94. The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 10º in 2 min. TAS is 160 K.

The distance to
beacon is
a) 15 nm
b) 32 nm
c) 36 nm

95. With a TAS of 115 K the relative bearing on an ADF changes from 090 to 095 in 1.5 min. The
distance to beacon is
a) 12.5 nm
b) 24.5 nm
c) 34.5 nm

96. The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 5º in 5 min. TAS is 115 K. The distance to
beacon is
a) 36 nm
b) 57.5 nm
c) 115 nm

97. The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 5º in 1.5 min. The time to beacon is
a) 18 min
b) 24 min
c) 30 min

98. With a TAS of 90 K the relative bearing on an ADF changes from 090 to 100 in 2.5 min. The
distance & time to beacon is
a) 15 nm, 22.5 min
b) 22.5 nm, 15 min
c) 32 nm, 18 min

99. The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 10º in 4 min. The fuel consumption is 11
Gal/Hr. The fuel to reach beacon is
a) 4.4 Gal
b) 8.4 Gal
c) 12 Gal

100. The ADF indicates a wing tip bearing change of 15º in 7.5 min. The fuel consumption is
9.6 GPH. TAS is 85 K. Time, distance &fuel to beacon is
a) 30 min, 42.5 nm, 4.8 Gal
b) 32 min, 48 nm, 5.58 Gal
c) 48 min, 48 nm, 4.58 Gal

101. Maintaining a constant heading the relative bearing doubles in 6 min. The time to beacon is
a) 6 min
b) 12 min
c) 18 min

102. Maintaining a constant heading the ADF reading changes from 045 to 090 in 5 min. TAS is
120, Fuel consumption is 15 GPH. Time, Distance & fuel to beacon is
a) 5 min, 10 nm, 1.25 Gal
 b) 6.7 min, 13.4 nm, 1.7 Gal
c) 10 min, 20 nm, 2.5 Gal

103. Maintaining a constant heading the ADF reading changes from 315 to 270 in 7 min. TAS is
110, Fuel consumption is 18 GPH. Time, Distance & fuel to beacon is
a) 7 min, 14 nm, 2 Gal
b) 7 min, 13 nm, 2.1 Gal
c) 9.3 min, 17.4 nm, 2.8 Gal

104. In bound on radial 090, Pilots rotates OBS 10 deg to the left & turns the aircraft to right by 10
deg & notes the time, while maintaining a constant heading it is noticed that the CDI is
centered in 8 minutes. Consider nil winds. Based on this you can conclude that the time to
station will be
a) 48 minutes
b) 8 minutes
c) 16 minutes
d) 24 minutes

RADIOAIDS

1. Wavelength is 1.5 Km. Find frequency

2. Frequency is 75 Mhz. Find the Wave length

3. Wave length is 3 meters. Find frequency

4. Express 100 Mhz in meters

5. The wavelength is 8 mm. Find frequency

6. The frequency is 200 Khz. Find wavelength

7. Static interference is maximum in which band

a) VHF b) LF c) UHF

8. The major factor which influences the sky wave propagation is

a) Power of transmitter
b) Terrain
c) Time of the day

9. Radio waves in SHF band mainly propagate by

a) Direct wave
b) Ground wave
c) Sky wave

10. In the ionosphere the F layer

a) Is the lowest ionized layer
b) Is at all times more weakly ionized than other layers
c) May be split in two layers during day

11. Radio waves ducting is more significant in which band

a) VLF & MF
b) VHF & above
c) MF & HF

12. The MUF between two specified points at a particular time is

a) The frequency which gives the least radio interference
b) The maximum frequency that can be used
c) The maximum frequency that can be reflected by the ionosphere

13. On heading270 at dawn you have a choice of frequency of 9 Mhz & 5 M

hz for HF communication. To contact the station ahead it will be better
to use
a) 9 Mhz for a station ahead
b) 5 Mhz for a station ahead
c) 5 Mhz for a station behind

14. For a given HF frequency the skip distance will normally

a) Be greater at night than by day
b) Be greater at day than by night
c) Will have no diurnal variation

15. SATCOM uses satellites which are

a) Polar orbiting
b) Equatorial orbiting
c) Geostationary
ADF/VOR.

1. On a X country flight you tune your ADF to ground station. It reads 290 (R).
What will you do to reach the ground station
a) Turn right by 290 deg
b) Turn left by 70 deg
c) Turn on to a heading of 290

2. You are homing to an NDB on a heading of 270. Drift is 8S. What will be
ADF reading

3. You are homing on ADF on a heading of 137. Drift is 7 P. What will be

ADF reading.

4. You are tracking out from a NDB. Drift is 6 P. What will be ADF reading.

5. An ac is on a Brg of 070 (M ) from ‘X’ it obtains LSR/BRG (R) of 315 from

station X. Find HDG (T), HDG(M), QDM, QTE and QDR, VAR 3W

6. An ac is on a true bearing of 127 from a beacon VAR 2E. Find

a) QTE
b) QDM
 c) QDR
d) RMI (Head & Tail)

7. In an a/c RMI (Head) shows 042 VAR 2W. Find

a) QTE
b) QDM
c) QDR
d) QUJ

8. An ac is on a VOR radial 015 VAR 5W. Find

a) TB of ac from the station
b) RMI reading (head & Tail)
c) QDM
d) If ac heading is 150 (M). What will be ADF reading (If NDB & VOR are co-
located)

9. If ADF maintains a steady indication 340 deg® while homing on VOR

radial 245. Find HDG (M) of the A/C & the drift, NDB & VOR are co-
located

10. After T/O from Delhi on a heading of 080 (T) RMI head reads 264, VAR
2W. Find
a) TMG (T)
b) TMG (M)
c) Drift
d) LSR reading from Delhi, If NDB is co-located with VOR

11. An ac on a heading of 050 (T) is tracking in on a VOR radial 248. OBS is

set at 068 VAR 10W. Find
a) CDI indication
b) RMI reading
c) Drift
d) ADF reading (If VOR & NDB are co-located)

12. An ac is homing on NDB Bombay. A/c is on Brg of 090 (T) from NDB and
observes a drift as 5 P, Dev 4 W Var 2 W. Find
a) ADF reading
b) RMI reading ( If VOR and NDB are co-located)
c) What QTE do you expect from Bombay ATC
d) What QDM do you expect from Bombay ATC

13. An ac is approaching Lucknow on a VOR radial 120. The pilot has selected
305 on OBS. To/ From shows TO. Find
a) RMI reading
b) What QTE do you expect from Lucknow (VAR 1W)
c) CDI indications
d) Direction to maintain the selected radial on OBS
 14. An ac after departing from Delhi is on a VOR radial 215. Delhi approach
asks to maintain radial 230. The pilot selects radial 230 on OBS and
proceeds towards Jaipur. Find
a) RMI reading at present
b) Which side the ac should turn to intercept radial 230
c) CDI reading
d) To/From indication

15. To check a VOR against VOT, which of the following will indicate that the
VOR is working with in normal limits
a) 360 TO
b) 180 FROM
c) 180 TO
d) It will depend whether the aircraft is to North or South of VOR

16. Which of the following OBS/CDI indications indicate that the aircraft is
with in 180 – 269 radials relative to VOR
a) 090 TO, Fly right
b) 270 TO, Fly left
c) 090 TO, Fly left
d) 270 TO, Fly Right

17. In a VOR the error due to ground propagation is 7 deg & the error in the air
borne equipment is 4.5 deg. Find the aggregate error
a) 7 deg b) 11.5 deg c) 2.5 deg d) 8.3 deg

18. To ensure that the aircraft remains within the airway limit the distance
between two VOR s should not be more than
a) 80 nm b) 60 nm c) 100 nm d) 120 nm

19. The VOR ground beacon is at 165 feet elevation. The aircraft is at flt level
135. Find the range of the VOR
a) 161 nm b) 129 nm c) 145 nm

20. At what altitude an aircraft will receive VOR signal at a range 130 nm. The
VOR beacon isat 500 feet elevation
a) 6725 feet b) 5225 feet c) 7575 feet

21. In a VOR the error due to ground propagation is 3.5 deg. The airborne
equipment is 3 deg. Find the aggregate error

22. Which one of the following nav aids are affected by site error
a) VOR
b) ADF
c) Doppler VOR
d) Both a & c

23. An aircraft VOR is tuned to station ‘A’ , OBS is selected to 075 CDI is
central, TO/FROM shows TO. At the same time ADF reads 012. If the NDB
& VOR are co-located, Find the heading & drift
 24. An aircraft is on a true bearing of 216 from a VOR, variation is 10 E. What
is the difference between reference signal & variable signal

25. An aircraft is on a heading 150 (M). The pilot selects 170 on OBS.
TO/FROM shows TO. The CDI is very close to maximum deflection
indicating right turn. What is the approximate position of the aircraft in
relation to the beacon

26. An aircraft is on a true bearing of 216 from a VOR variation is 10 W. Find

the phase difference between reference signal & variable signal

27. An aircraft is on a magnetic bearing of 216 from a VOR. Variation is 10 E.

Find phase difference between the reference signal & variable signal

28. An aircraft on heading of 060 (T), tracking to a VOR on radial 258, Var 10
W. What will ADF read if VOR & ADF are co-located

29. An aircraft is heading 060 (T) variation 10 E. AN NDB bears 200 ®. What is
RMI indication

30. An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8 deg port drift & is making
good a track 5 nm to the right of the centre line of the airway but parallel to
it. Find ADF reading from an NDB situated on the centre line of the airway
30 nm ahead

31. An aircraft is homing to a VOR drift 8 deg port, Variation at the VOR is 5 w
& variation at the aircraft position is 4 W. Give initial heading to maintain
radial 253

32. An aircraft is heading towards VOR “A” maintaining radial 130 drift 10 deg
port. NDB “B” is due east of VOR “A”. When the aircraft is abeam the NDB
the heading is altered for “B”. The new drift is 5 deg “S”. What will be the
RMI indications of A and B
a) Shortly before altering heading for “B”
b) Shortly after altering heading for “B”

33. An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 5 deg “S” drift, making good a
track parallel to the centre line of the airway but 5 nm to the right of the
centre line. Find ADF reading from an NDB situated 30 nm ahead on the
centre line of the airway

34. An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8 deg “P” drift making good a
track parallel to the centre line of the airway but 5 nm to the left. Find the
ADF reading from an NDB situated 30 nm ahead on the centre line of the
airway.
 35. An aircraft is to track into an NDB on a track of 030 (T). Presently the NDB
bears 070(M) from the aircraft. Variation 8 E, W/V 290(T)/20, TAS 180.
You fly heading 090 (T) till you intercept the required track. What will
a) ADF read when you have intercepted the required track
b) Be the HDG (M) to fly along the required track
c) ADF read when you fly along the required track
d) Be the expected QTE when you intercept the required track
e) Be the required QDM when you intercept the required track
f) Be the RMI reading when you have intercepted the required track

36. An aircraft is to track into a VOR on radial 240. Presently the RMI reading
reads 090. You fly heading 120 (M) till you intercept the radial. W/V 180/20
TAS 178 K Var 5 W. What will
a) Be OBS selection
b) TO/FROM indicator show
c) CDI indicate before and after joining the radial 240
d) Be Hdg (M) to maintain radial 240
e) RMI show when you have intercepted the radial 240
f) Be expected QTE when you have intercepted the radial 240
g) ADF read when you have intercepted radial 240 ( NDB is co-located with VOR)
h) ADF read when you are flying along radial 240

37. Outbound track from a VOR is 045 (T) Variation 10 W Dev 3 E W/V 290/20
TAS 180 K. NDB is co-located with VOR. What is
a) OBS selection
b) Hdg ( C ) to fly to maintain radial
c) TO/FROM indication
d) ADF reading when flying along radial
e) RMI reading when flying along radial
f) If after flying 45 nm, the CDI shows 3 dot deflection to the right ( 5 dot indicator
)
g) How many nm, is the aircraft off track
h) How much correction is required to converge to a point 90 nm, ahead

ILS / RADAR / DME

1. The frequency difference between LOM & LMM should not be

a) Less than 25 Khz
b) More than 25 Khz
c) Less than 15 Khz
d) Both b & c are correct

2. The type of emission for ILS localizer, glide slope & marker beacon is
a) AW8 b) A8W c) A9W d) PON
 3. At 2 nm from an ILS an aircraft gets half full scale deflection fly up indication.
A spot height below is 200 feet above the threshold level & the radio altimeter
reads 286 feet when over the spot height. Find the angle of glide slope

4. Fan makers are

a) Highly directional
b) Omini directional
c) Unidirectional

5. PRF is 250Hz. What is PRP

6. Frequency is 1000 Mhz. Radar pulse length is 3.5 micro seconds. Find the
number of cycles carried in one pulse

7. An echo is received back in 500 micro seconds. What is the distance in Km of

the object reflecting it

8. Radar range is 185 Km. Find PRP

9. The PRF of Radar is 1000hz. Find the maximum range in nm

10. Radar range is 200 nm. Find the maximum PRR

11. The PRR of Radar is 380 PPS. Find the range in nm

12. An aircraft is at a flight level 150. The DME is at sea level. Find maximum &
minimum range

13. Type of emission of DME is

a) AW8 b) PON c) A9W d) A8W

14. DME operates in which band

a) VLF b) LF c) UHF d) VHF

15. On a DME with digital presentation the failure indication is given by

a) Distance to go indication returning to zero
b) A drop down bar falling across the face of the figures
c) Distance to go indications oscillating at figures excess of 200nm

16. The range indicated by the DME is

a) Ground range
b) Slant range
c) Ground range only if the DME is co-located with the VOR

17. If the VOR & DME have separate identification codes of VON & VOZ for
VOR & DME respectively, it means that
a) VOR & DME are co-located
b) VOR & DME are not co-located but are serving the same location and may be
used in conjunction with each other
c) VOR & DME beacons are entirely at different locations
 18. An aircraft is at 40000 feet. DME reads 80 nm. Find ground distance from the
beacon

19. An aircraft is reporting over the DME at flight level 300. The DME is at sea
level. What is the DME indication

20. An aircraft is at 24320 feet at a ground range of 30 nm. What is the DME
indication

21. The use of AWR on the ground is

a) Totally prohibited
b) Unrestrictedly permitted in the aerodrome maintenance area
c) Only permitted with certain precautions to safeguard the health of personnel & to
protect the equipment

22. The main purpose of hold switch on an AWRis

a) To asses storm movement
b) To asses storm potential development
c) To asses storm potential rate of decay

23. On a colored AWR the heaviest precipitation is shown by

a)Green echo
b)Yellow echo
c)Red echo

24. When using iso echo contour circuit the area of maximum turbulence is ( B&W
Radar)
a)Black surrounded by yellow color
b)Yellow color in maximum brightness
c)Black color

25. To measure the movement of thunderstorm when using the AWR select
a)Motion switch
b)Track switch
c)Hold switch

26. AWR operates on SHF band because

a)Large droplets give good reflection from 3 cm wavelength, while small droplets do
not give reflection
b)Enables equipment to be powerful & light enough to be installed in aircraft nose
zone
c)It enables narrow beam width to obtain the required degree of definition

RADIO ALT /GPS/ TCAS

27. Radio altimeter operates up to a height of

a)2500 feet
b)1500 feet
c)500 feet
 28. The mean frequency on which the radio altimeter operates is
a)4200 Mhz
b)4300 Mhz
c)4400 Mhz

29. Radio altimeter operates on

a)VHF band
b)SHF band
c)VLF band

30. A DH setting knob & DH setting indicator

a)Can only be integrated in a radio altimeter if it is a part of EFIS
b)Is usually incorporated in modern radio altimeters
c)Is a separate installation from the radio altimeter

31. The formula used to determine the height displayed on the radio altimeter is that
the difference in frequency equals the rate of change of frequency
a)Times half the time taken
b)Times the time taken
c)Times twice the time taken

32. GPS is a
a)Satellite based communication system
b)Satellite based navigation systrm
c)Long range navigation system

33. The GPS fixes the position by means of

a)Simultaneous bearing from a number of satellites
b)Range & bearing from each known satellite position
c)Simultaneous ranges froma number of satellite

34. In TCAS, RA stands for

a)Radar advisory
b)Resolution advisory
c)Radar active
d)Range advisory

35. In a TCAS, TA stands for

a)Traffic advisory
b)Threat advisory
c)Temporary advisory