Practise set : 27 (d) parthenogenesis

Biology 9. The absence of chlorophyll, in the lowermost cell

of Ulothrix, shows
(a) functional fission
1. The term “New Systematics” was introduced by (b) tissue formation
(a) Bentham and Hooker (c) cell characteristic
(b) Linnaeus (d) beginning of labour division
(c) Julian Huxley
(d) A.P. de Candolle 10. A research student collected certain alga and
found that its cells contained both chlorophyll a and
2. Which of the following is less general in chlorophyll b as well as phycoerythrin. The alga
characters as compared to genus? belongs to
(a) Species (a) Rhodophyceae
(b) Division (b) Bacillariophyceae
(c) Class (c) Chlorophyceae
(d) Family (d) Phaeophyceae

3. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they 11. Which one of the following is a correct
(a) show association between algae and fungi statement?
(b) grow faster than others (a) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal
(c) are sensitive to SO2 and leafy stage
(d) flourish in SO2 rich environment (b) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-
living
4. Protistan genome has (c) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are
(a) membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in present in pteridophytes.
cytoplasm (d) Origin of seed habit can be traced in
(b) free nucleic acid aggregates pteridophytes
(c) gene containing nucleoproteins condensed
together in loose mass 12. Earthworms are
(d) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell (a) useful
substance (b) harmful
(c) more useful than harmful
5. The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle (d) more harmful
involves 13. A. Periplaneta americana is nocturnal,
(a) photosynthesis omnivorous, household pest. R. It is because it acts
(b) chemosynthesis as scavenger
(c) digestion or breakdown of organic compounds (a) A is true but R is false
(d) assimilation of nitrogenous compounds (b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true and R is correct
6. During the formation of bread it becomes porous explanation of A
due to release of CO2 by the action of (d) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
(a) Yeast explanation of A
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus 14. Golden era/age of reptiles is
(d) Protozoans (a) palaeozoic
(b) mesozoic
7. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on: (c) recent
(a) morphological features (d) proterozoic
(b) chemical constituents
(c) floral characters 15. From the following statements select the wrong
(d) evolutionary relationships one.
(a) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
8. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern plant (b) Nematocysts are characteristic of the Pylum
(sporophyte) without fertilization. It is Cnidaria
(a) apospory (c) Millepedes have two pairs of appendages in
(b) apogamy each segment of the body
(c) parthenocarpy (d) Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera are
exclusively marine (d) muscular tissue

24. Resolution power is the ability to

16. Which one of the following categories of (a) distinguish two close points
animals, is correctly described with no single (b) distinguish two close objects
exception in it? (c) distinguish amongst organelles
(a) All sponges are marine and have collared cells. (d) magnify image
(b) All mammals are viviparous and possess
diaphragm for breathing. 25. The point, at which polytene chromosomes
(c) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an appears to be attached together, is called
operculum on each side. (a) centriole
(d) All reptiles possess scales, have a three (b) centromere
chambered heart and are cold blooded (c) chromomere
(poikilothermal). (d) chromocentre

17. Hypanthodium is 26. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united a

(a) thalamus critical ion level of
(b) fruit (a) copper
(c) inflorescence (b) manganese
(d) ovary (c) magnesium
(d) calcium
18. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers,
bicarpellate ovary with oblique septa and fruit a 27. RNA does not possess
capsule of berry, are characteristic features of (a) Uracil
(a) Brassicaceae (b) Thymine
(b) Solanaceae (c) Adenine
(c) Liliaceae (d) Cytosine
(d) Asteraceae
28. Cellulose, the most important constitutent of
19. Tunica corpus theory is connected with plant cell wall is made of
(a) root apex (a) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked
(b) root cap by a-1, 4 glycosidic bond
(c) shoot apex (b) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by
(d) secondary growth b-1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and a-1, 6
glycosidic bond at the site of branching
20. As the secondary growth takes place (proceeds) (c) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked
in a tree, thickness of by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond
(a) heart wood increases (d) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by
(b) sap-wood increases a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching.
(c) both increase
(d) both remain the same 29. About 98 percent of the mass of every living
organism is composed of just six element including
21. In barley stem vascular bundles are: carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and
(a) closed and scattered (a) sulphur and magnesium
(b) open and in a ring (b) magnesium and sodium
(c) closed and radial (c) calcium and phosphorus
(d) open and scattered (d) phosphorus and sulphur.

22. Afferent nerve fibre carries impulses from 30. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it
(a) effector to central nervous system becomes
(b) receptor to central nervous system (a) triploid
(c) central nervous system to muscles (b) tetraploid
(d) central nervous system to receptors (c) diploid
(d) monoploid
23. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap
junctions are found in 31. Conversion of starch to organic acids is
(a) connective tissue required for
(b) epithelial tissue (a) stomatal opening
(c) neural tissue (b) stomatal closing
(c) stomatal formation 40. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to
(d) stomatal activity (a) reception of pollen by stigma
32. The rupture and fractionation do not usually (b) formation of pollen
occur in the water column in vessel/tracheids (c) development of anther
during the ascent of sap because of (d) opening of flower bud
(a) lignified thick walls
(b) cohesion and adhesion 41. Brunner’s glands occur in
(c) weak gravitational pull (a) submucosa of duodenum
(d) transpiration pull (b) submucosa of stomach
(c) mucosa of oesophagus
33. A plant requires magnesium for (d) mucosa of ileum
(a) protein synthesis
(b) chlorophyll synthesis 42. A person deficient in the rhodopsin should be
(c) cell wall development advised to take more of
(d) holding cells together. (a) Guava and ripe banana
(b) Apple and grapes
34. A very efficient converter of solar energy with (c) Carrot and ripe papaya
net productivity of 2-4 kg/m2 or more is the crop of (d) Radish and potato
(a) wheat
(b) sugarcane 43. Which one of the following enzymes carries out
(c) rice the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans?
(d) bajra (a) Pepsin
(b) Rennin
35. Protochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll in (c) Lipase
lacking (d) Trypsin
(a) 2 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole rings
(b) 2 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole rings 44. Which one of the following is one of the paths
(c) 4 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole rings followed by air/O2 during respiration in an adult
(d) 4 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole rings male Periplaneta americana as it enters the animal
body?
36. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of (a) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues
photosystem II are accepted first by: (b) Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles,
(a) Cytochrome-b oxygen diffuses into cells
(b) Cytochrome-f (c) Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters
(c) Quinone cells
(d) Ferredoxin (d) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea,
oxygen diffuses into cells
37. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose,
32 ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FADH2 in 45. Which one of the following vertebrate organs
(a) respiratory chain receives the oxygenated blood only?
(b) Krebs cycle (a) Gill
(c) oxidative decarboxylation (b) Lung
(d) EMP (c) Liver
(d) Spleen
38. The energy-releasing process in which the
substrate is oxidised without an external electron 46. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to
acceptor is called the diastolic right atrium of heart due to.
(a) fermentation (a) pushing open of the venous valves
(b) photorespiration (b) suction pull
(c) aerobic respiration (c) stimulation of the sino auricular node
(d) glycolysis (d) pressure difference between the post caval and
atrium
39. Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening
by 47. The basic functional unit of the human kidney is
(a) maintaining them at room temperature (a) nephron
(b) refrigeration (b) nephridia
(c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution (c) pyramid
(d) storing in a freezer (d) Henle's loop
48. Which one of the following options gives the 55. Which of the following plant cells will show
correct categorization of six animals according to totipotency?
the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C), they give (a) Sieve tubes
out? AAmmonotelic ---- B-Ureotelic ---- C-Uricotelic (b) Xylem vessels
(a) Pigeon, Humans -- Aquatic Amphibia, Lizards -- (c) Meristem
Cockroach, Frog (d) Cork cells
(b) Frog, Lizards -- Aquatic Amphibia, Humans --
Cockroach, Pigeon 56. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible
(c) Aquatic Amphibia -- Frog, Humans -- Pigeon, parts in
Lizards, Cockroach (a) walnut and tamarind
(d) Aquatic Amphibia --Cockroach, Humans-- Frog, (b) french bean and coconut
Pigeon, Lizards (c) cashew nut and litchi
(d) groundnut and pomegranate
49. Which one of the following pairs of chemical
substances is correctly categorized? 57. Which of the following statements is not true
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones about somatic embryogenesis?
(b) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes (a) A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell
secreted in stomach (b) The pattern of development of a somatic
(c) Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo
striated muscles (c) Somatic embryos can develop from microspores
(d) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones (d) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin
such as 2, 4-D
50. What is intensity of sound in normal
conversation? 58. The second maturation division of the
(a) 10—20 decibel mammalian ovum occurs
(b) 30—60 decibel (a) shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes
(c) 70—90 decibel entry into the fallopian tube
(d) 120—150 decibel (b) until after the ovum has been penetrated by a
sperm
51. Addition of a trace of thyroxine or iodine in (c) until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with
water containing tadpoles will that of the ovum
(a) keep them in larval stage (d) in the graafian follicle following the first
(b) hasten their metamorphosis maturation division
(c) slow down their metamorphosis
(d) kill the tadpoles 59. One of the following is not a method of
contraception – which one?
52. Progesterone, the component of the oral (a) Tubectomy
contraceptive pills, prevents pregnancy by (b) Condoms
(a) preventing the cleavage of the fertilized egg (c) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and
(b) preventing the formation of ova vasopressin
(c) blocking ovulation (d) Lippes loop
(d) creating unfavourable chemical environment
for the sperms to survive in the female 60. A colour blind girl is rare because she will be
reproductive tract born only when
(a) her mother and maternal grand father were
53. Toxic agents present in food which interfere colour blind
with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development (b) her father and maternal grand father were
of: colour blind
(a) toxic goitre (c) her mother is colour blind and father has
(b) cretinism normal vision
(c) simple goitre (d) parents have normal vision but grand parents
(d) thyrotoxicosis were colour blind.

54. Which one of the following is correctly matched 61. Genes located on Y-chromosome are
(a) Onion - Bulb (a) mutant genes
(b) Ginger - Sucker (b) sex-linked genes
(c) Chlamydomonas - Conidia (c) autosomal genes
(d) Yeast - Zoospores (d) holandric genes
62. One child is haemophilic (sex-linked trait), (d) result in transcription.
while its fraternal twin brother is normal. Which
one of the following informations is most 69. One of the most frequently used techniques in
appropriate? DNA fingerprinting is
(a) The mother must have been heterozygous (a) AFLP
(b) The child is a monozygotic twin (b) VNTR
(c) The other child is a female and the father is (c) SSCP
haemophilic (d) SCAR
(d) The haemophilic child is a male
70. Which one of the following sets includes only
63. The genes controlling the seven pea characters the vestigial structures in man?
studied by Mendel are now known to be located on (a) Body hair, olecranon process, coccyx, patella
how many different chromosomes? (b) Wisdom teeth, mammary glands, coccyx, patella
(a) Four (c) Coccyx, nictitating membrane, vermiform
(b) Seven appendix, ear muscles
(c) Six (d) Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles, vermiform
(d) Five appendix

64. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid 71. Two different species can not live for long
is by duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is
(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent (a) Allen's law
(b) studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies (b) Gause's hypothesis
(c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent (c) Dollo's rule
(d) crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent. (d) Weisman's theory

65. Which of the following statements is not true of 72. Among the human ancestors the brain size was
two genes that show 50% recombination more that 1000 cc in
frequency? (a) Homo erectus
(a) The genes are tightly linked (b) Ramapithecus
(b) The geness how independent assortment (c) Homo habilis
(c) If the genes are present on the same (d) Homo neanderthalensis
chromosome, they undergo more than one
crossovers in every meiosis 73. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are
(d) The genes may be on different chromosomes grouped according to their food sources. Which of
the following is not a finch food?
66. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in normal (a) Seeds
medium with glucose. They are transferred to a (b) Carrion
medium containing only lactose as sugar. Which of (c) Insects
the following changes takes place? (d) Tree buds
(a) The lac operon is repressed
(b) All operons are induced 74. The cell in the human body invaded by the
(c) The lac operon is induced human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) is
(d) E.coli cells stop dividing (a) T-helper cell
(b) Erythrocyte
67. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used (c) B-cell
synonymously because (d) Macrophage
(a) one cistron contains many genes
(b) one gene contains many cistrons 75. Match the disease in Column I with the
(c) one gene contains one cistron appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/
(d) one gene contains no cistron treatment) in Column II.
Column I Column II
68. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth (a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(a) polymerize in the 3’ - to - 5’ direction and forms (b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and
replication fork water
(b) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA (c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
replication (d) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy
(c) polymerize in the 5’ - to - 3’ direction and
explain 3’ - to - 5’ DNA replication
76. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by: 84. Bulk CO2 fixation occurs in
(a) Eating imperfectly cooked pork. (a) Crop plants
(b) Tse-tse fly. (b) Oceans
(c) Mosquito bite. (c) Tropical rain forests
(d) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris. (d) Temperature forests

77. The worker honey bee normally lives for about 85. Which one of the following ecosystem types has
(a) 15 days the highest annual net primary productivity?
(b) 30 days (a) tropical deciduous forest
(c) 90 days (b) temperate evergreen forest
(d) 10 days (c) temperate deciduous forest
(d) tropical rain forest.
78. Which one of the following is a viral disease of
poultry? 86. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to
(a) Coryza (a) retain nutrients
(b) New castle disease (b) hold organic materials
(c) Pasteurellosis (c) hold water
(d) Salmonellosis. (d) support life

79. Human insulin is being commercially produced 87. According to IUCN Red List, what is the status of
from a transgenic species of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens)?
(a) Escherichia (a) Critically endangered species
(b) Mycobacterium (b) Vulnerable species
(c) Rhizobium (c) Extinct species
(d) Saccharomyces (d) Endangered species

80. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which 88. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
(a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA (a) Hydrocarbons
molecule (b) Carbon dioxide
(b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for (c) Carbon monoxide
binding of DNA ligase (d) Sulphur dioxide
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA
polymerase 89. Which of these is a pollution related to
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA occupational health hazard?
molecule (a) Pneumoconiosis
(b) Asthma
81. Genetic engineering has been successfully used (c) Flurosis
for producing: (d) Silicosis
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio
vaccine before use in humans 90. Which of the following plant species you would
(b) transgenic models for studying new treatments select for the production of bioethanol?
for certain cardiac diseases (a) Zea mays
(c) transgenic cow – rosie which produces high fat (b) Pongamia
milk for making ghee (c) Jatropha
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they have (d) Brassica
super power
91. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are
82. In a food chain, the largest population is that of IAIB and IA i. Among the blood types of their
(a) producers children, how many different genotypes and
(b) decomposers phenotypes are possible?
(c) secondary consumers (a) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(d) primary consumers (b) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(c) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
83. Praying mantis is a good example of (d) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(a) warning colouration
(b) social insects 92. Which of the following facilitates opening
(c) camouflage of stomatal aperture ?
(d) mullerian mimicry (a) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
(b) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils (a) Closure of stomata
in the cell wall of guard cells (b) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(c) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose (c) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy
microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells mesophyll
(d) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells (d) Tyloses in vessels

93. In Bougainvillea thorns are the 100. Which of the following protocols did
modifications of : aim for reducing emission of
(a) Adventitious root chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere?
(b) Stem (a) Montreal Protocol
(c) Leaf (b) Kyto Protocol
(d) Stipules (c) Gothenburg Protocol
(d) Geneva Protocol
94. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount
of
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin B12

95. Which of the following is not an

autoimmune disease?
(a) Psoriasis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Vitiligo
(d) Alzheimer's disease

96. The similarity of bone structure in the

forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
of
(a) Homology
(b) Analogy
(c) Adaptive radiation
(d) Convergent evolution

97. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro

in 1992 was called
(a) to reduce CO2 emissions and global
warming
(b) for conservation of biodiversity and
sustainable utilization of its benefits
(c) to assess threat posed to native species by
invasive weed species
(d) for immediate steps to discontinue use of
CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer

98. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted

by mother during the initial days of lactation
is very essential to impart immunity to the
new born infants because it contains :
(a) Natural killer cells
(b) Monocytes
(c) Macrophages
(d) Immunoglobulin A

99. Grass leaves curl inwards during very

dry weather. Select the most appropriate
reason from the following :
 (c) BrO3 – and XeO3
Chemistry (d) SF4 and XeF4
1. One litre hard water contains 12.00 mg Mg2+. 9. Root mean square velocity of a gas molecule is
Miliequivalents of washing soda required to proportional to
remove its hardness is: (a) m1/2
(a) 1 (b) m0
(b) 12. 16 (c) m–1/2
(c) 1 × 10-3 (d) m
(d) 12. 16 × 10-3
10. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it
2. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be indicates that:
needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in (a) kinetic energy of molecules decreases
acidic solution is (b) pressure of the gas increases
(a) 4/5 (c) kinetic energy of molecules remains the same
(b) 2/5 (d) number of the molecules of gas increases
(c) 1
(d) 3/5 11. For a reaction in which all reactants and
products are liquids, which one of the following
3. If electron has spin quantum number + 9/0 and a equations is most applicable?
magnetic quantum number -9, it cannot be present (a) ΔH< ΔE
in (b) ΔH= ΔS
(a) d-orbital (c) ΔH= ΔE
(b) f-orbital (d) ΔH= ΔG
(c) p-orbital
(d) s-orbital. 12.

4. Which of the following has the minimum bond

length?
(a) O2+
(b) O2- (a) and (IV)
(c) O22- (b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) O2 (c) , (II) and (III)
(d) (II) and (III)
5. Which of the following order is wrong?
(a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 – Acidic 13.
(b) Li < Be < B< C– First IP
(c) Al2O3 < MgO< Na2O< K2O– Basic
(d) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ – Ionic radius

6. Which of the following bonds will be most polar?

(a) N– Cl
(b) O– F (a)
(c) N– F
(d) N– N (b) 2
(c)
7. The dipole moments of diatomic molecules AB
and CD are 10.41D and 10.27D, respectively while (d)
their bond distance are 2.82 and 2.67 Ȧ ,
respectively . This indicate that
(a) bonding is 100% ionic in both the molecules 14.
(b) ABhas more ionic bond character than CD
(c) ABhas lesser ionic bond character than CD
(d) bonding is nearly covalent in both the molecules

8. In which of the following pairs, the two species

are iso-structure? (a)
(a) SO32- and NO3 –
(b) BF3 an NF3
 (b) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3
(c) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2
(d) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3

22.
(b) Additional of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will
In the presence of platinum catalyst, hydrocarbon
cause a shift to the right.
Aadds hydrogen to form n-hexane. When hydrogen
(c)The reaction is exothermic
bromide is added to Ainstead of hydrogen, only a
(d) At equilibrium , the concentrations of CO2 (g)
single bromo compound is formed. Which of the
and H2O(I) are not equal .
following is A?
(a) CH3 — CH2 — CH = CH— CH2 — CH3
15. Which of these is least likely to act as Lewis
(b) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH = CH— CH3
base?
(c) CH3 — CH = CH— CH2 — CH2 — CH3
(a) F–
(d) CH2 = CH— CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
(b) BF3
(c) PF3 23. Green chemistry means such reactions which:
(d) CO (a) produce colour during reactions
(b) reduce the use and production of hazardous
16. Which one of the following pairs of substances chemicals
on reaction will not evolve H2 gas? (c) are related to the depletion of ozone layer
(a) Iron and H2 SO4 (aqueous) (d) study the reactions in plants
(b) Iron and steam
(c) Copper and HCl (aqueous) 24.
(d) Sodium and ethyl alcohol The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms
present in a simple cube is
17. Property of the alkaline earth metals that (a)
increases with their atomic number:
(a) Solubility of their hydroxides in water
(b) Solubility of their sulphates in water
(c) Ionization energy (b)
(d) Electronegativity

18. Which of the following is an optically active

compound? (c)
(a) 1-Butanol
(b) 1-Propanol
(c) 2-Chlorobutane
(d) 4-Hydroxyheptane (d)

19. Huckel's rule states that a monocyclic

conjugated compound will be aromatic if it contains
(a) (4n + 2 PIE) electrons
(b) (4S + 2n) electrons 25. The vapour pressure of a solvent decreased by
(c) 4S electrons 10mm of mercury when a non-volatile solute was
(d) (4n + 2)S electrons added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute
in the solution is 0.2. What should be the mole
20. What is the enthalpy change for, fraction of the solvent if the decrease in the vapour
2H2O2(I)  2H2O(I) +O2(g) if heat of formation of pressure is to be 20mm of mercury?
H2O2(I) and H2O(I) are -188 and -286 kJ/mol
(a) 0.8
respectively ?
(b) 0.6
(a) –196 kJ/mol (c) 0.4
(b) + 948 kJ/mol (d) 0.2
(c) + 196 kJ/mol
(d) –948 kJ/mol 26. On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using
platinum electrodes, the product obtained at the
21. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of anode will be
the hydrocarbon, CH3 CH= CHC{CH7 5 4 2 1 CCHCH3 (a) hydrogen
CH3 CH3 3 | | 6 | is in the following sequence: (b) oxygen
(a) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp (c) hydrogen sulphide
(d) sulphur dioxide (c) Ferric chloride reacts with sod. ferrocyanide
(d) Anhydrous CuSO4 is dissolved in water
27.
34. Which of the following shows maximum
number of oxidation states?
(a) Cr
(b) Fe
(c) Mn
(a) 2.0 × 1010 (d) V
(b) 4.0 × 1010
(c) 4.0 × 1015 35. Which of the following statements about the
(d) 2.4 × 1010 interstitial compounds is incorrect ?
(a) They are chemically reactive.
28. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be (b) They are much harder then the pure metal.
determined by (c) They have higher melting points than the pure
(a) evaluating rate constant at standard metal.
temperature (d) They retain metallic conductivity.
(b) evaluating velocities of reaction at two different
temperatures 36. The number of unpaired electrons in the
(c) evaluating rate constants at two different complex ion [CoF6] 3– is (Atomic no.: Co = 27)
temperatures (a) Zero
(d) changing concentration of reactants (b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
29.In a reaction, A+B Product, rate is doubled
when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate 37. The correct IUPACname for [CrF2 (en)2 ]Cl is:
increases by a factor of 8 when the concentration of (a) Chloro difluoridobis (ethylene diamine)
both the reactants (A and B) are doubled rate, law chromium (III)
for the reaction can be written as: (b) Chloro difluoridoethylenediaminechromium
(a) Rate = k[A][B]2 (III) chloride
(b) Rate = k[A]2 [B]2 (c) Difluoridobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III)
(c) Rate = k[A] [B] chloride
(d) Rate = k[A]2 B] (d) Difluorobis-(ethylene diamine) chromium (III)
chloride
30. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?
(a) Malachite 38. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas
(b) Cassiterite reagent at room temperature is
(c) Pyrolusite (a) Butan-1-ol
(d) Magnetite (b) Butan-2-ol
(c) 2-Methyl propan-1-ol
31. Nitrogen is relatively inactive element because (d) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(a) Its atom has a stable electronic configuration
(b) It has low atomic radius 39.
(c) Its electronegativity is fairly high
(d) Dissociation energy of its molecule is fairly high

32. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) HFis a stronger acid than HCl
(b) Among halide ions, iodide is the most powerful
reducing agent
(c) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show
a variable oxidation state (a) Acetone
(d) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr (b) Methane
(c) Acetaldehyde
33. Ablue colouration is not obtained when (d) Ethyl alcohol
(a) Ammonium hydroxide dissolves in copper
sulphate 40.
(b) Copper sulphate solution reacts with
K4[Fe(CN)]6
(a) (d)

(b)
43. The couplings between base units of DNA is
through:
(c) (a) Hydrogen bonding
(b) Electrostatic bonding
(d) (c) Covalent bonding
(d) Vander Waals forces

44. Which one of the following structures

41. Which of the following represents the correct represents the peptide chain?
order of the acidity in the given compounds? (a)
(a) FCH2COOH> CH3COOH> BrCH2COOH>
ClCH2COOH
(b) BrCH2COOH> ClCH2COOH> FCH2COOH>
CH3COOH
(c) FCH2COOH> ClCH2COOH> BrCH2COOH>
CH3COOH (b)
(d) CH3 COOH> BrCH2COOH> ClCH2COOH>
FCH2COOH

42. Aniline is an activated system for electrophilic

substitution. The compound formed on heating
aniline with acetic anhydride is
(a)
(c)

(b) (d)

45. CF2 = CF2 is a unit of

(a) Teflon
(c) (b) Buna – S
(c) Bakelite
(d) Polyethene
46.The most suitable method of separation of
1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols
is :
(a) Chromatography
(b) Crystallisation
(c) Steam distillation
(d) Sublimation

47.Nitration of aniline in strong acidic

medium also gives m-nitroaniline because
(a) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
goes to only m-position.
(b) In electrophilic substitution reactions
amino group is meta directive.
(c) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
present as anilinium ion.
(d) In absence of substituents nitro group
always goes to m-position.

48. Which is the correct thermal stability

order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
(a) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(b) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(c) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(d) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S

49. Which of the following is a cationic

detergent?
(a) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(b) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(d) Sodium stearate

50. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a

saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10-4
mol L-1 Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is
(a) 2.66 × 10-12
(b) 4.5 × 10-11
(c) 5.3 × 10-12
(d) 2.42 × 10-8
 highest point as seen from the point of projection is
(a) 600
Physics (b)
1. If C and R denote capacitance and resistance, the
dimensional formula of CR is
(a) [M0 L0 T1 ]
(b) [M0 L0 T0 ] (c)
(c) [M0 L0 T-1 ]
(d) not expressible in terms of M,L,T.

2. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit,

in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of (d) 450
time T and of current I, would be
(a) ML2 T-2 7. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a truck which
(b) ML2 T-1 I-1 accelerates with acceleration 5m/s2. The coefficient
(c) ML2 T-3 I-2 of static friction between the block and truck is 0.6.
(d) ML2 T-3 I-1 The frictional force acting on the block is
(a) 5 N
3. If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of (b) 6 N
144 km/h in 20 s, it covers a distance of (c) 5.88 N
(a) 2880 m (d) 4.6 N
(b) 1440 m
(c) 400 m 8. If the momentum of a body is increased by 50%,
(d) 20 m then the percentage increase in its kinetic energy is
(a) 50%
4. (b) 100%
(c) 125%
(d) 200%

9. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two

parts go off at right angles to each other. These two
are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms -1
and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8
(a) π/2 ms-1. If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms -
(b) cos-1 0.6 1
, its mass would be
(c) tan-1 7/5 (a) 7 kg
(d) π/4 (b) 17 kg
(c) 3 kg
5. (d) 5 kg

10. A solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder all of the

same mass and made of the same material are
allowed to roll down (from rest) on the inclined
plane, then
(a) solid sphere reaches the bottom first
(b) solid sphere reaches the bottom last
(c) disc will reach the bottom first
(d) all reach the bottom at the same time

11. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls

without slipping down an inclined plane of length
Land height h. What is the speed of its centre of
(a) bottom point B mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom?
(b) the point C (a)√ 4 gh
(c) the point D (b) √ 2 gh
(d) top point A (c)

6. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the

horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
 (a) will be same in both A and B
(b) will be zero in both the gases
(c) of B will be more than that of A
(d) (d) of A will be more than that of B

17. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C,

the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent
heat of ice to be 80 cal/°C, is
12. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg (a) 273 cal/K
respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The (b) 8 × 104 cal/K
length of the boat is 3.0 m and weighs 100 kg. The (c) 80 cal/K
55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg man and sits with (d) 293 cal/K
him. If the boat is in still water the centre of mass of
the system shifts by: 18. In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the
(a) 3.0 m mass of all the molecules is halved and their speed
(b) 2.3 m is doubled, then the resultant pressure will be
(c) zero (a) 4P
(d) 0.75 m (b) 2P
(c) P
13. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. (d) P/2
What is the gravitational force on it due to earth at
a height equal to half the radius of the earth from 19. A body of mass M, executes vertical SHM with
the surface? periods t1 and t2 , when separately attached to
(a) 32 N spring A and spring B respectively. The period of
(b) 28 N SHM, when the body executes SHM, as shown in the
(c) 16 N figure is t0 . then
(d) 72 N

14. Two wires A and B are of the same material.

Their lengths are in the ratio 1: 2 and the diameter
are in the ratio 2:If they are pulled by the same
force, then increase in length will be in the ratio
(a) 2: 1
(b) 1: 4 (a) t0-1 = t1 -1 + t2-1
(c) 1: 8 (b) t0 = t1 + t2
(d) 8: 1 (c) t02 = t12 + t2 2
(d) t0-1 = t1-2 + t2-2
15. Two rods of thermal conductivities K1 and K2,
cross-sections A1 and A2 and specific heats S1 and S2
are of equal lengths. The temperatures of two ends 20.
of each rod are T1 and T2. The rate of flow of heat at
the steady state will be equal if
(a)

(b)

(c) (a) v = 5 cm
(b) λ = 18 cm
(c) a = 0.04 cm
(d) (d) f = 50 Hz

21. The speed of a wave in a medium is 960 m/s. If

16. An ideal gas A and a real gas B have their
3600 waves are passing through a point in the
volumes increased from V to 2V under isothermal
conditions. The increase in internal energy medium in 1 min., then the wavelength of the wave
is
(a) 8 m (d) 1/8 A
(b) 12 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 20 m 27. Five equal resistance each of resistance R are
connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V
volts is connected between A and B. the current
22. The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 flowing in AFCEB will be
m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency
600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s,
the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver
is
(a) 555.5 Hz
(b) 720 Hz
(c) 500 Hz
(d) 550 Hz

23. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube. The (a) 2V/R

electric flux through all the six faces of the cube is (b) 3V/R
(a) Q/ 3ε0 (c) V/R
(b) Q/ 6ε0 (d) V/2R
(c) Q/ 8ε0
(d) Q/ ε0
28. The rate of increase of thermo–e.m.f. with
temperature at the neutral temperature of a
24. A parallel plate condenser with oil between the thermocouple
plates (dielectric constant of oil K= 2) has a (a) is positive
capacitance C. If the oil is removed, then (b) is zero
capacitance of the capacitor becomes (c) depends upon the choice of the two materials of
(a) √0C the thermocouple
(b) 2C (d) is negative
(c) C/√0
(d) C/2
29. A straight wire of diameter0.5 mm carrying a
current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of 1 mm
25. The potential energy of particle in a force field diameter carrying same current. The strength of
is U = A/r2 – B/r , where A and B are positive magnetic field far away is
constants and r is the distance of particle from the (a) twice the earlier value
centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the (b) same as the earlier value
distance of the particle is: (c) one-half of the earlier value
(a) B/ 2A (d) one-quarter of the earlier value
(b) 2A/ B
(c) A/ B
(d) B/ A 30. There are four light–weight–rod samples
A,B,C,D separately suspended by threads. A bar
magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the
26. following observations are noted
(i) A is feebly repelled
(ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
(iv) D remains unaffected
Which one of the following is true?
(a) B is of a paramagnetic material
(b) C is of a diamagnetic material
(a) 1A (c) Dis of a ferromagnetic material
(b) 2/3 A (d) A is of a non–magnetic material
(c) 2/9 A
31. In a coil resistance 10Ω , the induced current (c) 44 cm
developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is (d) 440 cm
shown in figure as a function of time. The
magnitude of change in flux through the coil in
35. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive
weber is
index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane
sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have
refractive index.
(a) equal to that of glass
(b) less then one
(c) greater than that of glass
(d) less then that of glass

36. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is

incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent
screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If
the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) 8 (a) The angular width of the central maximum of
(b) 2 the diffraction pattern will increase.
(c) 6 (b) The angular width of the central maximum will
(d) 4 decrease.
(c) The angular width of the central maximum will
be unaffected.
32.In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V 1
(d) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the
and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the
screen in case of electrons.
voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively.

37. The photoelectric work function for a metal

surface is 4.125 eV. The cut off wavelength for this
surface is
(a) 4125 Å
(b) 3000 Å
(c) 6000 Å
(d) 2062.5 Å
(a) 150 V, 2.2 A
(b) 220 V, 2.0 A
(c) 220 V, 2.0 A 38. In photoelectric emission process from a metal
(d) 100 V, 2.0 A of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most
energetic electrons is0.5 eV. The corresponding
stopping potential is
33. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth
(a) 1.8 V
What is the gravitational force on it due to earth at
(b) 1.2 V
a height equal to half the radius of the earth from
(c) 0.5 V
the surface?
(d) 2.3 V
(a) 32 N
(b) 28 N
(c) 16 N 39. The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En,
(d) 72 N then the energy in nth orbit of single ionised helium
atom will be
(a) 4En
34. An astronomical telescope has a length of 44 cm
(b) En /4
and tenfold magnification. The focal length of the
(c) 2En
objective lens is
(d) En /2
(a) 4 cm
(b) 40 cm
40. The average binding energy of a nucleon inside (d) C
an atomic nucleus is about
(a) 8 MeV
(b) 8 eV 45. Choose the only false statement from the
(c) 8 J following
(d) 8 ergs (a) In conductors, the valence and conduction
bands may overlap
(b) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10
41. The most penetrating radiation of the following eV are insulators
is (c) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases
(a) gamma-rays with increase in temperature
(b) alpha particles (d) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases
(c) beta-rays with increase in temperature
(d) X-rays

46.The given electrical network is equivalent

42. Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding
to :
energy per nucleon in them
(a) increases with mass number at low mass
numbers.
(b) decreases with mass number at low mass
numbers.
(c) increases with mass number at high mass
numbers.
(d) decreases with mass number at high mass (a) OR gate
numbers. (b) NOR gate
(c) NOT gate
(d) AND gate
43. p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when
(a) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the p
semiconductor and negative pole to the n 47. You are given several identical resistances each
semiconductor of value R= 10Ω and each capable of carrying a
(b) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the n maximum current of one ampere. It is required to
semiconductor and p-semiconductor make a suitable combination of these resistances of
(c) the positive pole of the battery is connected to n 5Ω which can carry a current of 4 ampere. The
minimum number of resistances of the type R that
semiconductor and p-semiconductor
will be required for this job is
(d) a mechanical force is applied in the forward
(a) 4
direction
(b) 10
(c) 8
44. (d) 20

48. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in

a container would lead to :
(a) Increase in its mass
(b) Increase in its kinetic energy
(c) Decrease in its pressure
(d) Decrease in intermolecular distance

49. The velocity of charge carriers of current

(about 1 amp) in a metal under normal conditions
is of the order of
(a) D (a) a fraction of mm/sec
(b) A (b) velocity of light
(c) B (c) several thousand metres/second
(d) a few hundred metres per second
50.
If a negligibly small current is passed through a
wire of length 15 m and of resistance 5 Ω having
uniform cross-section of 6 × 10-7 m2 , then
coefficient of resistivity of material, is
(a) 1 × 10-7 Ω-m
(b) 2 × 10-7 Ω -m
(c) 3 × 10-7 Ω -m
(d) 4 × 10-7 Ω -m
Biology :

1. c 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. c
6. a 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. a
11. d 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. d
16. a 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a
21. a 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. d
26. c 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. b
31. a 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a
36. c 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. d
41. a 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. d
46. b 47. a 48. c 49. c 50. b
51. b 52. c 53. c 54. a 55. c
56. d 57. c 58. b 59. c 60. b
61. d 62. a 63. a 64. c 65. a
66. c 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. c
71. b 72. d 73. b 74. a 75. d
76. d 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. a
81. a 82. a 83. c 84. b 85. d
86. d 87. d 88. b 89. d 90. c
91.c 92.b 93.b 94.d 95.d
96.a 97.b 98.d 99.b 100.a

Chemistry :

1. a 2. b 3.d 4. a 5. b
6. c 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. c
11. c 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. b
16. c 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. b
21. a 22. a 23. b 24.d 25. b
26. b 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. d
31. d 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. a
36. d 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. c
41. c 42. d 43. a 44. a 45. a
46.c 47.c 48.c 49.a 50.c

Physics :

1. a 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. a
6. b 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. a
11. d 12. c 13. a 14. c 15. b
16. b 17. d 18. b 19. d 20.a
21. c 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. b
26. a 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. a
31. b 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a
36. b 37. b 38. c 39.a 40. a
41. a 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. c
46.b 47.c 48.b 49.a 50.d