ALL IN DIA INSTITUTE OF SPEECH AND HEARING

MANASAGANGOTHRI
MYSORE 570 006

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2012 - 13

M.Sc. (SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY)

Time: 100 minutes Max. Marks 100

Instructions : Answer all the questions

Each question carries one mark
Use ball point pen with black ink
Do not overwrite

Select the most appropriate answer from among the four alternatives given and
indicate it by marking an 'X' in the box adjacent to the correct answer (in the answer
sheet). For example, if c) is the correct answer for a given question. then indicate your
answer as shown below:
a) b) c) d)

••
I. Main difference between a condensor microphone and an electret microphone is

a) Transduction mechanism is c) Transient response is very good

different
b) Externally applied biased voltage d) All of the above
is eliminated

2. Large set ears, prominent jaw and long face are the features of

a) Waardenburg syndrome c) Fragile X syndrome

b) Usher's syndrome d) Down syndrome

3. Presence of 'gag reflex ' suggests the adequacy of the following cranial nerves

a) IX,X, & XI c) X,XI, & XII

b) IX,X,XI, & XII d) IX & X

4. TACTS are reinforced by

a) Secondary reinforcers c) Primary reinforcers

b) Social reinforcers d) Both a) and b)

5. The 'Final Common Pathway' is often referred to as

a) Upper Motor Neuron System c) Motor Unit

b) Lower Motor Neuron System d) Motor Neuron Junction
6. The function of an antialiasing filter is to

a) Attenuate all frequencies above c) Attenuate all frequencies other

Nyquist frequency than the Nyquist frequency
b) Attenuate all frequencies below d) Attenuate only Nyquist frequency
Nyquist frequency

7. Lack of initiative in speech motor act which is generally due to lesion in the
anterior or mesial portions of the frontal lobes leads to this character

a) Akathesia c) Dysynergia
b) Abulia d) Dysmetria

8. The 3 paired laryngeal cartilages are:

a) Thyroid, cricoid and epiglotis c) Thyroid , cricoid and arytenoid

b) Arytenoid, corniculate & d) All of the above
cuneiform

9. The site of lesion in most persons with fluent aphasias is located in

a) Anterior aspect of perisylvian c) Posterior aspect of perisylvian

region region
b) Anterior aspect of angular gyrus d) Posterior aspect of angular gyrus

I 0. TORCH, the risk factors is an abbreviation for a group of

a) Viruses c) Bacterias
b) Enzymes d) Anti-bodies

11. According to Van Riper stuttering is a

a) Genetic disorder c) Sequencing and timing disorder

b) Prosodic disorder d) Operant disorder

12. The 'Point-Place System' of assessment of dysarthric errors was proposed by

a) Rosenbek & La Pointe (1983) c) Kent & Netsell (1975)

b) Netsell (1973) d) Rosenbek ( 1985)

13. Jejunostomy is a surgical procedure in which feeding tube is inserted into

a) Internal surface of stomach wall c) External surface of stomach wall

b) Small intestine d) Oesophagus

14. In persons with stuttering one may find the following type of EGG waveform

a) Sinusoidal c) Fuzzy
b) Arched d) Sawtooth

2
15. Brief, unsustained, recurrent, compulsive movements that involve a relatively
small part of the body is characteristic of

a) Dystonia c) Tics
b) Clonic jerks d) Tremor

16. Documentation of practicum work by SLPs in a school setting includes

a) IEP, IFSP, PLEP c) SOAP, LP, IEP

b) IEP, SOAP, IFSP d) All of the above

17. The two concepts which are important in the operant model for speech language
development are

a) Neurological and genetic c) Genetic and biological

b) Imitation and practice d) None of the above

18. Moebius syndrome is a condition that leads to dysarthria due to lesions in

a) VII and IX cranial nerve c) VI and VII cranial nerve

b) V and VI cranial nerve d) V and VII cranial nerve

19. Which of the following cannot be called as a Non-speech-like vocalization?

a) groaning c) Burps
b) hiccups d) Canonical babbling

20. Delayed auditory feedback technique

a) facilitates disfluency in stutterers c) facilitates fluency in normal

speake.rs
b) helps to monitor oral-sensory d) All the above
feedback cues in speech
mechanism

21. 'Reverse breathing pattern' is most commonly observed in this group of persons
with cerebral palsy

a) Dyskinesia c) Ataxia
b) Spastic d) Rigidity

22. When a Speech-language pathologist provides a rich array of language models for
a child in a noninvasive natural fashion, such child centered therapy techn ique is
known as

a) Self talk c) Parallel talk

b) Description d) Expansion

23. The oral motor and oral sensory symptoms in children with apraxia of speech is
typically addressed using the following

a) Sensory exercises c) Non verbal exercises

b) Verbal exercises d) Non speech exercises

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24. Three divisions of CNS as per Luria

a) Reticular activating system, c) Cortex, sub-cortex, spinal cord

Posterior cortex, anterior cortex
b) Spinal cord, poster ior cortex, d) Right hemisphere, left
anterior cortex hemisphere, cerebellar hemisphere

25. Discrepancy in diagnostic labeling of child language disorders is addressed in

service delivery by

a) Medical Model c) Response to Intervention Model

b) Behavioral Model d) Educational Model

26. Receptors that are primarily sensitive to salt and sweet are situated in the

a) Anterior region of the tongue c) Posterior region of tongue

b) Lateral region of the tongue d) Dorsal region of the tongue

27. Positive and negative reinforceme nts are used to

a) Decrease the frequency of target c) Increase the frequency of non-

behavior target behavior
b) Increase the frequency of target d) Decrease the frequency of non-
behavior target behavior

28. If English speech sounds were to be classified based on duration , the increasing
order of arrangement of the sound class would be

a) Vowels, affricatives, stops, nasals c) Vowels , nasal s, affricates, stops

b) Stops, nasals , affricates, vowels d) Stops, affricates, nasals, vowels

29. Which of these is a condition leading to dysarthria along with akinetic-rigid

syndrome, pseudo bulbar palsy and dementia of frontal type?

a) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c) Nuclear palsy

b) Parkinson 's disease d) Progressive supra nuclear pal sy

30. Malocclusion characterized by prematu re occlusion of posterior teeth and the

absence of anterior occlusion is

a) Open bite c) Under bite

b) Cross bite d) Over bite

31. Clefts of the secondary palate occur in structures that are

a) Anterior to the incisive foramen c) Maxillary arch

b) Soft pa late d) Posterior to the incisive fora:nen

32. A low peaked normal probability curve is called

a) Leptokurtic c) Skewed
b) Platykurtic d) Flattened

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33. Morphometric analysis of brain structure within an anatomical region may be
carried out using the procedure

a) Autopsy c) X-Ray
b) MRI d) Cortical stimulation

34. Stroking forward along the side of the neck and up under the mandible is a way of
initiating the tolerance for tongue movement in a child with the following
condition

a) Retracted tongue c) Hypotone tongue

b) Protruded tongue d) Involuntary movements of the
tongue

35. If a child says /do/ for /go/ such phonological processes is labeled as

a) Backing c) Velar fronting

b) Gliding d) None of the above

36. Presence of depression and catastrophic reaction are most commonly seen in
persons with

a) Global aphasias c) Broca's Aphasias

b) Wernicke 's Aphasias d) Both a) and b)

37. The most common prosthetic method of treating velopharyngeal dysfunction in

dysarthric speakers involves

a) Obturator c) Speech Bulb

b) Palatal lift d) All of the above

38. Technique used to record the timing and location of the tongue's contact with the
hard palate is called

a) Electropalatography c) Videoflouroscopy
b) Electromagnetic articulography d) Glossometry

39. Chewing characterized by a rhythmical opening and closing, bite and release
pattern that occur stereotypically and automatically as the teeth and gums are
stimulated is called as

a) Diagonal rotary pattern c) Stereotyped vertical pattern

b) Non stereotyped vertical pattern d) Circular rotary pattern

40. A procedure that uses LED to establish distance between tongue and palata l vault
in the oral cavity is

a) MRI c) Palatograph
b) Glossometry d) Electropalatograph

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41. Paraplegia is a type of paralysis/paresis in which

a) All four limbs are affected c) Hal f of one limb is affected

b) Limbs on one side of the body are d) Only lower limbs are affected
affected

42. This structure in the brain acts as a 'comparator' for sensory motor information

a) Primary motor cortex c) Thalamus

b) Cerebellum d) Brain stem

43. Unit of sound making up a particul ar phoneme is

a) Allophone c) Phonetics
b) Phonemics d) Phon

44. Estimation of population parameters and tests of hypothesis categorically signify

a) Statistics c) Parametric
b) Statistical inference d) Non parametric

45. Reflux induced symptoms referred to the oropharyngeal, laryngeal and respiratory
tracts is called as

a) Gastro Esophageal reflux c) Stress induced reflux

b) Laryngopharyngeal reflux d) Tracheo esophageal reflux

46. Study of how sounds are produced is

a) Acoustic phonetics c) Articulat ory phonetics

b) Auditory phonetics d) All the above

47. The embryonic period that is crucial in determining the occurrence of cleft lip and
palate ends at around

a) 8 weeks of gestation c) 4 weeks of gestation

b) 6 weeks of gestation d) 12 weeks of gestation

48. A procedure that is used to distinguish sensori-motor from a linguistic disorder of

articulation is

a) Oral-Peripheral Examination c) Auditory discrimination

b) Diadochokineti c rate d) Oral stereogno sis

49. Soft palate is a

a) Passive articulator c) Active articulator

b) Semi-passive articulator d) Semi-active articulator

50. The traditi onal basis for describing the severity of cleft type is

a) Length of the cleft c) Width of the cleft

b) Co morbid signs d) Length and width of the cleft

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51. The study of speech sound production and special symbols that represent speech
sounds is known as

a) Phonetics c Phonemics
b) Language Pathology d Both a) and b)

52. Which of these is not a part of the extrapyramidal system?

a) Reticulospinal c) Vestibulospinal
b) Rubrospinal d) Mesencephalospinal

53. The type of error commonly expected on sounds [f] [v] in persons with cleft
palate is:

a) Nasal emission c) Nasal snort

b) Pharyngeal fricative d) Glottal stop

54. Tongue thrust refers to the frequent

a) Protrusion of the tongue between c) Pushing of the tongue against the

the upper and lower teeth inner surface of the front teeth
b) Pushing of tongue between the d) Both a) and c)
lower and upper lips

55. The maneuver which involves pinching the nose, closing the lips, opening the
velopharyngeal port and blowing with increased intra-thoracic pressure keeping
the vocal folds abducted is:

a) Valsalva c) Nasal air pressure

b) Oral air pressure d) Intra oral pressure

56. The 'primitive reflexes' seen in typically developing children can be included
under one of these characteristic patterns of development:

a) Development proceeds from c) Development is continuous

general to specific responses
b) Development is similar for all d) Development proceeds at
different rates

57. Production of consonants by the moveme nt of the back of tongue near the soft
palate results in

a) Linguapalatal sound c Linguadental sound

b) Linguavelar sound d Both a) and c)

58. Symbols, aids, strategies and techniques are integrated in:

a) Auditory-verbal approach c) AAC

b) Acoupedic approach d) Both b) and c)

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59. Which one of these is not an important component that facilitates functional
language in AAC u sers?

a) Rejection and protest c) References and description

b) Confirmation/Negation d) Vocal program

60. If a clinician works with other disciplines and participates in regu lar meetings
with other professional s about the intervention program, such model is termed as

a) Within discipline model c) Interdisciplinary model

b) Transdisciplinary model d) Both a) and b)

61. Alternate use of both langua ges in daily interaction, even within a single utterance
by bilingual s is called as

a) Lexical recycling c) Language shift

b) Coded language d) Code-switching

62. The Latin word "grammar " in linguistics is related to this term

a) Spell c) Cognition
b) Glamour d) Linguistics

63. Dyslexia is a specific learning disability that is

a) Psychological in origin c) Neurological in origin

b) Environmental in origin d) Metabolic in origin

64. The only abductor muscle of the larynx is

a) Thyroarytenoid c) Posterior Cricoarytenoid

b) Cricothyroid d) Lateral Cricoarytenoid

65. The computer based instrument that measures the relative amount of nasal
acoustic energy in a person 's speech is

a) Nasopharyngoscopy c) Pressure techn ique

b) Pressure-airflow technique d) Nasometer

66. The research design that is used to study a group that is given different treatmen ts
at different times or is measured at different times is

a) Single group mult iple baseline c) Multiple baseline design

design
b) Single group repeated trials design d) Single group design

67. Airflow therapy was proposed by

a) Azrin c) Martin Schwartz

b) Brady d) Adams

8
68. An opening about the diameter of a finger or thumb made surgically into the neck
that allows a person to breathe directly through the trachea is referred to as

a) Tracheostoma c) Tracheo -esophageal puncture

b) Stoma d) Tracheal punct ure

69. Which one of these is not a part of the goal in treat ing children with athetosis
using NDT approach?

a) Facilitation of co-contraction c) Reduction of high tone

b) Inhibition of intermittent spasms d) Facilitation of small ranges of
movement

70. Theoretical basis for prompting , fading, shaping, and chaining is derived from

a) Cognitive theory of language c) Behavioral theory of language

acquisition acquisition
b) Social-interaction theory of d) All of the above
language acquisition

71. The first electronic larynx conceived by Gluck in 1905 was

a) Mouth type device c) Pneumatic Art ificial larynx

b) Neck type larynx d) Electronic mouth type artificial
larynx

72. The concepts, 'internalized language' and 'externalized language' were proposed
by this person as a part of his/her theory.

a) Noam Chomsky c) Vygotsky

b) Piaget d) Alfred

73. Translating question responses and respondent information to specific categories

for the purpose of anal ysis is cal led as

a) Translating c) Short listing

b) Coding d) Crypting

74. Vocal nodules generally form at the

a) Junction of anterior third and c) Junction of the anterior two-thirds

posterior two-thirds of the vocal and posterior third of the vocal
cords cord
b) Middle of the vocal cord d) Anywhere on the vocal cord

75. Consanguineou s marriages increase the risk of

a) Homozygosity c) Both homo and heterozygocity

b) Heterozygocity d) None of the above

9
76. Circle of Willis is formed by

a) Anterior cerebral artery and c) Middle cerebral artery and

Posterior cerebral arteries Posterior cerebral arteries
b) Right and left carotid arteries d) Communicating arteries at the
base of the brain

77. A bio-psychological model of classification system developed by WHO is

a) ICD-10 c) APA
b) DSM IV d) ICF

78. The following is the cause of stuttering, according to the recent research

a) Nature c) Nurture
b) Nature and nurture d) None of the above

79. How can one stop phonation ?

a) Over adduct the vocal folds c) Decrease subglottal or increase

supra glottal pressure
b) Over abduct the vocal folds d) All of the above

80. Incidence measures which one of the following?

a) New cases of disease that develop c) Existing cases of disease that

over a period of time develop at a particular point of time
b) Existing cases of a disease d) All of the above

81. Right handed persons with right hemisphere lesion is typically diagnosed as

a) Isolation aphasia c) Mixed aphasias

b) Crossed aphasia d) Broca's aphasia

82. By increasing the vocal intensity , the strength of the higher harmonics is
increased. This result in a spectral 'roll off that is less steep, implying stronger
higher harmonics . The psychophysical effect of this phenomenon will lead to
perceptually a

a) Brighter sound c) Turbulent sound

b) Dull sound d) Fuzzy soft sound

83. Given S= 400 and WPM = 150, calculate Disfluency Index

a) 267 c) 26.67
b) 2.67 d) 0.267

84. The type of guardianship considered under National Trust Act is

a) Guardian for the person with c) Local guardian

disability
b) Guardian for persons with d) Both a) and b)
disabil ity and property

10
85. If through a muscular action, the arytenoid-to-thyroid space is increased, what
would be the effect on vocal pitch?

a) Pitch increase c) Pitch stabilize

b) Pitch decrease d) No change happens to vocal pitch

86. Covert repair hypothesis is based on

a) Demands capacities model c) Auditory feedback theory

b) Levelt's model d) Ex-plan model

87. Which of the following are not considered as transient ischemic attack symptoms?

a) Amnesia, confusion, and diplopia c) Transient aphasia

alone
b) Transient loss of vision d) Hemi- sensory changes

88. What determines the intensity of the voice?

a) Mass of vocal folds c) Resistance at glottis

b) Tension of vocal folds d) All of the above

89. Anasognosia , denial of impairment and left neglect are symptoms of

a) Dementia c) Subcortical aphasia

b) Right Hemisphere Disorder d) Schizophrenia

90. Smaller variations in frequency range while speaking or singing is best expressed in
a) Mels c) Semitones
b) Barks d) Octaves

91. Normal rate of speech is

a) 80-200 WPM c) 80-180 WPM

b) 50-150 WPM d) 100-180 WPM

92. Under normal conditions of phonation, the amplitude of horizontal excursion of

vocal folds is usually
rd
a) l/3 the width of voca l folds c) I/4th the width of vocal folds
rd
b) 2/3 the width of vocal folds d) 2/4thh the width of vocal folds

93. Neuronal unmasking, diaschisis and neuronal sprouting

a) Facilitates neural mechanism of c) Hinders neural mechanism of

recovery in persons with brain recovery in persons with brain
damage damage
b) Completely Blocks Neural d) Both a) and c)
mechanism of recovery in
persons with brain damage

11
94. In a patient with bilateral vocal cord polyp in the medial edge of the vocal fold,
one would not expect

a) Decreased closing time in EGG c) Normal EGG

b) Increased opening time in EGG d) Increased closing time in EGG

95. Clinical Epidemiology focuses on application of epidemiologic principles to

questions that relate to:

a) Diagnosis c) Therapy
b) Prognosis d) All of the above

96. Measures of rise time gives information about

a) Vocal attack c) Voicing periodicity

b) Phonatory adductory range d) Phonatory adductory power

97. Mental growth is rapid in early childhood and slows down around

a) 6-7 years c) 15-16 years

b) 12-13 years d) 18-20 years

98. Hyperaemia is an excessive flow or accumulation of

a) Urea c) Blood
b) Lymph d) Tear

99. Parameters of fluency include the following:

a) rate, continuity, and c) effort, continuity, and

meaning pronunciation
d) effort, continuity, and meaning
b) rate, continuity, and effort

I 00. As per RTI Act the time limit for providing information is

a) 30 working days after the receipt c) 60 working days after the receipt
of the payment and application of the payment and application
b) 45 working days after the receipt d) 75 working days after the receipt
of the payment and application of the payment and application

12
-
SLP 001
ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF SPEECH AND HEARING
MANASAGANGOTHRI
MYSORE 570 006

M.Sc. (SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY)

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2013-14

Time: 90 minutes Max. Marks 100

Instructions: Answer all the questions

Each question carries one mark
Use ball point pen with black ink
Do not overwrite
Each wrong answer will have a negative marking of 0.25

Select the most appropriate answer from among the four alternatives given and
indicate it by mark ing an 'X' in the box adjacent to the correct answer (in the answer sheet).
For example, if c) is the correct answer for a given question, then indicate your answer as
shown below:
a) b) c) d)

**
I. Carotid artery, jugular venous drainage system and facial nerve passes through

a) temporal bone c) sphenoid bone

b) occipital bone d) parietal bone

2. Features of mouth breathing, open mouth posture , dribbling of saliva, high arched
palate, snoring along with altered resonance, and dysphonia in a child is indicative of

a) adenoid hypertrophy c) tonsillitis

b) submucous cleft d) pharyngitis

3. The shape of the chest at birth is

a) elliptical c) round
b) barrel-shaped d) no particular shape

4. The brainstem consists of

a) cerebrum, midbrain and c) spinal cord, basal ganglia and

cerebellum thalamus
b) midbrain, pons and medulla d) thalamus, midbrain and medulla
oblongata oblongata
5. Loss of a part of the short arm of chromosome 5 is associated with

a) Patau syndrome c) Cri-du-chat syndrome

b) Klinefelter's syndrome d) Fragile-X-syndrome

6. Prevalence is best defined as

a) the rate at which new cases c) the number of cases at a given

develop time
b) the duration of illness d) the number of new cases over a
defined time period

7. The most appropriately written reference as per APA6 is

a) Hanyun, H., & Leung, L. (2009). c) Hanyun, H., & Leung, L. (2009).
Instant messaging addiction among Instant Messaging Addiction
teenagers in China Journal of Among Teenagers in China.
Psychological Research, 12(6), Journal of psychological research,
675-679. 12(6), 675-679.
b) Hanyun, H., & Leung, L. (2009). d) Hanyun , H., & Leung, L. (2009).
Instant messaging addiction Instant Messaging Addiction
among teenagers in China.- Among Teenagers in China
Joumal of Psychological Research, Journal of psychological
12(6), 675-679. research, 12(6), 675-679.

8. The p 1enomenon in which the members of the treatment group change their behavior
not because of the treatment, but because they know they are getting special treatment
is called as

a) main effect c) testing effect

b) hawthome effect d) ceiling effect

9. The two most popular levels of confidence associated with confidence intervals are

a) 95%, 99% c) 95%, 100%

b) 90%, 95% d) 100% ' 90%

10. The commonest site for carcinoma of the larynx is

a) epiglottis c) false vocal cords

b) true vocal cords d) subglottis

11. Sounds produced involving the tip I the blade of the tongue are called

a) dorsals c) coronals
b) obstruents d) sonorants

2
12. Primary progressive aphasia is

a) a degenerative disorder of c) due to stroke

language
b) due to dementia d) all of the above

13. Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination Test is developed by

a) Schuell c) Samo
b) Goodglass & Kaplan d) Kertesz & McCabe

14. Articulatory errors seen in the speech of children with cerebral palsy is due to

a) planning/programming problem c) psychological problem

b) neuromotor problem d) all of the above

15. The critical skills required for reading are

a) segmenting and blending c) auditory discrimination

b) rhyming & phonics d) neither a) nor b)

16. The primary motor cortex is immediately in front of

a) the fissure of Rolando c) Both a) and b)

b) the fissure of Sylvius d) None of the above

17. The mean length of utterance refers to the of a language

a) form c) use
b) content d) all of the above

18. Phonological awareness skills are the best predictors of

a) spelling abilities c) oral language abilities

b) arithmetical abilities d) all of the above

19. The acquisition of phobia for dogs by observing another child can be best explained by

a) behavioral model c) humanistic model

b) psychodynamic model d) medical model

20. Early identification is

a) primary prevention c) tertiary prevention

b) secondary prevention d) all of the above

3
21. SOAP in therapeutic intervention refers to

a) Student Oriented Assessment c) Subjective Objective Assessment

Protocol Plan
b) Self Oriented Ability Program d) Subject Oriented Assessment
Program

22. Negative reinforcers

a) increase the desired behavior c) maintain the desired behavior

b) decrease the desired behavior d) mcrease or decrease the desired
behavior

23. Cycle to cycle variation in T is

a) jitter c) amplitude perturbation

b) shimmer d) duration perturbation

24. International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health is developed by

a) UNICEF c) UNCRPD
b) WHO d) UNESCO

25. Decreased awareness of deficits or disabilities often seen in right hemisphere damage is
referred to as

a) prosopagnosia c) stereognosia
b) anosognosia d) hemianopia

26. A neuro muscular disorder commonly seen in women, characterized by chronic fatigue
and muscle weakness is

a) Amyotropic lateral sclerosis c) Alzheimer's disease

b) Parkinson's disease d) Myaesthenia Gravis

27. The procedure which involves the removal of one vertical half of the larynx including
one false vocal fold, ventricle and true vocal fold is known as

a) supraglottic laryngectomy c) subtotal hemilaryngectomy

b) hemilaryngectomy d) cordectomy

28. The prosthesis which is frequently used for patients with neurological impairment of
velar movement is

a) speech bulb c) palatal lift

b) palatal obturator d) meatus type of prosthesis

4
29. The muscle which provides the main muscle mass of the velum is

a) Levator veli palatine c) Musculus uvulae

b) Palatoglossus d) Palatal pharyngeus

30. PE segment refers to the portion of

a) muscle fibres from the inferior c) muscle fibres from the

constrictor, cricopharyngeus and cricopharyngeus and the
the esophagus esophagus
b) muscle fibres from the tongue, d) none of the above
pharynx and esophagus

31. Insuflation test kit is used to

a) assess esophageal speech c) to assess the tonicity of PE

segment
b) open the TE puncture d) to measure the length of the PE
segment

32. The type of articulatory errors seen on the glides /r/ and /l/ in children with unoperated
cleft lip and palate are

a) glottal stop c) pharyngeal stop

b) distortions d) substitutions

33. Intraoral adaptation device is an accessory used during the teaching of

a) artificial larynx c) TEP speech

b) esophageal speech d) none of the above

34. In Asai technique, the second stage involves

a) formation of tube of skin with c) suturing the open end of the

lower end opening trachea
b) creating a fistula into the pharynx d) creation of treacheal stoma

35. Blowing and sucking exercises are representative of the following muscle training

a) semidirect c) indirect
b) direct d) biofeedback

36. In the pair of words 'Keep-Coop', the variations in phoneme lkl is referred to as
a) phonetic c) allophonic
b) phonemic d) semantic

5
37. Manner of consonant articulation refers to

a) location of constriction c) vocal fold vibration

b) degree I type of closure d) none of these

38. The word 'sneezed' is a good example for

a) carry over co-articulation c) anticipatory co-articulation

b) allophonic changes d) retentive co-articulation

39. According to ________ phonology theory, children suppress phonological

processes as they grow.

a) Generative c) Non-linear phonology

b) Natural d) Biological theory

40. 'Fronting error' is a

a) assimilative process c) syllable structure process

b) substitution process d) consonant harmony

41. If the ratio of male to female vocal tract is 1 :1.2, given F 1 in a male subject is 720
Hz; the corresponding F 1 in the female is

a) 740 Hz c) 864 Hz
b) 806 Hz d) 766 Hz

42. Deep tests of articulation are meant for

a) stimulability testing c) connected speech testing

b) contextual testing d) citation form testing

43. PMLU measures are based on the production of

a) segments c) syllables
b) whole words d) sentences

44. Diacritics are used in

a) phonemic transcription c) verbatim transcription

b) phonetic transcription d) broad transcription

45. The greatest susceptibility for stuttering is for

a) male offspring of male PWS c) female offspring of male PWS

b) male offspring of female PWS d) female offspring of female PWS

6
46. In the covert repair hypothesis, monitoring takes place

a) before the formulation of the c) after the formulation of the

phonetic plan phonetic plan
b) during the formulation of the d) after the execution of the phonetic
phonetic plan plan

47. The correlation between the duration of phonemes and length of utterance is

a) duration reduces in longer c) no cmTelation

utterance
b) duration increases in longer d) all of the above
utterance

48. Majority of children with cluttering fall in of Van Riper's tracks

a) track I c) track III

b) track II d) track IV

49. Feedback controls are implicated in

a) Servo theory c) Covert repair hypothesis

b) Cybernetic theory d) All of the above

50. The main dependent variable in most of the efficacy studies of stuttering is

a) frequency of stuttering c) physical concomitants

b) duration of stuttering d) severity of stuttering

51. The approaches to the study of heredity in stuttering involve

a) twin studies c) adoption studies

b) family studies d) all of the above

52. The larynx never ossifies completely according to Claassen and Kirsch (1994)

a) male c) female
b) primate d) infant

53. A regimen focusing on reduction or elimination of behaviours that contribute to the

cause/ maintenance of voice disorder and by adhering to them, improves tissue
characteristics and vocal fold vibrations is

a) relaxation c) vocal hygiene

b) resonant voice therapy d) voice rest

54. When the vocal folds are open, the oral pressure and subglottal pressure are roughly

a) equivalent c) negative
b) positive d) none of the above

7
55. Information about the status of the tissue situated between the mucosa and vocalis
muscle can be obtained by

a) mucosa! wave c) symmetry of vocal fold vibrations

b) colour of the vocal folds d) vibratory amplitude

56. The simultaneous forward and upward movement of the sternum mcreases the
diameter of the rib cage

a) anterior-posterior c) lateral-medial
b) internal-external d) inferior-superior

57. Normal adult male breaths 12 times per minute consuming 5 litres of air/min . When
carrying out heavy work, his breathing rate increases to 21 times per minute. Calculate
the amount of air consumed.

a) 5000 litres c) 8750 litres

b) 1750 litres d) 4000 litres

58. Which of the following instruments work based on the Talbot's Law?

a) video kymography c) video stroboscopy

b) video laryngoscopy d) all of the above

59. This reflex is elicited by tapping on the examiner 's finger that is placed against the
patient's chin.

a) Open bite c) Snouting

b) Jaw jerk d) Rooting

60. Which cranial nerve is activated when a slow, normal and rapid repetition of /ta/ and
/ka/ is performed?

a) X c) V
b) IX d) XII

61. A movement disorder that occurs due to prolonged intake of drugs is

a) chorea c) spasmodic torticollis

b) tardive dyskinesia d) ballism

62. Eight step continuum treatment program proposed by Rosenbek et.al is applicable for

a) persons with childhood apraxia c) persons with acquired apraxia

b) persons with childhood dysarthria d) persons with acquired dysarthria

8
63. "Cerebral palsy which is traditionally classified as a motor disorder is also
characterized by sensory processing deficits". This statement is

a) true c) not always true

b) false d) not always false

64. The word 'FTT' is used with reference to few children with neurom otor disorders and
this stands for

a) Failure To Thrive c) Feeding Time Training

b) Feeding Through Tube d) Failure To Thrust

65. VOCA stands for:

a) Verbal Output Communication Aid c) Vocal Output Communication

Aid
b) Voice Output Communication Aid d) Vocal Output Cum Aid

66. Vocabulary that is unique to the individual AAC user is called

a) core vocabulary c) central vocabulary

b) fringe vocabulary d) border vocabulary

67. The biologic predisposition for speech and language development is indicated by

a) variety of prelinguistic skills c) rate of growth in infancy

b) early stimulation by the family d) sensory development

68. Autism is placed under the category of Pervasive Developmental Disorders lying
between mental retardation and specific developmental disorders as per the
classification system proposed in:

a) DSM IV c) ICD-9
b) DSM III d) WHO

69. The inherited condition leading to mental retardation is

a) Waardenburg syndrome c) Usher syndrome

b) Fragile X syndrome d) Down syndrome

70. When deceleration of head growth occurs between 5 & 48 months after normal
prenatal and perinatal development, the resulting condition is known as

a) Rett's disorder c) Mental retardation

b) Fragile X disorder d) None of the above

71. Service delivery models in schools should consider the following variables

a) Setting variables c) Student variables

b) Clinician and teacher variables d) All of the above

0
72. The triad of disorders in autism are

a) hyperactivity, aloofness and c) communication, social interaction

mental retardation and imagination
b) aloofness, hyperactivity and d) all the above
communication

73. The ratio of the number of different words to the total number of words used as a
measure of vocabulary and word retrieval is called as

a) C-Unit c) T-Unit
b) TTR d) MLU

74. Theory of Mind (ToM) is generally assessed using

a) observation c) language analysis

b) false-belief tasks d) history

75. Maturation of the subjects is a threat to

a) external validity c) reliability

b) internal validity d) none of these

76. Pretest-posttest control group design is a

a) true experimental design c) single subject design

b) quasi experimental design d) time series design

77. Double blind investigations are for eliminating

a) biasing influences c) systematic errors

b) measurement error d) sampling errors

78. According to the WHO, the sequence of illness related phenomena is

a) Impairment-Disability-Handicap c) Handicap- Impairment-Disability

b) Disability- Impairment-Handicap d) Handicap- Disability- Impairment

79. Maintenance of Central Rehabilitation Register for rehabilitation professionals/

personnel is one of the functions of

a) The PWD Act c) The RCI Act

b) The National Trust Act d) The UNCRPD Act

80. The National Trust Act (1999) is for the welfare of

a) persons with cerebral palsy c) persons with mental retardation

and multiple disabilities
b) persons with autism d) all of the above

10
81. The mesiofrontal cortex which helps in speech initiation is

a) primary motor area c) secondary motor area

b) supplementary motor area d) pre motor area

82. The hypo and hyper functional features seen in basal ganglia disorders is specifically
attributed to lesion in the following areas

a) substantia nigra pars compacta & c) globus pallidus interior &

globus pallidus exterior substantia nigra pars reticulata
b) substantia nigra pars reticulata & d) globus pallidus exterior &
substantia nigra pars compacta globus pallidus interior

83. This technique aims to rescale the magnitude of speech motor output through sustained
phonation, increased loudness and continuous feedback on performance and is proved
to be effective in treating one common variety of adult dysarthria

a) vocal retraining c) MPD

b) LSVT d) vital stimulation

84. Damage to the Xthh nerve as it leaves the body of the brainstem, but within the cranial
cavity is referred to as

a) intramedullary lesion c) extacranial lesion

b) extramedullary lesion d) none of the above

85. The approach that is used in the treatment of apraxia, in which a behavior or a system is
improved by involving elements of intact or more nearly intact system is

a) intersystemic reorganization c) systemic interaction

b) intrasystemic reorganization d) system approach

86. Lesion in the vermis of cerebellar hemispheres leads to tremor in the trunk and head,
but lesion in the cerebellar hemispheres leads to tremor in the

a) oral structures c) lower extremities

b) head d) upper extremities

87. This region of the insula has a significant role to play in s·peech motor control

a) superior c) anterior
b) inferior d) posterior

88. This cluster of disorders cannot be categorized under 'Quick Hyperkinesias'

a) Dystonia, Ballism & Chorea c) Tics, Myoclonic jerks & Ballism

b) Myoclonic jerks, Tics & Chorea d) Tics, Myoclonic jerks & Tremor

11
89. For this oral reflex, the afferent pathway is through IXth nerve and the motor response
is through the IX th and Xhth nerve
a) Jaw jerk c) Snout reflex
b) Sucking reflex d) Gag reflex

90. Plasticity of function occurs more easily in the

a) pathological nervous system c) both a) & b)

b) immature nervous system d) none of the above

91. Condition in which substitution of morphologic elements and function words m

expressive speech is predominant is generally known as

a) agrammatism c) paragrammatism
b) neologism d) J argon

92. The primary risk factors for stroke widely known are

a) hereditary, obesity and alcoholism c) alcoholism, stress and obesity

b) cardiovascular disease, d) all the above
atherosclerosis and obesity

93. Criteria for differential diagnosis of aphasia by levels of function as proposed by

Kertesz (1979) are

a) comprehension, nammg and c) auditory comprehension, naming

repetition and writing
b) fluency, nonverbal ability and d) fluency, auditory comprehension
nammg and verbal repetition

94. A rating scale that evaluates eye opening, motor responses and verbal responses is

a) Glasgow Outcome Scale (GOS, c) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS,

1981) 1976)

b) Galveston Orientation and d) All of the above

Amnesia Test (GOAT, 1979)

95. According to Gardner, Denes, and Zurif (1975), persons with aphasia having anterior
lesions

a) encounter difficulty with c) do not recognize meanings of the

syntagmatic relationship of lexicons
lexicons
b) encounter difficulty with d) all of the above
paradigmatic relationship of
lexicons

12
96. Errors on the first part of Token Test by persons with language disorders are indicative
of

a) noise build-up c) capacity deficit

b) retention deficit d) slow rise time

97. The neuroimaging techniques that help to investigate the structures of brain are

a) SPECT & CAT c) CAT & MRI

b) PET & MRI d) MRI & SPECT

98. 'Sprechgesang' is a mode of presentation of stimuli followed in

a) PACE c) TUF
b) MIT d) SFA

99. If the fundamental frequency of a sound source is 1.5 kHz, the first harmonic would be

a) 150 Hz c) 3000 Hz
b) 1500 Hz d) 15000 Hz

100. Which of the following microphones is not a magnetic microphone?

a) Electret microphone c) Dynamic microphone

b) Ribbon microphone d) All of the above

1 'l
 ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF SPEECH AND HEARING
MANASAGANGOTHRI
MYSORE- 570 006

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2013

M.Sc. (SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY)

ANSWER KEYS

1 a 21 c 41 c 61 b 81 b

2 a 22 a 42 b 62 c 82 c

3 b 23 a 43 b 63 a 83 b

4 b 24 b 44 b 64 a 84 b

5 c 25 b 45 b 65 b 85 a

6 c 26 d 46 b 66 b 86 d

7 a 27 b 47 a 67 a 87 c

8 b 28 c 48 b 68 a 88 a

9 a 29 a 49 d 69 b 89 d

10 b 30 a 50 a 70 a 90 b

11 c 31 c 51 d 71 d 91 c

12 a 32 b 52 c 72 c 92 b

13 b 33 a 53 c 73 b 93 d

14 b 34 b 54 a 74 b 94 c

15 a 35 a 55 a 75 b 95 a

16 a 36 c 56 a 76 a 96 d

17 a 37 b 57 c 77 a 97 c

18 a 38 c 58 c 78 a 98 b

19 a 39 b 59 b 79 c 99 b

20 b 40 b 60 d 80 d 100 a