All 20 Mandatory Answers 2023-24

1 Whistle Blower Policy as a Risk Mitigation Tool
1. Whistle Blowing demonstrate to which core value of our Bank

 Courage
 Excellence
 Leadership
 Innovation
2. To protect the identity of the complainant, acknowledgement will not be issued and
the whistle blowers are advised not to enter into any further correspondence in their
interest.[True/ False
 True
 False
3. If the Designated Authority, after conducting an inquiry, is of the opinion that there are
no sufficient grounds for proceeding with the inquiry, it may___
 Punish the employee against whom the complaint is made
 Punish the complainant
 Ask explanation from the complainant
 Close the complaint
4. Employees of the Bank may lodge the complaint / raise concerns under Internal
Whistle Blower Policy for employees through ____
 INTRANET
 SMEX PORTAL
 SIEBEL CRM
 HR Connect
5. Which of the following is not an objective of “Whistle Blower Policy”?

 Escalate staff shortage problem to the management
 Report abuse of power and authority by any official of the Bank or any other act
with activity with the intention of unethical personal gain
 Report violation of Banks Code of Conduct
 To provide a platform for its directors and employees to freely express their
concerns on the various matter about any mal-practices, fraud.
6. Which is not a USP of “Whistle Blower Policy” ?

 Confidentiality
 Protected Disclosures
 Protect Victimization
 Anonymous Allegations
7. The investigation under Whistle Blower Policy should be completed within___ Days
from the date of assignment and report should be submitted to the Designation
Authority.
 15 days
 21 days
 30 days
 45 days
8. Who can make a complaint under the “Internal Whistle Blower Policy” of the Bank
 Only customers of the Bank
 Only employees of the Bank
 Only Directors of the Bank
 Any employee or Director of the Bank
9. Anonymous complaints can be entertained as per Whistle Blower Policy on case to

case basis by Designated Authority [True/ False ]
 False
 True
10. All whistle –blower complaints, enclosed documents/ annexures, and the
investigation reports shall be retained by the _______
 GOI
 Bank
 RBI
 FMG
11. The Whistle Blower Policy applies to ___

 Only Officer employees
 All employees including directors
 All employees except directors
 All employees except CGM-HRM
12. Access to online portal for whistle-blowers is restricted to only___

 Designated Authority
 No such restriction
 Chairman to ACB
 Both of the above can access
13. Which of the following statement is not correct under the internal whistle blower policy
of our Bank?
 Malicious or frivolous allegations made may result in disciplinary action against the
Whistle Blower.
 The Victimization of Whistle Blower shall be treated as a serious matter including
initiating disciplinary action against the person(s) causing or allowing victimization
of Whistle Blower.
 This policy also entertains anonymous complaints
 The Chief Risk Officer ( CRO) of the Bank shall be the Designated Authority to
receive Protected Disclosures / written complaints
14. Which of the following actions would you consider as a possible example of speak-
up / whistle- blowing?
 Misuse of Branch premises for unauthorized / illegal activities
 One of your colleagues has recently purchased a SUV car
 Sanction of loan to a staff member after complying bank’s extant guidelines
 Your manager has rejected your leave application
15. Which of the following area/s is /are covered under the Internal Whistle Blower Policy
for employees and directors of the Bank
 Misuse of Office-misuse of discretionary lending/ administrative Powers
 Misuse of cash of bank by custodians during the day of overnight for personal
gains
 Suspected or actual fraud
 All of the above
16. Full form of PIDPI is____

 Public Information Disclosed with Protection of Informers
 Public Information Disclosure with Protection of Informers
 Public Information Disclosure and Protection of Informers
 Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informer
17. Under which of the following guiding principles, action can be taken against the
Whistle Blower Complainant?
 Confidentiality
 Malicious Allegations
 Destruction of protection disclosures
 Anonymous allegation
18. Under Whistle Blower policy a Designated Officer shall not be below the rank of ___
 Chief Manager
 AGM
 GM
 DGM
19. In case the complainant is not satisfied with the redressal of their complaints, he may
escalate the matter directly to the ______
 Chairman, Audit Committee of the Board
 Chairman, Resolution Committee of the Board
 Chairman, Grievance Committee of the Board
 He can’t escalate matters directly
20. ____means a concern raised by a written communication made in good faith that
discloses or demonstrates information that may evidence unethical or improper
activity concerning the bank
 Protected Disclosure
 Subject
 Safeguards
 None of the above
21. The Designated Authority shall not seek any confirmation from the complainant,
if______
 The disclosures are made online from the HR Connect Portal
 The disclosure are sent through other staff members
 The disclosures are handed over personally
 The disclosures are made through Branch email
22. The Designated Authority shall report all Whistle Blower Complaints to the Audit
Committee of the Board, together with results of investigations and an update on the
actions taken by the Bank at least once in every ______.
 Fortnightly
 Month
 Year
 Quarter
23. The Policy also provides the complainants direct access to the Chairman of the Audit
Committee of Board, in deserving cases[True / False ]
 True
 False
24. The Whistle Blowers can escalate the complaint / disclosures raised through whistle
blower to the Chairman, Audit Committee of the Board (ACB), if he is not satisfied with
the proceedings or findings of investigation. [True / False ]
 True
 False
25. Under which section every listed company shall establish a vigil mechanism for their
directors and their employees to report genuine concerns or grievances?
 Section 176 of the Companies Act, 2013
26. The Designated Officer under Whistle Blower policy ensure that no punitive action is
taken by any Administrative Authority against any person on perceived reasons/
suspicion of being Whistle Blower (True/False)
 True
 False
27. In the event of the identity of the complainant being disclosed, the committee is
authorized to recommended appropriate action against the person making such
disclosures (True/False)
 True
 False
28. As per Whistle-blower policy who is the designated authority to receive complaints
under the Policy
 Chief Vigilance Officer
 Chairman of the Bank
 CGM-HRM
 Chief Risk Officer
29. The Designated Authority (CRO) under Whistle Blower Policy shall ensure resolution of
complaints within____days from the date of receipt of the complaint at his / her office.
 15 days
 90 days
 30 days
 60 days
30. Under Whistle Blower Policy mandatory points for raising complaints are____
 The Complaint should be addressed to Chief Risk Officer
 The Complaint should be sent in a sealed envelope
 The Complaint should give his/ her name, EC, address, contact details etc. in the
complaint
31. Under the whistle Blower Policy, the complainant should give his/ her name, EC No.,
address, Phone No, Email etc. (True/ False )
 False
 True
32. Which of the following areas are covered under the “Internal Whistle Blower Policy for
employees and directors of the Bank”
 Accepting consideration in cash of kind from customers/ middlemen for
favourably considering credit proposals
 Unauthorized debits to General Ledger / Profit and Loss accounts
 Obtaining personal gains for settling genuine claims of customers
33. Whistle Blowing is____

 Blowing the whistle
 Blowing the middle alarm in the break time
 To reveal wrong doing within an organization
 None of these
34. This Whistle Blower policy does not entertain anonymous complaints and encourages
employees to put their Name, Address, email address, contact numbers etc. because
appropriate follow up questions and investigation may not be feasible unless the
source of the information is identified.[ True / False ]
 True
 False
35. Which of the following area is not covered under the Internal Whistle Blower Policy for
employees and directors of the Bank of Baroda?
 Complaints under Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers (PIDPI)
Resolution 2004
 Incorrect financial reporting
 Failure to comply with existing rules and regulations resulting in financial loss
 Leakage of sensitive information, breach of any policy
36. If a Whistle Blower employee is victimized, he / she can file a complaint before____
 CGM-HR
 CVO
 Chairman of ACB
37. If the whistle blower is not satisfied with the findings of the Investigation then they can
escalate the matter to____
 Chairperson of ACB
38. If any official is aggrieved by any action on the ground that he is being victimized due
to the fact that he had filed a complaint or disclosure, he may file an application
before the______
 Chairperson, Audit Committee of RBI
 Designated Executive Director
 Chairperson of the Bank
 Chairperson, Audit Committee of the Board
39. If the complaint is anonymous / pseudonymous as per the Whistle Blower Policy, the
Designated Authority___ in the matter.
 May take an action if he prefers
 May refer the matter to ACB
 May take an action
 May not take any action
40. After conduct of Enquiry who is responsible for closure of complaints?

 Designated Authority
 Chairman of ACB
 Designated Officer
 Chairman of Bank
41. Every effort shall be made to treat the Whistle Blower’s indentity with appropriate
regard for confidentiality at all times. ( True/ False)
 True
 False
42. Who is Chief Risk Officer in Our Bank?

 Mr. Rajiv Kumar
 Mr. S Patra
 Mr. S Anantharaman
 Mr. K N Nayak
100% Correct
1. Which of the following is correct?

 A. Complainant must prove the truth of an allegation
 B. Complaint must have been made good faith
 C. The onus of providing the allegations lies with the complainant
 D. Both A & B are correct
2. The Custody of the original complaint under the Whistle Blower Policy with the
documents will remain with the ____and at no time that complaint can be accessed
without proper authority from the said authority.
 In-Charge of housekeeping
3. All the envelopes, super scribed with the complaints under Whistle Blower Policy will
be opened by_____
 General Manager-CIAD
2 ESG- The Future of Sustainability
1. Which SDG aims to ensure affordable and clean energy for all?
 Goal 12: Responsible Consumption and Production
 Goal 9: Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure
 Goal 6: Clean Water and Sanitation
 Goal 7: Affordable and Clean Energy
2. In regard to our responsibilities, what is the need of the hour?

 To use private transportation whenever possible
 To use more plastic to reduce waste
 To waste more food
 To become aware of our responsibilities and spread awareness
3. What does ESG Criteria refer to?

 Consideration of only financial factors in investment decision-making
 Consideration of environmental and financial factors in investment decision- making
 Consideration of environmental, social, and governance factors alongside financial
factors in investment decision-making
 Consideration of social and governance factors in investment decision-making
4. Which among the following best describes “sustainability”?

 Meeting our own needs without considering future generations
 Meeting our own needs while compromising the ability of future generations
 Meeting our own needs without compromising the ability of future generations
 Meeting the needs of future generations without considering our own needs
5. According to Principle 4, who are the stakeholders that businesses should respect and be
responsive to?
 All stakeholders, including vulnerable and marginalized groups
 Only employees and suppliers
 Only shareholders and investors
 Only customers and clients
6. What are the different tools for sustainable finance?

 Solar bonds, green credit cards, and green stocks
 Renewal and sustainable equity, green mutual funds, and green stocks
 Green bonds, renewable and sustainable equity, and green mutual funds
 Solal bonds, renewable and sustainable equity, and green credit cards
7. What is the major environmental impact of plastic?

 Polluting soil and land
 Causing deforestation
 Contaminating air quality
 Disrupting the natural water cycle
8. Which governance factor in ESG aims to promote ethical business practices?

 Stakeholder dialogue
 Executive benefits and compensation
 Bribery and corruption whistle blowing schemes
 Board diversity and independence
9. According to Principle 6, what is a prerequisite for sustainable economic growth and the
well-being of society?
 Technological innovation
 Social responsibility
 Environmental responsibility
 Economic responsibility
10. What does it mean when companies use ESG?

 They are using environmental, social, and governance factors to evaluate their
sustainability practices
 They are evaluating their sustainability practices based on environmental factors only
 They are evaluating their social impact only
 They are evaluating their financial performance only
11. What are the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?

 A Plan to reduce the number of member states in the UN
 A plan to achieve economic growth in all countries
 A plan to build a better world for people and the planet by 2030
 A plan to promote gender inequality in all countries
12. What impact does climate risk have on the credit business of banks?
 It leads to safe investments for commercial lenders
 It has no impact on the credit business of banks
 It poses serious threats to the viability and financial health of business
 It poses no threat to the viability and financial health of business
13. What does ESG stand for in the investment decision-making process?
 Employment, Sustainability, and Governance factors
 Environmental, Social, and Governance factors
 Economic, Social and Governance factors
 Energy, Sustainability, and Governance Factors
14. What are the key focus areas of BRSR?

 Reporting of grievances across 9 principles for all stakeholders
 Reporting of financial statements
 Disclosing of employee demographics
 Disclosure of employee benefits
15. Which of the following is NOT one of the individual responsibilities towards ESG?
 Thinking twice before wasting food
 Excessive use of plastic
 Using bicycles for shorter distances
 Using public transport whenever possible
16. What is BRSR?

 Business Risk and Sustainability Report
 Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report
 Business Reporting and Sustainability Report
 Business Resource and sustainability Report
17. What do investors expect from companies in terms of ESG?

 Regular and transparent reporting
 Focus on R & D in the area of innovative green technology
 Minimize capital risk-led transition to net Zero
18. Which of the following is an example of judicious use of resources as an individual?

 Using as much water as one wants without thinking about conservation
 Wasting food without a second thought
 Using public transport or bicycles
 Using electricity for unnecessary purposes
19. According to Principle 7, how should businesses engage in influencing public and
regulatory policy?
 By threatening government officials
 In a responsible and transparent manner
 Secretly and without transparency
 By bribing government officials
20. Which of the following is a preferred ESG topic for education according to the survey?
 Digital marketing techniques
 Customer service and support
 Supply Chain management
 ESG integration in risk management
21. What is the aim of SDG 16: Peace and Justice Strong Institutions?
 To promote economic growth in all countries
 To reduce gender inequality in all countries
 To promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable development
 To ensure access to quality education for all
22. According to Principle 1, what is the cornerstone of businesses guiding their governance
of economic, social, and environmental responsibilities?
 Innovation
 Transparency
 Profit
 Competition
23. What are the key focus areas of BRSR?

 Reporting of grievances across 9 principles for all stakeholders
 Reporting of financial statements
 Disclosing of employee demographics
 Disclosure of employee benefits
24. What are the different tools for sustainable finance?

 Solar bonds, green credit cards, and green stocks
 Renewal and sustainable equity, green mutual funds, and green stocks
 Green bonds, renewable and sustainable equity, and green mutual funds
 Solal bonds, renewable and sustainable equity, and green credit cards
25. What is the focus of achieving carbon neutral?

 Reducing Water usage
 Mitigating the carbon footprint of an organization
 Reducing the used of plastic
 Encouraging pubic transport
26. What are the benefits of BRSR?

 Enhanced brand value
 Improved employee morale
 Increase in office supplies
 Compliance with tax laws
27. What is the mandate from SEBI for top 1000 Listed Companies in India?
 Publication of a business responsibility and sustainability report
 Promotion of renewable energy projects
 Implementation of sustainable finance
 Creation of a green bond market
28. Which among the following best describes “sustainability”?

 Meeting our own needs without considering future generations
 Meeting our own needs while compromising the ability of future generations
 Meeting our own needs without compromising the ability of future generations
 Meeting the needs of future generations without considering our own needs
29. What does ESG stand for in the investment decision-making process?
 Employment, Sustainability, and Governance factors
 Environmental, Social, and Governance factors
 Economic, Social and Governance factors
 Energy, Sustainability, and Governance Factors
30. Which SDG aims to ensure affordable and clean energy for all?
 Goal 12: Responsible Consumption and Production
 Goal 9: Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure
 Goal 6: Clean Water and Sanitation
 Goal 7: Affordable and Clean Energy
31. What is the governance in the context of ESG?

 The Consideration of social and environmental factors in investment decision- making
 The system by which an organization in controlled and operated
 The measurement of the carbon footprint of an organization
 The promotion of stakeholder engagement in decision-making
32. What are the benefits of BRSR?

 Competition, risk management, and inclusive growth
 Stakeholder engagement, capital and partnerships, and opportunities
 Performance evaluation, public advocacy, and environmental impact assessment
 Regulation, employee engagement, and brand value
33. What percentage of Earth’s water is fresh water?

 50%
 3%
 25%
 1%
34. Which of the following is an example of an environmental factor in ESG?

 Labour standards in the supply chain
 Bribery and corruption
 Workplace health and safety
 Greenhouse Gas emissions
35. What is the mandate from SEBI for the top 1000 listed companies in India regarding
sustainability reporting?
 To submit quarterly progress reports
 To submit CSR progress reports
 To Submit Business Responsibility & Sustainability Report
 To submit Annual financial reports
36. What is the main cause of climate change?

 Agriculture
 Afforestation
 Oval shape of Earth’s Orbit
 Fossil fuels
37. What is NGRBC?

 A report on sustainable finance
 Guidelines released by MCA
 A government initiative focusing on ESG principles
 A type of green bond
38. What is NVG?

 A type of green bon
 A new renewable energy technology
 A report on sustainable finance
 A government initiative focusing on ESG principles
39. State True or False- Good Corporate governance promotes investor’s confidence”
 True
 False
40. What was the focus of ESG criteria in the 1990s?

 Sustainability and reducing environmental impacts beyond requirements
 Corporate social responsibility and employee volunteerism
 Competitive advantage and risk and reward management
 Environment, health and safety
41. What is climate change?

 An increase in air pollution due to industrialization
 An increase in sea levels due to melting glaciers
 A human-induced shift in temperature and weather patterns
 A natural shift in temperatures and weather patterns
42. What is Earth Overshoot Day?

 The Day when Earth’s resources are regenerated
 The day when Earth’s resources are depleted
 The day when humanity’s demand for ecological resources exceeds what Earth can
regenerate
 The day when humanity’s demand for ecological resources is less than what Earth can
regenerate
43. Why is sustainability significant?

 To deplete fossil fuels faster
 To accelerate climate change
 To increase pollution levels
 To maintain Earth’s ecosystems
44. Which of the following is a factor to be taken into consideration from a social point of view
of ESG?
 Water availability
 Renewable energy
 Carbon emissions
 Workplace health and safety
45. Why is it important for businesses to ensure dynamic and robust governance practices?
 To meet changing regulatory requirements
 To lower accountability
 To reduce transparency
 To evade regulatory requirements
46. Which of the following is NOT an environmental factor considered in sustainable finance?
 Mitigation of the climate crisis
 GHG emissions of the project
 Protection of citizenship rights
 Use of sustainable resources
47. What is the aim of considering social factors in ESG?

 To reduce environmental impacts
 To promote workplace health and safety
 To manage human Capital effectively
 To ensure board diversity and independence
48. What is Carbon Neutral?

 The act of neutralizing carbon compounds in atmosphere through specific chemical
reactions
 Balancing the CO2 released into the atmosphere from a company’s activities by an
equivalent amount being removed
 The complete elimination of greenhouse gases
 The reduction of carbon emissions by 50%
49. Which of the following is an element of good governance in ESG?

 Non- Compliance
 Unresponsiveness
 Equitability and inclusivity
 Lack of transparency
3 Information and Cyber Security
1. Which of these would refer to the exploration of the apt, ethical behaviours that are related
to the digital media platform and online environment?
 Cybersecurity
 Cybersafety
 Cyberethics [Correct]
 Cyber low
2. Which of the following is not a type of Cyber-attack?

 Ransomware
 Hacking
 Phishing
 Spoofing[Correct]
3. From the options below, which of them is not a vulnerability to information security?
 Without deleting data, disposal of storage media
 Unchanged default password
 Latest patches and updates not done
 Flood [Correct]
4. Which of the following is not a type of social engineering attack?

 Smishing
 Encryption[Correct]
 Phishing
 Vishing
5. What is the difference between a virus and a worm?

 A virus spreads through email, while a worm spread through networks
 A virus requires user interaction to spread, while a worm can spread
automatically[Correct]
 A virus is easy to remove, while a worm is difficult to remove
 A virus only infects files, while a worm infects the entire system
6. What is the CIA triad?

 Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability[Correct]
 Confidentiality, Integrity, Auditability
 Confidentiality, Integrity, Accessibility
 Confidentiality, Interoperability, Availability
7. What is the term for the practice of intentionally blocking or slowing down access to a
new Website or network
 Phishing
 Denial of Service[Correct]
 Malware
 Encryption
8. Which of the following is defined as an attempt to steal, spy, damage or destroy computer
systems, networks, or their associated information?
 Cyber Attack[Correct]
 Computer Security
 Cryptography
 Digital Hacking
9. In IP Address, IP is abbreviated as_______

 Intuition Programs
 Internet Protocol[Correct ]
 Internet Pathway
 Internet Program
10. What is a denial of service (DoS) attack?

 An attack that floods a network or server with traffic, rendering it unavailable[Correct
]
 An attack that steals sensitive information
 An attack that encrypts data and demands payment for its release
 An attack that impersonates a legitimate website to steal login credentials
11. What is a penetration test?

 A tool for blocking spam emails.
 A type of firewall
 A simulated Cyber-attack to test the security of a system or network[Correct ]
12. Which of the following is not a type of Malware?

 Ransomware
 Spyware
 Adware
 Fireware[Correct ]
13. What if the purpose of a Firewall?

 To prevent unauthorized access to a Network [Correct ]
 To increase Network Speed
 To provide encryption for network traffic
 To detect and remove malware from network
14. Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime?

 Data theft
 Forgery
 Damage to data and systems
 Installing antivirus for protection[Correct ]
15. Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime?

 Data theft
 Forgery
 Damage to data and systems
 Installing antivirus for protection[Correct ]
16. Which of these is an antivirus program type?

 Kaspersky
 Quick Heal
 Mcafee
 All of above[Correct ]
17. What is a Trojan?

 A tool that scans for vulnerabilities in a network
 A type of antivirus software
 A device that creates secure tunnels for remote access
 A type of malware that appears to be legitimate software, but contains malicious
code[Correct ]
18. What is a phishing attack?

 An attack that involves tricking users into giving up sensitive information[Correct ]
 An attack that involves flooding a network with traffic
 An attack that uses malware to infect a computer
 An attack that involves stealing data from a wireless network
19. What is a firewall?

 A tool that encrypts data during transmission
 A security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network
traffic[Correct ]
 A device that creates secure tunnels for remote access
 A type of antivirus software
20. In which of these a person in continually chased/ followed by another person or a group
of various people?
 Stalking [Correct]
 Phishing
 Identity theft
 Bullying
21. What is the purpose of a security audit?

 To install security software on a system.
 To update software on a system
 To identify vulnerabilities in a system [Correct]
 To remove malware from a system
22. What is the term for a type of cyber-attack that involves injecting malicious code into a
database to retrieve sensitive information?
 SQL Injection[Correct ]
 Denial of Service
 Phishing
 Ransomware
23. Which of the following is a best practice for mobile device security?
 Disabling passcodes and biometric authentication
 Using public Wi-Fi networks to access sensitive information
 Installing apps from untrusted sources
 Regularly updating software and firmware[Correct ]
1. What is the term for a type of malware that encrypts a user's files and demands payment
in exchange for the decryption key?
 Virus
 Ransomware
 Worm
 Trojan Horse
2. What are the features of Cyber Security?

 Compliance
 Defense against internal threats
 Threats Prevention
3. Compromising confidential information comes under____

 Attack
 Vulnerability
 Threat
 Bug
4. Who should protect their email accounts using strong passwords according to the Policy?
 Bank Customers
 Bank Employees
 Bank Contractors
 All Users
5. Which of the following is a best practice for password security?

 Changing passwords regularly
 Sharing passwords with others
 Using a short and simple password
 Using the same password for multiple accounts
6. What is malware?
 A type of computer hardware
 A method of encrypting data
 Malicious software designed to harm a system or steal information
 A type of firewall
7. What is a virus?
 A tool that monitors network traffic for suspicious activity
 A type of spam email
 A type of malware that encrypts data and demands payment for its release
 A program that self-replicates and spreads to other computers
8. What is Social Engineering?

 The use of deception to maintain manipulate individuals into divulging confidential or
 The User of encryption to protect data from unauthorized Access
 The use of firewalls to block unauthorized access to a Network
9. What is Cyber Security?

 Cyber Security provided security against malware
 Cyber Security provides security against cyber-terrorists
 Cyber Security protects a system from cyber attacks
10. What is the difference between confidentiality and privacy?

 Confidentiality refers to protecting and individual's personal information, while privacy
refers to protecting sensitive data
 Confidentiality refers to protecting sensitive data, while privacy refers to protecting
and individual's personal information
 Confidentiality and privacy are the same thing
11. What is a distributed denial of service (ddos) attack ?

 An attack that exploits vulnerabilities in software to gain access to a network or
device.
 An attack that uses malware to take control of a computer or device
 An attack that floods a network with traffic in order to disrupt it
 An attack that sends emails or messages to trick people into revealing sensitive
information.
12. Which of these is the oldest techniques used by hackers for phone hacking to make free
calls?
 Spraining
 Cracking
 Phishing
 Phreaking
13. What is a man-in-the-middle (MITM) Attack?

 An attack that impersonates a legitimate website to steal login credentials
 An attack that steals sensitive information
 An attack that floods a network or server with traffic, rendering it unavailable
 An attack that intercepts communication between two parties
14. From the option below, which of them is not a threat to information security?
 Eavesdropping
 Unchanged default password
 Information Leakage
 Disaster
15. A____can be a hardware device or a software program that filters all the packets of data
that comes through, the internet, etc
 Malware
 Firewall
 Antivirus
 Cookies
16. Possible threat to any information cannot be_____

 Reduced
 Ignored
 Protected
 Transferred
17. The full form of malware is____

 Malfunctioned Software
 Malicious Software
 Multipurpose Software
 Malfunctioning of Security
18. What is the goal of Information Security?

 Protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information
 Preventing Cyber -attacks
 Ensuring Regulatory Compliance
 Ensuring the privacy of data
19. Which of the following actions compromise Cyber Security?

 Vulnerability
 Attack
 Exploit
 Threat
20. What is a vulnerability?

 A type of hardware
 A type of Software
 A type of malware
 A weakness in a system that can be exploited by an attacker
21. Which of the following is a best practice for email security?

 Opening email attachments from unknown senders
 Forwarding suspicious emails to others
 Using the same password for multiple email accounts
 Enabling two-factor authentication
22. What is a DDos attack?

 A type of spam email
 An attampt to gain unauthorized access to a system
 An attempt to overwhelm a server or network with traffic
 A type of virus
23. What is the purpose of encryption?

 To Protect data from unauthorized access
 To detect and remove malware
 To prevent denial of service attacks
 To monitor network traffic
24. ________is the practice and precautions taken to protect valuable information from
unauthorized access, recording, disclosure or destruction.
 Information security
 Network Security
 Database Security
 Physical Security
25. What is malware?

 A type of Hardware
 A type of software that is designed to cause harm.
 A type of software that is designed to protect a computer
 A type of network connection
26. Which of the following is not a type of Cyber-attack?

 Ransomware
 DDoS
 Hacking
 Phishing
4 Human Rights Policy
1. State True or False:

Bank has not opted Zero Tolerance for harassment of any kind at the workplace
 True
 False[Correct]

Any guidelines on Human Rights issued by ILO/Government and the Bank from time
to time will automaticallly be part of Human Rights Policy
 True[Correct]
 False

For reporting and resolution of any human rights violations, external stakeholders can
complain through Baroda Samadhan.
 True
 False[Correct]

Child labour is not considered a violation of human rights
 True
 False[Correct]

The right to education is not recognized as a human right.
 True
 False[Correct]

Bank has not opted Zero Tolerance for harassment of any kind at the workplace
 True
 False[Correct]

Human rights policy of banks is appicable for the next five years
 True
 False[Correct]

Human rights apply to all individuals regardless of their race, gender, religion, or any
other status.
 True[Correct]
 False
Bank does not promote the right to freedom of association, worker participation, and
collective bargaining for all employees
 True
 False[Correct]

The Bank believes in fair, on-time, and transparent payment of remuneration and fees
to all its employees and value chain partners for their services
 True[Correct]
 False

Everyone has the right to freedom of thought, conscience, and religion.
 True
 False

Slavery and forced labor are prohibited under international human rights law.
 True[Correct]
 False
13. Which organization is responsible for monitoring compliance with the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights?
 Human Rights Watch
 Amnesty International
 United Nations Human Rights Council[Correct]
 International Criminal Court
14. What is Bank of Baroda’s stance on child labours?

 It is strictly prohibited [Correct]
 It is allowed in certain circumstances
 It is only allowed for children of Bank of Employees
 It is only allowed in certain geographical
15. When was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by the United Nations?
 1951
 1960
 1948[Correct]
 1945
16. Which organization adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
 World Health Organization
 International Criminal Court
 World Trade Organization
 United Nations[Correct]
17. What is Bank of Baroda’s approach to respecting the cultural rights of its stakeholders?
 By disregarding cultural differences
 By respecting and valuing cultural diversity [Correct]
 By imposing its own cultural norms
 By promoting only one specific culture
18. How many articles are there in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
 25
 35
 20
 30
19. What is the right to education?

 The right to access free education at all levels[Correct]
 The right to receive education only up to a certain age
 The right to refuse education
 The right to choose what to study and where to study it
20. What is the purpose of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?

 To promote human rights and fundamental freedoms[Correct]
 To regulate global migration
 To establish a framework for international trade
 To promote economic development
21. What is the main objective of Bank of Baroda’s Human Rights Policy?
 To promote human rights in the communities it operates in
 To protect the rights of customers
 To ensure fair treatment of employees[Correct]
 To minimize human rights violations in the financial sector
5 Complaints Resolution Mechanism
1. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman can reject complaint if they are found to
be frivolous or vexatious.
 True
 False
2. Can the Integrated Ombudsman Award compensation for mental agony and
harassment?
 Yes
 No
3. What happens to complaints that are in the nature of offering suggestions or seeking
guidance or explanation?
 They are treated as Valid Complaints
 They are separated to issue a suitable communication to the complainant
 They are closed with a suitable communication to the complainant
4. In case a customer is not satisfied with the resolution provided by the Internal
Ombudsman, what is the next course of action as per the Internal Ombudsman
Scheme 2018?
 The customer can approach the Consumer court
 The customer can approach the RBI Governor
 The Customer can approach the Banking Ombudsman
 The customer has no further course of action
5. State True or False: The Complainant is required to pay a fee to file a complaint with
the Internal Ombudsman.
 True
 False
6. Can a complainant withdraw the complaint filed with the Integrated Ombudsman?
 Yes
 No
7. Can a complainant appeal against the decision of the Integrated Ombudsman?

 Yes
 No
8. State True or False: Customers can approach the Internal Ombudsman only after
exhausting all other Grievance redressal mechanisms.
 True
 False
9. In which of the following situations can a complaint for deficiency in service not be
filed under the Scheme?
 A commercial decision of a Regulated Entity
 A dispute between a vendor and a Regulated Entity relating to an outsourcing
contract
 A grievance not addressed to the Ombudsman directly
10. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman has the power to take disciplinary action
against bank employees found guilty of misconduct.
 True
 False
11. Which of the following types of complaints can be filed with the Integrated
Ombudsman?
 Deposit-related complaints
 Loan-related complaints
 Credit card-related complaints
12. What is the meaning of authorized Representative in the Reserve Bank-Integrated

Ombudsman Scheme2021?
 A person who provides financial services to the Regulated Entity
 A person who is authorized by the Reserve Bank to represent the Regulated Entity
in the Proceedings before the Ombudsman
 A person appointed by the Reserved Bank to Represent the complainant in the
proceedings before the Ombudsman
 A person, other than an advocate, duly appointed an authorized in writing to
represent the complainant in the proceedings before the Ombudsman
13. What is the format in which the complaint should be submitted?

 Format specified by the Reserve Bank
 Only physical format
 Any format
14. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman is required to resolve complaints within
30 days of receiving them.
 True
 False
15. What is the tenure of the Integrated Ombudsman as per the Internal Ombudsman
Scheme 2018?
 10 Years
 5 Years
 3 Years
 7 years
16. What is the objective of the RBI’s Internal Ombudsman Scheme 2018?
 To resolve customer complaints effectively
 To improve the bank’s profitability
 To investigate fraudulent activities within the Bank
 To regulate the banking industry
17. What is the time limit for filing a complaint under the Scheme after receiving a reply
from the Regulated Entity or within 30 days of the complaint, whichever is earlier?
 Within 1 year
 Within 30 days
 Within 6 months
 Within 2 years
18. What is the time limit for filing a complaint with the Integrated Ombudsman?
 Within 9 months after the complainant has received the reply from the Regulated
Entity
 Within 1 year after the complainant has received the reply from the Regulated
Entity
Entity
Entity
19. What is the meaning of “Deputy Ombudsman” in the Reserve Bank-Integrated

Ombudsman Scheme 2021?
 The Executive Director In-charge of the Department of the Reserve Bank
administering the Scheme
 The person appointed by the Reserve Bank to represent the Complainant in the
 Any person appointed by the Reserve Bank as such under the Scheme
 The Ombudsman who passes an award in the complaint
20. What is the meaning of “Deficiency in Service” in the Reserve Bank-Integrated
 An adequate financial service provided by the Regulated Entity
 An extra service provided by the Regulated Entity without any additional charge
 A service which is not provided by the Regulated Entity but is not required by the
customer.
 A shortcoming or an inadequacy in any financial service, which the Regulated
Entity is required to provide statutorily or otherwise , which may or may not result
in financial loss or damage to the customer.
21. Can the Integrated Ombudsman award punitive damages to the Complainant?
 Yes
 No
22. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman is authorized to make policy decisions
on behalf of the bank
 True
 False
23. What is the time limit for the Bank to implement the decision of the Integrated
Ombudsman?
 30 days
 90 days
 60 days
 180 days
24. Who can approach the Internal Ombudsman as per the Internal Ombudsman
Scheme 2018?
 Only Existing Customers of the Bank
 Only new customers of the Bank
 Only employees of the Bank
 Both existing and new customers of the Bank
25. Is the decision of the Integrated Ombudsman binding on the Bank?

 Yes
 No
26. Which of the following is not a function of the Internal Ombudsman as per the Internal
 To investigate and resolve customer complaints
 To provide feedback on the Bank’s customer service policies
 To monitor the implementation of the Banking regulations
 To act as a mediator between the bank and the customer
27. What is the meaning of “Appellate Authority” in the Reserve Bank-Integrated

 The Executive Director In-charge of the Department of the Reserve Bank
administering the Scheme
 The Department in the Reserve Bank which is administering the Scheme
 The person appointed by the Reserve Bank to represent the Complainant in the
 The Ombudsman who passes an award in the complaint
28. What is the jurisdiction of the Integrated Ombudsman?

 All over India
 Only in urban areas
 Only in rural areas
 Only in select states
29. What is the time limit for filing an appeal against the decision of the Integrated
Ombudsman?
 30 days
 60 days
 90 days
 120 days
30. Can an advocate file a complaint on behalf of the aggrieved person under the
Scheme?
 Yes, always
 No, never
 Yes, only if the advocate is the aggrieved person
 Yes, only with the permission of the Ombudsman
31. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman is responsible for ensuring compliance
with all applicable laws and regulations.
 True
 False
32. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman is responsible for the overall control and
supervision of the Bank’s Internal Audit Function.
 True
 False
33. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman can review and investigate complaints
related to loan applications.
 True
 False
34. Can the ombudsman disclose the information or documents coming to its knowledge
or possession to any person?
 Only to the Reserve Bank
 No, except as otherwise required by Law, or with the consent of the person
furnishing such information or documents
 Yes, to any person
35. The Internal Ombudsman Scheme 2018 applies to which category of Banks?
 Public Sector Banks
 Private Sector Banks
 Foreign Banks
36. State TRUE or FALSE: The internal Ombudsman can override decisions made by the
Bank’s management
 True
 False
37. Under which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is the Internal Ombudsman
Scheme 2018 implemented?
 Section 35C
 Section 35B
 Section 35D
 Section 35A
38. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman is authorized to review and approve loan
application
 True
 False
39. Who appoints the Integrated Ombudsman?
 Ministry of Finance
 Reserve Bank of India
 Indian Bank’s Association
 Securities and Exchange Board of India
40. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman is appointed by the Board of Directors of
the Bank
 True
 False
41. State TRUE or FALSE: The internal ombudsman is required to maintain the confidentiality
of the complaint’s identity.
 True
 False
42. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman is required to maintain records of all
complaints received and resolved.
 True
 False
43. State True or False: The Internal Ombudsman can review and investigate complaints
related to credit card transactions.
 True
 False
44. What is the threshold amount for filing a complaint with the integrated Ombudsman in
case of credit card –related complaints?
 Rs. 50,000/-
 Rs. 1 Lakh
 Rs. 2 Lakh
 There is no threshold amount
45. Can the Ombudsman call for information from the Regulated Entity against whom the
Complaint has been made?
 Yes
 No
 Only if the Regulated Entity agrees
46. Who can file a complaint under the Reserve Bank- Integrated Ombudsman Scheme,
2021?
 Only the aggrieved customer
 Only the authorized representative of the customer
 Both the aggrieved customer and the authorized representative of the customer
 Only the lawyer representing the customer
6 Strengthening Organizational Values
1. Which among the following is true in terms of privacy of content in social media?
 Bank doesn’t undertake any liability for any financial losses or information theft
posting in social media
 Do not post personal account information in bank social media Bank will
endeavour to remove such information from Bank social media wherever noticed
without prior permission
 All of the above.
2. Which among the following technique is used in business organisation and firms for
protecting IT assets?
 Internal data-breach
 Ethical Hacking[Correct]
 Fixing bugs
 Unethical Hacking
3. At the end of an important meeting your boss turns to you and compliments the
suggestion you had for streamlining the reporting process. The idea actually came
from a colleague who shared with you over lunch last week. What would you do?
 Shrug it off confidently saying, “There’s plenty more where that came from.”
 Tell her that you can’t take credit because it was your co-worker’s idea, but you
agree it’s a great one, which is why you brought it up in the meeting.
 Explain that you appreciate her compliment but must admit that you had some
help from your co-worker
 Say Thank you and leave it at that.
4. What is the purpose of applying organisational values consistently in dealing with

stakeholders?
 To achieve short-term financial gains
 To create a good reputation in the community
 To ensure compliance with laws and regulations
 To build a sustainable business for the long term
5. State True or False: In a general sense, a stakeholder is one who has made substantial
financial investments in the business.
 True
 False
6. An officer employee shall maintain the strictest secrecy regarding the Bank’s affairs,
which is not an exception in this guideline-
 Divulging of such information is in accordance with the law or by the Practices
 He is compelled to divulge such information by judicial or other authority
 Instructed to do so by a superior officer in the discharge of his duties
 For taking competitive advantage with other branches
7. Which statement best defines ethics?

 A set of beliefs about what is right and wrong, as determined by personal moral
beliefs.
 A set of beliefs about what is right and wrong, as determined by local laws.
 A set of beliefs about what is right and wrong, as determined by the majority
opinion.
 A set of beliefs about what is right and wrong, as determined by company policy.
8. Which of the following acts shall be construed as misconduct under the provision of
Bank of Baroda employee (disciplinary and appeal) regulation 1976
 Sending direct communication to top management without following laid down
procedure
 Resorting to adverse comment on the functioning of the Bank or management on
social media
 Any comments on social platform that are detrimental to the interest or Goodwill
of the Bank
 All of the above.[Correct]
9. Our Bank established for development of Human Capital through its skill enhancement
and entrepreneurship development programmes.
 Baroda Swarojgar Vikas Society
 Baroda Swarojgar Vikas Sansthan Trust
 Baroda Self-Employment & Skill Development Trust
10. State TRUE or FALSE: Sharing the content posted on Bank Social Media Channel in its
original format is permitted.
 TRUE
 FALSE
11. Every officer employee, on his first appointment, and every other employee of the
bank, on promotion to a post of an officer employee in the bank, shall submit return of
his assets and liabilities giving full particulars regarding-
 The immovable property inherited by him or owned or acquired by him or held by
him on lease or mortgage, either in his name or in the name of any members of his
family or the name of any other person.
 Shares, debentures, and cash including bank deposits inherited by him or similarly
owned or acquired or held by him
 Other movable property inherited by him or similarly owned or acquired or held by
him, and debts and other liabilities incurred by him directly or indirectly.
 All of the available option
12. Any executive employee shall not, without the previous approval of the competent
authority give evidence in connection with any____
 Judicial enquiry
 Enquiry before an authority appointed by the Government
 Departmental enquiry ordered by the competent authority
 Enquiry conducted by any person, committee, or authority
13. Which among the following is the purpose of having social media policy of the Bank?
 Provide guidance while putting a comment, post, Idea on social media
 Do’s and don’ts on social media for bank customers, stake holders and general
public
 Regulations, legal and compliance involved in implementing social media
14. Which of the following shall amount to speculation?

 Shares purchased and sold after one year
 Holding of Long term debentures
 Frequent Indraday Trading [CORRECT]
15. Which of the statement incorrect regarding the consumption of intoxicating drinks and
drugs?
 Not appear in a public place in a state of intoxication
 Strictly abide by any law relating to intoxicating drinks or drugs in force in any area
in which he may happen to be for the time being
 Use any intoxicating drink or drug in limited quantity in public places[CORRECT]
 Refrain from consuming any intoxicating drinks or drugs in a public place
16. Every executive employee shall report to the _____if any member of his family is
engaged in a trade or business or owns or manages an insurance agency or
commission agency.
 Both Agency and Bank
 Bank[CORRECT]
 Agency
 Neither Agency Nor Bank
17. [Multiple Response Question]: Which is/are correct guidelines regarding absence from
duty?
 No officer employee shall absent himself from his duty or leave the station without
having first obtained the permission of the competent authority[CORRECT]
 No officer employee shall ordinarily absent himself in case of sickness or accident
without submitting a proper medical certificate[CORRECT]
 Officer employees can be absent from their duty or leave the station without
having first obtained permission for a canvassing new business opportunity.
 In the case of temporary indisposition or sickness of a casual nature, the production
of a medical certificate may, at the absolute discretion of the competent authority,
be dispensed with [CORRECT]
18. Climate change presents risks and opportunities for the financial sector in both
emerging and advanced economies, what are the opportunities the banking industry
foresees?
 To provide innovative financial products for energy efficiency upgrades
 Renewable power generation
 Green building, Green transport
 All of the above. [CORRECT]
19. If your mistake in work results in loss to the organisation, what should be your better
approach?
 Lying to hide a mistake
 Falling ill
 Blaming a colleague
 Taking responsibility and solving it, before it becomes big problem[CORRECT]
20. [Multiple Response Question]: Which is / are a correct guideline for Lending and
Borrowing by an Officer?
 Lend money in a private capacity to a constituent of the Bank of have personal
dealings with such constituent in the purchase or sale of bills of exchange,
Government paper[CORRECT]
 Incur debts, at a race meeting[CORRECT]
 Guarantee, in his private capacity, the pecuniary obligations of another
person[CORRECT]
 No officer should take a loan for self-consumption from our Bank
21. How does the organisation benchmark individual and corporate performance?
 Based on financial outcomes only
 Based on compliance with laws and regulations
 Based on the way values are demonstrated at work[CORRECT]
 Based on the number of stakeholders
22. The word Ethics comes from the word ethos which means character or spirit. Which
language does it originate from?
 Italian
 Arabian
 Latin
 Greek[ Correct]
23. Whether any officer employee can collect a subscription for farewell entertainment
from any intermediate or lower grade employee for the entertainment of any
employee belonging to any higher grade?
 Yes
 No
24. State TRUE or FALSE: Permanent employee of the Bank can create personal or group
profile on social media using banks name and logo for high customer connect.
 TRUE
 FALSE
25. “Blue subscriber service” is a premium service of which social media company?
 Facebook
 Twitter
 Instagram
 Whatsapp
26. As per code of conduct guidelines for officers, every officer employee shall every year
submit a return of his movable, immovable and valuable property including liquid
assets like shares, debentures as on 31st March of that year to the Bank before____of
that year.
 30th June[Correct]
 30th April
 31st December
 31st July
27. What does the organisation value in diversity and inclusion?

 That they are bad for business
 That they are not necessary
 That they make the organization stronger[ Correct]
 That they limit the number of ideas and perspectives
28. [Multiple Response Question]

Which is /are a correct guideline for acceptance for gifts?
 On occasions such as marriages, anniversaries, funerals or religious functions, an
officer employee may accepts gifts from his near relatives but he shall make a
report to the competent authority if the value of the gifts exceeds Rs. 500/-
 No officer employee shall accept or permit any member of his family or any person
acting on his behalf to accept any gift
 A casual meal, lift or other social hospitality shall be deemed to be a gift
29. What is the importance of collaboration and inclusiveness in decision-making?

 It limits the number of ideas and perspectives
 It is not important
 It saves time in the decision-making process
 It ensures that all team members are heard
30. What are the benefit of social media presence by Bank?

 Build relationships
 Increase one’s visibility and connect
 Shares one’s experience and expertise
 All of the Above[Correct]
31. “Public Sector Banks” means-

 A corresponding new Bank specified in the Third Schedule to the Act
 A corresponding new Bank specified in the First Schedule to the Act
 A corresponding new Bank specified in the Second Schedule to the Act
32. Which of the following described judgements based on ethical principles, that deals
with fairness of the distribution of benefits and burdens in society?
 Utilitarianism
 Rights
 Justice
 Virtue
33. Bank of Baroda Officer Employee’s (Discipline and Appeal) Regulations, 1976 Section
24 A deal with-
 Consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs
 Restrictions regarding marriage
 Prohibition of Sexual Harassment
 Vindication of acts and character of an Officer employee
34. State TRUE or FALSE: No officer employee shall except with the previous sanction of the
competent authority, own wholly or in part or conduct or participate in the editing or
management of any newspaper or any other periodical publication.
 TRUE[Correct]
 FALSE
35. State TRUE or FALSE: A firm’s ethical reputation can provide a competitive advantage
in the marketplace, suppliers, and employees.
 TRUE
 FALSE

An Officer cannot divulge information to the general public except in case of ___
 Compelled by Press reporters
 No such exceptions are granted
 Compelled by Judiciary
 Compelled by Statutory Bodies
37. How does the organisation ensure that all employment decisions are made fairly?
 By basing all decisions on performance, knowledge, and potential[Correct]
 By limited the number of applicants
 By discriminating against certain categories of people
 By hiring only certain categories of people
Every Officer employee shall maintain the strictest secrecy regarding the bank’s affairs
and the affairs of its constituents and shall not divulge directly or indirectly any
information of a confidential nature either to a member of the publoc or to an outside
agency or to any other employee of the bank not entitled to such information unless-
o Divulging of such informaiton is by the law or accordance with the practices and
usages customary amongst banks
o To an outside agency
o Instructed to do so by a superior officer in the discharge of his duties
o He is compelled to divulge such information by judicial or other authority
39. State TRUE or FALSE: Bank doesn’t endorse the advertisement and any content or links
provided by social media websites on banks respective social media channel
 TRUE
 FALSE
40. When more than one gift has been received from the same person or concern within
a period of ____ months, the matter shall be reported to the competent authority if the
aggregate value thereof exceeds Rs. 500/-
 6
 24
 18
 12[Correct]
41. Ethics may be defined as going beyond what is legal and doing what is
 Easy
 Profitable
 Right
 Popular
42. What is the organization’s policy regarding diversity and inclusion?

 To ignore differences and avoid diversity and inclusion
 To only consider diversity in certain situations
 To value differences and understand that diversity and inclusion are good for the
Organization
 To discriminate against certain categories of people
43. Many business analysts feel the best way to evaluate the ethics of a business decision
is to analyse social costs and compare them to__
 Social Benefits
 The cost of consequences
 The Greatest net benefits
 Those affected by the decision
44. Which statement is / are incorrect in regard code of conduct of officers?
 No Officer employee shall join an association, objects or activities which are
prejudicial to the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India
 No Officer employee shall except with the previous sanction of the competent
authority, receive any complimentary or valedictory address or accept any
testimonial or attend any meeting or entertainment held in his honour, or the
honour of any other employee of the bank.
 No Officer employee shall attend simple and inexpensive entertainment arranged
by the association of employees of the bank
 All of the available statements are correct
45. What is the organization’s approach to building a profitable and sustainable business
for the long term?
 Following only financial outcomes
 Compliance with the Prevention of Sexual Harassment(POSH) act
 Benchmarking with Stakeholders
 Following a values-led approach
7 Compliance 2.0 – KYC AML and other Regulatory, Statutory and Internal Compliance
1. Which of the following is NOT a type of CDD method as per out bank’s KYC Policy?
 Basic Due Diligence
 Enhanced Due Diligence
 Standard Due Diligence
 Simplified Due Diligence
2. CTR stands for____

 Counterfeit Transaction Report
 Cash Transfer Report
 Cash Transaction Report
 Customer Transaction Report
3. Where the current address of the customer is not as per the Aadhar, Self –
declaration is allowed only when____
 After verification of current address
 After verification of permanent address
 After obtaining prior permission from Regional Office
 e-KYC authentication is carried out
4. In which of the following occasions CERSAI Search/ Verification need to be carried

out?
 At the time of annual review of loan
 Both A & B
 Every Quarter
 Before Disbursement of Loan
5. What is the menu in finacle to escalate suspicious behaviour of the Customer/

Account?
 ALERTAML
 STRALERT
 AMLALERT
 ALERTSTR
6. Where the current address of the customer is not as per the Aadhar, Self –
declaration is allowed only when____
 After verification of current address
 After verification of permanent address
 After obtaining prior permission from Regional Office
 e-KYC authentication is carried out
7. What is CDD is KYC process?

 Customer Domain Due diligence
 Customer Domain Database
 Customer Differentiating Database
 Customer Due Diligence
8. How many OVDs are available?

 7
 5
 4
 6
9. OCTMS Stands for

 Offsite Compliance Transaction Monitoring System
 Onsite Compliance Transaction Monitoring System
 Offsite Compliance Testing and Monitoring System
 Onsite Compliance Testing and Monitoring System
10. Which of the following is not High Risk Accounts?

 HNI
 Salaried Individuals
 NRIs
 Politically Exposed Persons
11. Branch level customer service committee meeting should be conducted

on___basis
 Weekly
 Monthly
 Quaerterly
 Half Yearly
12. Which of the following is not the Officially Valid Document (OVD)
 Passport
 Driving License
 PAN Card
 Voter’s Identity Card
13. As per Bank’s AML Policy as well as RBI guidelines, the deposit accounts of NGOs
& Trusts are classified as____
 High
 Medium
 Low
 Depends Upon registration norms
14. What is the frequency for conducting compliance forum meeting?

 Monthly
 Quartely
 Half- Yearly
 Yearly
15. No account should remain under Small account scheme without KYC or Partial
KYC for more than____
 60
 12
 24
 36
16. Which of the following is not the key element of KYC, as per our KYC-AML-CFT
Compliance Policy?
 Customer Acceptence Policy
 Customer Identification Procedure
 Customer Due Diligence
 Risk Management
17. Maximum___withdrawals can be allowed in a month through all channels in small

accounts with NO KYC or partial KYC
 10
 4
 5
 3
18. Periodic updation of KYC documents shall be carried out at lease once in every
____years for High risk customers.
 8
 1
 10
 2
19. CCR stands for____

 Customer Currency Report
 Cash Currency Report
 Counterfeit Currency Report
 Counterfeit Cash Report
20. In case of societies, the important document to be verified for CDD is__________
 Copy of Bye-Laws
 No document is to be verified in case of societies, as it is exempted
 Certificate given by the ROC
 Certificate given by the Local Authorities
21. Frauds, other than Cyber Security related should be reported within____days
 21
 30
 2
 7
22. What is the full form of STR

 Suspicious Transaction Report
 Supervision Transaction Report
 Suspicious Transformation Report
 Supervision Transformation Report
23. Which of the following is not the Official valid document(OVD)

 Voter’s Identity Card
 PAN Card
 Driving License
 Passport
24. In Offsite compliance test check, which of the following accounts has to be
checked from STR angle if its opened & closed within 6 months?
 Savings account
 Current Account
 Term Loan Account
 Overdraft Account
 All of these
25. Periodic updation of KYC documents shall be carried out at lease once in every
____years for medium risk customers.
 2
 1
 10
 8
26. Expand “MSR” with respect to CERMO+ Nxt

 Minimum Service Regulation
 Minimum Standard Requirement
 Minimum Standard Regulation
 Minimum Service Requirement
27. What is EDD in KYC Process?

 Enterprise Differentiating Database
 Enhanced Domain Database
 Enterprise Due Diligence
28. As per latest guidelines, how may behavioural alerts can be raised through
AMLALERT
 35
 25
 55
 45
29. Offsite Compliance Test checking is done on ____basis

 Quaterly
 Half Yearly
 Monthly
 Weekly
30. For opening an account of a company, certified copies of each of the following
documents shall be obtained; except____
 Registration Certificate
 Articles of Association
 Memorandum of association
 Certificate of incorporation
31. For undertaking Customer Due Diligence (CDD), branches has to obtain____as per
Income Tax Rules 1962?
 Aadhar Card
 Voter’s Identity Car
 Passport
 PAN Card
32. Which of the following has to be carried out for Small Accounts as per our KYC
Policy?
 Basic Due Diligence
 Simplified Due Diligence
 Standard Due Diligence
8 RAJBHASHA
राजभाषा कीर्ति
पुरस्कार
राष्ट्रपतत
उपर्ुक्त
ि सभी
लॉग इन पेज पर
8 RAJBHASHA
अनुच्छे द 343
351
सही
65%
हहिंदी में
8 RAJBHASHA
30
तिभाषी
ख क्षेत्र
LANG<SPAC
E>HIN
8 RAJBHASHA
कार्ािलर् का
प्रशातनक प्रमुख
जर्पुर तलटरे चर
फे तस्टवल, जर्पुर में
वषि में 4 बैठकें

( प्रतत ततमाही में
एक बैठक )
उपन्र्ास के मूल
लेखक
8 RAJBHASHA
2006
Option 3
Option A
14
8 RAJBHASHA
सही
OPTION -D
Option D
65
वषि में 4 बार

8 RAJBHASHA
राष्ट्रपतत
हााँ
12
तनतवदाएिं
सीबीएस पीसी
8 RAJBHASHA
हहिंदी और अिंग्रज
े ी
दोनों में
मोबाइल एप्लीके शन
8422009988
1997
8422009988
8 RAJBHASHA
के वल हहिंदी में
अिंडमान एविं
तनकोबार िीप समूह
21 लाख
हलिंगव
ु ाफाई
11,000/- &
7500/-
8 RAJBHASHA
तनर्म 5
बॉब अतभव्यतक्त एप
22
12
8 RAJBHASHA
उपर्ुक्त
ि सभी
11
9 LOSS DATA MANAGEMENT
1. What is the purpose of the Corrective Action Plan?
 To establish risk drivers
 To report loss events
 To allocate business losses
 To track financial accounts
2. What is the purpose of using External Operational Risk Loss data in a Bank?
 To analyze industry events and their potential impact on the bank
 To strengthen the internal control environment
 To take timely measures to prevent similar events in the bank
3. What is the reason for non-closure of a risk event?

 Under investigation
 Under Recovery Process
 Pending Outcome of Litigation
 All of the above[Correct]
4. What is the purpose of classifying operational risk events by process type?

 To identify sources of loss concentrations
 To determine the financial impact of each event
 To allocate responsibility for operational risk management
 To assess credit risk associated with each process
5. Which events are part of the Operational Risk Loss data framework and should be
reported?
 Losses due to system malfunction only
 Losses due to staff negligence only
 Losses due to fire and other accidents only
 Losses due to internal and external fraud, penalties, compensations etc
6. Which function is responsible for reporting loss events on a timely basis and
implementation corrective action plans?
 ORM Working Group at BCC
 Central Inspection and Audit Department(CIAD)
 Corporate Accounts & Taxation/ IT Operations
 All local and international functions/ Branches/Offices/Local and international
subsidiaries
1. What should be considered when reporting Revenue Adjustments?
 Revenue Adjustments should be reflected in the General Ledger
 Only losses resulting from Revenue Adjustments are reported
 Operational Risk Events generating Gains should be reported[Correct]
 Revenue Adjustments should be excluded from reporting
2. Who is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the action plan ?

 Operational Risk Cell[Correct]
 Risk Management Committee
 Compliance Department
 Business Unit
3. How should losses be allocated for connected events impacting multiple Business
Lines?
 Entire Loss assigned to the Business Line with the greatest impact
 Loss apportioned across several affected Business Lines
 Allocated based on the owner of the transaction or business process
4. What is the purpose of bundling products?

 To simplify the data collection process[Correct]
 To improve risk modeling accuracy
 To comply with regulatory requirements
 To increse revenue by offering additional services
5. Which system has the bank procured for the online reporting and validation of
Operational Risk Loss Data?
 SAS GCM[Correct]
 ORM CELL SYSTEM
 Compliance Management System
 Fraud Monitoring System
6. Who is responsible for refining the level of mapping at the Regional Office?
 Zonal Office
 Reporting entity
 ORM Cell
 Regional Risk Officer[Correct]
7. Business Line corporate iterms primarily focus on

 Board of directors as a whole or as individuals
 Misreporting financial statements
 Both of the above[Correct]
8. How can an operational loss event be identified or discovered?

 Only through fraud-related incidents
 Through various units/sources such as business units, functions, audits,
investigations, etc[Correct]
 Only through external sources such as customers or vendors
 Only through internal audits and reviews
9. What information should be recorded for each loss event?
 Date of occurence
 Type of loss event category
 Management Actions
10. How should loss incidents be analyzed to establish the root cause and other factors?
 By involving other functions such as CIAD, Compliance information security, etc.
 By conducting analysis as per Bank’s Various policies
 By involving external agencies if necessary
11. Who is responsible for Reporting loss events in the Operational Risk Management
System?
 Respective Unit Head/ Designated Person[Correct]
 Central Inspection and Audit Department(CIAD)
 Risk Officers posted at Various Geographies
 Operational Risk Cell, BCC
12. What are the possible Sources of recovery for Operational Risk Losses?
 Employee, customer, Third Party, Insurance[Correct]
 Bank’s Account, Employee, Third Party, Insurance
 Customer, Third Party, Insurance, Legal Fees
 Employee, Third Party, Insurance, Legal Fees
13. What is the reporting threshold for Operational Risk Losses, except for certain specified
events?
 Rs. 1000/-
 No threshold limit
 Rs. 5000/-[Correct]
 Rs. 500/-
14. Which level of granularity should be used when reporting processes?

 Level 4
 Level 3
 Level 1 [Correct]
 Level 2
15. What should be done if a loss event affects multiple products

 The event should be classified as “not product related”
 Each affected product should be reported separately
 The product with the highest gross loss contribution should be attributed to the
event[Correct]
 The event should be excluded from reporting
16. Which department is responsible for validating recovery information?

 Recovery Department
 Legal Department
 Risk Officer[Correct]
 ORM Cell
17. How long should the Bank retain records related to Operational Risk Events?
 5 Years
 15 Years
 10 Years[Correct]
 7 Years
18. What is the role of Central Inspection and Audit Department (CIAD) in Internal Loss Data
Management?
 Independent assessment and evaluation of the LDM manual and its
implementation effectiveness.
 Reviewing from Loss Events
 Test Checking the loss data provided by business units during inspections/ audits
 All of the above.[Correct]
19. What are the three standard levels of classification for Operational Risk Events?
 Level I, Level II, Level III[Correct]
 Level X, Level Y, Level Z
 Level High, Level Medium, Level Low
 Level A, Level B, Level C
20. Why is relevant external loss events data important for a bank?
 To comply with regulatory requirements
 To assess the adequacy of internal controls
 To benchmark operational risk exposures
21. Which role is responsible for developing and ensuring the effective implementation of
the Loss data Management ( LDM ) Manual at the Bank wide level?
 Risk Officer at Geographical Level
 Board/Risk Management committee of the Board
 Enterprise Risk Management Committee(ERMC)
 Operationa Risk management Cell (ORM Cell )[Correct]
22. What should be included in the communication / reporting of a loss event?

 Detailed root cause analysis
 Estimated Amount of loss[Correct]
 Recovery information
23. Are Near-Miss and Operational risk events resulting in gain considered in the
management of Operational Risk?
 Yes, they are captured for the purpose of strengthening the internal control
environment[Correct]
 No, they are not relevant for Operational Risk Management
 They are considered only for Scenario Analysis
24. Who analyse the loss data to establish trends?
 Fraud Monitoring Cell
 Risk Officer/ Working Group
 ORM Cell[Correct]
25. Who is responsible for approving any exclusion from loss data recording?
 ORM Cell
 Head-Risk Management[Correct]
 Operational Risk Management Cell
26. When can grouped losses be treated as a single loss for recording and management
purposes?
 When they occur within a specific time period determined by the bank
 When they are caused by a common operational loss event/ underlying cause
materialized over a period of time[Correct]
 When they exceed a certain threshold for modelling purposes
 When they involve multiple products or services
27. Reporting of losses to the regulator should be done

 On a quarterly basis
 Once a year
 Immediately after occurance
 As per regulatory guidelines[Correct]
28. What is the purpose of training and support provided bythe ORM Cell?
 Compliance Training
 Software development
 Operational Risk Loss Data Management[Correct]
 Implementation of risk management policies
29. Who is responsible for reviewing major operational loss events in the Bank and the
actions taken for remedy?
 Enterprise Risk Management Committee(ERMC)
 Risk Officer at Geographical Level
 Operational Risk Management Cell(ORM Cell)
 Board/ Risk Management Committee of the Board[Correct]
30. Loss events ( before recognising), should be approved by:

 Operational Risk Cell
 Risk Management Committee
 Business Line/ Functional Head[Correct]
31. What is the objective of Internal Loss data Management?

 To comply with regulatory requirement issued by RBI
 To monitor the operation Risk Profie and loss trends
 To Validate the effectiveness of other components of Operational Risk
Management Framework
32. Which of the following risks are included within the Scope of Operational Risk
 Strategic Risk
 Reputational Risk
 People Risk[Correct]
 Credit Risk
33. Which risk category does legal non-compliance fall under?

 Operational Risk
 Credit Risk
 Market Risk
 Liquidity Risk
34. Which unit/function records the available loss event information?

 Concerned Unit/ Function
 Concerned department
 ORM Cell
 Fraud Monitoring Cell
10 Preventive Vigilance
1. Which of the following document must be 2. Which is the best practice to be followed?
verified from original by the bank?  Punitive Vigilance
 Form 60  Detective Vigilance
 FATCA  Preventive Vigilance[Correct]
 Form 15 G  All of these
 OVD[Correct]
3. Transactions without customer mandate and 4. As a preventive measure the cash keys should
without vouchers is a fraud prone area be held by Joint custodian
 No, it is a normal practice  True[Correct]
 Yes[Correct]  False
5. In case of financial statement submitted by a 6. Disbursement of Loan for purchase of machine

company, the same should be verified from should be made_____
the financial statements submitted by the  Any one of the above
company to____  Directly to the supplier[Correct]
 RBI  As per discretion of Branch Head
 IRDA  To the operative account of the customer
 MCA[Correct]
 SEBI
7. End use of funds is to be ensured in case of 8. Offsol clearing report is to be generated

____ at____
 Personal Loan  10:00 AM
 Term Loan  12 noon
 Cash Credit  3:00 PM
 Both Term Loan and Cash Credit[Correct]  All of these[Correct]
9. Which of the following will not come under 10. Self Attestation on photocopies of KYC
statutory dues? Documents by customer is____
 Provident Fund  Mandatory[Correct]
 Bank interest[Correct]  Optional
 Income Tax  Not to be insisted by Bank official
 GST  Irrelevant
11. Appraisal note for sanction of credit facility 12. After closure of cash the security alarm must
must contain information about ___ be kept in_____
 Borrower's history  Switched off mode
 Borrower's financials  Day mode
 Collateral Security  None of these
 All of the above[Correct]  Night Mode[Correct]
13. Which of the following should be verified 14. If not delivered to the customer for 90 days,
before sanction of a credit Proposal of a the debit card should be _____
company?  Issued to other customer
 Statutory Clearance  Destroyed
 Statutory Dues  Blocked[Correct]
 ROC Charge  Returned to BOB-Financial
 All of these[Correct]
15. Documents required for change of mobile 16. Late receipt / payment of cash____
number of customer are____  Should not be allowed at all
 Prescribed application form  Should be recorded properly[Correct]
 KYC Document  Its illegal Procedure
 Latest Photograph  Need not be recorded
17. Which of the following is/are Fraud Prone 18. PAN details can be verified using Finacle
Areas in Account Opening? Menu_____
 Forged KYC documents  CGPAN
 Impersonation  CUSTMOD
 Issuance of Cheque Book  PANVAL[Correct]
 All of these[Correct]  GSTTN
19. A report of transaction of Rs. 50000/- and 20. DIN, CIN and ROC are applicable in case
above in newly opened account is available of____
in Menu_______  Proprietorship Firm
 STR  Partnership Firm
 AMLALERT  Company[Correct]
 EXCPRPT  All of the above
 NEWACTR[Correct]
21. A high value cheque may be passed by the 22. Which of the following is not a preventive
Branch___ vigilance measure for account opening ____
 If branch obtains confirmation by calling  Obtaining prescribed account opening
on the registered mobile Number of the form
customer[Correct]  Obtaining signature of customer by Sub
 All of these Staff[Correct]
 Without confirmation in case of account of  Latest Colour Photograph
government department  Obtaining one of the OVDs
 If customer call the branch and gives
confirmation of having issued the cheque
23. As a preventive measure in cash 24. ROC Charge can be verified from the Website
operation____ of___
 Cash in vault should be counted by the  MCA21[Correct]
cashier  CIBIL
 Cashier should not lock the cash cabin for  SEBI
better customer service  CRILC
 Key movement register should be
maintained[Correct]
 Keys of dual lock must be with the same
person
25. Which of the following is not a security Item? 26. To open an account bank official must obtain
 Green Voucher[Correct] and verify___
 Demand Draft  OVD
 FD Receipt  PAN/Form 60
 Cheque Book  Latest Colour Photograph
27. Tool for post sanction monitoring of account 28. Land locked property should not be accepted
includes_____ as security
 Godown Inspection  False
 Transaction monitoring  True[Correct]
 Review of account
29. Preventive Vigilance helps Bank in ___ 30. A deposit account can be opened by the
 Business Control branch based on photocopy of KYC
 Deposit Mobilisation Document and ID Proof
 Increse Fee based income  Yes
 Risk Mitigation[Correct]  No[Correct]
31. Genuineness of audited financial statements 32. Unrelated entries in the account of a customer
submitted by the borrower should be verified is a fraud prone area____
by ascertaining From____  False
 Market  True[Correct]
 Regulator
 Auditor[Correct]
 Borrower
33. Where RTGS/NEFT request has not been given 34. Signature of customer is required on RTGS
by the Customer Himself of his authorized Voucher also apart from cheque
representative?  Voucher not required for RTGS
 Transaction should be kept pending for  True[Correct]
next day  No, Signature of customer on the back of
 Transaction may be allowed by the Branch the cheque giving details of RTGS is
Head if the customer is a valued customer sufficient
 Confirmation should be sought from the  No, voucher can be signed by the staff of
customer[Correct] the customer who comes regularly to the
 The transaction should not be done branch
35. Which of the following cheque is mandatorily 36. Which of the following is not a part of Pre
to be scanned through Ultra Violet Ray Sanction Due Diligence____
Machine?  Obtaining CIR
 Cash Payment of Rs. 10000/-  Financial Analysis
 Transfer cheque of Rs. 50000/-  Inspection with borrower[CORRECT]
 Cheque Value of Rs. 2.00 Lac  Pre Sanction Inspection
37. Which of the following cheque is mandatorily 38. If the cashier has to leave the cash cabin for
to be scanned through Ultra Violet Ray some time, he may ask other staff to look after
Machine? it till his return
 Cash Payment of Rs. 10000/-  True
 Transfer cheque of Rs. 50000/-  False
 Cheque Value of Rs. 2.00 Lac
39. Where RTGS/NEFT request has not been given 40. To ensure proper documentation the
by the Customer Himself of his authorized document must be____
representative?  Relevant
 Transaction should be kept pending for  Properly stamped
next day  Properly executed
 Transaction may be allowed by the Branch  All of these
Head if the customer is a valued customer
 Confirmation should be sought from the
customer
 The transaction should not be done
41. Request for change of mobile number can be 42. Which of the following property should not be
submitted by the customer by ___ mortgaged in case of MSME Loan?
 Personally Visiting the Branch only  Agricultural
 Through registered post Letter  Industrial
 E-Mail through registered mail id  Commercial
 Close relative who is our existing customer  Residential
43. While Remitting cash, the box containing cash

should be held by the armed guard
 False
 True
11 GROW WITH ABIDANCE
1. Under Compliance Audit, Every 2. Which of the following is not mandatory part
Quarter___of Branches ( are under High & of Revamped Concurrent Audit?
Medium Risk) Audited in the Previous Quarter  Weekly visit of Group Leader/Ca/Sr
will be taken-up for Compliance Checking Partner
 10%  Calender Activities & Substantive
 25% Checking
 15%  Mandatory Daily Attendance of Audit
 30% Assistance
 Non Mandatory Daily Attendance of Audit
Assistance[Correct]
3. Who is the authority to issue Special Letter? 4. Full form of CIAD?

 Zonal Head  Central Internal Audit Division[Correct]
 ZIAD Head[Correct]  Central Inspection and Audit Department
 Regional Head  Central Inspection & Audit Division
 Head Internal Audit  Central Internal Audit Department
5. Which of the following is not a Zero Tolerance 6. What is full form of CRC?
Area?  Clear Rectification Certificate
 PSR Submission by Branch  Clean Rectification Certificate[Correct]
 Status of Scanning of Signature[Correct]  None of the above
 Compliance of KYC in Existing account  Clear Record Certificate
 Compliance of guidelines in handling of
PINs and Debit cards
7. Which is not a benefit of Spot Rectification 8. Flash Reports( FR) issued by __

 Reduction in TAT of compliance & Closure  ZIAD Head
cycle  Concurrent Auditor[Correct]
 Monetary Benefits[Correct]  Zonal Head
 Improvement in compliance culture  Internal Auditor
 Sensitive issues resolved within short span
9. Customer / Enhanced Due Diligence is to be 10. During RBIA, Risks are broadly divided in to
carried out for____Type of Customer two types of Risks
 None of the above  (a)Control Risk
 Medium Risk  (b)Business Risk
 High Risk[Correct]  Both (a) & (b)[Correct]
 Low Risk  None of the above
11. Which one of the following is not a parameter 12. Bank has laid down guidelines for changing
for “Highly Compliant Branch”? the mobile numbers in the account and verify
 Composite Score in Risk Control Martix of the same by generating the report
RBIA >80%[Correct] through___Menu
 Risk Rated as “LOW” in last two RBIA  ACCMOD
 NIL Reporting of fraud during past audit  CUMOBL
year  CUSTMOD[Correct]
 No SOL/SL are issued during part audit  CUSMOD
year
13. Persisting Irregularities are defined as: 14. What is the revised TAT for Closure of Audit
 Irregularities which were reported in Cycle for Metro Branches with fund based
earlier Internal Audit advance at Rs. 84 Crores ?
Report(RBIA\Concurrent Audit or Credit  -90- Days
Audit)  -45- Days
 Irregularities which were not rectified and  -30- Days[Correct]
continued to be reported as irregularities  -60- Days
in the present Internal Audit Report
 Irregularities observed in Same account
 All the above[Correct]
15. What will be level of accountability if 33% of 16. What is the revised TAT for Closure of Audit
False Compliance is detected? Cycle for Branches having credit portfolio of
 Upto concerned RO Officials Rs. 100 crore and above ?
 Upto Deputy Zonal Head  30 Days
 Upto Concerned ZO Officials[Correct]  90 Days
 For Branch Level  60 Days
 45 Days[Correct]
17. What will be level of accountability if more 18. What is the timeline for submission of 1st
than 40% of False Compliance is detected? Compliance Report of Rural Branch with fund
 Upto concerned RO Officials based advance at Rs. 113 Crores?
 Upto Deputy Zonal Head[Correct]  15 days[Correct]
 Upto Concerned ZO Officials  45 Days
 For Branch Level  90 Days
 30 Days
19. For a branch to be categorized under 20. Which of the following is not included in
Category I under RBIA, the advances should Business Risk of Risk Based Internal Audit?
be___  Compliance Risk[Correct]
 Less than Rs. 500 Crores  Credit Risk
 More than Rs. 500 Crores  Earning Risk
 More than Rs. 200 Crores[Correct]  Operational Risk
 Less than Rs. 200 Crores
21. Full form of CEMU is-____ 22. IT Risk is a part of____

 Centralized Error Monitoring Unit  Market Risk
 Centralized Exception Measuring Unit  Credit Risk
 Centralized Error Measuring Unit  Control Risk[Correct]
 Centralized Exception Monitoring  Business Risk
Unit[Correct]
23. Who is the authority to issue Special 24. Which of the following is a Zero Tolerance
Observation Letter? Area?
 Head Internal Audit[Correct]  Adherence of -2- Eye Principle
 Zonal Head  Visit of Electrical Engineer
 ZIAD Head  Generation, Checking and Signing of
 Regional Head Change of Mobile Number Report under
BOBMENU[Correct]
 Attending and Rectification of OCTMS
25. What is the Tolerance Level for False 26. Are Persisting Irregularities(PI) and Repeat
Compliance is acceptable? Irregularities(Observations), one and the
 30% same thing?
 50%  TRUE
 15%  FALSE
 10%
12 Customer Experience is Keyword for Banking Industry
1. State TRUE or FALSE: The customer will evaluate his 2. STATE TRUE OR FALSE: It is NOT advisable to
experience right from the moment he walks into converse with colleague in customer’s
the branch language.
 TRUE  TRUE
 FALSE  FALSE
3. State TRUE or FALSE: You should be taking a break 4. State TRUE or FALSE: When Customer’s
after handling an irate client to regain your perceptions of service received meets
balance and composure. customer’s expectations, he will be
 True “DELIGHTED”
 False  TRUE
 FALSE
5. [Multiple Response Question] 6. [Multiple Response Question]

What should a we do to differentiate our self from How can a business Value a customer’s time
competitors regarding customer service? according to their expectations?
 By suggesting better solutions or alternatives to  Attend to them immediately
customer’s problem  Explain the reason for any wait time they might
 Providing inconsistent service quality without experience
flexibility  Make them wait for an extended period without
 Let the customer explain his problem rather addressing the issue
anticipating customer’s problem  Provide them with complimentary products to
 Being proactive in anticipating customer needs pass the time
7. [Multiple Response Question ] 8. [Multiple Response Question]

Which of the following actions demonstrate How can a business demonstrate reliability to a
valuing the customer’s time? customer?
 Ignoring their feelings  By explaining customer our problems
 Making them wait without an explanation  Making Zero errors in what we do for him
 Listening to them attentively  Following up on commitments made
 Seeing the issue from their point of view  Making them wait without an explanation
9. [Multiple Response Question] 10. [Multiple Response Question]

How should a business say “NO” to a customer’s What does consistency in delivering a service
request? experience mean?
 Politely, yet firmly  Limiting flexibility to meet customer needs
 Without a detailed explanation, a straight  Lack of trust and predictability
forward “NO”  Building trust by making the experience
 By using appropriate language and not starting predictable
the sentence with “NO”  Systemizing processes to ensure consistent
 We should be stalling customer by saying “YES, service Quality
…but….”
11. What does consistency in delivering a service 12. How can a business recover from a service
experience mean? failure and turn customers into loyal ones?
 Predictable service quality, not lack of  Ignore the problem and hope the customer
flexibility forgets
 Providing unpredictable service quality for  Solve the customer’s problem quickly and
excitement effectively
 Offering different service quality to difference  Argue with the customer that there is no
customers lapses in service from our side
 Minimizing the need for systemization of  Provide explanation for the service failure
processes
12 Customer Experience is Keyword for Banking Industry
13. How can a business show that it understands the 14. What should be done to value a customer upon
customer? their arrival?
 By explaining customer our point of view  Wait for customer to approach
 Acknowledging their feelings and emotions  Use their name to personalize the greeting
 Providing explanations for any shortcomings  Ignore them until they make a request
 Provide them with promotional materials
15. What is the significance of pro-activeness in 16. What is the customer’s expectation when it
customer service? comes to service proposition?
 Waiting for the customer to make a request  Offering inconsistent service quality for
before offering help flexibility
 Anticipating customer needs and taking the  Providing predictable service quality for trust
first step to assist  Avoiding systemization of processes for
 Reacting promptly to customer complaints adaptability
 Avoiding interaction until the customer  Reacting to customer needs after they arise
initiates it
17. Which step should be taken first when handling an 18. What should be immediate response when
irate customers? handling and irate customer?
 Apologize  Assure them that there is no lapses in service
 Pacify from our side
 Assure  Thank them for bringing their issue to light
 Activate speedy resolution  Pacify and apologize to them
 Provide explanation for the service failure
19. We can ensure customer satisfaction by knowing 20. Best way to handle a break in service is____
what customer____and delivering what customer  Avoid break in service
___as good service  Seek permission from the customer before
 Expects, Perceives taking the break
 Need, Expects  Give proper reasons for the break and
 Like, Thinks maintain professionalism
 Want, Visualize  Keep the break brief
21. When is it appropriate to Say “NO” to a customer’s

request?
 Always, to assert the authority of the business
 When the request is too difficult to handle
 When the customer is being difficult or rude
 After assessing the real need behind the
request and providing alternatives
13 Profitability – Managing the bottom line
1. Depreciation on Bank’s Property is a part of 2. Improper cash management can impact
operating Expenses of Bank. profitability the Branch
 TRUE[Correct]  True[Correct]
 FALSE  False
3. In accounts having sub-limits/ 4. In case of Non-Fund Based exposures, even

Interchangeability branches need to mark on expired LC/BG risk weight is applied
LOC flag as____  TRUE
 Yes[Correct]  FALSE
 No
 Not Applicable
5. Depreciation on Bank’s Property is a part of

operating Expenses of Bank.
 TRUE[Correct]
 FALSE
6. In terms of Bank’s Balance Sheet, total 7. RWA Stands for___

Revenue-Total Expense=……………..  Risk Weighted Assets
 Net Profit/ Loss[Correct]  Risk-Wise Assets
 Total Interest Income  Risk-Weighted Assets Account
 Net Interest Margin  Risk Weighted Accounts Assets
 Total Operating Income
8. LOC Flag in accounts with sub-limits should be 9. Difference between Total Interest Earned &
marked through which menu option? Total Interest Expended is called as____
 HINTTM  Gross Interest Income
 HACMLA  Net Interest Income[Correct]
 HACM  Total Interest Income
 HBAIM[Correct]  Gross Total Income
10. Updation of Unconditionally Cancelable is 11. For calculation of Branch profitability which of
done through menu option_____ the following is considered?
 HACMLA  Profit After Net HO Interest
 HLINTTM  Average Business of the Branch
 HLARA  Both A & B
 HBAIM  None of these
12. Which of the following will give us Yield on 13. Mortgage Loans advanced for the personal
Advances? Purposes attracts____% risk weight
 Interest Income/ Average Advances  35 percent
 Total Income/ Average Advances  50 percent
 Interest Expenses/Average Advances  75 percent
 Interest Income/ Outstanding Advances  100 percent
14. Which of the following is not a contingent 15. Accounts guaranteed by central government
liability of bank? attracts risk weights of ____%
 Pending Lawsuit  Zero Percent
 Guarantees Given  50 Percent
 Endorsements  75 Percent
 Death Claim Settlement[Correct]  100 Percent
16. Which of the following are components of 17. Which of the following does not come under
Treasury Income? Domestic Sovereign Exposure?
 Trading Gains  Accounts Guaranteed by Central
 Revaluation of Investment Government
 Profit from sale of investments  Accounts Guaranteed by State
 All the above[Correct] Government
 BGECL Accounts[Correct]
 State Government Guaranteed Claims
18. Accounts Guaranteed by State Government 19. Branches should endeavour to utilize the
attracts risk weight of ____% funds (received in the form of deposits) in and
 Zero Percent efficient manner so that, yield on deployed
 20 Percent[Correct] funds___the cost of funds
 25 Percent  Exceeds[Correct]
 50 Percent  Remains Equal to
 Remains lower than
20. Loans sanctioned under Commercial Real 21. As per Basel III guidelines issued by RBI which
Estate-Residential Housing (CRE-RH) carry a of the following accounts should be risk
risk weigh of…….% weighted as per their external rating?
 50 percent  Corporate
 30 percent  Public sector enterprises
 100 percent  NBFC
 75 percent  All of these[Correct]
22. ________credit Deposit ratio, indicates poor 23. The amount that a bank has to pay to it’s
growth in credit compared to deposit growth depositors for keeping their money with bank
& A__ Credit deposit Ratio indicates demand for utilizing the same in lending activities, is
for credit. called_____
 Low, Low  Net Interest Margin
 Low, High[Correct]  Credit Deposit Ratio
 High, High  Yield on Advances
 Moderate, Moderate  Cost of Funds
24. Individual Housing Loans above Rs. 30 Lakhs 25. As per Basel III guidelines issued by RBI any
with LTV ratio of less than or equal 80 % carries customer having exposure above___ wil be
risk weight of ____% categorized as Corporate Catetory for risk
 75 Percent weight purpose.
 35 Percent  Rs. 7.5 Cr
 50 Percent  Rs. 10 Cr
 100 Percent  Rs. 2.5 Cr
 Rs. 5 Cr
26. As per Basel III guidelines Risk Weighing of 27. Branches which are deposit oriented & having
accounts categorized as residential based little scope for advances are compensated
on____ through earning by way of____
 Debt Service Coverage Ratio  DICGC Claim
 Interest Spread  ECGC Claim
 LTV Ratio  HO Interest
 Commercial CIBIL of Borrower  Subsidy from Central Government
28. As per RBI Guidelines, Corporate accounts 29. The formula “Net Interest Income+ Total Non-
should be risk weighted as per their____Rating Interest Income- Operating Expenses”
 Internal Rating denotes____
 External Rating  Gross Profit
 Anyone of the above  Net Profit
 Operating Profit
 Non-Operating Profit
30. [Multiple Response Question] 31. Which of the following denotes “Deposit
_____is a concept of how banks determine the Ratio” for a bank?
internal price when allocating funds across  Total Bank credit/aggregate deposit
different business units/ branches (Demand +Time Deposit)
 Funds Transfer Money  Total Bank Average Credit / Aggregate
 Funds Transfer Mechanism Deposits(Demand +Time Deposits)
 Fixed Transfer Mechanism  Total Bank Credit/Aggregate Average
 Fund Transition Mechanism Deposits( Demand + Time Deposits)
 Total Bank Average Credit/Aggregate
Average Deposits(Demand + Time
Deposits)
32. What is the frequency at which Total Limit (FB+ 33. Which of the following is not among the three
NFB) entered using HBAIM menu should be major areas of expense?
checked?  Interest Expenses
 Yearly  Non-Interest Expense
 Monthly  Floating Expenses
 Half Yearly  Provisions & Contingencies
 Quarterly
34. Which of following is/are part of Non-Interest 35. Which of the following are components of
Income? Treasure Income?
 Fee based income  Trading Gains
 Treasure Income  Revaluation of Investment
 Dividend Income  Profit from sale of Investmnets
 Recovery from TWO  All the above
 All the Above
36. Operating Profit is calculated by deducting 37. Mortgage which has been advanced for the
the amount of ____ from Net Interest Income & business purpose attracts___% risk weight
Total Non- Interest Income  75 %
 Gross Total Expenses  50 %
 Provisions & Contingencies  100 %
 Controllable Expenses  35 %
 Operating Expenses
38. Individual Housing Loans above Rs. 75 lakhs 1. Exposures on Central & State Government
with LTV Ratio of Less than or equal 75 % carries Carries____% Risk Weight
risk weight of ____%  50 Percent
 30 percent  Zero Percent
 75 percent  75 Percent
 50 percent  100 Percent
 100 percent
14 BASIC FINANCIAL STATEMENT
QUESTION-1
SELECT CASH INFLOW
Drag into LIABILITIES

Question-2
SELECT CASH OUTFLOW
Drag to ASSET SIDE

QUESTION-3 14 BASIC FINANCIAL STATEMENT
SELECT CASH OUTFLOW
Drag into Expense Side

Drag into ASSET SIDE
DRAG to LIABILITY SIDE

Drag to INCOME SIDE
CASH INFLOW
DRAG TO ASSET SIDE

QUESTION-6
CASH OUTFLOW
DRAG TO ASSET SIDE

CASH OUTFLOW
Drag to EXPENSES
DRAG THE CASH AVAILABLE TO ASSET SIDE

DRAG TO LIABILITY SIDE

15 Stop Stress and Start Living
1. See the picture and identify the correct Laying Down Yoga poses/asanas
 Adho Mukha Svanasana
 Bhujangasana
 Sarvangasana
 Savasana
 Utkatasana
 Chakrasana
 Konasan
 Garudasana
 Shalabasana
 Sarvangasana
 Dhanurasana
 Savasana
 Niyama
 Pranayama
 Pratyahara
 Mantra Japa[Correct]
 Janu Shirasasana
 Padmasana
 Shishuasana
 Vajrasana
 Pranayama
 Pratyahara
 Dharana
 Dhyana(Meditation)
 Janu Shirasasana
 Ardha Matsyendrasana
 Badhakonasana
 Vajrasana
8. Work life Balance helps with-

 Enhancing Stress
 Strengthening Relationships
 Reducing Mental Health
 Improving Physical Health
 Increasing Job Satisfaction
9. Which Yoga sadhanas advocates appropriate food and food habits for healthy
living?
 Pratyahara
 Dharana
 Yuktahara
 Yukta Karma
 Dharana
 Dhyana ( Meditation)
 Samadhi
 Bandhas and Mudras
 Vasisthasana
 Halasana[Correct]
 Sarvangasana
 Dhanurasana
12. Identify which are the Correct types of Stress symptoms?

i. Cognitive Symptoms
ii. Physical Symptoms
iii. Emotional Symptoms
iv. Behavioural Symptoms
 ii, iii
 i,ii,iv
 i, ii, iii, iv
 ii, iii, iv
 Pratyahara
 Dharana
 Dhyana( Meditation)
 Samadhi
 Niyama
 Asana
 Pranayama
 Pratyahara
 Chakrasana[Correct]
 Virabhadrasana
 Vrikshasana
 Garudasana
 Pranayama
 Pratyahara
 Dharana
 Dhyana(Meditation)
 Samadhi
 Satkarmas
 Yuktahara
 Satkarmas
 Yuktahara
 Mantrajapa
 Yukta Karma
19. Which yoga sadhanas advocates appropriate food and food habits for healthy
living?
 Pratyahara
 Dharana
 Yuktahara
 Yukta Karma
20. Meditation is mental practice, it involves training mind into a state of calmness(
True/False)
 True
 False

21. See the picture and identify the correct Laying Down Yoga poses/asanas.
 Savasana
 Shalabasana
 Sarvangasana
 Dhanurasana[Correct]
 Bhujangasana
 Sarvangasana
 Vasisthasana
 Shalabasana[Correct]
23. See the picture and identify the correct Yoga Sadhana.
 Yuktahara[Correct]
 Mantra Japa
 Yama
 Yukta Karma
 Sarvangasana
 Shalabasana
 Savasana
 Bhujangasana
25. See the picture and identify the correct Yoga Sadhana.
 Asana[Correct]
 Dharana
 Pratyahara
 Pranayama
 Dharana
 Dhyana ( Meditation)
 Samadhi
 Virabhadrasana
 Vrikshasana
 Utkatasana
 Trikonasana
 Mantra Japa
 Satkarmas
 Yuktahara
29. Which yoga sadhanas advocates appropriate food and food habits for healthy
living?
 Pratyahara
 Dharana
 Yuktahara
 Yukta Karma
 Sarvangasana
 Savasana
 Vasishtasana[Correct]
 Dhanurasana
 Sarvangasana
 Dhanurasana
 Adho Mukha Svanasana
 Bhujangasana[Correct]
32. Identify the correct type of stress from the following symptoms.
i. Memory Problems, Inability to concentrate, Poor Judgement/Muddled
thinking.
ii. Negative Thinking/seeing, Anxious or racing thoughts
 Behavioral Symptoms
 Emotional Symptoms
 Physical Symptoms
 Cognitive Symptoms[Correct]
33. What are the benefits of the Yoga?

 Reduced Stress and anxiety[Correct]
 Improved balance and coordination[Correct]
 Better sleep[Correct]
 Improved flexibility and strength[Correct]
 Enhanced mindfulness and focus[Correct]
34. Identify the correct type of stress from the following symptoms.
Eating more or less, Sleeping too much or too little, Nervous habits (e.g. biting,
pacing), Reckless driving.
 Behavioral Symptoms[Correct]
 Emotional Symptoms
 Physical Symptoms
 Cognitive Symptoms
35. What is stress?

 It is a non-specific body response to challenging events
 It is psychological, physiological, and behavioural
 Both of the above
36. Yoga is a holistic practice, it is a mental, physical, and spiritual

practice.(True/False)
 True
 False
Yoga sadhana poses
YAMA NIYAMAS ASANA
b
PRANAYAMA PRATYAHARA DHARANA
DHYANA SAMADHI BANDHAS & MUDRAS
SATKARMAS MANTRA JAPA

YUKTAHARA
YUKTA KARMA
Yoga asana poses

Vasisthasana Adhomukha Svanasana Halasana
Bhujangasana Salabhasana Sarvangasana
Savasana
Dhanurasana
1. Which of the following document must be 2. Which is the best practice to be followed?
verified from original by the bank?  Punitive Vigilance
 Form 60  Detective Vigilance
 FATCA  Preventive Vigilance[Correct]
 Form 15 G  All of these
 OVD[Correct]
3. Transactions without customer mandate and 4. As a preventive measure the cash keys should
without vouchers is a fraud prone area be held by Joint custodian
 No, it is a normal practice  True[Correct]
 Yes[Correct]  False
5. In case of financial statement submitted by a 6. Disbursement of Loan for purchase of machine

company, the same should be verified from should be made_____
the financial statements submitted by the  Any one of the above
company to____  Directly to the supplier[Correct]
 RBI  As per discretion of Branch Head
 IRDA  To the operative account of the customer
 MCA[Correct]
 SEBI
7. End use of funds is to be ensured in case of 8. Offsol clearing report is to be generated

____ at____
 Personal Loan  10:00 AM
 Term Loan  12 noon
 Cash Credit  3:00 PM
 Both Term Loan and Cash Credit[Correct]  All of these[Correct]
9. Which of the following will not come under 10. Self Attestation on photocopies of KYC
statutory dues? Documents by customer is____
 Provident Fund  Mandatory[Correct]
 Bank interest[Correct]  Optional
 Income Tax  Not to be insisted by Bank official
 GST  Irrelevant
11. Appraisal note for sanction of credit facility 12. After closure of cash the security alarm must
must contain information about ___ be kept in_____
 Borrower's history  Switched off mode
 Borrower's financials  Day mode
 Collateral Security  None of these
 All of the above[Correct]  Night Mode[Correct]
13. Which of the following should be verified 14. If not delivered to the customer for 90 days,
before sanction of a credit Proposal of a the debit card should be _____
company?  Issued to other customer
 Statutory Clearance  Destroyed
 Statutory Dues  Blocked[Correct]
 ROC Charge  Returned to BOB-Financial
15. Documents required for change of mobile 16. Late receipt / payment of cash____
number of customer are____  Should not be allowed at all
 Prescribed application form  Should be recorded properly[Correct]
 KYC Document  Its illegal Procedure
 Latest Photograph  Need not be recorded
17. Which of the following is/are Fraud Prone 18. PAN details can be verified using Finacle
Areas in Account Opening? Menu_____
 Forged KYC documents  CGPAN
 Impersonation  CUSTMOD
 Issuance of Cheque Book  PANVAL[Correct]
 All of these[Correct]  GSTTN
19. A report of transaction of Rs. 50000/- and 20. DIN, CIN and ROC are applicable in case
above in newly opened account is available of____
in Menu_______  Proprietorship Firm
 STR  Partnership Firm
 AMLALERT  Company[Correct]
 EXCPRPT  All of the above
 NEWACTR[Correct]
21. A high value cheque may be passed by the 22. Which of the following is not a preventive
Branch___ vigilance measure for account opening ____
 If branch obtains confirmation by calling  Obtaining prescribed account opening
on the registered mobile Number of the form
customer[Correct]  Obtaining signature of customer by Sub
 All of these Staff[Correct]
 Without confirmation in case of account of  Latest Colour Photograph
government department  Obtaining one of the OVDs
 If customer call the branch and gives
confirmation of having issued the cheque
23. As a preventive measure in cash 24. ROC Charge can be verified from the Website
operation____ of___
 Cash in vault should be counted by the  MCA21[Correct]
cashier  CIBIL
 Cashier should not lock the cash cabin for  SEBI
better customer service  CRILC
 Key movement register should be
maintained[Correct]
 Keys of dual lock must be with the same
person
25. Which of the following is not a security Item? 26. To open an account bank official must obtain
 Green Voucher[Correct] and verify___
 Demand Draft  OVD
 FD Receipt  PAN/Form 60
 Cheque Book  Latest Colour Photograph
27. Tool for post sanction monitoring of account 28. Land locked property should not be accepted
includes_____ as security
 Godown Inspection  False
 Transaction monitoring  True[Correct]
 Review of account
29. Preventive Vigilance helps Bank in ___ 30. A deposit account can be opened by the
 Business Control branch based on photocopy of KYC
 Deposit Mobilisation Document and ID Proof
 Increse Fee based income  Yes
 Risk Mitigation[Correct]  No[Correct]
31. Genuineness of audited financial statements 32. Unrelated entries in the account of a customer
submitted by the borrower should be verified is a fraud prone area____
by ascertaining From____  False
 Market  True[Correct]
 Regulator
 Auditor[Correct]
 Borrower
33. Where RTGS/NEFT request has not been given 34. Signature of customer is required on RTGS
by the Customer Himself of his authorized Voucher also apart from cheque
representative?  Voucher not required for RTGS
 Transaction should be kept pending for  True[Correct]
next day  No, Signature of customer on the back of
 Transaction may be allowed by the Branch the cheque giving details of RTGS is
Head if the customer is a valued customer sufficient
 Confirmation should be sought from the  No, voucher can be signed by the staff of
customer[Correct] the customer who comes regularly to the
 The transaction should not be done branch
35. Which of the following cheque is mandatorily 36. Which of the following is not a part of Pre
to be scanned through Ultra Violet Ray Sanction Due Diligence____
Machine?  Obtaining CIR
 Cash Payment of Rs. 10000/-  Financial Analysis
 Transfer cheque of Rs. 50000/-  Inspection with borrower[CORRECT]
 Cheque Value of Rs. 2.00 Lac  Pre Sanction Inspection
37. Which of the following cheque is mandatorily 38. If the cashier has to leave the cash cabin for
to be scanned through Ultra Violet Ray some time, he may ask other staff to look after
Machine? it till his return
 Cash Payment of Rs. 10000/-  True
 Transfer cheque of Rs. 50000/-  False
 Cheque Value of Rs. 2.00 Lac
39. Where RTGS/NEFT request has not been given 40. To ensure proper documentation the
by the Customer Himself of his authorized document must be____
representative?  Relevant
 Transaction should be kept pending for  Properly stamped
next day  Properly executed
 Transaction may be allowed by the Branch  All of these
Head if the customer is a valued customer
 Confirmation should be sought from the
customer
 The transaction should not be done
41. Request for change of mobile number can be 42. Which of the following property should not be
submitted by the customer by ___ mortgaged in case of MSME Loan?
 Personally Visiting the Branch only  Agricultural
 Through registered post Letter  Industrial
 E-Mail through registered mail id  Commercial
 Close relative who is our existing customer  Residential
43. While Remitting cash, the box containing cash

should be held by the armed guard
 False
 True
17- Guidelines for Cheque, Cash Management and Locker Operations
1. The Progress made by Banks in detection and reporting of counterfeit Notes to

Police, RBI, etc. and problems therein, shall be discussed regularly in the meetings
of which of the following State Level Committees
 State Level Banker’s Committee (SLBC)
 Standing Committee on Currency Management (SCCM)
 State Level Security Committee (SLSC)
 All are correct[Correct]
2. Background of the cheque i.e. LOGO and Bank of BARODA is printed with which
type of ink?
 Washable ink
 Permanent Ink
 Waterproof ink
 Special invisible Ink
3. What is the Background color of the cheques for Saving Bank Account?
 Light Green
 Light Blue
 Light Grey
 Light Orange
4. For counterfeit notes up to how many pieces in a single transaction, a consolidated

report shall be sent by the Nodal Bank Officer to the Police Authorities, along with
the suspect Counterfeit Notes, at the end of the Month
 Six
 Four[Correct]
 Five
 Seven
5. Which of the following menu is used for obtaining confirmation from base branch
for high value cheques (transfer/ Inter-sol payments/remittances) of Rs. 2.00 Lacs
and above?
 HCUS
 HCPPS
 CPPS
 HUCS
6. RBI Issues the Direction on the Detection, Reporting & Monitoring of Counterfeit
Notes under which Section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1999?
 35A, & 57
 38A, & 55
 35B, & 57
 35A, & 56
7. What is the period of termination notice served to the customer in case the Bank
decides to withdraw the Locker Facility from the Customer?
 Four Months
 One Month
 Three Months[Correct]
 Two Months
8. Branches are facing difficulties in renewal of agreements from the existing locker
holders held in joint names as some of the joint holders are residing in foreign
countries/ other cities. Which solution provided by Branch is incorrect?
 Base branch can send agreement to other branches for execution near to joint
holder
 Branch must insist that all holders must come to base branch for
agreement[Correct]
 POA can be used
 All are correct
9. Which of the following feature of CTS 2010 cheque visible through naked eye is
incorrect?
 Watermark of Bank’s logo and Bank’s Name are available for verification
against light or through UVR Machine
 Printer’s Name on the Right side with CTS 2010 identification[Correct]
 New Rupee symbol in separate box preceding amount in figures
 All the PCBs are printer with account numbers and name of the Drawer
10. Forged Note Vigilance (FNV) cell at Head Office undertakes which of the following
functions?
 Dissemination of instructions by RBI on Counterfeit Notes to Bank’s Branches
 Conducting surprise checks at currency chests where counterfeit Notes are
detected
 Ensuring Operation of Note Sorting Machines at all the currency chest
 All of above [Correct]
11. The branch shall record a video of the break open process in the mobile and store
the video in a separate memory card of pen drive and preserve the record till final
settlement of articles found after break open of the locker or ___Years whichever
is later
 Ten
 Seven[Correct]
 Five
 Three
12. At Branches any shortage or excess in cash of Rs. ____/- and above must be
reported to the Regional authority immediately for further investigation at their end
and necessary action must be initiated in to the matter.
 Rs. 5000/-
 Rs. 25000/-
 Rs. 50000/-
 Rs. 10000/-[Correct]
13. If there is any event such as merger/ closure/ shifting of branch warranting physical
relocation of the Lockers, the Branch should give public notice in how many
newspapers
 Three
 One
 Two[Correct]
 Four
14. Notes which are determined as counterfeit shall be stamped as____and

impounded in the prescribed format
 Mutilated Note
 Impounded Note
 Counterfeit Note[Correct]
 Duplicate Note
15. Penalty at____% of the notional value of Counterfeit Notes, in addition to the
recovery of loss to the extent of the notional value of such notes, will be imposed
if Counterfeit Notes are detected in the soiled note remittance of the Bank
 50%
 200%
 100%[Correct]
 50%
16. If the Locker key is lost by a locker holder what should be action taken by Branch?
 New Key to be collected by customers from the Bank free of cost
 Locker to be Break Open and charges to be recovered from the
Customer[Correct]
 If the Locker Holder has duplicate Keys he can use the same
 New Locker to be allocated to customer
17. The Bank shall have a right to break open the Locker and Deal with its contents in
accordance with the provisions under this agreement, in which of the following
cases.
 Termination Notice served to the Customer and the Customer does not
surrender and vacate the Locker
 The Rent Remains unpaid for 3( three) consecutive Years
 The Lockers remains inoperative for a period of 7 ( Sevel) years or more; and
the customer cannot be located by the Bank
 All are correct [Correct]
18. To enter the closing cash balance with denominations at Branches which Menu
option in FINACLE 10 is used?
 CATML
 CASHREC
 CASHREM
 CASHBAL[Correct]
19. Where the loss of contents of the locker, are due to incidents attributable to the
Bank’s negligence or fraud committed by its employee(s), the Bank’s liability shall
be for an amount not more than ___times of the prevailing annual rent of the safe
deposit locker
 Two
 On case to case basis depending upon amount involved
 Ten
 Hundred[Correct]
20. What is the transaction code printed for current account on right side of MICR band
which indicates the variant of account?
 32
 30
 31
 29 [Correct]
21. Which of the following menu is used for obtaining confirmation from base branch
for high value cheques (Transfer/Inter-sol payments/remittances) of Rs. 2.00 Lacs
and above?
 HCPPS
 HCUS
 CPPS[Correct]
 HUCS
18 Data Driven Decision Making
1. Which Branch of the Data Mining is concerned with the prediction of future
probabilities and trends?
 In-Memory Analytics
 Predictive Analytics
 Behavioral Analytics
 Big Data Analytics
2. Which of the following is a type of data repository that stores a high volume diverse
raw data in its native format?
 Data Lake
 Data Swamp
 Data Warehouse
 Data Ocean
3. Just collecting and storing information is not enough to produce real business value.
Big Data analytics technologies are necessary to______
 Formulate eye-catching charts & graphs
 Extract valuable insights from the data
 Integrate data from internal and external sources
 Determine business goals and objectives
4. Can be described as different formats of data from various sources?

 Volume
 Value
 Veracity
 Variety
5. A graphical representation of a data set is referred to as a_____

 Data Set
 Data Pattern
 Visualization
 Data Fabric
6. Which of the following reasons has/have led to the growing importance of Data –
Driven Decision-Making in the recent times?
 Increased no of decisions
 Decrease ion time available for decision making
 Increased complexity in decision making
18 Data Driven Decision Making
7. Drag and drop each key metric towards the correct Core Area [ Correct Order]
Key Metrics Core Areas

Query Resolution TAT, Smart Servicing
Servicing Cost
AUM attrition rate Deepening Relationships
Acquisition Run Rate Customer Acquisition
Avg DPD, NPA Level Monitoring & Collections
8. Which of the following is/are the primary or core dimension(s) of Data Quality?
 Completeness
 Validity
 Uniqueness
9. Can be described as inconsistencies and uncertainty in data?

 Volume
 Value
 Veracity
 Variety
10. Which of the Following are the best practices of Data Visualization?
 A-Choosing an effective visual
 B-Setting the context
 C-Choosing the audience(s)
 Option A and Option C
 Option A, Option B, and Option C
11. Which Branch of the Data Mining is concerned with the prediction of future
probabilities and trends?
 In-Memory Analytics
 Predictive Analytics
 Behavioral Analytics
 Big Data Analytics
12. Which of the following terms best characterizes the process of examining data for
statistics and information about the data?
 Data Profiling
 Data Cleansing
 Business Intelligence Search
 Data Governance
19 Documentation
1. Primary Evidence means the documents itself produced for the inspection of the
Court is classified under:
 Section 61
 Section 64
 Section 63
 Section 62[Correct]
2. Who is ineligible for documents execution?

 SHG
 LLP
 Trust
 Convicts[Correct]
3. Documents related to advance accounts with aggregate limit of Rs. 10.00 lacs &
above upto & inclusive of Rs. 2.00 Crore shall be verified by
 Legal Officer Regional Level
 Legal Officer Scale IV & above
 Any Banks Panelled Advocate
 Banks Paneled Advocate/Lawyer other than one who has given the TCR in
respect of Mortgage[Correct]
4. Which of the following Matches? Select the Correct Option/s
S. NO Type of Security S. No Mode of Charges & Act

1 Immovable Property a Assignment
2 Actionable Claim b Lien & Sec 171 Indian Contract
Act
3 Movable goods c Mortgage & Sec 58 Transfer of
Property Act
4 Goods & Securities in Possession d Pledge or Hypothecation & Sec
of lender 172 Indian Contract Act 1872
 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

 A-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b[Correct]
 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
5. Which thumb impression to be used by illiterate borrower during execution of loan

documents?
 Left for male & Right for female[Correct]
 Any Thumb can be used for execution
 Right Thumb Impression
 Left Thumb Impression
19 Documentation
6. A company should not exceeds___% of its paid up capital, free reserved &
securities premium account or ___% of its free reserves & Securities premium
account whichever is more for loan & investment by company under Section 185?
 100% & 60%
 60% & 100%[Correct]
 50% & 100%
 100% & 500%
7. On receipt of duly executed Power of Attorney in India the Same is required to be

adequately stamped within ___days from the receipt in India & Same should be
got registered with ___to make it enforceable till such time its revocation
 45 days & Registrar of Companies
 90 days & Registrar of Assurances[Correct]
8. Perpetual Lease can be considered for creation of Mortgage. State True/ False?
 True[Correct]
 False
9. Title Clearance Report is to be generated

 After Creation of Mortgage
 After disbursement
 At the time of Mortgage
 Before creation of Mortgage[Correct]
10. If any amount is lent to a company by any lender, such charge should be
registered within how many days?
 30 days[Correct]
 45 days
 60 days
 15 days
11. What is/are the instrument mentioned in entry 91 of union list?

 Tally Records
 Tripartite Agreement
 Bill of Lending
 Money Receipts[Correct]
19 Documentation
12. Registration of Charged assets with CERSAI to be done
 Within 30 days
 Immediately[Correct]
 Within 45 days
 Within 15 days
13. Which e-Form is used for LLP( Limited Liability Partnership) to charge details i.e.
creation, modification of satisfaction of Charge?
 e-Form 7 ( Interim )
 e-Form 8 ( Interim) [Correct]
 e-Form 5 ( Interim)
 e-Form 4 ( Interim)
14. Who can execute the documents?

 Insolvent?
 Lunatics
 HUF-Karta[Correct]
 Minors
15. What is the correct method of paying Stamp Duty Through?

 Legal Paper
 Non Judicial Stamp Paper[Correct]
 Non Adhesive Stamp Paper
 Judicial Stamp Paper
16. Which of the following cannot act as a partner in a Partnership Firm?

 All partners of a Firm
 HUF[Correct]
 Sleeping partner
 Individual
17. Non Judicial Stamp Paper Valid for?

 9 months from the date of purchase
 12 months from the date of purchase
 6 months from the date of purchase [Correct]
 3 Months from the date of purchase
18. Which document is/are executed for illiterate or by a person not knowing the
language inwhich the documents is written / printed?
o LDOC-7a ( Duly singed by a person)
o LDOC-65 ( Duly signed by a person)
o LDOC-53 ( Withnessed & Duly Signed by a person)
o LDOC-83 ( Duly signed by a person)
19 Documentation
19. Which document/s is /are required for lending to a company?
o Board Resolution should contain-mode of execution of documents & common
seal affixation on documents
o Special Resolution u/s 180 of the Companies Act 2013 is required to pass
o Obtain search report from ROC
o Ensure there should be restrictive clause in this respect
o Memorandum & Article of Association
20. Who is not eligible for Loan?

 Hindu Undivided Family
 Companies
 Insolvents
 LLP
21. Shareholder means-

o Any person who is the beneficial owner of shares holding not less than 15% of
the voting power
the voting power
the voting power
the voting power
22. Under which section & Act Document is defined?

o Section 3 of Indian Legislative Act, 1874
o Section 3 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
o Section 5 of Indian Evidence Act, 1875
o Section 5 of Indian Document Act, 1873
23. Which one is a kind of stamp?

o Non-revenue Stamps
o Self-Stamps
o Defective Stamps
o Embossed or Impressed Stamps
20 DIGITAL BANKING
1. ______number is mandatory to deposit amount in NPS Account through Mobile

Banking Application.
 OLD PPF
 Aadhaar
 PRAN
 Bank Account Number
2. Baroda Reloadable Card Virtual Variant has a validity of Maximum prepaid

of____from the date of issuance or date of expiry mentioned on card, whichever is
earlier.
 36 Months
 24 Months
 12 Months
 6 months
3. NCMC is an inter-operable transport card conceived by the Ministry of Housing and

Urban Affairs of the Government of India. Our Bank also offers NCMC Debit cum
prepaid card powered by Rupay. What is the full form of NCMC?
 National Carried Mobility Card
 National Customer Mobility Card
 National Communication Mobility Card
 National Common Mobility Card
4. Baroda Visa Vyapaar Debit Card is meant for Customers maintaining Which type of
Account?
 Saving Account
 Current Account
 Cash Credit Account
 Salary Account
5. What is the issuance and annual fee for bob world Agniveer Debit Card?
 Rs. 250
 Rs. 500
 NIL
 Rs. 100
6. CBDC introduced by _____a digital variant of physical currency

 SBI
 RBI
 BOB
 NPCI
20 DIGITAL BANKING
7. Maximum Total deposit limit will be restricted of Rs._____per day per account
irrespective of number of Baroda Deposit Cards
 Rs. 500000
 Rs. 250000
 Rs. 200000
 Rs. 100000
8. NPCI has extended Rupay Insurance Program for Rupay Premium Card, which
insurance Company cover this insurance?
 TATA AIG General Insurance Company
 The New India Assurance Company Ltd
 United India Insurance
 India First General Insurance
9. Our Banks Virtual Gift Card is powered by____

 Master Card
 Both Rupay & Visa
 Rupay
 VISA
10. RFID is an acronym of_____

 Rapid Frequency Identity Developer
 Radio Frequency Identification
 Real-Time Frequency Identification Destination
 Radio Frequency Identity Development
100% Correct

All 20 Mandatory Answers 2023-24

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

All 20 Mandatory Answers 2023-24

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

All 20 Mandatory Answers 2023-24

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1 Whistle Blower Policy as a Risk Mitigation Tool

1. Whistle Blowing demonstrate to which core value of our Bank

5. Which of the following is not an objective of “Whistle Blower Policy”?

6. Which is not a USP of “Whistle Blower Policy” ?

9. Anonymous complaints can be entertained as per Whistle Blower Policy on case to

11. The Whistle Blower Policy applies to ___

12. Access to online portal for whistle-blowers is restricted to only___

16. Full form of PIDPI is____

33. Whistle Blowing is____

40. After conduct of Enquiry who is responsible for closure of complaints?

42. Who is Chief Risk Officer in Our Bank?

1. Which of the following is correct?

2. In regard to our responsibilities, what is the need of the hour?

3. What does ESG Criteria refer to?

4. Which among the following best describes “sustainability”?

6. What are the different tools for sustainable finance?

7. What is the major environmental impact of plastic?

8. Which governance factor in ESG aims to promote ethical business practices?

10. What does it mean when companies use ESG?

11. What are the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?

14. What are the key focus areas of BRSR?

16. What is BRSR?

17. What do investors expect from companies in terms of ESG?

18. Which of the following is an example of judicious use of resources as an individual?

23. What are the key focus areas of BRSR?

24. What are the different tools for sustainable finance?

25. What is the focus of achieving carbon neutral?

26. What are the benefits of BRSR?

28. Which among the following best describes “sustainability”?

31. What is the governance in the context of ESG?

32. What are the benefits of BRSR?

33. What percentage of Earth’s water is fresh water?

34. Which of the following is an example of an environmental factor in ESG?

36. What is the main cause of climate change?

37. What is NGRBC?

38. What is NVG?

40. What was the focus of ESG criteria in the 1990s?

41. What is climate change?

42. What is Earth Overshoot Day?

43. Why is sustainability significant?

47. What is the aim of considering social factors in ESG?

48. What is Carbon Neutral?

49. Which of the following is an element of good governance in ESG?

2. Which of the following is not a type of Cyber-attack?

4. Which of the following is not a type of social engineering attack?

5. What is the difference between a virus and a worm?

6. What is the CIA triad?

9. In IP Address, IP is abbreviated as_______

10. What is a denial of service (DoS) attack?

11. What is a penetration test?

12. Which of the following is not a type of Malware?

13. What if the purpose of a Firewall?

14. Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime?

15. Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime?

16. Which of these is an antivirus program type?

17. What is a Trojan?

18. What is a phishing attack?

19. What is a firewall?

21. What is the purpose of a security audit?

2. What are the features of Cyber Security?