CBSE

Class XII Biology

Sample Paper 4
Time: 3 Hours Total Marks: 70

General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section
D. There are 33 questions in the question paper.
(iii) Section A 14 questions of 1 mark each and 02 case-based questions. Section B
has 9 questions of 2 marks each. Section C has 5 questions of 3 marks each.
Section D has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, internal choices are
provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the
alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section A

1. How is Copper T used? [1]

2. From where do the signals for parturition originate? [1]
3. Seeds are considered better for a staple food than vegetative parts of the plant? [1]
4. Name the accessory genital glands in human male. [1]
5. Name two sex-linked diseases in human beings. [1]
6. Which principle is associated with monohybrid cross of 3:1 ratio? [1]
7. What do the triplets AUG and UGA code for during protein synthesis? [1]
8. How is the action of exonuclease different from that of endonuclease? [1]
9. Why does toxin insecticidal protein not kill the Bacillus? [1]
10. Name the interactions in each of the following: [1]
i. Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea anemone.
ii. Ticks living on the skin of dogs.

11. Assertion: Addition or deletion of a base from a gene produces entirely a new
polypeptide. [1]
Reason: Substitution mutation replaces a single amino acid in a polypeptide.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
 OR
Assertion: During DNA replication, the discontinuous synthesised fragments are
joined by DNA polymerase.
Reason: A RNA sequence provides binding site for RNA polymerase.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.

12. Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred
into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote). [1]
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge populations which
express the desired gene.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.

13. Assertion: Scavenging improves the environment. [1]

Reason: A scavenger disposes of dead organic matter.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.

14. Assertion: Earth’s rich biodiversity is vital for the very survival of mankind. [1]
Reason: Besides the direct benefits, there are many indirect benefits we receive
through ecosystem services such as pollination and flood control.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
15. Read the following and answer any four questions from 15 (i) to 15 (v) given below:
[4]
Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases of human beings and is a major cause of
death all over the globe. More than a million Indians suffer from cancer and a large
number of them die from it annually. The mechanisms that underlie development of
cancer or oncogenic transformation of cells, its treatment and control have been
some of the most intense areas of research in biology and medicine. In our body, cell
growth and differentiation is highly controlled and regulated. In cancer cells, there is
breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms. Normal cells show a property called
contact inhibition by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibits their
uncontrolled growth. Cancer cells appears to have lost this property. As a result of
this, cancerous cells just continue to divide giving rise to masses of cells called
tumors.

(i) The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a
major cause of _______________ cancer.
a. Lung
b. Skin
c. Breast
d. Prostate

(ii) In ___________________, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is
stained and examined under microscope.
a. X-ray
b. Biopsy
c. CT Scan
d. MRI

(iii) In which type of cancer treatment, the tumor cells are irradiated lethally?
a. Immunotherapy
b. Surgery
c. Radiotherapy
d. Chemotherapy

(iv) Which substances help in activating the immune system and destroying the
tumor in cancer patients?
a. α-interferon
b. antibiotics
c. analgesics
d. Tranquilisers
 (v) Assertion: Several chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill cancerous cells.
Some of these are specific for particular tumors.
Reason: Majority of drugs have side effects like hair loss, anemia, etc.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.

16. Read the following and answer any four questions from 16 (i) to 16 (v) given below:
[4]
Genetic code
During replication and transcription, a nucleic acid was copied to form another
nucleic acid. Hence, these processes are easy to conceptualise on the basis of
complementarity. The process of translation requires transfer of genetic
information from a polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of amino acids. Neither
does any complementarity exist between nucleotides and amino acids, nor could
any be drawn theoretically. There existed ample evidences, though, to support the
notion that change in nucleic acids (genetic material) were responsible for change in
amino acids in proteins. This led to the proposition of a genetic code that could
direct the sequence of amino acids during synthesis of proteins. It was George
Gamow, a physicist, who argued that since there are only 4 bases and if they have to
code for 20 amino acids, the code should constitute a combination of bases. He
suggested that in order to code for all the 20 amino acids, the code should be made
up of three nucleotides. Marshall Nirenberg’s cell-free system for protein synthesis
finally helped the code to be deciphered. Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide
phosphorylase) was also helpful in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a
template independent manner (enzymatic synthesis of RNA). Finally a checker-
board for genetic code was prepared.

(i) How many codons are there in the genetic code?

a. 61
b. 64
c. 71
d. 74

(ii) Out of total number of codons how many of them do not code for any amino acids?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 7
(iii) From bacteria to human, ___________ would code for Phenylalanine (phe).
a. AUU
b. AUA
c. UAA
d. UUU

(iv) Which of the following codon has dual function?

a. AUG
b. AUU
c. AUA
d. UAA

(v) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding genetic code?

a. The codon is triplet.
b. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon.
c. The genetic code has commas.
d. The code is nearly universal.

Section B

17. Write the location and function of Cowper’s gland. [2]

18. The haploid chromosome number for Drosophila is 4.

(a) How many linkage groups should you expect to find in Drosophila?
(b) What can you say about the inheritance of two characters governed by two
different genes, one located on chromosome number 3 and the other on
chromosome number 4? [2]

19. Mention any two symptoms of AIDS. [2]

20. What are the advantages of the techniques of GM crops? [2]

OR
Bacillus thuringiensis produces insecticidal protein. Why does this toxin not kill
Bacillus?

21.
(a) State the role of DNA ligase in biotech.
(b) What happens when Meloidoyne incognitia consumes cells with RNAi gene?
[2]
22. Why is the introduction of genetically engineered lymphocytes into an ADA
deficiency patient not a permanent cure? Suggest a possible permanent cure. [2]
 OR
How are restriction enzymes different from the topoisomerases functionally?

23. A particular species of wild cat is endangered. In order to save them from
extinction, which is a desirable approach in situ or ex situ? Justify your answer. [2]

24. What is camouflage? Explain by giving an example. [2]

25. How do humans maintain constant body temperature in summer and winter? [2]

Section C

26. Explain why meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked? [3]

27. In human beings, blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye colour.
A brown-eyed man has a blue-eyed mother.
(a) What is the genotype of the man and his mother?
(b) What are the possible genotypes of his father?
(c) If a man marries a blue-eyed woman, what are the possible genotypes of their
offspring? [3]

28. The mosquitoes grow in stagnant water around the residential areas, coolers in the
house, flower pots, etc. They act as vectors for various diseases.
(a) Name any three diseases spread by mosquitoes.
(b) How can we control the breeding of insect vectors?
(c) Mention the name of the fish that feeds on mosquito larvae. [3]

29. Name the genes responsible for making Bt cotton plants resistant to bollworm
attack. How do such plants attain resistance against bollworm attacks? Explain. [3]

30. Explain mutualism with the help of any two examples. How is it different from
commensalism?

Section D
31.
(i) Draw a labelled sectional view of the seminiferous tubule of a human male.
(ii) Define spermiogenesis. Where does it occur? [5]
OR
(i) State what is apomixis. Comment on its significance. How can it be commercially
used?
(ii) Draw a longitudinal section of a post-pollinated pistil showing the entry of the
pollen tube into the mature embryo sac.
32. Who proposed the chromosome theory of inheritance? Give the salient features of
this theory. [5]
OR
Describe in brief the process of transcription.

33. [5]
(i) Which gas gives puffed appearance to the dough? Name the metabolic pathway
taking place resulting in the formation of this gas.
(ii) In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria? Mention any two applications
of it.
(iii) What is the significance of SCP?
OR
(i) Define the term cirrhosis.
(ii) What are the side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females and
males?
(iii) Mention any two useful measures for prevention and control of alcohol and
drugs abuse among adolescents.
 CBSE
Class XII Biology
Sample Paper 4 (Solution)
Time: 3 hrs Total Marks: 70

Section A

1. Copper T is an Intra Uterine Device (IUD) inserted by doctors or expert nurses in

the uterus through vagina.

2. The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the
placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.

3. Seeds contain minimum quantity of water and can remain dormant for a long
period.

4. Seminal vesicles, prostate glands and Cowper’s glands.

5. Colour blindness and Haemophilia.

6. Principle of segregation.

7. AUG – Methionine, UGA – Termination codon Non sense codon).

8. Exonuclease removes the nucleotides from the ends of DNA molecules while
endonuclease makes cut at specific position within a DNA molecule.

9. The toxin insecticidal protein exist as inactive protoxins.

10.
i. Commensalism
ii. Ectoparasitism.

11. b; Mutation is an abrupt and discontinuous process where a gene or a

chromosome undergoes heritable changes in its structure or its number.
Therefore, addition or deletion of a base from a gene produces entirely a new
polypeptide. In substitution mutation, one base is substituted for another. Hence,
both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
 OR
d; During DNA replication, the discontinuous synthesised fragments are joined
by the enzyme DNA ligase. During protein synthesis, the region of DNA that
provides binding site for RNA polymerase is promoter and initiate the process of
transcription. Hence, both assertion and reason are false.

12. a; In recombinant DNA technology, human genes can be transferred into bacteria
and yeast because these organisms multiply rapidly to form the huge population
that expresses the transferred gene in the short period of time. Hence, both
assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.

13. a; Scavenging is the breaking down of organic material and recycle it into the
ecosystem as nutrients. This helps to keep an ecosystem free of the bodies of
dead animals, or carrion. A scavenger disposes of dead organic matter and thus
helps to recycle the nutrients. Hence, both assertion and reason are true, and
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

14. b; Earth’s rich biodiversity is vital for the very survival of mankind because the
reason for conserving biodiversity are narrowly utilitarian, broadly utilitarian
and ethical. Besides the direct benefits (food, fibre, firewood, pharmaceuticals,
etc.), there are many indirect benefits we receive through ecosystem services
such as pollination, pest control, climate moderation and flood control. Hence,
both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.

15.
(i) a; The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been
identified as a major cause of lung cancer.
(ii) b; In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is
stained and examined under microscope.
(iii) c; In radiotherapy, tumor cells are irradiated lethally, taking proper care
of the normal tissues surrounding the tumor mass.
(iv) a; The cancer patients are given substances called biological response
modifiers such as α-interferon which activate their immune system and
help in destroying the tumor.
(v) b; Several chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill cancerous cells. Some
of these are specific for particular tumors. Majority of drugs have side
effects like hair loss, anemia, etc.
16.
(i) b; There are 64 codons in the genetic code.
(ii) c; Out of 64 codons, 3 of them do not code for any amino acids.
(iii) d; From bacteria to human, UUU would code for Phenylalanine (phe).
(iv) a; AUG has dual functions. It codes for Methionine (met), and it also act as
initiator codon.
(v) c; The salient features of genetic code includes:
i. The codon is triplet. 61 codons code for amino acids and 3 codons do
not code for any amino acids.
ii. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is
degenerate.
iii. The genetic code is commaless.
iv. The code is nearly universal: for example, from bacteria to human UUU
would code for Phenylalanine (phe).

Section B

17. Cowper’s glands (Bulbourethral glands): These are paired glands situated
beneath the bladder and on each side of the urethra into which their ducts open.
They are about the size of a pea and form the floor of the pelvis. They secrete
clear, white, viscous, alkaline, mucoid lubricant which neutralise the activity of
acidic female vaginal secretions and increase the mobility and survival potential
of sperms in the genital tract of the female.

18.
(a) 4; because the linkage group equals the number of haploid chromosomes.
(b) The two characters being located on two different chromosomes will be
unlinked and hence will follow Mendelian inheritance and the law of
independent assortment.

19. Symptoms of AIDS:

(i) Swollen lymph nodes and fever
(ii) Sweating at night and weight loss

20. There are two advantages:

(a) Any gene from any organism or a synthetic gene can be used for transfer.
(b) Change in genotype is precisely controlled.
OR
The insecticidal protein (Bt toxin) exists as an inactive protoxin. When an
insect ingests the inactive toxin, it is converted to an active form of toxin
because of the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilises the crystals of the
protein. Thus, this toxin does not kill Bacillus.
21.
(a) DNA ligase helps in joining the DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester
bonds between adjacent nucleotides, hence it is also known as molecular
glue.
(b) Its specific mRNA will be silenced so it cannot survive in the host expressing
RNAi.

22. The genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal, the patient requires
periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. If the gene isolate
from the bone marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early
embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.
OR
Restriction enzymes are nucleases which cut DNA into short pieces containing
identifiable genes at specific sites. These pieces are then introduced into plasmids,
yeasts or plant cells. However, topoisomerases break and reseal strands of DNA
which serve as starting points for replication.

23. Ex situ is a desirable approach to protect the wild cat. The organism is protected
outside their natural habitat where special care is taken to protect them. By
using cryopreservation techniques, gametes of threatened species can be
preserved under very low temperature.

24. Camouflage is a type of protective mechanism in many animals where they

assume different shapes and colours resembling to the background for deceiving
the predators as well as for ensuring better survival. Example – stick insect
resembles like a dry stick and leaf insect looks like a leaf.

25. Humans maintain a constant body temperature of 37°C. In summer, the outside
temperature is more than the body temperature. In this condition, humans sweat
profusely. This brings down the body temperature (cooling) when the sweat
evaporates. Similarly, in winter, the outside temperature is much lower than
37°C. In this condition, the skin contracts to conserve body heat and to raise the
body temperature.
 Section C

26. In sexually reproducing organisms, the process of meiosis occurs during

gametogenesis to reduce the number of chromosomes to half in male and female
gametes. During fertilisation, the fusion of male and female gametes takes place
to form the diploid zygote. The diploid zygote grows into an adult organism and
reproduces sexually.
If there is no meiosis in the reproductive cells during gametogenesis, then the
chromosomes will double at each fertilisation and an abnormal organism will be
formed. Thus, meiosis and gametogenesis are always linked to avoid the
multiplication of species and to restore the original diploid chromosome
number.

27. According to the given condition, brown eye colour is dominant over blue eye
colour.

(a) The mother genotype must be bb as she is recessive for blue-coloured eye. The
man is brown-eyed (dominant character). It is possible that the genotype is Bb
as he is procuring one of the recessive genes from his mother.
(b) As the genotype of the man is Bb, so the possible genotypes of his father are BB
or Bb.

(c) Parents ... Brown-eyed man (heterozygous) × Blue-eyed woman

Genes ... Bb × bb
Gametes ... B, b × b, b

Result: 50% offspring with brown eye having genotype Bb. 50% offspring
with blue eye having genotype bb.
28.
(a) Malaria, Dengue and Chikungunya.

(b) The most important measure to control or eliminate the insect vectors and their
breeding places can be achieved by avoiding stagnation of water in and around
residential areas, regular cleaning of household coolers, use of mosquito nets,
spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas and swamps, etc. In addition,
doors and windows should be provided with wire mesh to prevent the entry of
mosquitoes.

(c) Gambusia fish feeds on mosquito larvae.

29. The gene responsible for making Bt cotton plant resistant to bollworms is cry
IAC and cry II AB. These genes are secreted in the form of protein crystals during
a particular phase of their growth and contain insecticidal proteins which exist
in the inactive form. When an insect ingests the inactive toxin, it gets converted
to the active form in the gut under alkaline conditions. This solubilises the
crystals and the active toxin binds to the surface of epithelial cells and creates
pores which cause cell swelling and lysis, causing the death of the insect.

30. Mutualism is the relationship between two organisms where both are benefited
for food, shelter and substratum for attachment. Two examples are
(i) Mycorrhizae are the mutualistic relationship between fungi and the roots of
higher plants. The fungi help in mineral nutrition of the plant with which they
are associated and obtain in turn carbohydrates from the plant.
(ii) The association of Trichonympha and termites is symbiotic. Trichonympha
lives in the gut of termites and digests the cellulose of wood for them and in
turn termites provide food, shelter and constant internal environment to
Trichonympha.

Commensalism is an interaction between two organisms where one is benefited

and the other is neither harmed nor benefited. Example: The sucker fish bears a
sucker on the dorsal side of its head which helps it to attach itself to the body of
the shark. It benefits the sucker fish with free transport and free food left behind
by the shark.
 Section D

31.
(i) Sectional view of the seminiferous tubule of a human male:

(ii) Spermiogenesis is the process of transformation of spermatids into

spermatozoa. This process occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the
testis.
OR
(i) Apomixis is the mode of reproduction which does not involve formation
of zygote through gametic fusion.
Significance of apomixis:
a. Adventives embryos are better clones than cuttings.
b. Embryos formed through apomixes are generally free from
infections.
Hybrid varieties provide higher and better yield. If hybrid seeds are
produced every year, they do not maintain hybrid characters because of
segregation of traits. Moreover, production of hybrid seeds every year is
very costly. This can be avoided by introducing apomixes in hybrid seeds.
(ii) Longitudinal section of a post-pollinated pistil:
32. Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri proposed the chromosome theory of
inheritance. Its main features are
(i) Each chromosome carries several specific determiners which play an
essential role in the development of an organism. A loss of complete
chromosome or its fragment leads to deviation in the structure and function
of an organism.
(ii) The somatic cell of an organism bears two identical sets of chromosomes
(diploid) each received from mother (maternal chromosome) and father
(paternal chromosome). These two chromosomes of one type constitute the
homologous pair.
(iii) The paired homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis, and each
gamete receives one homologous chromosome.
(iv) The paired condition of both chromosomes is maintained during fertilisation

(v) Each chromosome contains numerous genes and the position assigned to
each gene is called locus. These genes help the organism to develop from the
zygote.
(vi) Each chromosome retains its individuality, uniqueness and continuity
throughout the life of an organism and from generation to generation. They
never get lost or mixed up but behave as units.

OR

Transcription: It is the formation of an mRNA strand on a DNA strand in the

nucleus. The mechanism of mRNA synthesis is analogous to DNA replication
where only one of the two strands (sense strand) acts as a template. The
formation of mRNA takes place in the 5′–3′ direction, so the sequence of
nucleotides on the DNA template (sense strand) must be in the 3′–5′ direction.

This process involves unwinding of DNA and transcription starts at a specific

point called the promoter region. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase enzyme
binds to the ‘Pribnow box’ at the promoter region and starts transcription. RNA
polymerase contains a detachable subunit called the sigma ( ) factor. It helps
the enzyme to bind firmly to DNA. The RNA core polymerase (minus sigma
factor) moves down the DNA at a faster pace and this continues to synthesise a
new RNA chain. It requires the building blocks of uracil (U), adenine (A),
cytosine (C) and guanine (G). The base sequence in DNA decides the base
sequence in mRNA as A pairs with U and G pairs with C. The mRNA is
synthesised on the DNA template in the 5′–3′ direction, and so, successive
nucleotides are attached at the 3′–OH end of the growing mRNA strand. So, the
information of DNA coded in the sequence of bases of the cistron is transcribed
to mRNA. This process continues until it reaches the terminator sequence in the
sense DNA strand (3′–AAAAAAT–5′). At this point, another protein particle, the
 rho ( ) factor, forms a complex with RNA polymerase. This causes the enzyme
to go off the DNA track, and thus, new mRNA is released. Many mRNA are
synthesised in rapid succession along the cistron. The completed mRNA moves
away from the nucleus and binds to a group of ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

33.
(i) Production of carbon dioxide during fermentation gives the puffed
appearance to the dough. Bacteria or yeast undergoes anaerobic pathway
and produce the carbon dioxide gas for making the dough to rise.
(ii) Lactic acid bacteria are found in milk.
a. Lactic acid bacteria convert milk to curd at suitable temperature and
also improves the nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12.
b. This bacterium plays a beneficial role in checking disease causing
microbes in human stomach.
(iii) Significance of SCP:
a. SCP is rich in high-quality protein and is rather poor in fats; hence, it is a
valuable supplement in human diet. Its use bridges the gap between the
requirement and supply of proteins in human diet.
b. It reduces the pressure on agricultural production systems for the supply
of required proteins.
c. SCP production based on industrial effluents helps in reducing
environmental pollution.
OR
(i) The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous system and liver.
This condition is called cirrhosis.
(ii) The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include
masculinisation (features like males), increased aggressiveness, mood
swings, depression, abnormal menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth on
the face and body, enlargement of clitoris, deepening of voice. In males, it
 includes acne, increased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression,
reduction of size of the testicles, decreased sperm production, potential
for kidney and liver dysfunction, breast enlargement, premature
baldness, enlargement of the prostate gland.
(iii) Measures useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drugs abuse
among adolescents are:
a. Avoid undue peer pressure - Every child has his/her own choice and
personality, which should be respected and nurtured. A child should
not be pushed unduly to perform beyond his/her threshold limits; be
it studies, sports or other activities.
b. Education and counselling - Educating and counselling him/ her to
face problems and stresses, and to accept disappointments and
failures as a part of life. It would also be worthwhile to channelize the
child’s energy into healthy pursuits like sports, reading, music, yoga
and other extracurricular activities.