol with KMnO4.
The above statement II is incorrect.
Q. 6 One of the by-products formed during the recovery of NH3 from Solvay process is :
Option 1:
NaHCO3
Option 2:
CaCl2
Option 3:
Ca(OH)2
Option 4:
NH4Cl
Correct Answer:
CaCl2
Solution:
On a small scale ammonia is obtained from ammonium salts which decompose when treated with
caustic soda or calcium hydroxide.
Recovery of NH3
Q. 7 Fructose is an example of :
Option 1:
Aldohexose
Option 2:
Pyranose
Option 3:
Heptose
Option 4:
Ketohexose
Correct Answer:
Ketohexose
Solution:
The structure of Fructose is-
Keto group is present.
Fructose is a ketohexose.
Q. 8 For the coagulation of a negative sol, the species below, that has the highest flocculating
power is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Generally, the greater the valence of the flocculating ion added, the greater is its power to cause
precipitation. This is known as the Hardy-Schulze rule.
For a negative sol, a positive ion is required for flocculation.
In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power is in the order: Ba2+ >Na+
So, Ba2+ has the highest flocculating power.
Q. 9 Match List - I with List -II :
List - I List - II
(a) Haematite
(b) Bauxite
(c) Magnetite
(d) Malachite
Option 1:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
Option 4:
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Solution:
The correct matching of ore with their formula.
Correct order (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Q. 10 Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be separated using :
Option 1:
Chloroform and KOH
Option 2:
para-Toluene sulphonyl chloride
Option 3:
Benzene sulphonic acid
Option 4:
Acetyl amide
Correct Answer:
para-Toluene sulphonyl chloride
Solution:
This reaction uses modified Hinsberg's reagent
Benzenesulphonyl chloride is replaced by p-toluene sulphonyl chloride.
Primary amines react with Para Toluene sulfonyl chloride to form a precipitate that is soluble in NaOH.
Secondary amines react with para toluene sulfonyl chloride to give a precipitate that is insoluble in
NaOH.
Tertiary amines do not react with para toluene sulphonyl chloride.
So, Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be separated using Para-Toluene sulphonyl chloride.
Q. 11
In the above reactions, the enzyme A and Enzyme B respectively are :
Option 1:
Amylase and Invertase
Option 2:
Zymase abd Invertase
Option 3:
Invertase and Zymase
Option 4:
Invertase and Amylase
Correct Answer:
Invertase and Zymase
Solution:
The enzyme A and enzyme B respectively are Invertase and Zymase.
Q. 12 During which of the following processes, does entropy decrease?
(A) Freezing of water to ice at
(B) Freezing of water to ice at
(C)
(D) Adsorption of CO(g) on the lead surface.
(E) Dissolution of NaCl in water.
Option 1:
(A), (C) and (E) only
Option 2:
(B) and (C) only
Option 3:
(A) and (E) only
Option 4:
(A), (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer:
(A), (B), (C) and (D) only
Solution:
Freezing of water will decrease entropy as particles will move closer and forces of attraction will increase.
This leads to decrease in randomness. So entropy decreases.
No. of molecules decreasing, will lead to decrease in the randomness of gaseous particles.
Adsorption will lead to decrease in the randomness of gaseous particles.
Solid to liquid increases in the randomness.
So,
In (A), (B), (C), and (D) processes entropy decreases.
Q. 13 The functional groups that are responsible for the ion-exchange property of cation and
anion exchange resins, respectively , are :
Option 1:
–NH2 and –SO3H
Option 2:
–SO3H and –NH2
Option 3:
–SO3H and –COOH
Option 4:
–NH2 and –COOH
Correct Answer:
–SO3H and –NH2
Solution:
–SO3H and –COOH are cation exchangers and –NH2 is anion exchanger.
The functional groups that are responsible for the ion-exchange property of cation and anion exchange
resins, respectively, are : –SO3H and –NH2

Q. 14 Match List - I with List - II .
List - I List - II
Chemical Compound Used as
(a) Sucralose (i) Synthetic detergent
(b) Glyceryl ester of stearic acid (ii) Artificial Sweetener
(c) Sodium benzoate (iii) Antiseptic
(d) Bithionol (iv) Food preservative

Choose the correct match :
Option 1:
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
Option 3:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
Option 4:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Solution:
Chemical Compound with their uses-
Correct match (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Q. 15 The set that represents the pair of neutral oxides of nitrogen is :

Option 1:
N2O and NO2
Option 2:
N2O and N2O3
Option 3:
NO and N2O
Option 4:
NO and NO2
Correct Answer:
NO and N2O
Solution:
NO, and N2O are neutral oxides and N2O3 , NO2 and N2O5 are acidic oxides.
Q. 16 Choose the correct statement regarding the formation of carbocations A and B given.
Option 1:
Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at faster rate
Option 2:
Carbocation A is more stable and formed relatively at faster rate
Option 3:
Carbocation A is more stable and formed relatively at slow rate
Option 4:
Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at slow rate
Correct Answer:
Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at faster rate
Solution:
B is more stable due to secondary cation formation and formed with a faster rate due to low activation
energy.

Q. 17 Match List - I with List - II :
List - I List - II
(a) (i) Linkage isomerism
(b) (ii) Solvate isomerism
(c) (iii) Co-ordination

isomerism
(d) (iv) Optical isomerism
Option 1:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Option 2:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
Option 4:
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
Solution:
Complex with their type of isomerism-
Correct match: (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Q. 18
In the above reaction, the structural formula of (A), "X" and "Y" respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So, "X" and "Y" respectively are CH3CHO and HCl.
Q. 19 Nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl's method forwhich of the following compound ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The kjeldahl method is not applicable to compounds containing nitrogen in the nitro group, Azo groups
and nitrogen present in the ring (e.g Pyridine) as nitrogen of these compounds does not change to
Ammonium sulphate under these conditions.
From the above concept only left with this compound.
Q. 20 Which of the following statement(s) is (are) incorrect reason for eutrophication ?
(A) excess usage of fertilisers
(B) excess usage of detergents
(C) dense plant population in water bodies
(D) lack of nutrients in water bodies that prevent plant growth
Option 1:
(D) only
Option 2:
(B) and (D) only
Option 3:
(A) only
Option 4:
(C) only
Correct Answer:
(D) only
Solution:
The excess usage of Detergents and fertilizers kills animal life due to water pollution.
This process in which nutrient-enriched water bodies support a dense plant population, which kills
animal life by depriving it of oxygen and results in subsequent loss of biodiversity is known as
Eutrophication.
So,
Incorrect Statement : lack of nutrients in water bodies that prevent plant growth.
Q. 21 The total number of C-C sigma bond/s in mesityl oxide e (C6H10O) is ___________. (Round off to
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Structure of Mesityle oxide
The total number of C–C sigma bonds = 5
Ans = 5
Q. 22 The reaction is an elementary reaction. For a certain quantity of

rectants, if the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced by a factor of 3, the rate of the
reaction increases by a factor of ________.(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
27
Solution:
An elementary reaction is a reaction that occurs in a single step.
As the reaction is elementary, the rate of reaction is
the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced by a factor of 3, the rate of the reaction
Ans = 27
Q. 23 In the ground state of atomic Fe(Z = 26), the spin-only magnetic moment is _________
BM. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given: ]
Correct Answer:
49
Solution:
Electronic configuration of Fe
Number of unpaired electrons = 4

The nearest integer value will be 49 of 48.9
Ans =49
Q. 24 On the complete reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid in aqueous solution containing KOH,
resulted in the formation of product A. The secondary valency of Fe in the product A is
___________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
The reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid in an aqueous solution containing KOH
The primary valency in coordination compound is the number of negative ions which are equivalent to
the charge on the metal ion
The secondary valency is the number of ions or molecules that are coordinated to the metal ion or it is
the number of ligands attached or coordinated to the metal ion.
Now,
6 Oxygen ions are coordinated to the metal ion.
Here, secondary valency will be 6.
Ans = 6
Q. 25 A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to
that of another solution which contains 18.1 weight percent of a non-electrolytic solute A.
The molar mass of A is __________ u. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Density of water = 1.0 g cm -3]

Correct Answer:
85
Solution:
From the below formula, Molar mass can be calculated by morality and given data.
Given,
A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of dissociation of 0.4.
where m is molality.
Effective molality = 0.6 + 1.6 + 0.4 = 2.6m
Now,
A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution's boiling point is equal to that of another solution which contains 18.1
weight percent of a non-electrolytic solute A.
So, For the same boiling point, the molality of another solution should also be 2.6 m
Now, 18.1 weight percent solution means 18.1 g solute is present in 100 g solution.
hence, Weight of Solvent water = 100 – 18.1 = 81.9 g
Weight of Solvent water = 81.9/1000 kg
Now, Putting the value.
So, Molar mass of solute, M = 85.
Ans = 85
Q. 26 A KCl solution of conductivity shows a resistance of in a conductivity

cell. If the same cell is filled with an HCl solution, the resistance drops to . The
conductivity of the HCl solution is __________ (Round off to the Nearest
Integer).
Correct Answer:
57
Solution:
We know the relation between conductivity and resistance
Where
For the same conductivity cell, Cell constant will be constant
Ans = 57
Q. 27 KBr is doped with 10-5 mole percent of SrBr2 . The number of cationic vacancies in 1 g of
KBr crystal is ________.1014
[Atomic Mass : K : 39.1 u, Br : 79.9 u, NA = 6.023 x 1023]
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
The molar mass of KBr = 119 g/mol.
For every Sr+2 ion, 1 cationic vacancy is created.
Hence, no. of Sr+2 ion = Number of cationic vacancies.
GIven,
KBr is doped with 10–5 mole percent of SrBr2 .
So, 1 mole KBr have or 10-7 moles cation vacancies.
In 1 mol of KBr 10-7 moles, cation vacancies are present
Now,
In 119 g/mol of KBr , 10-7 moles of cation vacancies are present.
In 1 g/mol of KBr , moles cation vacancies are present.
Now, in 1 gram of KBr only
Ans = 5
Q. 28 Consider the reaction . The temperature at which KC = 20.4 and KP =

600.1, is _________K.
[Assume all gases are ideal and R = 0.831 L bar K-1 mol -1]
Correct Answer:
354
Solution:
We know the relation between Kp and KC
Now, for the reaction
So,
Now, putting the value
600.1 = 20.4 x (0.0831 x T)1

So, T = 353.99 K = 354K
Ans = 354
Q. 29
Consider the above reaction. The percentage yield of amide product is __________. (Round off
to the Nearest Integer).
(Given : Atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0u, N : 14.0 u, O : 16.0 u, Cl : 35.5 u)
Correct Answer:
77
Solution:
Finding Limiting reagent-
So, reactant Ph-CoCl is a limiting reagent.
Hence, the Mole of Ph-CoCl reactant and product PhCON(Ph)2 will be the same, in theoritical.
So, the theoretical mole of PhCON(Ph)2 will be 10-3 mol.
Theoretical mass of product = 10-3 × 273 = 273 × 10-3 g
Observed mass of product= 210 × 10-3 g
The percentage yield of amide product is:
Ans = 77
Q. 30 The number of chlorine atoms in 20 mL of chlorine gas at STP is __________1021. (Round off to
[ Assume chlorine is an ideal gas at STP, R = 0.083 L bar mol-1 K-1, NA = 6.023 x1023]
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
The relation between the number of atoms and moles
1 mole = 6.023 x1023 Atoms
and
The relation between the volume and moles
PV=nRT
Given,
V = 20 mL = 20/1000 L
R = 0.083 L bar mol-1 K-1
T = 273 K at STP
Now, putting the value
Now, 1 mole of Cl gas = 6.023 x1023 molecules
Then 8.8 x 10-4 mole of Cl2 gas = 8.8 x 10-4 x 6.023 x1023 molecules
Then 8.8 x 10-4 mole of Cl2 gas = 5.3 x 1020 molecules
Now, Cl2 gas has 2 Cl atoms, So total number of Cl atoms will be
= 2 x 5.3 x 1020 atoms
= 1.06 x 1021 atoms
ANs = 1
Maths
Q. 1 The number of solutions of the equation in the interval is :
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
plot the graph
3 solution
Q. 2 Let a computer program generate only the digits 0 and 1 to form a string of binary numbers
with probability of occurrence of 0 at even places be and probability of occurrence of 0 at
the odd place be . Then the probability that '10' is followed by '01' is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
'
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given that
Q. 3
If the integral , where are integers and
denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, then the value of is equal to
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
20
Option 3:
25
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 Let be defined as If is a differentiable

function such that then the value of
lies in the interval
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 Let be the solution of the differential equation
. Then, is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solution of D.E
Now,
Solution of DE
Now, it is given that, y(0) = 0
Q. 6 The value of
where r is a non-zero real number and denoted the greatest integer less than or equal to
r, is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we know that
Add all this
Now,
Now,
By sandwhich theorem
Q. 7
The value of the limit is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8
Consider the function defined by . Then
f is :
Option 1:
Monotonic on only
Option 2:
monotonic on only
Option 3:
not monotonic on and
Option 4:
monotonic on
Correct Answer:
not monotonic on and
Solution:
Q. 9 If the sides AB,BC and CA of a triangle ABC have 3,5 and 6 interior points respectively, then
the total number of triangles that can be constructed using these points as vertices, is equal
to :
Option 1:
333
Option 2:
360
Option 3:
364
Option 4:
240
Correct Answer:
333
Solution:
Q. 10 Let O be the origin. Let and
be such that and the vector
is perpendicular to . If is coplanar with and ,
then the value of is equal to :
Option 1:
9
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
and
Q. 11 Let the tangent to the circle at the point meet x-axis and y-axis at
points P and Q, respectively. If r is the radius of the circle passing through the origin O and
having centre at the incentre of the triangle OPQ, then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 25 at R(3, 4) is 3x + 4y = 25
Q. 12 Let L be a tangent line to the parabola at If L is also a tangent to the
ellipse then the value of b is equal to :
Option 1:
20
Option 2:
14
Option 3:
11
Option 4:
16
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Tangent to the parabola
2y = 2(x + 6) - 20
y=x-4
Condition for tangent to the ellipse
16 = 2(1)2 + b
b = 14
Q. 13 If the equation of plane passing through the mirror image of a point with respect to
line and containing the line is
then is equal to :
Option 1:
19
Option 2:
21
Option 3:
18
Option 4:
20
Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
Let point A be (2, 3, 1)
Now equation of plane containing A'(-2,4,-6) and line
Q. 14
The number of solutions of the equation for
and denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is :

Option 1:
0
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
infinite
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
Given equation is
from above, we get

So, number of solution i s0
Q. 15 If x, y, z are in arithmetic progression with common difference d , and the
determinant of the matrix is zero, then the value of k2 is
Option 1:
36
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
72
Correct Answer:
72
Solution:
Q. 16 If the curve is the solution of the differential equation
which passes through the point
then the value of is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
solution is
now,
Q. 17 Two tangents are drawn from a point P to the circle , such
that the angle between these tangents is where If
the centre of the circle is denoted by C and these tangents touch the circle at points A and B,
then the ratio of the areas of and is :
Option 1:
3:1
Option 2:
2:1
Option 3:
11:4
Option 4:
9:4
Correct Answer:
9:4
Solution:
Q. 18
The value of is equal to :
Option 1:
1124
Option 2:
1024
Option 3:
924
Option 4:
1324
Correct Answer:
924
Solution:
Upper indices are constant and sum of lower indices is constant for each term, so we can apply the
formula directly
Q. 19 Let be three sets defined as
Then the set
Option 1:
has exactly three elements
Option 2:
has infinitely many elements
Option 3:
is a singleton
Option 4:
has exactly two elements
Correct Answer:
has infinitely many elements
Solution:
Plot the region S1, S2 and S3

Q. 20 If the Boolean expression is a tautology, then are respectively
given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 Consider a set of 3n numbers having variance 4. In this set, the mean of first 2n numbers is
6 and the mean of the remaining n numbers is 3. A new set is constructed by adding 1 into
each of first 2n numbers, and subtracting 1 from each of the remaining n numbers. If the
variance of the new set is k, then 9k is equal to _________.
Correct Answer:
68
Solution:
Q. 22 Let be given as
If the area bounded by and x-axis is A, then the value of 6A is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
61
Solution:
Q. 23
Let where If for natural
numbers and then equal to __________.

Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 24 Let P be an arbitrary point having sum of the squares of the distances from the planes
and equal to 9.If the locus of the point P
is then the value of is equal to __________.
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
Let point P be (a, b, c)
compare with
Q. 25
If 1, and are in arithmetic progression for a real number
x, then the value of the determinant is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 26
Let and such that and then the value
of is equal to _______
Correct Answer:
2020
Solution:
Given AB = B
we get
or
Q. 27
Let and be the slopes of three line
segments OA, OB and OC, respectively, where O is origin.If circumcentre of
coincides with origin and its orthocentre lies on y-axis, then the value of
is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
144
Solution:
Since orthocentre and circumcentre, both lies on the y-axis

⇒ Centroid also lies on y -axis
Q. 28 Let the coefficients of third , fourth and fifth terms in the expansion of
be in the ratio Then the term independent of x in the expansion , is equal to
___________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
From above,
a = 1/2 and n = 6
Q. 29 Let be definded as for all where

such that and for the maximum value of
is If then the least value of is equal to ____________.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Q. 30 Let be a vector in the plane containing vectors and
If the vector is perpendicular to and its projection
on is then the value of is equal to __________.
Correct Answer:
486
Solution:
18 March shift -1
Physics
Q. 1 A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 100 MHz is travelling in a vacuum along the x-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, (where is the unit
vector along the z-direction) What is at this point?
(speed of light )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Solution:
Q. 2 In a series LCR resonance circuit, if we change the resistance only, from a lower to higher
value:
Option 1:
The quality factor and the resonance frequency will remain constant
Option 2:
The resonance frequency will increase
Option 3:
The bandwidth of resonance circuit will increase
Option 4:
The quality factor will increase
Correct Answer:
The bandwidth of resonance circuit will increase
Solution:
So bandwidth will increase when only resistance will increase.
Q. 3 The position, velocity and acceleration of a particle moving with a constant acceleration can
be represented by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option (2) represent correct graph for particle moving with constant acceleration, as for constant
acceleration velocity time graph is straight line with positive slope and x-t graph should be an opening
upward parabola.
Q. 4 A constant power delivering machine has towed a box, which was initially at rest , along a
horizontal straight line. The distance moved by the box in time 't' is proportional to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with an angular speed .
Two particles having mass m each are now attached at diametrically opposite points. The
angular speed of the ring will become:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6
The time period of a simple pendulum is given by . The measured value of the
length of pendulum is 10 cm knon to a 1 mm accuracy. The time for 200 oscillations of the
pendulum is found to be 100 second using a clock of 1 s resolution. The percentage
accuracy in the determination of 'g' using this pendulum is 'x'. The value of 'x' to the nearest
integer is ,
Option 1:
3%
Option 2:
2%
Option 3:
5%
Option 4:
4%
Correct Answer:
3%
Solution:
Q. 7 What will be the average value of energy along one degree of freedom for an ideal gas in
thermal equilibrium at a temperature T ?
is Boltzmann constant )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 A particle is travelling 4 times as fast as an electron. Assuming the ratio of de-Broglie

wavelength of a particle to that of electron is 2:1, the mass of the particle is :
Option 1:
times the mass of
Option 2:
times the mass of
Option 3:
times the mass of
Option 4:
times the mass of
Correct Answer:
times the mass of
Solution:
Q. 9 Imagine that the electron in a hydrogen atom is replaced by a muon . The mass of muon
particle is 207 times that of an electron and charge is equal to the charge of an electron. The
ionization potential of this hydrogen atom will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10 A radioactive sample disintegrates via two independent decay processes having half-lives
and respectively. The effective half-life, of the nuclei, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
None of the above
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 Your friend is having eye sight problem. She is not able to see clearly a distant uniform
window mesh and it appears to her as non-uniform and distorted. The doctor diagnosed the
problem as :
Option 1:
Astigmatism
Option 2:
Presbyopia with Astigmatism
Option 3:
Myopia and hypermetropia
Option 4:
Myopia with Astigmatism
Correct Answer:
Myopia with Astigmatism
Solution:
If distant objects are blurry then problem is Myopia. If objects are distorted then problem is Astigmatism
Q. 12 A loop of flexible wire of irregular shape carrying current is placed in an external magnetic
field. Identify the effect of the field on the wire.
Option 1:
loop assumes circular shape with its plane parallel to the field
Option 2:
wire gets stretched to become straight
Option 3:
loop assumes circular shape with its plane normal to the field
Option 4:
shape of the loop remains unchanged
Correct Answer:
loop assumes circular shape with its plane normal to the field
Solution:
Every part of the wire is pulled by force acting perpendicular to current & magnetic field
giving it a shape of circle.
Q. 13 In Young's double slit arrangement, slits are separated by a gap of 0.5 mm, and the screen is
placed at a distance 0.5 m from them. The distance between the first and the third bright
fringe formed when the slits are illuminated by a monochromatic light of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 14 Four identical long solenoids A,B,C and D are connected to each other as shown in the
figure. If the magnetic field at the center of A is 3 T, the field at the center of C would be :
(Assume that the magnetic field is confined with in the volume of respective solenoid).
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 15 An oil drop of radius 2 mm with a density 3 g cm -3 is held stationary under a constant

electric field in the Millikan's oil drop experiment. What is the number
of excess electrons that the oil drop will possess ?
Consider
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 The time period of satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of another satellite
in a circular orbit of radius 9R is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 An AC source rated 220 V, 50 Hz is connected to a resistor. The time taken by the current to
change from its maximum to the rms value is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 In the experiment of Ohm's law, a potential difference of 5.0 V is applied across the end of a
conductor of length 10.0 cm and diameter of 5.00 mm. The measured current in the
conductor is 2.00 A. The maximum permissible percentage error in the resistivity of the
conductor is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 The P-V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system going under cyclic process as shown in
figure. The work done during an adiabatic process CD is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
List - I List - II
(a) 10 km height over earth's surface (i) Thermosphere
(b) 70 km height over earth's surface (ii) Mesosphere
(c) 180 km height over earth's surface (iii) Stratosphere
(d) 270 km height over earth's surface (iv) Troposphere
Option 1:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
Option 2:
(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
Solution:
Order of atmosphere stratification from bottom Troposphere, stralospherre, Mesosphre,
Thermosphere
(a) (iv)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (i)
Q. 21
The circuit shown in the figure consists of a charged capacitor of capacity and charge
of . At time t = 0, when the key is closed, the value of current flowing through the
resistor is 'x'
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is _________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 22 A person is swimming with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of with the flow and reaches
to a point directly opposite on the other side of the river. The speed of the flow is 'x' m/s.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Q. 23 A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 100 m2 and plate separation of 10 m. The space
between the plates is fillied up to a thickness 5 m with a material of dielectric constant of 10.
The resultant capacitance of the system is 'x' pF.
The value of
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is _______.
Correct Answer:
161
Solution:
Q. 24 An npn transistor operates as a common emitter amplifier with a power gain of The
input circuit resistance is and the output load resistance is .The common
emitter current gain will be _________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
Q. 25 A particle performs simple harmonic motion with a period of 2 second. The time taken by
the particle to cover a displacement equal to half of its amplitude from the mean position is
The value of 'a' to the nearest integer is ________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Q. 26 Two separate wires A and B are stretched by 2 mm and 4 mm respectively, when they are
subjected to a force of 2 N. Assume that both the wires are made up of same material and
the radius of wire B is 4 times that of the radius of wire A. The length of the wires A and B
are in the ratio of a : b. Then can be expressed as where x is _________.
Correct Answer:
32
Solution:
Q. 27
As shown in the figure, a particle of mass 10 kg is placed at a point A. When the particle is
slightly displaced to its right, it starts moving and reaches the point B. The speed of the
particle at B is x m/s.
(Take g = 10 m/s2 )
The value of 'x' to the nearest is ___________.
Correct Answer: 10
Solution:
Q. 28 The voltage across the resistor in the given circuit is x volt.
The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is _______.
Correct Answer:
70
Solution:
Q. 29 A bullet of mass 0.1 kg is fired on a wooden block to pierce through it, but it stops after
moving a distance of 50 cm into it. If the velocity of bullet before hitting the wood is 10 m/s
and it slows down with uniform deceleration, then the magnitude of effective retarding force
on the bullets is 'x' N.

Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Q. 30 A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity along the x-axis, hits another ball of
mass 20 kg which is at rest. After the collision, first ball comes to rest while the second ball
disintegrates into two equal pieces. One piece starts moving along y-axis with a speed of 10
m/s. The second piece starts moving at an angle of with respect to the x-axis.
The velocity of the ball moving at with x-axis is x m/s.
The configuration of pieces after collision is shown in the figure below.
The value of x to the nearest integer is ___________.
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1
Consider the above chemical reaction and identify product "A" :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 2 Reaction of Grignard reagent, C2H5MgBr with C8H8O followed by hydrolysis gives compound
" A" which reacts instantly with Lucas reagent to give compound B, C10H13Cl.
The compound B is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction of Grignard reagent, C2H5MgBr with C8H8O followed by hydrolysis gives compound " A"
which reacts instantly with Lucas reagent to give compound B, C10H13Cl.
So, A should be tertiary alcohol because that reacts instantly with Lucas reagent.
C8H8O should be a ketone then after the reaction with
C2H5MgBr will give tertiary alcohol.
So, the reaction will be
Q. 3 Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulphanilic acid in acetic acid is used for the detection of :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For detection of NO2– , the following test is used -
1) Acetic acid
2) Sulphanilic acid
3) 1-Naphthylamine
Stepwise reactions-

Q. 4
Considering the above chemical reaction, identify the product "X":
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two radial nodes. The orbital is :
Option 1:
3s
Option 2:
3p
Option 3:
2s
Option 4:
2p
Correct Answer:
3s
Solution:
the number of angular nodes are given by ‘l’, i.e., one angular node for p orbitals, two angular nodes for
‘d’ orbitals and so on.
Radial modes = n-l-1
The total number of nodes are given by (n–1), i.e., sum of l angular nodes and (n – l – 1) radial nodes.
Given
A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two radial nodes,
So, l=0 ,
It will be s orbital, it does not have angular nodes.
And
Radial nodes = 2
n – l –1 = 2
n–0–1=2
n= 3
So, The orbital will be 3s.

List - I List - II
(Process) (Catalyst)
(a) Deacon's process (i) ZSM -5
(b) Contact process (ii) CuCl2
(c) Cracking of hydrocarbons (iii) Particles 'Ni'
(d) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils (iv) V2O5

Option 1:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (i) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (iv)
Option 3:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (ii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii)
Solution:
We know these facts.
CuCl2 is used as a catalyst in Deacon's process.
In the manufacture of H2SO4 (contact process), V2O5 is used as a catalyst.
ZSM-5 is used as a catalyst in the cracking of hydrocarbons.
Ni catalysts enable the hydrogenation of vegetable oils (fats).
Correct matching : a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

Q. 7
Considering the above reaction, X and Y respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 The chemical that is added to reduce the melting point of the reaction mixture during the
extraction of aluminium is :
Option 1:
Kaolite
Option 2:
Cryolite
Option 3:
Calamine
Option 4:
Bauxite
Correct Answer:
Cryolite
Solution:
Cryolite (Na3AlF6) is added to reduce the melting point of the reaction mixture during the extraction of
aluminium.
Q. 9 Match List - I with List - II:
List - I List - II
(a) Ca(OCl)2 (i) Antacid
(b) CaSO4.1/2 H2O (ii) Cement
(c) CaO (iii) Bleach
(d) CaCO3 (iv) Plaster of Paris

Option 1:
(a) - (iii), (b) -(iv), (c) - (ii), (d) -(i)
Option 2:
(a) - (iii), (b) -(ii), (c) - (i), (d) -(iv)
Option 3:
(a) - (i), (b) -(iv), (c) - (iii), (d) -(ii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iii), (b) -(ii), (c) - (iv), (d) -(i)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iii), (b) -(iv), (c) - (ii), (d) -(i)
Solution:
We know these facts.
Ca(OCl)2 is Bleach
CaSO4.1/2 H2O is Plaster of Paris.

CaCO3 is used as an antacid.
CaO is the major component of cement.
The correct matching : (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Q. 10 In a binary compound, atoms of element A form a hcp structure and those of element M
occupy 2/3 of the tetrahedral voids of the hcp structure. The formula of the binary
compound is :
Option 1:
M4A3
Option 2:
M4A
Option 3:
M2A3
Option 4:
MA3
Correct Answer:
M4A3
Solution:
A binary compound is something consisting of precisely two elements.
In a binary compound, atoms of element A form a hcp structure.
In hcp structure, the number of atom A will be 6.
M occupy 2/3 of the tetrahedral voids of the hcp structure.
In hcp structure number of tetrahedral voids are 12.
2/3 of 12 will be = 12x2/3 = 8
So, Formula will be M8A6
the simple formula M4A3

Q. 11 The statements that are TRUE:
(A) methane leads to both global warming and photochemical smog
(B) methane is generated from paddy fields
(C) methane is a stronger global warming gas than CO2
(D) methane is a part of reducing smog
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Option 1:
(A) and (B) only
Option 2:
(B) , (C) , (D) only
Option 3:
(A) , (B) , (D) only
Option 4:
(A), (B), (C) only
Correct Answer:
(A), (B), (C) only
Solution:
We know these facts-
Methane leads to both global warming & photochemical smog.
Large amounts of methane are released in paddy fields, coal mines, from rotting garbage dumps, and by
fossil fuels.
CH4 is 40 times stronger greenhouse gases than CO2. It has more heating effect. CO2 can be absorbed by
photosynthesis, or by the formation of acid rain, etc., while no such activities are there for methane.
Methane is not a part of reducing smog.
Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate. It is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide. Chemically
it is a reducing mixture and so it is also called as reducing smog.
So, (A), (B), (C) are true.

List - I List - II
(Chemicals ) (Use/Preparation/Constituent)
(a) Alcoholic potassium hydroxide (i) electrodes in batteries
(b) Pd/BaSO4 (ii) obtained by addition reaction
(c) BHC (Benzene hexachloride) (iii) used for -elimination reaction
(d) Polyacetylene (iv) Lindlar's Catalyst

Choose the most appropriate match :
Option 1:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
Option 2:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
Option 4:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
Solution:
We know these concepts-
(a) Alcoholic potassium hydroxide is used for beta-elimination reactions.
(b) is Lindlar's catalyst.
(c) BHC (Benzene hexachloride) is obtained by the addition reaction of benzene and chlorine.
(d) Polyacetylene is used as electrodes in batteries.
So, the most appropriate match :
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

List - I List - II
(Class of Drug) (Example)
(a) Antacid (i) Novestrol
(b) Artificial Sweetener (ii) Cimetidine
(c) Antifertility (iii) Valium
(d) Tranquilizers (iv) Alitame

Choose the most appropriate match :
Option 1:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Option 2:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Option 3:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
Solution:
We know these facts about drugs.
(a) Antacid : Cimetidine

(b) Artificial Sweetener : Alitame
(c) Antifertility : Novestrol
(d) Tranquilizers : Valium
So, the correct match: (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Q. 14 The number of ionisable hydrogens present in the product obtained from a reaction of
phosphorus trichloride and phosphonic acid is :
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
The reaction of phosphorus trichloride and phosphonic acid is :
The structure of pyrophosphorous acid shows that it has two acidic or ionisable hydrogen.
Q. 15 The ionic radius of Na+ ion is 1.02 . The ionic radii (in ) of Mg2+ and Al3+ respectively, are :
Option 1:
0.72 and 0.54
Option 2:
0.85 and 0.99
Option 3:
1.05 and 0.99
Option 4:
0.68 and 0.72
Correct Answer:
0.72 and 0.54
Solution:
All ions have 10 electrons each.
But the Number of protons is 11, 12 and, 13.
So, more proton, more attraction towards left electrons inside the atom, more shrink will happen and
become smaller.
So, ionic radii order: Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
For 0.72 and 0.54 the order will be
1.02 > 0.72 > 0.54 it is correct.
Q. 16 A non-reducing sugar "A" hydrolyses to give two reducing mono saccharides. Sugar A is :
Option 1:
Fructose
Option 2:
Glucose
Option 3:
Sucrose
Option 4:
Galactose
Correct Answer:
Sucrose
Solution:
A non-reducing sugar ”A” hydrolyses to give two reducing monosaccharides.
Sugar A will be Sucrose. Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

List - I List - II
(a) Chlorophyll (i) Ruthenium
(b) Vitamin - B12 (ii) Platinum
(c) Anticancer drug (iii) Cobalt
(d) Grubbs catalyst (iv) Magnesium

Option 1:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (ii), (c) -(iii), (d) - (i)
Option 2:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii), (c) -(i), (d) - (ii)
Option 3:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii), (c) -(ii), (d) - (i)
Option 4:
(a) - (iii) , (b) - (ii), (c) -(iv), (d) - (i)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iv) , (b) - (iii), (c) -(ii), (d) - (i)
Solution:
We know these facts:
Chlorophyll is a coordination compound of magnesium.
Vitamin - B12 (cyanocobalamin) is a coordination compound of cobalt.
Cisplatin is used as an anti-cancer drug and is a coordination compound of platinum.
Grubbs catalyst is a catalyst containing ruthenium.

Q. 18 The correct structures of trans - [Ni Br2(PPh3)2] and meridional - [CO(NH3)3(NO2)3]
respectively, are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Structure of trans - [Ni Br2(PPh3)2] and meridional - [CO(NH3)3(NO2)3] are :
In cis molecules, the two ligands are on the same side of the complex. In trans molecules, the similar
ligands are on the opposite sides of the molecules. Tetrahedral molecules do not show stereoisomerism.
If three ligands and the metal ion are in one plane, the isomer is said to be meridional, or mer. A mer
isomer can be considered as a combination of a trans and a cis, since it contains both trans and cis pairs
of identical ligands.
Q. 19 Compound with molecular formula C3H6O can show :
Option 1:
Positional isomerism
Option 2:
Functional group isomerism
Option 3:
Both positional isomerism and metamerism
Option 4:
Metamerism
Correct Answer:
Functional group isomerism
Solution:
We know this formula for degree of unsaturation-
C3H6O has 3 C , 6 H , 0 N , 0 X.
So,
It means A ring or a double bond is present.
All possible compounds are:

Metamerism is not possible with 3 carbons.
Positional isomerism is not present.
Functional group isomerism is present. functional groups: alcohol, ether, aldehyde, ketone, alkene, etc.
Q. 20 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : During the boiling of water having temporary hardness, Mg(HCO3)2 is

converted to MgCO3.
Reason R : The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is greater than that of MgCO3.
given below :
Option 1:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both A and R are false
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are false
Solution:
During the boiling of water having temporary hardness, Mg(HCO3)2 is converted to Mg(OH)2 not MgCO3.
For temporary hardness,
The assertion is false.
The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is greater than that of MgCO3.
The solubility product of MgCO3.is 3.5 X 10–8
The solubility product of Mg(OH)2.is 1.8 X 10–11
The reason is incorrect.
Q. 21 In order to prepare a buffer solution of pH 5.74, sodium acetate is added to acetic acid. If
the concentration of acetic acid in the buffer is 1.0 M, the concentration of sodium acetate in
the buffer is ____________ M. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : pKa(acetic acid ) = 4.74]
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Given,
pH = 5.74
[acid] = 1.0 M
pKa (acetic acid) = 4.74
Conjugate Base = CH3COONa
We know the formula for buffer solution:

Ans = 10
Q. 22 Complete combustion of 3 g of ethane gives molecules of water. The value of x is

________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Use : NA = 6.023 x 1023; Atomic masses in u : C : 12.0 ; O : 16.0 ; H : 1.0]
Correct Answer:
18
Solution:
Complete combustion of 3 g of ethane-
3 g of ethane gives 0.3 mol of water.
1 mole = 6.023 x 1023 molecules
So, 0.3 mole = 0.3 x 6.023 x 1023 molecules
0.3 mole = 18.069 x 1022 molecules
Hence, x = 18
Ans = 18
Q. 23 AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X are second row elements of periodic table.
Based on Molecular orbital theory, the bond order of AX is 2.5. The total number of
electrons in AX is _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X are second-row elements of the periodic table.
We know the of Bond Order:
So, the combination can be
5 = 5 - 0 or 6 - 1
Maximum 6 electrons are possible in bonding MO.
So, possible molecule
CN (13 electrons) or NO (15 electrons)
But C is not a diatomic molecule.
So, The molecule is NO.
Total no. of electrons is 15.
Ans = 15
Q. 24 For the reaction
the magnitude of the standard molar free energy change, __________kJ (Round
off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
45
Solution:
Given
And reaction
Need to find for the reaction.
We know the formula,
Now,
Now,
Ans = 45
Q. 25 For the reaction
the reaction enthalpy ___________kJ mol-1. (Round off to the

Nearest Integer).
[Given : Bond enthalpies in kJ mol-1 : C–C : 347, C=C : 611; C–H : 414, H–H : 436]
Correct Answer:
128
Solution:
Given reaction:
Need to find the reaction enthalpy .

We know
= (6 x EC-H + 1 x EC-C) - (4 x EC-H + 1 x EC=C + 1 x EH-H)
= 2 x EC-H + 1 x EC-C - 1 x EC=C - 1 x EH-H)
[Given : Bond enthalpies in kJ mol-1 : C–C : 347, C=C : 611; C–H : 414, H–H : 436]
After putting the value-
2 × 414 + 347 – 611 – 436
828 + 347 – 1047
Ans = 128
Q. 26 The total number of unpaired electrons present in the complex K3[Cr(oxalate)3] is __________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Given complex
Oxidation state of Cr
Cr + (-2)X3 = -3
Cr = +3
Chromium is in +3 oxidation state.
So,
The number of unpaired electrons in Cr+3 will be 3.
Ans = 3
Q. 27 _________ grams of 3-Hydroxy propanal (MW=74) must be dehydrated to produce 7.8 g of
acrolein (MW = 56) (C3H4O) if the percentage yield is 64. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u ]
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Given,
3-Hydroxy propanal (MW = 74) dehydrated to produce 7.8 g of acrolein (MW = 56) (C3H4O) if the
percentage yield is 64.
So, The reaction will be if x mol of reactant is used.
Now,
Actual Mole of product = mass/ molar mass = 7.8/56 =0.14 mole
Theoretically, the Mole of the product will be the same as reactant x.
Given If the percentage yield is 64.
So,
Now,
the Nearest Integer = 16
Ans = 16
Q. 28 A reaction of 0.1 mole of Benzylamine with bromomethane gave 23 g of Benzyl trimethyl
ammonium bromide. The number of moles of bromomethane consumed in this reaction are
when n = _________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N : 14.0 u, Br : 80.0 u]
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Given,
A reaction of 0.1 mole of Benzylamine with bromomethane gave 23 g of Benzyl trimethyl ammonium
bromide.
Product of the mole = 0.1.
The mole of product and reactant are the same which is 0.1 mole.
So, moles of CH3Br = 3 x 0.1 = 3 x 10-1
Ans = 3
Q. 29
This reaction was studied at -100C and the following data was obtained
run [NO]0 [Cl2]0 r0
1 0.10 0.10 0.18
2 0.10 0.20 0.35
3 0.20 0.20 1.40

[NO]0 and [Cl2]0 are the initial concentrations and r0 is the initial reaction rate. The overall
order of the reaction is ________.(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Given reaction,
The rate of reaction will be, m and n order of reactants.
Now,
After doing exp 2/ exp 3 then
So, m = 2
After doing exp -1/ exp-2 then n = 1,
The overall order of the reaction = 2 + 1 = 3
Ans = 3
Q. 30 2 molal solution of a weak acid HA has a freezing point of 3.885oC. The degree of
dissociation of this acid is _________
[Given : Molal depression constant of water Freezing point of pure

water = 0o C]
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Given,
2 molal solution of a weak acid HA has a freezing point of 3.885ºC.

m=2
Molal depression constant of water (Kf) = 1.85 K kg mol-1
The freezing point of pure water Ti = 0ºC
van't Hoff factor i is related to the degree of dissociation \alpha as, if n = number of ions,
Here n = 2 (H+and A-)
So,
We know the formula of depression at the freezing point.
i = 1.05
Now,
Ans = 50
Maths
Q. 1 A vector has components 3p and 1 with respect to a rectangular cartesian system. This
system is rotated through a certain angle about the origin in the counter clockwise sense. If,
with respect to new system, has components and then a value of p is equal
to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given
Q. 2 If the equation represents a circle where a, d are real constants,

then which of the following condition is correct?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation of the circle is
this can be written as
Q. 3 The equation of one of the straight lines which passes through the point (1,3) and makes an
angle with the straight line, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
And straight-line pass vis (1, 3)
Q. 4 If are natural numbers such that

then the
slope of the line passing through and origin is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5
If is equal to L, then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 Let be the real roots of the equation,
If the system of equations
given by
has non-trivial solution, then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For non-trivial solution
Note that:
ax3 + bx2 +cx + d = 0 is polynomial equation with a ≠ 0 and ?, ? and ? are the roots of the equation then :
Q. 7 The number of integral values of m so that the abscissa of point of intersection of lines
and is also an integer, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation of the lines are
3x + 4y = 9 and y = mx + 1
3x + 4(mx + 1) = 9
x(3 + 4m) = 5
Q. 8
The value of is equal to :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9
If is differentiable at every point of the domain, then the
values of a and b are respectively :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
at x = 1 function must be continuous
So, 1 = a + b
differentiability at x = 1
Q. 10 The solutions of the equation
are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11
The real valued function where denotes the greatest integer less
than or equal to x, is defined for all x belonging to :
Option 1:
all non-integers except the interval
Option 2:
all reals except integers
Option 3:
all integers except 0, -1, 1
Option 4:
all reals except the interval
Correct Answer:
all non-integers except the interval
Solution:
Q. 12
The integral is equal to :
(where c is a constant of integration)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 Choose the correct statement about two circles whose equations are given below :
Option 1:
circles have only one meeting point
Option 2:
circles have two meeting points
Option 3:
circles have no meeting point
Option 4:
circles have same centre
Correct Answer:
circles have only one meeting point
Solution:
Circles touch externally So only one meeting point
Q. 14 The sum of all the 4-digit distinct numbers that can be formed with the digits and is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The digits are 1, 2, 2, 3
total numbers when 1 at unit place is 3 .

total numbers when 2 at unit place is 6
total numbers when 3 at unit place is 3
sum of digits at unit's place = 3 + 12 + 9 = 24
sum of all four digits numbers = 24(1111) = 26664
Q. 15 If the functions are defind as and then what is the common

domain of the following functions :
where
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So, common domain is (0,1)
Q. 16
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 For the four circles M,N,O and P, following four equations are given :
Circle M :
Circle N :
Circle O :
Circle P :
If the centre of circle M is joined with centre of the circle N, further centre of circle N is
joined with centre of the circle O, centre of circle O is joined with the centre of circle P and
lastly, centre of circle P is joined with centre of circle M, then these lines from the sides of a :
Option 1:
Square
Option 2:
Rhombus
Option 3:
Rectangle
Option 4:
Parallelogram
Correct Answer:
Square
Solution:
Q. 18 The differential equation satisfied by the system of parabolas is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19
Let and . If Tr(A) denotes the sum of
all diagonal elements of the matrix A, then Tr(A) - Tr(B) has value equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Add (1) and (2), we get

Q. 20 Let Then,
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 A square ABCD has all its vertices on the curve The midpoints of its sides also lie
on the same curve. Then, the square of area of ABCD is ____________.
Correct Answer:
80
Solution:
Q. 22 Let and be two functions satisfying and
then the value of is __________.
Correct Answer:
512
Solution:
Q. 23 The equation of the planes parallel to the plane which are at unit
distance from the point is If then
the positive value of K is ________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
the positive value of k is 4.
Q. 24 The missing value in the following figure is __________.

Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
424 has base 4(=12-8)
36 has base 3(=7-4)
(?) will have base 2(=5-3)
Power 24 = 4!
Power 6 = 3!
(?) will have power = 2! = 2
(?) = 22 = 4
Q. 25
If and then the value
of K is __________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Q. 26
The number of solutions of the equation in the interval is
_____________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Only one solution
Q. 27 Let the plane bisect the line joining the points and
at the right angles. If a,b,c,d are integers,then the minimum value of
is ________.
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
again midpoint of (4,–3,1) and (2, 3, –5) is (3, 0, –2) lies on the plane
Q. 28 The number of times the digit 3 will be written when listing the integers from 1 to 1000 is
___________.
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
total way = 243 + 54 + 3 = 300
Q. 29 Let be the roots of the equation and form an equilateral

triangle with origin. Then, the value of |a| is ____________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
0, z1, z2 are the vertex of the equilateral triangle
Q. 30 The mean age of 25 teachers in a school is 40 years. A teacher retires at the age og 60 years
and a new teacher is appointed in his place. If the mean age of the teachers in this school
now is 39 years, then the age (in years) of the newly appointed teacher is _________.
Correct Answer:
35
Solution:
When the teacher left the school

18 March shift -2
Physics
Q. 1 Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Electric monopoles do not exist whereas magnetic monopoles exist.
B. Magnetic field lines due to a solenoid at its end and outside cannot be completely straight
and confined.
C. Magnetic field lines are completely confined within a toroid.
D. Magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet are not parallel.
E. x =-1 is the condition for a perfect diamagentic material, where x is its magnetic
suspectibility.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Option 1:
B and D only
Option 2:
A and B only
Option 3:
C and E only
Option 4:
B abd C only
Correct Answer:
C and E only
Solution:
Statement (C) is correct because, the magnetic field outside the toroid is zero and they form closed loops
inside the toroid itself.
Statement (E) is correct because we know that super conductors are materials inside which the net
magnetic field is always zero and they are perfect diamagnetic.
Q. 2 The decay of proton to neutron is:
Option 1:
always possible as it is associated only with decay
Option 2:
not possible as proton mass is less than the neutron mass
Option 3:
not possible but neutron to proton conversion is possible
Option 4:
possible only inside the nucleus
Correct Answer:
possible only inside the nucleus
Solution:
The decay of proton to neutron is possible only inside the nucleus not outside.
Q. 3 An object of mass m1 collides with another object of mass m2 , which is at rest. After the
collision the object move with equal speeds in opposite direction. The ratio of the masses
is:
Option 1:
1:1
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
2:1
Option 4:
3:1
Correct Answer:
3:1
Solution:
Q. 4 If the angular velocity of the earth's spin is increased such that the bodies at the equator
start floating, the duration of the day would be approximately:
[Take g = 10 ms-2, the radius of the earth, , Take ]
Option 1:
does not change
Option 2:
1200 minutes
Option 3:
60 minutes
Option 4:
84 minutes
Correct Answer:
84 minutes
Solution:
Q. 5 A solid cylinder of mass m is wrapped with an inextensible light string and, is placed on a
rough incline as shown in the figure. The frictional force acting between the cylinder and
inclined plane is: (coefficient of friction = 0.4)
Option 1:
5mg
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6
A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit under the central potential field,
, where C is a positive constant.
The correct radius - velocity graph of the particle's motion is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
It satisfies -
Q. 7 The function of time representing a simple harmonic motion with period of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option (4)
Option (2)
Q. 8 Consider a uniform wire of mass M and length L. It is bent into semicircle. Its moment of
interia about a line perpendicular to the plane of the wire passing through the centre is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 The speed of the electron in a scanning electron microscope is . If the protons
having the same speed are used instead of electrons, then the resolving power of scanning
proton microscope will be changed by a factor of:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
1837
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
1837
Solution:
Q. 10 An ideal gas cylinder is seprated by a piston in such a way that the entropy of one part is
S1 and that of the other part is S2. Given as . If the piston is removed then the total
entropy of the system will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Because the entropy is related to the randomness and the randomness remain. SInce there is no heat
and mass transfer. So the entropy will add up simply.
Q. 11 The time taken for the magnetic energy to reach 25% of its maximum value where a
solenoid of resistance R, inductance L is connected to a battery, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
infinite
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
If the Magnetic energy is 25% of maximum value having same value of L then the value of current must
be half of the maximum value of current.
So,
As we know tthat -
Solving it,
We will get -
Q. 12 Consider a sample of oxygen behaving like an ideal gas at 300K. The ratio of root mean
square (rms) velocity to the average velocity of the gas molecule would be:
(molecular weight of oxygen is 32g/mol, R= 8.3JK-1 mol-1)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the fractional change in its pressure is equal to
(where is the ratio of specific heats):
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 14 In a series LCR circuit, the inductive reactance (XL) is 10 and the capacitive reactance (XC) is
4 . The resistance (R) in the circuit is 6 .
The power factor of the circuit is:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 15 The correct relation between (ration of collector current to emitter current) and (ratio of
collector current to be base current) of a transistor is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 The angular momentum of planet of mass M moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit is
. The magnitude of the areal velocity of the planet is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 Three rays of light, namely red(R), green (G) and blue (B) are incident on the face PQ of a
right angled prism PQR as shown in the figure:
The refractive indicies of the material of the prism for red, green and blue wavelength are
1.27, 1.42 and 1.49 respectively The colour of the ray(s) emerging out of the face PR is:
Option 1:
green
Option 2:
blue and green
Option 3:
blue
Option 4:
red
Correct Answer:
red
Solution:
Assuming that the right angled prism is an isoceles prism, so the other angles will be 45° each.
⇒ Each incident ray will make an angle of 45° with the normal at face PR
⇒ The wavelength corresponding to which the incidence angle is less than the critical angle, will pass
through PR.
Q. 18 A proton and an -particle ,having kinetic energies Kp, and Ka respectively, enter into a
magnetic field at right angles.
The ratio of the radii of trajectory of proton to that of -particle is 2:1.The ratio of
is:
Option 1:
4:1
Option 2:
1:8
Option 3:
1:4
Option 4:
8:1
Correct Answer:
4:1
Solution:
And the ratio of charge of and proton is 2

Q. 19 A plane electromagnetic wave propagating along y-direction electric field and magnetic
field components
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
or,
Since the direction of propogation of wave is in y direction so the magnetic field and electric field is either
in x or in z-direction.
Q. 20 The velocity-displacement graph of a particle is shown in the figure.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Equation from this graph using straight line equation -
Since the intercept is negative and slope is positive. So the correct option is (3)
Q. 21 The radius of sphere is measured to be cm. Suppose the percentage error in
its volume is x:
The value of x, to the nearest x is_______
Correct Answer:
34
Solution:
Q. 22 The typical output characteristics curve for transistor working in the common -emmiter
configuration is shown in the figure.
The estimated current gain from the figure is _____
Correct Answer:
200
Solution:
Q. 23 The projectile motion of a particle of mass 5g is shown in the figure.
The initial velocity of particle is and the air resistance is assumed to be

negilibile.The magnitude of the change in the momentum between points A and B is
.
The value of x, to the nearest integer is _______
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Q. 24 A ball of mass 4kg moving with a velocity of 10 ms-1 , collides with a spring of length 8m and
force constant 100 Nm-1. The length of the compressed spring is x m. The value of x, to the
nearest interger is _______
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Q. 25 An infinite number of point charges, each carrying 1 cagrge, are placed along the y-axis
at y=1m, 2m, 4m .8m _____
The total force on a 1 C point charge, placed at the origin is .
The value of x, to the nearest interger is ________
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Q. 26 Consider a 72cm long AB as shown in the figure. The galavnometer jockey is placed at P on
AB at a distance xcm from A. The galvanometer shows zero deflection.
The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ____
Correct Answer:
48
Solution:
Q. 27 Two wires of the same length and thickness having specific resisatnce cm and cm
respectively are connected in parallel. The effective resistivity is cm. The value of , to the
nearest integer is ________
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Q. 28 Consider a water tank as shown in the figure. It's cross-sectional area is 0.4m2. The tank has
an opening B near the bottom whose cross-section area is 1cm2, A load of 24kg applied on
the water at the top when the height of water level is 40cm above the bottom, is the velocity
of water coming out the opening B is vms-1.
The value of v, to the nearest integer, is __________
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Using Bernoulli's equation
Note V1 is negligible and assumed to be zero. Because the area of upper portion is very large as compare
to lower hole
Q. 29 A TV transmission tower anteena is at a height of 20m. Suppose that the receiving antenna
is at.
i. ground level
ii. a height of 5m
The increase in antenna range in case (ii) relative to case (i) is n%.
The value of n, to the nearest integer, is ______
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Percentage change is =
Q. 30 A galaxy is moving away from the earth at a speed of 286 kms-1. The shift in the wavelength
of a redline 630nm is
The value of x, to the nearest integer, is _________
[Take the value of speed of light c as ]
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1
Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of:
Option 1:
A>C>B
Option 2:
C> A> B
Option 3:
B>C>A
Option 4:
C> B > A
Correct Answer:
C> B > A
Solution:
Percentage yield can be given by the stability of the product.
Q. 2 A hard substance melts at high temperature and is an insulator in both solid and in molten
state. The solid is most likely to be a/an:
Option 1:
Covalent solid
Option 2:
Metallic solid
Option 3:
Ionic solid
Option 4:
Molecular solid
Correct Answer:
Covalent solid
Solution:
If the substance is an insulator in both solid & molten phases, then it can't be ionic or metallic solid.
If melting pt. is higher, then it can't be molecular solid. It should be a covalent network solid.

Q. 3 Match the list -I with list -II
List - I List - II
(Class of Chemicals) (Example)
a. Antifertility drug i.Meprobamate
b. Antibiotic ii. Alitame
c. Tranquilizer iii. Norethindrome
d. Artificial Sweetener iv. Sal

Choose the correct option.
Option 1:
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Option 2:
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Option 3:
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Option 4:
a-ii, b-iv, c-i. d-iii
Correct Answer:
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Solution:
We know,
(a) Antifertility drug ------- Norethindrone

(b) Antibiotic ------- Salvarsan
(c) Tranquilizer ------- Meprobamate
(d) Artificial sweetener ------- Alitame
So, the correct match-
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Q. 4 The secondary valency and the number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s)
in CuSO4.5H2O, respectively are:
Option 1:
4 and 1
Option 2:
5 and 1
Option 3:
6 and 5
Option 4:
6 and 4
Correct Answer:
4 and 1
Solution:
Structure of complex CuSO4.5H2O
The secondary valency is 4 and the number of hydrogen-bonded water molecule 1.
Q. 5 The oxidation states of nitrogen in are in order of:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The oxidation states of nitrogen in are -
Decreasing order of oxidation state of 'N' is as follows:
Q. 6 Main products formed during a reaction of 1-methyoxy napthalene with hydroiodic acid are:
Option 1:
and
Option 2:
and
Option 3:
and
Option 4:
and
Correct Answer:
and
Solution:
Reaction will be -
Q. 7 The charges on the colloidal CdS sol TiO2 sol are, respectively:
Option 1:
negative and positive
Option 2:
negative and negative
Option 3:
positive and negative
Option 4:
positive and positive
Correct Answer:
negative and positive
Solution:
The charges on the colloidal CdS sol and TiO2 sol are-
Q. 8 Deficiency of Vitamin K causes:
Option 1:
Increase in fragility RBC's
Option 2:
Decrease in blood clotting time
Option 3:
increase in blood clotting time
Option 4:
Cheilosis
Correct Answer:
increase in blood clotting time
Solution:
Deficiency of Vitamin K causes increases in blood clotting time. Vitamin K is related to blood factors.
Q. 9 Match the list I with list II:
List I List II
a. Be i. treatment of cancer
b. Mg ii. extraction of metals
c. Ca iii. incendiary bombs and signals
d. Ra iv. windows if X-ray tubes
v. bearing for motor engines

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below
Option 1:
a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Option 2:
a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-v
Option 3:
a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know the fact that -
(a) Be is used in the Windows of X-ray tubes.

(b) Mg is used in the Incendiary bombs and signals.
(c) Ca is used in the Extraction of metals.
(d) Ra is used in the Treatment of cancer.
So, the correct match will be -
Q. 10 An organic compound "A" on treatment with benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound B.
B is soluble in dil. NaOH solution. Compound A is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hinsberg reagent (Benzene sulphonyl chloride) gives a reaction and form an acidic product with 1° amine
and it is soluble in dil. NaOH.
Q. 11 Given below are two statements
Statement I : Non-biodegradable wastes are generated by the thermal power plants.
Statement II: Bio-degradable detergents leads to eutrophication.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Statement I is false and Statement II is true
Option 4:
Statement I is true and Statement II is false
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know the theory -
Non-biodegradable wastes are generated by the thermal power plants which produce fly ash.
Detergents that are biodegradable cause a problem called eutrophication which kills animal life by
depriving it of oxygen.
So, Both statements I and II are true
Q. 12 In the basic medium H2O2 exhibits which of the following reaction?
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Option 1:
A, B only
Option 2:
A only
Option 3:
B only
Option 4:
A, C only
Correct Answer:
A, B only
Solution:
In basic medium, oxidizing action of H2O2
In basic medium, reducing action of H2O2
In acidic medium, oxidising action of H2O2 , But not in a basic medium.

Q. 13 The first ionization energy of magnesium is smaller as compared to that of elements x and Y,
but higher than that of Z. The element X, Y and Z respectively:
Option 1:
argon, chlorine and sodium
Option 2:
neon, sodium and chlorine
Option 3:
chlorine, lithium and sodium
Option 4:
argon, lithium and sodium
Correct Answer:
argon, chlorine and sodium
Solution:
The 1st IE order of 3rd period is
Li< Na < Al < Mg < Si < S < P < Cl < Ar
X & Y are Ar & Cl
Z is sodium (Na).
Q. 14 In the following molecule:
Hybridization of Carbon a,b and c respectively are:
Option 1:
sp3 , sp , sp2
Option 2:
sp3 , sp , sp
Option 3:
sp3 , sp2 , sp
Option 4:
sp3 , sp2 , sp2
Correct Answer:
sp3 , sp2 , sp2
Solution:
Hybridisation of Carbon a, b and c respectively are
sp3 , sp2 , sp2
Q. 15
Consider the above reaction, the product "X" and "Y" respectively are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 In the reaction of hypobromite with amide, the carbonyl carbon is lost as:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So, the carbonyl carbon is lost as
Q. 17 The oxide that shows magnetic property is:
Option 1:
Mn3O4
Option 2:
SiO2
Option 3:
Na2O
Option 4:
MgO
Correct Answer:
Mn3O4
Solution:
The oxidation state of Mn in Mn3O4 is +3.
So,
Mn3+ - [Ar] 3d4 4s0
Hence presence of unpaired electrons are 4.
Mn3O4 is paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired electrons.
Q. 18 Given two statements:
Statement I: Bohr's theory accounts for the stability and line spectrum of Li+ ion.
Statement II : Bohr's theory was unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the
presence of a magnetic field.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appopriate answer from the following
options given below:
Option 1:
Both statement I and Statement II are true.
Option 2:
Statement I is true and Statement II is false
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Statement-I is false since Bohr's theory accounts for the stability and spectrum of single electronic
species (eg : He+ , Li2+ etc)
Statement II is true.
So,
Q. 19 Given below are two statements:
Statement I : C2H5OH and AgCN both can generate nucleophile.
Statement II: KCN and AgCN both will generate nitrile nucleophile with all reaction
conditions.
Choose the most appropriate option:
Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Option 4:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Solution:
We know the below facts -
C2H5OH and AgCN both can generate nucleophiles.
KCN and AgCN both will NOT generate nitrile nucleophile with all reaction conditions.
So, Statement I is true but statement II is false.

Q. 20 Match List I with List II
List - I List-II
a. Mercury i. Vapour phase refining
b. copper ii. Distillation refining
c. Silicon iii. Electrolytic refining
d. Nickel iv. Zone Refining
Option 1:
a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Option 2:
a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
Option 3:
Option 4:
a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know these -
(a) Mercury --------> Distillation refining
(b) Copper --------> Electrolytic refining
(c) Silicon --------> Zone refining
(d) Nickel --------> Vapour phase refining.

Q. 21 The number of species below that have lone pairs of electrons in their central atom is
____________ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Structure of given compounds-
Ans = 2
Q. 22 The solubility of CdSO4 in water . Its solution in 0.01 M H2SO4 solution

__ (Round off to the nearest integer)
(Assume that solubility is much less than 0.01 M)
Correct Answer:
64
Solution:
Given,
So,
So,
Hence s2 <<<1
Ans = 64
Q. 23 10.0 mL of solution is titrated against 0.2 MHCl solution. The following titre values
were obtained in 5 readings:
4.8ml, 4.9mL, 5.0mL, and 5.0mL
Based on these readings and convection of titrimetric estimation the concentration of

solution is ______ nM.
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Most precise volume of HCl = 5 ml
at equivalence point,
Let molarity of Na2CO3 solution = M, then

Ans = 50
Q. 24 A xenon compund 'A' upon partial hydrolysis gives . The nuber of lone pair of
electrons present in compund A is _____
Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
Ans = 19
Q. 25 A solute A dimerizes in water. The boiling point of a 2 molal solution of A is . The

percentage associated of A is ______ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[ Use: for water
Boiling point of water = ]
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
So,
Now,
So,
So, percentage association = 100%.
Ans = 100
Q. 26 In Tollen's test aldehyde, the overall number of electron(s) transferred to the Tollen's
reagent formula per aldehyde group to form sliver mirror is _______
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Reaction will be-
Ans = 2
Q. 27 A reaction has half life of 1 min. The tie required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is
_________ min. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Use; ln 2= 0.69, ln 10 = 2.3]
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Given,
A reaction has a half-life of 1 min.
we know,
Now, at t = 50 % = t1/2
so, K = ln2
Now, at t = 99.9 %
Ans = 10
Q. 28
Consider the above reaction where 6.1g of Benzoic acid is used to get 7.8g of m-Bromo
benzoic acid. The percentage yield of the product is ________.
[Given: Atomic masses : C: 120.0u, H: 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u, Br : 80.0 u ]
Correct Answer:
78
Solution:
Given,
Now,
Hence,
Mass = molar mass X mole
Now,
Ans = 78
Q. 29 The gas phase reaction
at 400K has
The equilibrium constant Kc for this reaction is _____ (Rounded off to the nearest
integer)
[Use : R = 8.3 J mol-1K-1 , ln 10 = 2.3 log102 = 0.30, 1 atm = 1 bar] [antilog (-0.3) = 0.501]
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Using formula
Ans = 2
Q. 30 The molar conductivities at infinite dilution of barium chloride, sulphuric acid and
hydrochroic acid are 280, 860 and 426 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. The molar conductivity at
infinite dilution of barium sulphate is _______ S cm2 mol-1. (Roundede off to the nearest
integer)
Correct Answer:
288
Solution:
Given,
Find
We know ,
From Kohlrausch's law
Ans = 288
Maths
Q. 1 In triangle ABC, if , then the projection of vector
on is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 If for some . then the value of is

equal to:
Option 1:
350
Option 2:
250
Option 3:
400
Option 4:
500
Correct Answer:
250
Solution:
Q. 3 Let the centroid of an equilateral traingle ABC be at the origin. Let one of the sides of the
equilateral triangle be along the straight line x + y =3. If R and r be the radius of circumcircle
and incircle respectively of then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 Let and be the two non-zeroes vectors perpendicular to each other and .
If then the angle between the vectors and

is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given that,
Q. 5 Let the system of linear equation
has a non-trivial solution. Then which of the following is true?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For Non-trival solution
Q. 6
Let a tangent be drawn to the ellipse at where .
Then the value of such that the sum of intercepts on axes made by this tangent is
minimum is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
\
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 The area bounded by the curve is equal to :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Required area
(1) + (2)
Q. 8
Let y = y(x) be the solution of differential equation
, with y(2)=0. Then the value of at x =1 is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solution is
Q. 9 If P and Q are two statements, then which of the following compound statement is a
tautology?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
LHS of all the option are same
Q. 10
Let , where f is continous function in [0.3] such that for all
and for all . The largest possible interval in which g(3) lies is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
(1) + (2), we get
Q. 11 Let S1 be the sum of first 2n terms of an arthimetic progression. Let S2 be the sum of first 4n
terms of the same arithmetic progression. If is 1000, then the sum of the first 6n
terms of the arthimetic progression is equal to:
Option 1:
1000
Option 2:
3000
Option 3:
5000
Option 4:
7000
Correct Answer:
3000
Solution:
Q. 12 Let in a binomial distribution, consisting of 5 independent trials, probabilities of exactly 1
and 2 sucession be 0.4096 and 0.2048 respectively. Then the probabilityof exactly getting 3
sucession is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 Let in series of 2n observations, half of them are equal to a remaining half are equal to -a.
Also by adding a constant b in each of these observations, the mean and standard deviation
of new set become 5 and 20, respectively. Then the value of is equal to:
Option 1:
650
Option 2:
250
Option 3:
925
Option 4:
425
Correct Answer:
425
Solution:
Q. 14 Define a relation R over a class of real matrices A and B as "ARB iff there exists a
non - sigular matrix P such that ".
Then which of the following is true?
Option 1:
R is an equivalence relation.
Option 2:
R is reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
Option 3:
R is symmetric , transitive but nit reflective
Option 4:
R is reflective, symmetric but not transitive
Correct Answer:
R is an equivalence relation.
Solution:
For reflexive
Which is true for P = I

therefore R is Reflexive
For symmetry
For transitivity
So R is equivalence
Q. 15 Consider a hyperbola . Let the tangent at a point P meet the

axis at Q and latus rectum at R . If F is a focus of H which is nearer to the
point P, then the area of is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
equation of tangent at P to the hyperbola is
tangent meet x -axis at Q(1,0)
Q. 16 A pole stands vertically inside a triangular part ABC. Let the angle of elevation of the top of
the pole from each corner of the park be . If the radius of the circumcircle of is 2,
then the height of the pole is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let PD = h and R = 2, As angle of elevation of top of pole from A, B and C are equal So
D must be circumcentre of triangle ABC.
Q. 17
Let be defined by .
Let be given as . Then , the sum of all values of x for which

is equal to:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
sum of roots is 5
Q. 18 Let be a function defined as
If continous at x =0, then the value of a +b is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
f(x) is continous at x = 0
from (2), (3) and (4) ,(1)
Q. 19 Let a complex number be . Let the another complex number z be such that
and . Then the area of the triangle with the vertices
origin, a and w is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 Let and . Then the locus of centre of a variable

circle S which touches internally externally always passes through the points:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
therefore given circle are touching internally Let a veriable circle with P and radius
r
⇒ Locus of P is an ellipse with foci at A(0,0) and B(2,0) and length of major axis is 2a = 4
e = 1/2
Q. 21
If then the value of is equal to_______
Correct Answer:
160
Solution:
we get
Q. 22
Let I be an identity matrix of order and . Then the value of for
which is equal to _______.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Q. 23
Let P be a plane containing the line and parallel to the line
. If the point lies on the plane P, then the value of

is equal to ____-
Correct Answer:
38
Solution:
Q. 24 Let denotes the binomial coefficient of in the expansion of . If
then is equal to _________-
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Q. 25 If f(x) and g(x) are two polynomials such that the polynomials is
divisible by , then P(1) is equal to ______
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
(2) + (3)
(2) - (1)
Q. 26 Let the mirror image of the point (1,3,a) with respect to the plane
be (-3,5,2). Then the value of is equal to __________
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 27
The term independent of x in the expansion of is
equal to ____
Correct Answer:
210
Solution:
For term independent of x
Q. 28 Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation

, with y(1) =0. If the area bounded by the line x=1,
and y=y(x) is , then the va;ue of is equal to_______
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Q. 29 Let satisfy the equation of all
for any . If the function f is differentiable at x=0 and f'(0) =3, then is
equal to ________
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 30 Let P(x) be a real polynomial of degree 3 which vanishes at x=-3. Let P(x) have local minima
at x=1, local maxima at x=-1 and , then the sum of all coefficients of
the polynomial P(x) is equal to ______

Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
from (1)

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JEE MAIN MARCH 2021

6 SETS HAVING 540 QUESTIONS WITH

The acceleration - displacement graph of the bicycle's motion is best described by :

So the correct graph is

are unit vectors along x,y and z directions.

EM wave is traveling towards

Q. 3 In thermodynamics, heat and work are :

Q. 4 The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of three gases, 16 g of oxygen, 28 g of

So New time period

So the correct graph is

Where is the One main scale division of vernier calipers.

(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence

(D) When angle of emergence is double the angle of incidence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

As shown in the above figure

The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when

(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence

As shown in the above figure

is in clockwise direction and is in anticlockwise direction

Q. 18 The pressure acting on a submarine is Pa at a certain depth. If the depth is

(Assume that atmospheric pressure is Pa density of water is

Now the depth is doubled

Stopping potential changes linearly with the frequency of incident radiation.

(g is acceleration due to gravity)

The value of x is ________.

The value of n, to the nearest integer, is ____________.

[Given : In one complete revolution, the disk rotates by 6.28 rad]

The value of x to the nearest integer is ___________.

by a factor of approximately 'x' .

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___________.

From equation (i) and (ii)

The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is ________.

The value of x , to the nearest integer, is _______.

Assertion A : Size of Bk3+ ion less than Np3+ion.

Reason R : The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.

Q. 3 Match List - I with List - II

List-1 Industrial process List - II Application

(a) Haber's process (i) synthesis

(b) Ostwald's process (ii) Aluminium extraction

(c) Contact process (iii) synthesis

(d) Hall - Heroult process (iv) synthesis

3. Contact process is used for H2SO4 synthesis using N2O5 catalyst.

Q. 4 Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst ?

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2)

Assertion A : The H-O-H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5o.

Q. 6 The functions of antihistamine are :

The products "A" and "B" formed in above reactions are :

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

The aromatic compounds are (B) and (C) only.

Q. 9 Match List - I with List - II

Name of Oxo acid Oxidation state of 'P'

(a) Hypophosphorous acid (i) +5

(b) Orthophosphoric acid (ii) +4

(c) Hypophosphoric acid (iii) +3

(d) Orthophosphorous acid (iv) +2

In the above chemical reaction, intermediate "X"and reagent/condition "A" are :

Therefore, option (1) is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2)

Statement I : Both CaCl2.6H2O and MgCl2.8H2O undergo dehydrationon heating.